<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?>
<FEDREG xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:noNamespaceSchemaLocation="FRMergedXML.xsd">
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>123</NO>
    <DATE>Monday, June 29, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Contents</UNITNAME>
    <CNTNTS>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>
                Agriculture Financial
                <PRTPAGE P="iii"/>
            </EAR>
            <HD>Agriculture Department, Office of the Chief Financial Officer</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Build America Buy America Waiver Data Collection, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39057-39058</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13061</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Agriculture</EAR>
            <HD>Agriculture Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Agriculture Department, Office of the Chief Financial Officer</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Food and Nutrition Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Forest Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Office of Energy and Environmental Policy</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>39057</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13083</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Animal</EAR>
            <HD>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Importation of Swine Hides, Bird Trophies, and Deer Hides, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39058-39059</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13043</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Centers Disease</EAR>
            <HD>Centers for Disease Control and Prevention</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Charter Amendments, Establishments, Renewals and Terminations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Advisory Committee on Breast Cancer in Young Women, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39101</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13049</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Centers Medicare</EAR>
            <HD>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Medicaid Program:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Community Engagement Requirement for Certain Individuals, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39028-39031</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>C1-2026-11094</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Coast Guard</EAR>
            <HD>Coast Guard</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Safety Zone:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Annual Events in the Captain of the Port Detroit Zone, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39017</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13050</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Columbia River, Richland, WA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39011-39012</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13029</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Lower Mississippi River, Fireworks Display, Vidalia, LA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39016-39017</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13030</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Ouachita River, West Monroe, LA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39018-39019</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13028</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Potomac River, Woodbridge VA to DC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39013-39014</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13033</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Presque Isle Bay, Erie, PA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39014-39016</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13031</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Security Zone:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Potomac River, Tidal Basin and Adjacent Waters; Washington, DC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39012-39013</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13032</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Special Local Regulation:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Manistee River, Manistee, MI, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39010-39011</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13045</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Commerce</EAR>
            <HD>Commerce Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>International Trade Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Comptroller</EAR>
            <HD>Comptroller of the Currency</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Real Estate Lending Escrow Accounts, </DOC>
                    <PGS>38991</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>C1-2026-10036</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Council Environmental</EAR>
            <HD>Council on Environmental Quality</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Guidance; Withdrawal, </DOC>
                    <PGS>39086-39087</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13079</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Defense Department</EAR>
            <HD>Defense Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Navy Department</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Education Department</EAR>
            <HD>Education Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Foreign Gifts and Contracts Disclosures, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39088-39089</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13078</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Survey of Postgraduate Employment for the Foreign Language and Area Studies Fellowship Program, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39087-39088</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13094</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Energy Department</EAR>
            <HD>Energy Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Environmental Protection</EAR>
            <HD>Environmental Protection Agency</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Air Quality State Implementation Plans; Approvals and Promulgations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Ohio; Redesignation of the Cleveland, OH Area to Attainment of the 2015 Ozone Standard, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39019-39027</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13027</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Renewable Fuel Standard Program: Standards for 2023-2025 and Other Changes, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39095-39096</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13077</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Pesticide Product Registration:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Cancellation Order and/or Amendments to Terminate Uses; Correction, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39093-39095</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13051</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Requests to Voluntarily Cancel Certain Pesticide Registrations and/or Amend Registrations to Terminate Certain Uses with a 30-Day Comment Period (March 2026), </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39096-39099</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13066</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Aviation</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Aviation Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Airworthiness Directives:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Airbus Helicopters, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>38994-39002, 39005-39007</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13060</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13063</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13064</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Airbus SAS Airplanes, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39002-39005</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13062</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Pratt and Whitney Canada Corp. Engines, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>38991-38994</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13058</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Airworthiness Directives:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Airbus Canada Limited Partnership (Type Certificate Previously Held by C Series Aircraft Limited Partnership (CSALP); Bombardier, Inc.) Airplanes, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39037-39040</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13023</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Airbus Helicopters Deutschland GmbH (AHD) Helicopters, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39043-39046</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13034</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Airbus SAS Airplanes, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39040-39043</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13024</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Privacy International Civil Aviation Organization Address, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39161</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13035</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Deposit</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>39099-39100</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13115</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13116</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>
                Federal Energy
                <PRTPAGE P="iv"/>
            </EAR>
            <HD>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Combined Filings, </DOC>
                    <PGS>39090-39093</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13080</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13084</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Environmental Assessments; Availability, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Constitution Pipeline and Wright Interconnect Projects; Constitution Pipeline Co., LLC, Iroquois Gas Transmission System, L.P., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39091</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13088</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Northern Natural Gas Co., Central Mainline Corridor Expansion Project, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39089-39090</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13087</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>WBI Energy Transmission, Inc., Line Section 32 Expansion Project, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39089</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13086</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Reserve</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Reserve System</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Change in Bank Control:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Acquisitions of Shares of a Bank or Bank Holding Company, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39100-39101</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13067</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Fish</EAR>
            <HD>Fish and Wildlife Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Permits; Applications, Issuances, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Endangered and Threatened Species, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39117-39119</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13053</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Food and Drug</EAR>
            <HD>Food and Drug Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Medical Devices:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Orthopedic Devices; Classification of the Medial Knee Implanted Shock Absorber, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39007-39009</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13101</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Establishment Registration and Product Listing for Tobacco Products, </DOC>
                    <PGS>39168-39203</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13047</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>New Animal Drugs for Minor Use and Minor Species, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39104-39107</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13005</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Cellular, Tissue, and Gene Therapies Advisory Committee; Biologics License Application 125842 from Capricor, Inc. for Deramiocel (Human Allogeneic Cardiosphere-Derived Cells), </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39101-39103</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13096</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Patent Extension Regulatory Review Period:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Vyalev, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39103-39104</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13006</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Food and Nutrition</EAR>
            <HD>Food and Nutrition Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Disaster Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program Reporting and FNS-292A/FNS-292B Recordkeeping, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39064-39067</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-12998</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Privacy Act; Systems of Records, </DOC>
                    <PGS>39059-39064</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-12997</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-12999</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Foreign Assets</EAR>
            <HD>Foreign Assets Control Office</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Sanctions Action, </DOC>
                    <PGS>39162-39163</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13059</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Forest</EAR>
            <HD>Forest Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Expanding Public Lands Outdoor Recreation Experiences Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>39067-39068</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13095</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Health and Human</EAR>
            <HD>Health and Human Services Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Centers for Disease Control and Prevention</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Food and Drug Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Health Resources and Services Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Institutes of Health</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Health Resources</EAR>
            <HD>Health Resources and Services Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Rural Health Care Coordination Program Performance Improvement Measures, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39107-39108</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13065</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Homeland</EAR>
            <HD>Homeland Security Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Coast Guard</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Alien Registration Form and Evidence of Registration, </DOC>
                    <PGS>39248-39332</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13057</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Housing</EAR>
            <HD>Housing and Urban Development Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Economic Development Initiative Community Project Funding Grants, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39114-39116</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13085</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Ginnie Mae Digital Collateral Program, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39116-39117</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13089</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Privacy Act; Systems of Records, </DOC>
                    <PGS>39112-39114</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13042</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Interior</EAR>
            <HD>Interior Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Fish and Wildlife Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Environmental Assessments; Availability, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Deepwater Horizon Oil Spill Mississippi Trustee Implementation Group; Draft Restoration Plan 5 and Environmental Assessment; Nutrient Reduction and Birds, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39119-39120</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13044</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>International Trade Adm</EAR>
            <HD>International Trade Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Antidumping or Countervailing Duty Investigations, Orders, or Reviews:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Certain Frozen Fish Fillets from the Socialist Republic of Vietnam, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39070</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13037</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Commodity Matchbooks from India, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39068-39069</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13039</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Raw Honey from Brazil; Correction, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39070-39071</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13040</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Tin Mill Products from the People's Republic of China, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39068</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13038</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>International Trade Com</EAR>
            <HD>International Trade Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Antidumping or Countervailing Duty Investigations, Orders, or Reviews:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Choline Salts from China, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39120-39121</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-12996</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Justice Department</EAR>
            <HD>Justice Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Census of Tribal Court Systems, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39121-39122</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13056</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Proposed Consent Decree:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Clean Water Act, Toxic Substances Control Act, the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, and the West Virginia Pollution Control Act, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39122-39123</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13081</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Labor Department</EAR>
            <HD>Labor Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Pre-Implementation Planning Checklist Report for State Unemployment Insurance Information Technology Modernization Projects, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39123-39124</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13001</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Provider Enrollment Form, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39123</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13000</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Standard on 4,4′-Methylenedianiline for General Industry, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39124</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13002</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>
                National Institute
                <PRTPAGE P="v"/>
            </EAR>
            <HD>National Institutes of Health</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Center for Scientific Review, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39109-39112</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-12990</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13093</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Center for Scientific Review; Amendment, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39108</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-12992</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39112</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-12994</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Institute of Environmental Health Sciences, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39108-39109</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-12993</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Office of the Director, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39110</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13046</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Oceanic</EAR>
            <HD>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Endangered and Threatened Species:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>12-Month Finding and Proposed Rule to Revise Critical Habitat Designation for Southern California Steelhead, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39046-39054</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13076</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Fisheries off West Coast States:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Coastal Pelagic Species Fisheries; Annual Specifications; 2026-2027 Annual Specifications and Management Measures for Pacific Sardine, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39054-39056</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13054</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Approval Requirements for Vessel Monitoring Systems, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39085-39086</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13091</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Caribbean Fishery Management Council's Scientific and Statistical Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39078-39079</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-12987</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Fisheries of the Caribbean; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39083-39084</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13071</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Fisheries of the Gulf of America; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39077-39078</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13069</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Fisheries of the South Atlantic, Gulf and Caribbean; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39084-39085</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13068</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Fisheries of the South Atlantic, Gulf of America, and Caribbean; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39085</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13072</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Fisheries of the South Atlantic; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39077, 39079</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13070</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13074</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39071-39072</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-12988</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-12991</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>South Atlantic Fishery Management Council, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39079-39080</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-12984</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Taking or Importing of Marine Mammals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Geophysical Surveys Related to Oil and Gas Activities in the Gulf of America, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39072-39077, 39080-39083</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-12985</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-12986</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Turnagain Marine Construction's Douglas Island Cruise Ship Terminal near Juneau, AK, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39206-39245</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13055</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Navy</EAR>
            <HD>Navy Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>U.S. Naval Academy Board of Visitors, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39087</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13048</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Nuclear Regulatory</EAR>
            <HD>Nuclear Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Establishment of Atomic Safety and Licensing Board:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>NextEra Energy Duane Arnold, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39125</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13004</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Licenses; Exemptions, Applications, Amendments, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Constellation Energy Generation, LLC; R.E. Ginna Nuclear Power Plant; Subsequent Renewal, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39125</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13026</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Energy and Environmental</EAR>
            <HD>Office of Energy and Environmental Policy</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Technical Guidelines for the Production of Regenerative Agricultural Biofuel Feedstocks, </DOC>
                    <PGS>39334-39360</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13092</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Personnel</EAR>
            <HD>Personnel Management Office</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Administrative Leave for Workforce Realignment and Other Purposes, </DOC>
                    <PGS>39032-39037</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13073</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Postal Regulatory</EAR>
            <HD>Postal Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>New Postal Products, </DOC>
                    <PGS>39125-39126</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13052</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Securities</EAR>
            <HD>Securities and Exchange Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>39149-39150</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13090</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Joint Industry Plan:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Addressing Extraordinary Market Volatility to Add Texas Stock Exchange LLC as a Participant, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39142-39143</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13013</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>39154</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13082</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Proposed Rule Changes:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Cboe Exchange, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39128-39131, 39143-39145, 39152-39154</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13014</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13015</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13022</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Nasdaq GEMX, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39135-39137</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13019</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Nasdaq ISE LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39145-39147</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13021</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Nasdaq ISE, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39137-39140</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13007</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Nasdaq MRX, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39154-39156</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13020</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Nasdaq PHLX LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39131-39133</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13018</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Nasdaq Texas, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39133-39135</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13017</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>New York Stock Exchange LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39156-39158</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13008</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>NYSE American LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39158-39160</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13009</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>NYSE Arca, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39126-39128</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13010</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>NYSE National, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39147-39149</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13011</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>NYSE Texas, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39140-39142</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13012</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39150-39151</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13016</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>State Department</EAR>
            <HD>State Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Across Wine-Dark Seas: Art and Identity Beyond Ancient Greece, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39160</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13025</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Transportation Department</EAR>
            <HD>Transportation Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Aviation Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Beautifying Transportation Infrastructure Council, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39162</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13075</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Treasury</EAR>
            <HD>Treasury Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Comptroller of the Currency</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Foreign Assets Control Office</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Veteran Affairs</EAR>
            <HD>Veterans Affairs Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Copayment Exemption for Indian Veterans—Documentation of Indian or Urban Indian Status, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39164-39165</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13041</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Title 38 Health Care Positions—Trainee Application and Appraisal, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>39163-39164</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2026-13036</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <PTS>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Separate Parts In This Issue</HD>
            <HD>Part II</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Health and Human Services Department, Food and Drug Administration, </DOC>
                <PGS>39168-39203</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2026-13047</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part III</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Commerce Department, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, </DOC>
                <PGS>39206-39245</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2026-13055</FRDOCBP>
                <PRTPAGE P="vi"/>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part IV</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Homeland Security Department, </DOC>
                <PGS>39248-39332</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2026-13057</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part V</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Agriculture Department, Office of Energy and Environmental Policy, </DOC>
                <PGS>39334-39360</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2026-13092</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
        </PTS>
        <AIDS>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Reader Aids</HD>
            <P>Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.</P>
            <P>To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents electronic mailing list, go to https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USGPOOFR/subscriber/new, enter your e-mail address, then follow the instructions to join, leave, or manage your subscription.</P>
        </AIDS>
    </CNTNTS>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>123</NO>
    <DATE>Monday, June 29, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <RULES>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="38991"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of the Comptroller of the Currency</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>12 CFR Parts 34 and 160</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket ID OCC-2025-0736]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1557-AF46</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Real Estate Lending Escrow Accounts</SUBJECT>
                <P>In rule document 2026-10036 beginning on page 29340 in the issue of Tuesday, May 19, 2026, make the following correction:</P>
                <P>On page 29340, in the first column, the heading should read as set forth above.</P>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. C1-2026-10036 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 0099-10-D</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2026-4665; Project Identifier MCAI-2026-00553-E; Amendment 39-23391; AD 2026-13-09]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Pratt &amp; Whitney Canada Corp. Engines</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Pratt &amp; Whitney Canada Corp. (P&amp;WC) Model PW210A, PW210A1, and PW210S engines. This AD was prompted by reports of circumferential cracks found at the turbine exhaust frame external surface caused by thermal stress from engine starts. This AD requires repetitive visual inspections of the turbine exhaust frame for cracks and, depending on the results of the inspections, replacement of the turbine exhaust frame. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This AD is effective July 14, 2026. The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of July 14, 2026. The FAA must receive comments on this AD by August 13, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2026-4665; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this final rule, the mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI), any comments received, and other information. The street address for Docket Operations is listed above.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For Transport Canada material identified in this AD, contact Transport Canada, Transport Canada National Aircraft Certification, 159 Cleopatra Drive, Nepean, Ontario, K1A 0N5, Canada; phone: (888) 663-3639; email: 
                        <E T="03">tc.airworthinessdirectives-consignesdenavigabilite.tc@tc.gc.ca.</E>
                         You may find the Transport Canada material on the Transport Canada website at 
                        <E T="03">tc.canada.ca/en/aviation.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110. It is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2026-4665.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Barbara Caufield, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: (781) 238-7146; email: 
                        <E T="03">barbara.caufield@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA invites you to send any written data, views, or arguments about this final rule. Send your comments using a method listed under the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section. Include “Docket No. FAA-2026-4665; Project Identifier MCAI-2026-00553-E” at the beginning of your comments. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the final rule, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. The FAA will consider all comments received by the closing date and may amend this final rule because of those comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                    , including any personal information you provide. The agency will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact received about this final rule.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Confidential Business Information</HD>
                <P>
                    CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this AD contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this AD, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this AD. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Barbara Caufield, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198. Any commentary that the FAA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.
                    <PRTPAGE P="38992"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>Transport Canada, which is the aviation authority for Canada, has issued Transport Canada AD CF-2026-23, dated May 29, 2026 (Transport Canada AD CF-2026-23) (also referred to as the MCAI), to correct an unsafe condition on P&amp;WC Model PW210A, PW210A1, and PW210S engines. The MCAI states that operators reported circumferential cracks at the turbine exhaust frame external surface. A manufacturer investigation revealed that the cracks originated from a turbine exhaust frame wall found below the minimum required thickness, with subsequent crack initiation and growth caused by thermal stress from engine starts. To address this unsafe condition, the manufacturer published service material that specifies procedures for repetitive visual inspections of the turbine exhaust frame. This condition, if not addressed, could result in turbine exhaust frame failure, which could lead to loss of axial containment, release of parts, and damage to the helicopter.</P>
                <P>
                    You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2026-4665.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA reviewed Transport Canada AD CF-2026-23, which specifies procedures for repetitive visual inspections of the turbine exhaust frame for cracks and replacement of the turbine exhaust frame. This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination</HD>
                <P>These products have been approved by the civil aviation authority (CAA) of another country and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, that authority has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA is issuing this AD after determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">AD Requirements</HD>
                <P>This AD requires accomplishing the actions specified in Transport Canada AD CF-2026-23, described previously, as incorporated by reference, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this AD.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Interim Action</HD>
                <P>The FAA considers this AD to be an interim action. If final action is later identified, the FAA might consider further rulemaking.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Explanation of Required Compliance Information</HD>
                <P>
                    In the FAA's ongoing efforts to improve the efficiency of the AD process, the FAA developed a process to use some CAA ADs as the primary source of information for compliance with requirements for corresponding FAA ADs. The FAA has been coordinating this process with manufacturers and CAAs. As a result, Transport Canada AD CF-2026-23 is incorporated by reference in this AD. This AD requires compliance with Transport Canada AD CF-2026-23 in its entirety through that incorporation, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this AD. Material required by Transport Canada AD CF-2026-23 for compliance will be available at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2026-4665 after this AD is published.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Justification for Immediate Adoption and Determination of the Effective Date</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 553(b) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 551 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) authorizes agencies to dispense with notice and comment procedures for rules when the agency, for “good cause,” finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” Under this section, an agency, upon finding good cause, may issue a final rule without providing notice and seeking comment prior to issuance. Further, section 553(d) of the APA authorizes agencies to make rules effective in less than thirty days, upon a finding of good cause.
                </P>
                <P>An unsafe condition exists that requires the immediate adoption of this AD without providing an opportunity for public comments prior to adoption. The FAA has found that the risk to the flying public justifies forgoing notice and comment prior to adoption of this rule because multiple circumferential cracks at the turbine exhaust frame external surface have been reported, and investigation revealed that the cracking was associated with thermal stress linked to engine starts. Crack propagation of the turbine exhaust frame could result in turbine exhaust frame failure, which could lead to loss of axial containment, release of parts, and damage to the helicopter. At this time, the growth rate of the turbine exhaust frame cracking has not been determined. For these reasons, on certain helicopters, the initial actions required by this AD must be accomplished within 5 hours time-in-service or 20 engine starts after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs first. The compliance time in this AD is shorter than the time necessary for the public to comment and for publication of the final rule. Accordingly, notice and opportunity for prior public comment are impracticable and contrary to the public interest pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b).</P>
                <P>In addition, the FAA finds that good cause exists pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d) for making this amendment effective in less than 30 days, for the same reasons the FAA found good cause to forgo notice and comment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>The requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) do not apply when an agency finds good cause pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553 to adopt a rule without prior notice and comment. Because the FAA has determined that it has good cause to adopt this rule without prior notice and comment, RFA analysis is not required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates that this AD affects 48 engines of U.S. registry.</P>
                <P>The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:</P>
                <P/>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,10,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Parts
                            <LI>cost</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost on U.S.
                            <LI>operators</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Visual inspection of turbine exhaust frame</ENT>
                        <ENT>.50 work-hours × $85 per hour = $85</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$42.50</ENT>
                        <ENT>$2,040</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="38993"/>
                <P>The FAA estimates the following costs to do any necessary replacements that would be required based on the results of the inspection. The agency has no way of determining the number of engines that might need these replacements:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,r100,10,12">
                    <TTITLE>On-Condition Costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Parts
                            <LI>cost</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Replacement of turbine exhaust frame</ENT>
                        <ENT>9 work-hours × $85 per hour = $765</ENT>
                        <ENT>$125,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>$125,765</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866, and</P>
                <P>(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            <E T="04">2026-13-09 Pratt &amp; Whitney Canada Corp.:</E>
                             Amendment 39-23391; Docket No. FAA-2026-4665; Project Identifier MCAI-2026-00553-E.
                        </FP>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Effective Date</HD>
                        <P>This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective July 14, 2026.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                        <P>None.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                        <P>This AD applies to all Pratt &amp; Whitney Canada Corp. (P&amp;WC) Model PW210A, PW210A1, and PW210S engines.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                        <P>Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC) Code 7250, Turbine Section.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                        <P>This AD was prompted by reports of circumferential cracks found at the turbine exhaust frame external surface caused by thermal stress from engine starts. The FAA is issuing this AD to prevent failure of the turbine exhaust frame. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in turbine exhaust frame failure, which could lead to loss of axial containment, release of parts, and damage to the helicopter.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                        <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Definition</HD>
                        <P>For the purpose of this AD, an “engine start” includes the start of an engine for any reason, even if it is not followed by a flight.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Required Actions</HD>
                        <P>Except as specified in paragraphs (i) and (j) of this AD: Perform all required actions within the compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, Transport Canada AD CF-2026-23, dated May 29, 2026 (Transport Canada AD CF-2026-23).</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) Exceptions to Transport Canada AD CF-2026-23</HD>
                        <P>(1) Where Transport Canada AD CF-2026-23 refers to its effective date, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                        <P>(2) Where Transport Canada AD CF-2026-23 requires compliance in terms of hours air time, this AD requires using hours time-in-service.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) No Reporting Requirement</HD>
                        <P>Although the service material referenced in Transport Canada AD CF-2026-23 specifies to submit certain information to the manufacturer, this AD does not include that requirement.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)</HD>
                        <P>
                            The Manager, AIR-520 Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the AIR-520 Continued Operational Safety Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (l) of this AD and email to 
                            <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov.</E>
                             Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(l) Additional Information</HD>
                        <P>
                            For more information about this AD, contact Barbara Caufield, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: (781) 238-7146; email: 
                            <E T="03">barbara.caufield@faa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(m) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                        <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                        <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                        <P>(i) Transport Canada AD CF-2026-23, dated May 29, 2026.</P>
                        <P>(ii) [Reserved].</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) For Transport Canada material identified in this AD, contact Transport Canada, Transport Canada National Aircraft Certification, 159 Cleopatra Drive, Nepean, Ontario, K1A 0N5, Canada; phone: (888) 663-3639; email: 
                            <E T="03">tc.airworthinessdirectives-consignesdenavigabilite.tc@tc.gc.ca.</E>
                             You may find the Transport Canada material on the 
                            <PRTPAGE P="38994"/>
                            Transport Canada website at 
                            <E T="03">tc.canada.ca/en/aviation.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                            <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                             or email 
                            <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lona C. Saccomando,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Integrated Certificate Management Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13058 Filed 6-25-26; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2025-5026; Project Identifier MCAI-2024-00168-R; Amendment 39-23382; AD 2026-12-12]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Helicopters</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Airbus Helicopters Model H160-B helicopters. This AD was prompted by a discovery during a maintenance operation that several self-locking nuts of the window jettisoning system could be loosened by hand due to a non-conformity in certain cable kits. This AD requires modifying each affected window into a serviceable window. This AD also prohibits installing an affected window or an affected door on any helicopter. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This AD is effective August 3, 2026.</P>
                    <P>The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of August 3, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2025-5026; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this final rule, the mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI), any comments received, and other information. The address for Docket Operations is U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; phone: +49 221 8999 000; email: 
                        <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu;</E>
                         website: 
                        <E T="03">easa.europa.eu.</E>
                         You may find the EASA material on the EASA website at 
                        <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110. It is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2025-5026.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Eric Rivera, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: (773) 412-9048; email: 
                        <E T="03">eric.rivera01@faa.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to all Airbus Helicopters Model H160-B helicopters. The NPRM was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on November 20, 2025 (90 FR 52264). The NPRM was prompted by EASA AD 2024-0063, dated March 7, 2024 (EASA AD 2024-0063) (also referred to as the MCAI), issued by EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union. The MCAI states that during a maintenance operation, several self-locking nuts of the window jettisoning system could be loosened by hand. The MCAI further states that the function of these nuts is to hold the threaded axis and the associated cable tightly together, as part of the passenger window jettisoning system. The MCAI also states that certain cable kits which are part of the window jettisoning system may not be in conformance with applicable specifications.
                </P>
                <P>In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to require modifying each affected window into a serviceable window. The NPRM also proposed to prohibit installing an affected window or an affected door on any helicopter. The FAA is issuing this AD to prevent failure of the jettisoning function of the window which, if not addressed, could result in the inability to evacuate helicopter occupants during an emergency situation.</P>
                <P>
                    You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at
                    <E T="03"> regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2025-5026.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion of Final Airworthiness Directive</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments</HD>
                <P>The FAA received comments from the Citizens Rulemaking Alliance. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Justify Forgoing Notice and Comment or Issue an NPRM</HD>
                <P>The Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requested that the FAA either provide its justification for finding good cause to bypass notice and comment procedures, convert this action to an NPRM, or at a minimum reopen the comment period to allow comments. The commenter asserted the FAA has not adequately justified use of the good cause exemption to bypass notice and comment and the 30-day delayed effective date.</P>
                <P>
                    The FAA notes the comment was submitted in response to an NPRM for which the FAA provided a 45-day comment period. This final rule is effective 35 days after its publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Therefore, no change to this AD is necessary.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Consider Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requested the FAA to either supplement the docket with a factual basis that complies with the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) or withdraw the certification and conduct an initial regulatory flexibility analysis. The commenter stated that the analysis should consider the costs related to parts, labor, aircraft downtime, and the impact on small entities, and should involve reopening the comment period. Furthermore, the commenter asked the FAA to explore less burdensome options for small operators, such as implementing phased inspection intervals, extending compliance periods, granting credit for previous actions, and providing alternative methods of compliance (AMOC) templates.</P>
                <P>The FAA has considered the AD's impact on small entities and provides the following factual basis for its RFA certification.</P>
                <P>
                    The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, Public Law 96-354, 94 Stat. 1164 (5 U.S.C. 601-612), as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement 
                    <PRTPAGE P="38995"/>
                    Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121, 110 Stat. 857, Mar. 29, 1996) and the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-240, 124 Stat. 2504, Sept. 27, 2010), requires Federal agencies to consider the effects of the regulatory action on small business and other small entities and to minimize any significant economic impact. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses and not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000.
                </P>
                <P>The FAA identified two domestic entities, one pharmaceutical preparation manufacturer and one nonscheduled air transportation operator, that will be affected by this AD. Based on the Small Business Administration (SBA) size standard (displayed in the following table), both entities are large businesses.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s30,r100,r50">
                    <TTITLE>
                        Small Business Size Standards 
                        <SU>1</SU>
                    </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            NAICS 
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             code
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Description</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Size standard</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">325412</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pharmaceutical Preparation Manufacturing</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,300 employees.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">481219</ENT>
                        <ENT>Other Nonscheduled Air Transportation</ENT>
                        <ENT>$25.0 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Sources: 
                        <E T="03">sba.gov:</E>
                         Table of Small Business Size Standards. Dun &amp; Bradstreet; D&amp;B Hoovers; Retrieved May 15, 2026; 
                        <E T="03">app.hoovers.dnb.com.</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         NAICS = North American Industrial Classification System.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>If an agency determines that a rulemaking action will not result in a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, the head of the agency may certify under section 605(b) of the RFA. Therefore, as provided in section 605(b) and based on the RFA, the head of the FAA certifies that this AD will not result in a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Therefore, the FAA did not change this AD as a result of this comment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Comply With the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA)</HD>
                <P>The Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requested that the FAA clarify whether the AD contains any reporting requirements and revise the AD to comply with the PRA if reporting is required or suspend any reporting provisions until PRA requirements are satisfied.</P>
                <P>The FAA notes that paragraph (i) of this AD specifies that this AD does not require reporting. If an AD were to require reporting, the preamble of the AD would include a paragraph titled “Paperwork Reduction Act” that would provide the applicable OMB control number, required PRA statements, and the estimated time to collect the required information (burden). Any costs associated with the reporting requirement would be included in the Costs of Compliance section in the preamble of the AD. Therefore, the FAA did not change this AD as a result of this comment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Make Incorporation by Reference (IBR) Materials Reasonably Available</HD>
                <P>The Citizens Rulemaking Alliance stated that the FAA's current practices for IBR frequently fail to meet the legal and regulatory standards for reasonable availability. The commenter called on the FAA to guarantee that all IBR materials are easily and freely accessible to the public during the comment period and to reopen the comment period for at least 30 days after access is provided. Alternatively, the commenter requested that the FAA provide a detailed appendix summarizing all substantive requirements provided in the IBR material.</P>
                <P>
                    The FAA clarifies that this AD only incorporates by reference EASA AD 2024-0063, not the manufacturer service information referenced in that EASA AD. The FAA posted EASA AD 2024-0063 to the AD docket when the NPRM was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     making it available during the comment period. The material referenced in EASA AD 2024-0063 may only be posted before the final rule's publication if it is already publicly available or if there is written consent from the owner of that material. Additionally, the FAA provided notice in the NPRM that the material referenced in EASA AD 2024-0063 will be available in the AD docket after this AD is published. Therefore, the FAA did not change this AD as a result of this comment.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Provide Additional Cost Information</HD>
                <P>The Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requested that the FAA add to the AD docket a fuller analysis of the estimated costs of the proposed AD and reopen the comment period for public input on the additional cost information, especially from small operators.</P>
                <P>The FAA recognizes that, in doing the actions required by an AD, operators might incur indirect or incidental costs in addition to the direct costs. The cost analysis in an AD typically describes only the direct costs of the specific actions required by an AD, which does not include indirect or incidental costs such as downtime, loss of revenue, planning, or time necessitated by other administrative actions since those costs might vary significantly among operators. The number of work hours necessary to do the required actions of an AD is provided by the manufacturer. This number represents the time necessary to perform only the actions actually required by an AD. The cost of parts or special tools, if necessary, to complete the actions required by an AD is also provided by the manufacturer. Further, when the FAA is informed that the manufacturer may cover some or all of the estimated costs of an AD under warranty, the FAA indicates that in the AD.</P>
                <P>In the Costs of Compliance section of the proposed AD, the FAA disclosed the estimated number of work hours, the number of helicopters affected on the U.S. registry (which has been updated in this final rule), estimated parts cost, and the aggregate costs for the U.S. fleet. Since the FAA has assessed and disclosed the total known costs of the AD requirements in the Costs of Compliance section of the proposed AD, and the commenter did not provide additional cost data for the FAA to consider in its cost analysis, it is not necessary to reopen the comment period or provide additional information in the AD docket.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
                <P>
                    These products have been approved by the civil aviation authority of another country and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, that authority has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA reviewed the relevant data, considered any comments received, and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe 
                    <PRTPAGE P="38996"/>
                    condition on these products. Except for minor editorial changes, a correction to the revision level of Vision Systems Vendor Service Bulletin No. 02-050-015 from Revision 10 to Revision 0 and any other changes described previously, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA reviewed EASA AD 2024-0063, which specifies procedures for replacing each affected passenger window with a serviceable window or modifying an affected window into a serviceable window, which consists of removing and installing a certain part-numbered cable kit. EASA AD 2024-0063 also prohibits installing an affected window or an affected door on any helicopter. This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates that this AD affects 10 helicopters of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,10,10,12">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Labor cost 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per 
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost on U.S. 
                            <LI>operators</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Modify windows (4 per helicopter)</ENT>
                        <ENT>13 work-hours × $85 per hour = $1,105</ENT>
                        <ENT>$3,132</ENT>
                        <ENT>$4,237</ENT>
                        <ENT>$42,370</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         The FAA estimated operators will incur $85 in costs per labor hour, which is the weighted average fiscal year (FY) 2026 fully loaded wage of an aircraft mechanic ($69.85) working 60% of the labor hours and a general and operations manager ($108.15) working 40% of the labor hours. The FAA estimated these wages by taking the average of the FY 2024 Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) air transportation industry average wage for aircraft mechanics and general and operations managers (See: Occupational Employment and Wage Statistics Query System, BLS (May 2024), 
                        <E T="03">data.bls.gov/oes/</E>
                        ); multiplying each wage by a fringe benefit factor of 1.42 (See: Employer Cost for Employee Compensation—December 2024, BLS (2024), 
                        <E T="03">bls.gov/news.release/archives/ecec_03142025.pdf</E>
                        ); and adjusting these 2024 wages to 2026 dollars using an implicit Gross Domestic Product (GDP) Price Deflator of 2.8% (See: Gross Domestic Product: Implicit Price Deflator, FRED (2026) 
                        <E T="03">fred.stlouisfed.org/series/GDPDEF</E>
                        ).
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The FAA has included all known costs in its cost estimate. According to the manufacturer, however, some of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected operators.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
                <P>(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and</P>
                <P>(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            <E T="04">2026-12-12 Airbus Helicopters:</E>
                             Amendment 39-23382; Docket No. FAA-2025-5026; Project Identifier MCAI-2024-00168-R.
                        </FP>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Effective Date</HD>
                        <P>This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective August 3, 2026.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                        <P>None.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                        <P>This AD applies to all Airbus Helicopters Model H160-B helicopters, certificated in any category.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                        <P>Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC) Code 5630, Door windows.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                        <P>This AD was prompted by a discovery during a maintenance operation that several self-locking nuts of the window jettisoning system could be loosened by hand due to a non-conformity in certain cable kits. The FAA is issuing this AD to prevent failure of the jettisoning function of the window. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in the inability to evacuate helicopter occupants during an emergency situation.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                        <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Requirements</HD>
                        <P>Except as specified in paragraphs (h) and (i) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, European Union Aviation Safety Agency AD 2024-0063, dated March 7, 2024 (EASA AD 2024-0063).</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Exceptions to EASA AD 2024-0063</HD>
                        <P>(1) Where EASA AD 2024-0063 refers to its effective date, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                        <P>(2) Where EASA AD 2024-0063 requires compliance in terms of flight hours, this AD requires using hours time-in-service.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) Where EASA AD 2024-0063 defines “affected passenger window”, and refers to “a Part Number as listed in the ASB and a 
                            <PRTPAGE P="38997"/>
                            s/n as listed in the vendor SB”, this AD requires replacing that text with “a part number identified in the Component Affected section of Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin ASB H160-52-20-0001, Issue 001, dated January 25, 2024; and a serial number identified in the Appendix: Applicable serial number, of Vision Systems Vendor Service Bulletin No. 02-050-015, Revision 0, dated January 24, 2024, as applicable”.
                        </P>
                        <P>(4) Where EASA AD 2024-0063 specifies “replace each affected passenger window with a serviceable window”, this AD requires replacing that text with “modify each affected passenger window into a serviceable window”.</P>
                        <P>(5) Where the material referenced in EASA AD 2024-0063 specifies “check”, this AD requires replacing that text with “inspect”.</P>
                        <P>(6) Where the material referenced in EASA AD 2024-0063 specifies “throw away”, this AD requires replacing that text with “remove from service”.</P>
                        <P>(7) Where the material referenced in EASA AD 2024-0063 specifies “respect the screwing order”, this AD requires replacing that text with “follow the screwing order”.</P>
                        <P>(8) Where the material referenced in EASA AD 2024-0063 specifies “screw the nuts”, this AD requires replacing that text with “secure the nuts into place”.</P>
                        <P>(9) Where the material referenced in EASA AD 2024-0063 specifies “fine tuning the pull-up cables in locked position (finger)”, this AD requires replacing that text with “put the pull-up cables into the locked position and make small adjustments to the nuts to ensure cable tension and prevent twisting, coiling, or crossing of cables”.</P>
                        <P>(10) This AD does not adopt the “Remarks” section of EASA AD 2024-0063.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) No Reporting Requirement</HD>
                        <P>Although the material referenced in EASA AD 2024-0063 specifies to submit certain information to the manufacturer, this AD does not require that action.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Special Flight Permits</HD>
                        <P>Special flight permits may be issued in accordance with 14 CFR 21.197 and 21.199, provided there are no flights over water.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)</HD>
                        <P>
                            (1) The Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the International Validation Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (l) of this AD and email to: 
                            <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(l) Additional Information</HD>
                        <P>
                            For more information about this AD, contact Eric Rivera, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: (773) 412-9048; email: 
                            <E T="03">eric.rivera01@faa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(m) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                        <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                        <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                        <P>(i) European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2024-0063, dated March 7, 2024.</P>
                        <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) For EASA material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; phone: +49 221 8999 000; email: 
                            <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu;</E>
                             website: 
                            <E T="03">easa.europa.eu.</E>
                             You may find the EASA material on the EASA website at 
                            <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                            <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                             or email 
                            <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on June 12, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Steven W. Thompson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Compliance &amp; Airworthiness Division,Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13064 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2025-3999; Project Identifier MCAI-2025-00176-R; Amendment 39-23380; AD 2026-12-10]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Helicopters</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Airbus Helicopters Model AS350B, AS350BA, AS350B1, AS350B2, AS350B3, and AS350D helicopters. This AD was prompted by a report of non-conformity of a certain cargo hook. This AD requires inspecting the gap between the filler and the side plates of the affected cargo hook and, depending on the results, replacing the cargo hook. This AD also prohibits installing an affected cargo hook on any helicopter. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This AD is effective August 3, 2026.</P>
                    <P>The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of August 3, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2025-3999; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this final rule, the mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI), any comments received, and other information. The address for Docket Operations is U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-91, West Building Fifth Floor, Room W58-213, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; phone: +49 221 8999 000; email: 
                        <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu;</E>
                         website: 
                        <E T="03">easa.europa.eu.</E>
                         You may find this material on the EASA website at 
                        <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110. It is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2025-3999.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Yves Petiote, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: (202) 975-4867; email: 
                        <E T="03">yves.petiote@faa.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to Airbus Helicopters Model AS-350B, AS 350BA, AS 350B1, AS 350B2, AS 350B3, and AS-350D helicopters. The NPRM was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on November 18, 2025 (90 FR 51620). The NPRM was prompted by EASA AD 2025-0036, dated February 12, 2025 (EASA AD 2025-0036) (also referred to as the MCAI), issued by EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union. The MCAI states that a non-conformity issue concerning 
                    <PRTPAGE P="38998"/>
                    the gap between the filler and the side plates on the cargo hook of a helicopter was reported. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in loosening of the cargo hook, loss of the load, and consequent injury to people on the ground.
                </P>
                <P>In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to require procedures for inspecting certain cargo hooks to measure the gap between the filler and the front and rear side plate assemblies and, depending on the results, replacing the cargo hook with a cargo hook that is not affected. In the NPRM, the FAA also proposed to prohibit installing an affected cargo hook on any helicopter. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                <P>
                    You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2025-3999.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion of Final Airworthiness Directive</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments</HD>
                <P>The FAA received comments from the Citizens Rulemaking Alliance. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Justify Forgoing Notice and Comment or Issue an NPRM</HD>
                <P>The commenter asserted that the FAA bypassed notice and comment and requested that the FAA convert this action to an NPRM or provide at a minimum a 60-day delayed effective date to allow the FAA to evaluate comments. The commenter asserted the FAA has not adequately justified use of the good cause exception to bypass notice and comment and the 30-day delayed effective date.</P>
                <P>
                    The FAA notes the comment was submitted in response to an NPRM for which the FAA provided a 45-day comment period. This final rule is effective 35 days after its publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Therefore, no change to this AD is necessary.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Make Incorporation by Reference (IBR) Materials Reasonably Available</HD>
                <P>The Citizens Rulemaking Alliance stated that the FAA's current practices for IBR frequently fail to meet the legal and regulatory standards for reasonable availability. The commenter called on the FAA to guarantee that all IBR materials are freely and electronically accessible to the public and to condition future IBR approval in rotorcraft ADs on original equipment manufacturer commitment to free public access during the life of the AD.</P>
                <P>
                    The FAA clarifies that this AD only incorporates by reference EASA AD 2025-0036, not the manufacturer service information referenced in that EASA AD. The FAA posted EASA AD 2025-0036 to the AD docket when the NPRM was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . The material referenced in EASA AD 2025-0036 may only be posted before the final rule's publication if it is already publicly available or if there is written consent from the owner of that material. Additionally, the FAA provided notice in the NPRM that the material referenced in EASA AD 2025-0036 will be available in the AD docket after this AD is published. Therefore, the FAA did not change this AD as a result of this comment.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Provide Additional Cost Information and Consider Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The Citizens Rulemaking Alliance requested that the FAA add to the AD docket an explicit statement supporting its conclusion that the AD is not significant under Executive Order 12866 and the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA). The commenter stated that the FAA should also provide the parts cost and any assumed downtime or out-of-service impacts. The commenter also requested that the FAA invite small-entity feedback on practical compliance alternatives.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">No Additional Cost Impacts</HD>
                <P>In the Costs of Compliance section of the proposed AD, the FAA disclosed the number of affected helicopters on the U.S. registry, the estimated work hours, and the estimated cost of parts. The labor and parts estimates were provided by the manufacturer. Additionally, the FAA considered the impact that this AD will have on affected operators and determined this AD will not trigger any downtime costs because the requirements of this AD can be performed during regularly scheduled maintenance. Since the FAA assessed and disclosed the total known costs of the AD requirements in the Costs of Compliance section of the proposed AD, and the commenter did not provide additional cost data for the FAA to consider in its cost analysis, it is not necessary to provide additional information in the AD docket.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Small Entities to Which This AD Applies</HD>
                <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) of 1980, Public Law 96-354, 94 Stat. 1164 (5 U.S.C. 601-612), as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121, 110 Stat. 857, Mar. 29, 1996) and the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-240, 124 Stat. 2504, Sept. 27, 2010), requires Federal agencies to consider the effects of the regulatory action on small business and other small entities and to minimize any significant economic impact. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses and not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000.</P>
                <P>The FAA used the definition of small entities in the RFA for this analysis. The RFA defines small entities as small businesses, small governmental jurisdictions, or small organizations. In 5 U.S.C. 601(3), the RFA defines “small business” to have the same meaning as “small business concern” under section 3 of the Small Business Act. The Small Business Act authorizes the Small Business Administration (SBA) to define “small business” by issuing regulations.</P>
                <P>The SBA (2023) has established size standards for various types of economic activities, or industries, under the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS). These size standards generally define small businesses based on the number of employees or annual receipts. The following table provides the SBA size standards for all industries with at least one entity impacted by this AD. Note that the SBA definition of a small business applies to the parent company and all affiliates as a single entity.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="xs50,r100,r35">
                    <TTITLE>Small Business Size Standards</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            NAICS
                            <LI>code</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Description</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Size standard</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">111199</ENT>
                        <ENT>All Other Grain Farming</ENT>
                        <ENT>$2.25 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">112111</ENT>
                        <ENT>Beef Cattle Ranching and Farming</ENT>
                        <ENT>$2.5 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">221122</ENT>
                        <ENT>Electric Power Distribution</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,100 employees.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">236220</ENT>
                        <ENT>Commercial and Institutional Building Construction</ENT>
                        <ENT>$45.0 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="38999"/>
                        <ENT I="01">237110</ENT>
                        <ENT>Water and Sewer Line and Related Structures Construction</ENT>
                        <ENT>$45.0 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">327320</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ready-Mix Concrete Manufacturing</ENT>
                        <ENT>500 employees.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">334511</ENT>
                        <ENT>Search, Detection, Navigation, Guidance, Aeronautical, and Nautical System and Instrument Manufacturing</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,350 employees.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">336411</ENT>
                        <ENT>Aircraft Manufacturing</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500 employees.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">336413</ENT>
                        <ENT>Other Aircraft Part and Auxiliary Equipment Manufacturing</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,250 employees.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">423860</ENT>
                        <ENT>Transportation Equipment and Supplies Merchant Wholesalers</ENT>
                        <ENT>175 employees.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">441210</ENT>
                        <ENT>Recreational Vehicle Dealers</ENT>
                        <ENT>$40.0 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">441227</ENT>
                        <ENT>Motorcycle, ATV, and All Other Motor Vehicle Dealers</ENT>
                        <ENT>$40.0 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">481111</ENT>
                        <ENT>Scheduled Passenger Air Transportation</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500 employees.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">481211</ENT>
                        <ENT>Nonscheduled Chartered Passenger Air Transportation</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500 employees.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">481212</ENT>
                        <ENT>Nonscheduled Chartered Freight Air Transportation</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500 employees.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">481219</ENT>
                        <ENT>Other Nonscheduled Air Transportation</ENT>
                        <ENT>$25.0 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">484110</ENT>
                        <ENT>General Freight Trucking, Local</ENT>
                        <ENT>$34.0 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">486110</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pipeline Transportation of Crude Oil</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500 employees.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">486210</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pipeline Transportation of Natural Gas</ENT>
                        <ENT>$41.5 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">487990</ENT>
                        <ENT>Scenic and Sightseeing Transportation, Other</ENT>
                        <ENT>$25.0 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">488119</ENT>
                        <ENT>Other Airport Operations</ENT>
                        <ENT>$40.0 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">488190</ENT>
                        <ENT>Other Support Activities for Air Transportation</ENT>
                        <ENT>$40.0 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">512110</ENT>
                        <ENT>Motion Picture and Video Production</ENT>
                        <ENT>$40.0 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">516120</ENT>
                        <ENT>Television Broadcasting Stations</ENT>
                        <ENT>$47.0 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">517111</ENT>
                        <ENT>Wired Telecommunications Carriers</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500 employees.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">531390</ENT>
                        <ENT>Other Activities Related to Real Estate</ENT>
                        <ENT>$19.5 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">532411</ENT>
                        <ENT>Commercial Air, Rail, and Water Transportation Equipment Rental and Leasing</ENT>
                        <ENT>$45.5 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">532490</ENT>
                        <ENT>Other Commercial and Industrial Machinery and Equipment Rental and Leasing</ENT>
                        <ENT>$40.0 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">541360</ENT>
                        <ENT>Geophysical Surveying and Mapping Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>$28.5 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">541370</ENT>
                        <ENT>Surveying and Mapping (except Geophysical) Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>$19.0 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">541512</ENT>
                        <ENT>Computer Systems Design Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>$34.0 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">541611</ENT>
                        <ENT>Administrative Management and General Management Consulting Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>$24.5 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">551112</ENT>
                        <ENT>Offices of Other Holding Companies</ENT>
                        <ENT>$45.5 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">561710</ENT>
                        <ENT>Exterminating and Pest Control Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>$17.5 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">611512</ENT>
                        <ENT>Flight Training</ENT>
                        <ENT>$34.0 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">621910</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ambulance Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>$22.5 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">N/A</ENT>
                        <ENT>Public Administration—Federal, state, and local government agencies which administer and oversee government programs and activities that are not performed by private establishments</ENT>
                        <ENT>Population fewer than 50,000.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    To identify small entities, the FAA first identified the primary NAICS of the entity or parent company, and then used data from different sources (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     company annual reports, Bureau of Transportation Statistics) to determine whether the entity meets the applicable size standard. The table below provides the estimated number of small entities affected by this AD:
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Number of Small Entities</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Description</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>
                                entities 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number
                            <LI>of small</LI>
                            <LI>entities</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Percent
                            <LI>small</LI>
                            <LI>entities</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">All Other Grain Farming</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Beef Cattle Ranching and Farming</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Electric Power Distribution</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Commercial and Institutional Building Construction</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Water and Sewer Line and Related Structures Construction</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ready-Mix Concrete Manufacturing</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Search, Detection, Navigation, Guidance, Aeronautical, and Nautical System and Instrument Manufacturing</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Aircraft Manufacturing</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Other Aircraft Part and Auxiliary Equipment Manufacturing</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Transportation Equipment and Supplies Merchant Wholesalers</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Motorcycle, ATV, and All Other Motor Vehicle Dealers</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Other Gasoline Stations</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Scheduled Passenger Air Transportation</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Nonscheduled Chartered Passenger Air Transportation</ENT>
                        <ENT>102</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                        <ENT>83</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Nonscheduled Chartered Freight Air Transportation</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Other Nonscheduled Air Transportation</ENT>
                        <ENT>6</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>83</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">General Freight Trucking, Local</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Pipeline Transportation of Crude Oil</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Pipeline Transportation of Natural Gas</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Scenic and Sightseeing Transportation, Other</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                        <ENT>12</ENT>
                        <ENT>80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="39000"/>
                        <ENT I="01">Other Airport Operations</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Other Support Activities for Air Transportation</ENT>
                        <ENT>7</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>71</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Motion Picture and Video Production</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Other Activities Related to Real Estate</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Commercial Air, Rail, and Water Transportation Equipment Rental and Leasing</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                        <ENT>19</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Other Commercial and Industrial Machinery and Equipment Rental and Leasing</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Geophysical Surveying and Mapping Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Surveying and Mapping (except Geophysical) Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Computer Systems Design Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Administrative Management and General Management Consulting Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Offices of Other Holding Companies</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Exterminating and Pest Control Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Flight Training</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ambulance Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Public Administration</ENT>
                        <ENT>79</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Excludes individual owners, foreign companies, and entities lacking available data.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Projected Reporting, Recordkeeping, and Other Compliance Requirements</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates operators will incur either a one-time inspection cost of $85 or an inspection and one-time replacement cost of $62,561 per helicopter. The FAA has no way to determine if each helicopter will require this replacement cost. The FAA analyzes the cost of each compliance method with the annual revenue of each small entity. The following table shows the estimated compliance costs by each NAICS industry.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,15,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Costs of Compliance per Small Entity</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Description</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>annual</LI>
                            <LI>
                                revenue 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>number</LI>
                            <LI>of</LI>
                            <LI>aircraft</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>one-time</LI>
                            <LI>inspection</LI>
                            <LI>cost</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>one-time</LI>
                            <LI>replacement</LI>
                            <LI>
                                cost 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Beef Cattle Ranching and Farming</ENT>
                        <ENT>$123,540</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>$85</ENT>
                        <ENT>$62,561</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Electric Power Distribution</ENT>
                        <ENT>22,740,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>255</ENT>
                        <ENT>187,683</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Commercial and Institutional Building Construction</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,162,465</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                        <ENT>62,561</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Water and Sewer Line and Related Structures Construction</ENT>
                        <ENT>89,940</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                        <ENT>62,561</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ready-Mix Concrete Manufacturing</ENT>
                        <ENT>53,280</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                        <ENT>62,561</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Other Aircraft Part and Auxiliary Equipment Manufacturing</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not found</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                        <ENT>62,561</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Transportation Equipment and Supplies Merchant Wholesalers</ENT>
                        <ENT>540,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                        <ENT>62,561</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Motorcycle, ATV, and All Other Motor Vehicle Dealers</ENT>
                        <ENT>660,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                        <ENT>62,561</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Scheduled Passenger Air Transportation</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,960,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>6</ENT>
                        <ENT>510</ENT>
                        <ENT>375,366</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Nonscheduled Chartered Passenger Air Transportation</ENT>
                        <ENT>393,944,724</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>187</ENT>
                        <ENT>137,634</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Nonscheduled Chartered Freight Air Transportation</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,740,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>340</ENT>
                        <ENT>250,244</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Other Nonscheduled Air Transportation</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,618,333</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>493</ENT>
                        <ENT>362,854</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">General Freight Trucking, Local</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,060,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                        <ENT>62,561</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Scenic and Sightseeing Transportation, Other</ENT>
                        <ENT>44,092,097</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>230</ENT>
                        <ENT>168,915</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Other Airport Operations</ENT>
                        <ENT>195,085</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                        <ENT>62,561</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Other Support Activities for Air Transportation</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,010,503,660</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>94</ENT>
                        <ENT>68,817</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Motion Picture and Video Production</ENT>
                        <ENT>242,860</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                        <ENT>62,561</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Commercial Air, Rail, and Water Transportation Equipment Rental and Leasing</ENT>
                        <ENT>561,355</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                        <ENT>62,561</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Other Commercial and Industrial Machinery and Equipment Rental and Leasing</ENT>
                        <ENT>520,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                        <ENT>62,561</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Geophysical Surveying and Mapping Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>163,430</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                        <ENT>62,561</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Administrative Management and General Management Consulting Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>52,300</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                        <ENT>62,561</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Offices of Other Holding Companies</ENT>
                        <ENT>323,825</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>85</ENT>
                        <ENT>62,561</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Exterminating and Pest Control Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,760,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>340</ENT>
                        <ENT>250,244</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Flight Training</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,480,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>425</ENT>
                        <ENT>312,805</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ambulance Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,076,832</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>476</ENT>
                        <ENT>350,342</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Source: Dun &amp; Bradstreet. D&amp;B Hoovers. Retrieved May 7, 2026. 
                        <E T="03">app.hoovers.dnb.com</E>
                        .
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         One-time replacement cost includes both inspection and replacement costs, as replacement is contingent upon inspection results.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Significant Alternatives Considered</HD>
                <P>
                    FAA evaluated the alternative of not promulgating this AD but determined that taking no regulatory action would allow a significant safety hazard to persist. A non-conformity exists regarding the gap between the filler and the side plates on the helicopter's cargo hook. This unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in the loosening of the cargo hook, loss of the external 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39001"/>
                    load, and consequent injury to people on the ground.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Small Entity Impacts</HD>
                <P>Based on the analysis, this AD is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866 or UMRA. The FAA did not change this AD as a result of this comment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
                <P>These products have been approved by the civil aviation authority of another country and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, that authority has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA reviewed the relevant data, considered any comments received, and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products. Except for minor editorial changes, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA reviewed EASA AD 2025-0036, which specifies procedures for inspecting certain cargo hooks to measure the gap between the filler and the front and rear side plate assemblies and, depending on the results, replacing the cargo hook with a cargo hook that is not affected. Additionally, EASA AD 2025-0036 prohibits installing an affected cargo hook on any helicopter. This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Differences Between This AD and the MCAI</HD>
                <P>The MCAI applies to Airbus Helicopters Model AS 350BB helicopters, whereas this AD does not because that model does not have an FAA type certificate.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates that this AD affects 898 helicopters of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost on U.S. operators</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Inspect cargo hook</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            1 work-hour × $85 per hour 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             = $85
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$85</ENT>
                        <ENT>$76,330</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         The FAA estimated operators will incur $85 in costs per labor hour, which is the weighted average fiscal year (FY) 2026 fully loaded wage of an aircraft mechanic ($69.85) working 60% of the labor hours and a general and operations manager ($108.15) working 40% of the labor hours. The FAA estimated these wages by taking the average of the FY 2024 Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) air transportation industry average wage for aircraft mechanics and general and operations managers (See: Occupational Employment and Wage Statistics Query System, BLS (May 2024), 
                        <E T="03">data.bls.gov/oes/</E>
                        ); multiplying each wage by a fringe benefit factor of 1.42 (See: Employer Cost for Employee Compensation—December 2024, BLS (2024), 
                        <E T="03">bls.gov/news.release/archives/ecec_03142025.pdf</E>
                        ); and adjusting these 2024 wages to 2026 dollars using an implicit Gross Domestic Product (GDP) Price Deflator of 2.8% (See: Gross Domestic Product: Implicit Price Deflator, FRED (2026) 
                        <E T="03">fred.stlouisfed.org/series/GDPDEF</E>
                        ).
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The FAA estimates the following costs to do any replacements required based on the results of the inspection. The agency has no way of determining the number of helicopters that might need this replacement.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>On Condition Costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Replace cargo hook</ENT>
                        <ENT>4 work-hours × $85 per hour = $340</ENT>
                        <ENT>$62,136</ENT>
                        <ENT>$62,476</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
                <P>(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and</P>
                <P>(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <PRTPAGE P="39002"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            <E T="04">2026-12-10 Airbus Helicopters:</E>
                             Amendment 39-23380; Docket No. FAA-2025-3999; Project Identifier MCAI-2025-00176-R.
                        </FP>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Effective Date</HD>
                        <P>This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective August 3, 2026.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                        <P>None.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                        <P>This AD applies to Airbus Helicopters Model AS350B, AS350BA, AS350B1, AS350B2, AS350B3, and AS350D helicopters, certificated in any category.</P>
                        <NOTE>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 1 to paragraph (c):</HD>
                            <P> Helicopters with AS350B3e designation are Model AS350B3 helicopters.</P>
                        </NOTE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                        <P>Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC) Code 2500, Equipment/Furnishings.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                        <P>This AD was prompted by a report of a non-conformity of the cargo hook. The FAA is issuing this AD to detect and correct a non-conformity of the cargo hook. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in loosening of the cargo hook, loss of the load, and consequent injury to people on the ground.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                        <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Requirements</HD>
                        <P>Except as specified in paragraph (h) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, European Union Aviation Safety Agency AD 2025-0036, dated February 12, 2025 (EASA AD 2025-0036).</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Exceptions to EASA AD 2025-0036</HD>
                        <P>(1) Where EASA AD 2025-0036 refers to its effective date, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                        <P>(2) Where EASA AD 2025-0036 defines sling cycles, for the purposes of this AD, a sling cycle is defined as one release with load on ground equals one sling cycle, and one release with load in-flight equals three sling cycles.</P>
                        <P>(3) Where the material referenced in EASA AD 2025-0036 specifies “check”, this AD requires replacing that text with “inspect”.</P>
                        <P>(4) Where the material referenced in EASA AD 2025-0036 specifies to return parts for repair, this AD does not require those actions.</P>
                        <P>(5) This AD does not adopt the “Remarks” section of EASA AD 2025-0036.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) Special Flight Permits</HD>
                        <P>Special flight permits may be issued in accordance with 14 CFR 21.197 and 21.199, provided there are no external load operations.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)</HD>
                        <P>
                            (1) The Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the International Validation Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k) of this AD and email to: 
                            <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Additional Information</HD>
                        <P>
                            For more information about this AD, contact Yves Petiote, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: (202) 975-4867; email: 
                            <E T="03">yves.petiote@faa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(l) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                        <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                        <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                        <P>(i) European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2025-0036, dated February 12, 2025.</P>
                        <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) For EASA material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; phone: +49 221 8999 000; email: 
                            <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu;</E>
                             website: 
                            <E T="03">easa.europa.eu.</E>
                             You may find this material on the EASA website at 
                            <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                            <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                             or email 
                            <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on June 11, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Steven W. Thompson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Compliance &amp; Airworthiness Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13060 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2026-3485; Project Identifier MCAI-2025-00437-T; Amendment 39-23381; AD 2026-12-11]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Airbus SAS Airplanes</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Airbus SAS Model A321-251NX, -252NX, -253NX, -271NX, and -272NX airplanes. This AD was prompted by a review of the cold working process on the assembly line that detected a deviation to the manufacturing process. This AD requires repetitive inspections for the nominal design condition of the fastener holes in certain center fuselage frame foot joint connections and, as applicable, an inspection for cracking at the frame foot joint connections and corrective actions. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This AD is effective August 3, 2026. The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of August 3, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2026-3485; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this final rule, the mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI), any comments received, and other information. The address for Docket Operations is U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email 
                        <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu.</E>
                         You may find this material on the EASA website at 
                        <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39003"/>
                        information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2026-3485.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Nicholas Benson, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3647; email: 
                        <E T="03">nicholas.h.benson@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain Airbus SAS Model A321-251NX, -252NX, -253NX, -271NX, and -272NX airplanes. The NPRM was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on April 15, 2026 (91 FR 20081). The NPRM was prompted by EASA AD 2025-0067, dated March 28, 2025 (EASA AD 2025-0067) (also referred to as the MCAI), issued by EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union. The MCAI states that, during a review of the cold working process on the assembly line, a deviation to the manufacturing process was detected, which could adversely affect the fatigue life of the affected area (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     center fuselage frame (FR) foot joint connections at FR37 to FR41 inclusive, between stringers (STR) STR21 to STR23, on both left-hand and right-hand sides). This condition, if not detected and corrected, could lead to crack initiation and propagation, possibly resulting in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
                </P>
                <P>In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to require repetitive inspections for the nominal design condition of the fastener holes in certain center fuselage frame foot joint connections and, as applicable, an inspection for cracking at the frame foot joint connections and corrective actions, as specified in EASA AD 2025-0067. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                <P>
                    You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2026-3485.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion of Final Airworthiness Directive</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments</HD>
                <P>The FAA received a comment from an anonymous commenter who supported the NPRM without change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
                <P>These products have been approved by the civil aviation authority of another country and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, that authority has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA reviewed the relevant data, considered any comments received, and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products. Except for minor editorial changes, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>
                    EASA AD 2025-0067 specifies procedures for repetitive inspections for any discrepancy of the fastener holes, which consists of doing a check to determine if the fastener holes in the affected area are not in nominal design condition. Nominal design condition is that fasteners installed have a nominal diameter as specified in the material referenced in EASA AD 2025-0067. EASA AD 2025-0067 also specifies procedures for a rototest inspection of the fastener holes for any discrepancy (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     cracking) at each affected area and corrective actions, as applicable. Corrective actions include contacting Airbus for approved repair instructions and accomplishing those instructions. EASA AD 2025-0067 also specifies procedures for repairing fastener holes, which would terminate the repetitive inspections.
                </P>
                <P>EASA AD 2025-0067 also specifies accomplishment of a high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspection around the fastener holes at an affected area is an acceptable method of compliance for the rototest inspection for that affected area.</P>
                <P>
                    This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates that this AD affects 22 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,10C,10C,12C">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs for Required Actions</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost on
                            <LI>U.S. operators</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">23 work-hours × $85 per hour = $1,955</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,955</ENT>
                        <ENT>$43,010</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The FAA estimates the following costs to do any necessary on-condition actions that would be required based on the results of any required actions. The FAA has no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these on-condition actions:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s200,10C,12C">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs of On-Condition Actions *</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">60 work-hours × $85 per hour = $5,100 (rototest inspection)</ENT>
                        <ENT>$884</ENT>
                        <ENT>$5,984</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* The FAA has received no definitive data on which to base the cost estimates for the on-condition repairs specified in this AD.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="39004"/>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs for Optional Actions</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Terminating action</ENT>
                        <ENT>15 work-hours × $85 per hour = $1,275</ENT>
                        <ENT>Negligible</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,275</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
                <P>(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and</P>
                <P>(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            <E T="04">2026-12-11 Airbus SAS:</E>
                             Amendment 39-23381; Docket No. FAA-2026-3485; Project Identifier MCAI-2025-00437-T.
                        </FP>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Effective Date</HD>
                        <P>This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective August 3, 2026.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                        <P>None.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                        <P>This AD applies to Airbus SAS Model A321-251NX, -252NX, -253NX, -271NX, and -272NX airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2025-0067, dated March 28, 2025 (EASA AD 2025-0067).</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                        <P>Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                        <P>This AD was prompted by a review of the cold working process on the assembly line that detected a deviation to the manufacturing process. The FAA is issuing this AD to address a deviation to the manufacturing process, which could adversely affect the fatigue life of the center fuselage frame (FR) foot joint connections at FR37 to FR41 inclusive, between stringer (STR) STR21 to STR23. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could lead to crack initiation and propagation, resulting in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                        <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Requirements</HD>
                        <P>Except as specified in paragraphs (h) and (i) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, EASA AD 2025-0067.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Exceptions to EASA AD 2025-0067</HD>
                        <P>(1) Where paragraph (2) of EASA AD 2025-0067 specifies “any discrepancy is detected, as defined in the SB”, this AD requires replacing that text with “any fastener hole is not in nominal design condition, as defined in the SB”.</P>
                        <P>(2) Where paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2025-0067 specifies “no discrepancy is detected”, this AD requires replacing that text with “fastener holes are in nominal design condition, as defined in the SB”.</P>
                        <P>(3) Where paragraph (4) of EASA AD 2025-0067 specifies a “High Frequency Eddy Current (HFEC) inspection around the fastener holes at an affected area is an acceptable method”, this AD requires replacing that text with “High Frequency Eddy Current (HFEC) inspection around the fastener holes at an affected area, in accordance with the instructions of the SB, is an acceptable method”.</P>
                        <P>(4) Where paragraph (5) of EASA AD 2025-0067 specifies “any crack is detected, as defined in the SB, before next flight, contact Airbus for approved repair instructions and, within the compliance time specified therein, accomplish those instructions accordingly.”, this AD requires replacing that text with “any crack is detected, the crack must be repaired before further flight using a method approved by the Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA; or EASA; or Airbus SAS's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA). If approved by the DOA, the approval must include the DOA-authorized signature.”</P>
                        <P>(5) Where paragraph (7) of EASA AD 2025-0067 specifies “no discrepancy”, this AD requires replacing that text with “no cracking”.</P>
                        <P>(6) This AD does not adopt the “Remarks” section of EASA AD 2025-0067.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) No Reporting Requirement</HD>
                        <P>Although the material referenced in EASA AD 2025-0067 specifies to submit certain information to the manufacturer, this AD does not include that requirement.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Additional AD Provisions</HD>
                        <P>The following provisions also apply to this AD:</P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs):</E>
                             The Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the Continued Operational Safety Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k) of this AD and email to: 
                            <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov</E>
                            . Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Contacting the Manufacturer:</E>
                             For any requirement in this AD to obtain instructions from a manufacturer, the instructions must 
                            <PRTPAGE P="39005"/>
                            be accomplished using a method approved by the Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA; or EASA; or Airbus SAS's EASA DOA. If approved by the DOA, the approval must include the DOA-authorized signature.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Required for Compliance (RC):</E>
                             Except as required by paragraphs (h)(3), (h)(4), and (j)(2) of this AD, if any material contains procedures or tests that are identified as RC, those procedures and tests must be done to comply with this AD; any procedures or tests that are not identified as RC are recommended. Those procedures and tests that are not identified as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the procedures and tests identified as RC can be done and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition. Any substitutions or changes to procedures or tests identified as RC require approval of an AMOC.
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Additional Information</HD>
                        <P>
                            For more information about this AD, contact Nicholas Benson, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3647; email: 
                            <E T="03">nicholas.h.benson@faa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(l) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                        <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                        <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                        <P>(i) European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2025-0067, dated March 28, 2025.</P>
                        <P>(ii) [Reserved].</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) For EASA material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email 
                            <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu;</E>
                             website 
                            <E T="03">easa.europa.eu.</E>
                             You may find this material on the EASA website at 
                            <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                            <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                             or email 
                            <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on June 10, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Brian Knaup,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Integrated Certificate Management Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13062 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2026-2720; Project Identifier MCAI-2023-00668-R; Amendment 39-23383; AD 2026-13-01]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Helicopters</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA is superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2019-09-03 and AD 2021-05-15 for certain Airbus Helicopters Model AS332C, AS332C1, AS332L, and AS332L1 helicopters. AD 2019-09-03 required a one-time inspection of the jettisoning mechanism of the cabin lateral sliding plug doors. AD 2021-05-15 required repetitive inspections, modifying the release system of each cabin lateral sliding plug door, or modifying the design of the jettison system of each cabin lateral sliding plug door. Since the FAA issued AD 2021-05-15, the manufacturer developed a prerequisite modification for certain helicopters, determined improved modification instructions were necessary for installation of the release system of the cabin lateral sliding plug door, and determined the compliance time could be extended. This AD requires modifying the release system of each cabin lateral sliding plug door or modifying the design of the jettison system of each cabin lateral sliding plug door as a terminating action for the repetitive inspections. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This AD is effective August 3, 2026.</P>
                    <P>The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of August 3, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at regulations.gov under Docket No. FAA-2026-2720; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this final rule, the mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI), any comments received, and other information. The address for Docket Operations is U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; phone: +49 221 8999 000; email: 
                        <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu;</E>
                         website: 
                        <E T="03">easa.europa.eu.</E>
                         You may find the EASA material on the EASA website at 
                        <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110. It is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2026-2720.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Aryanna Sanchez, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: (817) 222-5257; email: 
                        <E T="03">aryanna.t.sanchez@faa.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to supersede AD 2019-09-03, Amendment 39-19637 (84 FR 22693, May 20, 2019) (AD 2019-09-03), and AD 2021-05-15, Amendment 39-21458 (86 FR 17290, April 2, 2021) (AD 2021-05-15). AD 2019-09-03 and AD 2021-05-15 applied to certain Airbus Helicopters Model AS332C, AS332C1, AS332L, and AS332L1 helicopters.</P>
                <P>AD 2019-09-03 required a one-time inspection of the jettisoning mechanism of the cabin lateral sliding plug doors. AD 2021-05-15 required repetitive inspections, modifying the release system of each cabin lateral sliding plug door, or modifying the design of the jettison system of each cabin lateral sliding plug door.</P>
                <P>
                    The NPRM was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on March 23, 2026 (91 FR 13794). The NPRM was prompted by EASA AD 2021-0139R1, May 10, 2023 (EASA AD 2021-0139R1) (also referred to as the MCAI), issued by EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union. The MCAI states the manufacturer received additional reports regarding the difficulty of installing the MOD 0725366 on certain helicopters, and the manufacturer developed MOD 0729230 as a prerequisite to installing MOD 0725366 for certain helicopter configurations. In addition, the manufacturer determined that the compliance time to incorporate the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39006"/>
                    modifications could be extended from within 1,100 flight hours or 27 months to within 1,325 flight hours or 40 months.
                </P>
                <P>In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to require modifying the release system of each cabin lateral sliding plug door or modifying the design of the jettison system of each cabin lateral sliding plug door as a terminating action for the repetitive inspections. The FAA is issuing this AD to prevent the jettison handle cable from interfering with the cable clamps, which could lead to jamming of the door jettisoning mechanism, preventing the jettisoning of the affected door in an emergency situation with possible obstruction of occupant evacuation.</P>
                <P>
                    You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2026-2720.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion of Final Airworthiness Directive</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments</HD>
                <P>The FAA received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the costs.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
                <P>These products have been approved by the civil aviation authority of another country and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, that authority has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA reviewed the relevant data, considered any comments received, and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products. Except for minor editorial changes, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>The FAA reviewed EASA AD 2021-0139R1, which specifies procedures for inspecting the jettisoning mechanism of the left-hand (LH) and right-hand (RH) side of the cabin lateral sliding plug doors, and ensuring the cables are not contacting the cable clamps and accomplishing the applicable corrective actions. EASA AD 2021-0139R1 also specifies procedures for modifying the release system of each cabin lateral sliding plug door or modifying the design of the jettison system of each cabin lateral sliding plug door. EASA AD 2021-0139R1 specifies that the modification is a terminating action for the repetitive inspections and gives credit for the modification if it was accomplished using certain previously issued service material.</P>
                <P>
                    This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates that this AD affects 12 helicopters of U.S. registry.</P>
                <P>The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r75,r30,r30,r30">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost per product</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost on U.S.
                            <LI>operators</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Inspect cable clamps</ENT>
                        <ENT>1 work hour × $85 per hour = $85</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$85</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,020.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Modify the release</ENT>
                        <ENT>214 work-hours × $85 per hour = $18,190</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $122,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $140,690</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $1,688,280.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Modify the jettison system</ENT>
                        <ENT>214 work-hours × $85 per hour = $18,190</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $122,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $140,690</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $1,688,280.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
                <P>(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and</P>
                <P>(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Removing Airworthiness Directive 2019-09-03, Amendment 39-19637 (84 FR 22693, May 20, 2019); and Airworthiness Directive 2021-05-15, Amendment 39-21458 (86 FR 17290, April 2, 2021); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            <E T="04">2026-13-01 Airbus Helicopters:</E>
                             Amendment 39-23383; Docket No. FAA-2026-2720; Project Identifier MCAI-2023-00668-R.
                        </FP>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Effective Date</HD>
                        <P>This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective August 3, 2026.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                        <P>
                            (1) This AD replaces AD 2019-09-03, Amendment 39-19637 (84 FR 22693, May 20, 2019) (AD 2019-09-03).
                            <PRTPAGE P="39007"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) This AD replaces AD 2021-05-15, Amendment 39-21458 (86 FR 17290, April 2, 2021) (AD 2021-05-15).</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                        <P>This AD applies to all Airbus Helicopters Model AS332C, AS332C1, AS332L, and AS332L1 helicopters, certificated in any category, as identified in European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2021-0139R1, dated May 10, 2023 (EASA AD 2021-0139R1).</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                        <P>Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC) Code 5200, Doors.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                        <P>This AD was prompted by a report that the cabin lateral sliding plug door failed its emergency jettisoning test; subsequent investigation revealed that the jettison handle cable interfered with the cable clamps. The FAA is issuing this AD to address this condition, which could lead to jamming of the door jettisoning mechanism, preventing the jettisoning of the affected door in an emergency situation, and obstructing occupant evacuation.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                        <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Requirements</HD>
                        <P>Except as specified in paragraph (h) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, EASA AD 2021-0139R1.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Exceptions to EASA AD 2021-0139R1</HD>
                        <P>(1) Where EASA AD 2021-0139R1 refers to June 25, 2021 (the effective date of EASA AD 2021-0139, dated June 11, 2021), this AD requires using the effective date of May 7, 2021 (the effective date of AD 2021-05-15).</P>
                        <P>(2) Where EASA AD 2021-0139R1 requires compliance in terms of flight hours (FH), this AD requires using hours time-in-service (TIS).</P>
                        <P>(3) Where paragraph (1) of EASA AD 2021-0139R1 specifies “During the next jettisoning test of the cabin lateral sliding plug door, or within 110 FH, whichever occurs first after 22 February 2017 [the effective date of EASA AD 2017-0022], and, thereafter, during accomplishment of each maintenance task listed in paragraph 1.E.2 of the inspection ASB, inspect the affected parts in accordance with the instructions of section 3 of the inspection ASB”, this AD requires replacing that text with “During the next jettisoning test of the cabin lateral sliding plug door, or within 110 hours TIS, whichever occurs first after June 24, 2019 [the effective date of AD 2019-09-03], and, thereafter, during the accomplishment of each maintenance task (adjustments as per Maintenance Manual (MET) Work Card 52-11-01-601, cable change, removal of the cable clamp, etc.) identified in paragraph 1.E.2 Compliance in Service of Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin ASB AS332-52.00.56 Revision 1, dated April 11, 2019, is accomplished, inspect the affected parts as defined in EASA AD 2021-0139R1 in accordance with the instructions of section 3 of the inspection ASB referenced in EASA AD 2021-0139R1”.</P>
                        <P>(4) Where paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2021-0139R1 specifies “in accordance with the instructions of section 3 of the modification ASB”, this AD requires replacing that text with “in accordance with section 3.B.2 through 3.B.3. of the modification ASB”.</P>
                        <P>(5) If the modification specified in paragraph (4) of EASA AD 2021-0139R1 is done, it must be done at the compliance time specified in paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2021-0139R1.</P>
                        <P>(6) Although the material referenced in EASA AD 2021-0139R1 specifies to discard or scrap certain parts, this AD does not include that requirement.</P>
                        <P>(7) Where the material referenced in EASA AD 2021-0139R1 specifies to contact Airbus Helicopters, or a qualified Airbus Helicopters Group Technician, or by a customer technician previously qualified by Airbus Helicopters to perform certain actions, this AD requires performing those actions using a method approved by the Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA; or EASA; or Airbus Helicopters' EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA). If approved by the DOA, the approval must include the DOA-authorized signature.</P>
                        <P>(8) Where the material referenced in EASA AD 2021-0139R1 specifies “check”, this AD requires replacing that text with “inspection”.</P>
                        <P>(9) This AD does not adopt the “Remarks” section of EASA AD 2021-0139R1.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)</HD>
                        <P>
                            (1) The Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local flight standards district office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the International Validation Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j) of this AD and email to: 
                            <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Additional Information</HD>
                        <P>
                            For more information about this AD, contact Aryanna Sanchez, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: (817) 222-5257; email: 
                            <E T="03">aryanna.t.sanchez@faa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                        <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                        <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                        <P>(i) European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2021-0139R1, dated May 10, 2023.</P>
                        <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) For EASA material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; phone: +49 221 8999 000; email: 
                            <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu;</E>
                             website: 
                            <E T="03">easa.europa.eu.</E>
                             You may find the EASA material on the EASA website at 
                            <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(4) You may view this material at the FAA Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                            <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                             or email 
                            <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on June 16, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Christopher R. Parker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Compliance &amp; Airworthiness Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13063 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Food and Drug Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>21 CFR Part 888</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FDA-2026-N-6708]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Medical Devices; Orthopedic Devices; Classification of the Medial Knee Implanted Shock Absorber</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Food and Drug Administration, HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final amendment; final order.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is classifying the medial knee implanted shock absorber into class II (special controls). The special controls that apply to the device type are identified in this order and will be part of the codified language for classification of the medial knee implanted shock absorber. We are taking this action because we have determined that classifying the device into class II will provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of the device. We believe this action will also enhance patients' access to beneficial innovative devices, in part by reducing regulatory burdens.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This order is effective June 29, 2026. The classification was applicable on April 10, 2023.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Lixin Liu, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 4502, Silver Spring, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39008"/>
                        MD 20993-0002, 301-796-3480, 
                        <E T="03">Lixin.Liu@fda.hhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>Upon request, FDA (the Agency or we) has classified the medial knee implanted shock absorber into class II (special controls), which we have determined will provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of the device. In addition, we believe this action will enhance patients' access to beneficial innovation, in part by reducing regulatory burdens by placing the device into a lower device class than the automatic class III assignment.</P>
                <P>The automatic assignment of class III occurs by operation of law and without any action by FDA, regardless of the level of risk posed by the new device. Any device that was not in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, is automatically classified into, and remains within, class III and requires premarket approval unless and until FDA takes an action to classify or reclassify the device (21 U.S.C. 360c(f)(1)). We refer to these devices as “postamendments devices” because they were not in commercial distribution prior to the date of enactment of the Medical Device Amendments of 1976, which amended the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&amp;C Act).</P>
                <P>FDA may take a variety of actions in appropriate circumstances to classify or reclassify a device into class I or II. We may issue an order finding a new device to be substantially equivalent under section 513(i) of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 360c(i)) to a predicate device that does not require premarket approval. We determine whether a new device is substantially equivalent to a predicate device by means of the procedures for premarket notification under section 510(k) of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 360(k)) and part 807 (21 CFR part 807).</P>
                <P>FDA may also classify a device through “De Novo” classification, a common name for the process authorized under section 513(f)(2) of the FD&amp;C Act (see also part 860, subpart D (21 CFR part 860, subpart D)). Section 207 of the Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997 (Pub. L. 105-115) established the first procedure for De Novo classification. Section 607 of the Food and Drug Administration Safety and Innovation Act (Pub. L. 112-144) modified the De Novo classification process by adding a second procedure. A device sponsor may utilize either procedure for De Novo classification.</P>
                <P>Under the first procedure, the person submits a premarket notification (510(k)) for a device that has not previously been classified. After receiving an order from FDA classifying the device into class III under section 513(f)(1) of the FD&amp;C Act, the person then requests a classification under section 513(f)(2).</P>
                <P>Under the second procedure, rather than first submitting a 510(k) and then a request for classification, if the person determines that there is no legally marketed device upon which to base a determination of substantial equivalence, that person requests a classification under section 513(f)(2) of the FD&amp;C Act.</P>
                <P>Under either procedure for De Novo classification, FDA is required to classify the device by written order within 120 days. The classification will be according to the criteria under section 513(a)(1) of the FD&amp;C Act. Although the device was automatically placed within class III, the De Novo classification is considered to be the initial classification of the device.</P>
                <P>We believe this De Novo classification will enhance patients' access to beneficial innovation, in part by reducing regulatory burdens. When FDA classifies a device into class I or II via the De Novo process, the device can serve as a predicate for future devices of that type, including for 510(k)s (see section 513(f)(2)(B)(i) of the FD&amp;C Act). As a result, other device sponsors do not have to submit a De Novo request or premarket approval application to market a substantially equivalent device (see section 513(i) of the FD&amp;C Act, defining “substantial equivalence”). Instead, sponsors can use the less burdensome 510(k) process, when necessary, to market their device.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. De Novo Classification</HD>
                <P>On June 6, 2022, FDA received Moximed, Inc.'s request for De Novo classification of the MISHA Knee System. FDA reviewed the request in order to classify the device under the criteria for classification set forth in section 513(a)(1) of the FD&amp;C Act.</P>
                <P>We classify devices into class II if general controls by themselves are insufficient to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of the device, but there is sufficient information to establish special controls that, in combination with the general controls, provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device for its intended use (see section 513(a)(1)(B) of the FD&amp;C Act). After review of the information submitted in the request, we determined that the device can be classified into class II with the establishment of special controls. FDA has determined that these special controls, in addition to the general controls, will provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device.</P>
                <P>
                    Therefore, on April 10, 2023, FDA issued an order to the requester classifying the device into class II. In this final order, FDA is codifying the classification of the device by adding 21 CFR 888.3610.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We have named the generic type of device “medial knee implanted shock absorber,” and it is identified as a device implanted outside of the knee capsule extending from the distal femur to the proximal tibia. It is intended to reduce loads on the intra-articular medial joint surface to improve symptoms of osteoarthritis. The device employs a shock absorbing mechanical system and is biomechanically stabilized by plates and screws. The device is not intended to span the lateral knee.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         FDA notes that the “ACTION” caption for this final order is styled as “Final amendment; final order,” rather than “Final order.” Beginning in December 2019, this editorial change was made to indicate that the document “amends” the Code of Federal Regulations. The change was made in accordance with the Office of Federal Register's (OFR) interpretations of the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 15), its implementing regulations (1 CFR 5.9 and parts 21 and 22), and the Document Drafting Handbook.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>FDA has identified the risks to health associated with this type of device and the measures required to mitigate these risks in table 1.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,r100">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Risks to Health and Mitigation Measures for Medial Knee Implanted Shock Absorbers</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Identified risks to health</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Mitigation measures</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Implant failure to improve osteoarthritis symptoms, including pain and discomfort</ENT>
                        <ENT>Clinical data; Non-clinical performance testing; and Training.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Pain and discomfort due to implant</ENT>
                        <ENT>Clinical data; and Training.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Loss of implant integrity leading to loss of fixation and reoperation</ENT>
                        <ENT>Clinical data; and Non-clinical performance testing.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="39009"/>
                        <ENT I="01">Ligament or nerve injury resulting in motor and/or sensory damage</ENT>
                        <ENT>Clinical data; and Training.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Scar formation</ENT>
                        <ENT>Clinical data; and Training.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Infection</ENT>
                        <ENT>Sterilization validation; Reprocessing validation; Shelf life testing; Pyrogenicity testing; and Labeling.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01" O="xl">Adverse tissue reaction due to</ENT>
                        <ENT>Biocompatibility evaluation; and Non-clinical performance testing.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03" O="xl">
                             • Device materials.
                            <LI O="xl"> • Fretting and corrosion.</LI>
                            <LI> • Wear particulates</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>FDA has determined that special controls, in combination with the general controls, address these risks to health and provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of the device. For a device to fall within this classification, and thus avoid automatic classification in class III, it would have to comply with the special controls named in this final order. The necessary special controls appear in the regulation codified by this final order.</P>
                <P>Under the FD&amp;C Act, submission of a premarket notification under section 510(k) is required to reasonably assure the safety and effectiveness of class II devices unless FDA determines that the device type should be exempt under section 510(m) of the FD&amp;C Act. At this time FDA has not made this determination for medial knee implanted shock absorbers. This device is therefore subject to premarket notification requirements under section 510(k) of the FD&amp;C Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Analysis of Environmental Impact</HD>
                <P>The Agency has determined under 21 CFR 25.34(b) that this action is of a type that does not normally have a significant effect on the human environment. Therefore, neither an environmental assessment nor an environmental impact statement is required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995</HD>
                <P>This final order establishes special controls that refer to previously approved collections of information found in other FDA regulations and guidance. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521). The collections of information in part 860, subpart D, regarding De Novo classification have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0844; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 814, subparts A through E, regarding premarket approval have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0231; the collections of information in part 807, subpart E, regarding premarket notification submissions have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0120; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 820 regarding quality management system regulation have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0073; and the collections of information in 21 CFR part 801 regarding labeling have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0485.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 21 CFR Part 888</HD>
                    <P>Medical devices.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, 21 CFR part 888 is amended as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 888—ORTHOPEDIC DEVICES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="21" PART="888">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 888 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P> 21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360l, 371.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="21" PART="888">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 888.3610 to subpart D to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 888.3610 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Medial knee implanted shock absorber.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Identification.</E>
                             A medial knee implanted shock absorber is a device implanted outside of the knee capsule extending from the distal femur to the proximal tibia. It is intended to reduce loads on the intra-articular medial joint surface to improve symptoms of osteoarthritis. The device employs a shock absorbing mechanical system and is biomechanically stabilized by plates and screws. The device is not intended to span the lateral knee.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Classification.</E>
                             Class II (special controls). The special controls for this device are:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Clinical data must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use and include the following:</P>
                        <P>(i) Evaluation of improvement of knee function and reduction of osteoarthritis symptoms, including pain and function; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) Evaluation of relevant adverse events.</P>
                        <P>(2) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use and include the following:</P>
                        <P>(i) Evaluation of the mechanical function and durability of the implant (including evaluation of absorber unloading capacity, fretting and corrosion, static strength, wear analysis, and fatigue testing); and</P>
                        <P>(ii) Evaluation of worst-case device range of motion.</P>
                        <P>(3) The patient-contacting components of the device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.</P>
                        <P>(4) Performance data must support the sterility and pyrogenicity of the device components intended to be sterile.</P>
                        <P>(5) Performance data must validate the reprocessing instructions for the reusable components of the device.</P>
                        <P>(6) Performance data must support the shelf-life of the device by demonstrating continued sterility, package integrity, and device functionality over the identified shelf-life.</P>
                        <P>(7) A training program must be included so that upon completion of the training program, the user can safely and successfully implant the device.</P>
                        <P>(8) Labeling must include the following:</P>
                        <P>(i) Validated methods and instructions for reprocessing of any reusable components; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) A shelf life.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Grace R. Graham,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Commissioner for Policy, Legislation, and International Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13101 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4164-01-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="39010"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 100</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2026-0679]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA08</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Special Local Regulation; Manistee River, Manistee, MI</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary special local regulation (SLR) for a certain section of the Manistee River. This action is necessary to provide for the safety of life on these navigable waters near Manistee, MI during the Manistee National Forest Festival Duck Race on July 4, 2026. This regulation prohibits persons and vessels from entering the regulated area unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port Sector Lake Michigan or their designated representative.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective from noon through 1 p.m. on July 4, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view available documents go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2026-0679.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rule, contact LCDR Jessica Anderson, Sector Lake Michigan Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone (414) 747-7148 or email 
                        <E T="03">D09-SMB-SECLakeMichigan-WWM@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SLR Special Local Regulation</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard received a request under 33 CFR 100.15 from the Manistee Area Chamber for a Marine Event Permit to host a duck race. The event will be held from noon through 1 p.m. on July 4, 2026, in Manistee, MI. The event will include approximately 2 vessels and 1 spectator craft. During the duck race, thousands of yellow rubber ducks will be dropped into the Manistee River from the Maple Street Bridge, floating to the finish line near Elks Lodge, Manistee, MI.</P>
                <P>The Captain of the Port Sector Lake Michigan (COTP) is issuing this Special Local Regulation under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70041. The COTP has determined that the duck race and associated vessels above may impede and otherwise cause hazards for boaters and members of the public in the duck race area. The purpose of this rulemaking is to protect event participants, non-participants, and transiting vessels before, during, and after the scheduled event.</P>
                <P>Because of these potential hazards, the Coast Guard is issuing this rule without prior notice and comment. As is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. We must establish this SLR by July 4, 2026, to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment. Therefore, we have do not have enough time to solicit and respond to comments.</P>
                <P>
                    For the same reason, the Coast Guard finds that under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>This rule establishes a temporary SLR from noon until 1 p.m. on July 4, 2026. The SLR will cover the Manistee River from the Maple Street Bridge to Elks Lodge. No vessel or person will be permitted to enter the regulated area without obtaining permission from the COTP or their designated representative.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The regulatory flexibility analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, do not apply to rules that are not subject to notice and comment. Because the Coast Guard has, for good cause, waived the notice and comment requirement that would otherwise apply to this rulemaking, the Regulatory Flexibility Act's flexibility analysis provisions do not apply here.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.</P>
                <P>Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This rule is a special local regulation. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L61 of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="39011"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 100</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security Measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 100 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 100—SAFETY OF LIFE ON NAVIGABLE WATERS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 100 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P> 46 U.S.C. 70041; 33 CFR 1.05-1.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 100.T999-0679 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 100.T999-0679 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Special Local Regulation; Manistee River, Manistee, MI.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             This special local regulation applies to the following regulated area: All waters of the Manistee River from Maple Street Bridge to Elks Lodge, from surface to bottom, encompassed by a line connecting the following points beginning at 44°14′54.5″ N, 86°19′25.6″ W, thence to 44°14′53.2″ N, 86°19′25.7″ W, thence to 44°14′52.3″ N 86°19′32.7″ W, thence to 44°14′54.3″ N, 86°19′32.8″ W, thence to the beginning point. These coordinates are based on the North American Datum 83 (NAD 83).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this section, 
                            <E T="03">designated representative</E>
                             means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port Sector Lake Michigan (COTP) in the enforcement of the regulated area. 
                            <E T="03">Participant</E>
                             means all persons and vessels registered with the event sponsor as a participant in the race.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) All non-participants are prohibited from entering, transiting through, anchoring in, or remaining within the regulated area described in paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or their designated representative.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative on VHF-FM channel 16 or by telephone at (414) 747-7100. Those in the regulated area must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Enforcement period.</E>
                             This section will be enforced from noon to 1 p.m. on July 4, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Rhianna N. Macon,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port Sector Lake Michigan.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13045 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2026-0828]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA00</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Columbia River, Richland, WA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for navigable waters on the Columbia River on June 27, 2026 and June 28, 2026. The safety zone is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards associated with high-speed hydroplane vessel races. Entry of vessels or persons into this zone is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port, Sector Columbia River, or their designated representative.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective from 6 a.m. until 6 p.m. on June 27, 2026 and June 28, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view available documents go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2026-0828.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this notice of enforcement, call or email Lieutenant Commander Jesse Wallace, Waterways Management Division, Sector Columbia River, Coast Guard; telephone 503-572-3524, email 
                        <E T="03">SCRWWM@USCG.MIL.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard received notification that a high-speed hydroplane vessel event, the Richland Regatta Hydroplane races, will be held outside of their approved regulatory date window of the “Second weekend in June” as per Table 1 of 33 CFR 100.1302. The Captain of the Port (COTP) Columbia River has determined that potential hazards associated with this high-speed hydroplane race event are a safety concern for anyone between River Miles 337 and 338 of the Columbia River. Therefore, the COTP is issuing this rule under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034, which is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the safety zone.</P>
                <P>Because of these potential hazards, the Coast Guard is issuing this rule without prior notice and comment. As is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. A separate Final Rule, Docket Number USCG-2026-0274, grants the event sponsor to conduct their marine event during the dates outlined in this rule, but will not have gone into effect by June 27, 2026, when this safety zone must be established to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment. Therefore, we do not have enough time to solicit and respond to comments.</P>
                <P>
                    For the same reason, the Coast Guard finds that under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>This rule establishes a safety zone from June 27, 2026 through June 28, 2026 from 6 a.m. to 6 p.m. each day. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters of the Columbia River in the vicinity of Howard Amon Park, between River Miles 337 and 338. Vessels and persons will not be allowed to enter the zone during this time, unless authorized by the COTP.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>
                    The regulatory flexibility analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, do not apply to rules that are not subject to notice and comment. Because the Coast Guard has, for good cause, waived the notice and comment requirement that 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39012"/>
                    would otherwise apply to this rulemaking, the Regulatory Flexibility Act's flexibility analysis provisions do not apply here.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.</P>
                <P>Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This rule is a safety zone. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.T13-0828 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.T13-0828</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Safety Zone; Columbia River, Richland, WA.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following area is a safety zone: all navigable waters of the Columbia River in the vicinity of Howard Amon Park, between River Miles 337 and 338.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this section, 
                            <E T="03">designated representative</E>
                             means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port Columbia River (COTP) in the enforcement of the safety zone.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) Under the general safety zone regulations in subpart C of this part, you may not enter the safety zone described in paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative on VHF-FM channel 16 or by telephone at (833) 769-8724. Those in the safety zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Enforcement periods.</E>
                             This section will be enforced from 6 a.m. to 6 p.m. each day on June 27, 2026 and June 28, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Anthony R. Migliorini,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port Sector Columbia River.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13029 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USCG-2026-0798]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Security Zone; Potomac River, Tidal Basin and Adjacent Waters; Washington, DC</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, DHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notification of enforcement of regulation.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard will enforce a security zone along the Potomac River and Tidal Basin and adjacent waters, at Washington, DC, for activities associated with the Salute to America 250 celebration. This action is necessary to protect government officials and the public, reduce the chance of potential terrorist acts or other incidents, and enhance public and maritime safety and security immediately before, during, and after this activity. During the enforcement period, entry into or remaining within the zone is prohibited unless authorized by the Captain of the Port or his designated representative.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The regulations in 33 CFR 165.508 will be enforced from 6 a.m. on July 2, 2026, until 6 a.m. on July 5, 2026, for the security zone locations identified in 33 CFR 165.508(a)(6).</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this notification of enforcement, call or email LCDR Kate Newkirk, U.S. Coast Guard Sector Maryland-National Capital Region (Waterways Management Division); telephone 410-576-2519, email 
                        <E T="03">Kate.m.newkirk@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard will enforce regulations in 33 CFR 165.508 for the zone locations identified in paragraph (a)(6) of that regulation from 6 a.m. on July 2, 2026, until 6 a.m. on July 5, 2026. This action is being taken to protect government officials, reduce the chance of potential terrorist acts and other incidents, and enhance public and maritime safety and security immediately before, during, and after this event.</P>
                <P>
                    Our regulation titled “Security Zone; Potomac River and Anacostia River, and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39013"/>
                    Adjacent Waters; Washington, DC,” § 165.508(a)(6), specify the location for this security zone as an area that includes all navigable waters described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(3), which includes areas designated as Zones 1, listed next.
                </P>
                <P>• Zone 1. all navigable waters of the Potomac River, from shoreline to shoreline, bounded to the north by the Francis Scott Key (US-29) Bridge, at mile 113, and bounded to the south by a line drawn from the Virginia shoreline at Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport, at 38°51′21.3″ N, 077°02′00.0″ W, eastward across the Potomac River to the District of Columbia shoreline at Hains Point at position 38°51′24.3″ N, 077°01′19.8″ W, including the waters of the Boundary Channel, Pentagon Lagoon, Georgetown Channel Tidal Basin, and Roaches Run.</P>
                <P>During the enforcement period, entry into or remaining in these zones is prohibited unless authorized by the Coast Guard Captain of the Port Maryland-National Capital Region, as specified in § 165.508(b). Public vessels and vessels already at berth at the time the security zone is implemented do not have to depart the security zone. All vessels underway within the security zone should plan to have departed the regulated area by the time the enforcement period begins. Commercial vessels can seek permission to transit the zone by contacting the Patrol Commander on Marine Band Radio, VHF-FM channel 16 (156.8 MHz). Other Coast Guard vessels enforcing this security zone can be contacted on Marine Band Radio, VHF-FM channel 16 (156.8 MHz). The Coast Guard may be assisted by other Federal, State, or local law enforcement agencies in enforcing this regulation. If the Captain of the Port or his designated on-scene patrol personnel determines the security zone need not be enforced for the full duration stated in this notice, a Broadcast Notice to Mariners may be used to suspend enforcement and grant general permission to enter the security zone.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition to this notification of enforcement in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    <E T="03">,</E>
                     the Coast Guard plans to provide notification of this enforcement period via the Local Notice to Mariners, and marine information broadcasts.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Patrick C. Burkett,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port Maryland-National Capital Region.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13032 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2026-0796]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA00</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zones; Potomac River, Woodbridge VA to District of Columbia</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is establishing temporary safety zones of 100 yards around any vessel employed in the loading, transit, or set up of the Salute to America Fireworks Show. The safety zone is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards associated with an overwater fireworks display. Entry of vessels or persons into this zone is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port, Sector Maryland National Capital Region, or their designated representative. On the Anacostia River a second show will occur concurrently establishing a safety zone for all waters of the Anacostia River between the Frederick Douglas Bridge and the 11th Street Bridge. Vessels and people will not be allowed to enter the zone during this time, unless authorized by the COTP.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective without actual notice June 29, 2026, through 6 a.m., July 6, 2026. For purposes of enforcement, we will use actual notice from 6 a.m. June 24, 2026, through June 29, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view available documents, go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2026-0796.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rule, contact LCDR Kate Newkirk, Sector MD/NCR Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 410-576-2519, or email 
                        <E T="03">Kate.m.newkirk@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port, Maryland/National Capital Region</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard was notified on June 5, 2026 that fireworks will be launched from multiple locations on the Potomac River, in Washington, DC, between the 14th Steet Bridge Complex and the Francis Scott Key bridge in Georgetown, and from Anacostia Park (between the Frederick Douglas Bridge and the 11th Street Bridge) on the Anacostia River. The Captain of the Port, Maryland—National Capital Region (COTP) has determined that potential hazards associated with the fireworks are a safety concern for anyone within 100 yards of the fireworks display.</P>
                <P>The Coast Guard is issuing this rule without prior notice and comment. As is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. There is not enough time before June 24 to publish an NPRM and finalize it to establish a safety zone which must be in place by June 24, 2026, to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from the potential hazards of fireworks.</P>
                <P>
                    For the same reasons, the Coast Guard finds that under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . The Coast Guard is establishing these safety zones under authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>This rule establishes a 100-yard safety zone around any vessel employed in the loading, transiting, and set up of the Salute to America 250 fireworks display on July 4th, 2026. The barges will be loaded in Woodbridge Virginia and transit on the Potomac River to a location off Joint Base Anacostia-Bolling where they will be anchored while show set up occurs. The barges will then be towed north of the 14th Street Bridge Complex to their show locations. The vessels' hull numbers are U804, U798, U801, U802, 8028, 8029, 8018, SMC195-1 and any associated tugboats or pusher boats.</P>
                <P>On the Anacostia River, a second show will occur establishing a safety zone for all waters of the Anacostia River between the Frederick Douglas Bridge and the 11th Street Bridge. Vessels and persons will not be allowed to enter the zone during this time, unless authorized by the COTP.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>
                    We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39014"/>
                    Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analysis based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The regulatory flexibility analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, do not apply to rules that are not subject to notice and comment. Because the Coast Guard has, for good cause, waived the notice and comment requirement that would otherwise apply to this rulemaking, the Regulatory Flexibility Act's flexibility analysis provisions do not apply here.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.</P>
                <P>Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This rule is a safety zone. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.T05-0796 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.T05-0796</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Safety Zone; Woodbridge VA to the District of Columbia on the Potomac River.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following areas are safety zones: Any position within 100 yards of any vessel employed in the loading, transiting, or set up for the Salute to America 250 fireworks show. These safety zones will move with all vessels employed in preparation of the fireworks preparations.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this section, 
                            <E T="03">designated representative</E>
                             means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port, Maryland/National Capital Region (COTP) in the enforcement of the safety zone.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) Under the general safety zone regulations in subpart C of this part, you may not enter the safety zone described in paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative on VHF-FM channel 16 or by telephone at (251) 266-1234. Those in the safety zones must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Enforcement period</E>
                             This section will be enforced from 6 a.m. on June 24, 2026, through 6 a.m. on July 6, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Patrick C. Burkett,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port, Sector Maryland—National Capital Region.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13033 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2026-0802]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA00</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Presque Isle Bay, Erie, PA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone surrounding the SSV NIAGARA for certain navigable waters of Presque Isle Bay, Erie, PA. The safety zone is needed to protect personnel and vessels from potential hazards associated with a boat parade. Entry of vessels or persons into this zone is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port, Sector Eastern Great Lakes, or their designated representative.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective on July 2, 2026, from 12:00 p.m. to 2 p.m.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view available documents go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2026-0802.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rule, contact MST1 Ori Martinez, Sector Eastern Great Lakes Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 716-818-7693, or 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39015"/>
                        email 
                        <E T="03">D09-SMB-SECBuffalo-WWM@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard received notification that there will be a boat parade on Presque Isle Bay, Erie, PA, on July 2, 2026. The Captain of the Port Sector Eastern Great Lakes (COTP) has determined that the potential for increased risk from vessel traffic transiting Presque Isle Bay to see the SSV NIAGARA, a historic tall ship sailing vessel that will be leading a parade of ships, combined with increased holiday port congestion requires a safety zone around the SSV Niagara. Therefore, the COTP is issuing this rule under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034, which is needed to protect personnel and vessels in the navigable waters within the safety zone.</P>
                <P>Because of these potential hazards, the Coast Guard is issuing this rule without prior notice and comment. As is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. The Coast Guard was notified of the need for a safety zone June 2, 2026, but we must establish this safety zone by July 2, 2026, to protect personnel and vessels. Therefore, we do not have enough time to solicit and respond to comments.</P>
                <P>
                    For the same reason, the Coast Guard finds that under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>This rule establishes a safety zone on July 2, 2026, from 12 p.m. until 2 p.m. The safety zone will cover certain navigable waters within 100 yards of the SSV NIAGARA in Presque Isle Bay, Erie, PA. Vessels and persons will not be allowed to enter the zone during this time, unless authorized by the Captain of the Port. If the SSV NIAGARA is operating in a confined area such as a small harbor and there is not adequate room for vessels to stay out of the safety zone because of a lack of navigable water, then vessels will be permitted to operate within the safety zone and must travel at the minimum speed necessary to maintain a safe course. Vessels operating in these confined areas may not operate within 25 yards of the SSV NIAGARA, unless they receive authorization from the COTP or a designated representative. The navigation rules apply at all times within the safety zone.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The regulatory flexibility analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, do not apply to rules that are not subject to notice and comment. Because the Coast Guard has, for good cause, waived the notice and comment requirement that would otherwise apply to this rulemaking, the Regulatory Flexibility Act's flexibility analysis provisions do not apply here.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.</P>
                <P>Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This rule is a safety zone. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.T09-0802 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.T09-0802</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Safety Zone; Presque Isle Bay, Erie, PA.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following area is a safety zone: All navigable waters of the United States located in Presque Isle Bay, Erie, PA within a 100-yard radius of the SSV NIAGARA.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this section, 
                            <E T="03">designated representative</E>
                              
                            <PRTPAGE P="39016"/>
                            means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port Sector Eastern Great Lakes (COTP) in the enforcement of the safety zone.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) Under the general safety zone regulations in subpart C of this part, you may not enter the safety zone described in paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative on VHF-FM channel 16 or by telephone at (888) 230-4703. Those in the safety zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.</P>
                        <P>(3) Persons or vessels operating within a confined harbor or channel, where there is not sufficient navigable water outside of the safety zone to safely maneuver, are not allowed to operate within the safety zone unless authorized by the Captain of the Port (COTP), designated representative, or the on-scene patrol officer.</P>
                        <P>(4) Persons or vessels authorized to operate within the safety zone must travel at the minimum speed necessary to maintain a safe course. Persons or vessels authorized to operate within the safety zone must not come within 25 yards of the SSV NIAGARA, unless authorized by the COTP, the designated representative, or the on-scene official patrol.</P>
                        <P>(5) When the SSV NIAGARA approaches any vessel that is moored or anchored, the stationary vessel must stay moored or anchored while it remains within the SSV NIAGARA's safety zone unless ordered by or given permission from the COTP, the designated representative, or the on-scene official patrol to do otherwise.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Enforcement period.</E>
                             This section will be enforced from 12 p.m. to 2 p.m. on July 2, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Matthew J. Walter,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port Sector Eastern Great Lakes.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13031 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2026-0762]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA00</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Lower Mississippi River, Fireworks Display, Vidalia, LA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for navigable waters on the Lower Mississippi River. The safety zone is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards associated with an over-water fireworks display. Entry of vessels or persons into this zone is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port Sector Lower Mississippi River, or their designated representative.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective on July 4, 2026, from 8 p.m. through 11 p.m.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view available documents go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2026-0762.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rule, contact MST1 Cole Perkins, Sector Lower Mississippi River Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 901-208-0311, or email 
                        <E T="03">Cole.A.Perkins@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard received notification that fireworks will be launched from a barge on the Lower Mississippi River near Vidalia, LA. The Captain of the Port (COTP) Sector Lower Mississippi River has determined that potential hazards associated with fireworks are a safety concern for anyone within a half mile of the fireworks display. Therefore, the COTP is issuing this rule under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034, which is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the safety zone.</P>
                <P>
                    Because of these potential hazards, the Coast Guard is issuing this rule without prior notice and comment. As is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. The Coast Guard was notified of this event on May 10, 2026, but we must establish this safety zone by July 4, 2026, to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment. Therefore, we do not have enough time to solicit and respond to comments. For the same reason, the Coast Guard finds that under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>This rule establishes a safety zone on July 4, 2026, from 8 p.m. through 11 p.m. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters, from surface to bottom, in the Lower Mississippi River between mile markers 363.5 and 364.5. Vessels and persons will not be allowed to enter the zone during this time, unless authorized by the Captain of the Port.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The regulatory flexibility analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, do not apply to rules that are not subject to notice and comment. Because the Coast Guard has, for good cause, waived the notice and comment requirement that would otherwise apply to this rulemaking, the Regulatory Flexibility Act's flexibility analysis provisions do not apply here.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39017"/>
                    about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.</P>
                <P>Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This rule is a safety zone. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.T08-0762 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.T08-0762</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Safety Zone; Fireworks Display, Vidalia, LA.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following area is a safety zone: All waters of the Lower Mississippi River, from surface to bottom, between mile markers 363.5 and 364.5.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this section, 
                            <E T="03">designated representative</E>
                             means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port Sector Lower Mississippi River (COTP) in the enforcement of the safety zone.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) Under the general safety zone regulations in subpart C of this part, you may not enter the safety zone described in paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative on VHF-FM channel 16 or by telephone at (866) 360-3386. Those in the safety zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Enforcement period.</E>
                             This section will be enforced from 8 p.m. to 11 p.m. on July 4, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>D.P. Kilcullen,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port Sector Lower Mississippi River.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13030 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USCG-2026-0687]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zones; Annual Events in the Captain of the Port Detroit Zone</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, DHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notification of enforcement of regulation.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard will enforce the safety zone for the Toledo Country Club 4th of July Fireworks in Toledo, OH, from 8:30 p.m. to 10:30 p.m. on July 5, 2026, to protect the safety of life and property on the navigable waters immediately prior to, during, and immediately after this event. During each enforcement period, no person or vessel may enter the respective safety zone without permission of the Captain of the Port (COTP) Detroit or a designated representative.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The regulations listed in item (5) of Table 2 to 33 CFR 165.941 will be enforced for the Toledo Country Club 4th of July Fireworks Toledo, OH regulated area listed from 8:30 p.m. to 10:30 p.m. on July 5, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this notification of enforcement, call or email MST1 Cera Turner, MSU Toledo, Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard, (419) 418-6050, 
                        <E T="03">D09-SMB-MSUToledo-WWM@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard will enforce the safety zone listed in item (5) of Table 2 to 33 CFR 165.941 for the Toledo Country Club 4th of July Fireworks event, from 8:30 p.m. to 10:30 p.m. on July 5, 2026. This action is being taken to provide for the safety of life on certain navigable waters of the Maumee River. Our regulation for recurring marine events within the COTP Detroit zone in § 165.941, in item (5) to Table 2, specifies the location of the regulated area. During the enforcement period, if you are the operator of a vessel in the regulated area, you must comply with directions from the Patrol Commander or any Official Patrol displaying a Coast Guard ensign.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Caren C. Damon,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port Detroit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13050 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="39018"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 165</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number USCG-2026-0627]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1625-AA00</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Safety Zone; Ouachita River, West Monroe, LA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Temporary final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for navigable waters on the Ouachita River. The safety zone is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards associated with an over-water fireworks display. Entry of vessels or persons into this zone is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port Sector Lower Mississippi River or their designated representative.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective on July 4, 2026, from 8 p.m. through 11 p.m.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view available documents, go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for USCG-2026-0627.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have questions about this rule, contact MST1 Cole Perkins, Sector Lower Mississippi River Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 901-208-0311, or email 
                        <E T="03">Cole.A.Perkins@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">COTP Captain of the Port</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR Federal Register</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM Notice of proposed rulemaking</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">§ Section </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C. United States Code</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The Coast Guard received notification that fireworks will be launched from the Endom Bridge near West Monroe, LA. The Captain of the Port (COTP) Sector Lower Mississippi River has determined that potential hazards associated with fireworks are a safety concern for anyone on the Ouachita River within a half mile of the fireworks display. Therefore, the COTP is issuing this rule under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70034, which is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the safety zone.</P>
                <P>Because of these potential hazards, the Coast Guard is issuing this rule without prior notice and comment. As is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. The Coast Guard was notified of this event on May 15, 2026, but we must establish this safety zone by July 4, 2026, to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment. Therefore, we do not have enough time to solicit and respond to comments.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion of the Rule</HD>
                <P>This rule establishes a safety zone on July 4, 2026, from 8 p.m. through 11 p.m. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters, from surface to bottom, in the Ouachita River between mile markers 166.5 and 167.5. Vessels and persons will not be allowed to enter the zone during this time, unless authorized by the Captain of the Port.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                <P>We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Impact on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>The regulatory flexibility analysis provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, do not apply to rules that are not subject to notice and comment. Because the Coast Guard has, for good cause, waived the notice and comment requirement that would otherwise apply to this rulemaking, the Regulatory Flexibility Act's flexibility analysis provisions do not apply here.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), if this rule will affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions, contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Small businesses may send comments to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards by calling 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism and Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>We have analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in that Order.</P>
                <P>Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>As required by The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), the Coast Guard certifies that this rule will not result in an annual expenditure of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted for inflation) by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environment</HD>
                <P>
                    We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment.
                </P>
                <P>This rule is a safety zone. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 165</HD>
                    <P>Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:</P>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <PART>
                        <PRTPAGE P="39019"/>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 165—REGULATED NAVIGATION AREAS AND LIMITED ACCESS AREAS</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 165 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="33" PART="165">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Add § 165.T08-0627 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 165.T08-0627</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Safety Zone; West Monroe, LA.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Location.</E>
                             The following area is a safety zone: All waters of the Ouachita River from surface to bottom, between mile markers 166.5 and 167.5.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this section, 
                            <E T="03">designated representative</E>
                             means a Coast Guard Patrol Commander, including a Coast Guard coxswain, petty officer, or other officer operating a Coast Guard vessel and a Federal, State, and local officer designated by or assisting the Captain of the Port Sector Lower Mississippi River (COTP) in the enforcement of the safety zone.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.</E>
                             (1) Under the general safety zone regulations in subpart C of this part, you may not enter the safety zone described in paragraph (a) of this section unless authorized by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative on VHF-FM channel 16 or by telephone at (866) 360-3386. Those in the safety zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Enforcement period.</E>
                             This section will be enforced from 8 p.m. to 11 p.m. on July 4, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>D.P. Kilcullen,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Captain of the Port Sector Lower Mississippi River.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13028 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Parts 52 and 81</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-R05-OAR-2025-3654; FRL-13297-02-R5]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Air Plan Approval; Ohio; Redesignation of the Cleveland, OH Area to Attainment of the 2015 Ozone Standard</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving the request from the Ohio Environmental Protection Agency (Ohio EPA) to redesignate the Cleveland, Ohio area to attainment for the 2015 ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) because the request meets the statutory requirements for redesignation under the Clean Air Act (CAA). Ohio EPA submitted this request on December 8, 2025. The EPA is approving, as a revision to the Ohio State Implementation Plan (SIP), the State's plan for maintaining the 2015 ozone NAAQS through 2038 in the Cleveland area. The EPA is also finding adequate and approving Ohio's 2032 and 2038 volatile organic compound (VOC) and oxides of nitrogen (NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                        ) motor vehicle emissions budgets (budgets) for the Cleveland area. Additionally, the EPA is adjusting the deadline for Ohio to submit Serious SIP revisions for the Cleveland area. Finally, the EPA is approving the Enhanced motor vehicle inspection and maintenance (I/M) program certification and clean fuel vehicle program (CFVP) certification SIP revisions submitted by Ohio EPA on December 19, 2025, and January 12, 2026, pursuant to section 110 and part D of the CAA, because they satisfy Serious SIP requirements for the Cleveland area under the 2015 ozone NAAQS.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule is effective on June 29, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R05-OAR-2025-3654. All documents in the docket are listed on the 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         website. Although listed in the index, some information is not publicly available, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         Confidential Business Information (CBI), Proprietary Business Information (PBI), or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Certain other material, such as copyrighted material, is not placed on the internet and will be publicly available only in hard copy form. Publicly available docket materials are available either through 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         or please contact the person identified in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section for additional information.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Cecilia Magos, Air and Radiation Division (AR-18J), Environmental Protection Agency, Region 5, 77 West Jackson Boulevard, Chicago, Illinois 60604, telephone number: (312) 886-7336, email address: 
                        <E T="03">magos.cecilia@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean the EPA. We use multiple acronyms and terms in this preamble. While this list may not be exhaustive, to ease the reading of this preamble and for reference purposes, the EPA defines the following terms and acronyms here:</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CAA Clean Air Act</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CAIR Clean Air Interstate Rule</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CBI Confidential Business Information</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CDD Clean Data Determination</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CSAPR Cross-State Air Pollution Rule</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFVP Clean Fuel Vehicle Program</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">EPA Environmental Protection Agency</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">EMP Enhanced Monitoring Plan</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">GHG Greenhouse Gas</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">I/M Inspection and Maintenance</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">MOVES Motor Vehicle Emission Simulator</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NAAQS National Ambient Air Quality Standard</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        NO
                        <E T="52">X</E>
                         Oxides of Nitrogen
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NSR New Source Review</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Ohio EPA Ohio Environmental Protection Agency</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">PBI Proprietary Business Information</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ppm parts per million</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">PSD Prevention of Significant Deterioration</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">PSM Performance Standard Modeling</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">RACM Reasonable Available Control Measures</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">RACT Reasonable Available Control Technology</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">RFP Reasonable Further Progress</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SIP State Implementation Plan</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">VOC Volatile Organic Compound </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Organization of this document.</E>
                     This supplementary information section is arranged as follows: 
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Executive Summary and Background</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. What action is the EPA taking? </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Response to Comments</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Serious SIP Deadline Extension</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Planning Requirements</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Repealed Federal Rules</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Nonattainment New Source Review</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Executive Summary and Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The EPA is redesignating the Cleveland area to attainment of the 2015 ozone standard, in accordance with Ohio EPA's December 8, 2025, submission. The Cleveland area includes Cuyahoga, Geauga, Lake, Lorain, Medina, Portage, and Summit Counties. The background of this action was discussed in detail in the EPA's proposal dated April 10, 2026 (91 FR 18355). In that proposal, we noted that, under the CAA, the EPA may redesignate nonattainment areas to attainment if complete, quality-assured data show that the area has attained the standard and the area meets the other CAA redesignation requirements in section 107(d)(3)(E). The proposed rule provides a detailed discussion of how Ohio has met these CAA requirements 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39020"/>
                    and the EPA's rationale for approving the redesignation request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    As discussed in the proposed rule, quality-assured and certified monitoring data for 2023-2025 show that the area has attained the 2015 ozone standard, and the EPA has determined that attainment is due to permanent and enforceable measures. The EPA is approving, as a revision to the Ohio SIP, the State's maintenance plan for the area. The maintenance plan is designed to keep the Cleveland area in attainment of the 2015 ozone NAAQS through 2038. Additionally, the EPA is finding adequate and approving Ohio's newly adopted 2032 and 2038 motor vehicle emissions budgets for NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     and VOC in the area that are supported by Ohio's maintenance demonstration.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The EPA is also adjusting the deadline for Ohio to submit Serious SIP revisions for the Cleveland area to no later than December 5, 2026. Finally, as discussed in the proposed rule, the EPA is approving several elements which meet section 110 and part D of the CAA and the EPA's regulations for an area which is classified as Serious nonattainment for the 2015 ozone NAAQS. These elements include Enhanced I/M certification and CFVP certification SIP revisions submitted by Ohio EPA on December 19, 2025, and supplemented on January 12, 2026. In separate actions, the EPA is approving Ohio's VOC and NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     reasonably available control technology (RACT) submissions as meeting the requirements for Moderate nonattainment areas. With these approvals of Ohio's SIP submissions, all SIP requirements applicable to redesignation are fully approved.
                </P>
                <P>
                    After publication of the proposed redesignation rule, the EPA finalized an additional rulemaking related to attainment of the 2015 ozone standard in the Cleveland nonattainment area. The EPA issued a determination that the area is attaining the 2015 ozone NAAQS based on air quality monitoring data from 2023 through 2025, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     a clean data determination (CDD), on May 14, 2026 (91 FR 27211). In issuing the CDD, the EPA took notice and comment on its concurrence with a December 8, 2025, exceptional event demonstration submitted by Ohio EPA. The demonstration requested exclusion of wildfire event-influenced data from the 2023-2025 design value period for the 2015 ozone NAAQS for the Cleveland nonattainment area.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. What action is the EPA taking?</HD>
                <P>The EPA finds that the Cleveland area is meeting the requirements for redesignation under section 107(d)(3)(E) of the CAA. The EPA is changing the legal designation of the Cleveland area from nonattainment to attainment for the 2015 ozone NAAQS in accordance with Ohio EPA's December 8, 2025, request. The EPA is approving the State's plan for maintaining the 2015 ozone NAAQS in the Cleveland area through 2038. As part of the maintenance plan, the EPA is finding adequate and approving the newly established 2032 and 2038 motor vehicle emissions budgets for the Cleveland area. The EPA is adjusting the deadline for Ohio to submit Serious SIP revisions for the Cleveland area to no later than December 5, 2026. Finally, pursuant to section 110 and part D of the CAA, the EPA is approving the Enhanced I/M certification and CFVP certification SIP revisions submitted by Ohio EPA on December 19, 2025, and supplemented on January 12, 2026.</P>
                <P>In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(d), the EPA finds there is good cause for these actions to become effective immediately upon publication. This is because a delayed effective date is unnecessary due to the nature of a redesignation to attainment, which relieves the area from certain CAA requirements that would otherwise apply to it. The immediate effective date for this action is authorized under both 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(1), which provides that rulemaking actions may become effective less than 30 days after publication if the rule “grants or recognizes an exemption or relieves a restriction,” and section 553(d)(3), which allows an effective date less than 30 days after publication “as otherwise provided by the agency for good cause found and published with the rule.” The purpose of the 30-day waiting period prescribed in section 553(d) is to give affected parties a reasonable time to adjust their behavior and prepare before the final rule takes effect. This rule, however, does not create any new regulatory requirements such that affected parties would need time to prepare before the rule takes effect. Rather, this rule relieves the State of planning requirements for this ozone nonattainment area. For these reasons, the EPA finds good cause under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3) for these actions to become effective on the date of publication of these actions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Response to Comments</HD>
                <P>The EPA provided a 30-day review and comment period for the April 10, 2026 (91 FR 18355) proposed rule. The comment period ended on May 11, 2026. The EPA received one supportive and two adverse comment submissions. Summaries of the adverse comments and the EPA's responses are provided below. All comments submitted during the public comment period are available in the docket of this action.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter raises several issues and calls for supplementing the record for greater transparency. The commenter requests further explanation of the exceptional event days related to attainment and a discussion of how the affected days approved or not would impact the design value calculation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     These comments appear to be based on a misunderstanding of this action. This action is finalizing the proposed approval of Ohio EPA's December 8, 2025, request to redesignate the Cleveland area based on attaining monitoring data for 2023-2025, and the EPA's determination that the area meets all other requirements for redesignation at CAA section 107(d)(3)(E). In a separate final action, a CDD, the EPA determined that the Cleveland area is attaining the 2015 ozone NAAQS, in accordance with 40 CFR 50.19 and appendix U of part 50, based on three complete, consecutive calendar years of quality-assured air quality data for all monitoring sites in the area. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     91 FR 27211, May 14, 2026. Per the CDD, the EPA took final agency action on Ohio EPA's exceptional events request submitted on December 8, 2025, and the EPA's concurrence issued on January 12, 2026. The EPA's technical support document and Ohio EPA's exceptional events demonstration data and analysis are included in the docket of that action. Comments regarding the explanation of exceptional event days and impact on the design value calculation fall outside of the scope of this action. These concerns would have been more appropriately raised in the context of the Cleveland CDD notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     The commenter requests information on why the EPA believes the design value threshold is sufficient to support approval of the redesignation and maintenance plan approval through 2038.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     Regarding the sufficiency of the design value threshold, the design values are consistent with the individual NAAQS as described in 40 CFR part 50 and are used to assess progress towards meeting the NAAQS. To attain the 2015 ozone NAAQS, the ozone design value for the area must not exceed 0.070 parts per million (ppm) at each monitor, calculated as the 3-year average of the annual fourth-highest daily maximum 8-hour average ozone concentrations when truncated after the thousandth decimal place, at all of the ozone monitoring sites in the area. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     40 CFR 50.19 and appendix U to 40 CFR 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39021"/>
                    part 50. Under CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(i), for redesignation of a nonattainment area to attainment, the CAA requires the EPA to determine that the area has attained the applicable NAAQS. The statute does not require the EPA to assess by what margin the area is attaining. The Cleveland area's 3-year ozone design value for 2023-2025 is 0.070 ppm, which meets the 2015 ozone NAAQS, and is therefore supportive of a redesignation. The margin by which the area (or monitor) attains the NAAQS is not relevant to the question of whether or not the area is attaining the NAAQS and furthermore, its eligibility for redesignation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    As stated in the proposed rule, CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(iv) provides that the Administrator must fully approve a “maintenance plan for the area as meeting the requirements of sections 175A.” CAA section 175A sets forth the elements of a maintenance plan for areas seeking redesignation from nonattainment to attainment, including a demonstration of continued attainment of the NAAQS for at least 10 years after the Administrator approves a redesignation to attainment. Ohio has demonstrated maintenance of the 2015 ozone NAAQS for the Cleveland area through 2038 by projecting that current and future emissions of VOC and NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    , the pollutant precursors that contribute to ozone formation, remain at or below attainment year emission levels. The requirement for a maintenance plan includes the requirement for contingency provisions to be triggered should an area violate the NAAQS after redesignation, which illustrates that the CAA anticipates some possibility that areas may in the future violate the NAAQS despite meetings all requirements under CAA section 107(d)(3)(E). In this final rule, the EPA finds the design values sufficient to support redesignation and approves Ohio's plan for maintaining the NAAQS through 2038, as described in the proposed rule.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     The commenter requests information on contingencies available in case future monitoring changes prior to final action.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     With respect to the contingencies available in case of future monitoring changes, as stated in the proposed rule, the EPA will not take final action to redesignate the Cleveland area to attainment if the design value of a monitoring site in the area violates the NAAQS prior to final approval of the redesignation. Further, any modification to a State's ambient air quality monitoring network is subject to review and approval by the Regional Administrator. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     40 CFR 58.14 and appendix D to 40 CFR part 58. Also, as demonstrated by the contingency provisions required by section 175A(d), the CAA clearly anticipates and provides for situations where an area might monitor a violation of the NAAQS after having been redesignated to attainment, and leaves it to the Administrator to determine whether redesignation to nonattainment and a new nonattainment plan SIP submission is necessary in such cases. Ohio's maintenance plan also accounts for this possibility by including a violation of the NAAQS as an action level trigger requiring the implementation of control measures to reduce ozone precursor emissions and bring the area back into attainment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     The commenter requests further clarification of the EPA's rationale behind extending the deadline for Ohio's Serious SIP revisions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     As stated in the proposed rule and further explained in our responses below, the EPA outlined in detail the reasoning for an adjustment of the Serious SIP submission deadline. The EPA's interpretation of CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(v) has informed State and Federal implementation of redesignations for more than three decades. Under this interpretation, the State assembled and invested considerable resources finalizing their redesignation to attainment request for the Cleveland area, including considerable technical analyses and providing a public inspection period. Given that the State submitted its request on Monday, December 8, 2025, only three days after the Sixth Circuit Court of Appeals issued its decision, Ohio's redesignation request did not address the Serious SIP requirements.
                </P>
                <P>Under its statutory and regulatory authority stated in the proposed rule, the EPA is making a one-time adjustment of the Serious SIP submission deadline for the Cleveland area from January 1, 2026, to December 5, 2026, allowing the EPA to review the redesignation request consistent with Ohio's expectations at the time it submitted its request.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A commenter requests the EPA make the basis of the 2032 and 2038 motor vehicle emissions budgets easier to evaluate.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     As stated in the proposed rule, under the CAA, States are required to submit control strategy SIPs, which include motor vehicle emissions budgets for criteria pollutants, including ozone and their precursor pollutants (VOC and NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                    ), to address pollution from onroad transportation sources. Per 40 CFR 93.118(b)(2), a maintenance plan establishes a budget for the last year of the maintenance plan at a minimum and could also establish budgets for other years. In this case, the area's 2015 ozone NAAQS maintenance plan establishes NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     and VOC budgets for the last year it covers, 2038, and for an earlier year, 2032. The term, “motor vehicle emissions budget” is defined at 40 CFR 93.101. Ohio EPA developed their VOC and NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     budgets for the area through an interagency consultation process that included Federal, State, and local agencies, consistent with the control strategy provisions. The State submitted all analyses and assumptions of the 2032 and 2038 budgets for the EPA's review. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     “Main Document—Cleveland Ozone Redes Request” and “Appendix C—Cleveland Ozone Redes Request.” In the proposed rule, the EPA listed the adequacy criteria in 40 CFR 93.118(e)(4) and stated that the budgets met them. The EPA included all appropriate analyses and documentation in the docket of this action to ease further review.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Serious SIP Deadline Extension</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Some commenters assert that the EPA's proposed extension contravenes the recent Sixth Circuit decision in 
                    <E T="03">Sierra Club</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                     161 F.4th 934 (6th Cir. 2025) (“
                    <E T="03">Sierra Club”</E>
                    ). The commenters claim that the EPA cannot rely on the 
                    <E T="03">Sierra Club</E>
                     decision to justify its proposed adjustment of the Serious SIP deadline, and that a proposed extension would simply mean that Serious area nonattainment plan would not be overdue yet. The commenters note that the current deadline for Serious area SIP submissions is January 1, 2026, established via rule on January 17, 2025, meaning Serious area SIP requirements have been “applicable” to the Cleveland area since then. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     90 FR 5651, January 17, 2025. Therefore, the commenters contend that Serious area SIP requirements apply to the Cleveland area and the EPA is barred from approving a redesignation request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The SIP and planning requirements added to the CAA by the 1990 amendments became final on November 15, 1990. On September 4, 1992, less than two months before some of those requirements were set to take effect, the Director of the EPA's Air Management Division John Calcagni issued a memo outlining the EPA's procedures and standards of review for redesignating areas to attainment in the midst of these new statutory requirements.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For more than 30 years, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39022"/>
                    the EPA and States have relied on the “Calcagni Memorandum” as a guidepost for the timelines and cooperative exchanges outlined by the CAA for redesignation requests. One important component of the memo was its interpretation of CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(v), that a State will have satisfied that criterion if it has met all the applicable requirements in section 110 and Part D that were due as of the time of the State's redesignation request. On Friday, December 5, 2025, the Sixth Circuit rejected that longstanding interpretation of CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(v). On Monday, December 8, 2025, Ohio submitted its redesignation request. Less than one month later, the Serious SIP submittal deadlines passed.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Calcagni, John, Director, Air Quality Management Division, EPA Office of Air Quality 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        Planning and Standards, “Procedures for Processing Requests to Redesignate Areas to Attainment,” September 4, 1992.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The EPA does not dispute the commenters' assertion that the EPA's January 17, 2025, rule established a January 1, 2026, deadline for Serious SIP submissions. However, nothing in CAA section 182(i) states that the EPA is limited to extending deadlines under that provision only once for reclassified areas. Section 182(i) states that the EPA “may adjust 
                    <E T="03">any</E>
                     applicable deadlines” consistent with the provision. And the EPA's position, as outlined in its proposal, is that upon 
                    <E T="03">finalization</E>
                     of this action, the Serious area SIP deadlines would be extended. Once the EPA's extension is finalized, no party (the EPA or the public) would be able to enforce the original deadline that has now been extended—the State would now have until the extended deadline to meet those requirements.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Wildearth Guardians</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                         830 F.3d 529, 534-535 (D.C. Cir. 2016) (accepting that the EPA's rule setting new deadlines “superseded” all previously established deadlines).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As stated in the proposed rule, the assembly and preparation of a redesignation request requires many months, and sometimes years. All that time, Ohio's work towards its redesignation request relied on an interpretation that the EPA had consistently applied over three decades.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     The commenters contend that the EPA cannot suggest that the 6th Circuit ruling in 
                    <E T="03">Sierra Club</E>
                     authorizes a proposed delay of the Cleveland 2015 ozone Serious area nonattainment deadline. The commenters cite the 6th Circuit's decision, which notes that “if the EPA grants a redesignation before the stricter reclassification) requirements come due, the problem (of the applicability of those requirements for purposes of redesignation) is avoided entirely,” and contends that in the context of the decision, this is not a free pass to extend deadlines for purposes of beating out the clock on a redesignation request. The commenters assert that while the court acknowledged that EPA has “some leeway” in setting nonattainment plan deadlines for reclassified areas (the RACT SIP deadlines, in that case), the court did not hold that the EPA can arbitrarily extend the nonattainment plan deadlines for the purpose of allowing a State to avoid those deadlines before redesignation. The commenters also contend that the EPA's extension of the Serious SIP submittal deadline is inconsistent with the EPA's authority under CAA section 182(i).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The EPA does not agree with the commenters' interpretation of the 6th Circuit's decision. Instead, the EPA interprets the section of the decision as a potential implementation pathway that harmonizes some of the practical difficulties, which the EPA alluded to in its brief, of requiring States to meet requirements potentially coming due after submission of their request. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     brief for Respondent at 54-56, 
                    <E T="03">Sierra Club,</E>
                     161 F.4th 934 (6th Cir. 2025) (No. 23-3583). The court acknowledged that extension of deadlines was an area in which the EPA had some authority and “leeway” and that granting a request prior to a deadline would avoid the applicability issue “entirely.” The EPA's extension of the Serious SIP deadlines is consistent with the 6th Circuit's ruling. 
                    <E T="03">Sierra Club</E>
                     at 950-951.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     The commenters argue that the EPA is exceeding its authority to adjust deadlines under CAA section 182(i). While commenters acknowledge that the EPA is permitted under CAA section 182(i) to “make such adjustment to the extent it is necessary or appropriate to assure consistency among the required Submissions under the applicable Moderate, Serious, and Severe nonattainment SIP requirements of CAA sections 182(b)-(d),” they claim that the EPA does not provide a “satisfactory” explanation of how the proposed adjustment is “necessary or appropriate to ensure consistency” among 182(c) Serious requirements that apply to Cleveland. Commenters further contend that the EPA's explanation, centered on Ohio's reliance interests in pre-
                    <E T="03">Sierra Club</E>
                     understanding of what requirements it would need to meet in order to be redesignated is insufficient and outside the statutory criteria of CAA section 182(i). The commenters reject the EPA's analogy to 
                    <E T="03">Wildearth Guardians</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                     830 F.3d 529, 539 (D.C. Cir. 2016)(“
                    <E T="03">Wildearth Guardians”</E>
                    ) as “inaccurate and misplaced.” The commenters assert that two key circumstances were present in that case that are not present in this one: the EPA was exercising its general rulemaking and “gap-filling” authority under CAA section 301(a), and without an adjustment in the deadline, States would have otherwise been subject to overdue mandatory deadlines.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The EPA disagrees with these comments. CAA section 182(i) states that States containing reclassified ozone areas shall meet the requirements of section 182(b) through (d) according to the schedules prescribed in connection with such requirements, “except that the Administrator may adjust any applicable deadlines (other than attainment dates) to the extent such adjustment is necessary or appropriate to assure consistency among the required submissions.” Commenters contend that the Agency “correctly” exercised its authority under this provision in setting the original January 1, 2026, Serious area SIP deadline. In establishing that deadline, the EPA had noted that the deadline was “consistent with the overall schedule of the submission of substantive requirements” and “informed by the need to ensure that the reductions resulting from the Act's requirements are consistently due in time to influence an area's attainment by the attainment date, to the extent the applicable controls are necessary to achieve attainment by that date.” 90 FR 5651, 5653 (January 17, 2025).
                </P>
                <P>
                    But the grant of authority in CAA section 182(i) is drafted in a manner that clearly confers upon the agency flexibility and discretion in carrying it out, and in setting deadlines for different areas with different circumstances, it naturally follows that there is more than one way to exercise that authority. In 
                    <E T="03">Loper Bright Enters.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Raimondo,</E>
                     the Supreme Court stated, “[i]n a case involving an agency, of course, the statute's meaning may well be that the agency is authorized to exercise a degree of discretion,” and cited statutes using “a term or phrase that `leaves agencies with flexibility,' . . . such as `appropriate' or `reasonable' ” as the classic examples of when the best reading of a statute is that it delegates discretionary authority to an agency. 603 U.S. 369, 394-95 (2024). CAA section 182(i) is just such a provision. Other than attainment dates, which the EPA may not change, the statute grants the Administrator authority to adjust “any” applicable deadline, with the limitations on that adjustment cabined by broad and expansive terms identified by the Supreme Court in 
                    <E T="03">Loper Bright.</E>
                      
                    <PRTPAGE P="39023"/>
                    Congress did not specify precisely what it meant by “consistency” nor which required submissions it was referring to. The thrust of the provision, which covers establishment of deadlines for any nonattainment area reclassified from Moderate to Severe for any ozone NAAQS, is a broad grant of authority to the Administrator to accommodate adjustment of deadlines under these many varied circumstances.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The EPA previewed its view that its authority under CAA section 182(i) was sufficiently expansive to accommodate different situations; in the 2025 rule establishing the “default” Serious area SIP submissions deadline of January 1, 2026, the EPA explicitly stated that “the default SIP submission deadlines could be adjusted where such adjustment is appropriate or necessary, through future notice-and-comment rulemaking in specific EPA actions.” 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     90 FR 5651, 5654 (January 17, 2025). One of the chief concerns informing the EPA's establishment of the January 1, 2026, deadline—namely, setting a deadline for nonattainment areas such that “reductions resulting from the Act's requirements are consistently due in time to influence an area's attainment by the attainment date, 
                    <E T="03">to the extent the applicable controls are necessary to achieve attainment by that date”</E>
                     
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    —is no longer applicable in the situation of the Cleveland-OH nonattainment area. This area has attained the NAAQS prior to its statutory and regulatory attainment date without the benefit of reductions associated with the Serious area requirements; while that does not render those requirements inapplicable, it does obviate the strict necessity of having those reductions in place to influence attainment by the attainment date, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     one of the primary stated reasons for the default January 1, 2026, deadline. With those facts in mind and with the consideration of Ohio's reliance and expectation that they could be redesignated absent the Serious area requirements, there are appropriate reasons to differentiate, even if the result is some inconsistency, between Cleveland and other areas subject to the January 1, 2026, deadline that have not yet attained the NAAQS.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 5651, 5653 (January 17, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The EPA acknowledges that the precise circumstances present in the fact pattern at issue in 
                    <E T="03">Wildearth Guardians</E>
                     differs from the circumstances here, in that the subpart 4 implementation deadlines and reclassification timeframes had passed as of the time of the D.C. Circuit's ruling directing the EPA to implement particular matter requirements under subpart 4 in 
                    <E T="03">NRDC</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                     706 F.3d 428 (D.C. Cir. 2013) and as of the time of the 6th Circuit's issuance of 
                    <E T="03">Sierra Club</E>
                     in December 2025, Ohio had not yet made its redesignation submission and the Serious area deadline had not yet passed. However, the EPA finds the commenters are overly focused on the technicality of the passed deadline; in reality, Ohio's redesignation request and maintenance SIP, which was submitted to the EPA on Monday December 8 following the 6th Circuit's issuance of 
                    <E T="03">Sierra Club</E>
                     on Friday, December 5, was clearly prepared under the previous framework that the request could be approved absent the Serious area requirements. While that Serious area deadline had not yet passed as of the Court's issuance of the 
                    <E T="03">Sierra Club</E>
                     decision, it would in a matter of weeks. And even if Ohio understood that the framework was currently subject to litigation and could be overturned, as commenters contend, that is no different than the States implementing particulate matter requirements under the incorrect subpart of the CAA. Those States also could have addressed precursors and requirements specific to subpart 4 in anticipation of the EPA receiving an adverse ruling, and elected instead to rely on the Agency's understanding of the statute. But it is entirely reasonable for a State or regulated party to rely upon the operating framework—particularly one that has been in place for decades—until there is clarity from a court that that framework is incorrect.
                </P>
                <P>We therefore do not agree with commenters' contention that extending the Serious area SIP requirements deadline for the Cleveland area is outside the EPA's statutory authority or arbitrary and capricious.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Planning Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     The commenters claim that Ohio has not met all the applicable requirements to the Cleveland 2015 ozone Serious nonattainment area under CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(ii) as Ohio does not have a fully approved SIP under CAA section 110(k), therefore, barring the EPA from finalizing its proposed approval of Ohio's redesignation request. The commenters state the EPA failed to provide the “required reasonable rationale” to the claim that certain CAA section 110 elements are not applicable to the Cleveland nonattainment area for purposes of redesignation. The commenters request that the EPA assess whether Ohio has met its Good Neighbor obligations under 110(a)(2)(D)(i) for the 2015 ozone NAAQS which they allege the EPA incorrectly claims as not applicable to the area. They allege since the EPA has not fully approved the applicable SIP under CAA section 110(k)(3) and Ohio has not met all the requirements under CAA section 110, the EPA is barred under CAA sections 107(d)(E)(3)(ii) and (v) from finalizing Ohio's redesignation request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The EPA disagrees with the commenters' remarks. CAA section 110(a)(2)(D) requires that SIPs contain measures to prevent sources in a State from significantly contributing to air quality problems in another State. While the EPA noted in the proposed rule that programs such as the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     SIP Call, Clean Air Interstate Rule (CAIR), and Cross-State Air Pollution Rule (CSAPR) were established to address transport of air pollutants, we also clearly stated that the section 110(a)(2)(D) requirements for a State are not linked with a particular nonattainment area's designation and classification. Further, the EPA concludes that the requirements linked with a particular nonattainment area's designation and classification are the relevant measures to evaluate in reviewing a redesignation request. Therefore, because the section 110(a)(2)(D) requirements apply to a State regardless of the designation of any one particular area in the State, the EPA further concludes that these requirements should not be construed to be applicable requirements for purposes of redesignation. The EPA is not taking any action, in this rulemaking, to determine whether the State of Ohio has satisfied the requirements of 110(a)(2)(D) with respect to the 2015 ozone NAAQS.
                </P>
                <P>
                    As previously stated, the EPA stands by its position that section 110 elements that are not connected with nonattainment plan submissions and not linked with an area's attainment status are not applicable requirements for purposes of redesignation. A State remains subject to these requirements after an area is redesignated to attainment. We conclude that only the section 110 and part D requirements which are linked with a particular area's designation and classification are the relevant measures which we may consider in evaluating a redesignation request. This approach is consistent with the EPA's existing policy on applicability of certain requirements for redesignation purposes, as well as with section 184 ozone transport requirements. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Reading, Pennsylvania, proposed and final rulemakings (61 FR 53174 through 53176, October 10, 1996), (62 FR 24826, May 7, 1997); Cleveland-Akron-Lorain, Ohio, final rulemaking (61 FR 20458, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39024"/>
                    May 7, 1996); and Tampa, Florida, final rulemaking (60 FR 62748, December 7, 1995). 
                    <E T="03">See also</E>
                     the discussion on this issue in the Cincinnati, Ohio ozone redesignation (65 FR 37890, June 19, 2000), and in the Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania ozone redesignation (66 FR 50399, October 19, 2001), and in the St. Louis 1-hour ozone redesignation 68 FR 25418, 25426 through 27 (May 12, 2003). Both the 6th and 7th Circuits have agreed that the CAA provides the EPA with leeway to determine what is an “applicable requirement” for purposes of redesignation. 
                    <E T="03">Sierra Club</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                     375 F.3d 537 (7th Cir. 2004). 
                    <E T="03">See Wall</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                     265 F.3d 426 (6th Cir. 2001), upholding the EPA's interpretation of “applicable requirements.” Therefore, the EPA finds the redesignation request for the 2015 ozone NAAQS submitted by the State meets the applicable CAA section 110(k)(3) requirements and Ohio appropriately satisfies section 110 requirements applicable to the area. Therefore, under CAA section 107(d)(3)(E), the EPA is finalizing the proposed approval of Ohio's redesignation request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     The commenters contend that Ohio's redesignation request violates CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(v)'s mandate, further stressed in the 
                    <E T="03">Sierra Club</E>
                     decision, as the area has not met 
                    <E T="03">all</E>
                     the applicable requirements under Part D for Cleveland before it can be redesignated. Specifically, the commenters assert that the area has not met the following requirements: CAA section 182(c)(2) attainment and Reasonable Further Progress (RFP) demonstrations; Serious area NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     and VOC RACT; CAA section 182(a)(1) emissions inventories; CAA section 182(a)(3)(B) emissions statement regulations; Serious area Nonattainment New Source Review (NSR); CAA section 172(c)(9) and section 182(c)(9) contingency measures.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The EPA disagrees with the commenters' assertions. The EPA reviewed Ohio's 2015 ozone standard redesignation request for the Cleveland area and found that it met all the applicable requirements under CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(v). With respect to CAA section 182(c)(2) requirements for areas classified as Serious, including the cited attainment and Reasonable Further Progress demonstrations, the EPA disagrees with the commenters' remarks.
                </P>
                <P>On May 14, 2026 (91 FR 27211), the EPA determined that the Cleveland nonattainment area is meeting the 2015 ozone NAAQS. Therefore, these elements are not needed to redesignate the Ohio portion because the area has attained the 2015 ozone NAAQS. This rationale is outlined in 40 CFR 51.1318, the General Preamble, and the Calcagni Memorandum at 6 (“The requirements for reasonable further progress and other measures needed for attainment will not apply for redesignations because they only have meaning for areas not attaining the standard.”). The EPA concludes it is reasonable to interpret these provisions as not requiring areas that are meeting the ozone standard to make the SIP submissions to the EPA described in the provisions as long as the areas continue to meet the standard. The EPA notes that if such an area were to monitor a violation of the standard prior to being redesignated to attainment, however, the area would have to address the pertinent requirements and submit the SIP revisions described in those provisions to the EPA.</P>
                <P>
                    With respect to the Serious area NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     and VOC RACT requirement, the EPA is adjusting the Serious SIP submission deadline for the Cleveland area, providing Ohio with the necessary and appropriate time to address any submissions it determines necessary, including Serious RACT SIP requirements. The EPA's adjustment of the SIP submittal deadline to December 5, 2026, and the redesignation of the Cleveland area prior to that date, render the NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     RACT at the Serious major source threshold as not applicable for purposes of redesignation because they have not become due.
                </P>
                <P>
                    With respect to emissions inventories, by meeting the section 182(a)(1) emission inventory requirement, Ohio has also met the section 172(c)(3) requirement for a comprehensive, accurate, and current emissions inventory. The Calcagni Memorandum states that emissions inventory requirements of section 172(c) of the CAA are satisfied by the inventory requirements of the maintenance plan. (
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     the Calcagni Memorandum at 6). As stated in the proposed rule, the EPA approved Ohio's base year emissions inventory for the Cleveland area on March 3, 2021 (86 FR 12270) and July 7, 2025 (90 FR 29742) as required by CAA section 182(a)(1), contrary to the commenters' remarks.
                </P>
                <P>Further, with respect to the emission statement regulations, Ohio will continue to update its emissions inventory at least once every three years consistent with the requirements of 40 CFR part 51, subpart A, and in 40 CFR 51.122, in accordance with section 182(a)(3). The EPA approved Ohio's emission statement SIP for the Cleveland area for the 2015 ozone NAAQS on July 11, 2017 (82 FR 31913).</P>
                <P>
                    With respect to Serious area Nonattainment NSR, since Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) requirements will apply after redesignation, areas being redesignated need not comply with the requirement that a part D NSR program be approved prior to redesignation, provided that the area demonstrates maintenance of the NAAQS without a part D NSR program. A more detailed rationale for this view is described in the October 14, 1994, policy memorandum from Mary D. Nichols entitled “Part D New Source Review (part D NSR) Requirements for Areas Requesting Redesignation to Attainment” (Nichols Memorandum). PSD, a program that is the corollary of part D NSR for attainment areas, goes into effect in lieu of part D NSR upon redesignation. PSD requires that new sources demonstrate that emissions from their construction and operation will not cause or contribute to a violation of any NAAQS or PSD increment. The EPA most recently approved revisions to Ohio's PSD program on February 25, 2010 (75 FR 8496). The State has demonstrated that the areas will be able to maintain the standard without Part D NSR in effect, and the State's PSD program will become effective in the area upon redesignation to attainment. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     the rationale set forth at length in the Nichols Memorandum, as well as the discussions of why full approval and retention of NSR is not required in redesignation actions in the following redesignation rulemakings: 60 FR 12459, 12467 through 12468 (March 7, 1995) (Detroit, MI); 61 FR 20458, 20469 through 20470 (May 7, 1996) (Cleveland-Akron-Lorain, OH); 66 FR 53665, 53669 (October 23, 2001) (Louisville, KY); 61 FR 31831, 31836 through 31837 (June 21, 1996) (Grand Rapids, MI); 73 FR 29436, 29440 through 29441 (May 21, 2008) (Kewaunee County, WI); 77 FR 34819, 34826 through 34827 (June 12, 2012) (Illinois portion of St. Louis, MO-IL).
                </P>
                <P>
                    With respect to CAA section 172(c)(9) and section 182(c)(9) contingency measure requirements, in the context of redesignations, the EPA has interpreted requirements related to attainment as not applicable for purposes of redesignation. For example, in the “General Preamble for the Interpretation of Title I of the Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990,” (General Preamble) 57 FR 13498, 13564 (April 16, 1992), the EPA stated that: “[t]he section 172(c)(9) requirements are directed at ensuring RFP and attainment by the applicable date. These requirements no longer apply when an area has attained 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39025"/>
                    the standard and is eligible for redesignation. Furthermore, section 175A for maintenance plans . . . provides specific requirements for contingency measures that effectively supersede the requirements of section 172(c)(9) for these areas.” 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     also Calcagni Memorandum at 6 (“The requirements for reasonable further progress and other measures needed for attainment will not apply for redesignations because they only have meaning for areas not attaining the standard.”).
                </P>
                <P>Further, CAA section 182(c)(9) refers to contingency measures applicable should an area fail to meet the applicable milestones needed for attainment. These nonattainment area requirements no longer apply after an area has attained the standard and are not applicable for purposes of redesignation. Under section 175A of the CAA, maintenance plans must contain contingency provisions, “as deemed necessary by the Administrator,” and it is these contingency provisions that apply to the area after redesignation to attainment. Ohio included such provisions in its maintenance plan which the EPA is approving in this action. Therefore, Ohio has satisfied the applicable requirements under CAA section 172(c)(9) and CAA section 182(c)(9). Based on the aforementioned, the State's redesignation request for the Cleveland area meets the requirements under CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(v).</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     The commenters contend that the EPA has not finalized its proposed CDD for the Cleveland area, rendering the suspended nonattainment SIP elements such as an attainment demonstration, RFP, RFP contingency measures, and a transportation control demonstration, applicable as required under CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(v).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     As previously mentioned, on May 14, 2026 (91 FR 27211), the EPA determined that the Cleveland nonattainment area is meeting the 2015 ozone NAAQS, effectively suspending the requirements to submit an attainment demonstration and associated Reasonable Available Control Measures (RACM), RFP plans, contingency measures, and other planning SIPs related to attainment of the 2015 ozone NAAQS, for as long as the area continues to attain the 2015 ozone NAAQS, as stated under the EPA's Clean Data regulation, 40 CFR 51.1318. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     83 FR 62998, December 6, 2018. This regulation, which embodies the EPA's interpretation under its “Clean Data Policy,” has been upheld by the D.C. Circuit. 
                    <E T="03">NRDC</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                     571 F.3d 1245 (D.C. Cir. 2009).
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because the EPA determined that the Cleveland area is attaining the standard (
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     91 FR 27211, May 14, 2026) and because the area continues to meet that standard, the State is not currently obligated to submit an attainment demonstration, RACM, RFP plans, contingency measures for failure to attain or make reasonable progress, and other planning SIPs related to attainment of the 2015 ozone NAAQS, for as long as the area continues to attain the 2015 ozone NAAQS.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Other courts have reviewed and considered rulemakings applying EPA's Clean Data Policy and have consistently upheld them. 
                        <E T="03">See also Sierra Club</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                         99 F. 3d 1551 (10th Cir.1996); 
                        <E T="03">Sierra Club</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                         375 F.3d 537 (7th Cir. 2004); 
                        <E T="03">Our Children's Earth Foundation</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                         No. 04-73032 (9th Cir. June 28, 2005) (Memorandum Opinion); and 
                        <E T="03">Latino Issues Forum</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                         Nos. 06-75831 and 08-71238 (9th Cir. March 2, 2009 (Memorandum Opinion).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     The commenters argue Ohio's SIP does not include the State's Enhanced Monitoring Plan (EMP) as required under CAA section 182(c)(1), and that the EPA does not indicate that the SIP otherwise contains the required enhanced monitoring of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     and VOC for the Cleveland nonattainment area.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The EPA's adjustment of the deadline for Serious SIP revisions includes the EMP requirements under 182(c)(2). Therefore, and for the reasons discussed elsewhere, the EPA finds that the Ohio submittal met all the CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(v) requirements under part D applicable for redesignation. The EPA is within its authority under CAA section 107(d)(3)(E) to approve Ohio's redesignation request for the Cleveland nonattainment area. The EPA will take action on the State's submitted EMP requirements in a future rulemaking.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Repealed Federal Rules</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     The commenters argue that the EPA cannot finalize the approval of the redesignation request, the maintenance plan, or nonattainment SIP, since the redesignation requirement under CAA section 107(d)(3)(E), maintenance demonstrations required under CAA section 175A, and the transportation conformity and motor vehicle emissions budgets (budgets) required under CAA section 176(c) of Ohio's request rely on greenhouse gas (GHG) emission standards for mobile sources rules repealed by the EPA. The commenters contend the EPA cannot approve the projected emissions inventories and transportation conformity budgets in Ohio's maintenance plan, as they rely on now-repealed Federal rules that are no longer permanent and enforceable. Therefore, Ohio cannot rely on those rules to decrease emissions and, under CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(iv) and (v), the EPA is prohibited from finalizing approval of either the maintenance plan and nonattainment SIP.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     Ohio prepared its maintenance demonstration, the onroad mobile source emissions projections, and the associated budgets using the EPA's Motor Vehicle Emission Simulator, version 5 (MOVES5), which was the EPA's latest approved motor vehicle emissions model available for SIP and transportation conformity purposes at the time the State developed its submittal. The EPA policy and longstanding practice direct states to use the most current approved version of MOVES available at the time emissions analyses are performed for SIP development.
                </P>
                <P>
                    On February 12, 2026, the EPA finalized the rescission of the Greenhouse Gas (GHG) Endangerment Finding and repealed all associated GHG vehicle emissions standards (Endangerment Finding Rescission Rule).
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As noted above, the Cleveland maintenance demonstration was prepared using MOVES5, which includes the effects of Federal vehicle standards that were repealed by this rule. A maintenance demonstration relies on the overall projected emissions inventory and modeled future-year emissions reductions, and the EPA notes the commenters did not provide additional documentation that the resulting emissions inventories and projections fail to satisfy the applicable maintenance planning requirements of CAA section 175A. The EPA conducted an additional analysis to consider the potential effects of the repealed vehicle rules the commenters reference. In this analysis, the EPA used MOVES5 to estimate the effect of no further electric vehicle growth in the fleet, an overly conservative assumption to account for the potential impact of the Endangerment Finding Rescission Rule on projected emissions of NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     and VOCs in the Cleveland area.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This conservative assumption reflects no change in EV market penetration from current 2026 levels to demonstrate the possible maximum impact of these rule changes. The technical support 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39026"/>
                    document in the docket of this action contains further details on the methods and results of this analysis.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The analysis indicates that overall NO
                    <E T="52">X</E>
                     and VOC emissions in the Cleveland 2015 ozone NAAQS area are expected to continue to decrease through 2038, even when accounting for the effects of the Endangerment Finding Rescission Rule.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Rescission of the Greenhouse Gas Endangerment Finding and Motor Vehicle Greenhouse Gas Emission Standards Under the Clean Air Act, 91 FR 7686.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         To note, the EPA is not reopening any previous regulatory actions related to motor vehicles within this action nor is the Agency taking a position that any previous regulatory action would result in no change in EV market penetration in the future. This conservative assumption is used as a bounding exercise to support this regulatory action.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         EPA's “MOVES5 2026 AVFT Analysis for Cleveland TSD” provided in the docket of this rulemaking (Docket ID: EPA-R05-OAR-2025-3654).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     The commenters contend the EPA cannot approve the Enhanced I/M requirements as they rely on now-repealed Federal rules.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     As stated above, earlier this year, the EPA finalized the rescission of the GHG Endangerment Finding and repealed all associated GHG vehicle emissions standards.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Per the I/M rule, performance standard modeling (PSM) analyses are intended to demonstrate the performance of the I/M program through the applicable attainment date, and the EPA does not expect any impacts related to MOVES modeling from the Endangerment Finding Rescission Rule in the 2026 PSM analysis year because there are no expected impacts on criteria pollutant emissions estimates for this year. In addition, an I/M performance standard analysis is a relative comparison between an actual implemented I/M program and the applicable Federal model benchmark program. As such, in general, any potential impacts as the result of regulatory changes would similarly impact both the implemented and Federal model benchmark programs in a PSM analysis. 
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         91 FR 7686, February 12, 2026.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Nonattainment New Source Review</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     The commenters argue that the EPA's approval of the Cleveland area redesignation without approval of a Serious nonattainment NSR program contradicts the requirements of the law. They contend that the Cleveland area must first meet CAA section 182(c) Serious area nonattainment NSR requirements, including the de minimis rule under 182(c)(6) and special rules under 182(c)(7) and (8).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The EPA disagrees with the commenters. As discussed above, since PSD requirements will apply after redesignation, areas being redesignated need not comply with the requirement that a part D NSR program (including the requirements found in section 182(c), including 182(c)(6), 182(c)(7)) be approved prior to redesignation, provided that the area demonstrates maintenance of the NAAQS without a part D NSR program. The EPA's longstanding rationale for this policy is set forth at length in the Nichols Memorandum. The State has demonstrated that the area will be able to maintain the standard without part D NSR in effect, and the State's PSD program will become effective in the area upon redesignation to attainment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     While the commenters acknowledge the EPA's approval of moderate nonattainment NSR requirements for the Cleveland area, they note Ohio's maintenance plan does not include nonattainment NSR as a contingency provision. They argue this prohibits the EPA from approving the maintenance plan under CAA section 175A(d) since this provision requires Serious area nonattainment NSR requirements to be in the SIP before the EPA redesignates an area.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     Part D NSR need not be retained in the SIP as a section 175A(d) contingency measure. The Nichols Memorandum clearly states, the “EPA believes it is reasonable to interpret `measure,' as used in section 175A(d), not to include part D NSR.” Congress used the undefined term “measure” differently in different provisions of the CAA, which indicates that the term is susceptible to more than one interpretation and that the EPA has the discretion to interpret it in a reasonable manner in the context of section 175A. 
                    <E T="03">See Greenbaum</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">United States EPA,</E>
                     370 F. 3d 527, 535 through 38 (6th Cir. 2004). (Court “find[s] persuasive the EPA's argument that the very nature of the NSR permit program supports its interpretation that it is not intended to be a contingency measure pursuant to section 175A(d).”). It is reasonable to interpret “measure” to exclude part D NSR in this context because PSD, a program that is the corollary of part D NSR for attainment areas, goes into effect in lieu of part D NSR upon redesignation. Under section 175A of the CAA, maintenance plans must contain contingency provisions, “as deemed necessary by the Administrator,” and it is these contingency provisions that apply to the area after redesignation to attainment. Ohio included such provisions in its maintenance plan which the EPA is approving in this action.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve State choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves State law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by State law. For that reason, this action:</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);</P>
                <P>• Is not an Executive Order 14192 (90 FR 9065, February 6, 2025) regulatory action because this action is not significant under Executive Order 12866;</P>
                <P>
                    • Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    );
                </P>
                <P>• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);</P>
                <P>• Does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) because it approves a State program;</P>
                <P>• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); and</P>
                <P>• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA.</P>
                <P>In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian Tribe has demonstrated that a Tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have Tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).</P>
                <P>This action is subject to the Congressional Review Act, and the EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by August 28, 2026. Filing a 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39027"/>
                    petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     section 307(b)(2).).
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                    <CFR>40 CFR Part 52</CFR>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen oxides, Ozone, Volatile organic compounds.</P>
                    <CFR>40 CFR Part 81</CFR>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Air pollution control, National parks, Wilderness areas.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Anne Vogel,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Administrator, Region 5.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons stated in the preamble, title 40 CFR parts 52 and 81 are amended as follows:</P>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 52—APPROVAL AND PROMULGATION OF IMPLEMENTATION PLANS</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 52 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                             42 U.S.C. 7401 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <AMDPAR>2. In § 52.1870, the table in paragraph (e) is amended under “Summary of Criteria Pollutant Maintenance Plan” by adding a new entry for “Ozone (8-hour, 2015)” before the entry for “PM-10” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 52.1870</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Identification of plan.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(e) * * *</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r100,12,r100,12">
                            <TTITLE>EPA—Approved Ohio Nonregulatory and Quasi Regulatory Provisions</TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Title</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Applicable geographical or
                                    <LI>non-attainment area</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">State date</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">EPA approval</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Comments</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Summary of Criteria Pollutant Maintenance Plan</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">Ozone (8-hour, 2015)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Cleveland (Cuyahoga, Geauga, Lake, Lorain, Medina, Portage, and Summit Counties)</ENT>
                                <ENT>12/8/2025</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    6/29/2026, 91 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS]
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="40" PART="52">
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 81—DESIGNATION OF AREAS FOR AIR QUALITY PLANNING PURPOSES</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>3. The authority citation for part 81 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                             42 U.S.C. 7401 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <AMDPAR>4. Section 81.336 is amended by revising the entry for “Cleveland, OH” in the table entitled “Ohio-2015 8-Hour Ozone NAAQS [Primary and Secondary]” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 81.336</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Ohio</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,12,r25,12,r25">
                            <TTITLE>Ohio—2015 8-Hour Ozone NAAQS</TTITLE>
                            <TDESC>[Primary and Secondary]</TDESC>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Designated Area 
                                    <SU>1</SU>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Designation</CHED>
                                <CHED H="2">
                                    Date 
                                    <SU>2</SU>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="2">Type</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Classification</CHED>
                                <CHED H="2">
                                    Date 
                                    <SU>2</SU>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="2">Type</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Cleveland, OH: Cuyahoga County, Geauga County, Lake County, Lorain County, Medina County, Portage County, Summit County</ENT>
                                <ENT>6/29/2026</ENT>
                                <ENT>Attainment</ENT>
                                <ENT>1/16/2025</ENT>
                                <ENT>Serious.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <TNOTE>
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                 Includes any Indian country in each county or area, unless otherwise specified. EPA is not determining the boundaries of any area of Indian country in this table, including any area of Indian country located in the larger designation area. The inclusion of any Indian country in the designation area is not a determination that the state has regulatory authority under the Clean Air Act for such Indian country.
                            </TNOTE>
                            <TNOTE>
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                 This date is August 3, 2018, unless otherwise noted.
                            </TNOTE>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13027 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="39028"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>42 CFR Parts 431, 435, 438, 457, and 600</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[CMS-2454-IFC]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0938-AV98</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Medicaid Program; Community Engagement Requirement for Certain Individuals</SUBJECT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Correction</HD>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="42" PART="435">
                    <AMDPAR>In rule document 2026-11094, beginning on page 33348 in the issue of Wednesday, June 3, 2026, make the following changes:</AMDPAR>
                    <P>Beginning on page 33476, § 435.557 and § 435.558 should read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 435.557</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Verifying compliance with or exception or exclusion from the community engagement requirement.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             For purposes of this section
                            <E T="03">—</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Period of enrollment</E>
                             means a continuous period of enrollment in coverage under the State plan or waiver without the individual being disenrolled, regardless of the number of consecutive eligibility periods, of redeterminations or renewals, or of transitions between eligibility groups.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Reliable information available to the State</E>
                             means, for purposes of verifying compliance, deemed compliance or exclusion from the community engagement requirement in accordance with §§ 435.550 through 435.563, information necessary for determining eligibility to which the agency has access or should have access including, but not limited to:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Information from electronic data sources that the agency has determined to be effective consistent with paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, as documented in the agency's verification plan in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Information from other State or local agencies;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Information related to community engagement from Federal agencies and other data sources provided through the electronic service established by the Secretary, in accordance with § 435.949;</P>
                        <P>(iv) Information in the State's eligibility system;</P>
                        <P>(v) Information in the individual's case record;</P>
                        <P>(vi) Payroll data;</P>
                        <P>(vii) Claim(s) relevant to the individual that have been adjudicated in the preceding 12 months, including those that have been paid, pended or denied; and</P>
                        <P>(viii) Encounter data, as relevant to the individual, for the preceding 12 months.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Requirement to verify eligibility.</E>
                             The agency must establish processes to use reliable information available to the State to verify that an applicable individual has demonstrated community engagement in accordance with §§ 435.552 and 435.556, or was deemed to have demonstrated community engagement under § 435.553 or, if applicable, § 435.555, or that an individual is a specified excluded individual under § 435.554, before requesting additional information from the individual.
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) The agency—</P>
                        <P>(i) Must identify data sources that provide reliable information relevant to verifying that that an applicable individual demonstrated or is deemed to have demonstrated community engagement or that an individual is a specified excluded individual.</P>
                        <P>(ii) May determine that establishing a connection to or process to obtain information from a data source would not be effective, but the agency must consider such factors as the administrative costs associated with establishing and using the data match compared with the administrative costs associated with relying on documentation and the impact on program integrity in terms of the potential for ineligible individuals to be enrolled and for eligible individuals to be denied coverage.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Must document in its verification plan under § 435.945(j) its policies and procedures for verifying compliance with the community engagement requirement under this subpart, including an identification of the electronic data sources that the agency uses consistent with paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(iv) Must request and use information from the data sources identified and documented in its verification plan consistent with paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (iii) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(2) Except with respect to verifying an individual is a specified excluded individual on the basis of being medically frail or otherwise having special medical needs as defined at § 435.554(c)(5), subject to paragraph (g)(1) of this section, when there is no reliable information available to the State or the reliable information available to the State is not reasonably compatible with the information provided by or on behalf of the individual, the agency must seek additional information from the individual to verify the individual has demonstrated or is deemed to have demonstrated community engagement or that the individual is a specified excluded individual, in accordance with the following rules:</P>
                        <P>(i) Before January 1, 2028, the agency may require documentation or accept other information as provided in § 435.952(c) when there is no reliable information available to the State or the reliable information is not reasonably compatible with the information provided by or on behalf of the individual.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Beginning on January 1, 2028, when there is no reliable information available to the State or the reliable information is not reasonably compatible with the information provided by or on behalf of the individual, the agency must require documentation whenever documentation is reasonably available.</P>
                        <P>(iii) The agency must:</P>
                        <P>(A) Accept information other than documentation to verify an individual's eligibility when there is no reasonably available documentation; and</P>
                        <P>(B) May not deny or terminate eligibility solely because the individual is unable to produce documentation where none exists or is reasonably available but may establish criteria for requiring the individual to provide specific information considered sufficient to verify the individual's eligibility in the absence of reasonably available documentation.</P>
                        <P>(3) The agency must comply with the requirements at §§ 435.558 and 435.952(d) and provide individuals with the opportunity to furnish information and documentation required to verify that the individual has demonstrated community engagement or is deemed to have demonstrated community engagement in accordance with §§ 435.552 and 435.556, or § 435.553 or, if applicable, § 435.555, or is a specified excluded individual as defined at § 435.554, before terminating or denying eligibility based on reliable information available to the State.</P>
                        <P>(4) The agency must accept information and documentation related to the community engagement requirement under this subpart from the individuals and via the modalities specified at § 435.907(a).</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Verification at application and renewal.</E>
                             The State must verify that an applicable individual has demonstrated or is deemed to have demonstrated community engagement for the period specified at § 435.556.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Requirement to check all reliable information available to the State.</E>
                             The State may not limit the reliable 
                            <PRTPAGE P="39029"/>
                            information available to the State that is checked to specific activities or other means of demonstrating community engagement under § 435.552, or to specific means of being deemed to have demonstrated community engagement under § 435.553 or, if applicable, § 435.555, or to specific specified excluded individual statuses under § 435.554, but must continue to check reliable information available to the State until the agency verifies whether an individual who appears to be an applicable individual has demonstrated community engagement, is deemed to have demonstrated community engagement, or is not an applicable individual because they are a specified excluded individual.
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The agency must attempt to verify the individual's specified excluded individual status or that the individual demonstrated community engagement or was deemed to have demonstrated community engagement using all reliable information available to the State for all relevant months before requesting additional information from the individual.</P>
                        <P>(A) Only after checking all reliable information available to the State without successfully verifying compliance, deemed compliance, or specified excluded individual status may the agency request additional information from the individual and initiate the noncompliance procedures under § 435.558, as appropriate.</P>
                        <P>(B) An individual must not be required to provide documentation or other additional information unless information needed by the agency could not be verified using reliable information available to the State, including when there is no reliable information available to the State or the reliable information is not reasonably compatible with the information provided by or on behalf of the individual.</P>
                        <P>(ii) The agency is not required to continue checking reliable information available to the State after the agency verifies compliance, deemed compliance, or status as a specified excluded individual, unless the agency has information indicating an individual whom the agency verified demonstrated or is deemed to have demonstrated community engagement may qualify as a specified excluded individual, as described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Requirement to apply exclusions.</E>
                             The agency must determine that an individual is a specified excluded individual whenever the agency has sufficient information to determine the individual qualifies as such, regardless of whether the individual also demonstrates community engagement in accordance with §§ 435.552 and 435.556 or meets the criteria for an exception under § 435.553 or, if applicable, § 435.555.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Requirement to enroll eligible individuals and verify potential exclusion post-enrollment.</E>
                             If the agency has sufficient information to verify an individual meets or is deemed to meet the community engagement requirement and has information that suggests, but needs more information to verify that the individual is a specified excluded individual, the agency must enroll the individual promptly using the verified information and attempt to verify eligibility for the exclusion post-enrollment or, if the individual is already enrolled, following the redetermination of eligibility.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">State option to conduct more frequent verifications.</E>
                             States may verify that an applicable individual has met the requirement to demonstrate community engagement more frequently than each regularly scheduled redetermination, consistent with § 435.556(a)(2)(ii).
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) States electing to verify that an applicable individual has met the requirement to demonstrate community engagement between regularly scheduled redeterminations must comply with the requirements of this subpart to verify, consistent with this section, that an applicable individual met the requirement to demonstrate community engagement in accordance with §§ 435.552 and 435.556 or was deemed to have demonstrated community engagement under § 435.553 or, if applicable, § 435.555.</P>
                        <P>(2) For beneficiaries who were determined to be applicable individuals at their last determination or redetermination of eligibility, the agency must check all reliable information available to the State to determine if the individual newly qualifies as a specified excluded individual prior to assessing compliance or deemed compliance with the community engagement requirement each time the state conducts a more frequent verification.</P>
                        <P>(3) If the individual continues to be an applicable individual, the agency must attempt to verify that the individual demonstrated community engagement in accordance with §§ 435.552 and 435.556, or was deemed to have demonstrated community engagement, under § 435.553 or, if applicable, § 435.555, using all reliable information available to the State for all relevant months, before requesting additional information and documentation from the individual consistent with this section and initiating the noncompliance procedures under § 435.558.</P>
                        <P>(4) The agency may not reverify the specified excluded status of an individual between regularly scheduled redeterminations if the individual was determined to be a specified excluded individual at their last determination or redetermination of eligibility or during a more frequent verification of community engagement under this section unless the agency has information indicating the individual's specified excluded individual status has changed.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Requirement to use the electronic service established by the Secretary.</E>
                             The agency must obtain information regarding compliance with or exception or exclusion from the community engagement requirement through the electronic data service established by the Secretary to the extent the information is available through such service, consistent with §§ 435.945 and 435.949, except as provided for in § 435.945(k) and paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) If information from a new data source becomes available through the electronic data service established by the Secretary that contains reliable information relevant to verifying the community engagement requirement in this subpart, the State must establish a connection though such service, or establish a direct connection to or implement an alternative data source or mechanism if approved for flexibility under § 435.945(k), to obtain such information from that data source as soon as practicable, but no later than 12 months after information from the data source first becomes available through the service established by the Secretary.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) For the purposes of verifying compliance or deemed compliance with, or exclusion from, the community engagement requirement, the Secretary may determine a waiver as described in § 435.945(k) is not required for the State to establish a direct connection or use an alternative mechanism to access information available from a Federal data source that is accessible through the service established by the Secretary, if the Secretary determines that such direct connection or alternative mechanism is likely to satisfy the criteria in § 435.945(k). In the event the State does not access the Federal data source through the service established by the Secretary and the Secretary determines that a waiver as described in § 435.945(k) is not necessary, the State must establish a direct connection or alternative mechanism within the 
                            <PRTPAGE P="39030"/>
                            timeframe specified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Verification of medical frailty and privacy requirements for certain populations.</E>
                             (1) The agency must attempt to verify that an individual is a specified excluded individual on the basis that the individual is medically frail or otherwise has special medical needs as defined at § 435.554(c)(5) using reliable information available to the State, including claim(s) relevant to the individual that have been adjudicated in the preceding 12 months, including those that have been paid, pended or denied, and encounter data, as relevant to the individual.
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Before January 1, 2028, when there is no reliable information available to the State or the reliable information is not reasonably compatible with the information provided by or on behalf of the individual, the agency may require documentation or accept a statement or other information under penalty of perjury that provides sufficient information, as determined by the State, to verify an applicant or beneficiary is medically frail or otherwise has special medical needs, each time the State verifies an individual's medical frailty.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Beginning on January 1, 2028, the agency may accept a statement or other information provided under penalty of perjury that provides sufficient information, as determined by the State, to verify qualification for the exclusion only once during the beneficiary's period of enrollment defined at paragraph (a) of this section when there is no reliable information available to the State or the reliable information available to the State is not reasonably compatible with the information provided by or on behalf of the individual.</P>
                        <P>(A) At the individual's first regularly scheduled redetermination after such status was determined using the individual's statement provided under penalty of perjury or other information as described in this paragraph (f)(1)(ii), the agency must verify that the individual is medically frail or otherwise has special medical needs using reliable information available to the State, or, if reliable information available to the State is not sufficient for verification, using documentation submitted by or on behalf of the individual.</P>
                        <P>(B) If an enrollee declares specified excluded individual status on the basis of being medically frail or otherwise having special medical needs after having sought such status on or after January 1, 2028, on the basis of a statement provided under penalty of perjury or other information described in this paragraph (f)(1)(ii) during the same period of enrollment defined at paragraph (a) of this section, the agency must verify that status using reliable information available to the State, or, if reliable information available to the State is not sufficient for verification, using documentation submitted by or on behalf of the individual.</P>
                        <P>(iii) After verifying an individual's specified excluded individual status on the basis of being medically frail or otherwise having special medical needs using reliable information available to the State or documentation submitted by or on behalf of the individual, the agency must reverify this status at least every 12 months.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) The agency must comply with all applicable Federal privacy requirements including section 1902(a)(7) of the Act; part 431, subpart F of this subchapter; the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (42 U.S.C. 1320d 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                            ); part 2 of this title; and any other applicable Federal privacy laws when accessing, storing, and handling data obtained to verify that an individual is medically frail or otherwise has special medical needs or is participating in a drug addiction or alcoholic treatment and rehabilitation program.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Verification of mandatory and optional exceptions.</E>
                             (1) States must comply with the requirements in paragraph (b)(2) of this section when verifying qualification for a mandatory exception under § 435.553 except that if the individual provided information on an application, renewal or other State form, or when reporting a change in circumstances in accordance with paragraph (b)(4) of this section indicating they qualify for an exception and there is no reliable information available to the State, the State may elect the option under section 1902(xx)(3)(A) of the Act not to seek further information from the applicable individual.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) States that elect to provide an optional exception for short-term hardships under § 435.555 must—</P>
                        <P>(i) Attempt to use reliable information available to the State before seeking additional information from the individual to verify whether, for part or all of a month for which an applicable individual is required to demonstrate community engagement, the applicable individual received care specified at § 435.555(d)(1) or the applicable individual or their dependent had to travel outside of their community of residence for an extended period of time to receive medical services specified at § 435.555(d)(4).</P>
                        <P>(ii) Apply an automatic short-term hardship exception to applicable individuals if, for part or all of a month for which such applicable individuals are required to demonstrate community engagement, the individuals reside in a county or equivalent unit of local government in which there exists an emergency or disaster as specified at § 435.555(d)(2) or for which the Secretary has approved an unemployment-based short-term hardship exception as specified at § 435.555(d)(3), without requesting any additional information from such applicable individuals.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 435.558</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Noncompliance procedures.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Provision of notice of noncompliance.</E>
                             If a State is unable to verify that an applicable individual has met the requirement to demonstrate community engagement under §§ 435.552 and 435.556, or is deemed compliant under § 435.553 or, if applicable, § 435.555, as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, the State must:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Provide such individual with the notice of noncompliance described in paragraph (c) of this section;</P>
                        <P>(2) Provide such individual with a period of 30 calendar days beginning on the date on which such notice of noncompliance is received by the individual consistent with paragraph (c)(4) of this section, to make a satisfactory showing to the agency—</P>
                        <P>(i) Of compliance with such requirement (including, as applicable, by showing that such individual demonstrated or should be deemed to have demonstrated community engagement under § 435.553 or, if applicable, § 435.555, for each month required under the State plan); or</P>
                        <P>(ii) That such requirement does not apply to such individual on the basis that such individual does not meet the definition of applicable individual under § 435.551, including by meeting the criteria for one or more of the categories of a specified excluded individual as defined at § 435.554.</P>
                        <P>(3) Continue to furnish Medicaid for an enrolled beneficiary until the individual is determined ineligible consistent with § 435.930(b).</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Defining “unable to verify” community engagement.</E>
                             The agency is considered to be unable to verify that an applicable individual is compliant with the requirement to demonstrate community engagement as follows:
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) At application, the agency is unable to verify compliance with community engagement when it does not have sufficient information after reviewing the information provided by 
                            <PRTPAGE P="39031"/>
                            the individual at application and the reliable information available to the State to determine that the individual has demonstrated or is deemed to have demonstrated community engagement for the number of months required under the State plan.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) As part of a renewal under section 1902(e)(14)(L) of the Act and § 435.916, the agency is unable to verify compliance with community engagement when it does not have sufficient information to determine that the individual has demonstrated or is deemed to have demonstrated community engagement for the number of months required under the State plan, after—</P>
                        <P>(i) Reliable information available to the State accessed at renewal consistent with § 435.916(a)(2) are not sufficient to verify compliance with the community engagement requirement; or</P>
                        <P>(ii) The renewal form provided to the beneficiary in accordance with § 435.916(a)(3) for those whose eligibility cannot be renewed based on reliable information under § 435.916(a)(2) is not returned or the information returned on the renewal form is not sufficient to verify compliance with community engagement.</P>
                        <P>(3) If applicable, as part of the more frequent verification of compliance under § 435.557(d), the agency is unable to verify compliance with the community engagement requirement when it does not have sufficient information to determine that the individual has demonstrated or is deemed to have demonstrated community engagement for the number of months required under the State plan after—</P>
                        <P>(i) Accessing reliable information in accordance with § 435.557(d) and information is not sufficient; or</P>
                        <P>(ii) Accessing reliable information in accordance with § 435.557(d) and following the State's procedures under § 435.952(d) to request information from the individual, when the requested information is not returned or the information returned is not sufficient.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Content and form of noncompliance notice.</E>
                             A notice of noncompliance—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Must include clear statements containing the following information—</P>
                        <P>(i) How to make a satisfactory showing of compliance with the community engagement requirement, including:</P>
                        <P>(A) Which month(s) will be assessed by the State in accordance with § 435.556(a);</P>
                        <P>(B) How to show the individual demonstrated community engagement under § 435.552; and</P>
                        <P>(C) How to show the individual should be deemed to have demonstrated community engagement as specified at § 435.553 or, if applicable, § 435.555;</P>
                        <P>(ii) How to make a satisfactory showing that the community engagement requirement does not apply to the individual on the basis that the individual does not meet the definition of an applicable individual at § 435.551, including because the individual meets the criteria for one or more of the categories of a specified excluded individual under § 435.554;</P>
                        <P>(iii) The deadline for providing the information under paragraph (c)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section to the State;</P>
                        <P>(iv) A description of how the information under paragraph (c)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section may be submitted to the State through any of the modalities described in § 435.907(a);</P>
                        <P>(v) A description of the consequences of noncompliance with the community engagement requirement and failure to respond to the notice of noncompliance for Medicaid eligibility and eligibility for advance payments of the premium tax credit (APTC) and the premium tax credit (PTC) used to pay for coverage through a Health Insurance Exchange;</P>
                        <P>(vi) How such individual may reapply for medical assistance under the State plan (or a waiver of such plan) if the individual's application is denied or the individual is disenrolled from coverage under the State plan or waiver, as applicable; and</P>
                        <P>(vii) For States that have elected to provide the short-term hardship exception under § 435.555, the information about short-term hardship events described in § 435.555(c).</P>
                        <P>(2) Must be provided in a manner consistent with § 435.905(b).</P>
                        <P>(3) Must, if provided in electronic format, comply with § 435.918(b).</P>
                        <P>(4) Is considered to be received 5 days after the date on the notice, unless the applicant or beneficiary shows that he or she did not receive the notice within the 5-day period.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">State responsibilities in the event of no satisfactory showing.</E>
                             If no satisfactory showing is made after the 30-calendar day period consistent with paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the State must—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Consider all other bases of eligibility for medical assistance under the State plan (or waiver of such plan) in accordance with §§ 435.911 and 435.916(f) prior to denying coverage at application or determining that an individual is ineligible;</P>
                        <P>(2) For individuals determined ineligible under the State plan (or waiver of such plan) after considering all bases of eligibility, as applicable:</P>
                        <P>(i) Deny such individual's application and provide written notice and fair hearing rights consistent with §§ 435.917 and 435.918 and part 431, subpart E of this subchapter;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Disenroll such beneficiary not later than the end of the month following the month in which the 30-calendar day period under paragraph (a)(2) of this section ends and after the provision of advance written notice and fair hearing rights consistent with §§ 435.917 through 435.918 and part 431, subpart E of this subchapter prior to the disenrollment;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Include in the clear statement of the specific reasons supporting the intended action under § 431.210(b) of this subchapter that the individual failed to:</P>
                        <P>(A) Make a satisfactory showing of compliance with the community engagement requirement under § 435.552, including by meeting the criteria for an exception to be deemed as having demonstrated community engagement under § 435.553 or, if applicable, § 435.555, for the month(s) specified in accordance with § 435.556(a); and</P>
                        <P>(B) Make a satisfactory showing that the community engagement requirement does not apply to the individual on the basis that the individual does not meet the definition of applicable individual at § 435.551, including failure to demonstrate the individual meets the criteria for one or more of the categories of a specified excluded individual under § 435.554; and</P>
                        <P>(iv) Determine the individual's or beneficiary's potential eligibility for other insurance affordability programs in accordance with § 435.1200(e).</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Prohibition on restrictions to re-applying for coverage.</E>
                             An agency must not impose any restriction on an applicable individual's ability to re-apply for coverage or their ability to receive coverage if determined eligible upon reapplication based on a prior denial of eligibility or disenrollment for noncompliance under this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Reconsideration period.</E>
                             A State must reconsider eligibility consistent with § 435.916(a)(3)(iii), if an individual, who was enrolled with eligibility based on MAGI, was disenrolled for failure to submit information requested in a notice of noncompliance and submits the information during the reconsideration period described in § 435.916(a)(3)(iii).
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. C1-2026-11094 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 0099-10-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
    </RULES>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>123</NO>
    <DATE>Monday, June 29, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <PRORULES>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="39032"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">OFFICE OF PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT</AGENCY>
                <CFR>5 CFR Parts 351, 630 and 715</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket ID: OPM-2026-0397]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 3206-AP07</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Administrative Leave for Workforce Realignment and Other Purposes</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Personnel Management.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Office of Personnel Management (OPM) proposes to amend its regulations to more fully address the appropriate uses of administrative leave, including use in connection with deferred resignation programs and other workforce realignment initiatives, and for other purposes. OPM is also proposing to amend its regulation on resignations to clarify when an agency may accept or deny an employee's request to withdraw a resignation in the context of a deferred resignation program.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before July 29, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        You may submit comments using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
                        <E T="03"> www.regulations.gov</E>
                        .  Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Please arrange and identify your comments on the regulatory text by subpart and section number. If your comments relate to the supplementary information, please reference the heading and page number in the supplementary section. All comments must be received by the end of the comment period for them to be considered. All comments and other submissions received generally will be posted on the internet at 
                        <E T="03">https://regulations.gov,</E>
                         without change, including any personal information provided. However, OPM retains discretion to redact personal or sensitive information from comments before they are posted.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As required by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4), a summary of this rule may be found in the docket for this rulemaking at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Bryce Baker by telephone at (202) 606-2858 or by email at 
                        <E T="03">leavepolicy@opm.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Office of Personnel Management (OPM) is issuing proposed regulations to amend its regulations on administrative leave in 5 CFR part 351, subpart H and part 630, subpart N, and on resignations in 5 CFR 715.202.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background and Summary</HD>
                <P>
                    On December 17, 2024, OPM issued final regulations on administrative leave that added a new subpart N in 5 CFR part 630 (80 FR 102256). The regulations in subpart N govern use of administrative leave authorized for Federal employees under 5 U.S.C. 6329a, which was enacted as part of the Administrative Leave Act of 2016 (section 1138 of Public Law 114-328, December 23, 2016). OPM has identified the need to clarify certain matters in the regulations. For example, these proposed regulations provide additional information on unacceptable and acceptable uses of administrative leave. In particular, the proposed regulations add a list of specific examples of acceptable uses, including use in connection with deferred resignation programs 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and other workforce restructuring initiatives. The proposed regulations are largely codifying existing OPM policies on administrative leave. The primary OPM policy documents are a “Fact Sheet: Administrative Leave” and an OPM memorandum to agency Chief Human Capital Officers entitled “Template for Agency Administrative Leave Policies” (CPM 2025-12, July 30, 2025) (“Agency Policy Template”).
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Agency Policy Template provided an OPM-approved draft of an agency administrative leave policy document that an agency could use as a model for its own policies. The Agency Policy Template incorporated statutory and regulatory requirements as well as Governmentwide policies that supplement those requirements. It also included agency-specific policies recommended by OPM for inclusion. OPM encouraged agencies to adopt the policies in the Template for consistency across the Government.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         See the following OPM memoranda on the 2025 Governmentwide deferred resignation program available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.opm.gov/chcoc/published-memos/:</E>
                         “Guidance on Probationary Periods, Administrative Leave and Details” (January 20, 2025), “Guidance Regarding Deferred Resignation Program” (January 28, 2025), “Guidance on Collective Bargaining Obligations in Connection with Deferred Resignation Offer” (February 4, 2025), and “Legality of Deferred Resignation Program” (February 4, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The OPM “Fact Sheet: Administrative Leave” is found at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.opm.gov/policy-data-oversight/pay-leave/leave-administration/fact-sheets/administrative-leave/.</E>
                         The OPM memorandum “Template for Agency Administrative Leave Policies” (CPM 2025-12, July 30, 2025) is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.opm.gov/chcoc/published-memos/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The proposed regulations would also revise OPM regulations on resignations in 5 CFR 715.202 to (1) provide that an agency has sole and exclusive discretion in deciding whether to accept or deny a resignation before it has become effective and (2) specifically address that an employee's receipt of benefits provided under a deferred resignation agreement, such as paid administrative leave, is a valid reason to deny an employee's request to withdraw a resignation. When an employee has agreed to resign on a future date and to receive paid leave benefits prior to that date, an agency has good reasons to deny a resignation withdrawal request.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Changes to Administrative Leave Regulations</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Nomenclature Changes</HD>
                <P>
                    OPM is proposing to replace the word “grant” (and associated variations of “granted” and “granting”) with the word “provide” (or applicable variations “provided” and “providing”) throughout subpart N. These changes occur in §§ 630.1402, 630.1403, and 630.1405. The word “grant” implies that administrative leave is provided at an employee's request, which is generally not the case. In some cases, employees may be placed in administrative leave status without their consent—
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     for investigative purposes. The word “provide” has a broader meaning that would encompass uses of administrative leave with or without the employee's consent.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 630.1401—Purpose and Applicability</HD>
                <P>
                    OPM is proposing to revise § 630.1401(b) to add another category of employees to which subpart N does not apply—namely, Presidential appointees or other employees who are excluded from coverage under the title 5 leave 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39033"/>
                    laws under 5 U.S.C. 6301(a)(2)(x)-(xiii). Such employees are entitled to the pay of their position solely because of their status as an officer (5 U.S.C. 5508), without regard to the specific hours they work. Such leave-exempt employees do not have a work schedule that makes them account for specific hours through work or time off.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section630.1402—Definitions</HD>
                <P>OPM is proposing to remove the definition of “head of the agency” from § 630.1402. The definition was developed to be used in connection with the originally proposed version of § 630.1403(a)(5)(i) that appeared in proposed regulations published by OPM on July 13, 2017 (82 FR 32263), and that required approval of administrative leave policies by the head of the agency. The definition of “head of the agency” allowed for delegation only to a single agency-headquarters-level official who reported directly to the agency head. However, in the final regulations issued on December 17, 2024 (89 FR 102256), OPM revised § 630.1403(a)(5)(i) as follows: “Permitted under written agency policies (established by the head of the agency or by other agency officials under a specific delegation of authority).” Thus, there were no limits placed on the agency head's power to delegate. OPM erred in adopting the definition of “head of the agency” in the December 2024 final regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section630.1403—Principles, Prohibitions, and Examples of Acceptable Uses</HD>
                <P>OPM is proposing to add the words “sole and exclusive” before the word “discretion” in § 630.1403(a)(2) and (4). OPM believes this better reflects the decision of Congress to give this new discretionary leave authority to agency heads who make final decisions on mission needs and use of limited budget resources and the sense of Congress that agency heads would be responsible for managing and overseeing the effective and prudent use of the leave. OPM is authorized to prescribe regulations governing the acceptable uses of administrative leave (5 U.S.C. 6329a(c)(1)). This proposed regulatory change reflects OPM's judgment that acceptable uses are those uses, within the bounds of law and regulation, that an agency determines to be appropriate in its sole and exclusive discretion. The “sole and exclusive discretion” language is consistent with the existing regulation at § 630.1403(a)(4), which states that an agency “must retain the discretion to grant or not grant administrative leave in any circumstance based on agency judgments regarding mission needs.” At the same time, that regulation prevents an agency from establishing any application of administrative leave as a mandatory entitlement.</P>
                <P>OPM is proposing to add a sentence to § 630.1403(a)(3) that points to examples of when it is appropriate for an agency to approve an incidence of administrative leave lasting more than 1 workday. Those examples are provided in a new paragraph (c), which is discussed below.</P>
                <P>OPM is proposing to revise § 630.1403(b) dealing with regulatory prohibitions on use of administrative leave. In paragraph (b)(2), OPM is clarifying that the prohibition on using administrative leave to recognize employee performance or contributions does not prevent an agency from providing administrative leave to the general workforce of the agency (or an organization within the agency) as a morale-boosting special goodwill gesture, even if that action is broadly linked to the accomplishments of the workforce. This issue was raised by an agency after the final regulations on administrative leave were published in December 2024, and OPM addressed it in its Agency Policy Template. The proposed regulation is consistent with that guidance.</P>
                <P>OPM is also proposing to add in § 630.1403(b) three new regulatory prohibitions, which are already addressed in OPM's Agency Policy Template, but which would be binding prohibitions that agencies must apply.</P>
                <P>The first new regulatory prohibition (§ 630.1403(b)(3)) is that administrative leave may not be used for the purpose of placing an employee in a nonduty status during an investigation of the employee's conduct or performance once the employee has reached the 10-workday calendar year limit in 5 U.S.C. 6329a(b)(1) and § 630.1404 in connection with a given investigation. Consistent with the intent of Congress, once the 10-workday limit is reached, the agency must use investigative leave under 5 U.S.C. 6329b if it wishes to continue to conduct an investigation and continue to keep the employee in a paid nonduty status. The language “in connection with a given investigation” is intended to cover situations in which an employee was placed on administrative leave due to an investigation, reached the 10-workday limit in that calendar year, and is then placed on section 6329b investigative leave as part of a continuing investigation. Once an employee has reached the 10-workday limit in connection with a given investigation, that limit is no longer applicable in governing the use of section 6329b investigative leave with respect to the same investigation. Thus, if the investigation continues into the next calendar year, the agency can continue to place the employee on section 6329b investigative leave even though the employee has not reached the 10-workday limit on section 6329a administrative leave in the new calendar year. (Section 6329b(b)(3)(A) bars use of section 6329b investigative leave until expiration of the 10-workday period, but this bar applies only in making a decision to start an initial period of investigative leave in connection with a given investigation.)</P>
                <P>
                    The second new regulatory prohibition (§ 630.1403(b)(4)) is that administrative leave may not be used for a purpose for which sick leave could be used under OPM regulations (5 CFR 630.401(a))—unless such use in a particular scenario is specifically approved by Governmentwide policy issued by OPM or the President. As a general principle, allowing administrative leave to be used for a sick leave purpose would inappropriately circumvent the will of Congress, which established a specific type of leave called “sick leave.” A general bar is necessary to prevent agencies from using administrative leave as a supplemental sick leave benefit, which they could feel pressure to do in individual circumstances. The general bar applies regardless of whether an employee has an available balance of sick leave. The exception to the general bar requires OPM or Presidential approval, which should be provided only in exceptional circumstances. For example, during the COVID-19 national emergency, OPM adopted a Governmentwide policy that allowed administrative leave to be used in some very limited circumstances in which sick leave normally would have been used (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     time spent getting and recovering from a vaccination).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The third new regulatory prohibition (§ 630.1403(b)(5)) is that administrative leave may not be used to cover service by poll workers or poll observers in connection with elections. OPM's current policies allow administrative leave to give employees a reasonable opportunity to vote on an election day, and OPM is proposing in this regulation that that policy be codified (see proposed § 630.1403(c)(2)). However, OPM does not believe it is appropriate to use administrative leave for other election-related matters beyond facilitating an opportunity for an employee to vote. Employees may choose to use their accrued annual leave or other available workforce flexibilities 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39034"/>
                    to serve as poll workers or poll observers.
                </P>
                <P>OPM is proposing to add a new paragraph (c) in § 630.1403 that provides a noncomprehensive list of examples of acceptable uses of administrative leave. This list signals that an agency can provide administrative leave in the covered scenarios without having to be concerned that it may be contrary to Governmentwide policies. At the same time, agencies are not required to provide administrative leave in the listed scenarios. Agencies retain the sole and exclusive discretion to determine whether to provide administrative leave to any employee or category of employees based on their consideration of agency mission requirements. The listed examples are generally consistent with current OPM policies in its Agency Policy Template but would have a regulatory foundation if included in final regulations. The listed examples of acceptable uses of administrative leave are:</P>
                <P>(1) For investigative purposes until the employee has reached the 10-workday calendar year limit;</P>
                <P>(2) To provide an employee who has not voted early with a reasonable opportunity to vote on a regular election day;</P>
                <P>(3) To allow an employee to donate blood during the employee's tour of duty;</P>
                <P>(4) To allow an employee to participate in an agency's employee assistance program for problem identification and referral to an outside resource and for general employee orientation or education activities;</P>
                <P>(5) To provide for early dismissal (generally no more than 2 hours) on the scheduled workday immediately before a Federal public holiday as a morale-boosting general goodwill gesture;</P>
                <P>(6) To allow an employee to rest and recover following unusually lengthy tours of duty or extended travel for work purposes (for example, the U.S. Forest Service in the Department of Agriculture or the Department of the Interior may provide 2 to 3 days of administrative leave to employees who have completed an extended deployment to fight a wildland fire);</P>
                <P>(7) To provide up to 5 days of administrative leave for a civilian employee who needs time off to effectuate a change in his or her residence to a different geographic area in order to accompany a qualifying spouse—that is, a spouse who is a member of a one of the uniformed services or a civilian Federal Government employee—when the qualifying spouse's residence change is the result of military orders or agency direction, as applicable;</P>
                <P>(8) To provide extended periods of administrative leave (subject to Governmentwide limits established by OPM or agency limits) to employees who sign a written agreement to voluntarily separate on a specified future date as a transition-to-separation tool that supports workforce restructuring and realignment initiatives that are based on agency and Governmentwide interests, including voluntary deferred resignation programs, use of voluntary separation incentive payments, or use of voluntary early retirement authorizations;</P>
                <P>(9) To provide administrative leave to employees subject to an involuntary separation via a reduction in force (RIF) during the period between receipt of the RIF notice and the RIF separation when the agency determines it is in the Government's best interests; or</P>
                <P>(10) To provide extended periods of administrative leave (subject to Governmentwide limits established by OPM or agency limits) to facilitate the voluntary resignation of employees with documented poor performance or misconduct under a settlement agreement that the agency determines is in the Government's best interests after considering all other reasonable alternatives.</P>
                <P>The use of administrative leave in connection with deferred resignation programs and other workforce restructuring initiatives is particularly important. These programs facilitate workforce realignment efforts that will lead to a leaner, less expensive, more efficient, and more mission-focused Federal workforce. While there is a temporary cost to providing administrative leave, these programs can generate large long-term savings by reducing Federal staffing levels. They can reduce the need to apply administratively burdensome and disruptive reduction-in-force procedures. They can also facilitate and expedite the removal of employees whose performance or conduct has been identified as unsatisfactory.</P>
                <P>As noted above, the list of examples in the proposed § 630.1403(c) is a noncomprehensive list. OPM may address other examples in policy guidance. For example, OPM's Agency Policy Template addresses possible use of limited amounts of administrative leave for approved physical fitness activities as long as the use is consistent with OPM regulations on administrative leave, including consideration of the decision factors in § 630.1403(a)(6). The Agency Policy Template further states that, in providing such leave, authorized agency officials (1) must retain the discretion to provide or not provide administrative leave based on agency judgments of mission needs and (2) may not grant the administrative leave as an entitlement without regard to mission needs. OPM invites comments on the policy of allowing limited use of administrative leave for physical fitness activities and on whether this policy should be included in the regulatory examples of acceptable uses. OPM requests that those commenters supporting use of administrative leave for physical fitness activities provide their views on the principles, conditions, and limitations that should govern such use.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Changes to Reduction-in-Force (RIF) Regulations</HD>
                <P>OPM is proposing to revise 5 CFR 351.806 to clarify that that use of administrative leave during a RIF notice period is permissible, if an agency determines that there is justification for putting the RIF-affected employee in nonduty status. Under the current § 351.806, agencies are directed to keep a RIF-affected employee in duty status during a RIF notice when possible. Keeping a RIF-affected employee in duty status may not be possible if an agency is concerned it could jeopardize Government interests. The proposed regulatory clarification is consistent with OPM's Agency Policy Template, which specifically stated that an agency may provide administrative leave during a RIF notice period, if it determines such use supports agency interests. Also, we are proposing to revise § 351.806 to state that the general rule of keeping an employee in duty status during a RIF notice period applies in “ordinary circumstances” instead of “when possible.” This change is consistent with the language in the regulation in 5 CFR 752.404(b)(3) dealing with keeping an employee in duty status during the notice period for a proposed removal or suspension.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Changes to Resignation Regulations</HD>
                <P>
                    OPM is proposing to revise paragraph (b) of 5 CFR 715.202. In current regulations, § 715.202(b) allows an agency to accept or decline an employee's request to withdraw a resignation before its effective date. If an agency declines such a request, it must provide a valid reason and explain that reason to the employee. In the proposed revision to § 715.202(b), OPM is making clear that the decision to accept or decline a resignation withdrawal request is made at the agency's sole and exclusive discretion. Also, OPM is 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39035"/>
                    adding another example of a valid reason for declining an employee's request—namely, that the employee accepted benefits under a deferred resignation agreement. For example, if an employee received paid administrative leave in connection with a deferred resignation agreement, an agency may determine that it would be inappropriate to allow an employee to withdraw the resignation and keep the paid leave benefits. There is no authority to require or permit repayment of the administrative leave benefits after it has been provided.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Impact Analysis</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Statement of Need</HD>
                <P>After having over 1 year of experience in applying the final regulations on administrative leave issued in December 2024, OPM has identified the need to clarify certain matters in the regulations. While OPM has issued policy guidance (see footnote 2) that largely addresses these matters, regulations are needed to achieve greater consistency across agencies and a firmer legal foundation for the policies. OPM is proposing to add certain prohibited uses of administrative leave so that the prohibitions are binding on agencies. OPM is proposing to add examples of acceptable uses of administrative leave so that agencies can be assured those uses have a regulatory foundation. For example, OPM is proposing to include the extended use of administrative leave in connection with a deferred resignation program as an acceptable use of administrative leave. Also, through the proposed regulations, OPM is better fulfilling its statutory charge to prescribe regulations that address agency uses of administrative leave (5 U.S.C. 6329a(c)(1)). OPM also identified the need to clarify that agencies have sole and exclusive discretion in making decisions to provide or not provide administrative leave, subject to governing law and regulations.</P>
                <P>OPM is also proposing to amend the resignation regulation in 5 CFR 715.202 to identify the acceptance of benefits, such as administrative leave, as a valid reason for an agency to deny an employee's request to withdraw a resignation commitment made as part of a deferred resignation agreement. This gives agencies a clearer regulatory basis for denying a resignation withdrawal request by a participant in a deferred resignation program.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Regulatory Alternatives</HD>
                <P>OPM considered the alternative of not adding additional regulatory prohibitions or examples of acceptable uses of administrative leave and instead relying on OPM policies. For the reasons given in the Statement of Need section, OPM concluded that various policies should be codified in regulation. With respect to the proposed revision of the resignation regulation, OPM considered the possibility of not making the change but determined agencies would be better served by a regulation that gives them a clear and specific legal basis for denying a resignation withdrawal request by an employee participating in a deferred resignation program.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Impact</HD>
                <P>Since OPM would be codifying in regulation existing policies on administrative leave, OPM does not expect significant changes in the usage of administrative leave. Agencies generally follow OPM policies even if they are not legally binding in the way regulations are. Codifying policies in regulations would provide a firmer legal foundation for those policies, promote consistency across agencies, and avoid disputes between employees and agencies. Since this proposed regulation affects only Federal agencies and employees, it would have no substantial impact on local economies or labor markets.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Costs</HD>
                <P>As explained in the Impact section, OPM does not expect the proposed regulations to result in significant changes in the usage of administrative leave. Governmentwide policies that parallel the proposed regulations are already in place. OPM is simply giving its policies an enhanced legal standing by incorporating them in regulation. Accordingly, OPM does not project that costs or savings will result from the proposed regulations. OPM believes the administrative burdens associated with implementing the proposed regulations, if finalized, will be de minimis, since agencies are already operating under parallel OPM policies. There could be minor administrative cost savings to the extent that codifying policies in regulations reduces disputes.</P>
                <P>Similarly, OPM does not expect the proposed change to the resignation regulation to have a significant effect on the number of resignation withdrawals. The existing regulation already allows an agency to deny an employee's request to withdraw a resignation for a valid reason. The proposed regulation simply identifies an employee's acceptance of benefits (such as administrative leave) as part of a deferred resignation agreement as a specific example of a valid reason. The proposed regulation could result in fewer or less lengthy disputes, but the number of affected cases would be very small.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Benefits</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule has important benefits. The proposed regulations would provide more transparency and accountability, provide a firmer legal foundation for allowing or prohibiting certain uses of administrative leave, promote consistency across agencies, clarify the authority of agencies, and reduce potential disputes. With respect to the proposed revision of the resignation regulation, it would provide a regulatory basis for denying a resignation withdrawal request and set clear expectations for employees who enter into a deferred resignation agreement.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Compliance</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>The Director of OPM certifies that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities because it will apply only to Federal agencies and employees.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Regulatory Review</HD>
                <P>
                    The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs in the Office of Management and Budget has designated this as a significant regulatory action under E.O. 12866 section 3(f). Accordingly, OPM has examined the impact of this rule as required by E.O.s 12866 and 13563, which direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public, health, and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). A regulatory impact analysis must be prepared for rules that have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more in any one year or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities. This rulemaking does not reach that threshold. This rule is not expected to be considered a regulatory action under E.O. 14192 because it imposes no more than 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     costs.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Federalism</HD>
                <P>
                    This regulation will not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39036"/>
                    on distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, in accordance with E.O. 13132, the Director of OPM certifies that this proposed rule does not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant preparation of a Federalism Assessment.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Civil Justice Reform</HD>
                <P>This rulemaking meets the applicable standards set forth in section 3(a) and (b)(2) of E.O. 12988.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995</HD>
                <P>Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule that would impose spending costs on State, local, or tribal governments in the aggregate, or on the private sector, in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. That threshold is currently approximately $206 million. This rulemaking will not result in the expenditure by State, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, in excess of the threshold. Thus, no written assessment of unfunded mandates is required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>This rulemaking does not impose any reporting or recordkeeping requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35).</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                    <CFR>5 CFR Part 351</CFR>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Government employees.</P>
                    <CFR>5 CFR Part 630</CFR>
                    <P>Emergency preparedness, Government employees, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Wages, Weather.</P>
                    <CFR>5 CFR Part 715</CFR>
                    <P>Government employees.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Signing Statement</HD>
                <P>The Director of OPM, Scott Kupor, reviewed and approved this document and has authorized the undersigned to electronically sign and submit this document to the Office of the Federal Register for publication.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Office of Personnel Management.</FP>
                    <NAME>Jerson Matias,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Federal Register Liaison.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons stated in the preamble, OPM proposes to amend 5 CFR parts 351, 630, and 715 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 351—REDUCTION IN FORCE</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 351 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>5 U.S.C. 1302, 2301, 3502, 3503, 38 U.S.C. 4331; E.O. 14284, 90 FR 17729; 5 CFR 2.2(c). Sec. 351.801 also issued under E.O. 12828, 58 FR 2965, 3 CFR, 1993 Comp., p. 569.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart H—Notice to Employee</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <AMDPAR>2. Revise § 351.806 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 351.806 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Status during notice period.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">General.</E>
                         Under ordinary circumstances, an employee will remain in a duty status during the notice period.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Administrative leave.</E>
                         Nothing in this section precludes an agency from placing an employee on administrative leave for all or part of the notice period when the agency determines that such leave is appropriate and the use of administrative leave is consistent with part 630, subpart N, of this chapter.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Emergency lack of work or funds.</E>
                         When, in an emergency, the agency lacks work or funds for all or part of the notice period, it may place the employee on annual leave with or without the employee's consent, on leave without pay with the employee's consent, or in a nonpay status without the employee's consent.
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 630—ABSENCE AND LEAVE</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>3. The authority citation for 5 CFR part 630 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>Subparts A through E issued under 5 U.S.C. 6133(a) (read with 5 U.S.C. 6129), 6303(e) and (f), 6304(d)(2), 6306(b), 6308(a) and 6311. Subpart F issued under 5 U.S.C. 6305(a) and 6311 and E.O. 11228, 30 FR 7739, 3 CFR, 1974 Comp., p. 163. Subpart G issued under 5 U.S.C. 6305(c) and 6311. Subpart H issued under 5 U.S.C. 6133(a) (read with 5 U.S.C. 6129) and 6326(b). Subpart I issued under 5 U.S.C. 6332, 6334(c), 6336(a)(1) and (d), and 6340. Subpart J issued under 5 U.S.C. 6340, 6363, 6365(d), 6367(e), 6373(a). Subpart K issued under 5 U.S.C. 6391(g). Subpart L issued under 5 U.S.C. 6383(f) and 6387. Subpart M issued under Sec. 2(d), Pub. L. 114-75, 129 Stat. 641 (5 U.S.C. 6329 note). Subpart N issued under 5 U.S.C. 6329a(c). Subpart O issued under 5 U.S.C. 6329b(h). Subpart P issued under 5 U.S.C. 6329c(d).</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart N—Administrative Leave</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <AMDPAR>4. In subpart N:</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>a. Remove the word “grant”, wherever it appears, and add, in its place, the word “provide”;</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>b. Remove the word “granted”, wherever it appears, and add, in its place, the word “provided”; and</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>c. Remove the word “granting”, wherever it appears, and add, in its place, the word “providing”.</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>5. Amend § 630.1401 by revising paragraph (b) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 630.1401 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Purpose and Applicability.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(b) This subpart applies to an employee as defined in 5 U.S.C. 2105 who is employed in an agency, but does not apply to—</P>
                    <P>(1) An intermittent employee who, by definition, does not have an established regular tour of duty during the administrative workweek; or</P>
                    <P>(2) A Presidential appointee or other employee who is excluded from coverage under title 5 leave laws (5 U.S.C. 6301(a)(2)(x)-(xiii)) and who is entitled to the pay of his or her office solely because of status as an officer (5 U.S.C. 5508).</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 630.1402 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>6. Amend § 630.1402 by removing the definition of “Head of the agency”.</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>7. Amend § 630.1403 by:</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>a. Revising the section heading;</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>b. In paragraph (a)(2), adding the words “sole and exclusive” before the word “discretion”;</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>c. Revising paragraph (a)(3);</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>d. In paragraph (a)(4), adding the words “sole and exclusive” before the word “discretion”;</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>e. Revising paragraph (b); and</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>f. Adding paragraph (c).</AMDPAR>
                <P>The revisions and additions made by paragraphs a, c, e, and f of the above amendatory instructions read as follows:</P>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 630.1403 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Principles, prohibitions, and examples of acceptable uses.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) * * *</P>
                    <P>(3) Administrative leave is appropriately used for brief or short periods of time—usually for not more than 1 workday. An incidence of administrative leave lasting more than 1 workday may be approved in applicable circumstances described in paragraph (c) of this section or when otherwise determined to be appropriate by an agency.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Specific prohibited uses.</E>
                         An agency may not provide administrative leave—
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) To mark the memory of a deceased former Federal official (see also 5 U.S.C. 6105);</P>
                    <P>
                        (2) As a reward to recognize the performance or contributions of an employee or group of employees (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         in lieu of a cash award or a time-off award), except that an agency may provide administrative leave to all 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39037"/>
                        employees of an organization as a morale-boosting goodwill gesture, even if it is broadly linked to the accomplishments of the organization;
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (3) For investigative purposes (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         involving an “investigation” as defined in 5 CFR 630.1502) after an employee has reached the 10-workday calendar year limit described in § 630.1404 in connection with a given investigation;
                    </P>
                    <P>(4) For a purpose for which sick leave could be used (5 CFR 630.401(a))— unless such use in a particular scenario is specifically approved by Governmentwide policy issued by OPM or the President); however, an employee who is eligible to use sick leave may be provided administrative leave on the same basis it is provided to an employee who is not so eligible when the administrative leave is provided for some other purpose; or</P>
                    <P>(5) To cover service by poll workers or poll observers in connection with elections.</P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Examples of acceptable uses.</E>
                         An agency may at its sole and exclusive discretion provide administrative leave in circumstances that satisfy the requirements in paragraph (a) of this section, including in the following circumstances:
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) For investigative purposes until the employee has reached the 10-workday calendar year limit described in § 630.1404;</P>
                    <P>(2) To provide an employee who has not voted early with a reasonable opportunity to vote on a regular election day;</P>
                    <P>(3) To allow an employee to donate blood during the employee's tour of duty;</P>
                    <P>(4) To allow an employee to participate in an agency's employee assistance program for problem identification and referral to an outside resource and for general employee orientation or education activities;</P>
                    <P>(5) To provide for early dismissal (generally no more than 2 hours) on the scheduled workday immediately before a Federal public holiday as a morale-boosting goodwill gesture;</P>
                    <P>(6) To allow an employee to rest and recover following unusually lengthy tours of duty or extended travel for work purposes (for example, the U.S. Forest Service in the Department of Agriculture or the Department of the Interior may provide 2 to 3 days of administrative leave to employees who have completed an extended deployment to fight a wildland fire);</P>
                    <P>(7) To provide up to 5 days of administrative leave for a civilian employee who needs time off to effectuate a change in his or her residence to a different geographic area in order to accompany a qualifying spouse—that is, a spouse who is a member of a one of the uniformed services or a civilian Federal Government employee—when the qualifying spouse's residence change is the result of military orders or agency direction, as applicable;</P>
                    <P>(8) To provide extended periods of administrative leave (subject to Governmentwide limits established by OPM or agency limits) to employees who sign a written agreement to voluntarily separate on a specified future date as a transition-to-separation tool that supports workforce restructuring and realignment initiatives that are based on agency and Governmentwide interests, including voluntary deferred resignation programs, use of voluntary separation incentive payments, or use of voluntary early retirement authorizations;</P>
                    <P>(9) To provide administrative leave to employees subject to an involuntary separation via a reduction in force (RIF) during the period between receipt of the RIF notice and the RIF separation when the agency determines it is in the Government's best interests; or</P>
                    <P>(10) To provide extended periods of administrative leave (subject to Governmentwide limits established by OPM or agency limits) to facilitate the voluntary resignation of an employee with documented poor performance or misconduct under a settlement agreement that the agency determines is in the Government's best interests after considering all reasonable alternatives.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 715—NONDISCIPLINARY SEPARATIONS, DEMOTIONS, AND FURLOUGHS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>8. The authority citation for 5 CFR part 715 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 5 U.S.C. 1302, 3301, 3302, 7301; E.O. 10577, 19 FR 7521, 3 CFR, 1954-1958 Comp., p. 218.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Voluntary Separations</HD>
                    <STARS/>
                </SUBPART>
                <AMDPAR>9. Revise § 715.202 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 715.202 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Resignation.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">General.</E>
                         An employee is free to resign at any time, to set the effective date of his or her resignation, and to have his or her reasons for resigning entered in his or her official records.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Withdrawal of resignation.</E>
                         An agency may, in its sole and exclusive discretion, accept or decline an employee's request to withdraw his or her resignation at any time before it has become effective. An agency may decline a request to withdraw a resignation before its effective date only when the agency has a valid reason and explains that reason to the employee. A valid reason includes, but is not limited to, administrative disruption, the hiring of or commitment to hire a replacement, or the employee's acceptance of benefits provided under a deferred resignation agreement. Avoidance of adverse action proceedings is not a valid reason.
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13073 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6325-39-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2026-4669; Project Identifier MCAI-2025-00426-T]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Canada Limited Partnership (Type Certificate Previously Held by C Series Aircraft Limited Partnership (CSALP); Bombardier, Inc.) Airplanes</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA proposes to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Airbus Canada Limited Partnership Model BD-500-1A10 and BD-500-1A11 airplanes. This AD was prompted by the discovery of a low clearance condition between a hydraulic motor pump harness and the airplane structure at the aft fuselage between certain frames, which was found during final airplane assembly. This proposed AD would require modification of the harness installation. The FAA is proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this proposed AD by August 13, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         202-493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                        <PRTPAGE P="39038"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2026-4669; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this NPRM, the mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI), any comments received, and other information. The street address for Docket Operations is listed above.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For Transport Canada material identified in this proposed AD, contact Transport Canada, Transport Canada National Aircraft Certification, 159 Cleopatra Drive, Nepean, Ontario K1A 0N5, Canada; telephone 888-663-3639; email 
                        <E T="03">TC.AirworthinessDirectives-Consignesdenavigabilite.TC@tc.gc.ca.</E>
                         You may find this material on the Transport Canada website at 
                        <E T="03">tc.canada.ca/en/aviation.</E>
                         It is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2026-4669.
                    </P>
                    <P>• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Frank Carreras, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3539; email: 
                        <E T="03">frank.carreras@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA invites you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments using a method listed under the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section. Include “Docket No. FAA-2026-4669; Project Identifier MCAI-2025-00426-T” at the beginning of your comments. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. The FAA will consider all comments received by the closing date and may amend this proposal because of those comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                    , including any personal information you provide. The agency will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact received about this NPRM.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Confidential Business Information</HD>
                <P>
                    CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this NPRM contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this NPRM, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this NPRM. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Frank Carreras, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3539; email: 
                    <E T="03">frank.carreras@faa.gov.</E>
                     Any commentary that the FAA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>Transport Canada, which is the aviation authority for Canada, has issued Transport Canada AD CF-2025-18, dated March 21, 2025 (Transport Canada AD CF-2025-18) (also referred to as the MCAI), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Airbus Canada Limited Partnership (ACLP) Model BD-500-1A10 and BD-500-1A11 airplanes. The MCAI states that during final assembly of an airplane, ACLP discovered a low clearance condition between a hydraulic motor pump harness and the airplane structure at the aft fuselage between frame (FR) 80 and FR 81. Harness chafing in this area can generate an ignition source. This condition, if not corrected, could lead to an uncontained fire when in the presence of flammable fluids.</P>
                <P>
                    The FAA is proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2026-4669.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>Transport Canada AD CF-2025-18 specifies procedures for modifying the harness installation of the hydraulic motor pump by adding a clamp support on the bracket for the harness installation, between FR 80 and FR 81 of the aft fuselage.</P>
                <P>
                    This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination</HD>
                <P>These products have been approved by the civil aviation authority of another country and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, that authority has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI. The FAA is issuing this NPRM after determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed AD Requirements in This NPRM</HD>
                <P>This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in Transport Canada AD CF-2025-18 described previously, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this proposed AD.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Explanation of Required Compliance Information</HD>
                <P>
                    In the FAA's ongoing efforts to improve the efficiency of the AD process, the FAA developed a process to use some civil aviation authority (CAA) ADs as the primary source of information for compliance with requirements for corresponding FAA ADs. The FAA has been coordinating this process with manufacturers and CAAs. As a result, the FAA proposes to incorporate Transport Canada AD CF-2025-18 by reference in the FAA final rule. This proposed AD would, therefore, require compliance with Transport Canada AD CF-2025-18 in its entirety through that incorporation, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this proposed AD. Material required by Transport Canada AD CF-2025-18 for compliance will be available at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2026-4669 after the FAA final rule is published.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA estimates that this AD, if adopted as proposed, would affect 101 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
                    <PRTPAGE P="39039"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,10C,16C,20">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs for Required Actions</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost per product</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost on U.S. operators</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1 work-hour × $85 per hour = $85</ENT>
                        <ENT>$27</ENT>
                        <ENT>$112</ENT>
                        <ENT>$11,312</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>The FAA determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
                <P>(2) Would not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and</P>
                <P>(3) Would not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="04">Airbus Canada Limited Partnership (Type Certificate Previously Held by C Series Aircraft Limited Partnership (CSALP); Bombardier, Inc.):</E>
                         Docket No. FAA-2026-4669; Project Identifier MCAI-2025-00426-T.
                    </FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Comments Due Date</HD>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this airworthiness directive (AD) by August 13, 2026.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                    <P>None.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                    <P>This AD applies to Airbus Canada Limited Partnership (Type Certificate previously held by C Series Aircraft Limited Partnership (CSALP); Bombardier, Inc.) Model BD-500-1A10 and BD-500-1A11 airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Transport Canada AD CF-2025-18, dated March 21, 2025 (Transport Canada AD CF-2025-18).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                    <P>Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                    <P>This AD was prompted by the discovery during final assembly of a low clearance condition between a hydraulic motor pump harness and the airplane structure at the aft fuselage between frame (FR) 80 and FR 81. The FAA is proposing this AD to prevent harness chafing in this area, which can generate an ignition source. The unsafe condition, if not corrected, could lead to an uncontained fire when in the presence of flammable fluids.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                    <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Requirements</HD>
                    <P>Except as specified in paragraph (h) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, Transport Canada AD CF-2025-18.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Exceptions to Transport Canada AD CF-2025-18</HD>
                    <P>(1) Where Transport Canada AD CF-2025-18 refers to its effective date, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                    <P>(2) Where Transport Canada AD CF-2025-18 refers to hours air time, this AD requires using flight hours.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) Additional AD Provisions</HD>
                    <P>The following provisions also apply to this AD:</P>
                    <P>
                        (1) 
                        <E T="03">Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs):</E>
                         The Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the Continued Operational Safety Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j) of this AD and email to: 
                        <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov</E>
                        . Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Contacting the Manufacturer:</E>
                         For any requirement in this AD to obtain instructions from a manufacturer, the instructions must be accomplished using a method approved by the Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA; or Transport Canada; or Airbus Canada Limited Partnership's Transport Canada Design Approval Organization (DAO). If approved by the DAO, the approval must include the DAO-authorized signature.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Additional Information</HD>
                    <P>
                        For more information about this AD, contact Frank Carreras, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3539; email: 
                        <E T="03">frank.carreras@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                    <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                    <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                    <P>(i) Transport Canada AD CF-2025-18, dated March 21, 2025.</P>
                    <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                    <P>
                        (3) For Transport Canada material identified in this AD, contact Transport Canada, Transport Canada National Aircraft Certification, 159 Cleopatra Drive, Nepean, Ontario K1A 0N5, Canada; telephone 888-663-3639; email 
                        <E T="03">TC.AirworthinessDirectives-Consignesdenavigabilite.TC@tc.gc.ca.</E>
                         You may find this material on the Transport Canada website at 
                        <E T="03">tc.canada.ca/en/aviation.</E>
                        <PRTPAGE P="39040"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.</P>
                    <P>
                        (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                        <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                         or email 
                        <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Brian Knaup,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Integrated Certificate Management Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13023 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2026-7201; Project Identifier MCAI-2025-01290-T]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Airbus SAS Airplanes</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA proposes to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Airbus SAS Model A330-243, A330-243F, A330-341, A330-342, and A330-343 airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by reports of cracked and broken restraint brackets of the anti-ice piccolo tube found during maintenance on certain nacelle inlet cowls. This proposed AD would require, for certain affected parts, modification of the affected part, and for certain other affected parts, repetitive special detailed inspections (SDIs) for discrepancies and, depending on findings, modification of the affected part. This proposed AD would also prohibit a certain repair on any affected part and limit the installation of affected parts under certain conditions. The FAA is proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this proposed AD by August 13, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         202-493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2026-7201; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this NPRM, the mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI), any comments received, and other information. The street address for Docket Operations is listed above.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) material identified in this proposed AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email 
                        <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu.</E>
                         You may find this material on the EASA website at 
                        <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                         It is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2026-7201.
                    </P>
                    <P>• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Anthony Decaro, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone: 562-627-5374; email: 
                        <E T="03">Anthony.D.Decaro@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA invites you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments using a method listed under the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section. Include “Docket No. FAA-2026-7201; Project Identifier MCAI-2025-01290-T” at the beginning of your comments. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. The FAA will consider all comments received by the closing date and may amend this proposal because of those comments.
                </P>
                <P>Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to regulations.gov, including any personal information you provide. The agency will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact received about this NPRM.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Confidential Business Information</HD>
                <P>
                    CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this NPRM contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this NPRM, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this NPRM. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Anthony Decaro, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone: 562-627-5374; email: 
                    <E T="03">Anthony.D.Decaro@faa.gov.</E>
                     Any commentary that the FAA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA AD 2025-0164, dated July 29, 2025 (EASA AD 2025-0164) (also referred to as the MCAI), to correct an unsafe condition for all Airbus SAS Model A330-243, A330-243F, A330-341, A330-342, A330-343, and A330-743L airplanes. Model A330-743L airplanes are not certificated by the FAA and are not included on the U.S. type certificate data sheet; this proposed AD therefore does not include those airplanes in the applicability. The MCAI states cracked and broken restraint brackets of the anti-ice piccolo tube were reportedly found during maintenance on certain nacelle inlet cowls. The restraint brackets act as a precautionary measure to prevent disengagement of the thermal anti-ice spray ring from the thermal anti-ice feed pipe in specific conditions. This condition, if not detected and corrected, could lead to a thermal anti-ice feed pipe disengagement and decrease the effectiveness of the thermal anti-ice system, allowing ice build-up on the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39041"/>
                    inlet lip skin, which could result in damage to the engine and reduced control of the airplane.
                </P>
                <P>The FAA is proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                <P>You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at regulations.gov under Docket No. FAA-2026-7201.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>
                    EASA AD 2025-0164 specifies procedures for modifying certain affected nacelle inlet cowls, and, for certain other affected parts, repetitive special detailed inspections (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     borescope inspections) of the nacelle inlet cowl (also known as the air inlet cowl) for discrepancies and, depending on findings, modification of the affected part, which terminates the repetitive inspections. Discrepancies include the thermal anti-ice feed pipe that is fully or partially disengaged from the thermal anti-ice spray ring; and the thermal anti-ice feed pipe that is correctly engaged with the thermal anti-ice spray ring with one or both restraint brackets cracked, severed, or missing. EASA AD 2025-0164 also specifies that replacement of the affected part with a serviceable part as a method of compliance for the modification for that affected part. EASA AD 2025-0164 also prohibits repair FRSZ026 on any affected part and limits the installation of affected parts under certain conditions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination</HD>
                <P>These products have been approved by the civil aviation authority of another country and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, that authority has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA is issuing this NPRM after determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed AD Requirements in This NPRM</HD>
                <P>This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in EASA AD 2025-0164 described previously, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this proposed AD.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Explanation of Required Compliance Information</HD>
                <P>In the FAA's ongoing efforts to improve the efficiency of the AD process, the FAA developed a process to use some civil aviation authority (CAA) ADs as the primary source of information for compliance with requirements for corresponding FAA ADs. The FAA has been coordinating this process with manufacturers and CAAs. As a result, the FAA proposes to incorporate EASA AD 2025-0164 by reference in the FAA final rule. This proposed AD would, therefore, require compliance with EASA AD 2025-0164 in its entirety through that incorporation, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this proposed AD. Using common terms that are the same as the heading of a particular section in EASA AD 2025-0164 does not mean that operators need comply only with that section. For example, where the AD requirement refers to “all required actions and compliance times,” compliance with this AD requirement is not limited to the section titled “Required Action(s) and Compliance Time(s)” in EASA AD 2025-0164. Material required by EASA AD 2025-0164 for compliance will be available at regulations.gov under Docket No. FAA-2026-7201 after the FAA final rule is published.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates that this AD, if adopted as proposed, would affect 70 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,r50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs for Required Actions</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost per product</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost on U.S. operators</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Up to 5 work-hours × $85 per hour = $425</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $11,673</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $12,098</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $846,860.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,12C,12C">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs for Optional Actions</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost per product</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4 work-hours × $85 per hour = $340</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0 *</ENT>
                        <ENT>$340.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE> * The FAA has received no definitive data on which to base the parts cost estimate for the optional replacement.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The FAA estimates the following costs to do any necessary on-condition actions that would be required based on the results of any required actions. The FAA has no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these on-condition actions:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs of On-Condition Actions</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost per product</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Up to 5 work-hours × $85 per hour = $425</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $11,673</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $12,098.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>
                    The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39042"/>
                    Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>The FAA determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
                <P>(2) Would not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and</P>
                <P>(3) Would not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="04">Airbus SAS:</E>
                         Docket No. FAA-2026-7201; Project Identifier MCAI-2025-01290-T.
                    </FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Comments Due Date</HD>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this airworthiness directive (AD) by August 13, 2026.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                    <P>None.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                    <P>This AD applies to all Airbus SAS Model A330-243, A330-243F, A330-341, A330-342, and A330-343 airplanes, certificated in any category.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                    <P>Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 71, Power Plant.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                    <P>This AD was prompted by reports of cracked and broken restraint brackets of the anti-ice piccolo tube found during maintenance on affected parts. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition which, if not addressed, could result in a thermal anti-ice feed pipe disengagement and decrease the effectiveness of the thermal anti-ice system, allowing ice build-up on the inlet lip skin, which could result in damage to the engine and reduced control of the airplane.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                    <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Requirements</HD>
                    <P>Except as specified in paragraph (h) and (i) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2025-0164, dated July 29, 2025 (EASA AD 2025-0164).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Exceptions to EASA AD 2025-0164</HD>
                    <P>(1) Where EASA AD 2025-0164 refers to its effective date, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                    <P>(2) Where EASA AD 2025-0164 defines a serviceable part as a “Nacelle Inlet Cowl, eligible for installation in accordance with Airbus instructions, which is not an affected part”, for this AD replace that text with “Nacelle Inlet Cowl, eligible for installation, which is not an affected part”.</P>
                    <P>(3) Where paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2025-0164 specifies “any discrepancy, as identified in the SB, is found on an affected part”, this AD requires replacing that text with “any discrepancy is found on an affected part”.</P>
                    <P>(4) This AD does not adopt the “Remarks” section of EASA AD 2025-0164.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) No Reporting Requirement</HD>
                    <P>Although the material referenced in EASA AD 2025-0164 specifies to submit certain information to the manufacturer, this AD does not include that requirement.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Additional AD Provisions</HD>
                    <P>The following provisions also apply to this AD:</P>
                    <P>
                        (1) 
                        <E T="03">Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs):</E>
                         The Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the Continued Operational Safety Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k) of this AD and email to: 
                        <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov</E>
                        . Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Contacting the Manufacturer:</E>
                         For any requirement in this AD to obtain instructions from a manufacturer, the instructions must be accomplished using a method approved by the Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA; or EASA; or Airbus SAS's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA). If approved by the DOA, the approval must include the DOA-authorized signature.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (3) 
                        <E T="03">Required for Compliance (RC):</E>
                         Except as required by paragraph (i) and (j)(2) of this AD, if any material contains procedures or tests that are identified as RC, those procedures and tests must be done to comply with this AD; any procedures or tests that are not identified as RC are recommended. Those procedures and tests that are not identified as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the procedures and tests identified as RC can be done and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition. Any substitutions or changes to procedures or tests identified as RC require approval of an AMOC.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Additional Information</HD>
                    <P>
                        For more information about this AD, contact Anthony Decaro, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone: 562-627-5374; email: 
                        <E T="03">Anthony.D.Decaro@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(l) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                    <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                    <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                    <P>(i) European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2025-0164, dated July 29, 2025.</P>
                    <P>(ii) [Reserved].</P>
                    <P>
                        (3) For EASA material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email 
                        <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu.</E>
                         You may find this material on the EASA website at 
                        <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.</P>
                    <P>
                        (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                        <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                         or email 
                        <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="39043"/>
                    <DATED>Issued on June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Brian Knaup,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Integrated Certificate Management Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13024 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2026-4656; Project Identifier MCAI-2026-00214-R]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Helicopters Deutschland GmbH (AHD) Helicopters</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA proposes to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Airbus Helicopters Deutschland GmbH (AHD) Model EC135P1, EC135P2, EC135P2+, EC135P3, EC135T1, EC135T2, EC135T2+, EC135T3, and EC635T2+ helicopters. This proposed AD was prompted by a report of a separated tail rotor blade (TRB) assembly due to a crack caused by intergranular corrosion. This proposed AD would require repetitively inspecting a certain TRB assembly for cracks and, depending on the results, removing any cracked TRB assembly from service and replacing an affected part as terminating action for the repetitive inspections. This proposed AD would also prohibit installing a certain TRB assembly on any helicopter unless certain requirements are met. The FAA is proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this NPRM by August 13, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                        . Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2026-4656; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this NPRM, the mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI), any comments received, and other information. The street address for Docket Operations is listed above.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) material identified in this proposed AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; phone: +49 221 8999 000; email: 
                        <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu;</E>
                         website: 
                        <E T="03">easa.europa.eu.</E>
                         You may find the EASA material on the EASA website at 
                        <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Soban Saeed, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: (316) 946-4123; email: 
                        <E T="03">soban.saeed@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA invites you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments using a method listed under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Include “Docket No. FAA-2026-4656; Project Identifier MCAI-2026-00214-R” at the beginning of your comments. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. The FAA will consider all comments received by the closing date and may amend this proposal because of those comments.
                </P>
                <P>Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to regulations.gov, including any personal information you provide. The agency will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact received about this NPRM.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Confidential Business Information</HD>
                <P>CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this NPRM contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this NPRM, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this NPRM. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Soban Saeed, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590. Any commentary that the FAA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>The FAA issued AD 2024-04-10, Amendment 39-22689 (89 FR 15431, March 4, 2024) (AD 2024-04-10), which applies to all AHD Model EC135P1, EC135P2, EC135P2+, EC135P3, EC135T1, EC135T2, EC135T2+, EC135T3, and EC635T2+ helicopters. AD 2024-04-10 requires repetitively inspecting TRBs having part number (P/N) L642A2002111 or P/N L642A2002112 installed, for cracks and, depending on the results, removing any cracked TRB from service. AD 2024-04-10 also prohibits installing certain TRBs on any helicopter unless certain requirements are met. AD 2024-04-10 was prompted by a report of a separated TRB due to a crack caused by intergranular corrosion.</P>
                <P>Since the FAA issued AD 2024-04-10, it has been determined that TRBs with P/N L642A2002121 installed, may also be subject to intergranular corrosion and could contain or develop the same unsafe condition.</P>
                <P>
                    To address this condition, EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, issued EASA AD 2025-0113, dated May 15, 2025, to address TRB assemblies having P/N L642A2002121 being subject to intergranular corrosion. EASA then superseded EASA AD 2025-0113 and issued EASA AD 2026-0031, dated February 19, 2026 (EASA AD 2026-0031) (also referred to as the MCAI), for all AHD Model EC135 P1, EC135 P2, EC135 P2+, EC135 P3, EC135 T1, EC135 T2, EC135 T2+, EC135 T3, EC635 P2+, EC635 P3, EC635 T1, EC635 T2+, and EC635 T3 helicopters. The MCAI states an occurrence was reported of increased 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39044"/>
                    vibrations of the tail rotor, which was the result of a crack on the TRB assembly. Further investigation revealed that the affected parts may be subject to intergranular corrosion, which could lead to cracks. The MCAI also states that a determination was made by the manufacturer that a previously approved inspection method (Method A), which was in a previously issued MCAI, should be discontinued. Method A consisted of dye-penetrant (with increased temperature) inspection. The FAA did not issue an AD corresponding to EASA AD 2025-0113.
                </P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this AD to detect and address cracks in the TRB assembly. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in separation of the TRB assembly and reduced control of the helicopter.</P>
                <P>
                    You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2026-4656.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>The FAA reviewed EASA AD 2026-0031, which specifies procedures for repetitively inspecting the affected TRB assembly for cracks and, if any crack is detected, replacing the affected TRB assembly with a serviceable part. EASA AD 2026-0031 prohibits installing a certain TRB assembly on any helicopter unless certain requirements are met and specifies that replacing an affected TRB assembly with an eligible TRB assembly that is not an affected part is terminating action for certain repetitive inspections.</P>
                <P>
                    This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination</HD>
                <P>These products have been approved by the civil aviation authority (CAA) of another country and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, that authority has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA is issuing this NPRM after determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed AD Requirements in This NPRM</HD>
                <P>This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in EASA AD 2026-0031, described previously, as incorporated by reference, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this AD. See “Differences Between this Proposed AD and the MCAI” for a discussion of the general differences included in this proposed AD.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Differences Between This Proposed AD and the MCAI</HD>
                <P>The MCAI applies to Airbus Helicopters Model EC635 P2+, EC635 P3, EC635 T1, and EC635 T3 helicopters, whereas this AD does not because those models do not have an FAA type certificate.</P>
                <P>The MCAI specifies inspecting for cracks by performing dye-penetrant inspection, eddy current inspection, or fluorescent penetrant inspection, whereas this AD would require inspection methods under certain scenarios as outlined in the regulatory text of the proposed AD, which are also described in a Note in the regulatory text of this proposed AD.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Explanation of Required Compliance Information</HD>
                <P>
                    In the FAA's ongoing efforts to improve the efficiency of the AD process, the FAA developed a process to use some CAA ADs as the primary source of information for compliance with requirements for corresponding FAA ADs. The FAA has been coordinating this process with manufacturers and CAAs. As a result, the FAA proposes to incorporate EASA AD 2026-0031 by reference in the FAA final rule. This proposed AD would, therefore, require compliance with EASA AD 2026-0031 in its entirety through that incorporation, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this proposed AD. Using common terms that are the same as the heading of a particular section in EASA AD 2026-0031 does not mean that operators need comply only with that section. For example, where the AD requirement refers to “all required actions and compliance times,” compliance with this AD requirement is not limited to the section titled “Required Action(s) and Compliance Time(s)” in EASA AD 2026-0031. Material required by EASA AD 2026-0031 for compliance will be available at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2026-4656 after the FAA final rule is published.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates that this AD, if adopted as proposed, would affect 359 helicopters of U.S. registry.</P>
                <P>The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj" CDEF="s50,r25,r25,r25,r25">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost on
                            <LI>U.S. operators</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Inspect one affected TRB assembly (up to 10 per helicopter)</ENT>
                        <ENT>3 work-hours × $85 per hour = $255</ENT>
                        <ENT>$50</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $305</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $109,495.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The FAA estimates the following costs to do any replacements that would be required based on the results of the proposed inspection. The agency has no way of determining the number of helicopters that might need this replacement:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>On-condition costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost per product</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Replace one TRB assembly (up to 10 per helicopter)</ENT>
                        <ENT>3 work-hours × $85 per hour = $255</ENT>
                        <ENT>$4,900 per TRB assembly</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $51,550.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="39045"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>The FAA determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
                <P>(2) Would not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and</P>
                <P>(3) Would not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="04">Airbus Helicopters Deutschland GmbH (AHD):</E>
                         Docket No. FAA-2026-4656; Project Identifier MCAI-2026-00214-R.
                    </FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Comments Due Date</HD>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this airworthiness directive (AD) by August 13, 2026.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                    <P>None.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                    <P>This AD applies to all Airbus Helicopters Deutschland GmbH (AHD) Model EC135P1, EC135P2, EC135P2+, EC135P3, EC135T1, EC135T2, EC135T2+, EC135T3, and EC635T2+ helicopters, certificated in any category.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                    <P>Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC) Code 6410, Tail rotor blades.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                    <P>This AD was prompted by a report of a separated tail rotor blade (TRB) assembly due to a crack in the TRB assembly caused by intergranular corrosion. The FAA is issuing this AD to detect and address cracks in the TRB assembly. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in separation of the TRB assembly and reduced control of the helicopter.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                    <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Requirements</HD>
                    <P>Except as specified in paragraphs (h) and (i) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, European Union Aviation Safety Agency AD 2026-0031, dated February 19, 2026 (EASA AD 2026-0031).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Exceptions to EASA AD 2026-0031</HD>
                    <P>(1) Where EASA AD 2026-0031 refers to its effective date, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                    <P>(2) Where EASA AD 2026-0031 refers to flight hours, this AD requires using hours time-in-service (TIS).</P>
                    <P>(3) Where paragraph (1) of EASA AD 2026-0031 specifies “Before an affected part exceeds 1432 FH [flight hours] since first installation on a helicopter”, this AD requires replacing that text with “Before an affected part accumulates 1,432 hours TIS since first installation on a helicopter, or within 10 hours TIS after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later”.</P>
                    <P>(4) Where paragraph 4.3 of the material referenced in EASA AD 2026-0031 recommends type II visible dye inspections, this AD requires the inspection methods in paragraphs (h)(4)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this AD, as applicable:</P>
                    <P>(i) If the affected part has previously been inspected using a type II visible dye method, perform type II visible dye (Method B of the material referenced in EASA AD 2026-0031) or eddy current inspections, instead of fluorescent penetrant inspections.</P>
                    <P>(ii) If the affected part has not previously been inspected using a type II visible dye inspection, perform eddy current or fluorescent penetrant inspections, instead of type II visible dye inspections.</P>
                    <P>(iii) If you cannot determine whether the affected part has previously been inspected by a type II visible dye method, clean all surfaces to be inspected and perform an eddy current or a fluorescent penetrant inspection, instead of a type II visible dye inspection.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Note 1 to paragraph (h)(4):</E>
                         The FAA reminds operators of the airworthiness concern regarding type II visible dye inspections of critical parts discussed in FAA Special Airworthiness Information Bulletin (SAIB) CE-18-26R1, dated October 30, 2018 (SAIB CE-18-26R1). SAIB CE-18-26R1 explains the risks associated with using type II visible dye inspection methods, including the prohibition in American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) E1417 on the use of type II visible dye penetrant prior to the use of type I fluorescent penetrant on the same surface. SAIB CE-18-26R1 also advises of the importance of pre- and post-inspection cleaning to ensure proper detection of cracks. You can find SAIB CE-18-26R1 at 
                        <E T="03">drs.faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Note 2 to paragraph (h)(4):</E>
                         The material referenced in EASA AD 2026-0031 identifies a type II visible dye inspection as Method A (not allowed), or Method B; eddy current inspection as Method C; and fluorescent penetrant inspection as Method D.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Note 3 to paragraph (h)(4):</E>
                         When entering compliance with the applicable paragraph of the AD into the helicopter maintenance records, documenting that a type II visible dye inspection was performed improves the accuracy of maintenance records.
                    </P>
                    <P>(5) This AD does not adopt paragraphs (3) and (7) of EASA AD 2026-0031.</P>
                    <P>(6) This AD does not adopt the “Remarks” section of EASA AD 2026-0031.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) No Reporting or Returning of Parts</HD>
                    <P>Where the material referenced in EASA AD 2026-0031 specifies to submit certain information and to send removed parts to the manufacturer, this AD does not include those actions.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Special Flight Permits</HD>
                    <P>Special flight permits, as described in 14 CFR 21.197 and 21.199, are not allowed.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)</HD>
                    <P>
                        (1) The Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the International Validation Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (l) of this AD and email to 
                        <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39046"/>
                        or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(l) Additional Information</HD>
                    <P>
                        For more information about this AD, contact Soban Saeed, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: (316) 946-4123; email: 
                        <E T="03">soban.saeed@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(m) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                    <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                    <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                    <P>(i) European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2026-0031, dated February 19, 2026.</P>
                    <P>(ii) [Reserved].</P>
                    <P>
                        (3) For EASA material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; phone: +49 221 8999 000; email: 
                        <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu;</E>
                         website: 
                        <E T="03">easa.europa.eu.</E>
                         You may find the EASA material on the EASA website at 
                        <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.</P>
                    <P>
                        (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                        <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                         or email 
                        <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Christopher R. Parker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Compliance &amp; Airworthiness Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13034 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>50 CFR Part 226</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 260624-0152]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0648-BO44</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; 12-Month Finding and Proposed Rule To Revise Critical Habitat Designation for Southern California Steelhead</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of 12-month petition finding; proposed rule; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        We, NMFS, announce a 12-month finding on a petition to revise the critical habitat designation under the Endangered Species Act (ESA) for the Southern California steelhead (
                        <E T="03">Oncorhynchus mykiss</E>
                        ) distinct population segment (DPS). The petition from the United Water Conservation District (UWCD) requests the removal of an approximately 9-mile (14.5-kilometer (km)) stream reach from the confluence of Hopper Creek and the Santa Clara River to the face of Santa Felicia Dam. Based on our review of the best scientific and commercial data available, we find that the petitioned action to remove this reach from the critical habitat designation is warranted. Consequently, we are proposing to remove this reach from the critical habitat designation for Southern California steelhead.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this proposed rule must be received by August 28, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        A plain language summary of this proposed rule is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/NOAA-NMFS-2025-0050.</E>
                         You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2025-0050, by any of the following methods:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Electronic Submission:</E>
                         Submit all electronic public comments via the Federal e-Rulemaking Portal. Visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and type NOAA-NMFS-2025-0050 in the Search box. Click on the “Comment” icon, complete the required fields, and enter or attach your comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Submit written comments to Protected Resources Division, NMFS West Coast Region. 1201 Northeast Lloyd Boulevard, Suite 1100. Portland OR 97232. Attention: Southern California Steelhead Critical Habitat Revision.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         Comments sent by any other method, to any other address or individual, or received after the end of the comment period, may not be considered by NMFS. All comments received are a part of the public record and will generally be posted for public viewing on 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         without change. All personal identifying information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         name, address), confidential business information, or otherwise sensitive information submitted voluntarily by the sender will be publicly accessible. NMFS will accept anonymous comments (enter “NA” in the required fields if you wish to remain anonymous).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The petition, 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notices, and the list of documents supporting and cited in this proposed rule are available online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Robert Markle, NMFS West Coast Region, 
                        <E T="03">robert.markle@noaa.gov</E>
                         or 503-230-5419; or Lisa Manning, NMFS Office of Protected Resources, 
                        <E T="03">lisa.manning@noaa.gov</E>
                         or 301-427-8466.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>The ESA defines critical habitat under section 3(5)(A) as: “(i) the specific areas within the geographical area occupied by the species, at the time it is listed . . . on which are found those physical or biological features (I) essential to the conservation of the species and (II) which may require special management considerations or protection; and (ii) specific areas outside the geographical area occupied by the species at the time it is listed . . . upon a determination by the Secretary that such areas are essential for the conservation of the species.” “Conservation” is defined in section 3(3) of the ESA as “the use of all methods and procedures which are necessary to bring any endangered species or threatened species to the point at which the measures provided pursuant to [the ESA] are no longer necessary” 16 U.S.C. 1532(3).</P>
                <P>Section 4(b)(2) of the ESA requires NMFS to designate and revise critical habitat for listed species based on the best scientific data available and after taking into consideration the economic impact, the impact on national security, and any other relevant impact, of specifying any particular area as critical habitat. The Secretary of Commerce may exclude any particular area from critical habitat if he determines that the benefits of such exclusion outweigh the benefits of specifying such area as part of the critical habitat, unless he determines that the failure to designate such area as critical habitat will result in the extinction of the species concerned.</P>
                <P>
                    The ESA provides that NMFS may, from time-to-time, revise critical habitat as appropriate (section 4(a)(3)(A)(ii)). In accordance with section 4(b)(3)(D)(i) of the ESA, to the maximum extent practicable, within 90 days of receipt of a petition to revise critical habitat, the Secretary of Commerce is required to make a finding as to whether that petition presents substantial scientific or commercial information indicating that the petitioned action may be warranted, and to promptly publish such finding in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Within 12 months after receiving a petition that is found under section 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39047"/>
                    4(a)(3)(D)(i) to present substantial information indicating that the requested revision may be warranted, the Secretary shall determine how he intends to proceed with the requested revision and shall promptly publish notice of such intention in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Current Critical Habitat Designation</HD>
                <P>
                    The Southern California steelhead DPS was listed as endangered under the ESA in 1997 (62 FR 43937, August 18, 1997). The listed entity is described as naturally spawned anadromous 
                    <E T="03">O. mykiss</E>
                     (steelhead) originating below natural and manmade impassable barriers from the Santa Maria River to the U.S.-Mexico Border.
                </P>
                <P>Critical habitat was designated for this DPS in 2005 (70 FR 52488, September 2, 2005) (2005 final rule). Of the estimated 741 stream miles (1,192 km) accessible to Southern California steelhead (NMFS 2005a, Final Assessment of NOAA's National Marine Fisheries Service Critical Habitat Analytical Review Teams for 7 Evolutionarily Significant Units of Pacific Salmon and Steelhead in California), 708 miles (1,139 km) were designated as critical habitat. The designation identified the physical or biological features (PBFs) essential for the conservation of steelhead (although at the time, these habitat features were referred to as “primary constituent elements;” see 81 FR 7414, February 11, 2016), which include:</P>
                <P>(1) freshwater spawning sites with water quantity and quality conditions and substrate supporting spawning, incubation, and larval development;</P>
                <P>(2) freshwater rearing sites with water quantity and floodplain connectivity to form and maintain physical habitat conditions and support juvenile growth and mobility; water quality and forage supporting juvenile development; and natural cover such as shade, submerged and overhanging large wood, log jams and beaver dams, aquatic vegetation, large rocks and boulders, side channels, and undercut banks; and</P>
                <P>(3) freshwater migration corridors free of obstruction and with water quantity and quality conditions and natural cover such as submerged and overhanging large wood, aquatic vegetation, large rocks and boulders, side channels, and undercut banks supporting juvenile and adult mobility and survival.</P>
                <P>Prior to proposing critical habitat for Southern California steelhead in 2005, we established a team of NMFS fishery biologists and habitat specialists to compile information regarding occupancy, identify occupied areas that contained the PBFs essential to conservation, determine whether the PBFs may require special management considerations or protection, identify the activities in those areas that may affect the PBFs, and evaluate whether any unoccupied areas may be essential for the conservation of this DPS. The team was referred to as the Critical Habitat Analytical Review Team (CHART). To delineate and map particular areas of critical habitat, the CHART used the State of California's CALWATER classification system for watersheds, including hydrologic subareas. To conduct an analysis under section 4(b)(2) of the ESA, the CHART also assessed and rated the relative conservation value of each particular area as High, Moderate, or Low. To arrive at these ratings, the CHART applied a uniform scoring system based on quality, quantity, and distribution of PBFs.</P>
                <P>In its assessment (NMFS 2005a), the CHART gave the Santa Clara-Hopper Canyon-Piru Creek watershed (CAL WATER Hydrologic Subarea #440341), which includes the 9-mile river reach that is the subject of this proposed rule, a conservation value score of 11. This score was the minimum required for a “High” rating (NMFS 2005a). Next, NMFS completed a Final ESA Section 4(b)(2) report (NMFS 2005b) to assist us in evaluating the benefits of designating particular areas versus the benefits of excluding those areas given estimated economic impacts. As we weighed the benefits of each, we considered if the conservation rating should be adjusted for the purposes of the exclusion evaluation based on “section 7 leverage.” This factor accounts for how likely a Federal action is to trigger consultation under section 7 of the ESA and lead to habitat modifications and thus yield conservation benefits. The economic analysis concluded that the Santa Clara-Hopper Canyon-Piru Creek watershed had “low” section 7 leverage (NMFS 2005b). Consequently, when considering exclusion of the Santa Clara-Hopper Canyon-Piru Creek watershed from designation, the conservation rating for the watershed was adjusted and considered a “medium value habitat area” (NMFS 2005b). This adjustment for consideration of exclusion did not change the CHART's final assessment regarding the high conservation value of the watershed.</P>
                <P>Ultimately, the CHART determined that exclusion of the Santa Clara-Hopper Canyon-Piru Creek watershed from the critical habitat designation would impede conservation of the species (NMFS 2005b). As was noted in the CHART assessment, the inaccessible reaches above Santa Felicia Dam “may be essential to the conservation” of Southern California steelhead and preserving migratory access was found to be important (2005a). That evaluation formed the basis for designating the watershed, including the 9-mile reach now in question, as critical habitat. As described in the 2005 final rulemaking, we did not have information to determine that specific areas within the geographical area occupied by the species were inadequate to ensure the conservation of the DPS; thus, in accordance with the regulatory requirements at the time, we did not designate any unoccupied critical habitat (70 FR 52488; September 2, 2005).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Petition To Revise Critical Habitat</HD>
                <P>On March 21, 2025, NMFS received UWCD's petition to revise the designated critical habitat for the Southern California steelhead DPS (UWCD 2025a). The petition sets forth several detailed arguments for removing a 9-mile reach (figure 1), which is composed of an approximately 3-mile (4.8-km) segment of the Santa Clara River (from its confluence with Hopper Creek upstream to its confluence with Piru Creek) and an approximately 6-mile (9.7-km) segment of lower Piru Creek (from its confluence with the Santa Clara River upstream to the base of Santa Felicia Dam), from the critical habitat designation (UWCD 2025a).</P>
                <P>First, the petition asserts that the reach is not currently occupied by steelhead, nor was it at the time the DPS was listed under the ESA in 1997. Second, the petition contends that the designated reach does not contain the PBFs essential for steelhead conservation. Specifically, the petition characterizes the habitat as a non-functional migration corridor because the impassable Santa Felicia Dam completely blocks upstream and downstream passage, thereby eliminating its utility for migration. The petition also states that the reach does not provide suitable spawning or rearing habitat, which it characterizes as severely degraded. Lastly, the petition asserts that the 2005 economic analysis was flawed because it significantly underestimated the economic impacts of the designation, particularly with respect to ongoing and future water management operations, supply, and maintenance activities that are constrained by the designation.</P>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="570">
                    <PRTPAGE P="39048"/>
                    <GID>EP29JN26.020</GID>
                </GPH>
                <PRTPAGE P="39049"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Figure 1—Map of the Santa Clara-Calleguas Hydrologic Unit 4403, which includes the Santa Clara-Hopper Canyon-Piru Creek Watershed, CAL WATER Hydrologic Subarea #440341 (70 FR 52488; September 2, 2005). The Circle Denotes the Subject 9-Mile Reach Currently Petitioned for Removal From Designation</HD>
                <P>On July 11, 2025, we published a 90-day finding concluding the petition presented substantial scientific information that a revision of the designated critical habitat may be warranted (90 FR 30833, July 11, 2025). To ensure a comprehensive review of the current critical habitat designation, we solicited relevant scientific and commercial information regarding the petitioned action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Public Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    In response to our request for information, we received 574 responses. Comments were received from UWCD, California Department of Fish and Wildlife, nongovernmental organizations, individuals, and anonymous submitters. The majority of responses included general comments expressing either support or opposition to the requested revision. Those in opposition to revising the critical habitat designation cited the need for species and habitat conservation and scientific integrity, as well as expressing other general concerns. Comments in support of revising the critical habitat designation were generally centered on concerns regarding economic burdens, regulatory overreach, and the scientific justification for the original designation. In some cases, commenters provided data to inform this 12-month finding (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     fish presence/absence, habitat value), and that data is provided alongside other data NMFS used to inform this rulemaking in Analysis of the Best Information below. To access and review individual public comments, see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis of the Best Available Information</HD>
                <P>In considering the petitioned action, we analyzed the information provided in the petition and public comments, as well as that contained in our files and scientific and commercial sources.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Occupancy</HD>
                <P>Our review of the best available information supports UWCD's assertion that the 9-mile reach in question was not occupied by the steelhead DPS at the time the DPS was listed. While the species was historically present in the upper Piru Creek drainage (NMFS 2008) and despite lower Piru Creek being periodically accessible, there are no records of steelhead observations within lower Piru Creek or the adjoining segment of the Santa Clara River upstream of the Hopper Creek confluence since the construction of Santa Felicia Dam created an impassable barrier in 1955 (NMFS 2025, UWCD 2025a). The continued absence of steelhead in this particular area is supported by multiple surveys, such as those conducted in 2004 (FERC 2007) and more frequently in recent years (UWCD 2013, UWCD 2015, UWCD 2016, NMFS 2025).</P>
                <P>
                    While juvenile 
                    <E T="03">O. mykiss</E>
                     have been observed in lower Piru Creek below the Santa Felicia Dam (UWCD 2013, UWCD 2015, UWCD 2016, NMFS 2025), none have been determined to be listed steelhead. UWCD suggests these juvenile fish originated upstream and were washed over the dam. While this may be true for some of the individuals, reproduction by resident 
                    <E T="03">O. mykiss</E>
                     (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     non-anadromous rainbow trout) below the dam is also a likely source.
                </P>
                <P>
                    No adult steelhead or redds have been observed in the subject 9-mile river reach since construction of the dam. In addition to juveniles, snorkel surveys observed 
                    <E T="03">O. mykiss</E>
                     greater than 16 inches in length in August 2013 and October 2016 (UWCD 2013, UWCD 2016, NMFS 2025). While the California Department of Fish and Wildlife considers 
                    <E T="03">O. mykiss</E>
                     greater than 16 inches in length found in anadromous waters to be steelhead for fisheries management purposes (CDFW 2026), size alone is insufficient to confirm anadromy in this context. Notably, these larger individuals were observed during months when adult steelhead are not typically present in freshwater based on their life history.
                </P>
                <P>In Southern California, adult steelhead typically migrate to natal streams for spawning during December through May. Spawning may occur during December to June. Shortly following spawning, most adult steelhead die. However, unlike salmon, some adult steelhead survive and return to the ocean shortly after spawning. These surviving individuals, referred to as kelts, may spawn in subsequent years.</P>
                <P>Kelt holdovers in estuaries and rivers are known to occur. In Southern California, this is likely involuntary, forced residency resulting from environmental factors that preclude downstream passage, such as subsurface flows that leave channels dry. The Santa Clara River between the towns of Fillmore and Piru often goes dry as surface flow is lost to percolation, particularly near Cavin Road downstream of the Piru Creek confluence (NMFS 2025).</P>
                <P>
                    Regardless, there are no descriptions of adult coloration or body form, nor are there analytical data (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     strontium/calcium ratio, scale or otolith analysis, or parentage-based tagging) to verify anadromous life history or parentage for any of the observed 
                    <E T="03">O. mykiss.</E>
                     The limited number of photographs available of larger 
                    <E T="03">O. mykiss</E>
                     (greater than 12 inches) appear to show adult rainbow trout, not steelhead (UWCD 2015, UWCD 2016). Consequently, the 
                    <E T="03">O. mykiss</E>
                     are likely resident rainbow trout, which are known to occur in the reach and are not part of the listed DPS. Genetic analysis, had it been performed, would not have been definitive. While genetics can suggest a predisposition toward a certain life history, it cannot prove whether a fish or its parents were anadromous. Therefore, there is insufficient information to establish that any of the observed 
                    <E T="03">O. mykiss</E>
                     were steelhead; instead, it is more likely than not that they were rainbow trout.
                </P>
                <P>
                    While rainbow trout can produce steelhead progeny, the progeny of rainbow trout found above the dam do not qualify as part of the listed DPS, even if they are displaced downstream of the barrier and even if they are descendants of legacy anadromous parentage as indicated by Boughton and Garza (2008). Rather, the DPS is comprised solely of the direct progeny of adult anadromous 
                    <E T="03">O. mykiss</E>
                     that spawn below impassable barriers. There is no information to suggest that steelhead spawning has occurred in the 9-mile reach below the Santa Felicia Dam since its construction.
                </P>
                <P>
                    We recognize that several factors may influence the lack of steelhead records within this reach. First, fluctuating flows here and downstream may limit access; consequently, potential presence is likely periodic rather than annual. Second, given the low overall abundance of Southern California steelhead, any potential presence would be infrequent even under ideal conditions. Third, while monitoring efforts have increased since the species was listed, they have historically been limited. Nevertheless, despite these variables, the total absence of confirmed records since 1955 indicates that the reach is currently unoccupied and was so at the time of designation. Consequently, in the absence of observations of adult steelhead or steelhead redds, which would establish anadromous 
                    <E T="03">O. mykiss</E>
                     presence and provide the rationale that some observed juveniles may be of anadromous parentage, or analyses to definitively determine the parentage of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39050"/>
                    observed juveniles below Santa Felicia Dam, steelhead presence in the subject 9-mile reach at the time of listing in 1997 cannot be verified, nor can presence be established in the time since listing.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Essential Features</HD>
                <P>Our review of the best available information also supports UWCD's assertion that the 9-mile reach in question does not contain the PBFs. Specifically, the best available information indicates that the subject reach provides poor quality spawning and rearing habitat, and little migration value. Numerous assessments have documented the poor quality of the habitat for spawning and rearing (NMFS 2005c, FERC 2007, NMFS 2008, NMFS 2012, CDFW 2025, NMFS 2025). Past assessments, including our 2008 and 2025 biological opinions on the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (FERC's) relicensing and improvement of the Santa Felicia Dam, have documented that the reach is characterized by altered hydrology, a coarse channel bed lacking sufficient spawning gravels, is subject to accumulations of fine sediment, and suffers from a lack of habitat complexity, instream cover, riparian vegetation, and deep pools that are necessary for successful juvenile rearing (FERC 2007, NMFS 2008, CDFW 2025, NMFS 2025, UWCD 2025a). In correspondence during the relicensing process for the Santa Felicia Dam (NMFS 2005c), NMFS directly attributed the poor habitat quality to the dam, stating the reach has been “severely degraded as a result of the construction and operation of Santa Felicia Dam” and concluded that the resulting base flow regime is “unsuitable for the rearing of juvenile steelhead.” In 2025, NMFS similarly found that the Santa Felicia Dam continues to impair habitat conditions downstream (NMFS 2025). The migration value of the reach is similarly low as it provides access to poor quality habitat and ends at an impassable barrier. While the 2012 recovery plan identifies providing passage at the dam as a high-priority action (NMFS 2012), this remains a speculative, long-term goal with significant technical and financial hurdles. Thus, contrary to the assumptions at the time of designation that passage above the dams would occur, the reach does not constitute a migratory corridor to spawning and rearing habitat. Thus, we conclude that the 9-mile reach does not contain the freshwater spawning sites, freshwater rearing sites, and freshwater migration corridors essential to the conservation of the DPS, now or at the time of designation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Unoccupied Critical Habitat</HD>
                <P>Under the ESA, unoccupied areas may be designated as critical habitat upon a determination that they are “essential for the conservation of the species” (16 U.S.C. 1532(5)(A)(ii)). Pursuant to regulations in 50 CFR 424.12(b)(2), after identifying areas occupied by the species at the time of listing, we identify, at a scale determined by the Secretary to be appropriate, specific areas outside the geographical area occupied by the species at the time of listing that the Secretary determines are essential for the conservation of the species. Such a determination must be based on the best scientific data available (50 CFR 424.12(b)(2)).</P>
                <P>
                    Given the subject reach's poor habitat value and its continued inability to provide access to higher quality habitat upstream that was never designated as critical habitat, and despite the “High” CHART rating for the larger Santa Clara-Hopper Canyon-Piru Creek watershed (CAL WATER Hydrologic Subarea #440341), the conservation value of the 9-mile reach in question is low. A final passage plan has yet to be agreed upon despite the fact that: (1) NMFS has previously determined that fish passage at the Santa Felicia Dam was, while alone insufficient, necessary to avoid jeopardy to the species (NMFS 2008); (2) the FERC license for the operation of Santa Felicia Dam requires implementation of the opinion (FERC 2008); and (3) UWCD has agreed to a preferred passage alternative (UWCD 2017). In fact, UWCD has stated that fish passage remains “far from reasonably certain or anticipated” and that a non-passage alternative (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     habitat compensation) is a potential outcome (UWCD 2025b). Therefore, nearly 30 years after ESA listing and nearly 20 years after NMFS found the Santa Felicia Dam jeopardized the existence of Southern California steelhead, the subject 9-mile reach continues to provide access only to degraded spawning and rearing habitat and an impassable dam. Thus, we find that this unoccupied reach is not essential for the conservation of the species, as it is not of a quality that is beneficial to the species.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Although we made this finding pursuant to the ESA and regulations at 50 CFR 424.12, we note that on November 21, 2025, we issued a proposed rule to revise the regulations in 50 CFR 424.12 regarding the designation of unoccupied critical habitat (90 FR 52607) (2025 proposed rule). Specifically, we proposed that, in order for an unoccupied area to be considered essential, NMFS must determine that occupied areas would be inadequate to ensure the conservation of the species and that there is a reasonable certainty that the unoccupied area contains at least one PBF and will contribute to the conservation of the species. While our analysis under the 2025 proposed regulations would necessarily differ from in the one undertaken for the proposed revision of steelhead critical habitat, we conclude that our finding would be the same (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     that the 9-mile reach is not essential for the conservation of the Southern California steelhead DPS).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Economic Considerations</HD>
                <P>The petition presents significant concerns about the economic impact of the designation. In the 2005 final rule (70 FR 52488, September 2, 2005), the economic impact for the Hydrologic Sub-area containing the subject reach was estimated to be approximately $322,647. The petition asserts that the actual economic impacts have far exceeded this estimate, totaling nearly $75 million. This figure is composed of approximately $64.6 million in lost water supply due to operational changes at Santa Felicia Dam and the cessation of diversions at the Piru Diversion, and an additional $10 million in compliance costs associated with studies, consultations, and other requirements of the 2008 biological opinion for the Santa Felicia Dam license.</P>
                <P>A formal re-analysis of these costs was not conducted as part of this finding. We are proposing to remove the subject 9-mile reach from the designated critical habitat because we have determined that this specific reach does not meet the definition of critical habitat. Consequently, an economic analysis under section 4(b)(2) of the ESA is not required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Finding</HD>
                <P>After reviewing the petition, the 2005 final rule (70 FR 52488, September 2, 2005) and its supporting documents, and the best available scientific information, we find that the requested action to remove the critical habitat designation for the subject reach is warranted.</P>
                <P>
                    The best available science indicates that the Southern California steelhead DPS is not present in the subject reach, it did not occupy the subject reach at the time of listing, the reach does not contain the essential PBFs for Southern California steelhead DPS, nor is it essential for the conservation of the DPS 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39051"/>
                    at this time. Its potential function is entirely dependent on future, large-scale actions to provide passage at Santa Felicia Dam and to modify water management operations to improve downstream habitat as articulated in the 2008 biological opinion and FERC's 2008 license. However, given it has been nearly 20 years and those actions to address the impacts of the Santa Felicia Dam have yet to be fully implemented, we conclude improvements are not reasonably certain to occur.
                </P>
                <P>This finding has no implications regarding designated critical habitat downstream of the subject reach, section 9 protections, or protections provided under the California Endangered Species Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>Based on the finding above, we are proposing to amend 50 CFR part 226 by removing from the critical habitat designation the approximately 9-mile reach composed of a segment of the Santa Clara River (from its confluence with Hopper Creek to its confluence with Piru Creek) and lower Piru Creek (from its confluence with the Santa Clara River upstream to the base of Santa Felicia Dam).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request for Comment</HD>
                <P>We request that all interested parties submit written comments on this proposal. Furthermore, we are requesting any further information concerning this proposed rule, including:</P>
                <P>
                    1. Scientific data on steelhead (anadromous 
                    <E T="03">O. mykiss</E>
                    ) presence in the subject 9-mile reach; and
                </P>
                <P>2. Scientific data on habitat conditions in the subject 9-mile reach.</P>
                <P>We request that all data and information be accompanied by supporting documentation such as maps, bibliographic references, or reprints of pertinent publications.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Next Steps</HD>
                <P>Using the best available scientific and commercial data, including comments received in response to this proposed rule, we will make a decision on whether to issue a final rule revising the critical habitat designation for the Southern California steelhead DPS.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">References Cited</HD>
                <P>
                    For a complete list of the citations for the references used in this document are available (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     or 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Classification</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 12630, Takings</HD>
                <P>
                    Under Executive Order (E.O.) 12630, Federal agencies must consider the effects of their actions on constitutionally protected private property rights and avoid unnecessary takings of property. A taking of property includes actions that result in physical invasion or occupancy of private property, and regulations imposed on private property that substantially affect its value or use. In accordance with E.O. 12630, the proposed rule does not have significant takings implications. A takings implication assessment is not required. The designation of critical habitat affects only Federal agency actions (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     those actions authorized, funded, or carried out by Federal agencies), and in this case the critical habitat designation would be removed from a 9-mile reach of critical habitat, thus reducing the regulatory effect. Therefore, the critical habitat revision does not result in a physical invasion or occupancy of private property, nor would it impose any regulatory burden on private property or its value or use.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Orders 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, and 14192, Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of E.O. 12866. This proposed rule is expected to be an E.O. 14192 deregulatory action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform</HD>
                <P>In accordance with E.O. 12988, we have determined that this proposed rule does not unduly burden the judicial system and meets the requirements of section 3(a) and (b)(2) of the E.O. We are proposing to revise designated critical habitat in accordance with the provisions of the ESA. This proposed rule would remove the designation from a 9-mile stream segment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 13132, Federalism</HD>
                <P>This E.O. requires agencies to take into account any federalism impacts of regulations under development. It includes specific consultation directives for consultation in situations where a regulation will preempt state law or impose substantial direct compliance costs on state and local governments (unless required by statute). Pursuant to E.O. 13132, we determined that this proposed rule does not have significant federalism effects and that a federalism assessment is not required. However, in keeping with Department of Commerce policies and consistent with ESA regulations at 50 CFR 424.16(c)(1)(ii), we will request information for this proposed rule from the appropriate resources agencies.</P>
                <P>Where state and local governments require approval or authorization from a Federal agency for actions that may affect critical habitat, consultation under section 7(a)(2) is required. Should this proposed critical habitat revision be finalized, such consultation may no longer be required for effects within the removed 9-mile segment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA) of 1996, whenever an agency publishes a notice of rulemaking for any proposed or final rule, it must prepare and make available for public comment a regulatory flexibility analysis that describes the effects of the rule on small entities (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     small businesses, small organizations, and small government jurisdictions). The Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration that this proposed rule, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The factual basis for this certification is as follows.
                </P>
                <P>
                    If implemented, this rule would remove a 9-mile stream segment from the critical habitat designation for Southern California steelhead. Removal of this area from the critical habitat designation would remove the existing regulatory requirement for Federal agencies to consult with NMFS on Federal actions that may affect this particular 9-mile stretch of habitat (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     consultations that might have resulted in measures to avoid or reduce adverse effects on the habitat). Removal of this regulatory requirement would eliminate any potential costs that may stem from future Federal consultations under section 7 of the ESA that are specific to this particular portion of the Southern California steelhead critical habitat.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The removal of this critical habitat will result in no direct economic impacts on small entities. The requirement to consult applies to Federal agencies. However, depending on the nature of the particular Federal action or activity, applicants for Federal permits or authorizations (which could include small entities) may be impacted by consultations, and other third parties with an interest in a Federal action that is the subject of consultation may be indirectly impacted. Thus, while the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39052"/>
                    removal of this critical habitat designation would not impose direct costs on small entities, small entities that are third parties to a Federal consultation may experience some minor positive economic impacts if this rule is finalized.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Coastal Zone Management Act</HD>
                <P>Under section 307(c)(1)(A) of the Coastal Zone Management Act (CZMA) (16 U.S.C. 1456(c)(1)(A)) and its implementing regulations, each Federal activity within or outside the coastal zone that has reasonably foreseeable effects on any land or water use or natural resource of the coastal zone shall be carried out in a manner which is consistent to the maximum extent practicable with the enforceable policies of approved State coastal management programs. We have determined, based upon our review of the relevant enforceable policies of California's coastal zone management plan, that this proposed rule revising the designation of critical habitat will have no reasonably foreseeable effects on the coastal uses or resources of California. Upon publication of this proposed rule, negative determinations prepared pursuant to 15 CFR 930.35 will be submitted to California for review.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule contains no information collection requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>In accordance with the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act, we make the following findings:</P>
                <P>(a) This proposed rule will not produce a Federal mandate. In general, a Federal mandate is a provision in legislation, statute or regulation that would impose an enforceable duty upon State, local, tribal governments, or the private sector and includes both “Federal intergovernmental mandates” and “Federal private sector mandates.” The removal of a 9-mile stream segment from designated critical habitat of Southern California steelhead does not impose an enforceable duty on non-Federal government entities or private parties.</P>
                <P>(b) This action will reduce regulatory requirements, such as reducing the need for certain ESA section 7(a)(2) consultations on Federal actions that would otherwise be required (as discussed above in “Executive Order 13132, Federalism”). As such, we do not anticipate that this proposed rule will significantly or uniquely affect small governments. As such, a Small Government Agency Plan is not required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Information Quality Act and Peer Review</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to the Information Quality Act (section 515 of Pub. L. 106-554), this information product has undergone a pre-dissemination review by NMFS. The signed Pre-dissemination Review and Documentation Form is on file with the NMFS West Coast Region Office in Portland, Oregon.</P>
                <P>
                    NMFS has determined that an environmental analysis as provided for under National Environmental Policy Act is not required for critical habitat designations made pursuant to the ESA. See 
                    <E T="03">Douglas County</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Babbitt,</E>
                     48 F.3d 1495 (9th Cir. 1995), cert. denied, 116 S.Ct. 698 (1996).
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 50 CFR Part 226</HD>
                    <P>Endangered and threatened species.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Samuel D. Rauch III,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Administrator for Regulatory Programs, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons set out in the preamble, NMFS proposes to amend 50 CFR part 226 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 226—DESIGNATED CRITICAL HABITAT</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation of part 226 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 16 U.S.C. 1533.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>2. In § 226.211, revise paragraph (j)(5)(vi) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 226.211</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>
                        Critical habitat for Seven Evolutionarily Significant Units (ESUs) of Salmon (
                        <E T="7462">Oncorhynchus</E>
                         spp.) in California.
                    </SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(j) * * *</P>
                    <P>(5) * * *</P>
                    <P>
                        (vi) 
                        <E T="03">Santa Clara, Hopper Canyon, Piru Hydrologic Sub-area 440341.</E>
                         Outlet(s) = Santa Clara River (Lat 34.3860, Long −118.8711) upstream to endpoint(s) in: Hopper Creek (34.4263, −118.8309); Santa Clara River (34.3860, −118.8372).
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>3. Amend § 226.211 in paragraph (j)(9) by revising the 5th map, “Critical Habitat for the Southern California Steelhead/Santa Clara-Calleguas Hydrologic Unit 4403”, to read as follows: (9) Maps of proposed critical habitat for the Southern California steelhead DPS follow:</AMDPAR>
                <STARS/>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="537">
                    <PRTPAGE P="39053"/>
                    <GID>EP29JN26.021</GID>
                </GPH>
                <PRTPAGE P="39054"/>
                <STARS/>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13076 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>50 CFR Part 660</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 260623-0151; RTID 0648-XF629]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Fisheries Off West Coast States; Coastal Pelagic Species Fisheries; Annual Specifications; 2026-2027 Annual Specifications and Management Measures for Pacific Sardine</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>NMFS proposes to implement annual harvest specifications and management measures for the northern subpopulation of Pacific sardine (hereafter, Pacific sardine), for the fishing year from July 1, 2026, through June 30, 2027. This proposed rule would prohibit most directed commercial fishing for Pacific sardine off the coasts of Washington, Oregon, and California. Pacific sardine harvest would be allowed for use only as live bait, in minor directed fisheries, as incidental catch in other fisheries, or as authorized under exempted fishing permits. The proposed harvest specifications for 2026-2027 include an overfishing limit of 4,645 metric tons (mt), an acceptable biological catch (ABC) of 3,613 mt, an annual catch limit (ACL) of 2,200 mt, and an annual catch target (ACT) of 2,100 mt. This proposed rule is intended to conserve, manage, and rebuild the Pacific sardine stock off the coasts of Washington, Oregon, and California.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received by July 14, 2026.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        A plain language summary of this rule is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/NOAA-NMFS-2026-1123.</E>
                         You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2026-1123, by the following method:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Electronic Submissions:</E>
                         Submit all public comments via the Federal e-Rulemaking Portal. Go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and enter NOAA-NMFS-2026-1123 in the Search box. Click on the “Comment” icon, complete the required fields, and enter or attach your comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         Comments sent by any other method or received after the end of the comment period may not be considered by NMFS. All comments received are a part of the public record and will generally be posted for public viewing on 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         without change. All personal identifying information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         name, address), confidential business information, or otherwise sensitive information submitted voluntarily by the sender will be publicly accessible. NMFS will accept anonymous comments (enter “N/A” in the required fields if you wish to remain anonymous).
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Katie Davis, West Coast Region, NMFS, (323) 372-2126, 
                        <E T="03">Katie.Davis@noaa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    NMFS manages the Pacific sardine fishery in the U.S. exclusive economic zone (EEZ) off the Pacific coast (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     off the U.S. West Coast states of California, Oregon, and Washington) in accordance with the Coastal Pelagic Species (CPS) Fishery Management Plan (FMP). The CPS FMP and its implementing regulations require NMFS to set annual reference points and management measures for the Pacific sardine fishery based on the annual specification framework and control rules in the FMP. These control rules include the harvest guideline (HG) control rule, which, in conjunction with the overfishing limit (OFL) and ABC control rules in the FMP, are used to set required reference points, in accordance with the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (MSA) (16 U.S.C. 1801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). Additionally, the Pacific sardine fishery is managed in accordance with the Pacific sardine rebuilding plan implemented by Amendment 23 to the CPS FMP (90 FR 23461, June 3, 2025).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The NMFS Southwest Fisheries Science Center (SWFSC) typically conducts annual stock assessments for Pacific sardine, alternating between benchmark assessments in one year and update assessments the following 2 years. During public meetings each year, the Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) and its advisory bodies, including the CPS Management Team, CPS Advisory Subpanel, and Scientific and Statistical Committee (SSC), review the estimated biomass in these stock assessments and the status of the fishery, and recommend applicable reference points, catch limits, and management measures. Following Council review and public comment, the Council recommends these harvest specifications and management measures and any in-season accountability measures to NMFS, who then reviews the Council's recommendations to ensure they are consistent with the CPS FMP and all applicable laws. Following that review, NMFS publishes annual specifications in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     to establish annual reference points (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     the OFL, ABC, and ACL) and management measures for each Pacific sardine fishing year.
                </P>
                <P>In 2019, the estimated stock biomass of Pacific sardine dropped below its 50,000-mt minimum stock size threshold (MSST), and NMFS declared the stock overfished. A rebuilding plan for Pacific sardine was finalized as Amendment 18 to the CPS FMP on June 24, 2021 (86 FR 33142), which was challenged in the U.S. District Court for the Northern District of California (Court). In 2024, the Court partially vacated Amendment 18 and ordered NMFS to implement a revised Pacific sardine rebuilding plan by June 1, 2025. NMFS approved a revised Pacific sardine rebuilding plan as Amendment 23 to the CPS FMP on May 29, 2025 (90 FR 23461, June 3, 2025). The revised rebuilding plan sets ACLs based on tiered biomass levels. When the estimated biomass is 50,000 mt or less, the ACL is the lesser of the calculated ABC or 2,200 mt. When the biomass is greater than 50,000 mt, the ACL is the lesser of the calculated ABC or 5 percent of the biomass.</P>
                <P>This rule proposes the Council's recommended catch limits for the July 1, 2026-June 30, 2027 fishing year consistent with the Pacific sardine rebuilding plan, management measures to ensure that harvest does not exceed those limits, an OFL, and an ABC that takes into consideration uncertainty surrounding the OFL.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Recommended Catch Limits</HD>
                <P>
                    There was no new stock assessment for 2025 because the Council had previously recommended postponing the assessment for a year. Instead, the Council's SSC utilized the 2025 update stock assessment, which the Council and its advisory bodies reviewed at its April 2025 meeting, and agreed that assessment satisfied the Terms of Reference for an update assessment and represents the best scientific information available for management of Pacific sardine. At the April 2026 meeting, the SSC reviewed the rollover biomass and OFL from the 2025 update stock assessment for the 2026-2027 fishing year and again determined it was the best scientific information available for management. Given the lack of new information and the short generation 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39055"/>
                    time of Pacific sardine, the SSC also determined the ABC should be calculated by coupling the OFL value with a Category 3 sigma value of 2.0. Based on the 2025 assessment, the associated estimated age 1+ biomass of 30,158 mt, and the control rule formulas in the FMP, NMFS is proposing, as the Council recommended: (1) an OFL of 4,645 mt; (2) an ABC of 3,613 mt (reduced from 3,957 mt in the 2025-2026 fishing year); and (3) an ACL of 2,200 mt. The proposed OFL and ABC were based on the control rules in the FMP and on recommendations from the Council's SSC and their determination of best scientific information available for calculating the OFL and recommended precautionary buffer for the ABC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Since 2014, the SSC has recommended the use of a temperature-recruitment relationship based on a running 3-year average of the California Cooperative Oceanic Fisheries Investigations (CalCOFI) temperature index to calculate the E
                    <E T="52">MSY</E>
                     for Pacific sardine. E
                    <E T="52">MSY</E>
                     is a parameter of the OFL and ABC harvest control rules (see table 1). During recent annual specification discussions, the SSC has recommended that the analysis and assumptions surrounding a CalCOFI-based E
                    <E T="52">MSY</E>
                     be revisited. To help inform the SSC's recommendation for the 2025 reference points, NMFS conducted a correlation analysis of the CalCOFI-based temperature with sardine productivity (recruits-per-spawner) for the years 1983-2023, which was an update from the last analysis in 2013 that examined data from 1984 to 2008. In February 2025, NMFS presented the analysis to the SSC's CPS Subcommittee, which reported that “the analysis demonstrates there is still valid statistical evidence for a relationship between CalCOFI [sea surface temperature] and recruits-per-spawner.” At the April 2025 Council meeting, the full SSC reviewed the analysis and reported that it “provides the first of many steps toward potentially updating E
                    <E T="52">MSY</E>
                     for Pacific sardine but does not compel a change at this time.” The SSC recommended the 2025-2026 OFL and ABC be calculated using the “status quo approach to E
                    <E T="52">MSY</E>
                    ,” which uses the CalCOFI temperature index. The SSC noted in April 2026 that no new temperature information was available to update E
                    <E T="52">MSY</E>
                    , and recommended the OFL calculated using the 2025-2026 E
                    <E T="52">MSY</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>According to the CPS FMP, the catch limit for the primary directed fishery is determined using the FMP-specified HG formula. This Pacific sardine HG control rule, the primary mechanism for setting the primary directed fishery catch limit, includes a CUTOFF parameter, the lowest level of estimated biomass at which directed harvest is allowed (a biomass level of 150,000 mt). This amount is subtracted from the annual biomass estimate before calculating the applicable HG for the fishing year. Because the biomass estimate used this year (30,158 mt) is below that value, the formula results in an HG of zero, and no Pacific sardine are available for the primary directed fishery during the 2026-2027 fishing season.</P>
                <P>
                    Pacific sardine catch during the 2026-2027 fishing season is therefore prohibited unless it is harvested as part of the live bait, tribal,
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or minor directed fisheries, as incidental catch in other fisheries, or as part of exempted fishing permit (EFP) activities. For these small types of harvests, NMFS is proposing, as the Council recommended, an ACT of 2,100 mt for the 2026-2027 fishing year. The recommended reference point calculations (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     OFL, ABC, and HG as established under Amendment 13 and ACL consistent with Amendment 23 to the CPS FMP) are presented below in table 1.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         For the 2026-2027 fishing year, the Quinault Indian Nation has not requested a tribal set-aside, and therefore none is proposed.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s150,15">
                    <TTITLE>
                        Table 1—Overfishing Limit (OFL), Acceptable Biological Catch (ABC), Harvest Guideline (HG), and Annual Catch Limit (ACL) Calculations 
                        <SU>1</SU>
                    </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Harvest specification and formula parameters</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Value</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">BIOMASS (ages 1+, mt)</ENT>
                        <ENT>30,158</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            BUFFER 
                            <E T="52">Pstar</E>
                             (Category 3)
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>0.7778</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Calculated 
                            <E T="03">E</E>
                            <E T="52">MSY</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1771</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">DISTRIBUTION (U.S.)</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.87</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="25">2024-2025 Pacific sardine annual specifications</ENT>
                        <ENT>Metric tons</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            OFL = BIOMASS * 
                            <E T="03">E</E>
                            <E T="52">MSY</E>
                             * DISTRIBUTION
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>4,645</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            ABC = BIOMASS * BUFFER
                            <E T="52">0.45</E>
                             * 
                            <E T="03">E</E>
                            <E T="52">MSY</E>
                             * DISTRIBUTION
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>3,613</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">HG</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">ACL</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,200</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">ACT</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         BUFFER is the percentage reduction of the OFL as determined by the SSC's evaluation of scientific uncertainty (sigma) and the Council's risk policy (P*).
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The following are the additional proposed management measures and in-season accountability measures for the 2026-2027 Pacific sardine fishing year:</P>
                <P>
                    (1) An incidental per-landing limit of 20 percent (by weight) of Pacific sardine applies to other CPS directed fisheries (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Pacific mackerel);
                </P>
                <P>
                    (2) If the ACT of 2,100 mt is attained, then a per-trip limit of 1 mt of Pacific sardine would apply to all CPS fisheries (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     (1) would no longer apply); and
                </P>
                <P>(3) An incidental per-landing allowance of 2 mt of Pacific sardine would apply to non-CPS fisheries until the ACL is reached.</P>
                <P>In addition to the management measures and in-season accountability measures listed in the previous paragraphs, Pacific sardine catch in the minor directed fishery remains limited to 1 mt per trip per day, and 1 trip per day by any vessel, per regulations at 50 CFR 660.511(d)(2).</P>
                <P>
                    At the April 2026 meeting, the Council also recommended that NMFS approve one EFP proposal requesting an exemption from the prohibition to directly harvest sardine during their discussion of sardine management measures. The EFP proposal included a total amount of up to 520 mt and will 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39056"/>
                    be reviewed and potentially approved by NMFS through a separate process.
                </P>
                <P>All sources of catch including any fishing occurring as part of an EFP, the live bait fishery, and other minimal sources of harvest, such as incidental catch in CPS and non-CPS fisheries and minor directed fishing, would be accounted for against the ACT and ACL.</P>
                <P>
                    The NMFS West Coast Regional Administrator would publish a notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     to announce when catch reaches the incidental limits, as well as any changes to allowable incidental catch percentages or trip limits. Additionally, to ensure that the regulated community is informed of any closure, NMFS would make announcements through other means available, including emails to fishermen, processors, and state fishery management agencies.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Classification</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to section 304(b)(1)(A) of the MSA, the NMFS Assistant Administrator has determined that this proposed rule is consistent with the CPS FMP, other provisions of the MSA, and other applicable law, subject to further consideration after public comment.</P>
                <P>NMFS finds that a 15-day comment period for this action provides a reasonable opportunity for public participation in this action pursuant to Administrative Procedure Act section 553(c) (5 U.S.C. 553(c)), while also ensuring that the final specifications are in place as close to the start of the Pacific sardine fishing year on July 1, 2026, as possible. NMFS received the recommendations from the Council that form the basis for this rule following the Council's April 2026 meeting. The Council provided an opportunity for public comment at that meeting, as it does every year before adopting the recommended harvest specifications and management measures for the proceeding fishing year. The subject of this proposed rule—the establishment of the reference points—is considered a routine action, because they are calculated annually based on the framework control rules in the FMP. A prolonged comment period and subsequent potential delay in implementation past the start of the 2026 fishing year would be contrary to the public interest, as it could create confusion in the Pacific sardine industry around current specifications and management measures. Such a delay would effectively open the fishery without the restrictions necessary to manage harvest for a stock that is rebuilding.</P>
                <P>This proposed rule is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.</P>
                <P>This proposed rule is not an Executive Order 14192 regulatory action because it is a routine fishing action.</P>
                <P>The Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration that this proposed rule, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, for the reasons provided below.</P>
                <P>For Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) purposes only, NMFS has established a small business size standard for businesses, including their affiliates, whose primary industry is commercial fishing (see 50 CFR 200.2). A business primarily engaged in commercial fishing (North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) code 11411) is classified as a small business if it is independently owned and operated, is not dominant in its field of operation (including its affiliates) and has combined annual receipts not in excess of $11 million for all its affiliated operations worldwide.</P>
                <P>
                    The purpose of this proposed rule is to conserve and rebuild the Pacific sardine stock by preventing overfishing, while still allowing limited harvest opportunity among differing fishery sectors. This will be accomplished by implementing the 2026-2027 annual specifications for Pacific sardine in the U.S. EEZ off the Pacific coast. The small entities that would be affected by the proposed action are the vessels that would be expected to participate in the primary directed Pacific sardine fishery as part of the Pacific coast CPS small purse seine fleet. In 2014 (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the last year that a directed fishery for Pacific sardine was allowed) there were approximately 81 vessels permitted to operate in the directed sardine fishery component of the CPS fishery off the U.S. West Coast, with that total comprising 58 vessels in the Federal CPS limited entry fishery off California (south of 39° N latitude) and a combined 23 vessels in Oregon and Washington's state Pacific sardine fisheries. Based on available data, the average annual Pacific coast revenue per vessel for all west coast vessels was well below the threshold level of $11 million as of 2026. Therefore, all of these vessels are considered small businesses under the RFA. Because each affected vessel is a small business, this proposed rule is considered to equally affect all of these small entities in the same manner. Therefore, this rule would not create disproportionate costs between small and large vessels/businesses.
                </P>
                <P>The CPS FMP and its implementing regulations require NMFS to annually set an OFL, ABC, ACL, and HG or annual catch target for the Pacific sardine fishery based on the specified harvest control rules in the FMP applied to the current stock biomass estimate for that year. The derived annual HG is the level typically used to manage the principal commercial sardine fishery and is the harvest level NMFS typically uses for profitability analysis each year. As stated above, the CPS FMP dictates that when the estimated biomass drops below a certain level (150,000 mt), the HG is zero. Because there is again no directed fishing for the 2026-2027 fishing year, as has been the case since the 2015-2016 fishing year, this proposed rule would not change the potential profitability compared to the previous fishing year or years following the closure of the directed fishery.</P>
                <P>This proposed action will implement an ACL that will account for the needs of the very small number of vessels participating in the live bait and minor directed fisheries. The ACL is dictated by the rebuilding plan, and is the limit on the total annual catch on a stock that serves as the basis for invoking the proposed management measures and accountability measures that would ensure that catch does not reach or exceed the ABC. Although the ABC is slightly lower than the previous year, the ACL remains the same and will not change the potential profitability of these small entities. Therefore, the proposed action, if adopted, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. As a result, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis is not required, and none has been prepared.</P>
                <P>This action does not contain a collection-of-information requirement for purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act. There are no relevant Federal rules that may duplicate, overlap, or conflict with the proposed action.</P>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>
                        16 U.S.C. 1801 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Samuel D. Rauch III,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Administrator for Regulatory Programs, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13054 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
    </PRORULES>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>123</NO>
    <DATE>Monday, June 29, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Notices</UNITNAME>
    <NOTICES>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="39057"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <P>The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding: whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques and other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>
                    Comments regarding this information collection received by July 29, 2026 will be considered. Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                     Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                </P>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Forest Service</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Grazing Permit Administration Forms.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0596-0003.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Summary of Collection:</E>
                     Annually, livestock grazing occurs on approximately 94 million acres of National Forest Service (NFS) lands. This grazing is subject to authorization and administrative oversight by the Forest Service (FS). The information is required for the issuance and administration of grazing permits, including fee collections, on NFS land as authorized by the Federal Land Policy and Management Act 1976, as amended, and subsequent Secretary of Agriculture Regulation 5 U.S.C. 301, 36 CFR 222, subparts A and C. The bills for collection of grazing fees are based on the number of domestic livestock grazed on national forest lands and are a direct result of issuance of the grazing permit. Information must be collected on an individual basis and is collected through the permit issuance and administration process. FS will collect information using several forms.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Need and Use of the Information:</E>
                     FS will use the information collected on the forms to acquire data from applicants applying for new grazing permits or making changes to their current grazing permit(s). FS also uses the information collected in administering the grazing use program on NFS land. If information were not collected it would be impossible for the agency to administer a grazing use program in accordance with the statutes and regulations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description of Respondents:</E>
                     Farms; Business or other for-profit; Individuals or households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     1,275.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Responses:</E>
                     Reporting: Annually; Other (as needed basis).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     289.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Forest Service</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Forest Industries Data Collection System.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0596-0010.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Summary of Collection:</E>
                     The Forest and Range Renewable Resources Planning Act of 1974 and the Forest and Rangeland Renewable Resources Research Act of 1978 require the Forest Service to evaluate trends in the use of roundwood (logs in whole or chipped form), to forecast anticipated levels of roundwood use and availability, and to analyze changes in the harvest of these resources from the United States' forests. This data collection effort has been conducted since the mid-1970s, with various adjustments through time to accommodate new questions, sampling approaches, and/or data collection needs. Data collection is performed by Forest Service personnel and cooperators from State natural resource agencies and universities. Currently, the data collection gathers information from two groups: Primary wood industry and logging operations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Need and Use of the Information:</E>
                     This information collection will generate scientifically based, statistically reliable, up-to-date information about utilization of timber resources of the United States. Our testing efforts will allow us to improve the quality of data obtained. The results of these efforts contribute to the availability of reliable information on timber resource use, facilitating more complete and accurate assessments of forest resources at state, regional, and national levels.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description of Respondents:</E>
                     Business or other for-profit; Not-for-profit institutions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     6,448.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Responses:</E>
                     Reporting: On occasion; Annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     2,269.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Levi S. Harrell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Departmental Information Collection Clearance Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13083 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3411-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of the Chief Financial Officer</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Renewal of Optional Form OF-2211 Build America Buy America Waiver Request Data Collection</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of the Chief Financial Officer, USDA.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Renewal of existing information collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) invites public comment on the renewal of the Office of Management and Budget 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39058"/>
                        (OMB) approval for an existing information collection for Build America, Buy America (BABA) Waiver Data Collection. This information collection is entitled “Optional Form OF-2211 BUILD AMERICA BUY AMERICA WAIVER REQUEST DATA COLLECTION.”
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this notice must be received by August 28, 2026 to be assured of consideration.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments may be submitted by either of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed is this notice, please use 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Comments submitted in response to this notice should be submitted electronically through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         This website provides the ability to type short comments directly into the comment field on this web page or attach a file for lengthier comments. Follow the on-line instructions at that site for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Postal Mail/Commercial Delivery:</E>
                         Written requests for information or comments submitted by postal mail or delivery should be addressed to Tyson P. Whitney, Director, Transparency and Accountability Reporting Division, Office of the Chief Financial Officer, Room 3027-S, Mail Stop 9011, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20250; 
                        <E T="03">Tyson.whitney@usda.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Tyson P. Whitney, Director, Transparency and Accountability Reporting Division, Office of the Chief Financial Officer, Room 3021-A, Mail Stop 9011, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20250; 202-251-1154, 
                        <E T="03">Tyson.whitney@usda.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Build America, Buy America (BABA) Waiver Request Data Collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     0505-0028.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Expiration Date of Approval:</E>
                     Three years from approval date.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Extension.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     State, local and Indian tribal governments, Institutions of Higher Education (IHE), and nonprofit organizations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     470.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     4,700.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     In accordance with section 70914 of the Build America, Buy America Act (Pub. L. 117-58 §§ 70901—70952) (BABAA), recipients and subrecipients funded under USDA's Federal financial assistance programs that allow funds to be used for infrastructure projects, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     construction and broadband infrastructure, may not use their funds for these infrastructure projects unless they comply with the following BABAA sourcing requirements: (1) All iron and steel used in the project are produced in the United States; (2) All manufactured products used in the project are produced in the United States; and (3) All construction materials are manufactured in the United States.
                </P>
                <P>
                    USDA may, in accordance with sections 70914(b) and (d), 70921(b), and 70935 of BABAA, and the OMB Memorandum M-22-11, 
                    <E T="03">Initial Implementation Guidance on Application of Buy America Preference in Federal Financial Assistance Programs for Infrastructure,</E>
                     approve waivers to BABAA domestic sourcing requirements submitted by recipients and subrecipients under a Federal financial assistance program when an award may be used for an infrastructure project, regardless of whether infrastructure is the primary purpose of the award. USDA may approve, subject to notice comment requirements, and the OMB Made in America Office (MIAO) review, the types of waivers listed below when the following conditions are met: (1) Public Interest Waiver—Applying the BABAA domestic content procurement preference would be inconsistent with the public interest, (2) Nonavailability Waiver—The types of iron, steel, manufactured products, or construction materials are not produced in the United States in sufficient reasonably available quantities or of a satisfactory quality, and (3) Unreasonable Cost Waiver—The inclusion of iron, steel, manufactured products, or construction materials produced in the United States will increase the cost of the overall project by more than 25 percent.
                </P>
                <P>This is an existing information collection, and it includes the Build America, Buy America (BABA) Waiver Request Data Collection.</P>
                <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. chapter 35) and Office of Management and Budget (OMB) regulations at 5 CFR part 1320, this notice provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on the existing information collection. This will help USDA assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden.</P>
                <P>USDA is soliciting comments on the existing information collection request (ICR) that is described below. USDA is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) whether the proposed collection of information continues to be necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of technology. All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Additional Information:</E>
                     This information collection is essential to USDA's ability to effectively approve waiver requests for USDA recipients and subrecipients as required in accordance with section 70914 of the Build America, Buy America Act (Pub. L. 117-58 §§ 70901—70952) (BABAA) and OMB Memorandum M-22-11, Initial Implementation Guidance on Application of Buy America Preference in Federal Financial Assistance Programs for Infrastructure. This information collection will keep projects moving and prevent immediate delays to critically important infrastructure projects.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Tyson P. Whitney,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Transparency and Accountability Reporting Division, Office of the Chief Financial Officer, U.S. Department of Agriculture.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13061 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-KS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. APHIS-2026-0530]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Request for Revision to and Extension of Approval of an Information Collection; Importation of Swine Hides, Bird Trophies, and Deer Hides</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Revision to and extension of approval of an information collection; comment request.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <PRTPAGE P="39059"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice announces the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service's intention to request an extension of approval of an information collection associated with the importation of swine hides, bird trophies, and deer hides.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>We will consider all comments that we receive on or before August 28, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments by either of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Enter APHIS-2026-0530 in the Search field. Select the Documents tab, then select the Comment button in the list of documents.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Postal Mail/Commercial Delivery:</E>
                         Send your comment to Docket No. APHIS-2026-0530, Regulatory Analysis and Development, PPD, APHIS, 5601 Sunnyside Ave., #AP760, Beltsville, MD 20705.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         or in our reading room, which is located in Room 1620 of the USDA South Building, 14th Street and Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC. Normal reading room hours are 8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, except holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 799-7039 before coming.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For information on the regulations for the importation of swine hides, bird trophies, and deer hides, contact Dr. Pamela Simpson, Senior Staff Veterinarian, Animal Products Import, Strategy and Policy, VS, APHIS, 5601 Sunnyside Ave., Beltsville, MD 20705; (301) 851-3300. For additional information on the information collection reporting process, contact Ms. Sheniqua Harris, APHIS' Paperwork Reduction Act Coordinator, at (301) 851-2528 or email 
                        <E T="03">APHIS.PRA@usda.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Importation of Swine Hides, Bird Trophies, and Deer Hides.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     0579-0307.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Revision to and extension of approval of an information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Under the Animal Health Protection Act (7 U.S.C. 8301 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) of the United States Department of Agriculture is authorized, among other things, to prohibit or restrict the importation and interstate movement of animals and animal products to prevent the introduction into and dissemination within the United States of livestock diseases and pests. To carry out this mission, APHIS regulates the importation of animals and animal products into the United States. The regulations are contained in 9 CFR parts 91 through 99.
                </P>
                <P>The regulations in 9 CFR parts 94 and 95 (referred to below as the regulations) prohibit or restrict the importation of specified animal products into the United States to prevent the introduction into the U.S. livestock population of certain contagious animal diseases. Sections 95.16 and 95.17 of the regulations contain, among other things, specific processing and certification requirements for untanned hides and skins and bird trophies.</P>
                <P>The regulations require that shipments of hides be accompanied by certificates showing their origin and certifying that the hides are from areas free of certain animal diseases. Shipments of ruminant hides from Mexico must be accompanied by written statements indicating that the hides were frozen for 24 hours and treated for ticks. Shipments of bird trophies must be accompanied by certificates of origin certifying that the trophies are from regions free of exotic Newcastle disease and highly pathogenic avian influenza. These activities help ensure that the products do not harbor disease or ticks.</P>
                <P>We are asking the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to approve our use of these information collection activities for 3 years. APHIS has amended this information collection by decreasing the number of Respondents, Responses and Total Burden Hours reported. APHIS has also moved the following forms to information collection 0579-0015 “Restricted, Prohibited, and Controlled Importation of Animal and Poultry Products and Byproducts into the United States,” so that all byproduct collection activities are included in one information collection package:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">VS Form 16-28:</E>
                     Approved Warehouse Request and Agreement to Handle Restricted Animal Byproducts (Hunting Trophies and Museum Specimens).
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">VS Form 16-29:</E>
                     Agreement for Handling Restricted Imports of Animal Byproducts and Controlled Materials.
                </P>
                <P>The purpose of this notice is to solicit comments from the public (as well as affected agencies) concerning our information collection. These comments will help us:</P>
                <P>(1) Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>(2) Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    (4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through use, as appropriate, of automated, electronic, mechanical, and other collection technologies; 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimate of burden:</E>
                     Public reporting burden for this collection of information is estimated to average approximately 0.250 hours per response.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     National government officials, owners of untanned ruminant and swine hides, and importers of untanned ruminant and swine hides.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated number of respondents:</E>
                     158.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated number of responses per respondent:</E>
                     7.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated annual number of responses:</E>
                     1,059.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated total annual burden on respondents:</E>
                     265 hours.
                </P>
                <P>All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will also become a matter of public record.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Done in Washington, DC, this 1st day of June 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Kelly Moore,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrator, Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13043 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-34-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Food and Nutrition Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Food and Nutrition Administration (FNA), USDA.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of a modified system of records.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) is proposing to introduce an update to the Privacy Act system of records, USDA/FNS-5, “Information on Persons Disqualified from the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program,” which is retitled to “USDA/FNA-5, Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program—Information on Persons Disqualified from the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program and on Households in the Quality Control Universe.” This system is owned, administered, and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39060"/>
                        secured by the Food and Nutrition Administration (FNA). The primary purpose of this system is to assist in the administration and enforcement of the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP). The purpose of this modification is to clarify and expand what systems and records this system of records (SOR) covers and includes program and technical updates to the system. This includes modifying SNAP Quality Control (QC) records that had been contained in FNS-7 SORN, which will now be covered under FNA-5. All records formerly covered under USDA/FNS-7 will be maintained within SNAP-QCS and used in conjunction with the Electronic Disqualified Recipient System (eDRS) for program integrity and statutory QC requirements. Consolidation ensures continued Privacy Act coverage and eliminates duplicative SORNs. Proposed technical changes include adding another location, maintenance, and storage of records to include electronic records.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4) and (11), this system of records notice will become effective upon publication in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        , except for the routine uses, which will become effective 30 days after publication in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        , unless USDA determines they must be changed as a result of public comment. USDA will publish any changes to the system of records notice resulting from public comment.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments by one of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>○ Send SNAP Quality Control System (SNAP-QCS) comments to John McCleskey, Branch Chief, QC Branch, Program Administration and Nutrition Division Food and Nutrition Administration, 1320 Braddock Place, 5th Floor, Alexandria, Virginia 22314.</P>
                    <P>○ Send Electronic Disqualified Recipient System (eDRS) comments to Maribelle Balbes, Branch Chief, State Administration Branch, Program Administration and Nutrition Division, Food and Nutrition Administration, 1320 Braddock Place, 5th Floor; Alexandria, Virginia 22314.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions received must include the agency name and docket number for this rulemaking. All comments received will be posted without charge to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal information provided.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         For access to the docket to read background documents or comments received, go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For general questions, please contact: FNA Privacy Officer, Information Management Branch, Food and Nutrition Administration, USDA, 1320 Braddock Place, Alexandria, Virginia 22314; or via email at 
                        <E T="03">SM.fn.Privacy-FNA@usda.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, FNA proposes to revise USDA/FNS-5, Information on Persons Disqualified from the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, to expand the systems and records covered to include SNAP QC records and include program and technical updates. The SORN explains how the records within the system will be used and with whom they will be shared. This SOR is being revised to include a change to the routine uses that apply to both SNAP-QCS and eDRS records. USDA/FNS-5 currently covers personal information about individuals disqualified from participating in SNAP collected in eDRS. This SOR is being modified to include households sampled for SNAP QCS, as required in the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 is 7 U.S.C. 2011-2031, as amended through Public Law 119-21, Enacted July 4, 2025.</P>
                <P>
                    Elsewhere in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , USDA is rescinding FNS-7 Quality Control Subsample of Nonassistance Households Participating in the Food Stamp Program. Consolidating USDA/FNS-7 into USDA/FNA-5 is necessary because USDA/FNS-7 is outdated and no longer reflects current SNAP Quality Control operations or systems. Records previously covered under USDA/FNS-7 will be maintained in SNAP-QCS and integrated with eDRS to support program integrity and compliance with statutory QC requirements. This action maintains Privacy Act coverage and eliminates redundant SORNs. All Privacy Act obligations, including notice, routine uses, and safeguards remain satisfied. Data includes the complete set of QC cases sampled by all states and contains the active QC sample, which is comprised of households that are participating in SNAP, and the negative QC sample, which is comprised of households that have been denied, suspended, or terminated from SNAP.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The information collected from these households is stored in SNAP-QCS. Proposed technical changes for both SNAP-QCS and eDRS will include adding additional details about location, maintenance, and storage of records to include electronic records.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Per 7 CFR 273.1(a), households are defined as an individual or groups of individuals who customarily purchase food and prepare meals for home consumption separate and apart from others; or who live together and customarily purchase food and prepare meals together for home consumption.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In addition, FNA proposes to modify the SOR title of USDA/FNS-5 from, “Information on Persons Disqualified from the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program,” to “USDA/FNA-5, Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program—Information on Persons Disqualified and Households in the Quality Control Universe.”</P>
                <P>No Privacy Act exemptions are claimed for this SOR.</P>
                <PRIACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">SYSTEM NAME AND NUMBER:</HD>
                    <P>USDA/FNA-5, Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program—Information on Persons Disqualified from the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program and on Households in the Quality Control Universe.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SECURITY CLASSIFICATION:</HD>
                    <P>Unclassified.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM LOCATION:</HD>
                    <P>This system of records is under the control of the Associate Administrator, Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, Food and Nutrition Administration, United States Department of Agriculture, 1320 Braddock Pl., Alexandria, Virginia 22314. The data will be maintained at the Digital Infrastructure Service Center, Kansas City, Missouri (DISC-KC).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM MANAGER(S):</HD>
                    <P>Associate Administrator, Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program Food and Nutrition Administration; 1320 Braddock Place, 5th Floor; Alexandria, Virginia 22314.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">AUTHORITY FOR MAINTENANCE OF THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>Food and Nutrition Act (FNA) Sections 6(b), 15(b), 15(c), and 16(c) (7 U.S.C. 2011-2031), and implementing regulations at 7 CFR parts 273 and 275 provide explicit authority to collect, maintain, and use both disqualification and QC records. These authorities mandate QC sampling, error rate measurement, State liability determinations, and disqualification tracking for intentional program violations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">PURPOSE(S) OF THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The purpose of this system is to support the effective administration, oversight, and integrity of the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) by maintaining records on individuals who have been disqualified due to intentional program 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39061"/>
                        violations (IPVs), and by enabling quality control (QC) and program integrity functions.
                    </P>
                    <P>Specifically, the system is used to:</P>
                    <P>Ensure Program Integrity and Eligibility Compliance by verifying that individuals who have been disqualified from SNAP benefits do not receive benefits during their period of ineligibility, in accordance with 7 CFR part 273.</P>
                    <P>Support SNAP Quality Control (QCS) Activities by providing data necessary to measure payment accuracy, validate eligibility determinations, and support Federal and State quality control reviews. The system enables USDA and State agencies to identify improper payments, assess root causes of errors, and implement corrective actions to improve program performance.</P>
                    <P>Prevent Improper Payments and Duplicate Participation to facilitate cross-checks within and across State SNAP agencies to prevent individuals from receiving benefits in multiple jurisdictions or after disqualification.</P>
                    <P>Enable Oversight, Reporting, and Performance Management by supporting USDA's ability to conduct oversight, produce required reports, and evaluate program effectiveness, including error rate measurement and compliance with Federal standards.</P>
                    <P>Support Investigations and Enforcement Actions by providing records necessary for administrative or judicial actions related to program violations, including the establishment and enforcement of disqualification penalties.</P>
                    <P>Enhance Data-Driven Decision Making by enabling analysis of trends in program violations and disqualifications to strengthen internal controls, inform policy decisions, and improve program integrity strategies.</P>
                    <P>This system helps USDA and State SNAP agencies make sure the program is working correctly and fairly. It tracks people who are not allowed to receive SNAP benefits because they broke program rules. It also supports quality control reviews, which are regular checks to make sure; benefits are issued correctly, eligibility decisions are accurate, errors or improper payments are identified and fixed.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CATEGORIES OF INDIVIDUALS COVERED BY THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>This system of records covers the following categories of individuals:</P>
                    <P>1. Individuals who have been disqualified from participation in the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) as a result of an intentional program violation, as determined in accordance with applicable Federal statutes and regulations.</P>
                    <P>2. Individuals who are members of households selected for SNAP Quality Control (QC) reviews, including households that are:</P>
                    <P>—Participating in SNAP; and</P>
                    <P>—Denied, suspended, or terminated from SNAP participation.</P>
                    <P>3. Individuals contacted for Quality Control verification purposes, including household members and non-household members, who provide information to verify eligibility, benefits, or other case-related information for sampled SNAP households.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CATEGORIES OF RECORDS IN THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>This system of records contains the following categories of records.</P>
                    <P>1. Disqualification Records (Electronic Disqualified Recipient System (eDRS)): Records relating to individuals disqualified from participation in the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP), including Full name; Social Security number (SSN); Date of birth; Sex; State and locality imposing the disqualification; Date(s) and length(s) of disqualification; Case identifiers and related program enforcement information. These records are retrieved by name, SSN, and/or State case identification number.</P>
                    <P>2. SNAP Quality Control (QC) Household Records (SNAP Quality Control System (SNAP QCS)): Records relating to households selected for SNAP Quality Control reviews, including households participating in SNAP and households denied, suspended, or terminated from the program. These records may include: Full name(s) of household member(s); SSN(s); Date(s) of birth; Citizenship or immigration status, as applicable; State and local agency identifiers; Household address and contact information; SNAP case numbers and QC review identifiers; Certification periods, benefit amounts, and reporting requirements. These records are retrieved by name, SSN, SNAP case number, QC review number, and/or State case identification number.</P>
                    <P>
                        3. Eligibility, Financial, and Verification Information: Records used to determine eligibility and benefit accuracy for SNAP and Quality Control purposes, including: full name; SSN; household case number; Income and resource information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         earnings, bank account information, vehicles, and property); Allowable deductions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         medical expenses, dependent care, child support, shelter, rent, and utilities); Supporting documentation and verification materials obtained during Quality Control reviews. These records are retrieved by individual name, SSN, household case number, and related QC identifiers.
                    </P>
                    <P>4. Quality Control Verification Contact Records: Records relating to individuals contacted to verify information for sampled SNAP households, including: Full name; Relationship to the household; Nature of verification provided; Contact information (address, telephone number, and/or email address). These records are retrieved by the name of the individual contacted and/or the associated SNAP household or QC case identifier.</P>
                    <P>5. Administrative, Audit, and Oversight Records: Records generated in connection with SNAP program oversight, Quality Control reviews, audits, investigations, error rate determinations, corrective actions, and State agency liability assessments. These records are retrieved by name, SSN, case number, QC identifier, and/or other unique administrative identifiers associated with the individual or household.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">RECORD SOURCE CATEGORIES:</HD>
                    <P>Records in this system of records are obtained from the following sources:</P>
                    <P>SNAP-administering State agencies, which submit information relating to individuals disqualified from SNAP participation due to intentional program violations; and households selected for SNAP Quality Control (QC) reviews, including participating households and households denied, suspended, or terminated from SNAP.</P>
                    <P>Individuals covered by the system, including SNAP applicants, recipients, disqualified individuals, and members of households selected for QC reviews, who provide information directly or indirectly in connection with eligibility determinations, QC reviews, or enforcement actions.</P>
                    <P>Individuals and entities contacted for verification purposes, including household members and non-household sources (such as employers, landlords, financial institutions, or other third parties), who provide information to verify eligibility, benefit accuracy, or case circumstances for sampled SNAP households.</P>
                    <P>USDA/FNA program operations and oversight activities, including records generated by FNA or its authorized agents in connection with Quality Control reviews, audits, investigations, corrective actions, and State agency liability determinations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">ROUTINE USES OF RECORDS MAINTAINED IN THE SYSTEM, INCLUDING CATEGORIES OF USERS AND PURPOSES OF SUCH USES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Disclosure of records in this system may be made for the permitted routine 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39062"/>
                        uses outlined below as long as such uses are also authorized by Sections 6(b), 11(e)(8), 15(b), 15(c), and 16(c) of the FNA (7 U.S.C. 2011-2031), 7 CFR 272.1(c), 7 CFR 273.2(f)(11), 7 CFR 273.16, and 7 CFR 275.2.
                    </P>
                    <P>The following routine uses are modified or added to this SOR:</P>
                    <P>A. To the Department of Justice when: (a) USDA/FNA or any component thereof; or (b) any employee of USDA/FNA in his or her official capacity, or any employee of the agency in his or her individual capacity where the Department of Justice has agreed to represent the employee; or (c) the United States Government, is a party to litigation or has an interest in such litigation, and USDA/FNA determines that the records are both relevant and necessary to the litigation and the use of such records by the Department of Justice is deemed by USDA/FNA to be for a purpose that is compatible with the purpose for which USDA/FNA collected the records.</P>
                    <P>B. In an appropriate proceeding before a court, grand jury, or administrative or adjudicative body or official, when the USDA/FNA or other Agency representing the USDA/FNA, determines that the records are both relevant and necessary to the proceeding; or in an appropriate proceeding before an administrative or adjudicative body when the adjudicator determines the records to be relevant to the proceeding.</P>
                    <P>C. To a congressional office in response to an inquiry from that congressional office made at the written request of, and on behalf of, the individual about whom the record pertains.</P>
                    <P>D. To the National Archives and Records Administration or other Federal government agencies pursuant to records management activities being conducted under 44 U.S.C. 2904 and 2906.</P>
                    <P>E. To another Federal agency or Federal entity, when USDA/FNA determines that information from this system of records is reasonably necessary to assist the recipient agency or entity in: (1) responding to a suspected or confirmed breach or (2) preventing, minimizing, or remedying the risk of harm to individuals, the recipient agency or entity (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security, resulting from a suspected or confirmed breach.</P>
                    <P>F. To appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when: (1) USDA/FNA suspects or has confirmed that there has been a breach of the system of records; (2) USDA/FNA has determined that as a result of the suspected or confirmed breach there is a risk of harm to individuals, USDA/FNA (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security; and (3) the disclosure made to such agencies, entities, and persons is reasonably necessary to assist in connection with USDA/FNA's efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed compromise and prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm.</P>
                    <P>G. To contractors and their agents, grantees, experts, consultants, and others performing or working on a contract, service, grant, cooperative agreement, or other assignment for the USDA/FNA, when necessary to accomplish an agency function related to this system of records.</P>
                    <P>H. When a record on its face, or in conjunction with other records, indicates a violation or potential violation of law, whether civil, criminal or regulatory in nature, and whether arising by general statute or particular program statute, or by regulation, rule, or order issued pursuant thereto, USDA/FNA may disclose the record to the appropriate agency, whether Federal, foreign, State, local, or tribal, or other public authority responsible for enforcing, investigating, or prosecuting such violation or charged with enforcing or implementing the statute, or rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant thereto, if the information disclosed is relevant to any enforcement, regulatory, investigative or prosecutive responsibility of the receiving entity.</P>
                    <P>I. To State Agencies Administering the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program to access the Electronic Disqualified Recipient System (eDRS) to identify individuals who have been disqualified from receiving SNAP benefits. The eDRS matching program maintains program integrity and reduces payment errors by providing information to assist State agencies with establishing or verifying the eligibility of individuals for SNAP benefits and determining the appropriate disqualification period to be imposed for a new IPV as required in regulations at 7 CFR 273.16, Disqualification for intentional Program violation. Each State agency must submit information about individuals who have been disqualified from SNAP within their State to eDRS. As a participant in this matching program, each State agency has access to this national system to both submit the required information for their State and perform the required matches against information provided by all State agencies.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR STORAGE OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>Records are maintained on the Department's computers at the DISC-KC on electronic media and storage within the NetApp environment at that facility. These records are electronic and maintained within backups, and data disks at FNA Headquarters and at the Digital Infrastructure Service Center (DISC) facility in Kansas City. This SOR is being modified to add records being hosted in a secure cloud infrastructure environment, which is FedRAMP High certified.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR RETRIEVAL OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>See “Categories of Records in the System” Section for identifiers USDA retrieve records by.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR RETENTION AND DISPOSAL OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>Records in this system are retained and disposed of in accordance with the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008, as amended, USDA-approved records schedules: DM-0462-2016-0001, and schedules approved by the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).</P>
                    <P>* Records relating to individuals disqualified from participation in the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP), maintained in the Electronic Disqualified Recipient System (eDRS), are retained permanently because prior disqualifications must be considered in determining future eligibility and disqualification periods.</P>
                    <P>* Records relating to SNAP Quality Control (QC) households, maintained in the SNAP Quality Control System (SNAP-QCS), are retained for the period necessary to support error rate determinations, State agency liability assessments, audits, and program oversight, and are disposed of in accordance with applicable NARA-approved schedules.</P>
                    <P>* Records subject to litigation, audit, or investigation holds are retained until all such matters are resolved.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">ADMINISTRATIVE, TECHNICAL, AND PHYSICAL SAFEGUARDS:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Disqualification records will be available only to identified State agency personnel charged with the administration and enforcement of SNAP. Online access to the DISC-KC database will be restricted to FNA personnel charged with system management. The DISC-KC is the repository of multiple Department systems of records and other databases. It was constructed and is maintained at a secure facility. State agencies will be 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39063"/>
                        provided with information from this system of records only upon entering into a written agreement with FNA. This agreement includes the understanding that State agencies will provide full security for data released to them and will limit access to this data to authorized personnel only. Any reports generated by FNA will be for system evaluation purposes only and will be maintained in secure offices and facilities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Administrative Safeguards:</E>
                         The USDA safeguards for this system include role-based access controls and formal account approval processes. Access to the system is restricted to authorized personnel who require the information to perform official duties. Users must complete required privacy and security awareness training prior to gaining access and annually thereafter. User access is reviewed periodically, and accounts are validated to ensure continued need. Information sharing is governed by established policies and reviewed on a recurring basis to ensure compliance with applicable laws and regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Technical Safeguards:</E>
                         The technical safeguards include secure authentication mechanisms, including e-Authentication with appropriate credentialing levels, to control system access, and verify user identity. Data is protected through encryption at rest and in transit. System activity is logged, monitored, and audited, with audit records reviewed regularly and automated alerts generated for anomalous or unauthorized activity. Database auditing is implemented to monitor user activity and maintain accountability. User access is restricted based on assigned roles, and controls are in place to disable inactive accounts and detect access from unauthorized locations. Data validation controls are implemented to enhance data integrity and reduce the risk of erroneous or incomplete data entry.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Physical Safeguards:</E>
                         The servers include the use of secure Federal facilities and controlled environments where the system and associated data are hosted. Physical access to information technology infrastructure is limited to authorized personnel through established security controls, including access restrictions and monitoring, consistent with Federal security standards.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">RECORD ACCESS PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>An individual seeking access to Privacy Act Records: Requests must be in writing in accordance with the instructions set forth in the system of notice for that system of records.</P>
                    <P>The request must include the following information:</P>
                    <P>* The name of the individual making the request;</P>
                    <P>* The name of the system of records;</P>
                    <P>* Preference of inspection, in person or by mail;</P>
                    <P>* Be specific and concise;</P>
                    <P>* Provide sufficient identification or complete in the presence of an agency official a signed statement asserting the requester's identity;</P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>If an individual submitting a request for access under 7 CFR 1.112, paragraph (a) wishes to be supplied with copies of the records by mail, the requester shall include with his or her request sufficient data for the agency to verify the requester's identity.</P>
                    <P>
                        To make an Electronic Privacy Act Request, please visit the following link: 
                        <E T="03">https://securefoia.usda.gov/.</E>
                    </P>
                    <NOTE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Note: </HD>
                        <P>This link will allow you to electronically complete your request.</P>
                    </NOTE>
                    <P>
                        The USDA Public Access Link (PAL) is a web portal that allows requestors to create, submit, and track the status of their FOIA and Privacy Act request(s). To use the system, the requestor must register and create a username and password. This system also provides remote identity proofing and authentication through 
                        <E T="03">login.gov</E>
                         for Privacy Act requests.
                    </P>
                    <P>See the `Notification Procedure' below.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CONTESTING RECORD PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>Individuals desiring to contest or amend information maintained in the system should direct their request to the system manager listed above, the reasons for contesting it, and the proposed amendment to the information with supporting information to show how the record is inaccurate. This request must follow the procedures set forth in 7 CFR 1.116 (Request for correction or amendment to record).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">NOTIFICATION PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Individuals seeking notification of any record contained in this SOR may submit a request in writing to the Headquarters or component's FOIA Officer, whose contact information can be found at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.da.usda.gov/foia_agency_pocs.htm.</E>
                         If an individual believes more than one component maintains Privacy Act records concerning him or her, the individual may submit the request to the Chief FOIA Officer, Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Avenue, SW, Washington, DC 20250.
                    </P>
                    <P>When seeking records about yourself from this SNAP eDRS/QCS SOR, or any other Departmental SOR, your request must conform with the Privacy Act regulations set forth in 7 CFR 1.112. You must submit a written request in accordance with the instructions set forth in the SOR. The request should include the name of the individual making the request, the name of the SOR, any other information specified in the system notice, and when the request is one for access, a statement of whether the requester desires to make a personal inspection of the records or be supplied with copies by mail or email.</P>
                    <P>You must also include with your request sufficient data for FNA to verify your identity. If the sensitivity of the records warrants it, FNA may require you to submit a signed, notarized statement indicating that you are the individual to whom the records pertain and stipulating that-you understand that knowingly or willfully seeking or obtaining access to records about another individual under false pretenses is a misdemeanor. No identification shall be required, however, if the records are required by 5 U.S.C. 552 to be released. If FNA determines to grant the requested access, fees may be charged in accordance with 7 CFR 1.120 before making the necessary copies. In place of a notarization, your signature may be submitted under 28 U.S.C. 1746, a law that permits statements to be made under penalty of perjury as a substitute for notarization.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">EXEMPTIONS PROMUGLATED FROM THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>None.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">HISTORY:</HD>
                    <P>USDA/FNS-5, “Information on Persons Disqualified from the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program—USDA/FNS,” 75 FR 81205, published December 14, 2010.</P>
                    <P>USDA/FNS-7, “Quality Control Subsample of Nonassistance Households Participating in the Food Stamp Program—USDA/FNS,” 42 FR 190, published September 20, 1977.</P>
                </PRIACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Shiela Corley,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Administrator.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-12997 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Food and Nutrition Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Food and Nutrition Administration (FNA), USDA.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Rescindment of a System of Records Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <PRTPAGE P="39064"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of Agriculture's Food and Nutrition Administration proposes to rescind the System of Records (SOR), currently titled USDA/FNS-7, “Quality Control Subsample of Nonassistance Households Participating in the Food Stamp Program- USDA/FNS” published September 30, 1977. SNAP QC records that had been contained in FNS-7 SORN will now be covered under FNA-5 SORN.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This notice is effective upon publication. USDA is publishing this rescission notice on the same day as the modified USDA/FNA-5 system of records notice, which will cover the records previously maintained under USDA/FNS-7.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments by one of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Send SNAP Quality Control System (SNAP-QCS) comments to John McCleskey, Branch Chief, QC Branch, Program Administration and Nutrition Division Food and Nutrition Administration, 1320 Braddock Place, 5th Floor, Alexandria, Virginia 22314.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions received must include the agency name and docket number for this rulemaking. Comments can be submitted on any aspect of this notice. All comments received will be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal information provided.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         For access to the docket to read background documents or comments received, go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For general questions, please contact: FNA Privacy Officer, Information Management Branch, Food and Nutrition Administration, USDA, 1320 Braddock Place, Alexandria, Virginia 22314; or via email at 
                        <E T="03">SM.fn.Privacy-FNA@usda.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>FNA is proposing to rescind the system of records titled USDA/FNS-7, “Quality Control Subsample of Nonassistance Households Participating in the Food Stamp Program- USDA/FNS,” which was last published at 42 FR 190 on September 30, 1977.</P>
                <P>
                    Elsewhere in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    <E T="03">,</E>
                     FNA has proposed to revise USDA/FNA-5, now titled “Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program-Information on Persons Disqualified from the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program and on Households in the Quality Control Universe,” to explicitly include SNAP QC records within the systems of records covered. The records previously maintained under USDA/FNS-7 will now be maintained under USDA/FNA-5. This change aligns the SOR with operational reality and long-standing program requirements.
                </P>
                <PRIACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">SYSTEM NAME AND NUMBER:</HD>
                    <P>USDA/FNS-7 “USDA/FNS-7, Quality Control Subsample of Nonassistance Households Participating in the Food Stamp Program- USDA/FNS.”</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">HISTORY:</HD>
                    <P>USDA/FNS-7, “Quality Control Subsample of Nonassistance Households Participating in the Food Stamp Program—USDA/FNS,” 42 FR 190, published September 30, 1977.</P>
                </PRIACT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     5. U.S.C. 552a (Privacy Act of 1974), as amended.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Shiela Corley,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Administrator.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-12999 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE -P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Food and Nutrition Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Disaster Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (D-SNAP) Reporting and FNS-292A/FNS-292B Recordkeeping</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Food and Nutrition Administration (FNA), USDA.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice invites the general public and other public agencies to comment on this proposed information collection. This is a revision of a currently approved collection. This information collection is associated with waiver request and reporting by State agencies to operate a Disaster Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (D-SNAP) to temporarily provide food assistance to households following a disaster and the submission of FNS-292A and FNS-292B.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments must be received on or before August 28, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments may be sent to: Jacqueline O'Connor, Team Lead, SNAP Disaster Response Team, Food and Nutrition Administration, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 1320 Braddock Place, 5th Floor, Alexandria, VA 22314. Comments may also be submitted via fax to the attention of Jacqueline O'Connor at 703-305-4371 or via email to 
                        <E T="03">Jacqueline.o'connor@usda.gov.</E>
                         Comments will also be accepted through the Federal eRulemaking Portal. Go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for submitting comments electronically. All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval. All comments will be a matter of public record.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Requests for additional information or copies of this information collection should be directed to Jacqueline O'Connor at 703-305-4371.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions that were used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Disaster Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (D-SNAP) Reporting and FNS-292A/FNS-292B Recordkeeping.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     FNS-292A and FNS-292B.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0584-0336.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Expiration Date:</E>
                     12/31/2028.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Revision of a previously approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Pursuant to § 412 of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 5179) and § 5(h)(1) of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2014(h)), the Secretary of Agriculture has the authority to establish a Disaster Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (D-SNAP), which is a temporary program that State agencies may operate to provide food assistance to households affected by a disaster. D-SNAP is separate and distinct from the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) because it has different standards of eligibility, is operated for a limited duration, and only provides one month of benefits to eligible households.
                    <PRTPAGE P="39065"/>
                </P>
                <P>State agencies submit formal waiver requests to operate D-SNAP to the Food and Nutrition Service (FNS) for approval and may only request to operate D-SNAP in areas that have received a Presidential major disaster declaration with authorization for Individual Assistance, also known as an IA declaration. For a major disaster declaration, the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) Regional Office deploys staff to conduct joint Preliminary Damage Assessments (PDAs) in conjunction with State, local, Tribal Nation, and/or territory representatives. The Governor or Tribal Executive then submits a declaration request. FEMA submits a recommendation to the President regarding the declaration request and the final determinations are at the sole discretion of the President.</P>
                <P>In their D-SNAP waiver requests, State agencies outline the impact of the disaster on households and/or businesses, the proposed procedures for conducting D-SNAP, designate the areas where they wish to operate, and provide estimates of benefit issuance. Using clearly defined criteria, FNS created a waiver template for State agencies to submit their D-SNAP requests electronically through the FNS Waiver Information Management System (WIMS).</P>
                <P>Once an initial waiver request to operate D-SNAP is approved by FNS, State agencies will submit any subsequent request to modify or extend operations to eligible areas to FNS for approval. These modification or extension requests are typically used when a disaster impacts different areas of a State in different ways or at different times. Subsequent modification and extension requests require substantially less time to prepare than the initial D-SNAP waiver request. These requests are submitted electronically through WIMS.</P>
                <P>
                    Along with the waiver request to operate D-SNAP in areas that have received an IA declaration, FNS asks that the State agency submit a sample of their D-SNAP application for households applying for assistance. Per FNS D-SNAP guidance,
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     this application should include information about the head of household, the impact of the disaster on the household, household members, household income and resources, a penalty warning, and USDA's nondiscrimination statement. FNS provides State agencies with a sample application in the D-SNAP Toolkit. State agencies submit their sample application electronically through WIMS.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://www.fns.usda.gov/snap/dsnap/guidance.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Additionally, before a State agency operates a D-SNAP, FNS asks the State agency to provide a draft of their press release for FNS to review. State agencies are expected to issue a press release to publicize the application period to households impacted by the disaster that may need assistance. FNS asks State agencies to issue their press release at least several days before the application period for D-SNAP opens to the public. Per D-SNAP Guidance, the press release should include information about the operation such as the counties or ZIP Codes approved for assistance, application dates, application sites and hours of operation, and other information that potential applicants may need. FNS provides State agencies with an example press release in the D-SNAP Toolkit. The draft press release is submitted by State agencies electronically through WIMS.</P>
                <P>During the application period for a D-SNAP, State agencies submit daily data reports to FNS. Daily reports ensure that FNS can monitor State agency capacity and benefit issuance to maintain a high level of customer service and integrity in D-SNAP operations. The reporting template includes data such as the number of new applications taken, the number of applications approved and denied, the amount of benefits issued, the number of pending applications, the number of supplements approved, and the amount of supplements issued. For operations containing a virtual component, the daily report also captures telephonic operation and card issuance data. FNS provides State agencies with a daily report template to provide this data to the agency. State agencies submit daily data reports electronically through WIMS.</P>
                <P>Six months after the closing date of the D-SNAP application period, State agencies will submit a post disaster report to FNS. The post disaster report ensures that FNS understands all aspects of the D-SNAP operation and can identify opportunities for improvement. The report template asks that State agencies summarize the impact of the disaster, detail the D-SNAP operation and procedures utilized, provide case review results, and reflect on changes that could be considered in the future. FNS provides State agencies with a post disaster report template to provide this information to the agency. State agencies submit post-disaster review reports electronically through WIMS.</P>
                <P>This information collection request contains only burden estimates associated with the State agency's waiver request and some reporting for D-SNAP operations. All burden imposed on State agencies and households associated with the certification of D-SNAP households performed by State agencies is approved under OMB Control Number 0584-0064 (SNAP Forms: Applications, Periodic Reporting, Notices; expiration date: 05/31/2026).</P>
                <P>
                    Burden for the remainder of State reporting of D-SNAP data on the FNS-292B (Report of Disaster Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Benefit Issuance) is approved under two separate OMB Control Numbers. The recordkeeping burden for FNS-292B is approved under OMB Control Number 0584-0037 (expiration date: 9/30/2026), and the reporting burden for FNS-292B is approved under OMB Control Number 0584-0594 (Food Programs Reporting System; expiration date: 3/31/2025). In a 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     Notice published December 4, 2023, (88 FR 84122) FNS announced that it intended to merge the burden hours from 0584-0037 into this information collection. However, when FNS processed the revision to this information collection in December 2025, we neglected to include those merged hours from 0584-0037 into 0584-0336. This revision seeks to merge these two information collections as originally intended.
                </P>
                <P>Because it is impossible to predict the number of natural disasters and extreme weather events that result in an IA declaration in a given year, and because some State agencies may find that operation of a D-SNAP is not warranted even upon receipt of an IA declaration, from Federal Fiscal Year 2022 to 2024, an average of 9 State agencies requested to operate D-SNAP each year and an average of 4 State agencies requested to modify and/or extend.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Merge of Burden Hours From 0584-0037</HD>
                <P>
                    In a 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     Notice published December 4, 2023, (88 FR 84122) FNS announced that it intended to merge the burden hours from 0584-0037 into this information collection. However, when FNS processed the revision to this information collection in December 2025, we neglected to include those merged hours from 0584-0037 into 0584-0336. This revision seeks to merge these two information collections as originally intended. This information collection is being merged with 0584-0336 to streamline burden estimates related to disasters into one information collection. OMB Control Number 0584-0037 pertains only to the recordkeeping burden associated with forms FNS- 292A and FNS-292B. The reporting 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39066"/>
                    burden associated with these forms is approved under OMB No. 0584-0594 (Food Program Reporting System; expiration date: 9/30/2026). FNS utilizes forms FNS-292A and FNS-292B to collect information not otherwise available on the extent of FNS-funded disaster relief operations. Form FNS-292A, Report of Commodity Distribution for Disaster Relief, is used by State distributing agencies, including Indian Tribal Organizations administering the Food Distribution Program on Indian Reservations (FDPIR), to provide a summary report to FNS following termination of disaster commodity assistance and to request replacement of donated foods distributed during the disaster or situation of distress. Donated food distribution in disaster situations is authorized under section 32 of the Act of August 24, 1935 (7 U.S.C. 612c); Section 416 of the Agricultural Act of 1949 (7 U.S.C. 1431); Section 709 of the Food and Agriculture Act of 1965 (7 U.S.C. 1446a-1); Section 4(a) of the Agriculture and Consumer Protection Act of 1973 (7 U.S.C. 612c note); and by sections 412 and 413 of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 5179, 5180). Program implementing regulations are contained in part 250 of title 7 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR). In accordance with 7 CFR 250.69(f) and 7 CFR 250.70(f), State distributing agencies shall provide a summary report to FNS within 45 days following termination of the disaster assistance and maintain records of these reports and other information relating to disasters. Form FNS-292B, Report of Disaster Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Benefit Issuance, is used by State agencies to report to FNS the number of households and persons certified for Disaster Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (D-SNAP) benefits as well as the value of benefits issued. D-SNAP is a separate program from the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) and is authorized by sections 402 and 502 of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 5121 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and the temporary emergency provisions contained in section 5 of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008, and in 7 CFR part 280 of the SNAP regulations. State agencies may request FNS approval to operate a D-SNAP to address the temporary food needs of certain households in affected areas following a disaster after certain criteria is met. If approved to operate D-SNAP by FNS, a State agency must submit its final FNS-292B to FNS within 45 days of terminating D-SNAP operations and maintain records of this report. The number of disasters that will result in a State requesting to operate a FNS disaster food relief activity in a given year is impossible to predict. However, 55 is the maximum number of State distributing agencies that have ever utilized disaster commodity assistance in a given year. Accordingly, FNS is estimating this burden by assuming that, at maximum, 55 State distributing agency will distribute donated foods during a disaster or situation of distress once per year. In the case of State SNAP agencies, FNS is estimating this burden assuming that each State SNAP agency will request and be approved to operate D-SNAP once per year.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Burden Hours</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Reporting</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     State, local, Tribal Nation, territory agency or government.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     9. An average of 9 State agencies submit D-SNAP waiver requests each year, and out of those original 9 State agencies, an average of 4 State agencies will submit subsequent waiver requests to modify or extend those already approved D-SNAPs. Each new D-SNAP waiver request includes submitting a sample application and draft press release. Additionally, daily reports are submitted each day that the D-SNAP application period is open, and the post disaster report is submitted several months later. This is an increase from the previously approved information collection as there has been a steady increase in the number of disasters occurring throughout the country since the previous information collection was approved and additional activities have been added to more accurately capture the burden of administering D-SNAP.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     28.8889. State agencies submit an average of 2 D-SNAP waiver requests per year and an average of 2 subsequent modification or extension requests per year.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     260.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     3.4154. Approximately 10 hours for State agency D-SNAP waiver requests, 3 hours for each subsequent modification or extension request, 1 hour for a sample application, 2 hours for a draft press release, 1 hour for a daily report, and 10 hours for a post disaster report.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden on Respondents:</E>
                     888.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Recordkeeping</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     State, local, Tribal Nation, territory agency or government.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     55. 55 Food Distribution State agencies submit a Form FNS-292A, and 53 State SNAP agencies submit a Form FNS-292B.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     1.9636. State agencies submit an average of 1 FNS-292A and 1 FNS-292B per year.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     108.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     .1250. Approximately 7.5 minutes to compile each FNS-292A and FNS-292B.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden on Respondents:</E>
                     13.50.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Grand Total</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     State, local, Tribal Nation, territory agency or government.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     55.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     6.6909.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     368.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     2.4497.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden on Respondents:</E>
                     901.5.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2(,0,),nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s40,r40,r40,10,12,10,12,10">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Respondent 
                            <LI>category</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Activity</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Form</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Frequency of
                            <LI>response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>annual</LI>
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Hours per
                            <LI>response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="25">A</ENT>
                        <ENT>C</ENT>
                        <ENT>E</ENT>
                        <ENT>F</ENT>
                        <ENT>G</ENT>
                        <ENT>H = F × G</ENT>
                        <ENT>I</ENT>
                        <ENT>J = H × I</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Reporting Estimate (OMB Control No. 0584-0336 including merged hours from 0584-0037)</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">State Agency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Submission of D-SNAP Waiver Request</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not Applicable</ENT>
                        <ENT>9</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>18</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                        <ENT>270</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="39067"/>
                        <ENT I="01">State Agency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Submission of D-SNAP modification and/or extension request</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not Applicable</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>24</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">State Agency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Submission of a sample application</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not Applicable</ENT>
                        <ENT>9</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>18</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>18</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">State Agency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Submission of a draft press release</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not Applicable</ENT>
                        <ENT>9</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>18</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>36</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">State Agency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Submission of daily reports</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not Applicable</ENT>
                        <ENT>9</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>180</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>360</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">State Agency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Submission of a D-SNAP post disaster review report</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not Applicable</ENT>
                        <ENT>9</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>18</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>180</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT>9</ENT>
                        <ENT>28.8889</ENT>
                        <ENT>260</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.4154</ENT>
                        <ENT>888</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Recordkeeping Estimate (OMB Control No. 0584-0336 including merged hours from 0584-0037)</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">State Agency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Submission of FNS-292A</ENT>
                        <ENT>Commodity Distribution Form FNS-292A</ENT>
                        <ENT>55</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>55</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.125</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.875</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">State Agency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Submission of FNS-292B</ENT>
                        <ENT>D-SNAP Benefit Issuance Form FNS 292-B</ENT>
                        <ENT>53</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>53</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.125</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.625</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT>55</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.9636</ENT>
                        <ENT>108</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.1250</ENT>
                        <ENT>13.50</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Grand Total Estimate (OMB Control No. 0584-0336 including merged hours from 0584-0037)</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT>55</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.6909</ENT>
                        <ENT>368</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.4497</ENT>
                        <ENT>901.50</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Shiela Corley,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Administrator.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-12998 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-30-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Forest Service</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Comments on Section 133 of the Expanding Public Lands Outdoor Recreation Experiences (EXPLORE) Act</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Forest Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA); National Park Service, Bureau of Land Management, Bureau of Reclamation, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, U.S. Department of the Interior (DOI); U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (USACE), U.S. Department of Defense; National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), U.S. Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of request for public comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Section 133 of the Expanding Public Lands Outdoor Recreation Experiences (EXPLORE) Act requires the Secretaries, after public notice and comment, to establish pilot protocols at not fewer than 10 land management units under the jurisdiction of each Secretary to model recreation use patterns, including low-use recreation activities and dispersed recreation activities, that may not be effectively measured by existing general and opportunistic survey and monitoring protocols. Through this notice, the agencies request public comment on the proposed pilot protocols and proposed land management units identified for those pilots.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received, in writing, on or before July 29, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments on this notice may be submitted to the BLM ePlanning website at: 
                        <E T="03">https://eplanning.blm.gov/Project-Home/?id=3240C41B-9A70-F111-AB0D-001DD8084607.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">EXPLOREAct@ios.doi.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 133 of the Expanding Public Lands Outdoor Recreation Experiences (EXPLORE) Act requires the Secretary of the Interior, the Secretary of Agriculture, acting through the Chief of the Forest Service, the Secretary of Commerce, acting through the Administrator of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, and the Assistant Secretary of Army for Civil Works, with respect to lakes and reservoirs under the jurisdiction of the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, after public notice and comment, to establish pilot protocols at not fewer than 10 land management units under the jurisdiction of each Secretary. The purpose of those pilot protocols is to model recreation use patterns, including low-use recreation activities and dispersed recreation activities, that may not be effectively measured by existing general and opportunistic survey and monitoring protocols. The agencies have developed proposed pilot protocols and identified proposed land management units for those pilots. The proposed pilot protocols and proposed land management units are available on the BLM ePlanning website 
                    <E T="03">https://eplanning.blm.gov/Project-Home/?id=3240C41B-9A70-F111-AB0D-001DD8084607.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request for Public Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    Interested parties are invited to submit written comments about the utility and adequacy of the proposed pilot protocols and the appropriateness of the proposed land management units 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39068"/>
                    for meeting the requirements of Section 133. Information related to the pilot protocols and proposed land management units is included on the BLM ePlanning website 
                    <E T="03">https://eplanning.blm.gov/Project-Home/?id=3240C41B-9A70-F111-AB0D-001DD8084607.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Gordon Blum,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Deputy Chief Recreation and Heritage.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13095 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3411-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[C-570-229]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Tin Mill Products From the People's Republic of China: Postponement of Preliminary Determination in the Countervailing Duty Investigation</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicable June 29, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Samuel Evans at (202) 482-2420 AD/CVD Operations, Office IX, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On April 29, 2026, the U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) initiated a countervailing duty (CVD) investigation of imports of tin mill products from the People's Republic of China (China).
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Currently, the preliminary determination is due no later than July 6, 2026.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Initiation of Countervailing Duty Investigation,</E>
                         91 FR 24170 (May 5, 2026) (
                        <E T="03">Initiation Notice</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Postponement of Preliminary Determination</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 703(b)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), requires the Department to issue the preliminary determination in a countervailing duty investigation within 65 days after the date on which Commerce initiated the investigation. However, section 703(c)(1) of the Act permits Commerce to postpone the preliminary determination until no later than 130 days after the date on which Commerce initiated the investigation if: (A) the petitioner 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     makes a timely request for a postponement; or (B) Commerce concludes that the parties concerned are cooperating, that the investigation is extraordinarily complicated, and that additional time is necessary to make a preliminary determination. Under 19 CFR 351.205(e), the petitioner must submit a request for postponement 25 days or more before the scheduled date of the preliminary determination and must state the reasons for the request. Commerce will grant the request unless it finds compelling reasons to deny the request.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The petitioners are United States Steel Corporation and United Steel, Paper and Forestry, Rubber, Manufacturing, Energy, Allied industrial and Service Workers Union (collectively, petitioners).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On June 2, 2026, the petitioners submitted a timely request that Commerce postpone the preliminary CVD determination.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The petitioners stated that they request postponement because “{u}nder the current deadline for the preliminary determination, Commerce will have less than two weeks to examine the full questionnaire responses from Shougang Holding, Shougang Jingtang, and the Government of China. An extension of the deadline for the preliminary determination is necessary to ensure that Commerce has sufficient time to analyze the responses to its questionnaires and to request additional information and conduct the necessary analysis regarding the subsidy benefits received by Chinese producers and exporters of the subject merchandise.” 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In accordance with 19 CFR 351.205(e), the petitioners have stated the reasons for requesting a postponement of the preliminary determination, and Commerce finds no compelling reason to deny the request. Therefore, in accordance with section 703(c)(1)(A) of the Act, Commerce is postponing the deadline for the preliminary determination to no later than 130 days after the date on which this investigation was initiated, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     September 8, 2026.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Pursuant to section 705(a)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(b)(1), the deadline for the final determination of this investigation will continue to be 75 days after the date of the preliminary determination.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Petitioners' Letter, “Request to Extend the Deadline for the Preliminary Determination,” dated June 2, 2026.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at 2.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Postponing the preliminary determination to 130 days after initiation would place the deadline on Sunday, September 6, 2026. Commerce's practice dictates that where a deadline falls on a weekend or federal holiday, the appropriate deadline is the next business day. 
                        <E T="03">See Notice of Clarification: Application of “Next Business Day” Rule for Administrative Determination Deadlines Pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930, As Amended,</E>
                         70 FR 24533 (May 10, 2005).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>This notice is issued and published pursuant to section 703(c)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(f)(1).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Scot Fullerton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Assistant Secretary for Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Operations.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13038 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[A-533-848, C-533-849]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Commodity Matchbooks From India: Continuation of Antidumping Duty Order and Countervailing Duty Order</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>As a result of the determinations by the U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) and the U.S. International Trade Commission (ITC) that revocation of the antidumping duty (AD) order and countervailing duty (CVD) order on commodity matchbooks from India would likely lead to the continuation or recurrence of dumping, countervailable subsidies, and material injury to an industry in the United States, Commerce is publishing a notice of continuation of these AD and CVD orders.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicable June 15, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>David De Falco, Trade Agreements Policy and Negotiations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-2178.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On December 11, 2009, Commerce published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     the AD and CVD orders on commodity matchbooks from India.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On October 1, 2025, the ITC instituted,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and on October 3, 2025, Commerce initiated,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the third sunset review of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders,</E>
                     pursuant to section 751(c) of the Tariff 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39069"/>
                    Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). As a result of its reviews, Commerce determined that revocation of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     would likely lead to the continuation or recurrence of dumping and countervailable subsidies, and therefore, notified the ITC of the magnitude of the margins of dumping and subsidy rates likely to prevail should the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     be revoked.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03"> See Commodity Matchbooks from India: Antidumping Duty Order,</E>
                         74 FR 65737 (December 11, 2009) and 
                        <E T="03">Commodity Matchbooks from India: Countervailing Duty Order,</E>
                         74 FR 65740 (December 11, 2009).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Commodity Matchbooks from India; Institution of Five-Year Reviews,</E>
                         90 FR 47330 (October 1, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Initiation of Five-Year (Sunset) Reviews,</E>
                         90 FR 48048 (October 3, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Commodity Matchbooks from India: Final Results of the Expedited Third Sunset Review of the Antidumping Duty Orders,</E>
                         91 FR 18401 (April 10, 2026), and accompanying Issues and Decision Memorandum (IDM); and 
                        <E T="03">Commodity Matchbooks from India: Final Results of the Expedited Third Sunset Review of the Countervailing Duty Order,</E>
                         91 FR 18402 (April 10, 2026), and accompanying IDM.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On June 15, 2026, the ITC published its determination, pursuant to sections 751(c) and 752(a) of the Act, that revocation of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     would likely lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury to an industry in the United States within a reasonably foreseeable time.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Commodity Matchbooks from India; Determinations,</E>
                         91 FR 36001 (June 15, 2026) (
                        <E T="03">ITC Final Determination</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Scope of the Orders</HD>
                <P>
                    The scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     covers commodity matchbooks, also known as commodity book matches, paper matches or booklet matches.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Commodity matchbooks typically, but do not necessarily consist of twenty match stems which are usually made from paperboard or similar material tipped with a match head composed of any chemical formula. The match stems may be stitched, stapled or otherwise fastened into a matchbook cover of any material, on which a striking strip composed of any chemical formula has been applied to assist in the ignition process.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         Such commodity matchbooks are also referred to as “for resale” because they always enter into retail channels, meaning businesses that sell a general variety of tangible merchandise, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         convenience stores, supermarkets, dollar stores, drug stores, and mass merchandisers.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Commodity matchbooks included in the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     may or may not contain printing. For example, they may have no printing other than the identification of the manufacturer or importer. Commodity matchbooks may also be printed with a generic message such as “Thank You” or a generic image such as the American Flag, with store brands (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Kroger, 7-Eleven, Shurfine or Giant); product brands for national or regional advertisers such as cigarettes or alcoholic beverages; or with corporate brands for national or regional distributors (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Penley Corp. or Diamond Brands). They all enter retail distribution channels. Regardless of the materials used for the stems of the matches and regardless of the way the match stems are fastened to the matchbook cover, all commodity matchbooks are included in the scope of this investigation. All matchbooks, including commodity matchbooks, typically comply with the United States Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC) Safety Standard for Matchbooks, codified at 16 CFR 1202.1 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     excludes promotional matchbooks, often referred to as “not for resale,” or “specialty advertising” matchbooks, as they do not enter into retail channels and are sold to businesses that provide hospitality, dining, drinking or entertainment services to their customers, and are given away by these businesses as promotional items. Such promotional matchbooks are distinguished by the physical characteristic of having the name and/or logo of a bar, restaurant, resort, hotel, club, cafe/coffee shop, grill, pub, eatery, lounge, casino, barbecue or individual establishment printed prominently on the matchbook cover. Promotional matchbook cover printing also typically includes the address and the phone number of the business or establishment being promoted.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Also excluded are all other matches that are not fastened into a matchbook cover such as wooden matches, stick matches, box matches, kitchen matches, pocket matches, penny matches, household matches, strike-anywhere matches (aka “SAW” matches), strike-on-box matches (aka “SOB” matches), fireplace matches, barbeque/grill matches, fire starters, and wax matches.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         The gross distinctions between commodity matchbooks and promotional matchbooks may be summarized as follows: (1) if it has no printing, or is printed with a generic message suck as “Thank You” or a generic image such as the American Flag, or printed with national or regional store brands or corporate brands, it is commodity; (2) if it has printing, and the printing includes the name of a bar, restaurant, resort, hotel, club, café/coffee shop, grill, pub, eatery, lounge, casino, barbecue, or individual establishment prominently displayed on the matchbook cover, it is promotional.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The merchandise subject to the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     is properly classified under subheading 3605.00.0060 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). Subject merchandise may also enter under subheading 3605.00.0030 of the HTSUS. Although the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the merchandise subject to the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     is dispositive.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Continuation of the Orders</HD>
                <P>
                    As a result of the determinations by Commerce and the ITC that revocation of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     would likely lead to continuation or recurrence of dumping, countervailable subsidies, and material injury to an industry in the United States, pursuant to section 751(d)(2) of the Act, Commerce hereby orders the continuation of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders.</E>
                     U.S. Customs and Border Protection will continue to collect AD and CVD cash deposits at the rates in effect at the time of entry for all imports of subject merchandise.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The effective date of the continuation of the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                    s will be June 15, 2026.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Pursuant to section 751(c)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.218(c)(2), Commerce intends to initiate the next five-year reviews of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     not later than 30 days prior to fifth anniversary of the date of the last determination by the ITC.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See ITC Final Determination.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Administrative Protective Order (APO)</HD>
                <P>This notice also serves as a final reminder to parties subject to an APO of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3), which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials, or conversion to judicial protective order, is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>These five-year (sunset) reviews and this notice are in accordance with sections 751(c) and 751(d)(2) of the Act and published in accordance with section 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.218(f)(4).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Scot Fullerton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Assistant Secretary for Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Operations.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13039 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="39070"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[A-552-801]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Certain Frozen Fish Fillets from the Socialist Republic of Vietnam: Continuation of Antidumping Duty Order</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>As a result of the determinations by the U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) and the U.S. International Trade Commission (ITC) that revocation of the antidumping duty (AD) order on certain frozen fish fillets (fish fillets) from the Socialist Republic of Vietnam (Vietnam) would likely lead to the continuation or recurrence of dumping and material injury to an industry in the United States, Commerce is publishing a notice of continuation of this AD order.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicable June 24, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>David De Falco, Trade Agreements Policy and Negotiations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-2178.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On August 12, 2003, Commerce published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     the AD order on fish fillets from Vietnam.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On December 1, 2025, the ITC instituted,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Commerce initiated,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the fourth sunset review of the 
                    <E T="03">Order,</E>
                     pursuant to section 751(c) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). As a result of its review, Commerce determined that revocation of the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     would likely lead to the continuation or recurrence of dumping, and therefore, notified the ITC of the magnitude of the margins of dumping likely to prevail should the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     be revoked.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Notice of Antidumping Duty Order: Certain Frozen Fish Fillets from the Socialist Republic of Vietnam,</E>
                         68 FR 47909 (August 12, 2003).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Frozen Fish Fillets from Vietnam; Institution of a Five-Year Review,</E>
                         90 FR 55176 (December 1, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Initiation of Five-Year (Sunset) Reviews,</E>
                         90 FR 55086 (December 1, 2025).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Certain Frozen Fish Fillets from the Socialist Republic of Vietnam: Final Results of the Expedited Fourth Sunset Review of the Antidumping Duty Orders,</E>
                         91 FR 20099 (April 15, 2026), and accompanying Issues and Decision Memorandum (IDM).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On June 24, 2026, the ITC published its determination, pursuant to sections 751(c) and 752(a) of the Act, that revocation of the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     would likely lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury to an industry in the United States within a reasonably foreseeable time.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Certain Frozen Fish Fillets from Vietnam; Determination,</E>
                         91 FR 38015 (June 24, 2026) (
                        <E T="03">ITC Final Determination</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Scope of the Order</HD>
                <P>
                    The product covered by the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     is frozen fish fillets, including regular, shank, and strip fillets and portions thereof, whether or not breaded or marinated, of the species 
                    <E T="03">Pangasius bocourti, Pangasius hypophthalmus</E>
                     (also known as 
                    <E T="03">Pangasius pangasius</E>
                    ) and 
                    <E T="03">Pangasius micronemus.</E>
                </P>
                <P>Frozen fish fillets are lengthwise cuts of whole fish. The fillet products covered by the scope include boneless fillets with the belly flap intact “regular fillets,” boneless fillets with the belly flap removed “shank fillets,” and boneless shank fillets cut into strips (fillet strips/finger), which include fillets cut into strips, chunks, blocks, skewers, or any other shape.</P>
                <P>Specifically excluded from the scope are frozen whole fish (whether or not dressed), frozen steaks, and frozen belly-flap nuggets. Frozen, whole, dressed fish are deheaded, skinned, and eviscerated. Steaks are bone-in, cross-section cuts of dressed fish. Nuggets are the belly flaps.</P>
                <P>The subject merchandise will be hereinafter referred to as frozen “basa” and “tra” fillets, which are the Vietnamese common names for these species of fish. These products are classifiable under subheading 0304.62.0020 (Frozen Fish Fillets of the species Pangasius, including basa and tra), and may enter under subheadings 0305.59.0000, 1604.19.2100, 1604.19.3100, 1604.19.4100, 1604.19.5100, 1604.19.6100, and 1604.19.8100 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS).</P>
                <P>
                    The 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     covers all frozen fish fillets meeting the above specifications, regardless of tariff classification. Although the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and CBP purposes, the written description of the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     is dispositive.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Continuation of the Order</HD>
                <P>
                    As a result of the determinations by Commerce and the ITC that revocation of the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     would likely lead to continuation or recurrence of dumping and material injury to an industry in the United States, pursuant to section 751(d)(2) of the Act, Commerce hereby orders the continuation of the 
                    <E T="03">Order.</E>
                     U.S. Customs and Border Protection will continue to collect AD cash deposits at the rates in effect at the time of entry for all imports of subject merchandise.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The effective date of the continuation of the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     will be June 24, 2026.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Pursuant to section 751(c)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.218(c)(2), Commerce intends to initiate the next five-year reviews of the 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     not later than 30 days prior to fifth anniversary of the date of the last determination by the ITC.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See ITC Final Determination.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Administrative Protective Order (APO)</HD>
                <P>This notice also serves as a final reminder to parties subject to an APO of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3), which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials, or conversion to judicial protective order, is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>This five-year (sunset) review and this notice are in accordance with sections 751(c) and 751(d)(2) of the Act and published in accordance with section 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.218(f)(4).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Scot Fullerton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Assistant Secretary for Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Operations.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13037 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[A-351-857]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Raw Honey From Brazil: Final Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2023-2024; Correction</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; correction.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) published notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         of June 3, 2026, the final results of the 2023-2024 administrative review of the antidumping duty order on raw honey 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39071"/>
                        from Brazil. This notice incorrectly listed the name of a non-examined company under review as Breyer &amp; Via Ltda. at Appendix II. The correct name for this company is Breyer &amp; Cia Ltda.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Braeden Lowe, AD/CVD Operations, Office V, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-9124.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On June 3, 2026, Commerce published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     the final results 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the antidumping duty administrative review of raw honey from Brazil. In this notice, Commerce incorrectly listed the name of one of companies under review as Breyer &amp; Via Ltda. at Appendix II.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Raw Honey from Brazil: Final Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2023-2024,</E>
                         91 FR 33147 (June 3, 2026).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Correction</HD>
                <P>
                    In the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     of June 3, 2026, in FR Doc 2026-11121, on page 33149, in the first column, correct the name from Breyer &amp; Via Ltda. to Breyer &amp; Cia Ltda.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>This notice is issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, and 19 CFR 351.221(b)(5).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 23, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Scot Fullerton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Assistant Secretary for Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Operations.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13040 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF819]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council (MAFMC); Public Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of public meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management and New England Fishery Management Councils will hold a public meeting of their joint Northeast Trawl Advisory Panel.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The meeting will be held on Thursday, July 9, 2026, from 9 a.m.-5 p.m. For agenda details, see 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION.</E>
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This meeting will be conducted in person with a virtual option available. The meeting will be held at the New Bedford Port Authority (123 MacArthur Dr., New Bedford, MA 02740), telephone: 508-961-3000. Connection information will be posted to the Council's calendar prior to the meeting at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.mafmc.org.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Council address:</E>
                         Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council, 800 N State Street, Suite 201, Dover, DE 19901; telephone: (302) 674-2331; 
                        <E T="03">https://www.mafmc.org.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Christopher M. Moore, Ph.D., Executive Director, Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council, telephone: (302) 526-5255.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Councils' Northeast Trawl Advisory Panel (NTAP) will meet to receive updates on recent Federal and cooperative surveys, as well as other communications from the Northeast Fisheries Science Center (NEFSC). The Panel will also review outcomes of the recently completed Regional Industry-Based Trawl Survey (RIBTS) Phase 1 pilot project. In addition, NTAP will discuss ongoing planning for the RIBTS Phase 2 pilot project being developed by the NTAP Working Group.</P>
                <P>The meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Shelley Spedden, (302) 526-5251 at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     16 U.S.C. 1801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Rey Israel Marquez,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-12991 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF804]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council (MAFMC); Public Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of public meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Scientific and Statistical Committee (SSC) of the Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council (Council) will hold a meeting.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The meeting will be held on Wednesday, July 15, 2026, starting at 9:30 a.m. and continue through 3 p.m. on Thursday, July 16, 2026. See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         for agenda details.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This will be an in-person meeting with a virtual option. SSC members, other invited meeting participants, and members of the public will have the option to participate in person at the Westin Washington, DC City Center (1400 M Street Northwest, Washington, DC 2005) or virtually via Webex webinar. Webinar connection instructions and briefing materials will be available at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.mafmc.org/ssc.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Council address:</E>
                         Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council, 800 N. State Street, Suite 201, Dover, DE 19901; telephone: (302) 674-2331; website: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.mafmc.org.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Christopher M. Moore, Ph.D., Executive Director, Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council, telephone: (302) 526-5255.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>During this meeting, the SSC will make multi-year acceptable biological catch (ABC) recommendations for Ocean Quahog and Butterfish. The SSC will recommend new 2027-2028 ABC specifications for Ocean Quahog based on updated catch and projection information and 2027-2029 ABC specifications for Butterfish based on updated catch, survey, and projection information. The SSC will also review the most recent survey and fishery data and the previously recommended 2027 ABC for Atlantic Surfclam, Summer Flounder, Scup, Black Sea Bass, Bluefish, and Chub Mackerel. The SSC will address Terms of Reference and provide guidance on the results of a recently completed project evaluating the effectiveness of the Scup Gear Restricted Areas (GRAs). The SSC will also discuss the activities and initial outcomes of SSC work group meetings and regional and national stock assessment workshops. The SSC will also provide input on assessment timing and prioritization for Mid-Atlantic stocks. The SSC may take up any other business as necessary. </P>
                <P>
                    A detailed agenda and background documents will be made available on the Council's website (
                    <E T="03">www.mafmc.org</E>
                    ) prior to the meeting. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39072"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Accommodations </HD>
                <P>These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aid should be directed to Shelley Spedden, (302) 526-5251, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     16 U.S.C. 1801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Rey Israel Marquez,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-12988 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF833]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Taking and Importing Marine Mammals; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to Geophysical Surveys Related to Oil and Gas Activities in the Gulf of America</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; issuance of letters of authorization.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA), as amended, its implementing regulations, and NMFS' MMPA regulations for taking marine mammals incidental to geophysical surveys related to oil and gas activities in the Gulf of America (GOA), notification is hereby given that NMFS has issued three separate Letters of Authorization (LOAs) to TGS, for the take of marine mammals incidental to geophysical survey activity in the GOA.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>One LOA issued to TGS is effective from August 15, 2026, through August 15, 2027. The other two LOAs issued to TGS are effective from September 1, 2026, through September 1, 2027.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The LOAs, LOA requests, and supporting documentation are available online at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/action/incidental-take-authorization-oil-and-gas-industry-geophysical-survey.</E>
                         In case of problems accessing these documents, please call the contact listed below (see 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Jenna Harlacher, Office of Protected Resources (OPR), NMFS, (301) 427-8401.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    Sections 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) direct the Secretary of Commerce to allow, upon request, the incidental, but not intentional, taking of small numbers of marine mammals by U.S. citizens who engage in a specified activity (other than commercial fishing) within a specified geographical region if certain findings are made and either regulations are issued or, if the taking is limited to harassment, a notice of a proposed authorization is provided to the public for review.
                </P>
                <P>An authorization for incidental takings shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s), will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for subsistence uses (where relevant), and if the permissible methods of taking and requirements pertaining to the mitigation, monitoring and reporting of such takings are set forth. NMFS has defined “negligible impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.</P>
                <P>Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, the MMPA defines “harassment” as: any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).</P>
                <P>
                    On January 19, 2021, we issued a final rule with regulations to govern the unintentional taking of marine mammals incidental to geophysical survey activities conducted by oil and gas industry operators, and those persons authorized to conduct activities on their behalf (collectively “industry operators”), in U.S. waters of the GOA 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                     over the course of 5 years (86 FR 5322, January 19, 2021). The rule was based on our findings that the total taking from the specified activities over the 5-year period will have a negligible impact on the affected species or stock(s) of marine mammals and will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of those species or stocks for subsistence uses, and became effective on April 19, 2021.
                </P>
                <P>The regulations at 50 CFR 217.180 allow for the issuance of LOAs to industry operators for the incidental take of marine mammals during geophysical survey activities and prescribe the permissible methods of taking and other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact on marine mammal species or stocks and their habitat (often referred to as mitigation), as well as requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking. Under 50 CFR 217.186(e), issuance of an LOA shall be based on a determination that the level of taking will be consistent with the findings made for the total taking allowable under these regulations and a determination that the amount of take authorized under the LOA is of no more than small numbers.</P>
                <P>NMFS subsequently discovered that the 2021 rule was based on erroneous take estimates. We conducted another rulemaking using correct take estimates and other newly available and pertinent information relevant to the analyses supporting some of the findings in the 2021 final rule and the taking allowable under the regulations. We issued a final rule in April 2024, effective May 24, 2024 (89 FR 31488, April 24, 2024).</P>
                <P>On August 28, 2025, NMFS' OPR received a request from NMFS' Office of Policy for reimplementation of the current Incidental Take Regulation (ITR) to avoid a lapse in ITRs offering incidental take coverage for GOA geophysical survey activities. On October 20, 2025, Bureau of Ocean Energy Management (the original petitioner for the current ITRs) submitted a request to be included in the process as a co-petitioner. In response to these requests, NMFS issued a new final rule, effective April 20, 2026, through April 19, 2031 (91 FR 20784, April 17, 2026).</P>
                <P>The reimplementation of the regulations continues the established framework for authorization of incidental take through LOAs. The final rule made no changes to the specified activities or the specified geographical region in which those activities would be conducted, and there are no changes to the associated mitigation, monitoring, and reporting requirements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Requests and Analysis</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Amendment 3</HD>
                <P>
                    TGS plans to conduct a three-dimensional (3D) ocean-bottom node (OBN) survey over 200 lease blocks in the Viosca Knoll, Mississippi Canyon, De Soto Canyon, and Atwater Valley protraction areas, with water depths ranging from approximately 50 to 2,100 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39073"/>
                    meters (m). See section F of the LOA application for a map of the area.
                </P>
                <P>
                    TGS plans to operate two independent source vessels. One source vessel will use three 5,200-cubic-inch (in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    ) conventional airgun sources. The other source vessel plans to use a low-frequency airgun source known as Gemini (also referred to as a dual barbell source). Gemini airgun arrays will fire using the “Seismic Apparition” method, with a single-source vessel towing six sources (100 m separation), firing within 120 milliseconds with a predetermined dither to each source; no sources will fire simultaneously at any time. Alternatively, Gemini airgun arrays will fire using “flip-flap-flop-flup” method with 2 to 3 seconds dither applied to each source. Please see TGS' application for additional details.
                </P>
                <P>The Gemini was not included in the acoustic exposure modeling developed in support of the rule. However, the Gemini was described and evaluated in support of a previous LOA, and we rely on that analysis here (88 FR 72739, October 23, 2023). For additional details regarding sources, see section C of the LOA application. Based on this information we have determined there will be no effects of magnitude or intensity different from those evaluated in support of the rule. NMFS therefore expects that use of modeling results supporting the final rule relating to use of airgun arrays is expected to be conservative as a proxy for use in evaluating potential impacts of use of the Gemini.</P>
                <P>
                    Consistent with the preamble to the 2026 final rule, the survey effort proposed by TGS in its LOA request was used to develop LOA-specific take estimates based on the acoustic exposure modeling results described in the preamble (91 FR 20784, April 17, 2026). In order to generate the appropriate take number for authorization, the following information was considered: (1) survey type; (2) location (by modeling zone 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    ); (3) number of days; (4) source; and (5) month.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     To determine the most appropriate proxy array from the exposure modeling, the directionally dependent source level in a plane parallel to the sea surface was compared to the three airgun array sources that were originally modeled, including the 4,130-, 5,110-, and 8,000-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     arrays. Out of these three proxies, the source that had the smallest relative error (arithmetic mean difference taken over the azimuthal or vessel bearing angle) was chosen as the most representative proxy. In this case, because TGS plans use independent source vessels with different sources, we look at these independently. For survey activity using a 5,200-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     airgun array source, the 5,110-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     had the lowest mean error (0.7 dB) and was the airgun array proxy that was selected. For the Gemini source use (a single 8,000-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     array), surface-affected waveforms were modeled by TGS using Nucleus+. To approximate the acoustic energy from six elements, the sound exposure level (SEL) for each frequency and aspect was adjusted by a factor of 10*log
                    <E T="52">10</E>
                    (
                    <E T="03">N</E>
                    ), where 
                    <E T="03">N</E>
                     in this case is 6. The resulting spectra were used in the comparison tool as described above. The results showed that the most comparable source was the 4,130-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     array. The Nucleus+ results indicate that the horizontal surface-affected SEL source level for a single 8,000-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     array is approximately 218.2 dB, while the additional 10*log
                    <E T="52">10</E>
                    (6) increases this to approximately 226 dB. Notably, the corresponding source level for the 4,130-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     source is approximately 232 dB. Thus, the total acoustic energy from six 8,000-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     Gemini sources remains lower than the conventional 4,130-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     array. The acoustic exposure modeling performed in support of the rule provides 24-hour exposure estimates for each species, specific to each modeled source and survey type in each zone and month.
                </P>
                <P>
                    No OBN surveys were included in the modeled survey types, and use of existing proxies (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     two-dimensional (2D), 3D narrow azimuth (NAZ), 3D wide azimuth (WAZ), Coil) is generally conservative for use in evaluation of 3D OBN survey effort, largely due to the greater area covered by the modeled proxies. Summary descriptions of these modeled survey geometries are available in the preamble to the proposed rule (91 FR 9014, 9018, February 24, 2026). Coil was selected as the best available proxy survey type in this case because the spatial coverage of the planned survey is most similar to the coil survey pattern. Among the different parameters of the modeled survey patterns (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     area covered, line spacing, number of sources, shot interval, total simulated pulses), NMFS considers area covered per day to be most influential on daily modeled exposures exceeding Level B harassment criteria. Although TGS is not proposing to perform a survey using the coil geometry, the coil proxy is most representative of the effort planned by TGS in terms of predicted Level B harassment exposures.
                </P>
                <P>The survey will take place over approximately 174 days with 135 days of sound source operation, including 100 days in zone 5 (consisting of 52 days of Gemini use and 48 days of conventional source use) and 35 days of Gemini use in zone 7. The monthly distribution of survey days is not known in advance, though we assume that the planned 135 days of source operation would occur contiguously. Take estimates for each species are based on the time period that produces the greatest value.</P>
                <P>
                    For the Rice's whale, recent survey data, sightings, and acoustic data support Rice's whale occurrence in waters throughout the GOM between approximately 100 and 400 m depth along the continental shelf break, and associated habitat-based density modeling has identified similar habitat (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     approximately 100 to 400 m water depths along the continental shelf break) as being Rice's whale habitat (Garrison 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2023; Soldevilla 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2022, 2024). NMFS' 2026 proposed rule provided detailed discussion regarding Rice's whale habitat (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     91 FR 9014, 9026, February 24, 2026).
                </P>
                <P>TGS' planned activities will overlap this depth range, with approximately 10.5 percent of the area expected to be ensonified by the survey above root-mean-squared pressure received levels (RMS SPL) of 160 decibel (dB) (referenced to 1 micropascal (re 1 μPa)) overlapping the 100- to 400-m isobaths. Therefore, there is some reasonable potential for take of Rice's whale to occur in association with this survey and we are authorizing a group size of two Rice's whale takes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">APEX 2</HD>
                <P>TGS plans to conduct a 3D OBN survey over 436 lease blocks in the East Breaks, Alaminos Canyon, Keathley Canyon, and Garden Banks areas, with water depths ranging from approximately 50 to 2,500 m. See section F of the LOA application for a map of the area.</P>
                <P>TGS plans to use a low-frequency airgun source known as Gemini (also referred to as a dual barbell source). Gemini airgun arrays will fire using the “Seismic Apparition” method, with a single-source vessel towing six sources (100 m separation), firing within 120 milliseconds with a predetermined dither to each source; no sources will fire simultaneously at any time. Alternatively, Gemini airgun arrays will fire using “flip-flap-flop-flup” method with 2 to 3 seconds dither applied to each source. Please see TGS' application for additional details.</P>
                <P>
                    The Gemini was not included in the acoustic exposure modeling developed in support of the rule. However, the Gemini was described and evaluated in support of a previous LOA and we rely on that analysis here (88 FR 72739, October 23, 2023). For additional details regarding sources, see section C of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39074"/>
                    LOA application. Based on this information we have determined there will be no effects of magnitude or intensity different from those evaluated in support of the rule. NMFS therefore expects that use of modeling results supporting the final rule relating to use of airgun arrays is expected to be conservative as a proxy for use in evaluating potential impacts of use of the Gemini.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Consistent with the preamble to the 2026 final rule, the survey effort proposed by TGS in its LOA request was used to develop LOA-specific take estimates based on the acoustic exposure modeling results described in the preamble (91 FR 20784, April 17, 2026). In order to generate the appropriate take number for authorization, the following information was considered: (1) survey type; (2) location (by modeling zone); (3) number of days; (4) source; and (5) month.
                    <SU>ii</SU>
                     To determine the most appropriate proxy array from the exposure modeling, the directionally dependent source level in a plane parallel to the sea surface was compared to the three airgun array sources which were originally modeled, including the 4,130-, 5,110-, and 8,000-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     arrays. Out of these three proxies, the source which had the smallest relative error (arithmetic mean difference taken over the azimuthal or vessel bearing angle) was chosen as the most representative proxy. For a single 8,000-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     Gemini source, surface affected waveforms were modeled by TGS using Nucleus+. To approximate the acoustic energy from six elements, the SEL for each frequency and aspect was adjusted by a factor of 10*log
                    <E T="52">10</E>
                    (
                    <E T="03">N</E>
                    ), where 
                    <E T="03">N</E>
                     in this case is 6. The resulting spectra were used in the comparison tool. The results showed that the most comparable source was the 4,130-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     array. The Nucleus+ results indicate that the horizontal surface-affected SEL source level for a single 8,000-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     array is approximately 218.2 dB, while the additional 10*log
                    <E T="52">10</E>
                    (6) increases this to approximately 226 dB. Notably, the corresponding source level for the 4,130-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     source is approximately 232 dB. Thus, the total acoustic energy from six 8,000-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     Gemini sources remains lower than the conventional 4,130-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     array. The acoustic exposure modeling performed in support of the rule provides 24-hour exposure estimates for each species, specific to each modeled source and survey type in each zone and month.
                </P>
                <P>
                    No OBN surveys were included in the modeled survey types, and use of existing proxies (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     2D, 3D NAZ, 3D WAZ, Coil) is generally conservative for use in evaluation of 3D OBN survey effort, largely due to the greater area covered by the modeled proxies. Summary descriptions of these modeled survey geometries are available in the preamble to the proposed rule (91 FR 9014, 9018, February 24, 2026). Coil was selected as the best available proxy survey type in this case because the spatial coverage of the planned survey is most similar to the coil survey pattern. Among the different parameters of the modeled survey patterns (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     area covered, line spacing, number of sources, shot interval, total simulated pulses), NMFS considers area covered per day to be most influential on daily modeled exposures exceeding Level B harassment criteria. Although TGS is not proposing to perform a survey using the coil geometry, the coil proxy is most representative of the effort planned by TGS in terms of predicted Level B harassment exposures.
                </P>
                <P>The survey will take place over approximately 140 days with 90 days of sound source operation, including 85 days in zone 6 and 5 days in zone 5. The monthly distribution of survey days is not known in advance, though we assume that the planned 90 days of source operation would occur contiguously. Take estimates for each species are based on the time period that produces the greatest value.</P>
                <P>
                    For the Rice's whale, recent survey data, sightings, and acoustic data support Rice's whale occurrence in waters throughout the GOM between approximately 100 and 400 m depth along the continental shelf break, and associated habitat-based density modeling has identified similar habitat (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     approximately 100 to 400 m water depths along the continental shelf break) as being Rice's whale habitat (Garrison 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2023; Soldevilla 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2022, 2024). NMFS' 2026 proposed rule provided detailed discussion regarding Rice's whale habitat (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     91 FR 9014, 9026, February 24, 2026).
                </P>
                <P>TGS' planned activities will overlap this depth range, with approximately 12.1 percent of the area expected to be ensonified by the survey above RMS SPL of 160 dB (referenced to 1 micropascal (re 1 μPa)) overlapping the 100- to 400-m isobaths. Therefore, there is some reasonable potential for take of Rice's whale to occur in association with this survey. The generic acoustic exposure modeling results in one take of Rice's whales and we have rounded that up to a group size, authorizing two Rice's whale takes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">APEX 3</HD>
                <P>TGS plans to conduct a 3D OBN survey over 648 lease blocks in the East Breaks and Alaminos Canyon areas, with water depths ranging from approximately 900 to 2,800 m. See section F of the LOA application for a map of the area.</P>
                <P>TGS plans to use a low-frequency airgun source known as Gemini (also referred to as a dual barbell source). Gemini airgun arrays will fire using the “Seismic Apparition” method, with a single-source vessel towing six sources (100 m separation), firing within 120 milliseconds with a predetermined dither to each source; no sources will fire simultaneously at any time.</P>
                <P>The Gemini was not included in the acoustic exposure modeling developed in support of the rule. However, the Gemini was described and evaluated in support of a previous LOA, and we rely on that analysis here (88 FR 72739, October 23, 2023). For additional details regarding sources, see section C of the LOA application. Based on this information we have determined there will be no effects of magnitude or intensity different from those evaluated in support of the rule. NMFS therefore expects that use of modeling results supporting the final rule relating to use of airgun arrays is expected to be conservative as a proxy for use in evaluating potential impacts of use of the Gemini.</P>
                <P>
                    Consistent with the preamble to the 2026 final rule, the survey effort proposed by TGS in its LOA request was used to develop LOA-specific take estimates based on the acoustic exposure modeling results described in the preamble (91 FR 20784, April 17, 2026). In order to generate the appropriate take number for authorization, the following information was considered: (1) survey type; (2) location (by modeling zone 
                    <SU>i</SU>
                    ); (3) number of days; (4) source; and (5) month.
                    <SU>ii</SU>
                     To determine the most appropriate proxy array from the exposure modeling, the directionally dependent source level in a plane parallel to the sea surface was compared to the three airgun array sources which were originally modeled, including the 4,130-, 5,110-, and 8,000-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     arrays. Out of these three proxies, the source which had the smallest relative error (arithmetic mean difference taken over the azimuthal or vessel bearing angle) was chosen as the most representative proxy. For a single 8,000-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     Gemini source, surface affected waveforms were modeled by TGS using Nucleus+. To approximate the acoustic energy from six elements, the SEL for each frequency and aspect was adjusted by a factor of 10*log
                    <E T="52">10</E>
                    (
                    <E T="03">N</E>
                    ), where 
                    <E T="03">N</E>
                     in this case is 6. The resulting spectra were used in the comparison tool. The results showed that the most comparable source was the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39075"/>
                    4,130-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     array. The Nucleus+ results indicate that the horizontal surface-affected SEL source level for a single 8,000-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     array is approximately 218.2 dB, while the additional 10*log
                    <E T="52">10</E>
                    (6) increases this to approximately 226 dB. Notably, the corresponding source level for the 4,130-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     source is approximately 232 dB. Thus, the total acoustic energy from six 8,000-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     Gemini sources remains lower than the conventional 4,130-in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     array. The acoustic exposure modeling performed in support of the rule provides 24-hour exposure estimates for each species, specific to each modeled source and survey type in each zone and month.
                </P>
                <P>
                    No OBN surveys were included in the modeled survey types, and use of existing proxies (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     2D, 3D NAZ, 3D WAZ, Coil) is generally conservative for use in evaluation of 3D OBN survey effort, largely due to the greater area covered by the modeled proxies. Summary descriptions of these modeled survey geometries are available in the preamble to the proposed rule (91 FR 9014, 9018, February 24, 2026). Coil was selected as the best available proxy survey type in this case because the spatial coverage of the planned survey is most similar to the coil survey pattern. Among the different parameters of the modeled survey patterns (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     area covered, line spacing, number of sources, shot interval, total simulated pulses), NMFS considers area covered per day to be most influential on daily modeled exposures exceeding Level B harassment criteria. Although TGS is not proposing to perform a survey using the coil geometry, the coil proxy is most representative of the effort planned by TGS in terms of predicted Level B harassment exposures.
                </P>
                <P>The survey will take place over approximately 180 days with 107 days of sound source operation, including 93 days in zone 6 and 14 days in zone 7. The monthly distribution of survey days is not known in advance, though we assume that the planned 107 days of source operation would occur contiguously. Take estimates for each species are based on the time period that produces the greatest value.</P>
                <P>
                    For the Rice's whale, take estimates based on the modeling yielded results that are not realistically likely to occur when considered in light of other relevant information concerning Rice's whale habitat preferences considered during the rulemaking process. NMFS' proposed rule provided detailed discussion regarding Rice's whale habitat (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     91 FR 9014, 9026, February 24, 2026). In summary, recent survey data, sightings, and acoustic data support Rice's whale occurrence in waters throughout the GOA between approximately 100 and 400 m depth along the continental shelf break, and associated habitat-based density modeling has identified similar habitat (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     approximately 100 to 400 m water depths along the continental shelf break) as being Rice's whale habitat (Garrison 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2023; Soldevilla 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2022, 2024).
                </P>
                <P>Although Rice's whales may occur outside of the general depth range expected to provide suitable habitat, we expect that any such occurrence would be rare. TGS' planned activities will occur in water depths of approximately 900-2,800 m in the central GOA. Thus, NMFS does not expect that take of Rice's whale is likely in association with this survey and, accordingly, does not authorize take of Rice's whale through the LOA.</P>
                <P>Based on the results of our analysis, NMFS has determined that the level of taking expected for each survey and authorized through each of the LOAs is consistent with the findings made for the total taking allowable under the regulations. See table 1 in this notice and table 7 of the rule (91 FR 20784, April 17, 2026).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Small Numbers Determination</HD>
                <P>Under the rule, NMFS may not authorize incidental take of marine mammals in an LOA if it will exceed “small numbers.” In short, when an acceptable estimate of the individual marine mammals taken is available, if the estimated number of individual animals taken is up to, but not greater than, one-third of the best available abundance estimate, NMFS will determine that the numbers of marine mammals taken of a species or stock are small (91 FR 20784, April 17, 2026). For more information, please see NMFS' discussion of small numbers in the 2026 final rule (91 FR 20784, April 17, 2026).</P>
                <P>For TGS' respective surveys, the take numbers for authorization are determined as described above in the Summary of Requests and Analysis section. Subsequently, the total incidents of harassment for each species are multiplied by scalar ratios (except in the cases where the take estimate has been rounded up to reflect a group size) to produce a derived product that better reflects the number of individuals likely to be taken within a survey (as compared to the total number of instances of take), accounting for the likelihood that some individual marine mammals may be taken on more than 1 day (91 FR 20784, April 17, 2026). The output of this scaling, where appropriate, is incorporated into adjusted total take estimates that are the basis for NMFS' small numbers determinations, as depicted in tables 1-3.</P>
                <P>
                    This product is used by NMFS in making the necessary small numbers determinations through comparison with the best available abundance estimates (see discussion at 91 FR 20784, 20812, April 17, 2026). For this comparison, NMFS' approach is to use the maximum theoretical population, determined through review of current stock assessment reports (SAR; 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/marine-mammal-stock-assessments</E>
                    ) and model-predicted abundance information (
                    <E T="03">https://seamap.env.duke.edu/models/SEFSC/GOM/</E>
                    ). Information supporting the small numbers determinations is provided in tables 1-3.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>
                        Table 1—Amendment 3 Survey Take Analysis 
                        <SU>1</SU>
                    </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Species</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Authorized take</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Scaled take 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Abundance 
                            <SU>2</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Percent
                            <LI>abundance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Rice's whale</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>51</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">Kogia</E>
                             spp.
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             429
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>129</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,385</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Atlantic spotted dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>837</ENT>
                        <ENT>240</ENT>
                        <ENT>21,506</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Bottlenose dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,851</ENT>
                        <ENT>818</ENT>
                        <ENT>166,538</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Clymene dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,455</ENT>
                        <ENT>705</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,136</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Beaked whales</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,272</ENT>
                        <ENT>330</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,038</ENT>
                        <ENT>31.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Fraser's dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,066</ENT>
                        <ENT>306</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,665</ENT>
                        <ENT>18.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Blackfish 
                            <SU>4</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>6,779</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,535</ENT>
                        <ENT>21</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Pantropical spotted dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>27,328</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,843</ENT>
                        <ENT>50,209</ENT>
                        <ENT>15.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Risso's dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>798</ENT>
                        <ENT>236</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,974</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Rough-toothed dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,791</ENT>
                        <ENT>801</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,853</ENT>
                        <ENT>16.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="39076"/>
                        <ENT I="01">Short-finned pilot whale</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,160</ENT>
                        <ENT>342</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,277</ENT>
                        <ENT>10.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Sperm whale</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,092</ENT>
                        <ENT>462</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,451</ENT>
                        <ENT>18.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Spinner dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>530</ENT>
                        <ENT>152</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,991</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Striped dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,989</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,006</ENT>
                        <ENT>16,102</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Scalar ratios were applied to “Authorized Take” values as described at 91 FR 20784 (April 17, 2026) to derive scaled take numbers shown here.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         Best abundance estimate. For most taxa, the best abundance estimate for purposes of comparison with take estimates is considered here to be the model-predicted abundance (Garrison 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). For Rice's whale, Atlantic spotted dolphin, spinner dolphin, and Risso's dolphin, the estimated SAR abundance estimate is used.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Includes 26 takes by Level A harassment and 403 takes by Level B harassment. Scalar ratio is applied to takes by Level B harassment only; small numbers determination made on basis of scaled Level B harassment take plus authorized Level A harassment take.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The “blackfish” guild includes melon-headed whales, false killer whales, pygmy killer whales, and killer whales.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>
                        Table 2—APEX 2 Survey Take Analysis 
                        <SU>1</SU>
                    </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Species</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Authorized take</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Scaled take 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Abundance 
                            <SU>2</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Percent 
                            <LI>abundance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Rice's whale</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>51</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">Kogia</E>
                             spp.
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             258
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>79</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,385</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Atlantic spotted dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,156</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,193</ENT>
                        <ENT>21,506</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Bottlenose dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,592</ENT>
                        <ENT>744</ENT>
                        <ENT>166,538</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Clymene dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,116</ENT>
                        <ENT>894</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,136</ENT>
                        <ENT>14.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Beaked whales</ENT>
                        <ENT>400</ENT>
                        <ENT>40</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,038</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Fraser's dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>744</ENT>
                        <ENT>214</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,665</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Blackfish 
                            <SU>4</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>5,028</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,483</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,535</ENT>
                        <ENT>15.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Pantropical spotted dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,318</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,535</ENT>
                        <ENT>50,209</ENT>
                        <ENT>7</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Risso's dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>486</ENT>
                        <ENT>143</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,974</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.3</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Rough-toothed dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,877</ENT>
                        <ENT>539</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,853</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Short-finned pilot whale</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,494</ENT>
                        <ENT>736</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,277</ENT>
                        <ENT>22.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Sperm whale</ENT>
                        <ENT>682</ENT>
                        <ENT>289</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,451</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Spinner dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>34</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,991</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.3</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Striped dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,011</ENT>
                        <ENT>577</ENT>
                        <ENT>16,102</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Scalar ratios were applied to “Authorized Take” values as described 91 FR 20784, 20818 (April 17, 2026) to derive scaled take numbers shown here.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         Best abundance estimate. For most taxa, the best abundance estimate for purposes of comparison with take estimates is considered here to be the model-predicted abundance (Garrison 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). For Rice's whale, Atlantic spotted dolphin, spinner dolphin, and Risso's dolphin, the estimated SAR abundance estimate is used.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Includes 13 takes by Level A harassment and 245 takes by Level B harassment. Scalar ratio is applied to takes by Level B harassment only; small numbers determination made on basis of scaled Level B harassment take plus authorized Level A harassment take.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The “blackfish” guild includes melon-headed whales, false killer whales, pygmy killer whales, and killer whales.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>
                        Table 3—APEX 3 Survey Take Analysis 
                        <SU>1</SU>
                    </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Species</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Authorized take</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Scaled take 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Abundance 
                            <SU>2</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Percent 
                            <LI>abundance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Rice's whale</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>51</ENT>
                        <ENT>n/a</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">Kogia</E>
                             spp.
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             329
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,385</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Atlantic spotted dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,489</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,288</ENT>
                        <ENT>21,506</ENT>
                        <ENT>6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Bottlenose dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,659</ENT>
                        <ENT>763</ENT>
                        <ENT>166,538</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Clymene dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,724</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,069</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,136</ENT>
                        <ENT>17.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Beaked whales</ENT>
                        <ENT>305</ENT>
                        <ENT>31</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,038</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Fraser's dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>850</ENT>
                        <ENT>244</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,665</ENT>
                        <ENT>14.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Blackfish 
                            <SU>4</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>5,882</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,735</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,535</ENT>
                        <ENT>18.2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Pantropical spotted dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,251</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,516</ENT>
                        <ENT>50,209</ENT>
                        <ENT>7</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Risso's dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>523</ENT>
                        <ENT>154</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,974</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Rough-toothed dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,102</ENT>
                        <ENT>603</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,853</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Short-finned pilot whale</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,623</ENT>
                        <ENT>774</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,277</ENT>
                        <ENT>23.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Sperm whale</ENT>
                        <ENT>770</ENT>
                        <ENT>326</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,451</ENT>
                        <ENT>13.3</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Spinner dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>46</ENT>
                        <ENT>13</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,991</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Striped dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,117</ENT>
                        <ENT>895</ENT>
                        <ENT>16,102</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Scalar ratios were applied to “Authorized Take” values as described at 91 FR 20784, 20818 (April 17, 2026) to derive scaled take numbers shown here.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         Best abundance estimate. For most taxa, the best abundance estimate for purposes of comparison with take estimates is considered here to be the model-predicted abundance (Garrison 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). For Rice's whale, Atlantic spotted dolphin, spinner dolphin, and Risso's dolphin, the estimated SAR abundance estimate is used.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Includes 18 takes by Level A harassment and 311 takes by Level B harassment. Scalar ratio is applied to takes by Level B harassment only; small numbers determination made on basis of scaled Level B harassment take plus authorized Level A harassment take.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The “blackfish” guild includes melon-headed whales, false killer whales, pygmy killer whales, and killer whales.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="39077"/>
                <P>
                    Based on the analysis contained herein of TGS' planned survey activities described in their respective LOA applications and the anticipated take of marine mammals, NMFS finds that for each LOA, small numbers of marine mammals will be taken relative to the affected species or stock sizes (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     less than one-third of the best available abundance estimate) and therefore the taking is of no more than small numbers for each LOA.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authorization</HD>
                <P>NMFS has determined that the level of taking for each LOA request is consistent with the findings made for the total taking allowable under the ITRs and that the amount of take authorized under each LOA is of no more than small numbers. Accordingly, we have issued three LOAs TGS, authorizing the take of marine mammals incidental to its geophysical survey activity, as described above.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Kimberly Damon-Randall,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Endnotes</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Pursuant to Executive Order 14172, “Restoring Names That Honor American Greatness,” and Department of the Interior Secretarial Order 3423, “The Gulf of America,” the body of water formerly known as the Gulf of Mexico is now called the Gulf of America.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         For purposes of acoustic exposure modeling, the GOA was divided into seven zones. Zone 1 is not included in the geographic scope of the rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Acoustic propagation modeling was performed for two seasons: Winter (December-March) and Summer (April-November). Marine mammal density data is generally available on a monthly basis, and therefore further refines take estimates temporally.
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-12985 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE </AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration </SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF835] </DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Fisheries of the South Atlantic; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review; Public Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce. </P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of review workshop.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The review of the Southeast Data Assessment and Review (SEDAR) 104 Atlantic Dolphinfish Management Strategy Evaluation (MSE) will be conducted via an in person Review Workshop. See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        . 
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The SEDAR 104 Review Workshop will be held from 8:30 a.m. on July 28, 2026, until 12 p.m. on July 31, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting address:</E>
                         The SEDAR 104 Review Workshop will be held at the Hilton Garden Inn Charleston Airport Hotel, 5265 International Boulevard, North Charleston, SC 29418. 
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">SEDAR address:</E>
                         4055 Faber Place Drive, Suite 201, North Charleston, SC 29405.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Emily Ott, SEDAR Coordinator; (843) 302-8434. Email: 
                        <E T="03">Emily.Ott@safmc.net.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Gulf, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils, in conjunction with NOAA Fisheries and the Atlantic and Gulf States Marine Fisheries Commissions have implemented the SEDAR process, a multi-step method for determining the status of fish stocks in the Southeast Region. This MSE project is separate from traditional data collection processes used to inform stock assessments. Rather than producing a traditional stock assessment, this MSE will generate both an operating model and management procedures to inform stock status and management implications. Participants for SEDAR Workshops are appointed by the Gulf, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils and NOAA Fisheries Southeast Regional Office, Highly Migratory Species Management Division, and Southeast Fisheries Science Center. Participants include data collectors and database managers; stock assessment scientists, biologists, and researchers; constituency representatives including fishermen, environmentalists, and non-governmental organizations; International experts; and staff of Councils, Commissions, and state and Federal agencies. </P>
                <P>The items of discussion in the Review Workshop are as follows: Participants will evaluate the management strategy evaluation operating model report, as specified in the Terms of Reference for the workshop and determine if they are scientifically sound. </P>
                <P>Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency. </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Accommodations </HD>
                <P>
                    These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to the Council office (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ) at least 5 business days prior to each workshop. 
                </P>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P>The times and sequence specified in this agenda are subject to change.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     16 U.S.C. 1801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 25, 2026. </DATED>
                    <NAME>Rey Israel Marquez,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13070 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF832]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Fisheries of the Gulf of America; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review; Public Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of review workshop.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Southeast Data Assessment and Review (SEDAR) 100 assessment process of Gulf gray triggerfish will consist of a Data Workshop, and a series of assessment webinars, and a Review Workshop. See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The SEDAR 100 Review Workshop will be held from 8:30 a.m. on August 11, 2026, until 12 p.m. on August 14, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting address:</E>
                         The SEDAR 100 Review Workshop will be held at the Hilton Tampa Airport Westshore, 2225 N Lois Ave., Tampa, FL 33607.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">SEDAR address:</E>
                         4055 Faber Place Drive, Suite 201, North Charleston, SC 29405.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Julie A. Neer, SEDAR Coordinator; (843) 571-4366. Email: 
                        <E T="03">Julie.neer@safmc.net.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The Gulf, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39078"/>
                    Management Councils, in conjunction with NOAA Fisheries and the Atlantic and Gulf States Marine Fisheries Commissions have implemented the SEDAR process, a multi-step method for determining the status of fish stocks in the Southeast Region. SEDAR is a multi-step process including: (1) Data/Assessment Workshop, and (2) a series of webinars. The product of the Data/Assessment Workshop is a report which compiles and evaluates potential datasets and recommends which datasets are appropriate for assessment analyses, and describes the fisheries, evaluates the status of the stock, estimates biological benchmarks, projects future population conditions, and recommends research and monitoring needs. Participants for SEDAR Workshops are appointed by the Gulf, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils and NOAA Fisheries Southeast Regional Office, Highly Migratory Species Management Division, and Southeast Fisheries Science Center. Participants include data collectors and database managers; stock assessment scientists, biologists, and researchers; constituency representatives including fishermen, environmentalists, and non-governmental organizations; International experts; and staff of Councils, Commissions, and state and Federal agencies.
                </P>
                <P>The items of discussion in the Review Workshop are as follows: Participants will evaluate the data and assessment reports, as specified in the Terms of Reference for the workshop and determine if they are scientifically sound.</P>
                <P>Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Accommodations</HD>
                <P>
                    These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to the Council office (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ) at least 5 business days prior to each workshop.
                </P>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P>The times and sequence specified in this agenda are subject to change.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     16 U.S.C. 1801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 25, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Rey Israel Marquez,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13069 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration </SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF815]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Caribbean Fishery Management Council's Scientific and Statistical Committee; Public Virtual Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of a public virtual meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Caribbean Fishery Management Council's (Council) Scientific and Statistical Committee (SSC) will hold a 2-day virtual meeting to address the items contained in the tentative agenda included in the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The SSC public virtual meeting will be held on July 7, 2026, from 1 p.m. to 5 p.m. Atlantic Standard Time (AST), and July 8, 2026, from 1 p.m. to 4 p.m. AST.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        You may join the SSC public virtual meeting via Zoom from a computer or smartphone by entering the following address: 
                        <E T="03">https://us02web.zoom.us/j/86455058952?pwd=psvKKywIKu5yD2nDiY3iTB1lu2bafC.1</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    <E T="03">Meeting ID:</E>
                     864 5505 8952
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    <E T="03">Passcode:</E>
                     667127
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">One tap mobile</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">+17193594580,,86455058952#,,,,*667127# US</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">+12532050468,,86455058952#,,,,*667127# US</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Dial by your location</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• +1 719 359 4580 US</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• +1 301 715 8592 US (Washington DC)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• +1 669 900 9128 US (San Jose)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• +1 787 945 1488 Puerto Rico</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• +1 939 945 0244 Puerto Rico</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    <E T="03">Meeting ID:</E>
                     864 5505 8952
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    <E T="03">Passcode:</E>
                     667127
                </FP>
                <P>
                    Find your local number: 
                    <E T="03">https://us02web.zoom.us/u/kbsxt9K6S</E>
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Join by SIP</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                    • 
                    <E T="03">86455058952@zoomcrc.com</E>
                </FP>
                <P>
                    In case of problems with ZOOM, please join the meeting via GoToMeeting by entering the following address: 
                    <E T="03">https://meet.goto.com/768055309.</E>
                </P>
                <P>You can also dial in using your phone. Access Code: 200-609-301; United States: +1 (224) 501-3412.</P>
                <P>
                    Get the app now and be ready when your first meeting starts: 
                    <E T="03">https://meet.goto.com/install.</E>
                </P>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Graciela García-Moliner, Caribbean Fishery Management Council, 270 Muñoz Rivera Avenue, Suite 401, San Juan, Puerto Rico 00918-1903, telephone: (787) 766-5926.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The following items included in the tentative agenda will be discussed:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">July 7, 2026</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">1 p.m.—1:15 p.m.</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Call to Order</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Roll Call</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Adoption of Agenda</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Approval of the April 8-10, 2026 Minutes</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">1:15 p.m.—2:45 p.m.</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Revisit Overfishing Limits and Acceptable Biological Catch Recommendations for the SEDAR 91 U.S. Caribbean Spiny Lobster Puerto Rico Assessment</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">2:45 p.m.—3 p.m.</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Break</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">3 p.m.—5 p.m.</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Discuss Request for an Interim Update to the SEDAR 91 U.S. Caribbean Spiny Lobster St. Thomas and St. John</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Abundance Index Presentation</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Assessment Model Presentation</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">5 p.m.</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Adjourn for the Day</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">July 8, 2026</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">1 p.m.—1:45 p.m.</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Update on Spiny Lobster Workshop</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">1:45 p.m.—3 p.m.</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Discuss Methods for Standardizing and Documenting SSC Decisions and Requests</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">3 p.m.—3:15 p.m.</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Break</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">3:15 p.m.—3:45 p.m.</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Review and Approve the SEDAR 103 Review Workshop Terms of Reference</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">3:45 p.m.—4 p.m.</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Other Business</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Next Meeting</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">4 p.m.</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Adjourn</FP>
                <P>
                    The order of business may be adjusted as necessary to accommodate the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39079"/>
                    completion of agenda items. The meeting will begin on July 7, 2026, at 1 p.m. AST, and will end on July 8, 2026, at 4 p.m. AST. Other than the start time, interested parties should be aware that discussions may start earlier or later than indicated, at the discretion of the Chair. In addition, the meeting may be completed prior to the date established in this notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Accommodations</HD>
                <P>For any additional information on this public virtual meeting, please contact Dr. Graciela García-Moliner, Caribbean Fishery Management Council, 270 Muñoz Rivera Avenue, Suite 401, San Juan, Puerto Rico, 00918-1903, telephone: (787) 403-8337.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>
                        (Authority: 16 U.S.C. 1801 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        )
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Rey Israel Marquez,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-12987 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF856] </DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Fisheries of the South Atlantic; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review; Public Meeting </SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P> Notice of webinar.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Southeast Data Assessment and Review (SEDAR) 90 assessment process of South Atlantic Red Snapper will consist of a Data Workshop, a series of Assessment Webinars, and a Review Workshop. See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION.</E>
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The SEDAR 90 Assessment Webinar 8 will be held from 9 a.m. until 12 p.m. EDT July 24, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">SEDAR address:</E>
                         4055 Faber Place Drive, Suite 201, North Charleston, SC 29405. 
                        <E T="03">www.sedarweb.org. Meeting address:</E>
                         The SEDAR 90 Assessment Webinar 8 will be held via webinar. The webinar is open to members of the public. The established times may be adjusted as necessary to accommodate the timely completion of discussion relevant to the assessment process. Such adjustments may result in the meeting being extended from or completed prior to the time established by this notice.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Emily Ott, SEDAR Coordinator; (843) 302-8434. Email: 
                        <E T="03">Emily.Ott@safmc.net.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Gulf, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils, in conjunction with the NMFS and the Atlantic and Gulf States Marine Fisheries Commissions have implemented the SEDAR process. SEDAR is a participatory process for developing, evaluating and reviewing information used for fisheries management advice. This multi-step process for determining the status of fish stocks in the Southeast Region may include (1) a Data stage, and (2) an Assessment stage, and (3) a Review stage. Each stage produces a report summarizing decisions made during that stage. A final stock assessment report is produced at the end of a SEDAR process documenting data sets used, model configurations and the opinions from the independent peer review. Participants for SEDAR projects are appointed by the Gulf, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils and National Marine Fisheries Service Southeast Regional Office, Highly Migratory Species Management Division, and Southeast Fisheries Science Center. Participants may include data collectors and database managers; stock assessment scientists, biologists, and researchers; constituency representatives including fishermen, environmentalists, and non-governmental organizations; International experts; and staff of Councils, Commissions, and state and Federal agencies.</P>
                <P>The items of discussion in the SEDAR 90 Assessment Webinar 8 are as follows:</P>
                <P>Participants will review recommendations made on assessment webinar 7, continue discussion of new modeling topics. Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Accommodations</HD>
                <P>
                    These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to the Council office (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ) at least 5 business days prior to each workshop.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Note:</E>
                     The times and sequence specified in this agenda are subject to change.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>
                        (Authority: 16 U.S.C. 1801 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        )
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 25, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Rey Israel Marquez,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13074 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF846]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>South Atlantic Fishery Management Council (Council)—Public Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The South Atlantic Fishery Management Council (Council) will hold meetings of the System Management Plan Workgroup on July 9, 2026, and July 22, 2026.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The System Management Plan Workgroup meetings will be held via webinar on July 9, 2026. from 2 p.m. until 4 p.m. EDT and July 22, 2026, from 1 p.m. until 4 p.m., EDT.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting address:</E>
                         The meetings will be held via webinar. Registration is required. Webinar registration, an online public comment form, and briefing book materials will be available 2 weeks prior to the meeting at: 
                        <E T="03">https://safmc.net/workgroups/.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Council address:</E>
                         South Atlantic Fishery Management Council, 4055 Faber Place Drive, Suite 201, N. Charleston, SC 29405.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Chip Collier, Deputy Director, phone (843) 302-8444 or toll free (866) SAFMC-10; FAX (843) 769-4520; email: 
                        <E T="03">chip.collier@sasfmc.net.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The Council formed the System Management Plan Workgroup to evaluate protected areas including the Spawning Special Management Zones and Deepwater Marine Protected Areas. During the meeting representatives from the snapper grouper fishery, National Marine Fisheries Service staff, Council staff, state agency staff, and researchers will review information available for 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39080"/>
                    Spawning Special Management Zones, an evaluation tool for the zones, and develop an evaluation of the zones. The workgroup will provide recommendations on management of the Spawning Special Management Zones.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Accommodations</HD>
                <P>
                    These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for auxiliary aid should be directed to the Council office (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ) 5 days prior to the meeting.
                </P>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P> The times and sequence specified in this agenda are subject to change.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>
                        (Authority: 16 U.S.C. 1801 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        )
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Rey Israel Marquez,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-12984 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF834]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Taking and Importing Marine Mammals; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to Geophysical Surveys Related to Oil and Gas Activities in the Gulf of America</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; issuance of Letters of Authorization.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA), as amended, its implementing regulations, and NMFS' MMPA regulations for taking marine mammals incidental to geophysical surveys related to oil and gas activities in the Gulf of America (GOA), notification is hereby given that NMFS has issued two separate Letters of Authorization (LOAs) to WesternGeco, LLC (WesternGeco), for the take of marine mammals incidental to geophysical survey activity in the GOA.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>One LOA issued to WesternGeco is effective from July 1, 2026, through February 29, 2027. The other LOA issued to WesternGeco is effective from August 1, 2026, through March 31, 2027.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The LOAs, LOA requests, and supporting documentation are available online at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/action/incidental-take-authorization-oil-and-gas-industry-geophysical-survey.</E>
                         In case of problems accessing these documents, please call the contact listed below (see 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Jenna Harlacher, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8401.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    Sections 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) direct the Secretary of Commerce to allow, upon request, the incidental, but not intentional, taking of small numbers of marine mammals by U.S. citizens who engage in a specified activity (other than commercial fishing) within a specified geographical region if certain findings are made and either regulations are issued or, if the taking is limited to harassment, a notice of a proposed authorization is provided to the public for review.
                </P>
                <P>An authorization for incidental takings shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s), will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for subsistence uses (where relevant), and if the permissible methods of taking and requirements pertaining to the mitigation, monitoring and reporting of such takings are set forth. NMFS has defined “negligible impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.</P>
                <P>Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, the MMPA defines “harassment” as: any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).</P>
                <P>
                    On January 19, 2021, we issued a final rule with regulations to govern the unintentional taking of marine mammals incidental to geophysical survey activities conducted by oil and gas industry operators, and those persons authorized to conduct activities on their behalf (collectively “industry operators”), in U.S. waters of the GOA 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     over the course of 5 years (86 FR 5322, January 19, 2021). The rule was based on our findings that the total taking from the specified activities over the 5-year period will have a negligible impact on the affected species or stock(s) of marine mammals and will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of those species or stocks for subsistence uses, and became effective on April 19, 2021.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Pursuant to Executive Order 14172, “Restoring Names That Honor American Greatness,” and Department of the Interior Secretarial Order 3423, “The Gulf of America,” the body of water formerly known as the Gulf of Mexico is now called the Gulf of America.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The regulations at 50 CFR 217.180 allow for the issuance of LOAs to industry operators for the incidental take of marine mammals during geophysical survey activities and prescribe the permissible methods of taking and other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact on marine mammal species or stocks and their habitat (often referred to as mitigation), as well as requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking. Under 50 CFR 217.186(e), issuance of an LOA shall be based on a determination that the level of taking will be consistent with the findings made for the total taking allowable under these regulations and a determination that the amount of take authorized under the LOA is of no more than small numbers.</P>
                <P>NMFS subsequently discovered that the 2021 rule was based on erroneous take estimates. We conducted another rulemaking using correct take estimates and other newly available and pertinent information relevant to the analyses supporting some of the findings in the 2021 final rule and the taking allowable under the regulations. We issued a final rule in April 2024, effective May 24, 2024 (89 FR 31488, April 24, 2024).</P>
                <P>On August 28, 2025, NMFS Office of Protected Resources (OPR) received a request from NMFS Office of Policy (Policy) for reimplementation of the current Incidental Take Regulation (ITR) to avoid a lapse in ITRs offering incidental take coverage for GOA geophysical survey activities. On October 20, 2025, Bureau of Ocean Energy Management (the original petitioner for the current ITRs) submitted a request to be included in the process as a co-petitioner. In response to these requests, NMFS issued a new final rule, effective April 20, 2026, through April 19, 2031 (91 FR 20784, April 17, 2026).</P>
                <P>
                    The reimplementation of the regulations continues the established framework for authorization of incidental take through LOAs. The final 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39081"/>
                    rule made no changes to the specified activities or the specified geographical region in which those activities would be conducted, and there are no changes to the associated mitigation, monitoring, and reporting requirements.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Requests and Analysis</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Engagement 12</HD>
                <P>WesternGeco plans to conduct a long offset sparse ocean bottom node (OBN) survey over 1,446 lease blocks in the Green Canyon, Walker Ridge and Atwater Valley areas, with water depths ranging from approximately 256 to 3,370 m. See section F of the LOA application for a map of the area.</P>
                <P>
                    WesternGeco plans to use one of the following source configurations: a low-frequency airgun source known as Gemini (also referred to as a dual barbell source), or a conventional airgun array source consisting of 28 elements with a total volume of 5,000 cubic inches (in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    ) (0.082 cubic meter) and a low-frequency tuned pulse source (TPS) in tandem. Please see WesternGeco's application for additional details.
                </P>
                <P>The Gemini and TPS were not included in the acoustic exposure modeling developed in support of the rule. However, the Gemini was described and evaluated in support of a previous LOA (88 FR 72739, October 23, 2023) and the TPS was previously described and evaluated in support of previous LOAs (86 FR 37309, 37310, July 15, 2021; 87 FR 55790, 55791, September 12, 2022). We rely on the prior analyses for the Gemini and TPS here. For additional details regarding sources, see section C of the LOA application. Based on this information we have determined there will be no effects of a magnitude or intensity different from those evaluated in support of the rule. NMFS therefore expects that use of modeling results supporting the final rule relating to use of airgun arrays is expected to be conservative as a proxy for use in evaluating potential impacts of use of the Gemini or TPS.</P>
                <P>
                    Consistent with the preamble to the 2026 final rule, the survey effort proposed by WesternGeco in its LOA request was used to develop LOA-specific take estimates based on the acoustic exposure modeling results described in the preamble (91 FR 20784, April 17, 2026). In order to generate the appropriate take number for authorization, the following information was considered: (1) survey type; (2) location (by modeling zone 
                    <SU>i</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    ); (3) number of days; (4) source; and (5) month 
                    <SU>ii</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    . To determine the most appropriate proxy array from the exposure modeling, the directionally dependent source level in a plane parallel to the sea surface was compared to the three airgun array sources that were originally modeled, including the 4,130, 5,110, and 8,000 in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     arrays. Out of these three proxies, the source that had the smallest relative error (arithmetic mean difference taken over the azimuthal or vessel bearing angle) was chosen as the most representative proxy. In this case, because WesternGeco may elect to use the specified 28-element, 5,000 in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     airgun array source, the 5,110 in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     had the lowest mean error (1.1 decibels (dB)) and was the airgun array proxy that was selected. The acoustic exposure modeling performed in support of the rule provides 24-hour exposure estimates for each species, specific to each modeled source and survey type in each zone and month.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>i</SU>
                         For purposes of acoustic exposure modeling, the GOA was divided into seven zones. Zone 1 is not included in the geographic scope of the rule.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>ii</SU>
                         Acoustic propagation modeling was performed for two seasons: Winter (December-March) and Summer (April-November). Marine mammal density data is generally available on a monthly basis, and therefore further refines take estimates temporally.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    No OBN surveys were included in the modeled survey types, and use of existing proxies (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     2D, 3D NAZ, 3D WAZ, Coil) is generally conservative for use in evaluation of 3D OBN survey effort, largely due to the greater area covered by the modeled proxies. Summary descriptions of these modeled survey geometries are available in the preamble to the proposed rule (91 FR 9014, 9018, February 24, 2026). Coil was selected as the best available proxy survey type in this case because the spatial coverage of the planned survey is most similar to the coil survey pattern. The planned OBN survey will involve two source vessels sailing along closely spaced survey lines, with daily survey area coverage of approximately 110 square kilometers (km
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    ) per day, similar to that assumed for the coil survey proxy. Among the different parameters of the modeled survey patterns (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     area covered, line spacing, number of sources, shot interval, total simulated pulses), NMFS considers area covered per day to be most influential on daily modeled exposures exceeding Level B harassment criteria. Although WesternGeco is not proposing to perform a survey using the coil geometry, the coil proxy is most representative of the effort planned by WesternGeco in terms of predicted Level B harassment exposures.
                </P>
                <P>The survey will take place over approximately 140 days with 100 days of sound source operation, including 53 days in Zone 5 and 47 days in Zone 7. The monthly distribution of survey days is not known in advance, though we assume that the planned 100 days of source operation would occur contiguously. Take estimates for each species are based on the time period that produces the greatest value.</P>
                <P>
                    For the Rice's whale, recent survey data, sightings, and acoustic data support Rice's whale occurrence in waters throughout the GOM between approximately 100 m and 400 m depth along the continental shelf break, and associated habitat-based density modeling has identified similar habitat (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     approximately 100 to 400 meter (m) water depths along the continental shelf break) as being Rice's whale habitat (Garrison 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2023; Soldevilla 
                    <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                     2022, 2024). NMFS' 2026 proposed rule provided detailed discussion regarding Rice's whale habitat (see, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     91 FR 9014, 9026, February 24, 2026).
                </P>
                <P>WesternGeco's planned activities will overlap this depth range, with approximately 0.6 percent of the area expected to be ensonified by the survey above root-mean-squared pressure received levels (RMS SPL) of 160 dB (referenced to 1 micropascal (re 1 μPa)) overlapping the 100-400 m isobaths. Therefore, there is some reasonable potential for take of Rice's whale to occur in association with this survey. The generic acoustic exposure modeling results in one take of Rice's whales and we have rounded that up to a group size, authorizing two Rice's whale takes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Engagement 13</HD>
                <P>WesternGeco plans to conduct a long offset sparse OBN survey over 1,153 lease blocks in the Green Canyon and Walker Ridge areas, with water depths ranging from approximately 100 to 3,100 m. See section F of the LOA application for a map of the area.</P>
                <P>
                    WesternGeco plans to use one of the following source configurations: a low-frequency airgun source known as Gemini (also referred to as a dual barbell source), or a conventional airgun array source consisting of 28 elements with a total volume of 5,000 in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     and a low-frequency tuned pulse source (TPS) in tandem. Please see WesternGeco's application for additional details.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Gemini and TPS were not included in the acoustic exposure modeling developed in support of the rule. However, the Gemini was described and evaluated in support of a previous LOA (88 FR 72739, October 23, 2023) and the TPS was previously described and evaluated in support of previous LOAs (86 FR 37309, 37310, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39082"/>
                    July 15, 2021; 87 FR 55790, 55791, September 12, 2022), and we rely on those analyses here. For additional details regarding sources, see section C of the LOA application. Based on this information we have determined there will be no effects of a magnitude or intensity different from those evaluated in support of the rule. NMFS therefore expects that use of modeling results supporting the final rule relating to use of airgun arrays is expected to be conservative as a proxy for use in evaluating potential impacts of use of the Gemini and TPS.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Consistent with the preamble to the final rule, the survey effort proposed by WesternGeco in its LOA request was used to develop LOA-specific take estimates based on the acoustic exposure modeling results described in the preamble (91 FR 20784, April 17, 2026). In order to generate the appropriate take number for authorization, the following information was considered: (1) survey type; (2) location (by modeling zone 
                    <SU>i</SU>
                    ); (3) number of days; (4) source; and (5) month 
                    <SU>ii</SU>
                    . To determine the most appropriate proxy array from the exposure modeling, the directionally dependent source level in a plane parallel to the sea surface was compared to the three airgun array sources which were originally modeled, including the 4,130, 5,110, and 8,000 in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     arrays. Out of these three proxies, the source which had the smallest relative error (arithmetic mean difference taken over the azimuthal or vessel bearing angle) was chosen as the most representative proxy. In this case, because WesternGeco may elect to use the specified 28-element, 5,000 in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     airgun array source, the 5,110 in
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     had the lowest mean error (1.1 dB) and was the airgun array proxy that was selected. The acoustic exposure modeling performed in support of the rule provides 24-hour exposure estimates for each species, specific to each modeled source and survey type in each zone and month.
                </P>
                <P>
                    No OBN surveys were included in the modeled survey types, and use of existing proxies (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     2D, 3D NAZ, 3D WAZ, Coil) is generally conservative for use in evaluation of 3D OBN survey effort, largely due to the greater area covered by the modeled proxies. Summary descriptions of these modeled survey geometries are available in the preamble to the proposed rule (91 FR 9014, 9018, February 24, 2026). Coil was selected as the best available proxy survey type in this case because the spatial coverage of the planned survey is most similar to the coil survey pattern. The planned OBN survey will involve two source vessels sailing along closely spaced survey lines, with daily survey area coverage of approximately 110 km
                    <SU>2</SU>
                     per day, similar to that assumed for the coil survey proxy. Among the different parameters of the modeled survey patterns (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     area covered, line spacing, number of sources, shot interval, total simulated pulses), NMFS considers area covered per day to be most influential on daily modeled exposures exceeding Level B harassment criteria. Although WesternGeco is not proposing to perform a survey using the coil geometry, the coil proxy is most representative of the effort planned by WesternGeco in terms of predicted Level B harassment exposures.
                </P>
                <P>The survey will take place over approximately 140 days with 101 days of sound source operation, including 78 days in Zone 5 and 23 days in Zone 7. The monthly distribution of survey days is not known in advance, though we assume that the planned 101 days of source operation would occur contiguously. Take estimates for each species are based on the time period that produces the greatest value.</P>
                <P>Based on the results of our analysis, NMFS has determined that the level of taking expected for each survey and authorized through each of the LOAs is consistent with the findings made for the total taking allowable under the regulations. See table 1 in this notice and table 7 of the rule (91 FR 20784, April 17, 2026).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Small Numbers Determination</HD>
                <P>Under the rule, NMFS may not authorize incidental take of marine mammals in an LOA if it will exceed “small numbers.” In short, when an acceptable estimate of the individual marine mammals taken is available, if the estimated number of individual animals taken is up to, but not greater than, one-third of the best available abundance estimate, NMFS will determine that the numbers of marine mammals taken of a species or stock are small (see 91 FR 20784, April 17, 2026). For more information please see NMFS' discussion of small numbers in the 2026 final rule (91 FR 20784, April 17, 2026).</P>
                <P>For each of WesternGeco's respective surveys, the take numbers for authorization are determined as described above in the Summary of Requests and Analysis section. Subsequently, the total incidents of harassment for each species are multiplied by scalar ratios (except in the cases where the take estimate has been rounded up to reflect a group size) to produce a derived product that better reflects the number of individuals likely to be taken within a survey (as compared to the total number of instances of take), accounting for the likelihood that some individual marine mammals may be taken on more than 1 day (see 91 FR 20784, April 17, 2026). The output of this scaling, where appropriate, is incorporated into adjusted total take estimates that are the basis for NMFS' small numbers determinations, as depicted in tables 1 and 2.</P>
                <P>
                    This product is used by NMFS in making the necessary small numbers determinations through comparison with the best available abundance estimates (see discussion at 91 FR 20784, 20812, April 17, 2026). For this comparison, NMFS' approach is to use the maximum theoretical population, determined through review of current stock assessment reports (SAR; 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/marine-mammal-stock-assessments</E>
                    ) and model-predicted abundance information (
                    <E T="03">https://seamap.env.duke.edu/models/SEFSC/GOM/</E>
                    ). Information supporting the small numbers determinations is provided in tables 1-2.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>
                        Table 1—WesternGeco Engagement 12 Survey Take Analysis
                        <SU>1</SU>
                    </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Species</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Authorized
                            <LI>take</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Scaled take 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Abundance 
                            <SU>2</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Percent
                            <LI>abundance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Rice's whale</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                            2
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>51</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">Kogia</E>
                             spp.
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                            372
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>112</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,385</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Atlantic spotted dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>406</ENT>
                        <ENT>117</ENT>
                        <ENT>21506</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Bottlenose dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,326</ENT>
                        <ENT>381</ENT>
                        <ENT>166,538</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Clymene dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,126</ENT>
                        <ENT>610</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,136</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Beaked whales</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,809</ENT>
                        <ENT>183</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,038</ENT>
                        <ENT>17.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Fraser's dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>750</ENT>
                        <ENT>215</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,665</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="39083"/>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Blackfish 
                            <SU>5</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>5,085</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,535</ENT>
                        <ENT>15.7</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Pantropical spotted dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>20,467</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,874</ENT>
                        <ENT>50,209</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.7</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Risso's dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>405</ENT>
                        <ENT>120</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,974</ENT>
                        <ENT>6.1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Rough-toothed dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,877</ENT>
                        <ENT>539</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,853</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Short-finned pilot whale</ENT>
                        <ENT>618</ENT>
                        <ENT>182</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,277</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Sperm whale</ENT>
                        <ENT>740</ENT>
                        <ENT>313</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,451</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Spinner dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>298</ENT>
                        <ENT>86</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,991</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Striped dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,998</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,721</ENT>
                        <ENT>16,102</ENT>
                        <ENT>10.7</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        Scalar ratios were applied to “Authorized Take” values as described at 91 FR 20784 (April 17, 2026) to derive scaled take numbers shown here.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        Best abundance estimate. For most taxa, the best abundance estimate for purposes of comparison with take estimates is considered here to be the model-predicted abundance (Garrison 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). For Rice's whale, Atlantic spotted dolphin, spinner dolphin, and Risso's dolphin, the estimated SAR abundance estimate is used.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        Modeled take of one increased to account for potential encounter with a group of average size (Maze-Foley and Mullin, 2006.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        Includes 20 takes by Level A harassment and 248 takes by Level B harassment. Scalar ratio is applied to takes by Level B harassment only; small numbers determination made on basis of scaled Level B harassment take plus authorized Level A harassment take.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                        The “blackfish” guild includes melon-headed whales, false killer whales, pygmy killer whales, and killer whales.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>
                        Table 2—WesternGeco Engagement 13 Survey Take Analysis
                        <SU>1</SU>
                    </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Species</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Authorized take</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Scaled take 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Abundance 
                            <SU>2</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Percent
                            <LI>abundance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Rice's whale</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>51</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">Kogia</E>
                             spp.
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                            329
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>99</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,385</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Atlantic spotted dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>580</ENT>
                        <ENT>166</ENT>
                        <ENT>21506</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Bottlenose dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,716</ENT>
                        <ENT>493</ENT>
                        <ENT>166,538</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.3</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Clymene dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,842</ENT>
                        <ENT>529</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,136</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Beaked whales</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,483</ENT>
                        <ENT>251</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,038</ENT>
                        <ENT>24.2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Fraser's dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>811</ENT>
                        <ENT>233</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,665</ENT>
                        <ENT>14.0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Blackfish 
                            <SU>4</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>5,029</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,484</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,535</ENT>
                        <ENT>15.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Pantropical spotted dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>19,962</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,729</ENT>
                        <ENT>50,209</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Risso's dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>492</ENT>
                        <ENT>145</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,974</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Rough-toothed dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,132</ENT>
                        <ENT>612</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,853</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Short-finned pilot whale</ENT>
                        <ENT>825</ENT>
                        <ENT>243</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,277</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Sperm whale</ENT>
                        <ENT>774</ENT>
                        <ENT>328</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,451</ENT>
                        <ENT>13.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Spinner dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>315</ENT>
                        <ENT>90</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,991</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Striped dolphin</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,175</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,485</ENT>
                        <ENT>16,102</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        Scalar ratios were applied to “Authorized Take” values as described 91 FR 20784, 20818 (April 17, 2026) to derive scaled take numbers shown here.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        Best abundance estimate. For most taxa, the best abundance estimate for purposes of comparison with take estimates is considered here to be the model-predicted abundance (Garrison 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). For Rice's whale, Atlantic spotted dolphin, spinner dolphin, and Risso's dolphin, the estimated SAR abundance estimate is used.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        Includes 20 takes by Level A harassment and 309 takes by Level B harassment. Scalar ratio is applied to takes by Level B harassment only; small numbers determination made on basis of scaled Level B harassment take plus authorized Level A harassment take.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        The “blackfish” guild includes melon-headed whales, false killer whales, pygmy killer whales, and killer whales.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    Based on the analysis contained herein of WesternGeco's planned survey activities described in their separate LOA applications and the anticipated take of marine mammals, NMFS finds that for each LOA small numbers of marine mammals will be taken relative to the affected species or stock sizes (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     less than one-third of the best available abundance estimate) and therefore the taking is of no more than small numbers for each LOA.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authorization</HD>
                <P>NMFS has determined that the level of taking for each LOA request is consistent with the findings made for the total taking allowable under the incidental take regulations and that the amount of take authorized under each LOA is of no more than small numbers. Accordingly, we have issued two LOAs to WesternGeco, authorizing the take of marine mammals incidental to its geophysical survey activity, as described above.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Kimberly Damon-Randall,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-12986 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE </AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration </SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF822] </DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Fisheries of the Caribbean; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review; Public Meeting </SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P> National Marine Fisheries Service, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, Commerce. </P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of webinar.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Southeast Data Assessment and Review (SEDAR) 103 assessment process of Caribbean Alternate Assessment Methods will consist of a Development Workshop, a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39084"/>
                        series of Assessment Webinars, and a Review Workshop. See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        . 
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P> The SEDAR 103 Data Webinar 6/pre-Development Workshop Webinar will be held from 1 p.m. until 4 p.m. EST July 15, 2026. </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                         SEDAR address: 4055 Faber Place Drive, Suite 201, North Charleston, SC 29405. 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sedarweb.org.</E>
                         Meeting address: The SEDAR 103 Data Webinar 6/pre-Development Workshop Webinar will be held via webinar. The webinar is open to members of the public. The established times may be adjusted as necessary to accommodate the timely completion of discussion relevant to the assessment process. Such adjustments may result in the meeting being extended from or completed prior to the time established by this notice. 
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Emily Ott, SEDAR Coordinator; (843) 302-8434. Email: 
                        <E T="03">Emily.Ott@safmc.net.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Gulf, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils, in conjunction with the National Marine Fisheries Service and the Atlantic and Gulf States Marine Fisheries Commissions have implemented the SEDAR process. SEDAR is a participatory process for developing, evaluating and reviewing information used for fisheries management advice. This multi-step process for determining the status of fish stocks in the Southeast Region may include (1) a Data stage, and (2) an Assessment stage, and (3) a Review stage. Each stage produces a report summarizing decisions made during that stage. A final stock assessment report is produced at the end of a SEDAR process documenting data sets used, model configurations and the opinions from the independent peer review. Participants for SEDAR projects are appointed by the Gulf, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils and National Marine Fisheries Service Southeast Regional Office, Highly Migratory Species Management Division, and Southeast Fisheries Science Center. Participants may include data collectors and database managers; stock assessment scientists, biologists, and researchers; constituency representatives including fishermen, environmentalists, and non-governmental organizations; International experts; and staff of Councils, Commissions, and state and Federal agencies. </P>
                <P>The items of discussion in the SEDAR 103 Data Webinar 6/pre-Development Workshop Webinar are as follows: continue analytical method lightening talks and discuss workshop logistics. Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Accommodations </HD>
                <P>
                     These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to the Council office (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ) at least 5 business days prior to each workshop. 
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Note:</E>
                     The times and sequence specified in this agenda are subject to change.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>
                        (Authority: 16 U.S.C. 1801 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        )
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 25, 2026. </DATED>
                    <NAME>Rey Israel Marquez,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13071 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration </SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF855] </DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Fisheries of the South Atlantic, Gulf and Caribbean; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review; Public Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, Commerce (NOAA). </P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P> Notice of webinar.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Southeast Data Assessment and Review (SEDAR) 101 assessment process of will consist of a Data Workshop, an internal agency led assessment stage, and a Review Workshop. See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        . 
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P> The SEDAR 101 Post-Data Workshop Webinar 2 will be held from 10 a.m. until 12 p.m. EDT July 16, 2026. </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                          
                        <E T="03">SEDAR address:</E>
                         4055 Faber Place Drive, Suite 201, North Charleston, SC 29405. 
                        <E T="03">www.sedarweb.org. Meeting address:</E>
                         The SEDAR 101 Post-Data Workshop Webinar 2 will be held via webinar. The webinar is open to members of the public. The established times may be adjusted as necessary to accommodate the timely completion of discussion relevant to the assessment process. Such adjustments may result in the meeting being extended from or completed prior to the time established by this notice. 
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Emily Ott, SEDAR Coordinator; (843) 302-8434. Email: 
                        <E T="03">Emily.Ott@safmc.net.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Gulf, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils, in conjunction with the NMFS and the Atlantic and Gulf States Marine Fisheries Commissions have implemented the SEDAR process, a multi-step method for determining the status of fish stocks in the Southeast Region SEDAR is a participatory process for developing, evaluating and reviewing information used for fisheries management advice. The process may include (1) a Data stage, and (2) an Assessment stage, and (3) a Review stage. The product of the Data stage is a report which compiles and evaluates potential datasets and recommends which datasets are appropriate for assessment analyses. The product of the Assessment stage is a report which compiles and evaluates recommended model configurations that describes the fisheries, evaluates the status of the stock, estimates biological benchmarks and projects future population conditions. The product of the Review Workshop is a Review Summary documenting panel opinions regarding the strengths and weaknesses of the products reviewed. Participants for SEDAR Workshops are appointed by the Gulf, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils and National Marine Fisheries Service Southeast Regional Office, Highly Migratory Species Management Division, and Southeast Fisheries Science Center. Participants include data collectors and database managers; stock assessment scientists, biologists, and researchers; constituency representatives including fishermen, environmentalists, and non-governmental organizations; International experts; and staff of Councils, Commissions, and state and Federal agencies. </P>
                <P>The items of discussion in the Post-Data Workshop Webinar 2 are as follows: </P>
                <P>
                    The Panel will finalize data decisions that were not completed at the in-person data workshop. Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39085"/>
                    discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency. 
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Accommodations </HD>
                <P>
                    These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to the Council office (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ) at least 5 business days prior to each workshop.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Note:</E>
                     The times and sequence specified in this agenda are subject to change.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     16 U.S.C. 1801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 25, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Rey Israel Marquez,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13068 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF837]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Fisheries of the South Atlantic, Gulf of America, and Caribbean; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review Public Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Southeast Data Assessment and Review (SEDAR) Steering Committee will meet to discuss the SEDAR stock assessment process and assessment schedule. See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The SEDAR Steering Committee will meet Monday, July 20, 2026, from 10 a.m. until 5 p.m. Eastern via webinar.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">SEDAR address:</E>
                         4055 Faber Place Drive, Suite 201, N Charleston, SC 29405. 
                        <E T="03">www.sedarweb.org.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting address:</E>
                         The meeting will be held via webinar. The webinar is open to members of the public. Those interested in participating should contact Julie Neer (See 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                        ) to request an invitation providing webinar access information. Please request webinar invitations at least 24 hours in advance of each webinar.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Julie A. Neer, SEDAR Program Manager; (843) 571-4366; Email: 
                        <E T="03">Julie.neer@safmc.net.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The SEDAR Steering Committee provides guidance and oversight of the SEDAR stock assessment program and manages assessment scheduling.</P>
                <P>The items of discussion for this meeting are as follows:</P>
                <P>SEDAR Projects Update and Schedule, SEDAR Process Review and Discussions, and Other Business</P>
                <P>Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Accommodations</HD>
                <P>
                    This meeting is accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for auxiliary aids should be directed to the SEDAR office (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ) at least 5 business days prior to the meeting.
                </P>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P>The times and sequence specified in this agenda are subject to change.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     16 U.S.C. 1801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 25, 2026. </DATED>
                    <NAME>Rey Israel Marquez,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13072 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Type-Approval Requirements for Vessel Monitoring Systems (VMS)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Oceanic &amp; Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection, request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of Commerce, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on continuing information collections, which helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment preceding submission of the collection to OMB.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>To ensure consideration, comments regarding this proposed information collection must be received on or before August 28, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Interested persons are invited to submit written comments to Adrienne Thomas, NOAA PRA Officer, at 
                        <E T="03">NOAA.PRA@noaa.gov.</E>
                         Please reference OMB Control Number 0648-0789 in the subject line of your comments. Do not submit Confidential Business Information or otherwise sensitive or protected information.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Requests for additional information or specific questions related to collection activities should be directed to NOAA, Kelly Spalding, National VMS Program Manager, 1315 East West Hwy., Bldg. SSMC3, Rm. 3207, Silver Spring, MD 20910, 301-427-2300, 
                        <E T="03">kelly.spalding@noaa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Abstract</HD>
                <P>This request is for extension of a currently approved information collection. The current Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) at Title 50, part 600, subpart Q, sets forth the requirements for Enhanced Mobile Transceiver Units (EMTUs) to be type-approved by NMFS for use in federal fisheries programs. These EMTUs can either be satellite-linked systems or cellular-based hardware and software. Respondents for type-approval of vessel monitoring system (VMS) satellite- or cellular-based systems must submit a written type-approval request and electronic copies of supporting materials that include certain required information. The National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) Office of Law Enforcement (OLE) uses the information submitted to assess whether an EMTU or EMTU-C meets minimum technical specifications and can be approved for use in the NMFS VMS program. The information currently required to accompany an application for type-approval of VMS satellite-based systems is set forth at 50 CFR 600.1502 through 600.1507.</P>
                <P>
                    Information requested in the type-approval application for EMTU-Cs and EMTUs includes the information 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39086"/>
                    identified in 50 CFR 600, subpart Q, more specifically, 50 CFR 600.1501 through 600.1509. This identified information is also embodied in the Type-Approval Matrix form (available from NMFS OLE) that can be used by a respondent to more easily organize and submit the required information in their type-approval request to NMFS. The information will include information regarding: Characteristics of the EMTU-C or EMTU, Associated entities including manufacturer and sellers, Communication functionalities, Data formats, Data transmission details, Latency requirements, Messaging formats and transmission details, electronic forms, Data security, Customer service, Durability, and Applicant's data handling requirements.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Method of Collection</HD>
                <P>Information will be collected electronically.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Data</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0648-0789.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number(s):</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Regular submission (extension of a current information collection).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Business or other for-profit organizations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     4.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     Completion of an initial application: 80 hours. Changes to an existing type-approval: 8 hours. Response to a type-approval revocation: 24 hours. Diagnostic and troubleshooting support: 166 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     9,458 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Cost to Public:</E>
                     $5,200.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Required to obtain or retain benefits.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Legal Authority:</E>
                     The Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act) requires that the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) and regional fishery management councils prevent overfishing and requires the collection of reliable data essential to the effective conservation, management, and scientific understanding of the nation's fishery resources, including vessel monitoring systems.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department/Bureau to: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Evaluate ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you may ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sheleen Dumas,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Departmental PRA Compliance Officer, Office of the Under Secretary for Economic Affairs, Commerce Department.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13091 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">COUNCIL ON ENVIRONMENTAL QUALITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notification of Withdrawal of Guidance Documents</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Council on Environmental Quality.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of withdrawal of guidance documents.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ) is withdrawing certain guidance documents.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The withdrawals are applicable as of June 29, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Jomar Maldonado, Director for the National Environmental Policy Act, 730 Jackson Place NW, Washington, DC 20503, 
                        <E T="03">jomar.maldonadovazquez@ceq.eop.gov</E>
                         or (202) 395-5750.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background and Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    Since its establishment in 1970, CEQ has overseen the implementation of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA). CEQ previously issued its own NEPA implementing regulations pursuant to direction provided in a now-rescinded Executive Order, and issued guidance documents interpreting or otherwise citing those now-rescinded NEPA implementing regulations, as well as NEPA and other statutes and various Executive Orders. As a result of CEQ rescinding its NEPA implementing regulations, Congressional amendments to NEPA, revocations of various Executive Orders, caselaw developments, and other intervening events, many guidance documents previously issued by CEQ are facially obsolete or are otherwise unaligned with the current state of the law or with Administration policy. 
                    <E T="03">See Removal of National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Regulations,</E>
                     90 FR 10610 (February 25, 2025); 
                    <E T="03">Removal of National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Regulations,</E>
                     91 FR 618 (January 8, 2026). Additionally, certain guidance documents previously issued by CEQ have requested agencies provide reports or information by time-specific deadlines that have subsequently passed.
                </P>
                <P>Accordingly, CEQ is hereby withdrawing the documents set forth below. CEQ intends to review all withdrawn guidance documents to determine whether they should be updated and reissued, replaced, or remain withdrawn. Copies of the withdrawn guidance documents listed below will be maintained on CEQ's website (marked as “WITHDRAWN”) for historical and informative purposes. CEQ will also continue to review other guidance documents not currently identified below for consideration for potential future withdrawal.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Published Federal Register Documents Withdrawn</HD>
                <P>1. Final Guidance for Effective Use of Programmatic NEPA Reviews, 79 FR 76986 (Dec. 23, 2014).</P>
                <P>2. Final Guidance on Improving the Process for Preparing Efficient and Timely Environmental Reviews under the National Environmental Policy Act, 77 FR 14473 (Mar. 12, 2012).</P>
                <P>3. Final Guidance for Federal Departments and Agencies on the Appropriate Use of Mitigation and Monitoring and Clarifying the Appropriate Use of Mitigated Findings of No Significant Impact, 76 FR 3843 (Jan. 21, 2011).</P>
                <P>4. National Environmental Policy Act; Pollution Prevention, 58 FR 6478 (Jan. 29, 1993).</P>
                <P>5. Guidance Regarding NEPA Regulations, 48 FR 34263 (July 28, 1983).</P>
                <P>6. Scoping Guidance, 46 FR 25461 (May 7, 1981).</P>
                <P>
                    7. Forty Most Asked Questions Concerning CEQ's National 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39087"/>
                    Environmental Policy Act Regulations, 46 FR 18026 (Mar. 23, 1981).
                </P>
                <P>8. Publishing of Three Memoranda for Heads of Agencies, 45 FR 59189 (Sept. 8, 1980).</P>
                <P>9. Executive Order 12144: Implementing and Explanatory Documents, 44 FR 18722 (Mar. 29, 1979).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Agency Memoranda Withdrawn</HD>
                <P>1. CEQ Memo: “Implementation of Updated National Environmental Policy Act Regulations” (June 28, 2024).</P>
                <P>2. CEQ Memo: “Guidance on the Consideration of Past Actions in Cumulative Effects Analysis” (June 24, 2005).</P>
                <P>3. CEQ Memo: “Guidance for Environmental Assessments of Forest Health Projects” (Dec. 9, 2002).</P>
                <P>4. CEQ Memo: “Cooperating Agencies in Implementing the Procedural Requirements of the National Environmental Policy Act” (Jan. 30, 2002).</P>
                <P>5. CEQ Memo: “Designation of Non-Federal Agencies to be Cooperating Agencies in Implementing the Procedural Requirements of the National Environmental Policy Act” (July 28, 1999).</P>
                <P>6. CEQ Memo: “Environmental Justice: Guidance Under the National Environmental Policy Act” (Dec. 10, 1997).</P>
                <P>7. CEQ Memo: “Guidance on Applying Section 404(r) of the Clean Water Act To Federal Projects Which Involve the Discharge of Dredged or Fill Materials into Waters of the U.S., Including Wetlands” (Nov. 17, 1980).</P>
                <P>8. CEQ Memo: “Agency Implementing Procedures Under CEQ's NEPA Regulations” (Jan. 19, 1979).</P>
                <P>9. CEQ Memo: “Environmental Review Pursuant to Section 1424(e) of the Safe Drinking Water Act of 1974 and its Relationship to the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969” (Nov. 19, 1976).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Katherine Scarlett,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chairman.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13079 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3325-F3-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Department of the Navy</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Meeting of the U.S. Naval Academy Board of Visitors</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Department of the Navy, Department of Defense (DoD).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of partially closed meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The DoD is publishing this notice to announce that the following Federal Advisory Committee meeting of the U.S. Naval Academy Board of Visitors, hereafter referred to as “Board,” will take place.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Open to the public, July 20, 2026, from 09:00 a.m. to 11:00 a.m. Eastern Time Zone (ET). Closed to the public, July 20, 2026, from 11:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. ET.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>This meeting will be held at the Library of Congress, Washington DC. The meeting will be handicap accessible.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                         Major Shawn C. Wehrle, USMC, Executive Secretary to the Board of Visitors, Office of the Superintendent, U.S. Naval Academy, Annapolis, MD 21402-5000, 410-293-1503, 
                        <E T="03">wehrle@usna.edu</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) (5 U.S.C. 1001-1014), the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976 (5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended), and the General Services Administration's Federal Advisory Committee Management Final Rule (41 CFR part 102-3).</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Purpose of Meeting:</E>
                     The U.S. Naval Academy Board of Visitors will meet to make such inquiry, as the Board deems necessary, into the state of morale and discipline, the curriculum, instruction, physical equipment, fiscal affairs, and academic methods of the Naval Academy.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agenda</HD>
                <P>Proposed meeting agenda for July 20, 2026.</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">9:00 a.m. Call to Order (Open to Public)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">9:00-10:50 a.m. Opening Meeting (Open to Public)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">10:50-11:00 a.m. Break (Open to Public)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">11:00-12:00 p.m. Closed Meeting (Closed to Public)</FP>
                <P>The closed meeting from 11:00-12:00 p.m. ET will consist of discussions of new and pending administrative or minor disciplinary infractions and non-judicial punishments involving midshipmen attending the Naval Academy to include but not limited to, individual honor or conduct violations within the Brigade, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy. For this reason, a portion of this meeting will be closed to the public, as the discussion of such information cannot be adequately segregated from other topics, which precludes opening the closed meeting to the public. The Principal Deputy General Counsel has determined in writing that the meeting shall be partially closed to the public because the discussions during the closed meeting from 11:00 a.m.-12:00 p.m. ET will be concerned with matters protected under sections 552b(c) (5), (6), and (7) of title 5, U.S.C.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     5 U.S.C. 552b.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Meeting Accessibility:</E>
                     Pursuant to FACA and 41 CFR 102-3.140, this meeting is open to the public. Please contact the Executive Secretary five business days prior the meeting at 
                    <E T="03">Admin-Routing@usna.edu</E>
                     to coordinate access to the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Written Statements:</E>
                     Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 1009(a)(3), interested persons may submit a written statement for consideration at any time, but it should be received by the Designated Federal Officer at least five business days prior to the meeting date so that the comments may be made available to the Board for their consideration prior to the meeting. Written statements should be submitted via mail to 121 Blake Rd., Annapolis, MD 21402. Please note that since the Board operates under the provisions of the FACA, as amended, all submitted comments and public presentations may be treated as public documents and may be made available for public inspection, including, but not limited to, being posted on the board website.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 25, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>B.B. Fugal,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Lieutenant Commander, Judge Advocate General's Corps, U.S. Navy, Federal Register Liaison Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13048 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3810-FF-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No.: ED-2026-SCC-1486]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Survey of Postgraduate Employment for the Foreign Language and Area Studies (FLAS) Fellowship Program</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Postsecondary Education (OPE), Department of Education (ED).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Department is proposing revision of a currently approved information collection request (ICR).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <PRTPAGE P="39088"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before July 29, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for proposed information collection requests should be submitted within 30 days of publication of this notice. Click on this link 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain</E>
                         to access the site. Find this information collection request (ICR) by selecting “Department of Education” under “Currently Under Review,” then check the “Only Show ICR for Public Comment” checkbox. 
                        <E T="03">Reginfo.gov</E>
                         provides two links to view documents related to this information collection request. Information collection forms and instructions may be found by clicking on the “View Information Collection (IC) List” link. Supporting statements and other supporting documentation may be found by clicking on the “View Supporting Statement and Other Documents” link.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Kurrinn Abrams, (202) 987-1920.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Department is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Survey of Postgraduate Employment for the Foreign Language and Area Studies (FLAS) Fellowship Program.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1840-0829.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved ICR.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals or Households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     10,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     1,300.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Foreign Language and Area Studies (FLAS) Fellowships program is authorized by 20 U.S.C. 1121(b) and provides allocations of academic year and summer fellowships to institutions of higher education or consortia of institutions of higher education to assist meritorious undergraduate and graduate students undergoing training in modern foreign languages and related area or international studies. This information collection is a survey of FLAS fellows required by 20 U.S.C. 1121(d) which states “The Secretary shall assist grantees in developing a survey to administer to students who have completed programs under this subchapter to determine postgraduate employment, education, or training. All grantees, where applicable, shall administer such survey once every two years and report survey results to the Secretary.”
                </P>
                <P>Revisions have been made to the estimated total number of responses and total burden hours to reflect the expected current number of responses and corresponding burden hours for each of the two survey components. Minor edits were made to the collections to remove outdated links and update contact information.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Ross Santy,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief Data Officer, Office of Planning, Evaluation and Policy Development.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13094 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4000-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No.: ED-2026-SCC-1354]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Foreign Gifts and Contracts Disclosures</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Student Aid (FSA), Department of Education (ED).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Department is proposing a revision of a currently approved information collection request (ICR).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before June 29, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for proposed information collection requests should be submitted within 30 days of publication of this notice. Click on this link 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain</E>
                         to access the site. Find this information collection request (ICR) by selecting “Department of Education” under “Currently Under Review,” then check the “Only Show ICR for Public Comment” checkbox. 
                        <E T="03">Reginfo.gov</E>
                         provides two links to view documents related to this information collection request. Information collection forms and instructions may be found by clicking on the “View Information Collection (IC) List” link. Supporting statements and other supporting documentation may be found by clicking on the “View Supporting Statement and Other Documents” link.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Carolyn Rose, (202) 453-5967.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Department is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Foreign Gifts and Contracts Disclosures.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1845-0172.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved ICR.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Private Sector; State, Local, and Tribal Governments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     10,413.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     5,207.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     FSA, in partnership with the Office of the General Counsel (OGC) of ED, is requesting the renewal of Foreign Gifts and Contracts Disclosures, 1845-0172, to continue to collect the required information from institutions of higher education regarding foreign gifts and contracts as specified in the Higher Education Act of 1965 (HEA), as amended. Section 117 of the HEA, codified at 20 U.S.C. 1011f, provides that institutions of higher education must file a disclosure report with the Secretary of Education by January 31 or July 31, whichever is sooner, under certain circumstances.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In June of 2020, ED established a collection of information, Foreign Gifts and Contracts Disclosures, 1801-0006, through ED's Partner Enterprise Business Collaboration (PEBC) system. That collection was under an OMB control number for OGC. The PEBC collection provided for collection of the data elements that ED believes are necessary to ensure institutions provide 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39089"/>
                    congressionally mandated transparency with respect to covered gifts from and contracts with foreign sources. In June of 2023, a new collection of information, Foreign Gifts and Contracts Disclosures, 1845-0172, was approved with the same PEBC collection portal, with a few minimal changes, but returning the collection of information to FSA. OGC and FSA have worked closely over the course of these previous two information requests. FSA is seeking renewal for substantially the same information collection, utilizing a new, more user-friendly portal located at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.foreignfundinghighered.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Ross Santy,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief Data Officer, Office of Planning, Evaluation and Policy Development.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13078 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4000-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. CP26-158-000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>WBI Energy Transmission, Inc.; Notice of Schedule for the Preparation of an Environmental Assessment for the Line Section 32 Expansion Project</SUBJECT>
                <P>On March 31, 2026, WBI Energy Transmission, Inc (WBI) filed an application in Docket No. CP26-158-000 requesting a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity pursuant to Section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA) to construct and operate certain natural gas pipeline facilities. The proposed project is known as the Line Section 32 Enhancement Project (Project). The Project would provide up to 190,000 dekatherms per day of incremental firm transportation service to Basin Electric's new Bison Generation Station in Williams County, North Dakota.</P>
                <P>On April 9, 2026, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) issued its Notice of Application for the Project. Among other things, that notice alerted agencies issuing federal authorizations of the requirement to complete all necessary reviews and to reach a final decision on a request for a federal authorization within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's environmental document for the Project.</P>
                <P>
                    This notice identifies Commission staff's intention to prepare an environmental assessment (EA) for the Project and the planned schedule for the completion of the environmental review.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         For tracking purposes under the National Environmental Policy Act, the unique identification number for documents relating to this environmental review is EAXX-019-20-000-1778150426.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Schedule for Environmental Review</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Issuance of EA—November 23, 2026</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    90-day Federal Authorization Decision Deadline 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    —February 21, 2027
                </FP>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The Commission's deadline applies to the decisions of other federal agencies, and state agencies acting under federally delegated authority, that are responsible for federal authorizations, permits, and other approvals necessary for proposed projects under the Natural Gas Act. Per 18 CFR 157.22(a), the Commission's deadline for other agency's decisions applies unless a schedule is otherwise established by federal law.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>If a schedule change becomes necessary, additional notice will be provided so that the relevant agencies are kept informed of the Project's progress.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Project Description</HD>
                <P>WBI proposes to construct and operate a 17-mile-long, 24-inch-diameter, interstate, natural gas transmission pipeline, and associated facilities in Williams County, North Dakota; and upgrade a pipeline interconnection in McKenzie County, North Dakota.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On May 11, 2026, the Commission issued a 
                    <E T="03">Notice of Scoping Period Requesting Comments on Environmental Issues and Notice of On-site Environmental Review for the Line Section 32 Enhancement Project</E>
                     (Notice of Scoping). The Notice of Scoping was sent to affected landowners; federal, state, and local government agencies; elected officials; environmental and public interest groups; Native American tribes; other interested parties; and local libraries and newspapers. No comments were received in response to the Notice of Scoping.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Additional Information</HD>
                <P>
                    In order to receive notification of the issuance of the EA and to keep track of formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription. This service provides automatic notification of filings made to subscribed dockets, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/ferc-online/overview</E>
                     to register for eSubscription.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Additional information about the Project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs at (866) 208-FERC or on the FERC website (
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ). Using the “eLibrary” link, select “General Search” from the eLibrary menu, enter the selected date range and “Docket Number” excluding the last three digits (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     CP26-158), and follow the instructions. For assistance with access to eLibrary, the helpline can be reached at (866) 208-3676, TTY (202) 502-8659, or at 
                    <E T="03">FERCOnlineSupport@ferc.gov.</E>
                     The eLibrary link on the FERC website also provides access to the texts of formal documents issued by the Commission, such as orders, notices, and rule makings.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 18 CFR 2.1)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13086 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. CP26-241-000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Northern Natural Gas Company; Notice of Schedule for the Preparation of an Environmental Assessment for the Central Mainline Corridor Expansion Project</SUBJECT>
                <P>On April 17, 2026, Northern Natural Gas Company (Northern) filed an application in Docket No. CP26-241-000 requesting a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity pursuant to Section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act to construct and operate certain natural gas pipeline facilities in Iowa and Nebraska. The proposed project is known as the Central Mainline Corridor Expansion Project (Project) and would provide 535,360 dekatherms per day of additional winter peak day firm transportation service for power generation, and residential and commercial customers in Northern's Market Area.</P>
                <P>
                    On April 30, 2026, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) issued its Notice of Application for the Project. Among other things, that notice alerted agencies issuing federal authorizations of the requirement to complete all necessary reviews and to reach a final decision on a request for a federal authorization within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39090"/>
                    staff's environmental document for the Project.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This notice identifies Commission staff's intention to prepare an environmental assessment (EA) for the Project and the planned schedule for the completion of the environmental review.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The EA will be issued for a 30-day comment period.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         For tracking purposes under the National Environmental Policy Act, the unique identification number for documents relating to this environmental review is EAXX-019-20-000-1780562999.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Schedule for Environmental Review</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Issuance of EA—December 7, 2026</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    90-day Federal Authorization Decision Deadline 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    —March 7, 2027
                </FP>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The Commission's deadline applies to the decisions of other federal agencies, and state agencies acting under federally delegated authority, that are responsible for federal authorizations, permits, and other approvals necessary for proposed projects under the Natural Gas Act. Per 18 CFR 157.22(a), the Commission's deadline for other agency's decisions applies unless a schedule is otherwise established by federal law.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>If a schedule change becomes necessary, additional notice will be provided so that the relevant agencies are kept informed of the Project's progress.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Project Description</HD>
                <P>Northern is proposing to construct and operate facilities in Wright, Guthrie, Dallas, Pottawattamie, Polk and Boone counties, Iowa and Otoe, Cass, Sarpy, Gage, and Lancaster counties, Nebraska. The project includes construction and operation of approximately 26.2 miles of 20- and 30-inch diameter pipeline, a new compressor station, modifications at five existing compressor stations, uprate of an existing pipeline and regulator equipment, a new meter facility, and appurtenant facilities.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On May 22, 2026, the Commission issued a 
                    <E T="03">Notice of Scoping Period Requesting Comments on Environmental Issues for the Proposed Central Mainline Corridor Expansion Project</E>
                     (Notice of Scoping). The Notice of Scoping was sent to affected landowners; federal, state, and local government agencies; elected officials; Native American tribes; environmental and public interest groups; other interested parties; and local libraries and newspapers.
                </P>
                <P>In response to the Notice of Scoping, the Commission received three comments from potentially affected landowners regarding impacts on groundwater, farming practices and grazing, recreation, land value, future development plans, and access to wildlife. The Nebraska Department of Water, Energy, and Environment and the Army Corps of Engineers filed comments related to applicable permits. Our Children's Trust filed comments related to fossil fuel development and climate change. All substantive comments will be addressed in the EA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Additional Information</HD>
                <P>
                    In order to receive notification of the issuance of the EA and to keep track of formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription. This service provides automatic notification of filings made to subscribed dockets, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/ferc-online/overview</E>
                     to register for eSubscription.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202)502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Additional information about the Project is available from the FERC website (
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ). Using the “eLibrary” link, select “General Search” from the eLibrary menu, enter the selected date range and “Docket Number” excluding the last three digits (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     CP26-241-000), and follow the instructions. For assistance with access to eLibrary, the helpline can be reached at (866) 208-3676, TTY (202) 502-8659, or at 
                    <E T="03">FERCOnlineSupport@ferc.gov.</E>
                     The eLibrary link on the FERC website also provides access to the texts of formal documents issued by the Commission, such as orders, notices, and rule makings.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 18 CFR 2.1)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13087 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission </SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Combined Notice of Filings </SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Filings Instituting Proceedings</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP26-339-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Trailblazer Pipeline Company LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Motion Filing: TPC 2026-06-22 RP26-339 Motion to be effective 7/1/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/22/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260622-5238.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/6/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP26-931-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Cove Point LNG, LP.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: Cove Point—2026 Penalty Revenue Distribution to be effective N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5081.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/6/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP26-932-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Eastern Gas Transmission and Storage, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: EGTS—2026 Overrun and Penalty Revenue Distribution to be effective N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5087.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/6/26.
                </P>
                <P>Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Filings in Existing Proceedings</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP26-339-002.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Trailblazer Pipeline Company LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: TPC 2026-06-22 RP26-339 Compliance to be effective 7/1/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/22/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260622-5248.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/6/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Any person desiring to protest in any the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rule 211 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date.  The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
                    <E T="03">https://elibrary.ferc.gov/idmws/search/fercgensearch.asp</E>
                    ) by querying the docket number. 
                </P>
                <P>
                    eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling/filing-req.pdf.</E>
                     For other information, call (866) 208-3676 (toll free). For TTY, call (202) 502-8659. 
                </P>
                <P>
                    For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39091"/>
                    rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos D. Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13084 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. CP13-499-006; Docket No. CP13-502-003]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Constitution Pipeline Company, LLC; Iroquois Gas Transmission System, L.P.: Notice of Schedule for the Preparation of an Environmental Assessment for the Constitution Pipeline and Wright Interconnect Projects</SUBJECT>
                <P>On December 19, 2025, and February 13, 2026, Constitution Pipeline Company, LLC (Constitution) and Iroquois Gas Transmission System, L.P. (Iroquois), respectively, filed petitions seeking reissuance of certificates of public convenience and necessity authorizing the Constitution Pipeline and Wright Interconnect Projects (Projects). Commission staff previously conducted an environmental review of the Projects resulting in the issuance of a final environmental impact statement (EIS) on October 24, 2014, under Docket Nos. CP13-499-000 and CP13-502-000. The Commission subsequently issued certificates to Constitution and Iroquois on December 2, 2014, but the Projects were not completed. The Projects would include about 125 miles of 30-inch natural gas pipeline in Pennsylvania and New York and new compressor facilities at the existing Wright Compressor Station in New York.</P>
                <P>On January 8, 2026, and February 24, 2026, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) issued Notices of Petition, respectively, for the Projects.</P>
                <P>
                    This notice identifies Commission staff's intention to prepare an environmental assessment (EA) for the Projects and the planned schedule for the completion of the environmental review.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The EA will be issued for public comment.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         For tracking purposes under the National Environmental Policy Act, the unique identification number for documents relating to this environmental review is EAXX-019-20-000-1780563178.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Schedule for Environmental Review</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Issuance of EA—August 21, 2026</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    90-day Federal Authorization Decision Deadline 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    —November 19, 2026
                </FP>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The Commission's deadline applies to the decisions of other federal agencies, and state agencies acting under federally delegated authority, that are responsible for federal authorizations, permits, and other approvals necessary for proposed projects under the Natural Gas Act. Per 18 CFR 157.22(a), the Commission's deadline for other agency's decisions applies unless a schedule is otherwise established by federal law.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>If a schedule change becomes necessary, additional notice will be provided so that the relevant agencies are kept informed of the Projects' progress.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Project Description</HD>
                <P>
                    The Projects would involve construction and operation of various project facilities in Susquehanna County, Pennsylvania, and Broome, Chenango, Delaware, and Schoharie Counties, New York. In total, this would involve about 125 miles of new 30-inch-diameter natural gas pipeline and appurtenant facilities that include two new meter stations, ten communication towers, eleven mainline valves, and one pig launcher and receiver.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     It also includes expansion of the existing Wright Compressor Station with the addition of 22,000 horsepower of incremental compression and other miscellaneous modifications as well as modification and upgrade of the existing delivery meter to the Tennessee Gas Pipeline or construction of a new delivery meter.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         A pig is an internal tool that can be used to clean and dry a pipeline and/or to inspect it for damage or corrosion.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On April 3, 2026, the Commission issued a 
                    <E T="03">Notice of Scoping Period Requesting Comments on Environmental Issues for the Proposed Constitution Pipeline and Wright Interconnect Projects</E>
                     (Notice of Scoping). The Notice of Scoping was sent to affected landowners; federal, state, and local government agencies; elected officials; Native American Tribes; environmental and public interest groups; other interested parties; and local libraries and newspapers. In response to the Notice of Scoping, the Commission received comments from landowners, interested parties, Federal agencies, non-governmental entities, and interest groups. The primary issues raised by the commenters included requests for restarting the environmental review process, requests to prepare an environmental impact statement, and objections to Constitution's petition to affirm New York's waiver of the water quality certification requirement under the Clean Water Act. Other comments raised concerns over wetland and waterbody crossings, forest clearing and habitat fragmentation; requested alternatives; or otherwise, voiced concerns with harms associated with previously cleared properties. All substantive comments will be addressed in the EA.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Additional Information</HD>
                <P>
                    In order to receive notification of the issuance of the EA and to keep track of formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription. This service provides automatic notification of filings made to subscribed dockets, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/ferc-online/overview</E>
                     to register for eSubscription.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Additional information about the Project is available from the FERC website (
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ). Using the “eLibrary” link, select “General Search” from the eLibrary menu, enter the selected date range and “Docket Number” excluding the last three digits (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     CP13-499 and CP13-502), and follow the instructions. For assistance with access to eLibrary, the helpline can be reached at (866) 208-3676, TTY (202) 502-8659, or at 
                    <E T="03">FERCOnlineSupport@ferc.gov.</E>
                     The eLibrary link on the FERC website also provides access to the texts of formal documents issued by the Commission, such as orders, notices, and rule makings.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 18 CFR 2.1.)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13088 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Combined Notice of Filings #1 </SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EC26-116-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Palo Duro Wind, LLC, Palo Duro Energy Storage, LLC, Palo Duro Wind Interconnection Services, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Joint Application for Authorization Under Section 203 of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39092"/>
                    Federal Power Act of Palo Duro Wind, LLC, et al.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/22/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260622-5393.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/13/26.
                </P>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2909-001.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     NIPSCO Generation LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tariff Amendment: Amendment to Application for Market-Based Rate Authority to be effective 8/24/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5150
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/15/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2928-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PJM Interconnection, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Amendment to GIA, SA No. 7588; Project Identifier No. AE2-220 to be effective 8/23/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/23/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260623-5152.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/14/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2929-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 2415R24 Kansas Municipal Energy Agency NITSA and NOA to be effective 9/1/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5015.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/15/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2930-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 1266R22 Kansas Municipal Energy Agency NITSA and NOA to be effective 9/1/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5021.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/15/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2931-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 2562R17 Kansas Municipal Energy Agency NITSA and NOA to be effective 9/1/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/15/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2933-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PacifiCorp.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Surplus LGIA—Horseshoe Storage SI-18 (SA No. 1214) to be effective 6/25/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5028.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/15/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2934-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 1885R17 Evergy Kansas Central, Inc. NITSA NOA to be effective 9/1/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5037.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/15/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2935-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 1887R17 Evergy Kansas Central, Inc. NITSA NOA to be effective 9/1/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5059
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/15/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2936-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: (1889R16 Evergy Kansas Central, Inc. NITSA NOA to be effective 9/1/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5079.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/15/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2937-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 1891R16 Evergy Kansas Central, Inc. NITSA NOA to be effective 9/1/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5092.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/15/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2938-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Northern States Power Company, a Wisconsin corporation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 2026-06-24 Bloomer—FSA—181—0.0.0 to be effective 6/25/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5100.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/15/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2939-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Revisions to Attachment BB to Incorporate Language Related to SPP RTO Expansion to be effective 8/24/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5101.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/15/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2940-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 1893R17 Evergy Kansas Central, Inc. NITSA NOA to be effective 9/1/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5102.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/15/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2941-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Northern States Power Company, a Wisconsin corporation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 2026-06-24 Barron—FSA—182—0.0.0 to be effective 6/25/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5103.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/15/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2942-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Tucson Electric Power Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Service Agreement Nos. 640 and 641 to be effective 6/25/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5107.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/15/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2943-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Revisions to Attachment AY to Incorporate Language Related to SPP RTO Expansion to be effective 8/24/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5113.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/15/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2944-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     SunZia Transmission, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: SA No. 4—2nd Amended &amp; Restated LGIA with SunZia Wind North &amp; CAISO to be effective 6/25/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5121.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/15/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2945-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PJM Interconnection, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Amendment to GIA and CSA, SA Nos. 7538 &amp; 7539; Project Identifier No. AG1-324 to be effective 8/24/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5167.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/15/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER26-2946-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Public Service Company of New Mexico.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Tariff Revisions Cluster Study to be effective 8/24/2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/24/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260624-5176.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/15/26.
                </P>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following foreign utility company status filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     FC26-19-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Absolute Energy S.p.A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Absolute Energy S.p.A submits Notice of Self-Certification of Foreign Utility Company Status.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     6/23/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20260623-5172.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 7/14/26.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
                    <E T="03">https://elibrary.ferc.gov/idmws/search/fercgensearch.asp</E>
                    ) by querying the docket number. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39093"/>
                </P>
                <P>Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.</P>
                <P>
                    eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling/filing-req.pdf.</E>
                     For other information, call (866) 208-3676 (toll free). For TTY, call (202) 502-8659.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, contact the Office of Public Participation at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: June 24, 2026..</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos D. Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13080 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OPP-2024-0093; FRL-12542-03-OCSPP]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Correction: Cancellation Order for Certain Pesticide Registrations and/or Amendments To Terminate Uses (From August 11, 2025, Notice)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This notice announces a correction to Table 1 &amp; Table 3 of Unit II, to EPA's order for the cancellations and/or amendments to terminate uses, voluntarily requested by the registrants and accepted by the Agency, pursuant to the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA). This correction cancellation order follows a February 10, 2026, 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         Cancellation Notice. The registrant of 70060-12, 70060-13, &amp; 70060-32 withdrew their requests, and they should not be listed in this Cancellation Notice; therefore, they have been removed.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The cancellations and/or amendments are effective June 29, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Christopher Green, Regulatory &amp; Information Services Division, Office of Mission Critical Operations, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (202) 566-2707; email address: 
                        <E T="03">green.christopher@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. General Information</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Does this action apply to me?</HD>
                <P>This action is directed to the public in general and may be of interest to a wide range of stakeholders including environmental, human health, and agricultural advocates; the chemical industry; pesticide users; and members of the public interested in the sale, distribution, or use of pesticides. Since others also may be interested, the Agency has not attempted to describe all the specific entities that may be affected by this action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. How can I get copies of this document and other related information?</HD>
                <P>
                    The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2024-0093, is available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or at the Office of Pesticide Programs Regulatory Public Docket (OPP Docket) in the Environmental Protection Agency Docket Center (EPA/DC), West William Jefferson Clinton Bldg., Rm. 3334, 1301 Constitution Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460-0001. The Public Reading Room is open from 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays. The telephone number for the Public Reading Room is (202) 566-1744 and the telephone number for the OPP Docket is (202) 566-1744. Please review the visitor instructions and additional information about the docket available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. What action is the Agency taking?</HD>
                <P>
                    This notice corrects a February 10, 2026, 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     Cancellation Notice (91 FR 5931 (FRL-12542-02) which announced the cancellations and/or amendments to terminate uses, as requested by registrants, of products registered under FIFRA section 3 (7 U.S.C. 136a). The registrant of 70060-12, 70060-13, &amp; 70060-32 withdrew their requests, and they should not be listed in this Cancellation Notice; therefore, they have been removed from the tables in this Unit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The registrations listed in sequence by registration numbers in Tables 1 and 2 of this unit are not impacted by this notice, and remain subject to the February 10, 2026, 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     Cancellation Notice (91 FR 5931) (FRL-12542-02).
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r75,r150">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Product Cancellations</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Registration No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Company No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Product name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Active ingredients</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">228-335</ENT>
                        <ENT>228</ENT>
                        <ENT>Riverdale Horsepower 8000 Lawn Weed Killer</ENT>
                        <ENT>Dicamba, dimethylamine salt (029802/2300-66-5)—(1.08%), MCPA, dimethylamine salt (030516/2039-46-5)—(10.97%), Triclopyr, triethylamine salt (116002/57213-69-1)—(1.25%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">228-371</ENT>
                        <ENT>228</ENT>
                        <ENT>Riverdale MTCA Premium Selective Herbicide</ENT>
                        <ENT>Clopyralid (117403/1702-17-6)—(1.3%), MCPA, dimethylamine salt (030516/2039-46-5)—(37.9%), Triclopyr, triethylamine salt (116002/57213-69-1)—(3.8%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">228-420</ENT>
                        <ENT>228</ENT>
                        <ENT>Chaser Ultra 2 Selective Herbicide</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,4-DP-p, DMA salt (031403/104786-87-0)—(8.1%), Fluroxypyr 1-methylheptyl ester (128968/81406-37-3)—(9.78%), MCPA, dimethylamine salt (030516/2039-46-5)—(41.6%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">228-424</ENT>
                        <ENT>228</ENT>
                        <ENT>Horsepower Concentrate</ENT>
                        <ENT>Dicamba, dimethylamine salt (029802/2300-66-5)—(1.35%), MCPA, dimethylamine salt (030516/2039-46-5)—(13.72%), Triclopyr, triethylamine salt (116002/57213-69-1)—(1.56%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">279-3558</ENT>
                        <ENT>279</ENT>
                        <ENT>Accurate Extra Herbicide</ENT>
                        <ENT>Metsulfuron-methyl (122010/74223-64-6)—(15%), Thifensulfuron (128845/79277-27-3)—(37.5%), Tribenuron-methyl (128887/101200-48-0)—(18.75%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">499-556</ENT>
                        <ENT>499</ENT>
                        <ENT>TC-326</ENT>
                        <ENT>Chlorfenapyr (129093/122453-73-0)—(.5%), Pyriproxyfen (129032/95737-68-1)—(.05%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">5383-146</ENT>
                        <ENT>5383</ENT>
                        <ENT>Troyshield FSP40</ENT>
                        <ENT>Sodium pyrithione (088004/15922-78-8)—(40%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">5481-477</ENT>
                        <ENT>5481</ENT>
                        <ENT>RID-A-VEC</ENT>
                        <ENT>Metam-sodium (039003/137-42-8)—(42%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="39094"/>
                        <ENT I="01">7969-324</ENT>
                        <ENT>7969</ENT>
                        <ENT>Kixor Herbicide</ENT>
                        <ENT>Saflufenacil (118203/372137-35-4)—(29.74%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">7969-332</ENT>
                        <ENT>7969</ENT>
                        <ENT>Optill Pro Powered by Kixor Herbicide</ENT>
                        <ENT>Imazethapyr (128922/81335-77-5)—(50.2%), Saflufenacil (118203/372137-35-4)—(17.8%), dimethenamid-P (120051/163515-14-8)—(63.9%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">10779-1</ENT>
                        <ENT>10779</ENT>
                        <ENT>Instant Power Sewer Line Root Destroyer</ENT>
                        <ENT>Copper sulfate pentahydrate (024401/7758-99-8)—(99%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">34688-86</ENT>
                        <ENT>34688</ENT>
                        <ENT>Triameen Y12D Preservative</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,3-Propanediamine, N-(3-aminopropyl)-N-dodecyl-(067300/2372-82-9)—(91.4%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">67979-9</ENT>
                        <ENT>67979</ENT>
                        <ENT>COT102 X COT67B Cotton Seed</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bacillus thuringiensis FLCry1Ab protein and the genetic material necessary for its production (vector pNOV4641/pNOV1914) in Event COT67B cotton (SYN-IR67B-1) (016486/)—(.0041%), Bacillus thuringiensis Vip3Aa19 protein and the genetic material necessary for its production (vector pCOT1) in Event COT102 cotton (SYN-IR102-7) (016484/)—(.0036%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">67979-21</ENT>
                        <ENT>67979</ENT>
                        <ENT>COT67B Cotton</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bacillus thuringiensis FLCry1Ab protein and the genetic material necessary for its production (vector pNOV4641/pNOV1914) in Event COT67B cotton (SYN-IR67B-1) (016486/)—(.0029%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">72056-2</ENT>
                        <ENT>72056</ENT>
                        <ENT>Clethodim 2EC Herbicide</ENT>
                        <ENT>Clethodim (121011/99129-21-2)—(26.4%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">72056-3</ENT>
                        <ENT>72056</ENT>
                        <ENT>Clethodim Technical (37% MUP)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Clethodim (121011/99129-21-2)—(37%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">82633-66</ENT>
                        <ENT>82633</ENT>
                        <ENT>Sharda Thiodicarb Technical</ENT>
                        <ENT>Thiodicarb (114501/59669-26-0)—(99%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">87243-4</ENT>
                        <ENT>87243</ENT>
                        <ENT>Amiflex</ENT>
                        <ENT>Amitraz (106201/33089-61-1)—(2%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">100522-11</ENT>
                        <ENT>100522</ENT>
                        <ENT>SA Pendimethalin Technical</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pendimethalin (108501/40487-42-1)—(97.2%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">AK-220001</ENT>
                        <ENT>67690</ENT>
                        <ENT>Sonar Genesis</ENT>
                        <ENT>Fluridone (112900/59756-60-4)—(6.3%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">IN-150001</ENT>
                        <ENT>279</ENT>
                        <ENT>AIM EC</ENT>
                        <ENT>Carfentrazone-ethyl (128712/128639-02-1)—(22.3%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">LA-210003</ENT>
                        <ENT>5481</ENT>
                        <ENT>Envoke Herbicide</ENT>
                        <ENT>2-Pyridinesulfonamide, N-[[(4,6-dimethoxy-2-pyrimidinyl) amino] carbonyl]-3-(2,2,2-trifluoroethoxy)-, monosodium salt, monohydrate (119009/290332-10-4)—(75%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">OR-150009</ENT>
                        <ENT>8033</ENT>
                        <ENT>Topsin M WSB</ENT>
                        <ENT>Thiophanate-methyl (102001/23564-05-8)—(70%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">OR-170001</ENT>
                        <ENT>70506</ENT>
                        <ENT>Penncozeb 75 DF</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mancozeb (014504/8018-01-7)—(75%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">OR-190013</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>Northstar Herbicide</ENT>
                        <ENT>Dicamba, sodium salt (029806/1982-69-0)—(43.9%), Primisulfuron-methyl (128973/86209-51-0)—(7.5%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">VT-160001</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>Reflex Herbicide</ENT>
                        <ENT>Sodium salt of fomesafen (123802/108731-70-0)—(22.8%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">WA-180008</ENT>
                        <ENT>10163</ENT>
                        <ENT>GWN-10073-10120</ENT>
                        <ENT>Copper hydroxide (023401/20427-59-2)—(5%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s30,r30,r75,r100,r100">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Product Registration Amendments To Terminate Uses</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Registration No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Company No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Product name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Active ingredient</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Uses to be terminated</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">42750-58</ENT>
                        <ENT>42750</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate 62%</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(62%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Tobacco use.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">85678-4</ENT>
                        <ENT>85678</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ethephon 78% MUP</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ethephon (099801/16672-87-0)—(77.6%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Residential turf/lawns; institutional turf; parks, recreational fields &amp; sod farms use.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>Table 3 of this unit includes the names and addresses of record for all registrants of the products in Tables 1 and 2 of this unit, in sequence by EPA company number. This number corresponds to the first part of the EPA registration numbers of the products listed above.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s30,r150">
                    <TTITLE>Table 3—Registrants of Cancelled and/or Amended Products</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Company No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Company name and address</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">100</ENT>
                        <ENT>Syngenta Crop Protection, LLC, 410 Swing Road, P.O. Box 18300, Greensboro, NC 27419-8300.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">228</ENT>
                        <ENT>NuFarm Americas, Inc., 4000 Aerial Center Pkwy., Suite 101, Morrisville, NC 27560.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">279</ENT>
                        <ENT>FMC Corporation, 2929 Walnut Street, Philadelphia, PA 19104.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">499</ENT>
                        <ENT>BASF Agricultural Solutions US, LLC, 2 T.W. Alexander Drive, P.O. Box 13528, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">5383</ENT>
                        <ENT>Troy Chemical Corporation, Agent Name: Troy Corporation, 8 Vreeland Road, Florham Park, NJ 07932.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">5481</ENT>
                        <ENT>AMVAC Chemical Corporation, 4695 MacArthur Court, Suite 1200, Newport Beach, CA 92660-1706.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">7969</ENT>
                        <ENT>BASF Agricultural Solutions US, LLC, Agricultural Products, 2 T.W. Alexander Drive, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8033</ENT>
                        <ENT>Nippon Soda Co., Ltd., Agent Name: Nisso America, Inc., 379 Thornall Street, 5th Floor, Edison, NJ 08837.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">10163</ENT>
                        <ENT>Gowan Company LLC, 370 S. Main St., Yuma, AZ 85366.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">10779</ENT>
                        <ENT>Instant Power Corporation, 1255 Viceroy, Dallas, TX 75247.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">34688</ENT>
                        <ENT>Nouryon Surface Chemistry, LLC, 100 Matsonford Road, Building 5, Radnor, PA 19087.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">42750</ENT>
                        <ENT>Albaugh, LLC, 1525 NE 36th Street, Ankeny, IA 50021.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="39095"/>
                        <ENT I="01">67690</ENT>
                        <ENT>Sepro Corporation, 11550 N. Meridian Street, Suite 600, Carmel, IN 46032.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">67979</ENT>
                        <ENT>Syngenta Seeds, LLC—Field Crops—NAFTA, 9 Davis Drive, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">70506</ENT>
                        <ENT>UPL NA, Inc., P.O. Box 12219, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">72056</ENT>
                        <ENT>Nisso BASF Agro Co., Ltd., Agent Name: Compliance Services International, 7501 Bridgeport Way West, Lakewood, WA 98499-2423.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">82633</ENT>
                        <ENT>Sharda Cropchem Limited, Agent Name: Wagner Regulatory Associates, Inc., P.O. Box: 640, Hockessin, DE 19707-0640.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">85678</ENT>
                        <ENT>RedEagle International LLC, Agent Name: Wagner Regulatory Associates, Inc., 7217 Lancaster Pike, Suite A, P.O. Box 640, Hockessin, DE 19707.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">87243</ENT>
                        <ENT>Veto-Pharma S.A.S., Agent Name: Technology Sciences Group, Inc., 1150 18th St. NW, Suite 475, Washington, DC 20036.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">100522</ENT>
                        <ENT>Sullution Agro, LLC, Agent Name: Pyxis Regulatory Consulting, Inc., 535 Dock Street, Suite 211, Tacoma, WA 98402.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     7 U.S.C. 136 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Charles Smith,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Registration Division, Office of Pesticide Programs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13051 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OAR-2026-4358; FRL-13394-01-OAR]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Information Collection Request; Comment Request; Renewable Fuel Standard (RFS) Program: Standards for 2023-2025 and Other Changes (Renewal)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is planning to submit an information collection request (ICR), Renewable Fuel Standard (RFS) Program: Standards for 2023-2025 and Other Changes (Renewal), (EPA ICR Number 2722.03, OMB Control Number 2060-0749) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). Before doing so, EPA is soliciting public comments on specific aspects of the proposed information collection as described below. This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through September 30, 2026. This notice allows 60 days for public comments.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be submitted on or before August 28, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID Number—EPA-HQ-OAR-2026-4358, to EPA online using 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         (our preferred method), by email to 
                        <E T="03">a-and-r-docket@epa.gov,</E>
                         or by mail to: EPA Docket Center, Environmental Protection Agency, Mail Code 6406J, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460. EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Crystal Biddle, Implementation, Analysis and Compliance Division, Office of Transportation and Air Quality, Mail Code 22821T, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: 202-564-5199; fax number: 202-555-1212; email address: 
                        <E T="03">biddle.crystal@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through September 30, 2026. An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <P>
                    This notice allows 60 days for public comments. Supporting documents, which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting, are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or in person at the EPA Docket Center, WJC West, Room 3334, 1301 Constitution Ave. NW, Washington, DC. The telephone number for the Docket Center is 202-566-1744. For additional information about EPA's public docket, visit 
                    <E T="03">http://www.epa.gov/dockets.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, EPA is soliciting comments and information to enable it to: (i) evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (ii) evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (iii) enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (iv) minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate forms of information technology. EPA will consider the comments received and amend the ICR as appropriate. The final ICR package will then be submitted to OMB for review and approval. At that time, EPA will issue another 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice to announce the submission of the ICR to OMB and the opportunity to submit additional comments to OMB.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     This ICR is for certain provisions of the RFS program which is required by the Clean Air Act and implementing regulations in 40 CFR parts 80 and 1090. The following provisions established in the RFS Standards for 2023-2025 and Other Changes final rule are most relevant to this information collection:
                </P>
                <P>• Biogas-derived renewable fuel requirements to ensure that biogas is produced from renewable biomass and used as a transportation fuel and to allow for the use of biogas as a biointermediate (“biogas regulatory reform”);</P>
                <P>• Requirements for third-parties pertaining to engineering reviews, the RFS quality assurance program, and annual attest engagements; and</P>
                <P>• Recordkeeping requirements for waste feedstocks, including separated food waste (SFW)</P>
                <P>
                    The RFS program relies upon marketable credits (Renewable Identification Numbers or RINs) to function, which necessitates registration, recordkeeping and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39096"/>
                    reporting requirements for the type and number of RINs generated, sold, retired, etc. EPA provides the secure systems that respondents use to register, submit compliance reports, and transact RINs, which removes a burden from industry. EPA uses the information to monitor compliance with the RFS and to ensure the integrity of the RIN market.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Numbers:</E>
                     RFS0107 (5900-631), RFS1700 (5900-362), RFS2000 (5900-357), RFS2100 (5900-358), RFS2200 (5900-359), RFS2300 (5900-360), RFS2400 (5900-361), RFS4000 (5900-529), RFS4800 (5900-638), RFS4900 (5900-639), RFS5000 (5900-640), RFS5200 (5900-642), RFS5400 (5900-644).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/affected entities:</E>
                     Biogas Producers, RNG Producers, RNG Importers, SFW Feedstock Suppliers or Aggregators, Biogas Closed Distribution System RIN Generators, QAP Providers, RNG RIN Separators, Third Parties, and Producers of Renewable Fuel from Biogas.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's obligation to respond:</E>
                     Mandatory under 40 CFR parts 80 and 1090.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated number of respondents:</E>
                    11,057 (total).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of response:</E>
                     on occasion, quarterly, and annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total estimated burden:</E>
                     151,414 hours (per year). Burden is defined at 5 CFR 1320.03(b).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total estimated cost:</E>
                     $24,274,388 (per year), which includes $0 annualized capital or operation &amp; maintenance costs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Changes in the Estimates:</E>
                     The revised estimate includes much higher participation of regulated parties in the RFS program than estimated in the Set 1 final rule. Specifically, there was an increase of 3,222 respondents with a corresponding increase of 68,973 hours and an increase of $13,021,504 in costs compared with the original ICR currently approved by OMB.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Byron Bunker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Implementation, Analysis and Compliance Division.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13077 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OPP-2026-0067; FRL-13331-01-OCSPP]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Pesticides; Notice of Receipt of Requests To Voluntarily Cancel Certain Pesticide Registrations and/or Amend Registrations To Terminate Certain Uses With a 30-Day Comment Period (March 2026)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This document announces the Agency's receipt of and solicits comments on requests by registrants to voluntarily cancel their pesticide registration of certain products and/or to amend their product registrations to terminate one or more uses. In accordance with the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA), EPA provides a periodic notice of receipt addressing requests received by EPA since the last notice of receipt was issued and uses the month and year in the title to help distinguish one document from the other. EPA intends to grant these requests at the close of the comment period for this announcement unless the Agency receives substantive comments during the comment period that would merit further review of the requests or the request is withdrawn by the registrant. If these requests are granted, EPA will issue an order in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         cancelling the listed product registrations, after which any sale, distribution, or use of the products listed in this document will only be permitted after the registrations have been cancelled if such sale, distribution, or use is consistent with the terms as described in the final order.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments and withdrawal requests must be received on or before July 29, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2026-0067, online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments. Do not submit electronically any information you consider to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Additional instructions on commenting and visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, are available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Christopher Green, Regulatory &amp; Information Services Division, Office of Mission Critical Operations, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (202) 566-2707; email address: 
                        <E T="03">green.christopher@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Executive Summary</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Does this action apply to me?</HD>
                <P>This action is directed to the public and may be of interest to a wide range of stakeholders including environmental, human health, and agricultural advocates; the chemical industry; pesticide users; and members of the public interested in the sale, distribution, or use of pesticides.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. What action is the Agency taking?</HD>
                <P>
                    This document announces receipt by EPA of requests from registrants to voluntarily cancel their pesticide registration and/or amend their product registrations to terminate one or more uses of the products listed in Unit II, that are currently registered under FIFRA section 3 (7 U.S.C. 136a) or section 24(c) (7 U.S.C. 136v(c)). Unless the Agency determines that there are substantive comments that warrant further review of the requests or the registrants withdraw their requests, EPA intends to issue an order in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     canceling and/or amending the affected registrations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. What is EPA's authority for taking this action?</HD>
                <P>FIFRA section 6(f)(1) (7 U.S.C. 136d(f)(1)) provides that a registrant of a pesticide product may at any time request that any of its pesticide registrations be canceled. Before acting on a request for voluntary cancellation, EPA must provide at least a 30-day public comment period on the request. FIFRA further provides that, before acting on a request for voluntary cancellation or termination of any minor agricultural use, EPA must provide a 180-day comment period unless:</P>
                <P>1. The registrants request a waiver of the comment period, or</P>
                <P>2. The EPA Administrator determines that continued use of these pesticides would pose an unreasonable adverse effect on the environment.</P>
                <P>The registrants in Table 2 of Unit II have requested that EPA waive the 180-day comment period. Accordingly, this document provides a 30-day comment period on these requests.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. What should I consider as I prepare my comments for EPA?</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Submitting CBI.</E>
                     Do not submit this information to EPA through email or 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39097"/>
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     If you wish to include CBI in your comment, please follow the applicable instructions at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets#rules</E>
                     and clearly mark the information that you claim to be CBI. In addition to one complete version of the comment that includes CBI, a copy of the comment without CBI must be submitted for inclusion in the public docket. Information marked as CBI will not be disclosed except in accordance with procedures set forth in 40 CFR part 2.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Tips for preparing your comments.</E>
                     When preparing and submitting your comments, see the commenting tips at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. How can a registrant withdraw their request for voluntary cancellation?</HD>
                <P>
                    Registrants who choose to withdraw their request for voluntary cancellation should submit a withdrawal request in writing to the person listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    . If the products have been subject to a previous cancellation action, the effective date of cancellation and all other provisions of any earlier cancellation action are controlling.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Requests To Voluntarily Cancel and/or Amend Certain Registrations</HD>
                <P>The registrations with pending voluntary requests for cancellation are listed in sequence by registration number (or company number and 24(c) number) in Table 1 of this unit.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="xs60,12,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Registrations With Pending Voluntary Requests for Cancellation</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Registration No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Company No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Product name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Active ingredient</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">100-1549</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>Quindigo</ENT>
                        <ENT>Azoxystrobin (128810/131860-33-8)—(13.19%), Propiconazole (122101/60207-90-1)—(11.54%), Thiamethoxam (060109/153719-23-4)—(6.59%), lambda-Cyhalothrin (128897/91465-08-6)—(3.3%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">279-3405</ENT>
                        <ENT>279</ENT>
                        <ENT>FMC Glyphosate Technical</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate (417300/1071-83-6)—(98.5%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">279-3406</ENT>
                        <ENT>279</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate 62% Isopropylamine Salt (IPA)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(62%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">279-3542</ENT>
                        <ENT>279</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyfos Herbicide</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(41%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">279-3543</ENT>
                        <ENT>279</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyfos Ready-To-Use 0.96% Weed &amp; Grass Killer</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(.96%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">279-3544</ENT>
                        <ENT>279</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyfos MUC 62%</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(62%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">279-3545</ENT>
                        <ENT>279</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyfos Concentrate 27% Weed &amp; Grass Killer</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(27%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">279-3546</ENT>
                        <ENT>279</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyfos II Herbicide</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(41%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">279-3547</ENT>
                        <ENT>279</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyfos Pro Herbicide</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(41%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">279-3548</ENT>
                        <ENT>279</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyfos Custom Herbicide</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(53.8%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">279-3549</ENT>
                        <ENT>279</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyfos Ready-To-Use 2% Weed and Grass Killer</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(2%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">279-3550</ENT>
                        <ENT>279</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyfos Xtramax</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(50.2%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">279-3564</ENT>
                        <ENT>279</ENT>
                        <ENT>Tackle Herbicide</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(41%), Imazethapyr (128922/81335-77-5)—(1.4%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">279-3608</ENT>
                        <ENT>279</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyfos Concentrate 18% Weed &amp; Grass Killer</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(18%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">279-3609</ENT>
                        <ENT>279</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyfos Ready-To-Use 1.92% Weed &amp; Grass Killer</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(1.92%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">279-3610</ENT>
                        <ENT>279</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyfos Concentrate 41% Weed &amp; Grass Killer</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(41%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">279-3611</ENT>
                        <ENT>279</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyfos Concentrate 25% Weed and Grass Killer</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(25%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4787-23</ENT>
                        <ENT>4787</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyfos X-Tra</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(41%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4787-26</ENT>
                        <ENT>4787</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosphate Technical</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate (417300/1071-83-6)—(98.3%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4787-31</ENT>
                        <ENT>4787</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyfos Herbicide</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(41%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4787-34</ENT>
                        <ENT>4787</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyfos AQ Aquatic Herbicide</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(53.8%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4787-35</ENT>
                        <ENT>4787</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate Concentrate Manufacturing Use Product</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(62%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4787-57</ENT>
                        <ENT>4787</ENT>
                        <ENT>Cheminova Glyphosate Technical</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate (417300/1071-83-6)—(95.7%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">5383-209</ENT>
                        <ENT>5383</ENT>
                        <ENT>Impralit KDS</ENT>
                        <ENT>Boric acid (011001/10043-35-3)—(8%), Boric acid (H3BO3), polymer with N-decyl-1-decanamine, oxirane and 1,2- propanediol (103679/214710-34-6)—(5.96%), Copper carbonate, basic (022901/12069-69-1)—(12.47%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">9078-12</ENT>
                        <ENT>9078</ENT>
                        <ENT>Co-Op Pasture Block with Rabon</ENT>
                        <ENT>Gardona (cis-isomer) (083702/22248-79-9)—(.31%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="39098"/>
                        <ENT I="01">19713-316</ENT>
                        <ENT>19713</ENT>
                        <ENT>Drexel 7.4% Rotenone Wettable Powder</ENT>
                        <ENT>Cube Resins other than rotenone (071004/)—(11.1%), Rotenone (071003/83-79-4)—(7.4%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">48273-7</ENT>
                        <ENT>48273</ENT>
                        <ENT>Marman Atila, Glyphosate</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(41%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">48273-8</ENT>
                        <ENT>48273</ENT>
                        <ENT>Marman Atila, Glyphosate MP</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate, isopropylamine salt (103601/38641-94-0)—(41%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">70060-26</ENT>
                        <ENT>70060</ENT>
                        <ENT>G-Tab9 Tablet</ENT>
                        <ENT>Sodium chlorite (020502/7758-19-2)—(26.4%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">MS-110003</ENT>
                        <ENT>1015</ENT>
                        <ENT>ProFume</ENT>
                        <ENT>Sulfuryl fluoride (078003/2699-79-8)—(99.8%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">TX-020007</ENT>
                        <ENT>19713</ENT>
                        <ENT>Drexel Carbaryl 4L</ENT>
                        <ENT>Carbaryl (056801/63-25-2)—(42.6%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">TX-080015</ENT>
                        <ENT>241</ENT>
                        <ENT>Habitat Herbicide</ENT>
                        <ENT>Imazapyr, isopropylamine salt (128829/81510-83-0)—(27.77%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">TX-190009</ENT>
                        <ENT>352</ENT>
                        <ENT>Dupont Fexapan Herbicide</ENT>
                        <ENT>Dicamba, diglycolamine salt (128931/104040-79-1)—(42.8%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">TX-190011</ENT>
                        <ENT>100</ENT>
                        <ENT>Gramoxone SL 2.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>Paraquat dichloride (061601/1910-42-5)—(30.1%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">TX-200003</ENT>
                        <ENT>62719</ENT>
                        <ENT>Tracer</ENT>
                        <ENT>Spinosad (110003/131929-60-7)—(44.2%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">TX-210002</ENT>
                        <ENT>92894</ENT>
                        <ENT>Goaltender</ENT>
                        <ENT>Oxyfluorfen (111601/42874-03-3)—(41%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">TX-210003</ENT>
                        <ENT>92894</ENT>
                        <ENT>Goaltender</ENT>
                        <ENT>Oxyfluorfen (111601/42874-03-3)—(41%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">TX-210004</ENT>
                        <ENT>279</ENT>
                        <ENT>Fyfanon ULV AG</ENT>
                        <ENT>Malathion (NO INERT USE) (057701/121-75-5)—(96.5%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">WA-190006</ENT>
                        <ENT>10163</ENT>
                        <ENT>Badge X2</ENT>
                        <ENT>Copper hydroxide (023401/20427-59-2)—(21.49%), Copper oxychloride (Cu2Cl (OH)3) (023501/1332-65-6)—(23.82%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">WA-200001</ENT>
                        <ENT>352</ENT>
                        <ENT>Curzate 60DF</ENT>
                        <ENT>Cymoxanil (129106/57966-95-7)—(60%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">WV-200001</ENT>
                        <ENT>1015</ENT>
                        <ENT>ProFume</ENT>
                        <ENT>Sulfuryl fluoride (078003/2699-79-8)—(99.8%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">WY-200001</ENT>
                        <ENT>66222</ENT>
                        <ENT>Fanfare 2 SC Insecticide/Miticide</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bifenthrin (128825/82657-04-3)—(22.6%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The registrant of products identified in Table 1A of this unit has requested 18 months to sell existing stocks of those products.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="xs60,12,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1A—Registrations With Pending Voluntary Requests for Cancellation, Cont'd.</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Registration No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Company No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Product name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Active ingredient</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">70506-308</ENT>
                        <ENT>70506</ENT>
                        <ENT>Surflan Flex Herbicide</ENT>
                        <ENT>Oryzalin (104201/19044-88-3)—(34%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">70506-312</ENT>
                        <ENT>70506</ENT>
                        <ENT>Surflan GT Herbicide</ENT>
                        <ENT>Glyphosate (417300/1071-83-6)—(10%), Oryzalin (104201/19044-88-3)—(30.3%).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The product registrations with pending voluntary requests for amendments to terminate uses are listed in sequence by registration number (or company number and 24(c) number) in Table 2 of this unit.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="xs60,12,r50,r50,r25">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Product Registrations With Pending Voluntary Requests for Amendment</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Registration No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Company No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Product name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Active ingredient</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Uses to be terminated</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">19713-268</ENT>
                        <ENT>19713</ENT>
                        <ENT>Drexel Kaptan 50W</ENT>
                        <ENT>Captan (081301/133-06-2)—(48.9%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Home &amp; Garden.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">91275-2</ENT>
                        <ENT>91275</ENT>
                        <ENT>EAC Oxytetracycline Manufacturing Use Product</ENT>
                        <ENT>Oxytetracycline hydrochloride (006308/2058-46-0)—(98.3%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Citrus Group 10-10.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The name and address of record for the requesting registrants are listed in sequence by EPA company number in Table 3 of this unit. The company number corresponds to the first part of the EPA registration numbers of the products listed in Tables 1 and 2 of this unit.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s40,r125">
                    <TTITLE>Table 3—Registrants Requesting Voluntary Cancellation</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Company No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Company name and address</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">100</ENT>
                        <ENT>Syngenta Crop Protection, LLC, 410 Swing Road, P.O. Box 18300, Greensboro, NC 27419-8300.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">241</ENT>
                        <ENT>BASF Agricultural Solutions US, LLC, 2 TW Alexander Drive, Research Triangle Park, NC 27713.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">279</ENT>
                        <ENT>FMC Corporation, 2929 Walnut Street, Philadelphia, PA 19104.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">352</ENT>
                        <ENT>Corteva Agriscience, LLC, 9330 Zionsville Road, Indianapolis, IN 46268.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1015</ENT>
                        <ENT>Douglas Products and Packaging Company, LLC, Agent Name: Pyxis Regulatory Consulting, Inc., 535 Dock Street, Suite 211, Tacoma, WA 98402.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4787</ENT>
                        <ENT>Cheminova A/S, Agent Name: FMC Corporation, 2929 Walnut Street, Philadelphia, PA 19104.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">5383</ENT>
                        <ENT>Troy Chemical Corporation, Agent Name: Troy Corporation, 8 Vreeland Road, Florham Park, NJ 07932.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">9078</ENT>
                        <ENT>ProTrition Feed, 180 Old Nashville Hwy, La Vergne, TN 37086.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="39099"/>
                        <ENT I="01">10163</ENT>
                        <ENT>Gowan Company, LLC, 370 S Main St., Yuma, AZ 85364.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">19713</ENT>
                        <ENT>Drexel Chemical Company, P.O. Box 13327, Memphis, TN 38113-0327.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">48273</ENT>
                        <ENT>Marman USA, Inc., Agent Name: Nufarm Americas, Inc., 4000 Aerial Center Pkwy., Suite 101, Morrisville, NC 27560.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">62719</ENT>
                        <ENT>Corteva Agriscience, LLC, 9330 Zionsville Road, Indianapolis, IN 46268.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">66222</ENT>
                        <ENT>Makhteshim Agan of North America, Inc., D/B/A Adama, 8601 Six Forks Road, Suite 300, Raleigh, NC 27615.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">70060</ENT>
                        <ENT>BASF Corporation, 100 Park Avenue, Florham Park, NJ 07932.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">70506</ENT>
                        <ENT>UPL NA, Inc., P.O. Box 12219, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">91275</ENT>
                        <ENT>Earth AG Corporation, Agent Name: Delta Analytical Corporation, 12510 Prosperity Drive, Suite 160, Silver Spring, MD 20904.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">92894</ENT>
                        <ENT>Nutrichem USA, Inc., Agent Name: Pyxis Regulatory Consulting, Inc., 535 Dock Street, Suite 211, Tacoma, WA 98402.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Provisions for Disposition of Existing Stocks</HD>
                <P>
                    Existing stocks are those stocks of registered pesticide products that are currently in the United States, and that were packaged, labeled, and released for shipment prior to the effective date of the cancellation, which will be the date of publication of the cancellation order in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . In any order issued in response to these requests, EPA anticipates including the following provisions for the treatment of any existing stocks of the products listed in Unit II:
                </P>
                <P>For voluntary cancellations of the registrations listed in Table 1 of Unit II, registrants will be permitted to sell and distribute existing stocks of voluntarily canceled products for 1 year after the effective date of the cancellation order. Thereafter, registrants will be prohibited from selling or distributing the products identified in Table 1 of Unit II, except for export consistent with FIFRA section 17 (7 U.S.C. 136o) or for proper disposal.</P>
                <P>
                    For those products identified in Table 1A of Unit II, the registrants have requested 18 months after the date of publication of the cancellation order in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     to sell existing stocks. Thereafter, the registrants will be prohibited from selling or distributing the products identified in Table 1A of Unit II, except for export consistent with FIFRA section 17 (7 U.S.C. 136o) or for proper disposal.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Once EPA has approved labels for the products listed in Table 2 of Unit II, (amended to reflect the requested amendments to terminate uses), registrants will be permitted to sell or distribute products under the previously approved labeling for a period of 18 months after the date of publication of the cancelation order in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , unless other restrictions have been imposed. Thereafter, registrants will be prohibited from selling or distributing the products whose labels include the terminated uses identified in Table 2 of Unit II, except for export consistent with FIFRA section 17 (7 U.S.C. 136o) or for proper disposal.
                </P>
                <P>Persons other than the registrant will generally be allowed to sell, distribute, or use existing stocks of the canceled products and/or products whose labels include the terminated uses until supplies are exhausted, provided that such sale, distribution, or use is consistent with the terms of the previously approved labeling on, or that accompanied, the canceled products and/or terminated uses.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>
                        (Authority: 7 U.S.C. 136 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        )
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Charles Smith,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Registration Division, Office of Pesticide Programs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13066 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL DEPOSIT INSURANCE CORPORATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">TIME AND DATE: </HD>
                    <P>2:24 p.m. on Thursday, June 25, 2026.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PLACE: </HD>
                    <P>The meeting was held in the Board Room on the sixth floor of the FDIC Building located at 550 17th Street NW, Washington, DC.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">STATUS: </HD>
                    <P>Closed.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">MATTERS TO BE CONSIDERED: </HD>
                    <P>The Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation met to consider matters related to the Corporation's resolution, supervision, and corporate activities. In calling the meeting, the Board determined, on motion of Director Russell Vought (Acting Director, Consumer Financial Protection Bureau), seconded by Director Jonathan V. Gould (Comptroller of the Currency), by the unanimous vote of Chairman Travis Hill, Director Gould, and Director Vought, that Corporation business required its consideration of the matters which were to be the subject of this meeting on less than seven days' notice to the public; that no earlier notice of the meeting was practicable; that the public interest did not require consideration of the matters in a meeting open to public observation; and that the matters could be considered in a closed meeting by authority of subsections (c)(2), (c)(4), (c)(6), (c)(8), (c)(9)(A), (c)(9)(B), and (c)(10) of the “Government in the Sunshine Act” (5 U.S.C. 552b (c)(2), (c)(4), (c)(6), (c)(8), (c)(9)(A), (c)(9)(B) and (c)(10)).</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">CONTACT PERSON FOR MORE INFORMATION: </HD>
                    <P>
                        For further information, please contact Jennifer M. Jones, Deputy Executive Secretary, FDIC, at 
                        <E T="03">FDICBoardMatters@fdic.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated at Washington, DC, on June 25, 2026.</DATED>
                    <FP>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.</FP>
                    <NAME>Jennifer M. Jones,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Executive Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13115 Filed 6-25-26; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6714-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">FEDERAL DEPOSIT INSURANCE CORPORATION </AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meetings: Notice of Meeting Held With Less Than Seven Days' Advance Notice</SUBJECT>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">TIME AND DATE: </HD>
                    <P>2:00 p.m. on June 25, 2026. </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PLACE:</HD>
                    <P> The meeting was held in the FDIC Board Room, 550 17th Street NW, Washington, DC, with less than seven days' advance notice and was webcast to the public.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">STATUS: </HD>
                    <P>Open to public observation via webcast.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">MATTERS TO BE CONSIDERED: </HD>
                    <P>
                        Pursuant to the provisions of the “Government in the Sunshine Act” (5 U.S.C. 552b), notice is given that the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation's Board of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39100"/>
                        Directors met in open session to consider the following matters:
                    </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Discussion Agenda:</HD>
                <P>Notice of Proposed Rulemaking: Resolution Submissions Required for Covered Insured Depository Institutions.</P>
                <P>Notice of Proposed Rulemaking: Assessments Thresholds, Rate Schedules, and Adjustments.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Summary Agenda:</HD>
                <P>Notice of Proposed Rulemaking: Disclosure of Information.</P>
                <P>No substantive discussion of the above item is anticipated. The Board of Directors will resolve this matter with a single vote unless a member of the Board requests that the item be moved to the discussion agenda.</P>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">CONTACT PERSON FOR MORE INFORMATION: </HD>
                    <P>
                        For further information, please contact Jennifer M. Jones, Deputy Executive Secretary, FDIC, at 
                        <E T="03">FDICBoardMatters@fdic.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                         5 U.S.C. 552b.
                    </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated at Washington, DC, on June 25, 2026.</DATED>
                    <P>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.</P>
                    <NAME>Jennifer M. Jones,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Executive Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13116 Filed 6-25-26; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6714-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Change in Bank Control Notices; Acquisitions of Shares of a Bank or Bank Holding Company</SUBJECT>
                <P>The notificants listed below have applied under the Change in Bank Control Act (Act) (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) and § 225.41 of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41) to acquire shares of a bank or bank holding company. The factors that are considered in acting on the applications are set forth in paragraph 7 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(7)).</P>
                <P>
                    The public portions of the applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, if any, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank(s) indicated below and at the offices of the Board of Governors. This information may also be obtained on an expedited basis, upon request, by contacting the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank and from the Board's Freedom of Information Office at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.federalreserve.gov/foia/request.htm.</E>
                     Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in paragraph 7 of the Act.
                </P>
                <P>Comments received are subject to public disclosure. In general, comments received will be made available without change and will not be modified to remove personal or business information including confidential, contact, or other identifying information. Comments should not include any information such as confidential information that would not be appropriate for public disclosure.</P>
                <P>Comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors, Benjamin W. McDonough, Secretary of the Board, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20551-0001, not later than July 14, 2026.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">A. Federal Reserve Bank of Atlanta</E>
                     (Erien O. Terry, Assistant Vice President) 1000 Peachtree Street NE, Atlanta, Georgia 30309. Comments can also be sent electronically to 
                    <E T="03">Applications.Comments@atl.frb.org:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Michael Shaw, Freda Shaw, Kody Daniel Shaw, M. Keith Shaw, and Melissa P. Shaw, all of Mayo, Florida; Keri Shaw Dykes, Gainesville, Florida; and Kyle L. Shaw, Tallahassee, Florida;</E>
                     as members of the Shaw Family Control Group, a group acting in concert; to acquire additional voting shares of Lafayette Banking Company, and thereby indirectly acquire voting shares of Lafayette State Bank, both of Mayo, Florida.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">B. Federal Reserve Bank of San Francisco</E>
                     (Keith Dudley, Vice President) 101 Market Street, San Francisco, California 94105-1579. Comments can also be sent electronically to 
                    <E T="03">SF.Supervision.Comments.Applications@sf.frb.org:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">
                        2024 Voting Agreement of BankGuam Holding Company (“2024 Voting Agreement”) and Joaquin P. L. G. Cook, Hagatna, Guam, as manager, along with the following current parties to the Voting Agreement: Eugenia A Leon Guerrero TRS Jesus S Leon Guerrero Family Trust UA DTD 12/14/00, co-trustees: Lourdes A. Leon Guerrero, Jesse A. Leon Guerrero, and Maria Eugenia H. Leon Guerrero, all of Hagatna, Guam; Eugenia A Leon Guerrero, Hagatna, Guam; Lourdes A. Leon Guerrero, Hagatna, Guam; Lourdes A. Leon Guerrero and Jeffrey Cook, Hagatna, Guam; Lourdes A. Leon Guerrero and Jeffrey Cook F/R Mariana Cook, Hagatna, Guam; Joaquin P.LG Cook by Jeffrey Cook and Lourdes Leon Guerrero, Hagatna, Guam; Joaquin Philip LG Cook by Jeffrey Cook, Hagatna, Guam; Jeffrey Cook and Lourdes Leon Guerrero T/F Joaquin LG Cook, Hagatna, Guam; Lourdes A. Leon Guerrero custodian for Ana-Lourdes S. Cook, Hagatna, Guam; Lourdes A. Leon Guerrero custodian for a minor child 1 UGMA GU, Hagatna, Guam; Lourdes A. Leon Guerrero custodian for minor child 2 UGMA GU, Hagatna, Guam; Lourdes A. Leon Guerrero custodian for minor child 3 UTMA GU, Hagatna, Guam; Lourdes A. Leon Guerrero custodian for minor child 4 UTMA GU, Hagatna, Guam; Lourdes A. Leon Guerrero custodian for minor child 5 UGMA GU, Hagatna, Guam; Lourdes A. Leon Guerrero custodian for minor child 6 UTMA GU, Hagatna, Guam; Lourdes A. Leon Guerrero custodian for minor child 7 UGMA GU, Hagatna, Guam; Maria Flor Herrero, Santa Rita, Guam; Lorea Industries, Santa Rita, Guam; Maria Flor Herrero and Elena H Garmendia, Jt Ten, Santa Rita, Guam; Maria Flor Herrero and Gorka H. Garmendia, Jt. Ten, Santa Rita, Guam; Maria Flor Herrero and Miren H. Garmendia, Jt Ten, Santa Rita, Guam; Alexandra Herrero Leon Guerrero custodian minor child 1 UTMA CA, Piti, Guam; Alexandra Herrero Leon Guerrero custodian minor child 2 UGMA GU, Piti, Guam; Alexandra Herrero Leon Guerrero custodian a minor child 3 UGMA GU, Piti, Guam; Jesus Anthony Asier H Leon Guerrero, Chula Vista, California; Jesus Anthony Asier H Leon Guerrero custodian minor child 1 UTMA CA, Chula Vista, California; Joaquin PLG Cook, Hagatna, Guam; Joaquin PLG Cook custodian for Ana Lourdes S. Cook UGMA GU, Hagatna, Guam; Joaquin PLG Cook custodian for minor child 1 UGMA GU, Hagatna, Guam; Joaquin P LG Cook custodian for minor child 2 UMGA GU, Hagatna, Guam; Joaquin P LG Cook custodian for minor child 3 UMGA GU, Hagatna, Guam; Maria Eugenia H Leon Guerrero, Yona, Guam; Maria Eugenia H Leon Guerrero custodian minor child 1 UTMA GU, Yona, Guam; Maria Eugenia H Leon Guerrero custodian minor child 2 UTMA GU, Yona, Guam; Pedro Perez Ada and Jennifer M A Ada Trustees for the SNJ Ada Family Trust, Hagatna, Guam; Carla Perez Ada, Sausalito, California; Frances Perez Ada Purviance, El Dorado Hills, California; Maria Ada Bonnie TR UA 09/02/2025 Maria Ada Bonnie Trust, Minneapolis, Minnesota, Maria Ada Bonnie, as trustee; Patricia Perez Ada TR UA 09/28/2001 Patricia P. Ada Separate Property Trust, Patricia P. Ada, as trustee, Tamuning, Guam; David Joseph John &amp; Teresa Ada John TR UA 08/21/2019 John Family Living Trust, David Joseph John and Teresa Ada John, as co-trustees, Hagatna, Guam; William D. Leon Guerrero, Zita T. Leon Guerrero, and Shawn Leon Guerrero, Hagatna, Guam; William D. Leon Guerrero, Zita T. Leon Guerrero, and Jacob Leon Guerrero, Hagatna, Guam; William D. 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39101"/>
                        Leon Guerrero, Zita T. Leon Guerrero, and Rodney Leon Guerrero, Hagatna, Guam; William D. Leon Guerrero, Zita T. Leon Guerrero, and Jessica LG Diaz, Hagatna, Guam; Jessica Leon Guerrero Diaz, Hagatna, Guam; Ralph Guerrero Sablan TR UA 12/14/2016 Ralph Guerrero Sablan and Maryanne Gutierrez Sablan Living Trust, Hagatna, Guam, Mark J. Sablan and Ralph Gregory Sablan, as co-trustees, Hagatna, Guam; Ralph Gregory Sablan, Las Vegas Nevada; Rebecca S Mann, Columbia, South Carolina ; Michelle M Sablan, Las Vegas, Neveda; Mark J. Sablan, Hagatna, Guam; Mark J. Sablan and Caroline H. Sablan, Hagatna, Guam; Caroline H. Sablan, Hagatna, Guam; Luis G Camacho and Cynthia L Camacho TR UA 03/20/09 Luis and Cynthia Camacho Living Trust, Hagatna, Guam, Cynthia L. Camacho, as trustee, Hagatna, Guam; Richard Camacho, Hagatna, Guam; Anthony Camacho, Hagatna, Guam; Keven F Camacho, Hagatna, Guam; Vincent Leon Guerrero, Mangilao, Guam; Vincent A Leon Guerrero and Machelle A C Leon Guerrero Jt Ten, Mangilao, Guam; Thomas E Borja EX EST Martin D. Leon Guerrero, Hagatna, Guam; Dominica G.P. Leon Guerrero, Hagatna, Guam; Martin Perez Leon Guerrero, Hagatna, Guam; Agnes Leon Guerrero Winters, Camarillo, California; Tyler Reece Leon Guerrero Winters, Camarillo, California;
                    </E>
                     as a group acting in concert to acquire additional voting shares of BankGuam Holding Company, and thereby indirectly acquire additional voting shares of Bank of Guam, both of Hagatna, Guam.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In addition, 
                    <E T="03">Haig Tri Huynh and Mariana LG Cook-Huynh Jt. Ten, Tamuning, Guam, and Mariana Cook Huynh custodian for minor child 1, UGMA GU, Tamuning, Guam;</E>
                     in their individual capacities, to retain voting shares of BankGuam Holding Company, and thereby indirectly retain voting shares of Bank of Guam, both of Hagatna, Guam.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.</P>
                    <NAME>Michele Taylor Fennell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Secretary of the Board.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13067 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6210-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Centers for Disease Control and Prevention</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Advisory Committee on Breast Cancer in Young Women; Notice of Charter Renewal</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of charter renewal.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), within the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), announces the renewal of the charter of the Advisory Committee on Breast Cancer in Young Women (ACBCYW).</P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Kimberly E. Smith, M.B.A., M.H.A., Designated Federal Officer, Advisory Committee on Breast Cancer in Young Women, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, Department of Health and Human Services, 4770 Buford Highway NE, Mailstop S107-4, Atlanta, Georgia 30341-3717. Telephone: (404) 498-0073; Email: 
                        <E T="03">KESmith@cdc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>CDC is providing notice under 5 U.S.C. 1001-1014 of the renewal of the charter of the Advisory Committee on Breast Cancer in Young Women, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, Department of Health and Human Services. This charter has been renewed for a two-year period through June 17, 2028.</P>
                <P>
                    The Director, Office of Strategic Business Initiatives, Office of the Chief Operating Officer, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, has been delegated the authority to sign 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notices pertaining to announcements of meetings and other committee management activities, for both the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Kalwant Smagh,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of Strategic Business Initiatives, Office of the Chief Operating Officer, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13049 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4163-18-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Food and Drug Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FDA-2026-N-6771]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Cellular, Tissue, and Gene Therapies Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting; Establishment of a Public Docket; Request for Comments—Biologics License Application (BLA) 125842 From Capricor, Inc. for Deramiocel (Human Allogeneic Cardiosphere-Derived Cells)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Food and Drug Administration, HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; establishment of a public docket; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) announces a forthcoming public advisory committee meeting of the Cellular, Tissue, and Gene Therapies Advisory Committee (the Committee). The general function of the Committee is to provide advice and recommendations to FDA on regulatory issues. The meeting will be open to the public. FDA is establishing a docket for public comment on this document.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting will be held on July 29, 2026, from 10:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. Eastern Time.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        All meeting participants will be heard, viewed, captioned, and recorded for this advisory committee meeting via an online teleconferencing and/or video conferencing platform. Answers to commonly asked questions about FDA advisory committee meetings may be accessed at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fda.gov/AdvisoryCommittees/AboutAdvisoryCommittees/ucm408555.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The online web conference meeting will be available at the following link on the day of the meeting at: 
                        <E T="03">https://youtube.com/live/SUNn6YcBhnw?feature=share.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FDA is establishing a docket for public comment on this meeting. The docket number is FDA-2026-N-6771. The docket will close on July 28, 2026. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. The 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         electronic filing system will accept comments until 11:59 p.m. Eastern Time at the end of July 28, 2026. Comments received by mail/hand delivery/courier (for written/paper submissions) will be considered timely if they are received on or before that date.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Comments received on or before July 20, 2026, will be provided to the Committee. Comments received after that date will be taken into 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39102"/>
                        consideration by FDA. In the event that the meeting is cancelled, FDA will continue to evaluate any relevant applications or information, and consider any comments submitted to the docket, as appropriate.
                    </P>
                    <P>You may submit comments as follows:</P>
                </ADD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Submissions</HD>
                <P>Submit electronic comments in the following way:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                      
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Follow the instructions for submitting comments. Comments submitted electronically, including attachments, to the docket unchanged. Because your comment will be made public, you are solely responsible for ensuring that your comment does not include any confidential information that you or a third party may not wish to be posted, such as medical information, your or anyone else's Social Security number, or confidential business information, such as a manufacturing process. Please note that if you include your name, contact information, or other information that identifies you in the body of your comments, that information will be posted on 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Written/Paper Submissions</HD>
                <P>Submit written/paper submissions as follows:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Mail/Hand Delivery/Courier (for written/paper submissions):</E>
                     Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
                </P>
                <P>• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                     All submissions received must include the Docket No. FDA-2026-N-6771 for “Cellular, Tissue, and Gene Therapies Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting; Establishment of a Public Docket; Request for Comments—Biologics License Application (BLA) 125842 from Capricor, Inc. for deramiocel (human allogeneic cardiosphere-derived cells). Received comments, those filed in a timely manner (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ), will be placed in the docket and, except for those submitted as “Confidential Submissions,” publicly viewable at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or at the Dockets Management Staff between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, 240-402-7500.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” FDA will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Submit both copies to the Dockets Management Staff. If you do not wish your name and contact information to be made publicly available, you can provide this information on the cover sheet and not in the body of your comments and you must identify the information as “confidential.” Any information marked as “confidential” will not be disclosed except in accordance with 21 CFR 10.20 and other applicable disclosure law. For more information about FDA's posting of comments to public dockets, see 80 FR 56469, September 18, 2015, or access the information at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/FR-2015-09-18/pdf/2015-23389.pdf.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                     For access to the docket to read background documents or the electronic and written/paper comments received, go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and insert the docket number, found in brackets in the heading of this document, into the “Search” box and follow the prompts and/or go to the Dockets Management Staff, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500.
                </P>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Cicely Reese; Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 1, Rm. 3215, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-9025, email: 
                        <E T="03">CBERCTGTAC@fda.hhs.gov,</E>
                         or FDA Advisory Committee Information Line, 1-800-741-8138 (301-443-0572 in the Washington, DC area). A notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         about last-minute modifications that impact a previously announced advisory committee meeting cannot always be published quickly enough to provide timely notice. Therefore, you should always check FDA's website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fda.gov/AdvisoryCommittees/default.htm</E>
                         and scroll down to the appropriate advisory committee meeting link or call the advisory committee information line to learn about possible modifications before the meeting.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                     The meeting presentations will be heard, viewed, captioned, and recorded through an online teleconferencing and/or video conferencing platform. On July 29, 2026, the Committee will meet in open session to discuss and make recommendations on Biologics License Application (BLA) 125842 from Capricor, Inc. for deramiocel (human allogeneic cardiosphere-derived cells) the treatment of cardiomyopathy in Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD).
                </P>
                <P>
                    FDA intends to make background material available to the public no later than two (2) business days before the meeting. If FDA is unable to post the background material on its website prior to the meeting, the background material will be made publicly available on FDA's website at the time of the advisory committee meeting. Background material and the link to the online teleconference and/or video conference meeting will be available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fda.gov/AdvisoryCommittees/Calendar/default.htm.</E>
                     Scroll down to the appropriate advisory committee meeting link.
                </P>
                <P>The meeting will include slide presentations with audio and video components to allow the presentation of materials in a manner that most closely resembles an in-person advisory committee meeting.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Procedure:</E>
                     Interested persons may present data, information, or views, orally or in writing, on issues pending before the Committee. All electronic and written submissions to the Docket (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ) on or before July 20, 2026, will be provided to the Committee. Oral presentations from the public will be scheduled between approximately 1:25 p.m. and 2:25 p.m. Eastern Time. Those individuals interested in making formal oral presentations should notify the contact person and submit a brief statement of the general nature of the evidence or arguments they wish to present, along with the names, email addresses, and direct contact phone numbers of proposed participants, and an indication of the approximate time requested to make their presentation on or before 12 p.m. Eastern Time on July 15, 2026. Time allotted for each presentation may be limited. If the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39103"/>
                    number of registrants requesting to speak is greater than can be reasonably accommodated during the scheduled open public hearing session, FDA may conduct a lottery to determine the speakers for the scheduled open public hearing session. The contact person will notify interested persons regarding their request to speak by 6 p.m. Eastern Time on July 17, 2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For press inquiries, please contact the HHS Press Room at 
                    <E T="03">www.hhs.gov/press-room/index.html</E>
                     or 202-690-6343. FDA welcomes the attendance of the public at its advisory committee meetings and will make every effort to accommodate persons with disabilities. If you require accommodations due to a disability, please contact Cicely Reese at 
                    <E T="03">CBERCTGTAC@fda.hhs.gov</E>
                     (see 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    ) at least 7 days in advance of the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    FDA is committed to the orderly conduct of its advisory committee meetings. Please visit our website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fda.gov/AdvisoryCommittees/AboutAdvisoryCommittees/ucm111462.htm</E>
                     for procedures on public conduct during advisory committee meetings.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. 1001 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). This meeting notice also serves as notice that, pursuant to 21 CFR 10.19, the requirements in 21 CFR 14.22(b), (f), and (g) relating to the location of advisory committee meetings are hereby waived to allow for this meeting to take place using an online meeting platform. This waiver is in the interest of allowing greater transparency and opportunities for public participation, in addition to convenience for advisory committee members, speakers, and guest speakers. The conditions for issuance of a waiver under 21 CFR 10.19 are met.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Grace R. Graham,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Commissioner for Policy, Legislation, and International Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13096 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4164-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Food and Drug Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Nos. FDA-2025-E-0162; FDA-2025-E-0163; and FDA-2025-E-0164]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Determination of Regulatory Review Period for Purposes of Patent Extension; VYALEV</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Food and Drug Administration, HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) has determined the regulatory review period for VYALEV and is publishing this notice of that determination as required by law. FDA has made the determination because of the submission of applications to the Director of the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO), Department of Commerce, for the extension of a patent which claims that human drug product.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published (see 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        ) are incorrect may submit either electronic or written comments and ask for a redetermination by August 28, 2026. Furthermore, any interested person may petition FDA for a determination regarding whether the applicant for extension acted with due diligence during the regulatory review period by December 28, 2026. See “Petitions” in the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section for more information.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. The 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         electronic filing system will accept comments until 11:59 p.m. Eastern Time at the end of August 28, 2026. Comments received by mail/hand delivery/courier (for written/paper submissions) will be considered timely if they are received on or before that date.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Submissions</HD>
                <P>Submit electronic comments in the following way:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                      
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Follow the instructions for submitting comments. Comments submitted electronically, including attachments, to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     will be posted to the docket unchanged. Because your comment will be made public, you are solely responsible for ensuring that your comment does not include any confidential information that you or a third party may not wish to be posted, such as medical information, your or anyone else's Social Security number, or confidential business information, such as a manufacturing process. Please note that if you include your name, contact information, or other information that identifies you in the body of your comments, that information will be posted on 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Written/Paper Submissions</HD>
                <P>Submit written/paper submissions as follows:</P>
                <P>• Mail/Hand Delivery/Courier (for written/paper submissions): Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.</P>
                <P>• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                     All submissions received must include the Docket Nos. FDA-2025-E-0162; FDA-2025-E-0163; and FDA-2025-E-0164 for “Determination of Regulatory Review Period for Purposes of Patent Extension; VYALEV.” Received comments, those filed in a timely manner (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ), will be placed in the docket and, except for those submitted as “Confidential Submissions,” publicly viewable at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or at the Dockets Management Staff between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, 240-402-7500.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Submit both copies to the Dockets Management Staff. If you do not wish your name and contact information to be made publicly available, you can provide this information on the cover sheet and not in the body of your comments and you must identify this information as “confidential.” Any information marked as “confidential” will not be disclosed except in accordance with § 10.20 (21 CFR 10.20) and other applicable disclosure law. For more information about FDA's posting of comments to public dockets, see 80 FR 56469, September 18, 2015, or access the 
                </P>
                <PRTPAGE P="39104"/>
                <FP>
                    information at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/FR-2015-09-18/pdf/2015-23389.pdf.</E>
                </FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                     For access to the docket to read background documents or the electronic and written/paper comments received, go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and insert the docket number, found in brackets in the heading of this document, into the “Search” box and follow the prompts and/or go to the Dockets Management Staff, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500.
                </P>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Patrick Clouser, Office of the Commissioner, Food and Drug Administration, 12420 Parklawn Drive, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-5276.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>The Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-417) and the Generic Animal Drug and Patent Term Restoration Act (Pub. L. 100-670) generally provide that a patent may be extended for a period of up to 5 years so long as the patented item (human drug or biological product, animal drug product, medical device, food additive, or color additive) was subject to regulatory review by FDA before the item was marketed. Under these acts, a product's regulatory review period forms the basis for determining the amount of extension an applicant may receive.</P>
                <P>A regulatory review period consists of two periods of time: a testing phase and an approval phase. For human drug products, the testing phase begins when the exemption to permit the clinical investigations of the drug becomes effective and runs until the approval phase begins. The approval phase starts with the initial submission of an application to market the human drug product and continues until FDA grants permission to market the drug product. Although only a portion of a regulatory review period may count toward the actual amount of extension that the Director of USPTO may award (for example, half the testing phase must be subtracted as well as any time that may have occurred before the patent was issued), FDA's determination of the length of a regulatory review period for a human drug product will include all of the testing phase and approval phase as specified in 35 U.S.C. 156(g)(1)(B).</P>
                <P>FDA has approved for marketing the human drug product VYALEV (foscarbidopa and foslevodopa). VYALEV is indicated for the treatment of motor fluctuations in adults with advanced Parkinson's disease (PD). Subsequent to this approval, the USPTO received patent term restoration applications for VYALEV (U.S. Patent Nos. 9,446,059; 10,174,061; and 10,730,895) from AbbVie Inc. and the USPTO requested FDA's assistance in determining these patents' eligibility for patent term restoration. In a letter dated September 23, 2025, FDA advised the USPTO that this human drug product had undergone a regulatory review period and that the approval of VYALEV represented the first permitted commercial marketing or use of the product. Thereafter, the USPTO requested that FDA determine the product's regulatory review period.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Determination of Regulatory Review Period</HD>
                <P>FDA has determined that the applicable regulatory review period for VYALEV is 2,871 days. Of this time, 1,989 days occurred during the testing phase of the regulatory review period, while 882 days occurred during the approval phase. These periods of time were derived from the following dates:</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        1. 
                        <E T="03">The date an exemption under section 505(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&amp;C Act) (21 U.S.C. 355(i)) became effective</E>
                        : December 8, 2016. FDA has verified the applicant's claim that the date the investigational new drug application became effective was on December 8, 2016.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        2. 
                        <E T="03">The date the application was initially submitted with respect to the human drug product under section 505 of the FD&amp;C Act</E>
                        : May 19, 2022. FDA has verified the applicant's claim that the new drug application (NDA) for VYALEV (NDA 216962) was initially submitted on May 19, 2022.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        3. 
                        <E T="03">The date the application was approved</E>
                        : October 16, 2024. FDA has verified the applicant's claim that NDA 216962 was approved on October 16, 2024.
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>This determination of the regulatory review period establishes the maximum potential length of a patent extension. However, the USPTO applies several statutory limitations in its calculations of the actual period for patent extension. In its application for patent extension, this applicant seeks 1,091 days of patent term extension.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Petitions</HD>
                <P>
                    Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published are incorrect may submit either electronic or written comments and, under 21 CFR 60.24, ask for a redetermination (see 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                    ). Furthermore, as specified in § 60.30 (21 CFR 60.30), any interested person may petition FDA for a determination regarding whether the applicant for extension acted with due diligence during the regulatory review period. To meet its burden, the petition must comply with all the requirements of § 60.30, including but not limited to: must be timely (see 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                    ), must be filed in accordance with § 10.20, must contain sufficient facts to merit an FDA investigation, and must certify that a true and complete copy of the petition has been served upon the patent applicant. (See H. Rept. 857, part 1, 98th Cong., 2d sess., pp. 41-42, 1984.) Petitions should be in the format specified in 21 CFR 10.30.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Submit petitions electronically to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     at Docket No. FDA-2013-S-0610. Submit written petitions (two copies are required) to the Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Grace R. Graham,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Commissioner for Policy, Legislation, and International Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13006 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4164-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Food and Drug Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FDA-2026-N-1305]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; New Animal Drugs for Minor Use and Minor Species</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Food and Drug Administration, HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit written comments (including recommendations) on the collection of information by July 29, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be submitted to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function. The OMB control number for this information collection is 0910-0605. Also include the FDA docket number found in 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39105"/>
                        brackets in the heading of this document.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Kelly Covington, Center for Veterinary Medicine, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Drive, College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-5661, 
                        <E T="03">PRAStaff@fda.hhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">New Animal Drugs for Minor Use and Minor Species—21 CFR Part 516</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">OMB Control Number 0910-0605—Extension</HD>
                <P>This information collection supports implementation of sections 572 and 573 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&amp;C Act) (21 U.SC. 360ccc-1 and 21 U.S.C. 360ccc-2) which establish requirements for the Designation of a Minor Use or Minor Species New Animal Drug and Index of Legally Marketed Unapproved New Animal Drugs for Minor Species, respectively. Agency regulations are codified in 21 CFR part 516 and include recordkeeping and reporting requirements. The general provisions in 21 CFR 516 subpart A set forth its purpose, scope, and applicable definitions (21 CFR part 516 subpart A).</P>
                <P>Regulations in 21 CFR part 516 subpart B provide for designation status for Minor Use and Minor Species (MUMS) drugs prior to their approval or conditional approval. MUMS-drug designation makes the sponsor eligible for incentives to support the approval or conditional approval of the designated use and is completely optional for drug sponsors. The regulations describe how to apply for designation, what needs to be submitted and other information pertaining to this option. Sponsors of designated new animal drugs are required to demonstrate “due diligence” toward approval or conditional approval through submission of annual reports documenting their progress for each designated use. The FDA uses this information to allow for determining eligibility for designation and the associated incentives and benefits described in section 573 of the act, including a 7-year period of exclusive marketing rights. It enables FDA to process requests for MUMS-drug designation, requests to amend MUMS-drug designation, changes in sponsorship, termination of MUMS-drug designation, requirements for annual reports from sponsors, and provisions for insufficient quantities of MUMS-designated drugs. Sponsors use FDA's “eSubmitter” system to fill out a series of system generated screens to submit their request and annual report electronically. To access the “eSubmitter” system, sponsors will use a previously established account.</P>
                <P>Regulations in 21 CFR 516 subpart C are intended to make more medications legally available to veterinarians and animal owners for the treatment of minor animal species (21 U.S.C. 360ccc). The purpose of these regulations is to encourage the development of these new animal drugs, while still ensuring appropriate safeguards for animal and human health. In some cases, a minor species drug is intended for use in species that are too rare or too varied to be the subject of adequate and well-controlled studies in support of a drug approval. In such cases, FDA may add the drug to the Index of Legally Marketed Unapproved New Animal Drugs for Minor Species as provided for by Section 572 of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 360ccc-2). Within limitations established by the statute, such indexing provides a basis for legally marketing an unapproved new animal drug intended for use in a minor species. FDA regulations in 21 CFR part 516 Subpart C specify, among other things, the criteria and procedures for requesting eligibility for indexing and for requesting addition to the Index, as well as the annual reporting requirements for index holders. The administrative procedures and criteria for indexing a new animal drug for use in a minor species, as well as modifications and removal of a drug from the index are also set forth. FDA uses the information for the activities described above. Requestors can either mail paper submissions to the FDA or use FDA's “eSubmitter” system to fill out a series of system generated screens to submit their request electronically. To access the “eSubmitter” system, sponsors will use a previously established account.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description of Respondents:</E>
                     The respondents to this information collection are pharmaceutical companies that sponsor new animal drugs for designation or requesters wishing to add a new animal drug to the Index.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     of February 20, 2026 (91 FR 8253), FDA published a 60-day notice requesting public comment on the proposed collection of information. One comment was received. While the commenter supported the collection of information requirements, they raised concerns about the administrative and financial burden on smaller companies, recommending that FDA develop templates or guidance materials to ease the process for these companies.
                </P>
                <P>
                    FDA appreciates the comment. FDA provides a Small Business Guide on the Agency's website at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.fda.gov/ForIndustry/SmallBusinessAssistance/default.htm.</E>
                     FDA has also published the following Guidance for Industry (GFI) documents to assist companies developing drugs for minor uses and minor species. Online or written comments on any guidance can be submitted at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)).
                </P>
                <P>• CVM GFI #61—Special Considerations, Incentives, and Programs to Support the Approval of New Animal Drugs for Minor Uses and for Minor Species</P>
                <P>• CVM GFI #170—Animal Drug User Fees and Fee Waivers and Reductions</P>
                <P>• CVM GFI #200—SECG for Designation of New Animal Drugs for Minor Uses/Minor Species</P>
                <P>• CVM GFI #201—SECG for Index of Legally Marketed Unapproved New Animal Drugs for Minor Species</P>
                <P>In addition, we are currently revising CVM GFI#210—The Index of Legally Marketed Unapproved New Animal Drugs for Minor Species to help companies navigate the indexing process.</P>
                <P>FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>
                        Table 1—Estimated Annual Reporting Burden 
                        <SU>1</SU>
                    </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">21 CFR section; activity</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>responses per respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total annual responses</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total hours</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Designated New Animal Drugs for Minor Use and Minor Species, Subpart B</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">516.20; content and format of MUMS-drug designation request</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>16</ENT>
                        <ENT>160</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="39106"/>
                        <ENT I="01">516.26; requirements for amending MUMS-drug designation</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>6</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">516.27; change in sponsorship of MUMS-drug designation</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">516.29; termination of MUMS-drug designation</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">516.30; requirements of annual reports from sponsor(s) of MUMS-designated drugs</ENT>
                        <ENT>26</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>52</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>104</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">516.36; consequences for insufficient quantities of MUMS-designated drugs</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="03">Subtotal</ENT>
                        <ENT>276</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Index of Legally Marketed Unapproved New Animal Drugs for Minor Species, Subpart C</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">516.119; requires a foreign drug company to submit and update the name and address of a permanent U.S. resident agent</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">516.121; written request for a meeting with FDA to discuss the requirements for indexing a new animal drug</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>30</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>120</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">516.123; written request for an informal conference and a requestor's written response to an FDA initial decision denying a request</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                        <ENT>24</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">516.125; correspondence and information associated with investigational use of new animal drugs intended for indexing</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>6</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>120</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">516.129; content and format of a request for determination of eligibility for indexing</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>40</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>800</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">516.141; information to be submitted to FDA by a requestor seeking to establish a qualified expert panel</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>16</ENT>
                        <ENT>320</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">516.143; content and format of the written report of the qualified expert panel</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>120</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,400</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">516.145; content and format of a request for addition to the Index</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>200</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">516.161; content and format of a request for modification of an indexed drug</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>40</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">516.163; information to be contained in a request to FDA to transfer ownership of a drug's index file to another person</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">516.165; requires drug experience reports and distributor statements to be submitted to FDA</ENT>
                        <ENT>25</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>250</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>1250</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="03">Subtotal</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>5,286</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="05">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>5,562</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         There are no capital costs or operating and maintenance costs associated with this collection of information.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,xs54,12">
                    <TTITLE>
                        Table 2—Estimated Annual Recordkeeping Burden 
                        <SU>1</SU>
                    </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">21 CFR section, activity</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">No. of recordkeepers</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">No. of records per recordkeeper</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total annual records</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average 
                            <LI>burden per </LI>
                            <LI>recordkeeping</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Index of Legally Marketed Unapproved New Animal Drugs for Minor Species, Subpart C</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">516.141, requires the qualified expert panel leader to maintain a copy of the written report and all notes or minutes relating to panel deliberations that are submitted to the requestor for 2 years after the report is submitted</ENT>
                        <ENT>30</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>60</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5 (30 min.)</ENT>
                        <ENT>30</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">516.165, requires the holder of an indexed drug to maintain records of all information pertinent to the safety or effectiveness of the indexed drug, from foreign and domestic sources</ENT>
                        <ENT>25</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         There are no capital costs or operating and maintenance costs associated with this collection of information.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="39107"/>
                <P>Our estimated reporting and recordkeeping burden for the information collection reflects an overall increase of 60 hours and a corresponding increase of 120 responses and records. We attribute this adjustment to an increase in the number of submissions we received over the last few years.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Grace R. Graham,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Commissioner for Policy, Legislation, and International Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13005 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4164-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Health Resources and Services Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission to OMB for Review and Approval; Public Comment Request; Rural Health Care Coordination Program Performance Improvement Measures, OMB No. 0906-0024—Revision</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, HRSA submitted an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. Comments submitted during the first public review of this ICR will be provided to OMB. OMB will accept further comments from the public during the review and approval period. OMB may act on HRSA's ICR only after the 30-day comment period for this notice has closed.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this ICR should be received no later than July 29, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To request a copy of the clearance requests submitted to OMB for review, email Samantha Miller, the HRSA Information Collection Clearance Officer, at 
                        <E T="03">paperwork@hrsa.gov</E>
                         or call (301) 443-3983.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Information Collection Request Title:</E>
                     Rural Health Care Coordination Program Performance Improvement Measures, OMB No. 0906-0024—Revision.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Rural Health Care Coordination (Care Coordination) Program is authorized under 42 U.S.C. 254c(e) (section 330A(e) of the Public Health Service Act) to promote rural health care services outreach by improving and expanding the delivery of health care services through comprehensive care coordination strategies addressing a primary focus area: (1) heart disease, (2) cancer, (3) chronic lower respiratory disease, (4) stroke, or (5) maternal health. HRSA currently collects information about Care Coordination Program grants using an OMB-approved set of performance measures and seeks to revise that approved collection. The proposed changes are a result of keeping this instrument relevant, responsive to the Care Coordination Program needs and to improve clarity and ease of reporting for respondents.
                </P>
                <P>
                    A 60-day notice published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on March 24, 2026, vol. 91, No. 56; pp. 14029-30. There were two public comments recommending the following:
                </P>
                <P>• Additional measures for tracking mental/behavioral and substance use disorder health providers and services,</P>
                <P>• Collecting more granular demographic data,</P>
                <P>• Establishing more concrete metrics related to workforce and leadership characteristics,</P>
                <P>
                    • Advocating for requiring that measures related to how well awardees meet community needs require standardized upstream drivers of health screening tools (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     tracking closed-loop referrals), and
                </P>
                <P>• A general recommendation to HRSA to allow grant funds to be used for electronic health record interoperability upgrades.</P>
                <P>HRSA will take these suggestions into consideration on future iterations of measure development.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Need and Proposed Use of the Information:</E>
                     The purpose of the revised data collection is to assess Care Coordination Program awardees' progress in meeting the program goals and how well each awardee meets their community needs. Additionally, HRSA will be able to monitor and assess the impact of the Care Coordination Program and ensure that funds are effectively used to provide services that meet the needs of the awardees' target population(s) needs.
                </P>
                <P>HRSA revised the performance measures that Care Coordination awardees will submit to HRSA on an annual basis. The proposed changes include adding one additional measure in the Leadership and Workforce Composition section, modifying the text of an existing measure to enhance clarity, and correcting the units of measurement on two existing measures.</P>
                <P>There is a proposed increase in the total estimated burden hours compared to the currently approved information collection. The increase in burden is to account for changes to the instruments and the time it takes for awardees to refine their existing processes to coordinate and collect data from their partner organizations. These organizations vary in data collection and reporting capacity as well as in the number of member organizations each must coordinate with to report this data to HRSA. The amount of time it takes to build processes to coordinate and collect data from network partners will vary. Larger networks with multiple partners across different organizations are likely to report higher burdens due to the wait time in between coordinating data requests. Networks that already have established working relationships with member organizations may have existing processes in place to effectively collect data for this program.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Likely Respondents:</E>
                     Respondents will be the Care Coordination Program award recipients.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Burden Statement:</E>
                     Burden in this context means the time expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose, or provide the information requested. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install, and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating, and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information; to search data sources; to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information. The total annual burden hours estimated for this ICR are summarized in the table below.
                    <PRTPAGE P="39108"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Total Estimated Annualized Burden Hours</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Form name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>responses per</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(in hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total burden hours</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Rural Health Care Coordination Performance Measures</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>58.18</ENT>
                        <ENT>581.80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>58.18</ENT>
                        <ENT>581.80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Maria G. Button,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Executive Secretariat.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13065 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4165-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Center for Scientific Review; Amended Notice of Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel, Environmental Influences in Pregnancy and Offspring Health, June 30, 2026, 09:00 a.m. to July 01, 2026, 06:00 p.m., National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 which was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on June 01, 2026, 91 FR 32404, Doc No. 2026-10931.
                </P>
                <P>This meeting is being amended to change the meeting to 1-day, ending on June 30, 2026, instead of 7/01/2026. The meeting is closed to the public.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Bruce A. George, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-12992 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4167-05-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>National Institute of Environmental Health Sciences; Notice of Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the Board of Scientific Counselors, National Institute Environmental Health Sciences.</P>
                <P>
                    The meeting will be partially open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend as well as those who need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodation, must notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting. The open session will be videocast and can be accessed from the NIH Videocasting and Podcasting website (
                    <E T="03">http://videocast.nih.gov/</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Board of Scientific Counselors, National Institute Environmental Health Sciences (ESBSC).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         August 2-4, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Closed:</E>
                         August 2, 2026, 7:00 p.m. to 9:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         BSC Discussions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         NIEHS/National Institutes of Health, Building 4401, East Campus, 79 T.W. Alexander Drive, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Open:</E>
                         August 3, 2026, 8:00 a.m. to 11:45 a.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         Scientific Presentations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         NIEHS/National Institutes of Health, Building 4401, East Campus, 79 T.W. Alexander Drive, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual and In-Person.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Closed:</E>
                         August 3, 2026, 11:45 a.m. to 1:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate session with Investigators and Working Lunch.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         NIEHS/National Institutes of Health, Building 4401, East Campus, 79 T.W. Alexander Drive, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual and In-Person.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Open:</E>
                         August 3, 2026, 1:30 p.m. to 4:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         Scientific Presentations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         NIEHS/National Institutes of Health, Building 4401, East Campus, 79 T.W. Alexander Drive, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual and In-Person.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Closed:</E>
                         August 3, 2026, 4:00 p.m. to 5:45 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate session with Investigators.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         NIEHS/National Institutes of Health, Building 4401, East Campus, 79 T.W. Alexander Drive, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual and In-Person.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Open:</E>
                         August 04, 2026, 8:00 a.m. to 09:15 a.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         Scientific Presentations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         NIEHS/National Institutes of Health, Building 4401, East Campus, 79 T.W. Alexander Drive, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual and In-Person.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Closed:</E>
                         August 04, 2026, 9:15 a.m. to 09:45 a.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate session with Investigators.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         NIEHS/National Institutes of Health, Building 4401, East Campus, 79 T.W. Alexander Drive, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual and In-Person.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Open:</E>
                         August 04, 2026, 9:45 a.m. to 11:00 a.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         Poster Session.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         NIEHS/National Institutes of Health, Building 4401, East Campus, 79 T.W. Alexander Drive, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual and In-Person.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Closed:</E>
                         August 04, 2026, 11:00 a.m. to 04:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate session with Investigators and Working Lunch.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         NIEHS/National Institutes of Health, Building 4401, East Campus, 79 T.W. Alexander Drive, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual and In-Person.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Darryl C. Zeldin, M.D., Scientific Director, National Institute of Environmental Health Sciences, NIH, DHHS, 111 T.W. Alexander Drive, Bldg. 101, Room A214, Research Triangle Park, NC 27709, (984) 287-3641, 
                        <E T="03">zeldin@niehs.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person.</P>
                <P>
                    In the interest of security, NIH has procedures at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nih.gov/about-nih/visitor-information/campus-access-security</E>
                     for entrance into on-campus and off-campus facilities. All visitor vehicles, including taxicabs, hotel, and airport shuttles will be inspected before being allowed on campus. Visitors attending a meeting on campus or at an off-campus federal 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39109"/>
                    facility will be asked to show one form of identification (for example, a government-issued photo ID, driver's license, or passport) and to state the purpose of their visit.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.115, Biometry and Risk Estimation—Health Risks from Environmental Exposures; 93.142, NIEHS Hazardous Waste Worker Health and Safety Training; 93.143, NIEHS Superfund Hazardous Substances—Basic Research and Education; 93.894, Resources and Manpower Development in the Environmental Health Sciences; 93.113, Biological Response to Environmental Health Hazards; 93.114, Applied Toxicological Research and Testing, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Denise M. Santeufemio,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Supervisory Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-12993 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4167-05-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.</P>
                <P>The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review, Special Emphasis Panel; Kidney Physiology and Development.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 22, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Atul Sahai, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 2188, MSC 7818, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-435-1198, 
                        <E T="03">sahaia@csr.nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review, Special Emphasis Panel; Training: Immunology and Infectious Diseases.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 22, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 2:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Noton K. Dutta, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, National Institutes of Health, Center for Scientific Review, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-594-4163, 
                        <E T="03">noton.dutta@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review, Special Emphasis Panel; RFA-DK-26-009: New Investigator Gateway Awards for Collaborative T1D Research.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 22, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Dawanna James-Holly, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-480-2776, 
                        <E T="03">dawanna.james-holly@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review, Special Emphasis Panel; Fellowships: Risk, Prevention and Health Behavior.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 23, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:30 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Gianina Ramona Dumitrescu, Ph.D., MPH, Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Dr., Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-594-4617, 
                        <E T="03">ramona.dumitrescu@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review, Special Emphasis Panel; Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) Intermediate Patient Population Expanded Access (U01 Clinical Trial Required).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 23, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Jessica Bellinger, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 3158, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-827-4466, 
                        <E T="03">bellingerjd@csr.nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review, Special Emphasis Panel; Immune Signaling in Neurological Disorders and Infectious Diseases.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 23, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Iqbal Sayeed, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-594-8258, 
                        <E T="03">iqbal.sayeed@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review, Special Emphasis Panel; Training: Immunology and Infectious Diseases.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 23, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Thomas F. Conway, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Dr., Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-594-2948, 
                        <E T="03">chiuc@mail.nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review, Special Emphasis Panel; Limited Competition Training Grants for the Clinical and Translational Awards (CTS) Program.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 23, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Priya Srinivasan, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-496-4045, 
                        <E T="03">priya.srinivasan@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review, Special Emphasis Panel; Mind Body and Integrative Health Treatment Approaches.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 23-24, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Cheryl K. Nordstrom, MPH, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, RM 809-N, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-594-6226, 
                        <E T="03">cheryl.nordstrom@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review, Special Emphasis Panel; PAR-24-306: Mammalian Models.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 23, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Susan Lynn Spence, Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institute of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39110"/>
                        Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, National Cancer Institute, NIH, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-443-3906 
                        <E T="03">susan.spence@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review, Special Emphasis Panel; RFA-HG-22-001: Supporting Talented Early Career Researchers in Genomics (R01 Clinical Trial Optional).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 23, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Maryam Rohani, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-451-0987, 
                        <E T="03">maryam.rohani@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review, Special Emphasis Panel; Mentored Career Development Award Applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 23, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Srihari Seshadri, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-594-4738, 
                        <E T="03">srihari.seshadri@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review, Special Emphasis Panel; Review of applications for National Centers for Cryo-Electron Tomography, R24, PAR-26-138.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 23, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Lee Warren Slice, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-402-9286, 
                        <E T="03">slicelw@mail.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review, Special Emphasis Panel; Fellowships: Neurosensory Systems.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 23, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         11:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Kirk Thompson, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 5184, MSC 7844, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-435-1242, 
                        <E T="03">kgt@mail.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review, Special Emphasis Panel; Topics in Cancer Biology.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 23, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         11:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Sandip Bhattacharyya, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-594-7121 
                        <E T="03">sandip.bhattacharyya@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.306, Comparative Medicine; 93.333, Clinical Research, 93.306, 93.333, 93.337, 93.393-93.396, 93.837-93.844, 93.846-93.878, 93.892, 93.893, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 25, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Bruce A. George,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13093 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4167-05-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Office of the Director, National Institutes of Health; Notice of Closed Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.</P>
                <P>The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Scientific and Technical Review Board on Biomedical and Behavioral Research Facilities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 27, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:30 a.m. to 8:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Stephanie Nicole Hicks, Scientific Review Officer, The Center for Scientific Review, The National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 480-5710, 
                        <E T="03">hickssn@mail.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.306, Comparative Medicine; 93.333, Clinical Research, 93.306, 93.333, 93.337, 93.393-93.396, 93.837-93.844, 93.846-93.878, 93.892, 93.893, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 25, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Bruce A. George,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13046 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4167-05-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.</P>
                <P>The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel, Biomedical Informatics, Modeling, and Data Science.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 22, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:00 a.m. to 6:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Alexander O. Komendantov, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-496-8739, 
                        <E T="03">alexander.komendantov@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Fellowships: Oncology.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 22, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:30 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Reigh-Yi Lin, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Rm. 4152, MSC 7846, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-827-6009, 
                        <E T="03">lin.reigh-yi@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <PRTPAGE P="39111"/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Population Sciences and Epidemiology Integrated Review Group; Kidney Endocrine and Digestive Disorders Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 22-23, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:30 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Joshua Park, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 720-G, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-451-1110, 
                        <E T="03">joshua.park4@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Training and Career Development: HIV/AIDS Research T23.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 22, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Susham Shankarrao Ingavale, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, National Institutes of Health, Center for Scientific Review, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-827-2681, 
                        <E T="03">susham.ingavale@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Training and Career Development: Basic and Integrative Biological Sciences.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 22, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Archana Jha, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-435-5945, 
                        <E T="03">archana.jha@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Applied Immunology and Disease Control Integrated Review Group; Drug Discovery and Molecular Pharmacology A Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 22, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Bidyottam Mittra, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-435-4057, 
                        <E T="03">bidyottam.mittra@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; PAR Panel: Maximizing Investigators' Research Award (R35).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 22-23, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Kaitlyn N. Hardell, MPH, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-594-3328, 
                        <E T="03">kaitlyn.hardell@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Cardiovascular and Respiratory Sciences Integrated Review Group; Integrative Myocardial Physiology/Pathophysiology B Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 23, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:00 a.m. to 6:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Kirk E. Dineley, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 806E, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-435-2591, 
                        <E T="03">dineleyke@csr.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Topics in neuroscience and glial biology.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 23, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:00 a.m. to 3:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Gagan Deep Bajaj, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-594-7377, 
                        <E T="03">gagan.bajaj@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; PAR Panel: Musculoskeletal and Oral Sciences.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 23, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Sushmita Purkayastha, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-451-1138, 
                        <E T="03">sushmita.purkayastha@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review, Special Emphasis Panel; Training and Career Development: Clinical Care, Treatment and Disease Management.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 23-24, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:30 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Christiane M. Robbins, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20817, 301-435-2492, 
                        <E T="03">crobbins@mail.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review, Special Emphasis Panel; Member Conflict: Topics in Synthetic and Biological Chemistry.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 23, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:30 a.m. to 5:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Shan Wang, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institute of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-496-4390, 
                        <E T="03">shan.wang@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Infectious Diseases and Immunology A Integrated Review Group; HIV Molecular Virology, Cell Biology, and Drug Development Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 23-24, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Kenneth A. Roebuck, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 5214, MSC 7852, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-827-3067, 
                        <E T="03">roebuckk@csr.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review, Special Emphasis Panel; Fellowships: HIV/AIDS Biological Review Panel.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 23, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Poonam Pegu, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 710-F, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-496-8363, 
                        <E T="03">poonam.pegu@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review, Special Emphasis Panel; Career Development Awards: Behavioral and Biobehavioral Processes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         July 23-24, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 1:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Rajasri Roy, MPH, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39112"/>
                        Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-496-8383, 
                        <E T="03">rajasri.roy@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.306, Comparative Medicine; 93.333, Clinical Research, 93.306, 93.333, 93.337, 93.393-93.396, 93.837-93.844, 93.846-93.878, 93.892, 93.893, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Bruce A. George,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-12990 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4167-05-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute; Notice of Closed Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Heart, Lung, and Blood Advisory Council.</P>
                <P>The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         National Heart, Lung, and Blood Advisory Council.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         August 18, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         1:00 p.m. to 3:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge I, 6705 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Charisee A. Lamar, Ph.D., M.P.H., R.R.T., Director, Division of Extramural Research Activities, National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute, National Institutes of Health, 6705 Rockledge Drive, Room 206-Q, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 827-5517, 
                        <E T="03">lamarc@mail.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person.</P>
                    <P>
                        Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nhlbi.nih.gov/about/advisory-and-peer-review-committees/advisory-council,</E>
                         where an agenda and any additional information for the meeting will be posted when available.
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.233, National Center on Sleep Disorders Research; 93.837, Cardiovascular Diseases Research; 93.838, Lung Diseases Research; 93.839, Blood Diseases and Resources Research, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Denise M. Santeufemio,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Supervisory Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-12994 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4167-05-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOUSING AND URBAN DEVELOPMENT</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FR-7106-N-28]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Administration, HUD.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of a Modified System of Records.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Pursuant to the provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, the Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD), Office of Disaster Management and National Security, is issuing public notice of its intent to modify a Privacy Act System of Records titled Emergency Notification System. The purpose of this system is to maintain emergency contact information for HUD personnel to enable emergency notifications involving an immediate threat to health or safety of HUD employees. This system of records is being revised to make clarifying changes within the system of records, system location, system manager(s), categories of records in the system, records source categories, routine uses, policies and practices for retrieval of records, policies and practices for retention and disposal of records, and administrative, technical, and physical safeguards.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments will be accepted on or before July 29, 2026. This proposed action will be effective on the date following the end of the comment period unless comments are received which result in a contrary determination.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments, identified by the docket number or by one of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Federal e-Rulemaking Portal: http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions provided on that site to submit comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         202-619-8365.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Email: privacy@hud.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Attention: Privacy Office; Kimberly Morton, Acting Chief Privacy Officer; Office of the Executive Secretariat; 451 7th Street SW, Room 10139; Washington, DC 20410-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions received must include the agency name and docket number for this rulemaking. All comments received will be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal information provided.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         For access to the docket to read background documents or comments received go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Kimberly Morton, Acting Chief Privacy Officer; The Privacy Office, 451 7th Street SW, Room 10139; Washington, DC 20410-0001; telephone number (804) 822-4801 (this is not a toll-free number). HUD welcomes and is prepared to receive calls from individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing, as well as individuals with speech or communication disabilities. To learn more about how to make an accessible telephone call, please visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fcc.gov/consumers/guides/telecommunications-relay-service-trs.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) is modifying the Emergency Notification System, system of records notices to reflect updated information in the sections being revised.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Changes Being Made</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">System Location:</E>
                     Updated to add HUD Headquarters and all ten HUD Regional Offices.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">System Manager(s):</E>
                     Updated with new System Manager name.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Categories of Records in the System:</E>
                     Updated to add work address and employee identification number.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Records Source Categories:</E>
                     Updated to add a report generated from the National Finance Center, NFC Insight System as a source of data.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">Routine Uses:</E>
                     Changes were made to add disclosures to NARA, emergency management agencies, and courts. These were previously omitted.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Policies and Practices for Retrieval of Records:</E>
                     Updated to add duty station, work address, and employee identification number as retrieval methods.
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">Policies and Practices for Retention and Disposal of Records:</E>
                     Updated to reflect the retention and disposal of information for electronic records.
                </P>
                <P>
                    8. 
                    <E T="03">Administrative, Technical, and Physical Safeguards:</E>
                     Updated to incorporate the safeguards implemented by the third-party contractor, Everbridge, Inc, which maintains FedRAMP Moderate authorization with comprehensive security controls.
                    <PRTPAGE P="39113"/>
                </P>
                <PRIACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">SYSTEM NAME AND NUMBER:</HD>
                    <P>Emergency Notification System (ENS), HUD/ADM-10.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SECURITY CLASSIFICATION:</HD>
                    <P>Unclassified.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM LOCATION:</HD>
                    <P>Records are maintained at the Department of Housing and Urban Development, HUD Emergency Operations Center, Office of Disaster Management and National Security, Office of the Chief Administrative Officer, 451 7th Street SW, Room 6280, Washington, DC 20410-0001.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Third-party service provider:</E>
                         Everbridge, Inc., 25 Corporate Drive, Suite 400, Burlington, MA 01803. Amazon Web Services data centers are located in Northern California and West Virginia.
                    </P>
                    <P>The system is accessible from HUD Headquarters, all ten HUD Regional Offices (Boston, New York, Philadelphia, Atlanta, Chicago, Fort Worth, Kansas City, Denver, San Francisco, and Seattle), HUD Field Offices, and HUD Program Centers nationwide to enable emergency notifications to all HUD personnel.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM MANAGER(S):</HD>
                    <P>
                        William D. Mason, Director, HUD Emergency Operations Center, Office of Disaster Management and National Security, Office of the Chief Administrative Officer, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW, Room 6280, Washington, DC 20410-0001; 202-402-5636; Email: 
                        <E T="03">William.D.Mason@HUD.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">AUTHORITY FOR MAINTENANCE OF THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>5 U.S.C. 301, Departmental regulations, 44 U.S.C. 3101, Records management by agency heads; general duties, The Department of Housing and Urban Development Act of 1965, Presidential Policy Directive 8, Presidential Policy Directive 40, Federal Continuity Directive 1, Federal Executive Branch National Continuity Program and Requirements and Federal Continuity Directive 2, Federal Executive Branch Mission Essential Functions and Candidate Primary Mission Essential Functions Identification and Submission Process.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">PURPOSES OF THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>The purpose of this system is to maintain emergency contact information for HUD personnel. The system provides high-speed message delivery that reaches all HUD personnel in response to alerts and notifications issued by the Department of Homeland Security, other Federal Operations Centers, and local emergency officials regarding weather related emergencies, national security incidents, or other critical situations that disrupt the operations and accessibility of a worksite. The system will also enable the Department to account for the safety of HUD personnel during an emergency or incident.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CATEGORIES OF INDIVIDUALS COVERED BY THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>Federal employees, interns, and detailees.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CATEGORIES OF RECORDS IN THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>Name, email address, phone number, organization/office of assignment, duty station, work address, and employee identification number. Individuals may voluntarily provide alternate contact information, personal email address or phone number.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">RECORD SOURCE CATEGORIES:</HD>
                    <P>Records are provided by individuals, reports obtained from the HUD Active Directory System, National Finance Center, and NFC Insight System.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">ROUTINE USES OF RECORDS MAINTAINED IN THE SYSTEM, INCLUDING CATEGORIES OF USERS AND PURPOSES OF SUCH USES:</HD>
                    <P>(1) To contractors, grantees, experts, consultants and their agents, or others performing or working under a contract, service, grant, or cooperative agreement with HUD, when necessary to accomplish an agency function related to a system of records. Disclosure requirements are limited to only those data elements considered relevant to accomplishing an agency function.</P>
                    <P>(2) To appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when (1) HUD suspects or has confirmed that there has been a breach of the system of records; (2) HUD has determined that as a result of the suspected or confirmed breach there is a risk of harm to individuals, HUD (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security; and (3) the disclosure made to such agencies, entities, and persons is reasonably necessary to assist in connection with HUD's efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed breach or to prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm.</P>
                    <P>(3) To another Federal agency or Federal entity, when HUD determines that information from this system of records is reasonably necessary to assist the recipient agency or entity in (1) responding to a suspected or confirmed breach or (2) preventing, minimizing, or remedying the risk of harm to individuals, the recipient agency or entity (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security, resulting from a suspected or confirmed breach.</P>
                    <P>(4) To a congressional office from the record of an individual, in response to an inquiry from the congressional office made at the request of that individual.</P>
                    <P>(5) To any component of the Department of Justice or other Federal agency conducting litigation or in proceedings before any court, adjudicative, or administrative body, when HUD determines that the use of such records is relevant and necessary to the litigation and when any of the following is a party to the litigation or have an interest in such litigation: (1) HUD, or any component thereof; or (2) any HUD employee in his or her official capacity; or (3) any HUD employee in his or her individual capacity where the Department of Justice or agency conducting the litigation has agreed to represent the employee; or (4) the United States, or any agency thereof, where HUD determines that litigation is likely to affect HUD or any of its components.</P>
                    <P>(6) To appropriate Federal, State, local, tribal, or governmental agencies or multilateral governmental organizations responsible for investigating or prosecuting the violations of, or for enforcing or implementing a statute, rule, regulation, order, or license, where HUD determines that the information would assist in the enforcement of civil or criminal laws when such records, either alone or in conjunction with other information, indicate a violation or potential violation of law.</P>
                    <P>(7) To the National Archives and Records Administration, Office of Government Information Services (OGIS), to the extent necessary to fulfill its responsibilities in 5 U.S.C. 552(h), to review administrative agency policies, procedures and compliance with the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), and to facilitate OGIS' offering of mediation services to resolve disputes between persons making FOIA requests and administrative agencies.</P>
                    <P>
                        (8) To Federal, State, local, tribal, or territorial government emergency management agencies, law enforcement agencies, or first responders, including the Department of Homeland Security, Federal Emergency Management Agency and other Federal Operations Centers when necessary to coordinate emergency response operations, ensure personnel safety and accountability during emergency situations, or support continuity of operations activities. This includes sharing personnel location, contact information, and accountability 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39114"/>
                        status during active emergency incidents.
                    </P>
                    <P>(9) To a court, magistrate, administrative tribunal, or arbitrator in the course of presenting evidence, including disclosures to opposing counsel or witnesses or jurors in the course of civil discovery, litigation, mediation, or settlement negotiations, or in connection with criminal law proceedings; when HUD determines that use of such records is relevant and necessary to the litigation and when any of the following is a party to the litigation or have an interest in such litigation: (1) HUD, or any component thereof; or (2) any HUD employee in his or her official capacity; or (3) any HUD employee in his or her individual capacity where HUD has agreed to represent the employee; or (4) the United States, or any agency thereof, where HUD determines that litigation is likely to affect HUD or any of its components.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR STORAGE OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>Records are stored in electronic and paper formats. Electronic records are maintained within HUD-authorized systems using encryption and restricted-access directories. Paper records are stored in secured offices or file cabinets with physical access controls.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR RETRIEVAL OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>Records are retrievable by name, email address, phone number, organization/office assignment, duty station, work address, employee identification number.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR RETENTION AND DISPOSAL OF RECORDS:</HD>
                    <P>The system is subject to HUD's Records Disposition Schedule and NARA's General Records Schedule. Active records for current HUD personnel are maintained for the duration of employment. Records are retained for three years after separation from HUD, with longer retention authorized if required for business use, legal hold, or litigation. Electronic records are securely deleted, and paper records are shredded upon disposal. Notification logs and audit records are retained for three years for operational and security purposes.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">ADMINISTRATIVE, TECHNICAL, AND PHYSICAL SAFEGUARDS:</HD>
                    <P>The Emergency Notification System operates under Everbridge's FedRAMP Moderate authorization with comprehensive security controls. Technical safeguards include FIPS 140-2 validated cryptography with Transport Layer Security (TLS) version 1.2 or higher for all data transmissions, and AES encryption for data at rest using standard encryption features. Administrative safeguards include role-based access controls, quarterly reviews of privileged accounts, annual reviews of non-privileged accounts, and mandatory security awareness training for all authorized personnel. Access to electronic records is restricted to authorized personnel who have been issued non-transferable access codes, unique identifiers, and multi-factor authentication credentials. Physical safeguards include secure data center facilities in Northern California and West Virginia with continuous monitoring, intrusion detection systems, environmental controls, fire suppression systems, and restricted physical access controls. The system implements comprehensive audit logging and monitoring with FedRAMP-compliant incident response procedures, vulnerability scanning, and continuous monitoring protocols. Paper records are printed only for quality control purposes, stored in locked file cabinets, and maintained in accordance with the Policies and Practices for Retention and Disposal of Records.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">RECORD ACCESS PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>Individuals requesting records of themselves should address written inquiries to the Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW, Washington, DC 20410-0001. For verification, individuals should provide their full name, current address, and telephone number. In addition, the requester must provide either a notarized statement or an unsworn declaration made under 24 CFR 16.4.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">CONTESTING RECORD PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>The HUD rule for contesting the content of any record pertaining to the individual by the individual concerned is published in 24 CFR 16.8 or may be obtained from the system manager.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">NOTIFICATION PROCEDURES:</HD>
                    <P>Individuals requesting notification of records of themselves should address written inquiries to the Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW, Washington, DC 20410-0001. For verification purposes, individuals should provide their full name, office or organization where assigned, if applicable, and current address and telephone number. In addition, the requester must provide either a notarized statement or an unsworn declaration made under 24 CFR 16.4.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">EXEMPTIONS PROMULGATED FOR THE SYSTEM:</HD>
                    <P>None.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">HISTORY:</HD>
                    <P>Docket No. FR-7062-N-09, 87 FR 44147, July 25, 2022.</P>
                </PRIACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Kimberly Morton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Chief Privacy Officer, Office of Administration.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13042 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4210-67-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOUSING AND URBAN DEVELOPMENT</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FR-7107-N-11; OMB Control No: 2506-0217]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Economic Development Initiative Community Project Funding Grants</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Policy Development and Research, Chief Data Officer, HUD.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comments from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 30 days of public comment.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments Due Date:</E>
                         July 29, 2026.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Dr. John L. Murphy, PRA Compliance Officer, Paperwork Reduction Act Division, PRAD, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW, Room 8202, Washington, DC 20410; email at 
                        <E T="03">PaperworkReductionActOffice@hud.gov,</E>
                         ATTN: Dr. John L. Murphy, telephone (202) 402-8084. This is not a toll-free number. HUD welcomes and is prepared to receive calls from individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing, as well as individuals with speech or communication disabilities. To learn more about how to make an accessible telephone call, please visit 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39115"/>
                        <E T="03">https://www.fcc.gov/consumers/guides/telecommunications-relay-service-trs.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Dr. John Murphy.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A. The 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice that solicited public comment on the information collection for a period of 60 days was published on March 16, 2026 at 91 FR 12602.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. Overview of Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Information Collection:</E>
                     Economic Development Initiative Community Project Funding.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Approval Number:</E>
                     2506-0217.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Revision of Approved Collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     Application for Federal Assistance (SF-424); Assurances for Non-Construction Programs (SF-424B); Assurances for Construction Programs (SF-424D); Disclosure of Lobbying Activities (SF-LLL); Disclosure/Update Report (Form HUD-2880); Direct Deposit Sign-Up (SF-1199A); Federal Financial Report (SF-425); Tangible Personal Property Report (SF 428); Tangible Personal Property Report (The Final/Award Closeout form on Acquired Equipment (SF 428 B); Tangible Personal Property Report (Disposition Request) (SF 428 C); Real Property Status Report (SF- 429); Real Property Status Report (General Reporting) (SF-429 A); Real Property Status Report (Request to Acquire, Improve, or Furnish) (SF-429 B); Real Property Status Report (Disposition or Encumbrance Request) (SF-429 C); Application narrative; Detailed Budget Worksheet, (HUD) 424 CBW; Grant Reporting (DRGR).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description of the need for the information and proposed use:</E>
                     Receive grant application and performance reports from Economic Development Initiative Community Project Funding Grants recipients.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,12,10,10,12,10,12,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Information
                            <LI>collection</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Frequency of response</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Responses
                            <LI>per annual</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Burden hour per response</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>burden hours</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Hourly cost per response
                            <LI>($)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>cost</LI>
                            <LI>($)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Application for Federal Assistance (SF-424)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Assurances for Non-Construction Programs (SF-424B)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Assurances for Construction Programs (SF-424D)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Disclosure of Lobbying Activities (SF-LLL)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Disclosure/Update Report (Form HUD-2880)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Direct Deposit Sign-Up (SF-1199A)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Federal Financial Report (SF-425)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Tangible Personal Property Report (SF 428)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Tangible Personal Property Report (The Final/Award Closeout form on Acquired Equipment (SF 428 B)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Tangible Personal Property Report (Disposition Request) (SF 428 C)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Real Property Status Report (SF-429)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Real Property Status Report (General Reporting) (SF-429 A)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Real Property Status Report (Request to Acquire, Improve, or Furnish) (SF-429 B)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Real Property Status Report (Disposition or Encumbrance Request) (SF-429 C)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Application narrative</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Detailed Budget Worksheet, (HUD) 424 CBW</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>o</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Grant Reporting (DRGR)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>15,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>42.73</ENT>
                        <ENT>640,950</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>15,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>42.73</ENT>
                        <ENT>640,950</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        The U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics (May 20, 2025) Social and Community Service Managers 
                        <E T="03">https://data.bls.gov/oesprofile/?major_group=110000&amp;occupation=119151&amp;measure=01&amp;areas=INDUSTRY,STATE,MSA</E>
                         was used to determine the hourly rate ($42.73).
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">B. Solicitation of Public Comment</HD>
                <P>This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:</P>
                <P>
                    (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39116"/>
                    the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility.
                </P>
                <P>(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information.</P>
                <P>(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    (4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </P>
                <FP>HUD encourages interested parties to submit comments in response to these questions.</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">C. Authority </HD>
                <P>Section 2 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3507.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>John L. Murphy,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Compliance Officer, Department PRA Compliance Officer, Office of Policy Development and Research.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13085 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4210-67-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOUSING AND URBAN DEVELOPMENT</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FR-7107-N-12; OMB Control No.: 2503-0034]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Ginnie Mae Digital Collateral Program</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Policy Development and Research, Chief Data Officer, HUD.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comments from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 30 days of public comment.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments Due Date: July 29, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Dr. John L. Murphy, PRA Compliance Officer, Paperwork Reduction Act Division, PRAD, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW, Washington, DC 20410; email at 
                        <E T="03">PaperworkReductionActOffice@hud.gov,</E>
                         ATTN: Dr. John L. Murphy telephone (202) 402-8084. This is not a toll-free number. HUD welcomes and is prepared to receive calls from individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing, as well as individuals with speech or communication disabilities. To learn more about how to make an accessible telephone call, please visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fcc.gov/consumers/guides/telecommunications-relay-service-trs.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Dr. John L. Murphy.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A. The 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice that solicited public comment on the information collection for a period of 60 days was published on February 18, 2026 at 91 FR 7510.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. Overview of Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Information Collection:</E>
                     Ginnie Mae Digital Collateral Program.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Approval Number:</E>
                     2503-0034.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Revision of Approved Collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     eIssuer Application to Participate in Digital Collateral Program (Formerly the HUD-11701-A); eCustodian Application to Participate in Digital Collateral Program (Formerly the HUD-11701-B).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description of the need for the information and proposed use:</E>
                     Adapting to the needs of the industry, Ginnie Mae is permitting the securitization of mortgage loans where the note is an eligible eNote. The forms listed above are necessary due to the unique requirements of managing eNotes and eMortgages. This collection permits Ginnie Mae to verify: (1) that eIssuers and eMortgages have the specialized knowledge and experience to participate; (2) that eIssuers and eCustodians have the technological capability to service eMortgages and safeguard eMortgage documents; (3) the name and location of the entities responsible for the various Ginnie Mae accounts and eMortgage documents, and (4) those entities that are responsible for servicing the eMortgages that back the Ginnie Mae pools. Ginnie Mae needs this information to mitigate risk and evaluate its business operations, procedures and programs and assist lenders in processing borrower requests more efficiently. Ginnie Mae also requires the collection of information to ensure that there are no deficiencies, which could affect the pass-through of securities to its investors.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Information
                            <LI>collection</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Frequency of
                            <LI>response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Responses
                            <LI>per annum</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Burden hour
                            <LI>per response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>hours</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Hourly cost
                            <LI>per response *</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>cost</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">eIssuer Application (HUD11701-A)</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>$48.49</ENT>
                        <ENT>$485</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">eCustodian Application (HUD 11701-B)</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>48.49</ENT>
                        <ENT>121.25</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>325</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>325</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.05</ENT>
                        <ENT>27.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>48.49</ENT>
                        <ENT>606.25</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* National estimate for Business Operations Specialist, BLS.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">B. Solicitation of Public Comment</HD>
                <P>This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:</P>
                <P>(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility.</P>
                <P>(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information.</P>
                <P>(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    (4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39117"/>
                    information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </P>
                <P>HUD encourages interested parties to submit comments in response to these questions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">C. Authority</HD>
                <P>Section 2 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3507.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>John L. Murphy,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Compliance Officer, Department PRA Compliance Officer, Office of Policy Development and Research.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13089 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4210-67-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Fish and Wildlife Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FWS-R3-ES-2026-2113; FXES11130300000-267-FF03E00000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Endangered Species; Receipt of Recovery Permit Applications</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of Availability; receipt of recovery permit applications for Endangered Species and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service invites the public to comment on permit applications to conduct certain activities with endangered species under the Endangered Species Act (ESA). With some exceptions, the ESA prohibits activities with listed species unless Federal authorization is issued that allows such activities.</P>
                    <P>The ESA also requires that we invite public comment and take into consideration any information that we receive during the public comment period, before issuing permits for any activity otherwise prohibited by the ESA with respect to any endangered species.</P>
                    <P>We invite the public and local, State, Tribal, and Federal agencies to comment on these applications. Before issuing any of the requested permits, we will take into consideration any information that we receive during the public comment period.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments will be accepted on or before July 29, 2026. Comments submitted electronically using the Federal eRulemaking Portal (see 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                        , below) must be received by 11:59 p.m. eastern time on the closing date.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To ensure your comment is received and considered, you must submit it using one of the methods identified in the 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                         section of this document. Comments submitted through any method not authorized in this document, or sent to an address not listed here, will not be considered.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment submission:</E>
                         All submissions must include the docket number [FWS-R3-ES-2026-2113] for this document. You must submit comments using one of the following methods:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Electronic submission:</E>
                         Federal eRulemaking Portal at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         In the Search box, enter FWS-R3-ES-2026-2113, which is the docket number for this action. Then click the Search button. On the resulting page, you may submit a comment by clicking on “Comment.” Please ensure that you have found the correct document before submitting your comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">U.S. mail:</E>
                         Public Comments Processing, Attn: Docket No. FWS-R3-ES-2026-2113, Policy and Regulations Branch, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, MS: PRB (JAO/3W), 5275 Leesburg Pike, Falls Church, VA 22041-3803.
                    </P>
                    <P>Comments submitted through any method not authorized in this document, or sent to an address not listed here, will not be considered. We will not accept comments via email, fax, or hand delivery. We are not required to consider comments that are submitted after the comment period ends (see DATES) or that are submitted via a method outside of these instructions. Comments containing profanity, vulgarity, threats, or other inappropriate content will not be considered.</P>
                    <P>
                        We will post all comments at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         You may request that we withhold personal identifying information from public review; however, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so. See Public Availability of Comments for more information.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Nathan Rathbun, 612-713-5343 (phone); 
                        <E T="03">permitsR3ES@fws.gov</E>
                         (email). Submit requests for copies of the applications and related documents, by one of these methods. All requests should specify the applicant name(s) and application number(s) (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         ESXXXXXX; see table 1 in 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        ). Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service invites the public to comment on applications for permits under section 10(a)(1)(A) of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (ESA; 16 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), and our regulations in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) at 50 CFR part 17. Documents and other information submitted with the applications are available for review, subject to the requirements of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (5 U.S.C. 552a) and the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>With some exceptions, the ESA prohibits take of listed wildlife species unless a Federal permit is issued that authorizes such take. A recovery permit issued by the Service under section 10(a)(1)(A) of the ESA authorizes the permittee to take endangered or threatened species while engaging in activities that are conducted for scientific purposes that promote recovery of species or for enhancement of propagation or survival of the species. These activities often include, but are not limited to, otherwise prohibited actions such as capturing, performing surveys, population monitoring, handling, collecting genetic or tissue samples, swabbing for disease, captive propagation, captive rearing, species research, banding, tracking, and using radio telemetry.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Permit Applications Available for Review and Comment</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 10(c) of the ESA requires that the Service publish notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     of each application and invite submission from interested parties on permit applications prior to issuance. Accordingly, we invite local, State, Tribal, and Federal agencies and the public to submit written data, views, or arguments with respect to these applications. The comments and recommendations that will be most useful and likely to influence agency decisions are those supported by quantitative information or studies. Proposed activities in the following permit requests are for the recovery and enhancement of propagation or survival of the species in the wild. Applications are sorted by regional offices that have jurisdiction over specific geographic areas. Information regarding each of our regions can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fws.gov/about/regions.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    We invite comments on the following applications:
                    <PRTPAGE P="39118"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="xs40,xs65,r75,r150,xs66">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Permit Applications</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Lead region</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Permit No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Applicant</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Species</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Permit action</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER31776157</ENT>
                        <ENT>Island Ecological Services LLC, Kailua, HI</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Hawaiian common gallinule ('Alae 'ula—
                            <E T="03">Gallinula galeata sandvicensis</E>
                            ), Hawaiian coot ('Alae ke'o ke';o—
                            <E T="03">Fulica alai</E>
                            ), and Hawaiian stilt (Ae'o—
                            <E T="03">Himantopus mexicanus knudseni</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>New.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT>ES38768B</ENT>
                        <ENT>Micronesian Environmental Services, Saipan, MP</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Pulåttat (Chamorro name) or Mariana common moorhen (
                            <E T="03">Gallinula chloropus guami</E>
                            ), Sasangat (Chamorro name) or Micronesian megapode (
                            <E T="03">Megapodius laperouse</E>
                            ), Gåga karisu (Chamorro name) or nightingale reed-warbler (
                            <E T="03">Acrocephalus luscinia</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER0029891</ENT>
                        <ENT>Greenbelt Land Trust, Corvallis, OR</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Fender's blue butterfly (
                            <E T="03">Icaricia icarioides fenderi</E>
                            ), Taylor's checkerspot butterfly (
                            <E T="03">Euphydryas editha taylori</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew and Amend.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT>ES66384A</ENT>
                        <ENT>Idaho Department of Fish and Game, Coeur d`Alene, ID</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Kootenai River white sturgeon (
                            <E T="03">Acipenser transmontanus</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew and Amend.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT>PER0014798</ENT>
                        <ENT>Montana Fish, Wildlife and Parks, Libby, MT</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Kootenai River white sturgeon (
                            <E T="03">Acipenser transmontanus</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew and Amend.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER32178096</ENT>
                        <ENT>Hingle, Elizabeth, Houston, TX</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Golden-cheeked warbler (
                            <E T="03">Setophaga chrysoparia)</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>New.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER0010321</ENT>
                        <ENT>Harris Environmental Group, Tucson, AZ</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Northern aplomado falcon (
                            <E T="03">Falco femoralis septentrionalis</E>
                            ), southwestern willow flycatcher (
                            <E T="03">Empidonax traillii extimus</E>
                            ), Yuma Ridgway's rail (
                            <E T="03">Rallus obsoletus yumanensis</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew and Amend.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                        <ENT>ES053085</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bureau of Reclamation—Boulder City, Boulder City, NV</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Southwestern willow flycatcher (
                            <E T="03">Empidonax traillii extimus</E>
                            ), Yuma Ridgway's rail (
                            <E T="03">Rallus obsoletus yumanensis</E>
                            ), bonytail (
                            <E T="03">Gila elegans</E>
                            ), razorback sucker (
                            <E T="03">Xyrauchen texanus</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew and Amend.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER32659887</ENT>
                        <ENT>Omaha Zoological Society, Omaha, NE</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Jemez Mountains salamander (
                            <E T="03">Plethodon neomexicanus</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>New.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER31459503</ENT>
                        <ENT>Trout Unlimited Great Lakes—Michigan, Rockford, MI</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Hungerford's crawling water beetle (
                            <E T="03">Brychius hungerfordi</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>New.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT>ES206781</ENT>
                        <ENT>Kristin Schmidt, Florissant, MO</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Add new species: James spinymussel (
                            <E T="03">Parvospina collina</E>
                            )—to existing authorized species: 60 freshwater mussel species
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew and Amend.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER32159403</ENT>
                        <ENT>Heather Lutzow, Green Bay, WI</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Rusty patched bumble bee (
                            <E T="03">Bombus affinis</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>New.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER32864190</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bradley Novak, Knox, IL</ENT>
                        <ENT>18 freshwater mussel species</ENT>
                        <ENT>New.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER33005752</ENT>
                        <ENT>Caitlin Helman, Austin, TX</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Northern long-eared bat (
                            <E T="03">Myotis septentrionalis</E>
                            ), Indiana bat (
                            <E T="03">M. Sodalis</E>
                            ), tricolored bat (
                            <E T="03">Perimyotis subflavus</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>New.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                        <ENT>ES00670A</ENT>
                        <ENT>South Dakota Game, Fish, and Parks, Pierre, SD</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Topeka shiner (
                            <E T="03">Notropis topeka</E>
                             (=
                            <E T="03">tristis</E>
                            ))
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew and Amend.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER0057787</ENT>
                        <ENT>Western Ecosystems Technology, Fort Collins, CO</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Southwestern willow flycatcher (
                            <E T="03">Empidonax traillii extimus</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Amend.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER13079463</ENT>
                        <ENT>Maya Pendleton, Brookings, UT</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Northern long-eared bat (
                            <E T="03">Myotis septentrionalis</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Amend.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER29760373</ENT>
                        <ENT>Integral Habitats, LLC., Grand Junction, CO</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Southwestern willow flycatcher (
                            <E T="03">Empidonax traillii extimus</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>New.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER0007334</ENT>
                        <ENT>University of Wyoming, Casper, WY</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Northern long-eared bat (
                            <E T="03">Myotis septentrionalis</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew and Amend.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                        <ENT>ES06447C</ENT>
                        <ENT>Montana Department of Fish, Wildlife, and Parks, Helena, MT</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Pallid sturgeon (
                            <E T="03">Scaphirhynchus albus</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew and Amend.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                        <ENT>ES051828</ENT>
                        <ENT>Smithsonian National Zoo and Conservation Biology Institute, Washington, DC</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Black-footed ferret (
                            <E T="03">Mustela nigripes</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew and Amend.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                        <ENT>ES35101D</ENT>
                        <ENT>Schmueser Gordon Meyer, Glenwood Springs, CO</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Southwestern willow flycatcher (
                            <E T="03">Empidonax traillii extimus</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER0013492</ENT>
                        <ENT>United Tribes Technical College, Bismark, ND</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Northern long-eared bat (
                            <E T="03">Myotis septentrionalis</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER0009566</ENT>
                        <ENT>Colorado Natural Heritage Program, Fort Collins, CO</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            New Mexico meadow jumping mouse (
                            <E T="03">Zapus hudsonius luteus</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>ES98090C</ENT>
                        <ENT>FISHBIO, Oakdale, CA</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Tidewater goby (
                            <E T="03">Eucyclogobius newberryi</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Amend.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>ES36118B</ENT>
                        <ENT>Callie Amoaku, Valley Center, CA</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Quino checkerspot butterfly (
                            <E T="03">Euphydryas editha quino</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>ES036550</ENT>
                        <ENT>Erin L. Kidd, Anacortes, WA</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Quino checkerspot butterfly (
                            <E T="03">Euphydryas editha quino</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>ES19822D</ENT>
                        <ENT>Sara Richardson, Rancho Cordova, CA</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Least Bell's vireo (
                            <E T="03">Vireo bellii pusillus</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>ES72045A</ENT>
                        <ENT>Alisa Zych, Marie Corps Base, Oceanside, CA</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Southwest willow flycatcher (
                            <E T="03">Empidonax traillii extimus</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>ES68599D</ENT>
                        <ENT>Marjory Paige Howorth, Zoological Society of San Diego, CA</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Quino checkerspot butterfly (
                            <E T="03">Euphydryas editha quino</E>
                            ), Laguna Mountain skipper (
                            <E T="03">Pyrgus ruralis lagunae</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>ES809232</ENT>
                        <ENT>Brandon Albrecht, Bio-West, Inc., Logan, UT</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Razorback sucker (
                            <E T="03">Xyrauchen texanus</E>
                            ), bonytail chub (
                            <E T="03">Gila elegans</E>
                            )
                            <E T="03">,</E>
                             Pahranagat roundtail chub (
                            <E T="03">G. robusta jordani</E>
                            )
                            <E T="03">,</E>
                             Woundfin (
                            <E T="03">Plagopterus argentissimus</E>
                            ), Pahrump poolfish (
                            <E T="03">Empetrichthys latos</E>
                            )
                            <E T="03">,</E>
                             White River springfish (
                            <E T="03">Crenichthys baileyi baileyi</E>
                            )
                            <E T="03">,</E>
                             White River spinedace (
                            <E T="03">Lepidomeda albivallis</E>
                            )
                            <E T="03">,</E>
                             Hiko White River springfish (
                            <E T="03">C. baileyi grandis</E>
                            )
                            <E T="03">,</E>
                             Virgin River Chub 
                            <E T="03">(Gila seminuda</E>
                             (
                            <E T="03">=robusta</E>
                            )
                            <E T="03">,</E>
                             Southwest willow flycatcher (
                            <E T="03">Empidonax traillii extimus</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER33109354</ENT>
                        <ENT>Eric Smith, Smith Ecological Consulting, Sacramento, CA</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Longhorn fairy shrimp (
                            <E T="03">Branchinecta</E>
                             longiantenna), San Diego fairy shrimp (
                            <E T="03">Ranchinecta</E>
                             sandieonenis), Vernal pool tadpole shrimp (
                            <E T="03">Lepidurus packardi</E>
                            ), Riverside fairy shrimp (
                            <E T="03">Streptocephalus woottoni</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>New.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER30705340</ENT>
                        <ENT>Robert Lusardi, California University Davis, Department Wildife Fish and Conservation Biology, CA</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Lost River sucker (
                            <E T="03">Deltistes luxatus</E>
                            ), Shortnose sucker (
                            <E T="03">Chasmistes brevirostris</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>New.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>ES50510A</ENT>
                        <ENT>Geoffrey Cline, Truckee, CA</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Sierra Nevada yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana sierrae</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Renew and Amend.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>ES062907</ENT>
                        <ENT>Andrew M. Forde, Camarillo, CA</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Mountain yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana muscosa</E>
                            )
                            <E T="03">,</E>
                             Sierra Nevada yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">R. sierrae</E>
                            ), yellow-legged frog South Sierra DPS (South Sierra DPS)
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Amend.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="39119"/>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER33111662</ENT>
                        <ENT>Sean Reilly, Ben Lomond, CA</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            California tiger salamander (
                            <E T="03">Ambystoma californiense</E>
                            ), Santa Cruz long-toed salamander (
                            <E T="03">A. macrodactylum croceum</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>New.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER33111681</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ian Hirschler, Spring Valley, CA</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            San Bernardino Merriam's kangaroo rat (
                            <E T="03">Dipodomys merriami parvus</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>New.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER33121519</ENT>
                        <ENT>Stacey Haggard, Cedarpines Park, CA</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            San Bernardino Merriam's kangaroo rat (
                            <E T="03">Dipodomys merriami parvus</E>
                            ), Pacific pocket mouse (
                            <E T="03">Perognathus longimembris pacificus</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>New.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">8</ENT>
                        <ENT>ESPER33121675</ENT>
                        <ENT>Gabe Saron, San Rafael, CA</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Riverside fairy shrimp (
                            <E T="03">Streptocephalus S. woottoni</E>
                            ), San Diego fairy shrimp (
                            <E T="03">Branchinecta sandiegonensis</E>
                            ), Vernal pool tadpole shrimp (
                            <E T="03">Lepidurus packardi</E>
                            ), Conservancy fairy shrimp (
                            <E T="03">B. conservatio</E>
                            ), Longhorn fairy shrimp (
                            <E T="03">B. longiantenna</E>
                            )
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>New.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Availability of Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    Written comments we receive become part of the administrative record associated with the above actions. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so. All submissions from organizations or businesses, and from individuals identifying themselves as representatives or officials of organizations or businesses, will be made available for public disclosure in their entirety. You may view and comment on others' public comments at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     unless our allowing so would violate the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) or Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Next Steps</HD>
                <P>
                    An annual notice is published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     listing the permits issued for the previous calendar year. You may locate the notice announcing the permit issuance by searching 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     for the permit number listed above in this document. For example, to find information about the potential issuance of Permit No. 12345A, you would go to regulations.gov and search for “12345A”. An interested party opposed to a recovery permit's issuance may object by following the requirements in 50 CFR 17.22(d) and request notification of the final action. The Service will follow the procedures in that section regarding notification of interested parties who file objections to issuance of permits.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority</HD>
                <P>
                    We publish this notice under section 10(c) of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sean Marsan,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting—Assistant Regional Director, Ecological Services Region 3 U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13053 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[FWS-R4-ES-2026-N008; FVHC98220410150-XXX-FF04H00000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Deepwater Horizon Oil Spill Mississippi Trustee Implementation Group Draft Restoration Plan 5 and Environmental Assessment: Nutrient Reduction and Birds</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Department of the Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of availability; request for public comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The natural resource trustee agencies for the Mississippi Trustee Implementation Group (MS TIG) have prepared the 
                        <E T="03">Draft Restoration Plan 5 and Environmental Assessment: Nutrient Reduction and Birds</E>
                         (Draft RP5/EA). The Draft RP5/EA analyzes projects to partially restore resources injured in the Deepwater Horizon (DWH) oil spill. The Draft RP5/EA evaluates a reasonable range of five action alternatives under the Oil Pollution Act (OPA), including criteria set forth in the OPA natural resource damage assessment (NRDA) regulations and the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA). A No Action alternative is also analyzed for each restoration type. The total cost to implement the TIGs' three preferred alternatives is approximately $19,500,000, which would be paid for from the Nutrient Reduction (Nonpoint Source) and Birds Restoration Type allocations as set out in the 2016 Consent Decree. The MS TIG invites comments on the Draft RP5/EA.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Submitting Comments:</E>
                         The TIG will consider public comments on the Draft RP5/EA received on or before July 29, 2026.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Public Webinar:</E>
                         The MS TIG will post a pre-recorded public webinar on (TBD) to present an overview of the Draft RP5/EA. The webinar publication date is provided on the restore.ms website and the DWH Trustee Council website.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Obtaining Documents:</E>
                         You may download the Draft RP5/EA at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.gulfspillrestoration.noaa.gov/restoration-areas/mississippi.</E>
                         Alternatively, you may request a USB flash drive containing the Draft RP5/EA (see 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Submitting Comments:</E>
                         You may submit comments on the Draft RP5/EA by one of the following methods:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Internet: https://parkplanning.nps.gov/MSRP5EA.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">U.S. Mail:</E>
                         United States Fish and Wildlife Service, 341 North Greeno Road, Suite A, Fairhope, Alabama 36532. To be considered, mailed comments must be postmarked on or before the deadline given in 
                        <E T="02">DATES</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Tamara Ward, at 
                        <E T="03">tamara_ward@ios.doi.gov</E>
                         or 916-217-7913. Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point of contact in the United States.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Introduction</HD>
                <P>
                    On April 20, 2010, the mobile offshore drilling unit 
                    <E T="03">Deepwater Horizon,</E>
                     which was drilling a well for BP Exploration and Production, Inc. (BP), experienced a significant explosion, fire, and subsequent sinking in the Gulf of America, resulting in the release of millions of barrels of oil and other discharges into the Gulf. Under the authority of the Oil Pollution Act of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39120"/>
                    1990 (OPA; 33 U.S.C. 2701 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), designated Federal and State trustees, acting on behalf of the public, assessed the injuries to natural resources and prepared the 
                    <E T="03">Deepwater Horizon Oil Spill Final Programmatic Damage Assessment and Restoration Plan and Final Programmatic Environmental Impact Statement</E>
                     (Final PDARP/PEIS), and subsequent record of decision (ROD), which sets forth the governance structure and process for Deepwater Horizon (DWH) restoration planning under the OPA's natural resource damage assessment (NRDA) regulations. On April 4, 2016, the United States District Court for the Eastern District of Louisiana entered a Consent Decree resolving civil claims by the Trustees against BP.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Mississippi Trustee Implementation Group (MS TIG) is composed of the Mississippi Department of Environmental Quality, the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), the U.S. Department of the Interior (DOI), the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), and the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA). The MS TIG selects and implements restoration projects under its management authority in accordance with the Consent Decree. The Final PDARP/PEIS, ROD, Consent Decree, and information on the DWH Trustees can be found at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.gulfspillrestoration.noaa.gov/restoration-planning/gulf-plan.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>On May 8, 2024, the MS TIG posted a call for restoration project ideas on the DWH Trustee Council website. On June 2, 2025, following the completion of project screening, the MS TIG posted a public notice on the DWH Trustees' website indicating that the MS TIG was initiating restoration planning for this RP5/EA, for two restoration types: Nutrient Reduction and Birds. The Draft RP5/EA includes a reasonable range of five action alternatives and identifies three preferred alternatives for implementation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of the MS TIG's Draft RP5/EA</HD>
                <P>
                    The Draft RP5/EA is being released in accordance with OPA, its implementing NRDA regulations found in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) at 15 CFR part 990, the National Environmental Policy Act (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), the Final PDARP/PEIS, and the Consent Decree. The Draft RP5/EA provides OPA and NEPA analyses for a reasonable range of five action alternatives. Two of the action alternatives are nutrient reduction alternatives. The preferred nutrient reduction alternative would include hydrologic and stormwater system enhancements to address nutrient loading in Moss Point, MS, through the construction of a nature-based stormwater park and urban reforestation in the watershed.
                </P>
                <P>The non-preferred nutrient reduction alternative would implement a suite of USDA conservation practices aimed at reducing nutrient loads in the Big Cedar Creek—West Pascagoula River watershed. The plan also analyzes implementation of three bird restoration alternatives. There are two preferred Birds restoration alternatives. One would benefit multiple species of migratory birds affected by the oil spill, by maximizing and enhancing shallow-water habitat in wetland management units in the Lower Mississippi River Valley. The other involves creation of beach/dune habitat to provide nesting and foraging opportunities for Mississippi's shorebird population on Cat Island.</P>
                <P>The non-preferred Birds restoration alternative would protect nesting bird habitat on the mainland beaches through the use of predator management techniques.</P>
                <P>The total estimated cost to implement the three preferred alternatives is approximately $19,500,000, which is proposed to be funded from the following DWH NRDA restoration type allocations:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • 
                    <E T="03">MS TIG Nutrient Reduction:</E>
                     $6,000,000
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • 
                    <E T="03">MS TIG Birds:</E>
                     $13,500,000
                </FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Administrative Record</HD>
                <P>
                    The documents comprising the administrative record for the Draft RP5/EA can be viewed electronically at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.doi.gov/deepwaterhorizon/adminrecord</E>
                     under folder 6.5.6.2.5.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority</HD>
                <P>
                    The authority for this action is the Oil Pollution Act of 1990 (33 U.S.C. 2701 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), its implementing Natural Resource Damage Assessment regulations found at 15 CFR part 990, and the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Mary Josie Blanchard,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Department of the Interior, Director, Gulf Coast Restoration.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13044 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">INTERNATIONAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Investigation Nos. 701-TA-798 and 731-TA-1794 (Preliminary)]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Choline Salts From China; Institution of Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Investigations and Scheduling of Preliminary Phase Investigations</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>United States International Trade Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commission hereby gives notice of the institution of investigations and commencement of preliminary phase antidumping and countervailing duty investigation Nos. 701-TA-798 and 731-TA-1794 (Preliminary) pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 to determine whether there is a reasonable indication that an industry in the United States is materially injured or threatened with material injury, or the establishment of an industry in the United States is materially retarded, by reason of imports of certain choline salts from China, provided for in subheading 2923.10.00 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States, that are alleged to be sold in the United States at less than fair value and alleged to be subsidized by the Government of China. Unless the Department of Commerce (“Commerce”) extends the time for initiation, the Commission must reach a preliminary determination in antidumping and countervailing duty investigations in 45 days, or in this case by August 10, 2026. The Commission's views must be transmitted to Commerce within five business days thereafter, or by August 17, 2026.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>June 24, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Nitin Joshi (202-708-1669), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
                        <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov</E>
                        ). The public record for these investigations may be viewed on the Commission's electronic docket (EDIS) at 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Background.</E>
                    —These investigations are being instituted, pursuant to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39121"/>
                    sections 703(a) and 733(a) of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1671b(a) and 1673b(a)), in response to petitions filed on June 24, 2026, by BCP Ingredients, Inc. (Montvale, New Jersey).
                </P>
                <P>For further information concerning the conduct of these investigations and rules of general application, consult the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, part 201, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 201), and part 207, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 207).</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Participation in the investigations and public service list.</E>
                    —Persons wishing to participate in the investigations as parties must file an entry of appearance with the Secretary to the Commission, as provided in §§ 201.11 and 207.10 of the Commission's rules, not later than seven days after publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Industrial users and (if the merchandise under investigation is sold at the retail level) representative consumer organizations have the right to appear as parties in Commission antidumping duty and countervailing duty investigations. The Secretary will prepare a public service list containing the names and addresses of all persons, or their representatives, who are parties to these investigations upon the expiration of the period for filing entries of appearance.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Limited disclosure of business proprietary information (BPI) under an administrative protective order (APO) and BPI service list.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.7(a) of the Commission's rules, the Secretary will make BPI gathered in these investigations available to authorized applicants representing interested parties (as defined in 19 U.S.C. 1677(9)) who are parties to the investigations under the APO issued in the investigations, provided that the application is made not later than seven days after the publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . A separate service list will be maintained by the Secretary for those parties authorized to receive BPI under the APO.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Conference.</E>
                    —The Office of Investigations will hold a staff conference in connection with the preliminary phase of these investigations beginning at 9:30 a.m. on Wednesday, July 15, 2026. Requests to appear at the conference should be emailed to 
                    <E T="03">preliminaryconferences@usitc.gov</E>
                     (DO NOT FILE ON EDIS) on or before noon on Monday, July 13, 2026. Please provide an email address for each conference participant in the email. Information on conference procedures, format, and participation, including guidance for requests to appear as a witness via videoconference, will be available on the Commission's Public Calendar (Calendar (USITC) | United States International Trade Commission). A nonparty who has testimony that may aid the Commission's deliberations may request permission to participate by submitting a short statement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Please note the Secretary's Office will accept only electronic filings during this time. Filings must be made through the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS, 
                    <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov</E>
                    ). No in-person paper-based filings or paper copies of any electronic filings will be accepted until further notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Written submissions.</E>
                    —As provided in §§ 201.8 and 207.15 of the Commission's rules, any person may submit to the Commission on or before 5:15 p.m. on July 20, 2026, a written brief containing information and arguments pertinent to the subject matter of the investigations. Parties shall file written testimony and supplementary material in connection with their presentation at the conference no later than 4:00 p.m. on July 14, 2026. All written submissions must conform with the provisions of § 201.8 of the Commission's rules; any submissions that contain BPI must also conform with the requirements of §§ 201.6, 207.3, and 207.7 of the Commission's rules. The Commission's 
                    <E T="03">Handbook on Filing Procedures,</E>
                     available on the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov/documents/handbook_on_filing_procedures.pdf,</E>
                     elaborates upon the Commission's procedures with respect to filings.
                </P>
                <P>In accordance with §§ 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the rules, each document filed by a party to the investigations must be served on all other parties to the investigations (as identified by either the public or BPI service list), and a certificate of service must be timely filed. The Secretary will not accept a document for filing without a certificate of service.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Certification.</E>
                    —Pursuant to § 207.3 of the Commission's rules, any person submitting information to the Commission in connection with these investigations must certify that the information is accurate and complete to the best of the submitter's knowledge. In making the certification, the submitter will acknowledge that any information that it submits to the Commission during these investigations may be disclosed to and used: (i) by the Commission, its employees and Offices, and contract personnel (a) for developing or maintaining the records of these or related investigations or reviews, or (b) in internal investigations, audits, reviews, and evaluations relating to the programs, personnel, and operations of the Commission including under 5 U.S.C. Appendix 3; or (ii) by U.S. government employees and contract personnel, solely for cybersecurity purposes. All contract personnel will sign appropriate nondisclosure agreements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     These investigations are being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to § 207.12 of the Commission's rules.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By order of the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Issued: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lisa Barton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-12996 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7020-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Number 1121-0350]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Reinstatement, With Change, of a Previously Approved Collection for Which Approval Has Expired: Title—Census of Tribal Court Systems (CTCS)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Justice Statistics, Department of Justice.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60-Day notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Bureau of Justice Statistics, Department of Justice (DOJ) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until August 28, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Steven W. Perry (email: 
                        <E T="03">bjspra.comments@ojp.usdoj.gov;</E>
                         telephone: 202-307-0765), Bureau of Justice Statistics, 999 North Capital Street NE, Washington, DC 20531.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:</P>
                <PRTPAGE P="39122"/>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Bureau of Justice Statistics, including whether the information will have practical utility;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether and if so, how the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected can be enhanced; and</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    —Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including using appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Bureau of Justice Statistics (BJS) has previously conducted the Census of Tribal Courts (CTCS), formerly known as the National Survey of Tribal Court Systems (NSTCS), through a survey that collects data on the staffing, functions, caseloads, civil and juvenile justice matters, and operations of tribal law courts serving tribal lands. The 2026 CTCS will be the second administration of this collection. It will provide insight on emerging issues and challenges facing tribal law courts since it was last conducted in 2014 and establish a time series of the data collection. BJS uses the information gathered in the CTCS in published reports and statistics. The reports will be made available to the U.S. Congress, Executive Office of the President, practitioners, researchers, students, the media, others interested in criminal justice statistics, and the general public via the BJS website.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of This Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Reinstatement, with changes, of a previously approved collection for which approval has expired.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Title of the Form/Collection:</E>
                     2026 Census of Tribal Court Systems (CTCS).
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department of Justice sponsoring the collection:</E>
                     The form number is CTCS-26. The applicable component within the Department of Justice is the Bureau of Justice Statistics (BJS), in the Office of Justice Programs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as the obligation to respond:</E>
                     Affected public are tribal courts. The 2026 CTCS is revised from the 2014 National Survey of Tribal Court Systems (NSTCS-14). BJS plans to field the 2026 CTCS from January 2027 through April 2027. Respondents will be the staff at tribal courts. The obligation to respond is voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond:</E>
                     A projected 378 respondents from tribal courts will take an average of 65 minutes (1.08 hours) each to complete form CTCS-26, including time to research or find information not readily available. In addition, an estimated 39 respondents will be contacted for data quality follow-up at 15 minutes (.25 hours) per respondent.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total public burden (in hours) associated with the collection:</E>
                     The total burden hours for this collection is 417 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total annual cost burden associated with the collection, if applicable:</E>
                     $10,537.86.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Total Burden Hours</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Activity</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Frequency</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total annual responses</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Time per
                            <LI>survey</LI>
                            <LI>(mins)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual burden
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Hourly rate *</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Monetized value of
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                            <LI>time</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">CTCS Invitation Materials</ENT>
                        <ENT>378</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>378</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>31.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>$25.15</ENT>
                        <ENT>$792.23</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">CTCS Question Guide</ENT>
                        <ENT>378</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>378</ENT>
                        <ENT>20</ENT>
                        <ENT>126</ENT>
                        <ENT>25.15</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,168.90</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">CTCS Web Survey</ENT>
                        <ENT>378</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>378</ENT>
                        <ENT>40</ENT>
                        <ENT>252</ENT>
                        <ENT>25.15</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,337.80</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Data Quality Follow-Up</ENT>
                        <ENT>38</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>38</ENT>
                        <ENT>15</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>25.15</ENT>
                        <ENT>238.93</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>378</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>419</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>10,537.86</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>If additional information is required, contact: Darwin Arceo, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Enterprise Portfolio Management, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street, NE, 4W-218, Washington, DC.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 25, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Darwin Arceo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Department Clearance Officer for PRA, U.S. Department of Justice.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13056 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4410-18-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Proposed Consent Decree Under the Clean Water Act, Toxic Substances Control Act, the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, and the West Virginia Pollution Control Act</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    On June 24, 2026, the Department of Justice lodged a proposed Consent Decree in the civil action 
                    <E T="03">United States and West Virginia Department of Environmental Protection</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">The Chemours Company, et al.,</E>
                     Civ. No. 2:26-cv-00418 (S.D. W.V.).
                </P>
                <P>The complaint alleged that the defendants violated the Clean Water Act, Toxic Substances Control Act, the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, and the West Virginia Pollution Control Act. The case relates to three Chemours facilities, located in Parkersburg, West Virginia; Fayetteville, North Carolina, and Deepwater, New Jersey. The complaint alleges that each of these facilities released or otherwise misused Perfluoroalkyl and Polyfluoroalkyl Substances (“PFAS”).</P>
                <P>
                    The Consent Decree includes several requirements: (1) installation of various pollution control equipment at the Parkersburg, West Virginia facility; (2) sampling of drinking water in communities surrounding the West Virginia facility and the Deepwater, New Jersey facility, and as needed ensuring the provision of clean drinking water; (3) $90 million worth of mitigation projects, to be selected in the future, to reduce PFAS at Chemours 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39123"/>
                    facilities; and (4) a civil penalty of $22.5 million.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the Settlement Agreement. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to the Consent Decree for 
                    <E T="03">The Chemours Company,</E>
                     D.J. Ref. No. 90-5-1-1-12112. All comments must be submitted no later than thirty (30) days after the publication date of this notice. Comments may be submitted either by email or by mail:
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="xs50,r50">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1" O="L">
                            <E T="03">To submit comments:</E>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1" O="L">
                            <E T="03">Send them to:</E>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">By email</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">pubcomment-ees.enrd@usdoj.gov.</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">By mail</ENT>
                        <ENT>Assistant Attorney General, U.S. DOJ—ENRD, P.O. Box 7611, Washington, DC 20044-7611.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>Any comments submitted in writing may be filed by the United States in whole or in part on the public court docket without notice to the commenter.</P>
                <P>
                    During the public comment period, the Consent Decree may be examined at and downloaded from this Justice Department website: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.justice.gov/enrd/consent-decrees.</E>
                     If you require assistance accessing the Consent Decree, you may request assistance by email or by mail to the addresses provided above for submitting comments.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Scott Bauer,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Section Chief, Environmental Enforcement Section, Environment and Natural Resources Division.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13081 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4410-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Provider Enrollment Form</SUBJECT>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of availability; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting this Office of Workers' Compensation Programs (OWCP)-sponsored information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). Public comments on the ICR are invited.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The OMB will consider all written comments that the agency receives on or before July 29, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                    <P>Comments are invited on: (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimates of the burden and cost of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Nicole Bouchet by telephone at 202-693-0213, or by email at 
                        <E T="03">DOL_PRA_PUBLIC@dol.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The information provided on this form will be used by all OWCP programs to identify the providers of medical and vocational rehabilitation services, and to direct payments to these providers accurately and in a timely manner. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on March 18, 2026 (91 FR 13069).
                </P>
                <P>This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless the OMB approves it and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid OMB Control Number. See 5 CFR 1320.5(a) and 1320.6.</P>
                <P>DOL seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOL notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     DOL-OWCP.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Provider Enrollment Form.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1240-0021.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Private Sector— Businesses or other for-profits.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     18,417.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Responses:</E>
                     18,417.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Time Burden:</E>
                     8,902 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Other Costs Burden:</E>
                     $0.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Nicole Bouchet,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Senior PRA Analyst.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13000 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-26-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Pre-Implementation Planning Checklist Report for State Unemployment Insurance Information Technology Modernization Projects</SUBJECT>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of availability; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting this Employment and Training Administration (ETA)-sponsored information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). Public comments on the ICR are invited.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The OMB will consider all written comments that the agency receives on or before July 29, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Michael Howell by telephone at 202-693-6782, or by email at 
                        <E T="03">DOL_PRA_PUBLIC@dol.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    UI IT Modernization Pre-Implementation Planning Checklist for states to use prior to “going live” with a new UI Benefits and/or Tax system. The checklist can be used to verify that all necessary system functions are available and/or that 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39124"/>
                    alternative workarounds are developed prior to the production launch of the UI IT system to help avoid major disruption of services to UI customers and to prevent delays in making UI benefit payments when due. This comprehensive checklist denotes critical functional areas that states should verify prior to launching a new UI IT system including, but not limited to, technical IT functions and UI business processes that interface with the new system. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on April 6, 2026 (91 FR 17308).
                </P>
                <P>Comments are invited on: (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimates of the burden and cost of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>
                    This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless the OMB approves it and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid OMB Control Number. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     5 CFR 1320.5(a) and 1320.6.
                </P>
                <P>DOL seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOL notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     DOL-ETA.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Pre-Implementation Planning Checklist Report for State Unemployment Insurance Information Technology Modernization Projects.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1205-0527.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     State, Local and Tribal Governments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     3.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Responses:</E>
                     6.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Time Burden:</E>
                     540 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Other Costs Burden:</E>
                     $0.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D))</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Michael Howell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Senior Paperwork Reduction Act Analyst.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13001 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-FN-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Standard on 4,4′-Methylenedianiline for General Industry</SUBJECT>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of availability; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting this Occupational Safety &amp; Health Administration (OSHA)-sponsored information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). Public comments on the ICR are invited.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The OMB will consider all written comments that the agency receives on or before July 29, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Nicole Bouchet by telephone at 202-693-0213, or by email at 
                        <E T="03">DOL_PRA_PUBLIC@dol.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The purpose of this Standard and its information collection requirements is to provide protection for workers from adverse health effects associated with occupational exposure to Methylenedianiline in General Industry. Employers must monitor worker exposures within the permissible exposure limits, provide workers with medical examinations and training, and establish and maintain worker exposure-monitoring and medical records. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on September 12, 2025 (90 FR 44247).
                </P>
                <P>Comments are invited on: (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimates of the burden and cost of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>
                    This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless the OMB approves it and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid OMB Control Number. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     5 CFR 1320.5(a) and 1320.6.
                </P>
                <P>DOL seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOL notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     DOL-OSHA.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Standard on 4,4′-Methylenedianiline for General Industry.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1218-0184.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Private Sector— Businesses or other for-profits.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     10.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Responses:</E>
                     585.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Time Burden:</E>
                     319 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Other Costs Burden:</E>
                     $26,800.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D))</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Nicole Bouchet,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Senior Paperwork Reduction Act Analyst.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13002 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-26-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="39125"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 50-244; NRC-2026-3104]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Constellation Energy Generation, LLC; R.E. Ginna Nuclear Power Plant; Subsequent License Renewal Application</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; receipt.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has received an application for the subsequent renewal of Facility Operating License No. DPR-18, which authorizes Constellation Energy Generation, LLC (CEG, the applicant), to operate R.E. Ginna Nuclear Power Plant (Ginna). The renewed license would authorize the applicant to operate Ginna for an additional 20 years beyond the period specified in the current license. The current operating license for Ginna expires September 18, 2029.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The subsequent license renewal application referenced in this document is available as of June 29, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2026-3104 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly available information related to this document using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal Rulemaking Website:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for Docket ID NRC-2026-3104. Address questions about Docket IDs in 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                         to Bridget Curran; telephone 301-415-1003; email 
                        <E T="03">Bridget.Curran@nrc.gov.</E>
                         For technical questions, contact the individual(s) listed in the 
                        <E T="02">For Further Information Contact</E>
                         section of this document.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">NRC Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS):</E>
                         You may obtain publicly available documents online in the ADAMS Public Documents collection at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html.</E>
                         To begin the search, select “Begin ADAMS Public Search.” For problems with ADAMS, please contact the NRC's Public Document Room (PDR) reference staff at 1-800-397-4209, at 301-415-4737, or by email to 
                        <E T="03">PDR.Resource@nrc.gov.</E>
                         The ADAMS accession number for each document referenced (if it is available in ADAMS) is provided the first time that the document is mentioned in this notice.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Public Library:</E>
                         A copy of the subsequent license renewal application for Ginna can be accessed at the following public libraries: Lyons Public Library, 122 Broad Street, Lyons, NY 14489.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">NRC'S PDR:</E>
                         The PDR, where you may examine and order copies of publicly available documents, is open by appointment. To make an appointment to visit the PDR, please send an email to 
                        <E T="03">PDR.Resource@nrc.gov</E>
                         or call 1-800-397-4209 or 301-415-4737, between 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. eastern time (ET), Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Brian Harris, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-2277; email: 
                        <E T="03">Brian.Harris2@nrc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The NRC has received an application from CEG, dated June 17, 2026 (ADAMS Package Accession No. ML26168A222), filed pursuant to section 103 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and part 54 of title 10 of the 
                    <E T="03">Code of Federal Regulations</E>
                     (10 CFR), “Requirements for Renewal of Operating Licenses for Nuclear Power Plants,” to renew the operating license for Ginna. Renewal of the license would authorize the applicant to operate the facility for an additional 20-year period beyond the period specified in the current operating license. The current operating license for Ginna expires September 18, 2029. Ginna is a pressurized-water reactor located near Ontario, New York. The acceptability of the tendered application for docketing, and other matters, including an opportunity to request a hearing, will be the subject of subsequent 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notices.
                </P>
                <P>A copy of the subsequent license renewal application for Ginna is also available near the site at the following public library: Lyons Public Library, 122 Broad Street, Lyons, NY 14489.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     42 U.S.C. 2011 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <P>For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                    <NAME>Vaughn Thomas,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Chief, License Renewal Safety Branch, Division of Licensing Projects II, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13026 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7590-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 50-331-LA; ASLBP No. 26-994-02-LA-BD01]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>NextEra Energy Duane Arnold, LLC; Establishment of Atomic Safety and Licensing Board</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to the Commission's regulations, 
                    <E T="03">see, e.g.,</E>
                     10 CFR 2.104, 2.105, 2.300, 2.309, 2.313, 2.318, 2.321, notice is hereby given that an Atomic Safety and Licensing Board (Board) is being established to preside over the following proceeding:
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Nextera Energy Duane Arnold, LLC</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">(Duane Arnold Energy Center)</HD>
                <P>NextEra Energy Duane Arnold, LLC has requested three amendments to Renewed Facility License No. DPR-49 to support the potential reauthorization of power operations at the Duane Arnold Energy Center, which is located in Linn County, Iowa.</P>
                <P>
                    In response to a notice filed in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     announcing the opportunity to request a hearing, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     91 FR 21,514 (Apr. 22, 2026), Physicians for Social Responsibility Iowa filed a hearing request on June 22, 2026.
                </P>
                <P>The Board is comprised of the following Administrative Judges:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Stefan R. Wolfe, Chair, Atomic Safety and Licensing Board Panel, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Dr. Sue H. Abreu, Atomic Safety and Licensing Board Panel, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Dr. Gary S. Arnold, Atomic Safety and Licensing Board Panel, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission ,Washington, DC 20555-0001</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    All correspondence, documents, and other materials shall be filed in accordance with the NRC E-Filing rule. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     10 CFR 2.302.
                </FP>
                <P>Rockville, Maryland.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 24, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Edward R. Hawkens,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief Administrative Judge, Atomic Safety and Licensing Board Panel.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13004 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7590-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">POSTAL REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Nos. MC2026-285 and K2026-282; MC2026-286 and K2026-283]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>New Postal Products</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Postal Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <PRTPAGE P="39126"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing for the Commission's consideration concerning a negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.</P>
                </SUM>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.prc.gov.</E>
                         Those who cannot submit comments electronically should contact the person identified in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section by telephone for advice on filing alternatives.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Introduction</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Public Proceeding(s)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Summary Proceeding(s)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.405, the Commission gives notice that the Postal Service filed request(s) for the Commission to consider matters related to Competitive negotiated service agreement(s). The request(s) may propose the addition of a negotiated service agreement from the Competitive product list or the modification of an existing product currently appearing on the Competitive product list.</P>
                <P>
                    The public portions of the Postal Service's request(s) can be accessed via the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">http://www.prc.gov</E>
                    ). Non-public portions of the Postal Service's request(s), if any, can be accessed through compliance with the requirements of 39 CFR 3011.301.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Docket No. RM2018-3, Order Adopting Final Rules Relating to Non-Public Information, June 27, 2018, Attachment A at 19-22 (Order No. 4679).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Section II identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, if any, that will be reviewed in a public proceeding as defined by 39 CFR 3010.101(p), the title of each such request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. For each such request, the Commission appoints an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in the proceeding, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505 and 39 CFR 3000.114 (Public Representative). The Public Representative does not represent any individual person, entity or particular point of view, and, when Commission attorneys are appointed, no attorney-client relationship is established. Section II also establishes comment deadline(s) pertaining to each such request.</P>
                <P>The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's request(s) identified in Section II, if any, are consistent with the policies of title 39. Applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3632, 39 U.S.C. 3633, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3035, and 39 CFR part 3041. Comment deadline(s) for each such request, if any, appear in Section II.</P>
                <P>
                    Section III identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, if any, to add a standardized distinct product to the Competitive product list or to amend a standardized distinct product, the title of each such request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. Standardized distinct products are negotiated service agreements that are variations of one or more Competitive products, and for which financial models, minimum rates, and classification criteria have undergone advance Commission review. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     39 CFR 3041.110(n); 39 CFR 3041.205(a). Such requests are reviewed in summary proceedings pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.325(c)(2) and 39 CFR 3041.505(f)(1). Pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.405(c)-(d), the Commission does not appoint a Public Representative or request public comment in proceedings to review such requests.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Public Proceeding(s)</HD>
                <P>
                    None. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Section III for summary proceedings.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Summary Proceeding(s)</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2026-285 and K2026-282; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add New Fulfillment Standardized Distinct Product, PM-GA Contract 1025, and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     June 24, 2026; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3633, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.325.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2026-286 and K2026-283; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add New Fulfillment Standardized Distinct Product, PM-GA Contract 1026, and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     June 24, 2026; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3633, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.325.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This Notice will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Danielle LeFlore,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Legal Assistant.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13052 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7710-FW-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105758; File No. SR-NYSEARCA-2026-67]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Connectivity Fee Schedule</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>June 24, 2026.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on June 17, 2026, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“NYSE Arca” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the self-regulatory organization. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1)
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend the Connectivity Fee Schedule (“Fee Schedule”) to delete the currently-filed “Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb” service as obsolete. The Exchange also proposes to clarify to which access centers the 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits connect. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.nyse.com</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39127"/>
                    of the most significant parts of such statements.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedule to delete the currently-filed “Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb” service as obsolete. The Exchange also proposes to clarify to which access centers the 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits connect.</P>
                <P>
                    In 2023, the Exchange filed to amend the Fee Schedule to add several “FIDS Circuits” available to Users 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     at the Mahwah, New Jersey data center (“MDC”),
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     including “Optic Access” circuits in 1 Gb, 10 Gb, and 40 Gb sizes.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         For purposes of the Exchange's colocation services, a “User” means any market participant that requests to receive colocation services directly from the Exchange. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 76010 (September 29, 2015), 80 FR 60197 (October 5, 2015) (SR-NYSEArca-2015-82). As specified in the Fee Schedule, a User that incurs colocation fees for a particular colocation service pursuant thereto would not be subject to colocation fees for the same colocation service charged by the New York Stock Exchange LLC, NYSE American LLC, NYSE National, Inc. and NYSE Texas, Inc. (together, the “Affiliate SROs”). Each Affiliate SRO has submitted substantially the same proposed rule change to propose the change described herein.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Through its Fixed Income and Data Services (“FIDS”) business, Intercontinental Exchange, Inc. (“ICE”) operates the MDC. The Exchange and the Affiliate SROs are indirect subsidiaries of ICE.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 99166 (December 14, 2023), 88 FR 88178 (December 20, 2023) (SR-NYSEARCA-2023-83).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to eliminate the “Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb” service as obsolete. Currently, no Users have the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb, and the Exchange understands that FIDS does not expect that any Users will acquire a 1 Gb Optic Access circuit.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         In 2024 the Optic Low Latency Circuit—1 Gb was deleted as obsolete. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 101250 (October 4, 2024), 89 FR 82274 (October 10, 2024) (SR-NYSEARCA-2024-81).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>To implement the change, the Exchange proposes to amend the chart under “E. FIDS Circuits” in the Fee Schedule to eliminate the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb, as follows (deleted text bracketed):</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s25,r25">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Type of service</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Fees</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">[Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            $1,500 initial charge plus
                            <LI>$650 monthly charge].</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    The Exchange also proposes to clarify the list of FIDS access centers to which the remaining 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits may connect. In its filing to add “Optic Access” circuits to the Fee Schedule,
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Exchange stated that Optic Access circuits could connect between the MDC and FIDS access centers at five third-party owned data centers. The Exchange proposes to clarify that the 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits will no longer connect to (1) 111 Eighth Avenue, New York, NY; (2) 32 Avenue of the Americas, New York, NY; or (3) 165 Halsey, Newark, NJ (the three together, the “Obsolete Access Centers”).
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         88 FR 88178, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 6, at 88179.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         The remaining third party access centers to which Optic Access would connect are in Secaucus and Carteret, New Jersey.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Currently, no Users have Optic Access circuits between the MDC and any of the three Obsolete Access Centers. The Exchange understands that FIDS does not expect that any Users will seek to connect to the Obsolete Access Centers from the MDC.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Application and Impact of the Proposed Changes</HD>
                <P>The proposed change is not targeted at, or expected to be limited in applicability to, a specific segment of market participant. The proposed changes do not apply differently to distinct types or sizes of customers. Rather, they apply to all customers equally.</P>
                <P>No Users have either (a) the Optic Access Circuit -1 Gb or (b) an Optic Access circuit between the MDC and an Obsolete Access Center. The Exchange understands that FIDS does not expect that any Users would require the services. Accordingly, no Users would be impacted by the proposed change.</P>
                <P>
                    As is currently true, the 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits would be available for purchase for any potential User requiring a circuit between the MDC and the FIDS access centers in the Secaucus Access Center or Carteret Access Center, as well as the other circuits offered by FIDS or the circuits offered by the 17 third-party telecommunications service providers that have installed their equipment in the MDC's two meet-me-rooms (“Telecoms”).
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Use of services in this filing are completely voluntary and available to all market participants on a non-discriminatory basis.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         Telecoms are licensed by the Federal Communications Commission and are not required to be, or be affiliated with, a member of the Exchange or an Affiliate SRO.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The proposed changes are not otherwise intended to address any other issues relating to services related to the MDC and/or related fees, and the Exchange is not aware of any problems that market participants would have in complying with the proposed change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, because it is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest and because it is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that discontinuing offering the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb and clarifying that the Optic Access Circuits are not available in the Obsolete Access Centers would perfect the mechanisms of a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, protect investors and the public interest. Demand for such connections is non-existent and there are currently no Users that subscribe to the services. The Exchange does not expect demand to rebound given that FIDS does not expect to acquire any customers for these services and FIDS understands that Users do not wish to connect to the Obsolete Access Centers from the MDC.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes that removing references to the fees for the obsolete Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb from the Fee Schedule would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because they would make the Fee Schedule easier to read, understand, and administer.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change does not significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest. No Users have the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb or use an Optic Access Circuit connection to the Obsolete Access Centers. The proposed rule change would delete an obsolete service from the Fee Schedule, which would enhance transparency and alleviate potential customer confusion.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that removing this obsolete service from the Fee Schedule and changing the description of the remaining Optic Access circuits 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39128"/>
                    would not permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers. The proposed changes would apply equally to all Users.
                </P>
                <P>For these reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposal will not impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of Section 6(b)(8) of the Act.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed rule change is not designed to address any competitive issues but rather is designed to enhance the clarity and transparency of the Fee Schedule and alleviate possible customer confusion that may arise from the inclusion of obsolete services
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(8).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act 
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) thereunder.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because the proposed rule change does not: (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative prior to 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, if consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest, the proposed rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act and Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii) thereunder.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6). In addition, Rule 19b-4(f)(6) requires a self-regulatory organization to give the Commission written notice of its intent to file the proposed rule change, along with a brief description and text of the proposed rule change, at least five business days prior to the date of filing of the proposed rule change, or such shorter time as designated by the Commission. The Exchange has satisfied this requirement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6) 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     normally does not become operative prior to 30 days after the date of the filing. However, pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii),
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Commission may designate a shorter time if such action is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B) 
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Act to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number
                </P>
                <P>SR-NYSEARCA-2026-67 on the subject line.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSEARCA-2026-67. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSEARCA-2026-67 and should be submitted on or before July 20, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13010 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105764; File No. SR-CBOE-2026-055]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Fee Structure Related to DJX and RUT FLEX Micro Orders and To Eliminate References to MSCI Index Products</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>June 24, 2026.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on June 12, 2026, Cboe Exchange, Inc. (the “Exchange” or “Cboe Options”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>Cboe Exchange, Inc. (the “Exchange” or “Cboe Options”) proposes to amend its Fees Schedule to amend the fee structure related to DJX and RUT FLEX Micro orders and to eliminate references to MSCI Index Products. The text of the proposed rule change is provided in Exhibit 5.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ), the Exchange's website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.cboe.com/us/options/regulation/rule_filings/cone/</E>
                    ), and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                    <PRTPAGE P="39129"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend its Fees Schedule.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The Exchange initially filed the proposed fee changes on June 1, 2026 (SR-CBOE-2026-053). On June 12, 2026, the Exchange withdrew that filing and submitted this proposal.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to apply certain fee codes currently applicable to transactions in S&amp;P 500 Index options (“SPX”) to certain transactions in options on the Dow Jones Industrial Average (“DJX”). By way of background, current applicable DJX FLEX Micros fee codes assess fees ranging from $0.003 to $0.007 per contract, as set forth in the Rate Table for All Products Excluding Underlying Symbol List A. Specifically, fee code GG is appended to all Customer (capacity “C”) orders in DJX FLEX Micros and assesses a fee of $0.004 per contract; fee code GK is appended to Clearing Trading Permit Holder (“TPH”) (capacity “F”), Non-Clearing TPH Affiliates (capacity “L”), Broker-Dealer (capacity “B”), Joint Back-Office (capacity “J”), Non-TPH Market-Maker (capacity “N”), and Professional (capacity “U”) manual and AIM Agency/Primary orders in DJX FLEX Micros and assesses a fee of $0.005 per contract; fee code GJ is appended to Clearing TPH (capacity “F”), Non-Clearing TPH Affiliates (capacity “L”), Broker-Dealer (capacity “B”), Joint Back-Office (capacity “J”), Non-TPH Market-Maker (capacity “N”), and Professional (capacity “U”) electronic orders in DJX FLEX Micros and assesses a fee of $0.007 per contract; fee code GL is appended to Clearing TPH (capacity “F”), Non-Clearing TPH Affiliates (capacity “L”), Market-Maker (capacity “M”), Broker-Dealer (capacity “B”), Joint Back-Office (capacity “J”), Non-TPH Market-Maker (capacity “N”), and Professional (capacity “U”) AIM Contra orders in DJX FLEX Micros and assesses a fee of $0.003 per contract; fee code GM is appended to Clearing TPH (capacity “F”), Non-Clearing TPH Affiliates (capacity “L”), Market-Maker (capacity “M”), Broker-Dealer (capacity “B”), Joint Back-Office (capacity “J”), Non-TPH Market-Maker (capacity “N”), and Professional (capacity “U”) AIM Response orders in DJX FLEX Micros and assesses a fee of $0.007 per contract; and fee code GH is appended to Market-Maker (capacity “M”) manual, electronic, and AIM Agency/Primary orders in DJX FLEX Micros and assesses a fee of $0.005 per contract.</P>
                <P>The Exchange now proposes to apply certain fee codes currently applicable to transactions in SPX FLEX Micros to transactions in DJX FLEX Micros. Specifically, the proposed rule change amends certain fees for SPX FLEX Micros in the Rate Table for All Products Excluding Underlying Symbol List A, as follows:</P>
                <P>• Amends fee code GE, appended to all Customer (capacity “C”), Clearing TPH (capacity “F”) and Non-Clearing TPH Affiliates (capacity “L”) orders in SPX FLEX Micros and assesses a fee of $0.008 per contract to apply to all Customer (capacity “C”), Clearing TPH (capacity “F”) and Non-Clearing TPH Affiliates (capacity “L”) orders in SPX and DJX Flex Micros.</P>
                <P>• Amends fee code GF, appended to all Market-Maker (capacity “M”) orders in SPX FLEX Micros and assesses a fee of $0.006 per contract, to apply to all Market-Maker (capacity “M”) orders in SPX and DJX FLEX Micros.</P>
                <P>• Amends fee code GD, appended to all Broker-Dealer (capacity “B”), Joint Back-Office (capacity “J”), Non-TPH Market-Maker (capacity “N”), and Professional (capacity “U”) orders in SPX FLEX Micros and assesses a fee of $0.009 per contract, to apply to all Broker-Dealer (capacity “B”), Joint Back-Office (capacity “J”), Non-TPH Market-Maker (capacity “N”), and Professional (capacity “U”) orders in SPX and DJX FLEX Micros.</P>
                <P>
                    Currently fee code GB, which assesses a fee of $0.009 per contract, is appended to manual and AIM Broker-Dealer (capacity “B”), Joint Back-Office (capacity “J”), Non-TPH Market-Maker (capacity “N”), and Professional (capacity “U”) orders in Russell 2000 Index options (“RUT”) FLEX Micros; and fee code GC, which assesses a fee of $0.012 per contract, is appended to all electronic Broker-Dealer (capacity “B”), Joint Back-Office (capacity “J”), Non-TPH Market-Maker (capacity “N”), and Professional (capacity “U”) orders in RUT FLEX Micros. The Exchange proposes to eliminate fee codes GB and GC, and apply fee code GA,
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which assesses a fee of $0.009 per contract, to all Broker-Dealer (capacity “B”), Joint Back-Office (capacity “J”), Non-TPH Market-Maker (capacity “N”), and Professional (capacity “U”) orders in RUT FLEX Micros.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Fee code GA is also appended to all Market-Maker, Customer, Clearing TPH and Non-Clearing TPH Affiliates orders in RUT FLEX Micros.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Finally, the Exchange proposes to amend its Fees Schedule to eliminate fee codes applicable to options on the following MSCI Index Products: MXACW, MXUSA, MXWLD, MXEA, and MXEF (collectively, “MSCI Index Products”). Specifically, the Exchange proposes to eliminate fee codes BG, CG, CM, CN, FG, GG, GH, GI, GJ, GK, GL, GM, GN, and MG. Further, the Exchange proposes to eliminate the MXEA, MXEF, MXACW, and MXWLD Surcharge Fee and to remove references 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to MSCI Index products in the following fees and programs set forth in the Fees Schedule: Liquidity Provider Sliding Scale, Volume Incentive Program, Break-Up Credits, Marketing Fee, Select Customer Options Reduction Program, Floor Broker Sliding Scale Rebate Program, Floor Broker Sliding Scale Supplemental Rebate Program, Order Router Subsidy Program, Complex Order Router Subsidy Program.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The Exchange also proposes to remove reference to MSCI Index Products in Footnotes 6, 10 (related to the Liquidity Provider Sliding Scale), 36 (related to the Volume Incentive Program), 48 (related to the Select Customer Options Reduction Program, 29 (related to the Order Router Subsidy Program), and 30 (related to the Complex Order Router Subsidy Program).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirements that the rules of an exchange be designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest. Additionally, the Exchange believes the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39130"/>
                    proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirement that the rules of an exchange not be designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers. The Exchange also believes the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b)(4) of the Act,
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which requires that Exchange rules provide for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees, and other charges among its Trading Permit Holders and other persons using its facilities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposal to apply certain SPX FLEX Micros transaction fee codes to transactions in DJX FLEX Micros is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. Similar to SPX, DJX is an index option traded on the Exchange, based on a broad-market index, and it attracts a similar mix of market participants and order types. Applying a unified fee structure across these products aligns the fee structure for similar products and simplifies the Fees Schedule. Moreover, consolidating the applicable fee codes as proposed reduces complexity within the Exchange's pricing systems and streamlines administration of the Fees Schedule, benefiting the Exchange's operational efficiency without imposing any additional undue burden on market participants.</P>
                <P>The proposal will result in slightly different fees for DJX FLEX Micro orders. For example, the current applicable DJX codes assess fees ranging from $0.003 to $0.007 per contract, while the proposed applicable DJX codes assess fees ranging from $0.006 to $0.009 per contract. However, aligning DJX with SPX fees for FLEX Micro orders creates a fee structure in which the fees assessed for DJX transactions are consistent with the rates applicable to a comparable, similarly situated product, and better reflect the value of the Exchange's services and the costs associated with facilitating such transactions. The current DJX FLEX Micro fee codes were established based on trading activity assumptions that have evolved over time, and no longer reflect the appropriate cost of supporting these products. The Exchange notes that DJX FLEX Micro options represent a relatively low volume of trading activity on the Exchange, and as a result the Exchange does not anticipate that the modest fee adjustments resulting from this consolidation will have a meaningful impact on market participants trading these products.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed fees for orders in DJX FLEX Micro orders are equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the proposed fees will apply automatically and uniformly to all FLEX Micro orders in DJX, as applicable by capacity. All fee amounts applicable to Customers will be applied equally to all Customers, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     all Customer orders will be assessed the same amount. All fee amounts applicable to Market-Makers will be applied equally to all Market-Makers, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     all Market Maker orders will be assessed the same amount. Similarly, the Exchange notes that the fee amounts for each separate type of other market participant will be assessed equally to all such market participants, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     all Non-Customer and Non-Market-Maker orders will be assessed the same amount.
                </P>
                <P>The Exchange believes that it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to assess different fees across participant capacities. Different capacities reflect different roles in the marketplace, and the Exchange believes it is reasonable and appropriate to price Exchange services accordingly. For example, Market-Makers have quoting obligations that are not applicable to other market participants. As such, the fees applicable to Market-Makers reflect both the value of their liquidity-providing function and the distinct nature of their participation on the Exchange. Customers are generally retail or institutional investors whose order flow enhances market quality and liquidity, and the Exchange has historically assessed lower fees to Customers in recognition of the benefits their participation provides to the broader market. Clearing TPH and Non-Clearing TPH Affiliate orders are functionally similar in this respect, as they represent principal or affiliated entity flow that is economically aligned with end-investor activity, and the Exchange therefore assesses the same lower fee to these participants in recognition of their comparable contribution to market quality. Broker-Dealers, Joint Back-Office participants, Non-TPH Market-Makers, and Professionals participate in a commercial capacity and do not have the same liquidity obligations as registered Market-Makers, nor do they provide the same order flow benefits as Customers, and therefore, the Exchange believes it is reasonable to assess fees that reflect this intermediate role. The Exchange notes that these distinctions among capacities are well-established in the Exchange's Fees Schedule, as well as the fees schedules of other options exchanges, and are consistently applied across products. As noted above, each rate is applied uniformly to all participants operating in that capacity.</P>
                <P>Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposal to apply the same fee code to all RUT FLEX Micro orders is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. The Exchange believes applying the same fee code to all RUT FLEX Micro orders is reasonable because it simplifies the Fees Schedule and provides clarity to market participants regarding the applicable transaction fees for such orders. The Exchange believes the proposal is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the same fee code will apply uniformly to all market participants that submit RUT FLEX Micro orders.</P>
                <P>Moreover, the proposed changes result in either the same assessed fee or an assessed fee that is slightly lower than current fees, as applicable. Specifically, manual and AIM Broker-Dealer, Joint Back-Office, Non-TPH Market-Maker, and Professional orders in RUT FLEX Micros that are currently appended fee code GB will continue to be assessed a fee of $0.009 per contract under the proposed fee code GA, and electronic Broker-Dealer, Joint Back-Office, Non-TPH Market-Maker, and Professional orders in RUT FLEX Micros that are currently appended fee code GC will have a reduction from $0.012 per contract to $0.009 per contract under the proposed fee code GA.</P>
                <P>Finally, the Exchange believes it is reasonable to delete fee codes related to MSCI Index Products, as well as remove reference to MSCI Index Products in fees and programs in the Fees Schedule, as such products are no longer available for trading on the Exchange. Removal of references to MSCI Index Products from the Fees Schedule provides clarity within the Fees Schedule and helps to avoid investor confusion.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule changes related to standard transaction fees for DJX and RUT FLEX Micro orders will impose any burden on intramarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because the fee amounts for each separate type of market participants will be assessed equally to all such market participants. While different fees are 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39131"/>
                    assessed to different market participants in some circumstances, the obligations and circumstances between these market participants differ, as discussed above. For example, Market-Makers have quoting obligations that are not applicable to other market participants.
                </P>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule changes will impose any burden on intermarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because the proposed fee structure for DJX and RUT FLEX Micro orders apply to Exchange proprietary products, which are traded exclusively on the Exchange. Further, as noted above, the proposal to remove MSCI Index Products is a clarifying change, intended to promote accuracy within the Fees Schedule and reflect the Exchange's current product offering, to help avoid investor confusion.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and paragraph (f) of Rule 19b-4 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     thereunder. At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission will institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-CBOE-2026-055 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-CBOE-2026-055. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-CBOE-2026-055 and should be submitted on or before July 20, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13015 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105767; File No. SR-Phlx-2026-40]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule General 8 Connectivity To Establish Fees for Its TNO Cross-Connect Service</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>June 24, 2026.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    , and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on June 11, 2026, Nasdaq PHLX LLC (“Phlx” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III, below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8 (Connectivity) to establish fees for its TNO Cross-Connect service, as described further below.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://listingcenter.nasdaq.com/rulebook/phlx/rulefilings,</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8 (Connectivity) to establish fees for its TNO Cross-Connect service.</P>
                <P>TNO Cross-Connect is a telecommunications network operator (“TNO” or “telco”) connectivity service that consists of the cabling running from a TNO's carrier cabinet to a Nasdaq-managed distribution point within the Exchange's data center campus. The TNO Cross-Connect service constitutes a defined and Nasdaq-managed component of the telco to customer connectivity path and serves as a standardized point of access for TNO connectivity inside the Exchange's data center.</P>
                <P>
                    In its proposal introducing TNO Cross-Connect as a connectivity offering,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Exchange noted that it would submit a separate rule filing to establish fees for the TNO Cross-Connect service. This proposed rule change establishes fees for the service.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 105017 (Mar. 16, 2026), 91 FR 13349 (Mar. 19, 2026) (SR-Phlx-2026-13) (“TNO Cross-Connect Proposal”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="39132"/>
                <P>
                    Specifically, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8, Section 1(b) to establish an installation fee and an ongoing monthly fee for its TNO Cross-Connect service.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed installation fee is $550 and the proposed ongoing monthly fee is $385.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         For purposes of this proposal, each telco provider-to-customer cross-connection would constitute a TNO Cross-Connect subject to the fees herein proposed. For example, if a telco provider provides three separate cross-connects for a single customer, each such telco-to-customer cross connect would constitute a TNO Cross Connect subject to the installation and ongoing monthly fees proposed herein.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         To effectuate this change, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8, Section 1(b) to delete the acronym “TBD” in all instances where it appears in connection with the installation and ongoing monthly fee for the TNO Cross-Connect service and substitute therefor the corresponding installation fee of $550 and ongoing monthly fee of $385, as proposed. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Rule General 8, Section 1(b). Upon implementation of the proposed rule change on or about the third quarter of 2026, the Exchange will charge the proposed installation fee only to telco providers who submit new orders for installation of TNO Cross-Connect. Such telco providers will also be subject to the proposed recurring monthly fee. The Exchange will not, however, charge the installation fee to telco providers for whom the TNO Cross-Connect has already been installed as of that implementation date. Such telco providers will, however, be assessed the ongoing monthly fee starting on the date the proposed offering is implemented by the Exchange. The Exchange does not currently charge telco providers any fee—whether an installation fee, monthly fee, or otherwise—for the proposed connectivity service and will continue not to do so until the proposed service is implemented.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that establishing fees for TNO Cross-Connect is appropriate and reasonable because the service entails Exchange-provided and Exchange-managed infrastructure, cabling, inventory management, ongoing maintenance, and operational oversight. The fees also reflect the resources required for the Exchange to implement, administer, monitor, and support the service on a non-discriminatory basis for all TNOs.</P>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to implement the proposed changes during the third quarter of 2026 on or about July 1, 2026. The Exchange will announce the specific implementation date via Nasdaq's customer portal.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Sections 6(b)(4) and 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, in that it provides for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees and other charges among members and issuers and other persons using any facility, and is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4) and (5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed fees for TNO Cross-Connect are reasonable because they reflect the Exchange's provision, operation, maintenance, and oversight of a defined, Exchange-managed telecommunications connectivity component that is required for TNOs seeking to provide services to Nasdaq data center customers. As described in the TNO Cross-Connect Proposal, the Exchange administers and manages the cabling, demarcation points, inventory, and ongoing operational support associated with this connectivity path.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange further believes that the proposed fees are reasonable because they are comparable to, and lower than, fees charged by another national securities exchange for a similar telecommunications carrier connectivity service. Specifically, NYSE offers a Carrier Connection Fee service 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     for a recurring monthly charge of $1,150.00 per connection, while the Exchange proposes an ongoing monthly fee of $385.00 for TNO Cross-Connect. The Exchange's proposed monthly fee is therefore $765.00 lower than NYSE's comparable monthly fee, or approximately 66.5% lower. In addition, even including the Exchange's proposed one-time installation fee of $550, the total first-month cost of the Exchange's service would be $935, which remains below NYSE's $1,150 recurring monthly charge.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         The New York Stock Exchange LLC, Connectivity Fee Schedule (Mar. 27, 2026), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nyse.com/publicdocs/nyse/Wireless_Connectivity_Fees_and_Charges.pdf</E>
                         (setting forth a recurring monthly charge of $1,150.00 per connection for the Carrier Connection Fee service). To the best of the Exchange's knowledge, the NYSE offering is comparable to the proposed TNO Cross-Connect. Specifically, the Exchange believes that the NYSE recurring charge of $1,150 per connection for its Carrier Connection Fee is a service priced on a per telco-provider-to-customer connection basis, such that if a telco provider has multiple connections to a customer, each such connection would be assessed the recurring $1,150 per connection ongoing monthly fee. The Exchange is aware of no bundling or other incentive-based pricing for such NYSE service.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed fees represent an equitable allocation and are not unfairly discriminatory because they apply uniformly to all telecommunications network operators that provide services to Nasdaq colocation customers. All TNOs seeking to connect to customers within the Exchange's data center campus are subject to the same service requirements and the same fees for TNO Cross-Connect. As the Exchange discussed in the TNO Cross-Connect Proposal,
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     all TNOs seeking to offer their services to Exchange customers must use the connectivity offered by TNO Cross-Connect. The Exchange does not differentiate among TNOs based on size, affiliation, volume, or any other characteristic. The proposed fees therefore allocate charges fairly among similarly situated persons using the Exchange's facilities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         TNO Cross-Connect Proposal, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes that the proposed fees will not impose an undue burden on intramarket competition because they apply uniformly to all telecommunications network operators seeking to provide services to Nasdaq data center customers. As described above, all TNOs that wish to serve Nasdaq customers must connect through TNO Cross-Connect, and the Exchange will charge the same installation and monthly fees to all such TNOs. The Exchange will not differentiate among TNOs based on size, affiliation, business model, or any other characteristic. Accordingly, the proposed fees do not favor or disadvantage any particular TNO relative to another, but instead apply equally to all similarly situated users of the Exchange's facilities.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange also believes that the proposed fees will not impose an undue burden on intermarket competition. The proposed fees are for a telecommunications connectivity service offered within the Exchange's data center campus and reflect the Exchange's provision, management, and support of that service. In addition, the proposed fees are comparable to, and in important respects lower than, the fees charged by another national securities exchange for a similar telecommunications carrier connectivity service. Specifically, NYSE offers a Carrier Connection Fee service for a recurring monthly charge of $1,150.00 per connection, while the Exchange proposes an ongoing monthly fee of $385.00 for TNO Cross-Connect. The Exchange's proposed monthly fee is therefore $765.00 lower than NYSE's comparable monthly fee, or approximately 66.5% lower. Even including the Exchange's proposed one-time installation fee of $550, the total first-month cost of the Exchange's service would be $935, which remains below NYSE's $1,150 recurring monthly 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39133"/>
                    charge. The Exchange therefore does not believe that the proposed fees will impose any inappropriate burden on competition among exchanges.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were either solicited or received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-Phlx-2026-40 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-Phlx-2026-40. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-Phlx-2026-40 and should be submitted on or before July 20, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13018 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105766; File No. SR-NasdaqTX-2026-031]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq Texas, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule General 8 Connectivity To Establish Fees for its TNO Cross-Connect Service</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>June 24, 2026.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on June 11, 2026, Nasdaq Texas, LLC (“Nasdaq Texas” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III, below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8 (Connectivity) to establish fees for its TNO Cross-Connect service, as described further below.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://listingcenter.nasdaq.com/rulebook/nasdaqtx/rulefilings,</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8 (Connectivity) to establish fees for its TNO Cross-Connect service.</P>
                <P>TNO Cross-Connect is a telecommunications network operator (“TNO” or “telco”) connectivity service that consists of the cabling running from a TNO's carrier cabinet to a Nasdaq-managed distribution point within the Exchange's data center campus. The TNO Cross-Connect service constitutes a defined and Nasdaq-managed component of the telco to customer connectivity path and serves as a standardized point of access for TNO connectivity inside the Exchange's data center.</P>
                <P>
                    In its proposal introducing TNO Cross-Connect as a connectivity offering,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Exchange noted that it would submit a separate rule filing to establish fees for the TNO Cross-Connect service. This proposed rule change establishes fees for the service.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 105033 (Mar. 17, 2026), 91 FR 13689 (Mar. 20, 2026) (SR-NasdaqTX-2026-005) (“TNO Cross-Connect Proposal”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Specifically, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8, Section 1(b) to establish an installation fee and an ongoing monthly fee for its TNO Cross-Connect service.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed installation fee is $550 and the proposed ongoing monthly fee is $385.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         For purposes of this proposal, each telco provider-to-customer cross-connection would constitute a TNO Cross-Connect subject to the fees herein proposed. For example, if a telco provider provides three separate cross-connects for a single customer, each such telco-to-customer cross connect would constitute a TNO Cross Connect subject to the installation and ongoing monthly fees proposed herein.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         To effectuate this change, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8, Section 1(b) to 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        delete the acronym “TBD” in all instances where it appears in connection with the installation and ongoing monthly fee for the TNO Cross-Connect service and substitute therefor the corresponding installation fee of $550 and ongoing monthly fee of $385, as proposed. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Rule General 8, Section 1(b). Upon implementation of the proposed rule change on or about the third quarter of 2026, the Exchange will charge the proposed installation fee only to telco providers who submit new orders for installation of TNO Cross-Connect. Such telco providers will also be subject to the proposed recurring monthly fee. The Exchange will not, however, charge the installation fee to telco providers for whom the TNO Cross-Connect has already been installed as of that implementation date. Such telco providers will, however, be assessed the ongoing monthly fee starting on the date the proposed offering is implemented by the Exchange. The Exchange does not currently charge telco providers any fee—whether an installation fee, monthly fee, or otherwise—for the proposed connectivity service and will continue not to do so until the proposed service is implemented.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="39134"/>
                <P>The Exchange believes that establishing fees for TNO Cross-Connect is appropriate and reasonable because the service entails Exchange-provided and Exchange-managed infrastructure, cabling, inventory management, ongoing maintenance, and operational oversight. The fees also reflect the resources required for the Exchange to implement, administer, monitor, and support the service on a non-discriminatory basis for all TNOs.</P>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to implement the proposed changes during the third quarter of 2026 on or about July 1, 2026. The Exchange will announce the specific implementation date via Nasdaq's customer portal.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Sections 6(b)(4) and 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, in that it provides for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees and other charges among members and issuers and other persons using any facility, and is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4) and (5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed fees for TNO Cross-Connect are reasonable because they reflect the Exchange's provision, operation, maintenance, and oversight of a defined, Exchange-managed telecommunications connectivity component that is required for TNOs seeking to provide services to Nasdaq data center customers. As described in the TNO Cross-Connect Proposal, the Exchange administers and manages the cabling, demarcation points, inventory, and ongoing operational support associated with this connectivity path.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange further believes that the proposed fees are reasonable because they are comparable to, and lower than, fees charged by another national securities exchange for a similar telecommunications carrier connectivity service. Specifically, NYSE offers a Carrier Connection Fee service 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     for a recurring monthly charge of $1,150.00 per connection, while the Exchange proposes an ongoing monthly fee of $385.00 for TNO Cross-Connect. The Exchange's proposed monthly fee is therefore $765.00 lower than NYSE's comparable monthly fee, or approximately 66.5% lower. In addition, even including the Exchange's proposed one-time installation fee of $550, the total first-month cost of the Exchange's service would be $935, which remains below NYSE's $1,150 recurring monthly charge.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         The New York Stock Exchange LLC, Connectivity Fee Schedule (Mar. 27, 2026), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nyse.com/publicdocs/nyse/Wireless_Connectivity_Fees_and_Charges.pdf</E>
                         (setting forth a recurring monthly charge of $1,150.00 per connection for the Carrier Connection Fee service). To the best of the Exchange's knowledge, the NYSE offering is comparable to the proposed TNO Cross-Connect. Specifically, the Exchange believes that the NYSE recurring charge of $1,150 per connection for its Carrier Connection Fee is a service priced on a per telco-provider-to-customer connection basis, such that if a telco provider has multiple connections to a customer, each such connection would be assessed the recurring $1,150 per connection ongoing monthly fee. The Exchange is aware of no bundling or other incentive-based pricing for such NYSE service.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed fees represent an equitable allocation and are not unfairly discriminatory because they apply uniformly to all telecommunications network operators that provide services to Nasdaq colocation customers. All TNOs seeking to connect to customers within the Exchange's data center campus are subject to the same service requirements and the same fees for TNO Cross-Connect. As the Exchange discussed in the TNO Cross-Connect Proposal,
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     all TNOs seeking to offer their services to Exchange customers must use the connectivity offered by TNO Cross-Connect. The Exchange does not differentiate among TNOs based on size, affiliation, volume, or any other characteristic. The proposed fees therefore allocate charges fairly among similarly situated persons using the Exchange's facilities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         TNO Cross-Connect Proposal, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes that the proposed fees will not impose an undue burden on intramarket competition because they apply uniformly to all telecommunications network operators seeking to provide services to Nasdaq data center customers. As described above, all TNOs that wish to serve Nasdaq customers must connect through TNO Cross-Connect, and the Exchange will charge the same installation and monthly fees to all such TNOs. The Exchange will not differentiate among TNOs based on size, affiliation, business model, or any other characteristic. Accordingly, the proposed fees do not favor or disadvantage any particular TNO relative to another, but instead apply equally to all similarly situated users of the Exchange's facilities.</P>
                <P>The Exchange also believes that the proposed fees will not impose an undue burden on intermarket competition. The proposed fees are for a telecommunications connectivity service offered within the Exchange's data center campus and reflect the Exchange's provision, management, and support of that service. In addition, the proposed fees are comparable to, and in important respects lower than, the fees charged by another national securities exchange for a similar telecommunications carrier connectivity service. Specifically, NYSE offers a Carrier Connection Fee service for a recurring monthly charge of $1,150.00 per connection, while the Exchange proposes an ongoing monthly fee of $385.00 for TNO Cross-Connect. The Exchange's proposed monthly fee is therefore $765.00 lower than NYSE's comparable monthly fee, or approximately 66.5% lower. Even including the Exchange's proposed one-time installation fee of $550, the total first-month cost of the Exchange's service would be $935, which remains below NYSE's $1,150 recurring monthly charge. The Exchange therefore does not believe that the proposed fees will impose any inappropriate burden on competition among exchanges.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>
                    No written comments were either solicited or received.
                    <PRTPAGE P="39135"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number
                </P>
                <P>SR-NasdaqTX-2026-031 on the subject line.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NasdaqTX-2026-031. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NasdaqTX-2026-031 and should be submitted on or before July 20, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13017 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105768; File No. SR-GEMX-2026-26]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq GEMX, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule General 8 Connectivity To Establish Fees for Its TNO Cross-Connect Service</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>June 24, 2026.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on June 11, 2026, Nasdaq GEMX, LLC (“GEMX” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III, below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8 (Connectivity) to establish fees for its TNO Cross-Connect service, as described further below.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://listingcenter.nasdaq.com/rulebook/gemx/rulefilings,</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8 (Connectivity) to establish fees for its TNO Cross-Connect service.</P>
                <P>TNO Cross-Connect is a telecommunications network operator (“TNO” or “telco”) connectivity service that consists of the cabling running from a TNO's carrier cabinet to a Nasdaq-managed distribution point within the Exchange's data center campus. The TNO Cross-Connect service constitutes a defined and Nasdaq-managed component of the telco to customer connectivity path and serves as a standardized point of access for TNO connectivity inside the Exchange's data center.</P>
                <P>
                    In its proposal introducing TNO Cross-Connect as a connectivity offering,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Exchange noted that it would submit a separate rule filing to establish fees for the TNO Cross-Connect service. This proposed rule change establishes fees for the service.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 105012 (Mar. 16, 2026), 91 FR 13351 (Mar. 19, 2026) (SR-GEMX-2026-08) (“TNO Cross-Connect Proposal”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Specifically, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8, Section 1(b) to establish an installation fee and an ongoing monthly fee for its TNO Cross-Connect service.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed installation fee is $550 and the proposed ongoing monthly fee is $385.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         For purposes of this proposal, each telco provider-to-customer cross-connection would constitute a TNO Cross-Connect subject to the fees herein proposed. For example, if a telco provider provides three separate cross-connects for a single customer, each such telco-to-customer cross connect would constitute a TNO Cross Connect subject to the installation and ongoing monthly fees proposed herein.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         To effectuate this change, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8, Section 1(b) to delete the acronym “TBD” in all instances where it appears in connection with the installation and ongoing monthly fee for the TNO Cross-Connect service and substitute therefor the corresponding installation fee of $550 and ongoing monthly fee of $385, as proposed. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Rule General 8, Section 1(b). Upon implementation of the proposed rule change on or about the third quarter of 2026, the Exchange will charge the proposed installation fee only to telco providers who submit new orders for installation of TNO Cross-Connect. Such telco providers will also be subject to the proposed recurring monthly fee. The Exchange will not, however, charge the installation fee to telco providers for whom the TNO Cross-Connect has already been installed as of that implementation date. Such telco providers will, however, be assessed the ongoing monthly fee starting on the date the proposed offering is implemented by the 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        Exchange. The Exchange does not currently charge telco providers any fee—whether an installation fee, monthly fee, or otherwise—for the proposed connectivity service and will continue not to do so until the proposed service is implemented.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="39136"/>
                <P>The Exchange believes that establishing fees for TNO Cross-Connect is appropriate and reasonable because the service entails Exchange-provided and Exchange-managed infrastructure, cabling, inventory management, ongoing maintenance, and operational oversight. The fees also reflect the resources required for the Exchange to implement, administer, monitor, and support the service on a non-discriminatory basis for all TNOs.</P>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to implement the proposed changes during the third quarter of 2026 on or about July 1, 2026. The Exchange will announce the specific implementation date via Nasdaq's customer portal.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Sections 6(b)(4) and 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, in that it provides for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees and other charges among members and issuers and other persons using any facility, and is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4) and (5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed fees for TNO Cross-Connect are reasonable because they reflect the Exchange's provision, operation, maintenance, and oversight of a defined, Exchange-managed telecommunications connectivity component that is required for TNOs seeking to provide services to Nasdaq data center customers. As described in the TNO Cross-Connect Proposal, the Exchange administers and manages the cabling, demarcation points, inventory, and ongoing operational support associated with this connectivity path.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange further believes that the proposed fees are reasonable because they are comparable to, and lower than, fees charged by another national securities exchange for a similar telecommunications carrier connectivity service. Specifically, NYSE offers a Carrier Connection Fee service 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     for a recurring monthly charge of $1,150.00 per connection, while the Exchange proposes an ongoing monthly fee of $385.00 for TNO Cross-Connect. The Exchange's proposed monthly fee is therefore $765.00 lower than NYSE's comparable monthly fee, or approximately 66.5% lower. In addition, even including the Exchange's proposed one-time installation fee of $550, the total first-month cost of the Exchange's service would be $935, which remains below NYSE's $1,150 recurring monthly charge.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         The New York Stock Exchange LLC, Connectivity Fee Schedule (Mar. 27, 2026), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nyse.com/publicdocs/nyse/Wireless_Connectivity_Fees_and_Charges.pdf</E>
                         (setting forth a recurring monthly charge of $1,150.00 per connection for the Carrier Connection Fee service). To the best of the Exchange's knowledge, the NYSE offering is comparable to the proposed TNO Cross-Connect. Specifically, the Exchange believes that the NYSE recurring charge of $1,150 per connection for its Carrier Connection Fee is a service priced on a per telco-provider-to-customer connection basis, such that if a telco provider has multiple connections to a customer, each such connection would be assessed the recurring $1,150 per connection ongoing monthly fee. The Exchange is aware of no bundling or other incentive-based pricing for such NYSE service.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed fees represent an equitable allocation and are not unfairly discriminatory because they apply uniformly to all telecommunications network operators that provide services to Nasdaq colocation customers. All TNOs seeking to connect to customers within the Exchange's data center campus are subject to the same service requirements and the same fees for TNO Cross-Connect. As the Exchange discussed in the TNO Cross-Connect Proposal,
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     all TNOs seeking to offer their services to Exchange customers must use the connectivity offered by TNO Cross-Connect. The Exchange does not differentiate among TNOs based on size, affiliation, volume, or any other characteristic. The proposed fees therefore allocate charges fairly among similarly situated persons using the Exchange's facilities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         TNO Cross-Connect Proposal, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes that the proposed fees will not impose an undue burden on intramarket competition because they apply uniformly to all telecommunications network operators seeking to provide services to Nasdaq data center customers. As described above, all TNOs that wish to serve Nasdaq customers must connect through TNO Cross-Connect, and the Exchange will charge the same installation and monthly fees to all such TNOs. The Exchange will not differentiate among TNOs based on size, affiliation, business model, or any other characteristic. Accordingly, the proposed fees do not favor or disadvantage any particular TNO relative to another, but instead apply equally to all similarly situated users of the Exchange's facilities.</P>
                <P>The Exchange also believes that the proposed fees will not impose an undue burden on intermarket competition. The proposed fees are for a telecommunications connectivity service offered within the Exchange's data center campus and reflect the Exchange's provision, management, and support of that service. In addition, the proposed fees are comparable to, and in important respects lower than, the fees charged by another national securities exchange for a similar telecommunications carrier connectivity service. Specifically, NYSE offers a Carrier Connection Fee service for a recurring monthly charge of $1,150.00 per connection, while the Exchange proposes an ongoing monthly fee of $385.00 for TNO Cross-Connect. The Exchange's proposed monthly fee is therefore $765.00 lower than NYSE's comparable monthly fee, or approximately 66.5% lower. Even including the Exchange's proposed one-time installation fee of $550, the total first-month cost of the Exchange's service would be $935, which remains below NYSE's $1,150 recurring monthly charge. The Exchange therefore does not believe that the proposed fees will impose any inappropriate burden on competition among exchanges.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were either solicited or received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
                    <PRTPAGE P="39137"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-GEMX-2026-26 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-GEMX-2026-26. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-GEMX-2026-26 and should be submitted on or before July 20, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13019 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105755; File No. SR-ISE-2026-37]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq ISE, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend The Exchange's Rules at Options 7, Section 4 (Complex Order Fees and Rebates)</SUBJECT>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>June 24, 2026.</P>
                    <P>
                        Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         notice is hereby given that on June 9, 2026, Nasdaq ISE, LLC (“ISE” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“SEC” or “Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III, below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                </DATES>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend the Exchange's Rules at Options 7, Section 4 (Complex Order Fees and Rebates). Specifically, the Exchange proposes to offer additional rebates, in addition to the existing Priority Customer complex order rebates, to Members who transact an average daily volume of more than 10,000 contracts of FLEX Orders in a given month.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The Exchange initially filed this proposal on June 1, 2026 (SR-ISE-2026-33). On June 9, 2026, the Exchange withdrew SR-ISE-2026-33 and submitted this filing.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://listingcenter.nasdaq.com/rulebook/ise/rulefilings,</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The purpose of the proposed rule change is to amend the complex order 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     rebates in the Exchange's Pricing Schedule (Options 7). Specifically, the Exchange proposes to amend its Pricing Schedule at Section 4 (Complex Order Fees and Rebates).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         A “Complex Order” is any order involving the simultaneous purchase and/or sale of two or more different options series in the same underlying security, as provided in Options 3, Section 14, as well as Stock-Option Orders, as that term is defined in Options 3, Section 14(a)(2). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 7, Section 1(c).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Currently, the Exchange offers tiered complex order rebates for Select Symbols 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Non-Select Symbols 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     based on the Priority Customer 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Complex Tier achieved.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The schedule of tiered complex order Priority Customer rebates for Select Symbols 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39138"/>
                    and Non-Select Symbols is currently as follows:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         “Select Symbols” are options overlying all symbols listed on the Nasdaq ISE that are in the Penny Interval Program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 7, Section 1(c)
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         “Non-Select Symbols” are options overlying all symbols excluding Select Symbols. No Priority Customer complex order rebates will be paid for orders in NDX, XND or MNX. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 7, Section 4, note 4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         The term “Priority Customer” is a person or entity that is not a broker/dealer in securities, and does not place more than 390 orders in listed options per day on average during a calendar month for its own beneficial account(s), as defined in Options 1, Section 1(a)(38). Unless otherwise noted, when used in the Pricing Schedule, the term “Priority Customer” includes “Retail”. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 7, Section 1(c). A “Retail” order is a Priority Customer order that originates from a natural person, provided that no change is made to the terms of the order with respect to price or side of market and the order does not originate from a trading algorithm or any other computerized methodology. 
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         Priority Customer Complex Tiers are based on Total Affiliated Member or Affiliated Entity Complex Order Volume (Excluding Crossing Orders and Responses to Crossing Orders) Calculated as a Percentage of Customer Total Consolidated Volume. “Customer Total Consolidated Volume” means the total national volume cleared at The Options Clearing Corporation in the Customer range in equity and ETF options in that month. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 7, Section 1(c). All Complex Order volume executed on the Exchange, including volume executed by Affiliated Members, is included in the volume calculation, except for volume executed as Crossing Orders and Responses to Crossing Orders. Affiliated Entities may aggregate their Complex Order volume for purposes of calculating Priority Customer Rebates. An “Appointed OFP” would receive the rebate associated with the qualifying volume tier based on aggregated volume. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 7, Section 4, note 16. As set forth in Options 7, Section 1(c), an Appointed OFP is an Order Flow Provider who has been appointed by a Market Maker for purposes of qualifying as an Affiliated Entity, and an Order Flow Provider is any Member, other than a Market Maker, that submits orders, as agent or principal, to the Exchange.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s25,r50,12,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Priority customer complex tier</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total affiliated member or affiliated entity complex order volume (excluding crossing orders and responses to crossing orders) calculated as a percentage of customer total consolidated volume</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Rebate for
                            <LI>select symbols</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Rebate for non-select symbols</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Tier 1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.000%-0.200%</ENT>
                        <ENT>($0.25)</ENT>
                        <ENT>($0.50)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Tier 2</ENT>
                        <ENT>Above 0.200%-0.400%</ENT>
                        <ENT>(0.30)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(0.60)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Tier 3</ENT>
                        <ENT>Above 0.400%-0.550%</ENT>
                        <ENT>(0.40)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(0.80)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Tier 4</ENT>
                        <ENT>Above 0.550%-0.750%</ENT>
                        <ENT>(0.45)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(0.85)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Tier 5</ENT>
                        <ENT>Above 0.750%-0.900%</ENT>
                        <ENT>(0.49)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(0.90)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Tier 6</ENT>
                        <ENT>Above 0.900%-1.350%</ENT>
                        <ENT>(0.53)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(0.99)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Tier 7</ENT>
                        <ENT>Above 1.350%-1.750%</ENT>
                        <ENT>(0.54)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(1.00)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Tier 8</ENT>
                        <ENT>Above 1.750%-2.250%</ENT>
                        <ENT>(0.56)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(1.11)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Tier 9</ENT>
                        <ENT>Above 2.250%-4.500%</ENT>
                        <ENT>(0.58)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(1.13)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Tier 10</ENT>
                        <ENT>Above 4.500%</ENT>
                        <ENT>(0.59)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(1.16)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    The above rebates are provided per contract, per leg, if the order trades with Non-Priority Customer 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     orders in the complex order book. This rebate will be reduced by $0.20 per contract in Select Symbols where the largest leg of the Complex Order is under fifty (50) contracts and trades with quotes and orders on the regular order book. No Priority Customer Complex Order rebates will be provided in Select Symbols if any leg of the order that trades with interest on the regular order book is fifty (50) contracts or more. No Priority Customer Complex Order rebates will be provided in Non-Select Symbols if any leg of the order trades with interest on the regular order book, irrespective of order size.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         “Non-Priority Customers” include Market Makers, Non-Nasdaq ISE Market Makers, Firm Proprietary/Broker-Dealers, and Professional Customers. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 7, Section 1(c).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange now proposes to pay additional tiered rebates, in addition to the existing Priority Customer Complex Tier rebates, for Select Symbols (designated as paragraph “**”) and for Non-Select Symbols (designated as paragraph “##”), provided the Member has also transacted an average daily volume of greater than 10,000 contracts of FLEX Orders 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in a given month. As is currently the case with the existing Priority Customer rebates, these additional rebates will be provided per contract, per leg, if the order trades with Non-Priority Customer orders in the complex order book. For purposes of calculating this threshold, eligible volume from Affiliated Members and Affiliated Entities will be aggregated.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         A “FLEX Order” is an order submitted in a FLEX Option pursuant to Options 3A. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 3, Section 7(z). 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         Options 3A, Section 1(b)(2). A “FLEX Option” is a flexible exchange option. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 3A, Section 1(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The additional tiered rebate, in addition to the Priority Customer Complex Tier rebates, for Select Symbols will be as follows:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tier 1—($0.00)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tier 2—($0.02)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tier 3—($0.03)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tier 4—($0.04)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tier 5—($0.06)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tier 6—($0.02)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tier 7—($0.01)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tier 8—($0.00)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tier 9—($0.00)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tier 10—($0.00)</FP>
                <P>The additional tiered rebate, in addition to the Priority Customer Complex Tier rebates, for Non-Select Symbols will be as follows:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tier 1—($0.00)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tier 2—($0.05)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tier 3—($0.10)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tier 4—($0.15)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tier 5—($0.20)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tier 6—($0.12)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tier 7—($0.12)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tier 8—($0.03)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tier 9—($0.01)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Tier 10—($0.00)</FP>
                <P>The Exchange believes that these changes to its Pricing Schedule will help drive additional order flow to the Exchange, which will benefit all market participants by providing them the opportunity to interact with such increased order flow.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Sections 6(b)(4) and 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, in that it provides for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees and other charges among members and issuers and other persons using any facility, and is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4) and (5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission and the courts have repeatedly expressed their preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. In Regulation NMS, while adopting a series of steps to improve the current market model, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and SRO revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.” 
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 51808 (June 9, 2005), 70 FR 37496, 37499 (June 29, 2005).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Likewise, in 
                    <E T="03">NetCoalition</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Securities and Exchange Commission</E>
                     
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (“NetCoalition”) the D.C. Circuit upheld the Commission's use of a market-based approach in evaluating the fairness of market data fees against a challenge claiming that Congress mandated a cost-based approach.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As the court emphasized, the Commission “intended in Regulation NMS that `market forces, rather than regulatory requirements' play a role in determining the market data . . . to be made available to investors and at what cost.” 
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">NetCoalition</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">SEC,</E>
                         615 F.3d 525 (D.C. Cir. 2010).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See NetCoalition,</E>
                         at 534-535.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at 537.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Further, “[n]o one disputes that competition for order flow is `fierce.' . . . As the SEC explained, `[i]n the U.S. national market system, buyers and sellers of securities, and the broker-dealers that act as their order-routing agents, have a wide range of choices of where to route orders for execution'; [and] `no exchange can afford to take its market share percentages for granted' because `no exchange possesses a monopoly, regulatory or otherwise, in the execution of order flow from broker dealers'. . . .” 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Although the court 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39139"/>
                    and the SEC were discussing the cash equities markets, the Exchange believes that these views apply with equal force to the options markets.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at 539 (quoting Securities Exchange Act Release No. 59039 (Dec. 2, 2008), 73 FR 74770, 74782-83 (Dec. 9, 2008) (File No. SR-NYSEArca-2006-21)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The proposed additional Priority Customer complex rebates are equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange would uniformly apply the new rebates to any member or member organization that meets the criteria for these rebates. The proposed additional Priority Customer complex rebates are also reasonable, as well as equitable and not unfairly discriminatory, because they are intended to attract more Priority Customer order flow, as well as more FLEX Options order flow, to the Exchange. Priority Customer order flow, and FLEX Options order flow, enhance liquidity on the Exchange to the benefit of all market participants by providing more trading opportunities, which in turn attracts other market participants who may interact with this order flow.</P>
                <P>
                    While the amount of the additional Priority Customer complex rebates tapers off to $0.00 for the highest tiers (Tiers 8, 9, and 10 for Select Symbols and Tier 10 for Non-Select Symbols), the amount of the existing Priority Customer complex rebates plus these new additional rebates will result in a combined rebate tier schedule that either stays flat or gradually increases with every single step up to a higher tier.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Therefore, these additional rebates are not unfairly discriminatory, as the total amount of the Priority Customer complex rebates will not decrease as Members qualify for higher tiers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         For Select Symbols, the combined rebates for Tiers 1-10 would be $0.25, $0.32, $0.43, $0.49, $0.55, $0.55, $0.55, $0.56, $0.58, and $0.59, respectively. For Non-Select Symbols, the combined rebates for Tiers 1-10 would be $0.50, $0.65, $0.90, $1.00, $1.10, $1.11, $1.12, $1.14, $1.14, and $1.16, respectively.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Additionally, conditioning these additional Priority Customer Complex rebates on the Member's volume of FLEX Orders transacted will attract complementary order flow across product sets, enhancing liquidity and price discovery in both sets of products. By offering additional Priority Customer complex order rebates to Members who are also active in FLEX Options, the Exchange seeks to create a virtuous cycle: increased FLEX Options volume deepens liquidity in that product, while the additional rebates attract more Priority Customer complex order volume, which in turn enhances overall Exchange liquidity.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Inter-Market Competition</HD>
                <P>The proposal does not impose an undue burden on inter-market competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes its proposal remains competitive with other options markets and will offer market participants with another choice of where to transact options. The Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive, or rebate opportunities available at other venues to be more favorable. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually adjust its fees to remain competitive with other exchanges. Because competitors are free to modify their own fees in response, and because market participants may readily adjust their order routing practices, the Exchange believes that the degree to which fee changes in this market may impose any burden on competition is extremely limited.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Intra-Market Competition</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange's proposed amendments to the schedule of Priority Customer complex rebates will not impose an undue burden on intra-market competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act, because the Exchange will uniformly apply the new additional rebates to all Priority Customers who qualify for the threshold average daily volume of greater than 10,000 contracts of FLEX Orders in a given month.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed additional rebates will also not impose an undue burden on intra-market competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act, because it is intended to attract more Priority Customer order flow, and more FLEX Options order flow, to the Exchange. Priority Customer order flow, and FLEX Options order flow, enhance liquidity on the Exchange to the benefit of all market participants by providing more trading opportunities, which in turn attracts other market participants who may interact with this order flow. Additionally, conditioning these additional Priority Customer Complex rebates on the Member's volume of FLEX Orders transacted will attract complementary order flow across product sets, enhancing liquidity and price discovery in both sets of products.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         As stated above, eligible volume from Affiliated Members and Affiliated Entities will be aggregated in calculating the threshold.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Furthermore, the additional rebates will not impose an undue burden on intra-market competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act, because while the amount of the additional Priority Customer complex rebates tapers off to $0.00 for the highest tiers (Tiers 8, 9, and 10 for Select Symbols and Tier 10 for Non-Select Symbols), the amount of the existing Priority Customer complex rebates plus these new additional rebates will result in a combined rebate tier schedule that either stays flat or gradually increases with every single step up to a higher tier. Therefore, under no circumstance would a Member receive a lower total rebate as the Member moves up to a higher tier.</P>
                <P>Finally, the Exchange does not believe that conditioning the additional Priority Customer complex order rebates on the Member's FLEX Order volume imposes any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Members who do not transact FLEX Orders are not disadvantaged in terms of the existing Priority Customer complex order rebates, which remain unchanged. The additional rebates are purely incremental and provide an incentive for Members to diversify their trading activity across product sets on the Exchange. This cross-product incentive structure is a pro-competitive feature that enhances overall market quality.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received from Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were either solicited or received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39140"/>
                    furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-ISE-2026-37 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-ISE-2026-37. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml.</E>
                     Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-ISE-2026-37 and should be submitted on or before July 20, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>21</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>21</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13007 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105761; File No. SR-NYSETEX-2026-24]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Texas, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Connectivity Fee Schedule</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>June 24, 2026.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on June 17, 2026, the NYSE Texas, Inc. (“NYSE Texas” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the self-regulatory organization. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1)
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend the Connectivity Fee Schedule (“Fee Schedule”) to delete the currently-filed “Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb” service as obsolete. The Exchange also proposes to clarify to which access centers the 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits connect. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.nyse.com</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedule to delete the currently-filed “Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb” service as obsolete. The Exchange also proposes to clarify to which access centers the 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits connect.</P>
                <P>
                    In 2023, the Exchange filed to amend the Fee Schedule to add several “FIDS Circuits” available to Users 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     at the Mahwah, New Jersey data center (“MDC”),
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     including “Optic Access” circuits in 1 Gb, 10 Gb, and 40 Gb sizes.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         For purposes of the Exchange's colocation services, a “User” means any market participant that requests to receive colocation services directly from the Exchange. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 87408 (October 28, 2019), 84 FR 58778 at n.6 (November 1, 2019) (SR-NYSECHX-2019-12). As specified in the Fee Schedule, a User that incurs colocation fees for a particular colocation service pursuant thereto would not be subject to colocation fees for the same colocation service charged by the New York Stock Exchange LLC, NYSE American LLC, NYSE Arca, Inc., and NYSE National, Inc. (together, the “Affiliate SROs”). Each Affiliate SRO has submitted substantially the same proposed rule change to propose the change described herein.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Through its Fixed Income and Data Services (“FIDS”) business, Intercontinental Exchange, Inc. (“ICE”) operates the MDC. The Exchange and the Affiliate SROs are indirect subsidiaries of ICE.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 99167 (December 14, 2023), 88 FR 88141 (December 20, 2023) (SR-NYSECHX-2023-24).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to eliminate the “Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb” service as obsolete. Currently, no Users have the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb, and the Exchange understands that FIDS does not expect that any Users will acquire a 1 Gb Optic Access circuit.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         In 2024 the Optic Low Latency Circuit—1 Gb was deleted as obsolete. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 101251 (October 4, 2024), 89 FR 82282 (October 10, 2024) (SR-NYSECHX-2024-30).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>To implement the change, the Exchange proposes to amend the chart under “E. FIDS Circuits” in the Fee Schedule to eliminate the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb, as follows (deleted text bracketed):</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s25,r25">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Type of service</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Fees</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">[Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,500 initial charge plus $650 monthly charge]</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    The Exchange also proposes to clarify the list of FIDS access centers to which the remaining 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits may connect. In its filing to add “Optic Access” circuits to the Fee Schedule,
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Exchange stated that 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39141"/>
                    Optic Access circuits could connect between the MDC and FIDS access centers at five third-party owned data centers. The Exchange proposes to clarify that the 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits will no longer connect to (1) 111 Eighth Avenue, New York, NY; (2) 32 Avenue of the Americas, New York, NY; or (3) 165 Halsey, Newark, NJ (the three together, the “Obsolete Access Centers”).
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         88 FR 88141, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 6, at 88141.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         The remaining third party access centers to which Optic Access would connect are in Secaucus and Carteret, New Jersey.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Currently, no Users have Optic Access circuits between the MDC and any of the three Obsolete Access Centers. The Exchange understands that FIDS does not expect that any Users will seek to connect to the Obsolete Access Centers from the MDC.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Application and Impact of the Proposed Changes</HD>
                <P>The proposed change is not targeted at, or expected to be limited in applicability to, a specific segment of market participant. The proposed changes do not apply differently to distinct types or sizes of customers. Rather, they apply to all customers equally.</P>
                <P>No Users have either (a) the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb or (b) an Optic Access circuit between the MDC and an Obsolete Access Center. The Exchange understands that FIDS does not expect that any Users would require the services. Accordingly, no Users would be impacted by the proposed change.</P>
                <P>
                    As is currently true, the 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits would be available for purchase for any potential User requiring a circuit between the MDC and the FIDS access centers in the Secaucus Access Center or Carteret Access Center, as well as the other circuits offered by FIDS or the circuits offered by the 17 third-party telecommunications service providers that have installed their equipment in the MDC's two meet-me-rooms (“Telecoms”).
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Use of services in this filing are completely voluntary and available to all market participants on a non-discriminatory basis.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         Telecoms are licensed by the Federal Communications Commission and are not required to be, or be affiliated with, a member of the Exchange or an Affiliate SRO.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The proposed changes are not otherwise intended to address any other issues relating to services related to the MDC and/or related fees, and the Exchange is not aware of any problems that market participants would have in complying with the proposed change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, because it is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest and because it is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that discontinuing offering the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb and clarifying that the Optic Access Circuits are not available in the Obsolete Access Centers would perfect the mechanisms of a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, protect investors and the public interest. Demand for such connections is non-existent and there are currently no Users that subscribe to the services. The Exchange does not expect demand to rebound given that FIDS does not expect to acquire any customers for these services and FIDS understands that Users do not wish to connect to the Obsolete Access Centers from the MDC.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes that removing references to the fees for the obsolete Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb from the Fee Schedule would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because they would make the Fee Schedule easier to read, understand, and administer.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change does not significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest. No Users have the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb or use an Optic Access Circuit connection to the Obsolete Access Centers. The proposed rule change would delete an obsolete service from the Fee Schedule, which would enhance transparency and alleviate potential customer confusion.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes that removing this obsolete service from the Fee Schedule and changing the description of the remaining Optic Access circuits would not permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers. The proposed changes would apply equally to all Users.</P>
                <P>For these reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposal will not impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of Section 6(b)(8) of the Act.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed rule change is not designed to address any competitive issues but rather is designed to enhance the clarity and transparency of the Fee Schedule and alleviate possible customer confusion that may arise from the inclusion of obsolete services
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(8).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act 
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) thereunder.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because the proposed rule change does not: (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative prior to 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, if consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest, the proposed rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act and Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii) thereunder.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6). In addition, Rule 19b-4(f)(6) requires a self-regulatory organization to give the Commission written notice of its intent to file the proposed rule change, along with a brief description and text of the proposed rule change, at least five business days prior to the date of filing of the proposed rule change, or such shorter time as designated by the Commission. The Exchange has satisfied this requirement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6) 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     normally does not become operative prior to 30 days after the date of the filing. However, pursuant 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39142"/>
                    to Rule 19b4(f)(6)(iii),
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Commission may designate a shorter time if such action is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B) 
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Act to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-NYSETEX-2026-24 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSETEX-2026-24. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSETEX-2026-24 and should be submitted on or before July 20, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13012 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105762; File No. 4-631]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Joint Industry Plan; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Amendment to the Plan To Address Extraordinary Market Volatility To Add Texas Stock Exchange LLC as a Participant</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>June 24, 2026.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 11A(a)(3) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act” or “Exchange Act”) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 608 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on June 12, 2026, Texas Stock Exchange LLC (“TXSE” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) an amendment to the Plan to Address Extraordinary Market Volatility (“LULD Plan” or “Plan”) as a Participant.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The amendment adds TXSE as a Participant 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to the LULD Plan. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the amendment from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78k-1(a)(3).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 242.608.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Letter from Jeff Brown, General Counsel, dated June 12, 2026, to Vanessa Countryman, Secretary, Commission. On May 6, 2012, the Commission issued an order approving the Plan on a pilot basis (the “Approval Order”). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 67091 (May 31, 2012), 77 FR 33498 (June 6, 2012). The Commission approved the LULD Plan on a permanent basis on April 11, 2019. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 85623, 84 FR 16086 (April 17, 2019).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Defined in Section I(K) of the Plan as follows: “Participant” means a Party to the Plan.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Description and Purpose of the Amendment</HD>
                <P>
                    On September 30, 2025, the Commission issued an order granting the Exchange's application for registration as a national securities exchange (“Approval Order”).
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Under the Approval Order, one of the conditions of the Commission's approval is that TXSE must join the Plan. The Exchange expects to begin operation in July 2026. The proposed amendment adds TXSE as a Participant to the LULD Plan.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         See Securities Exchange Act Release No. 104146 (September 30, 2025), 90 FR 47880 (October 2, 2025) (In the Matter of the Application of Texas Stock Exchange LLC for Registration as a National Securities Exchange; Findings, Opinion, and Order of the Commission).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Under Section II(C) of the LULD Plan, any entity registered as a national securities exchange or national securities association under the Exchange Act may become a Participant by: (1) becoming a participant in the applicable Market Data Plans, as defined in Section I(F) of the Plan; (2) executing a copy of the Plan, as then in effect; (3) providing each then-current Participant with a copy of such executed Plan; and (4) effecting an amendment to the Plan as specified in Section III (B) of the Plan. Section III(B) of the LULD Plan sets forth the process for a prospective new Participant to effect an amendment of the Plan. Specifically, the LULD Plan provides that such an amendment to the Plan may be effected by the new national securities exchange or national securities association by executing a copy of the Plan as then in effect (with the only changes being the addition of the new Participant's name in Section II(A) of the Plan); and submitting such executed Plan to the Commission.</P>
                <P>
                    TXSE has become a participant in the applicable Market Data Plans,
                    <SU>6</SU>
                     executed a copy of the Plan currently in effect, with the only change being the addition of its name in Section II(A) of the Plan, and has provided a copy of the Plan executed by TXSE to each of the other Participants. TXSE has also submitted the executed Plan to the Commission. Accordingly, all of the Plan requirements for effecting an amendment to the Plan to add TXSE as a Participant have been satisfied.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         See Securities Exchange Act Release Nos. 105091 (March 27, 2026), 91 FR 16255 (April 1, 2026) (Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of the Fifty-Sixth Amendment to the Joint Self-Regulatory Organization Plan Governing the Collection, Consolidation and Dissemination of Quotation and Transaction Information for Nasdaq-Listed Securities Traded on Exchanges on an Unlisted Trading Privileges Basis) and 105349 (May 1, 2026), 91 FR 24619 (May 6, 2026) (Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of the Forty-First Amendment to the Second Restatement of the CTA Plan and Thirty-Second Amendment to the Restated CQ Plan).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Effectiveness of the Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing Plan amendment has become effective pursuant to Rule 608(b)(3)(iii) 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     because it involves solely technical or ministerial matters. At any time within sixty days of the filing of this amendment, the Commission may summarily abrogate the amendment and require that it be refiled pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of Rule 608,
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39143"/>
                    public interest, for the protection of investors, or the maintenance of fair and orderly markets, to remove impediments to, and perfect the mechanisms of, a national market system or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         17 CFR 242.608(b)(3)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         17 CFR 242.608(a)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the amendment is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number 4-631 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number 4-631. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number 4-631 and should be submitted on or before July 20, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>9</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(85).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13013 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105771; File No. SR-CBOE-2026-024]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe Exchange, Inc.; Order Instituting Proceedings To Determine Whether To Approve or Disapprove a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Its Rules To Accommodate Stop-Limit Complex Orders and Establish Stop Complex Order Auctions as a New Type of Auction Mechanism</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>June 24, 2026.</DATE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>
                    On March 9, 2026, Cboe Exchange, Inc. (“Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act” or “Exchange Act”) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     a proposed rule change to establish stop-limit complex orders as a type of complex order and the Stop Complex Order Auction (“SCOA”) as an auction mechanism to facilitate auctions for stop-limit complex orders. The proposed rule change was published for comment in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on March 26, 2026.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission has received no comments regarding the proposal.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 105064 (Mar. 23, 2026), 91 FR 14736 (“Notice”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On May 5, 2026, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Exchange Act,
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Commission designated a longer period within which to approve the proposed rule change, disapprove the proposed rule change, or institute proceedings to determine whether to disapprove the proposed rule change.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This order institutes proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to determine whether to approve or disapprove the proposed rule change.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 105371 (May 5, 2026), 91 FR 25393 (May 8, 2026) (designating June 24, 2026, as the date by which the Commission shall either approve, disapprove, or institute proceedings to determine whether to disapprove the proposed rule change).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Description of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    As described more fully in the Notice,
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Exchange states that it currently offers stop-limit orders only for single leg orders.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange proposes to amend its rules to establish stop-limit complex orders as a type of complex order and to establish the SCOA as an electronic auction mechanism for stop-limit complex orders.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange states that it understands that market participants currently may enter a stop-limit order on the short leg of a complex order while managing the long leg separately.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange states that stop-limit complex orders will provide market participants with the ability to simultaneously manage the long and short legs of their complex orders.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange further states that market participants may choose to execute a transaction once certain market conditions are met to help manage and reduce the risk of extreme loss.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange states that stop-limit complex orders will provide investors with an execution and risk management tool, and that market participants will be able to effectively use stop-limit complex orders to replace the manual monitoring that market participants must currently engage in to gain the benefits of stop-limit functionality.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         The Exchange states that a Stop-Limit order is an order to buy (sell) that becomes a limit order when the consolidated last sale price (excluding prices from complex order trades if outside the NBBO) or NBB (NBO) for a particular option contract is equal to or above (below) the specified stop price. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice, 91 FR at 14737 and Exchange Rule 5.6(c).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         The proposal defines a stop-limit complex order as a complex order that becomes a limit order when, for the complex strategy of that order, either (i) the Market-Maker SBBO, or trade price as described in [proposed Exchange Rule 5.33(d)(2)(A)(i)(b)], is equal to or higher (lower) than the stop-limit price, or (ii) if designated by the User, the same side bid (ask) of the underlying equity security or the underlying index level, as applicable, is equal to or higher (lower) than the designated stop-limit price or if a trade price is equal to or higher (lower) than the stop-limit price. A User may not designate a stop-limit complex order as All Sessions or RTH and Curb. A User may not designate bulk messages as stop-limit complex orders. A User may not designate a stop-limit complex order as Direct to PAR. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Exchange Rule 5.33(b)(5). The proposal defines the “Market-Maker SBBO” to mean the best bid and offer on the Exchange for a complex strategy calculated using only appointed Market-Maker quotes in the individual legs of a complex order.: (1) for complex orders, the appointed Market-Maker quotes for each option component of a complex strategy, and (2) for stock-option orders, the appointed Market-Maker quotes for each option component and the NBBO of the stock component of a complex strategy. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Exchange Rule 5.33(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice, 91 FR at 14737 and Exchange Rule 5.6(c).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice, 91 FR at 14737.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice, 91 FR at 14740.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice, 91 FR at 14740.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Under the proposal, a stop-limit complex order is a conditional order that is triggered when, for a complex order to buy (sell) the same side Market-Maker SBBO is equal to or higher (lower) than the stop-limit price, or a complex trade occurs at a trade price 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39144"/>
                    that is equal to or higher (lower) than the stop-limit price.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Alternatively, a User may designate a price trigger for a stop-limit complex order based on the price or value of the option underlier, so that a stop-limit complex order to buy (sell) will be triggered when (i) for a security underlier, the same side bid (ask) of the underlying security is equal to or higher (lower) than the designated stop-limit price or a last-sale eligible trade price is equal to or higher (lower) than the stop-limit price; or (ii) for an index underlier, when the underlying index level is equal to or higher (lower) than the designated threshold price.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     All triggered stop-limit complex orders will be processed in a SCOA.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange states that the proposed SCOA is intended to provide opportunities for price improvement and also is designed to maximize execution quantity, particularly given that one event may trigger multiple complex stop-limit orders.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Exchange Rule 5.33(d)(2)(A)(i).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Exchange Rule 5.33(d)(2)(A)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice, 91 FR at 14738.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice, 91 FR at 14738.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Once the trigger condition designated for a stop-limit complex order has been met, the Exchange's System initiates a SCOA by sending an auction message to all subscribers to the Exchange's data feeds that deliver auction messages.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Multiple stop-limit complex orders in the same complex strategy that are triggered by the same event will be bundled together in the same SCOA.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange states that it believes that when multiple stop-limit complex orders are triggered by the same event, bundling the orders into a single SCOA will have better execution outcomes than processing multiple individual orders in separate auctions.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Users may submit responses to a SCOA auction message during the Response Time Interval, which may not exceed 1,000 milliseconds.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange will determines on a class-by-class basis whether all Users or Market-Makers with an appointment in the class and Trading Permit Holders acting as agent for orders resting at the top of the Complex Order Book (“COB”) in the relevant complex strategy may submit auction response(s) during the Response Time Interval.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     At the end of the Response Time Interval, the System executes SCOA order(s) against contra-side complex interest in a manner that executes the largest number of contracts.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Upon completion of the initial SCOA, any unfilled order(s) will iterate through additional SCOAs at incrementally more aggressive starting prices until all orders are filled, the limit price has been reached, or the then-current opposite side SBBO price has been used as the last auction start price.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The System enters any SCOA order(s) that do not execute at the end of the SCOA iterations into the COB if the order(s) are eligible to rest in the COB.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Exchange Rule 5.33(d)(2)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Exchange Rule 5.33(d)(2)(B). The System means the Exchange's hybrid trading platform that integrates electronic and open outcry trading of option contracts on the Exchange, and includes any connectivity to the foregoing trading platform that is administered by or on behalf of the Exchange, such as a communications hub. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Exchange Rule 1.1.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice, 91 FR at 14740.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Exchange Rule 5.33(d)(2)(D). The SCOA will terminate prior to the end of the Response Time Interval if (i) the System receive an order in a leg of the complex strategy that would improve the SBBO on the same side as the SCOA order(s) to a price better than the limit price of any of the SCOA orders; or (ii) the System receives a Priority Customer order in a leg of the complex strategy that would cause the SBBO on the same side as the SCOA order(s) to equal the limit price of any of the SCOA orders. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Exchange Rule 5.33(d)(2)(D).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Exchange Rule 5.33(d)(2)(E).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Exchange Rule 5.33(d)(2)(F).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Exchange Rule 5.33(d)(2)(F)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Exchange Rule 5.33(d)(2)(F)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Proceedings To Determine Whether To Approve or Disapprove SR-CBOE-2026-024 and Grounds for Disapproval Under Consideration</HD>
                <P>
                    The Commission is instituting proceedings pursuant to Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act 
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved. Institution of such proceedings is appropriate at this time in view of the legal and policy issues raised by the proposed rule change. Institution of proceedings does not indicate that the Commission has reached any conclusions with respect to any of the issues involved. Rather, as described below, the Commission seeks and encourages interested persons to provide comments on the proposed rule change.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act,
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Commission is providing notice of the grounds for disapproval under consideration. The Commission is instituting proceedings to allow for additional analysis of the proposed rule change's consistency with the Act and, in particular, with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which requires, among other things, that the rules of a national securities exchange be designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest, and not be designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Under the Commission's Rules of Practice, the “burden to demonstrate that a proposed rule change is consistent with the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations issued thereunder . . . is on the self-regulatory organization that proposed the rule change.” 
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The description of a proposed rule change, its purpose and operation, its effect, and a legal analysis of its consistency with applicable requirements must all be sufficiently detailed and specific to support an affirmative Commission finding,
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and any failure of a self-regulatory organization to provide this information may result in the Commission not having a sufficient basis to make an affirmative finding that a proposed rule change is consistent with the Act and the applicable rules and regulations.
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission is instituting proceedings to allow for additional consideration and comment on the issues raised herein, including as to whether the proposal is consistent with the Act. The Commission asks that commenters address the sufficiency of the Exchange's statements in support of the proposal, which are set forth in the Notice, in addition to any other comments they may wish to submit about the proposed rule change. In particular, the Commission asks commenters to address whether the proposal includes sufficient information and analysis to support a finding that the proposal is consistent with the requirements of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         17 CFR 201.700(b)(3).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Procedure: Request for Written Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    The Commission requests that interested persons provide written submissions of their views, data, and arguments with respect to the issues identified above, as well as any other concerns they may have with the proposal. In particular, the Commission invites the written views of interested persons concerning whether the proposal is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) or any other provision of the Act, and the rules and regulations thereunder. Although there do not appear to be any issues relevant to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39145"/>
                    approval or disapproval that would be facilitated by an oral presentation of views, data, and arguments, the Commission will consider, pursuant to Rule 19b-4, any request for an opportunity to make an oral presentation.
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         Section 19(b)(2) of the Act, as amended by the Securities Acts Amendments of 1975, Public Law 94-29 (June 4, 1975), grants the Commission flexibility to determine what type of proceeding—either oral or notice and opportunity for written comments—is appropriate for consideration of a particular proposal by a self-regulatory organization. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Acts Amendments of 1975, Senate Comm. on Banking, Housing &amp; Urban Affairs, S. Rep. No. 75, 94th Cong., 1st Sess. 30 (1975).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments regarding whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved by July 20, 2026. Any person who wishes to file a rebuttal to any other person's submission must file that rebuttal by August 3, 2026.</P>
                <P>Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-CBOE-2026-024 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-CBOE-2026-024. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-CBOE-2026-024 and should be submitted on or before July 20, 2026. Rebuttal comments should be submitted by August 3, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>33</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>33</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(57).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13022 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105770; File No. SR-ISE-2026-38]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq ISE LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule General 8 Connectivity To Establish Fees for Its TNO Cross-Connect Service</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>June 24, 2026.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on June 11, 2026, Nasdaq ISE, LLC (“ISE” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III, below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8 (Connectivity) to establish fees for its TNO Cross-Connect service, as described further below.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://listingcenter.nasdaq.com/rulebook/ise/rulefilings,</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8 (Connectivity) to establish fees for its TNO Cross-Connect service.</P>
                <P>TNO Cross-Connect is a telecommunications network operator (“TNO” or “telco”) connectivity service that consists of the cabling running from a TNO's carrier cabinet to a Nasdaq-managed distribution point within the Exchange's data center campus. The TNO Cross-Connect service constitutes a defined and Nasdaq-managed component of the telco to customer connectivity path and serves as a standardized point of access for TNO connectivity inside the Exchange's data center.</P>
                <P>
                    In its proposal introducing TNO Cross-Connect as a connectivity offering,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Exchange noted that it would submit a separate rule filing to establish fees for the TNO Cross-Connect service. This proposed rule change establishes fees for the service.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 105010 (Mar. 16, 2026), 91 FR 13384 (Mar. 19, 2026) (SR-ISE-2026-09) (“TNO Cross-Connect Proposal”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Specifically, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8, Section 1(b) to establish an installation fee and an ongoing monthly fee for its TNO Cross-Connect service.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed installation fee is $550 and the proposed ongoing monthly fee is $385.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         For purposes of this proposal, each telco provider-to-customer cross-connection would constitute a TNO Cross-Connect subject to the fees herein proposed. For example, if a telco provider provides three separate cross-connects for a single customer, each such telco-to-customer cross connect would constitute a TNO Cross-Connect subject to the installation and ongoing monthly fees proposed herein.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         To effectuate this change, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8, Section 1(b) to delete the acronym “TBD” in all instances where it appears in connection with the installation and ongoing monthly fee for the TNO Cross-Connect service and substitute therefor the corresponding installation fee of $550 and ongoing monthly fee of $385, as proposed. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Rule General 8, Section 1(b). Upon implementation of the proposed rule change on or about the third quarter of 2026, the Exchange will charge the proposed installation fee only to telco providers who submit new orders for installation of TNO Cross-Connect. Such telco providers will also be subject to the proposed recurring monthly fee. The Exchange will not, however, charge the installation fee to telco providers for whom the TNO Cross-Connect has already been installed as of that implementation date. Such telco providers will, however, be assessed the ongoing monthly fee starting on the date the proposed offering is implemented by the 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        Exchange. The Exchange does not currently charge telco providers any fee—whether an installation fee, monthly fee, or otherwise—for the proposed connectivity service and will continue not to do so until the proposed service is implemented.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="39146"/>
                <P>The Exchange believes that establishing fees for TNO Cross-Connect is appropriate and reasonable because the service entails Exchange-provided and Exchange-managed infrastructure, cabling, inventory management, ongoing maintenance, and operational oversight. The fees also reflect the resources required for the Exchange to implement, administer, monitor, and support the service on a non-discriminatory basis for all TNOs.</P>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to implement the proposed changes during the third quarter of 2026 on or about July 1, 2026. The Exchange will announce the specific implementation date via Nasdaq's customer portal.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Sections 6(b)(4) and 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, in that it provides for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees and other charges among members and issuers and other persons using any facility, and is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4) and (5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed fees for TNO Cross-Connect are reasonable because they reflect the Exchange's provision, operation, maintenance, and oversight of a defined, Exchange-managed telecommunications connectivity component that is required for TNOs seeking to provide services to Nasdaq data center customers. As described in the TNO Cross-Connect Proposal, the Exchange administers and manages the cabling, demarcation points, inventory, and ongoing operational support associated with this connectivity path.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange further believes that the proposed fees are reasonable because they are comparable to, and lower than, fees charged by another national securities exchange for a similar telecommunications carrier connectivity service. Specifically, NYSE offers a Carrier Connection Fee service 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     for a recurring monthly charge of $1,150.00 per connection, while the Exchange proposes an ongoing monthly fee of $385.00 for TNO Cross-Connect. The Exchange's proposed monthly fee is therefore $765.00 lower than NYSE's comparable monthly fee, or approximately 66.5% lower. In addition, even including the Exchange's proposed one-time installation fee of $550, the total first-month cost of the Exchange's service would be $935, which remains below NYSE's $1,150 recurring monthly charge.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         The New York Stock Exchange LLC, Connectivity Fee Schedule (Mar. 27, 2026), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nyse.com/publicdocs/nyse/Wireless_Connectivity_Fees_and_Charges.pdf</E>
                         (setting forth a recurring monthly charge of $1,150.00 per connection for the Carrier Connection Fee service). To the best of the Exchange's knowledge, the NYSE offering is comparable to the proposed TNO Cross-Connect. Specifically, the Exchange believes that the NYSE recurring charge of $1,150 per connection for its Carrier Connection Fee is a service priced on a per telco-provider-to-customer connection basis, such that if a telco provider has multiple connections to a customer, each such connection would be assessed the recurring $1,150 per connection ongoing monthly fee. The Exchange is aware of no bundling or other incentive-based pricing for such NYSE service.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed fees represent an equitable allocation and are not unfairly discriminatory because they apply uniformly to all telecommunications network operators that provide services to Nasdaq colocation customers. All TNOs seeking to connect to customers within the Exchange's data center campus are subject to the same service requirements and the same fees for TNO Cross-Connect. As the Exchange discussed in the TNO Cross-Connect Proposal,
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     all TNOs seeking to offer their services to Exchange customers must use the connectivity offered by TNO Cross-Connect. The Exchange does not differentiate among TNOs based on size, affiliation, volume, or any other characteristic. The proposed fees therefore allocate charges fairly among similarly situated persons using the Exchange's facilities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         TNO Cross-Connect Proposal, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes that the proposed fees will not impose an undue burden on intramarket competition because they apply uniformly to all telecommunications network operators seeking to provide services to Nasdaq data center customers. As described above, all TNOs that wish to serve Nasdaq customers must connect through TNO Cross-Connect, and the Exchange will charge the same installation and monthly fees to all such TNOs. The Exchange will not differentiate among TNOs based on size, affiliation, business model, or any other characteristic. Accordingly, the proposed fees do not favor or disadvantage any particular TNO relative to another, but instead apply equally to all similarly situated users of the Exchange's facilities.</P>
                <P>The Exchange also believes that the proposed fees will not impose an undue burden on intermarket competition. The proposed fees are for a telecommunications connectivity service offered within the Exchange's data center campus and reflect the Exchange's provision, management, and support of that service. In addition, the proposed fees are comparable to, and in important respects lower than, the fees charged by another national securities exchange for a similar telecommunications carrier connectivity service. Specifically, NYSE offers a Carrier Connection Fee service for a recurring monthly charge of $1,150.00 per connection, while the Exchange proposes an ongoing monthly fee of $385.00 for TNO Cross-Connect. The Exchange's proposed monthly fee is therefore $765.00 lower than NYSE's comparable monthly fee, or approximately 66.5% lower. Even including the Exchange's proposed one-time installation fee of $550, the total first-month cost of the Exchange's service would be $935, which remains below NYSE's $1,150 recurring monthly charge. The Exchange therefore does not believe that the proposed fees will impose any inappropriate burden on competition among exchanges.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were either solicited or received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
                    <PRTPAGE P="39147"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-ISE-2026-38 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-ISE-2026-38. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-ISE-2026-38 and should be submitted on or before July 20, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13021 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105760; File No. SR-NYSENAT-2026-20]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE National, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Connectivity Fee Schedule</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>June 24, 2026.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on June 17, 2026, the NYSE National, Inc. (“NYSE National” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the self-regulatory organization. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1)
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend the Connectivity Fee Schedule (“Fee Schedule”) to delete the currently-filed “Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb” service as obsolete. The Exchange also proposes to clarify to which access centers the 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits connect. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.nyse.com</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedule to delete the currently-filed “Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb” service as obsolete. The Exchange also proposes to clarify to which access centers the 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits connect.</P>
                <P>
                    In 2023, the Exchange filed to amend the Fee Schedule to add several “FIDS Circuits” available to Users 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     at the Mahwah, New Jersey data center (“MDC”),
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     including “Optic Access” circuits in 1 Gb, 10 Gb, and 40 Gb sizes.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         For purposes of the Exchange's colocation services, a “User” means any market participant that requests to receive colocation services directly from the Exchange. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 83351 (May 31, 2018), 83 FR 26314 at n.9 (June 6, 2018) (SR-NYSENAT-2018-07). As specified in the Fee Schedule, a User that incurs colocation fees for a particular colocation service pursuant thereto would not be subject to colocation fees for the same colocation service charged by the New York Stock Exchange LLC, NYSE American LLC, NYSE Arca, Inc., and NYSE Texas, Inc. (together, the “Affiliate SROs”). Each Affiliate SRO has submitted substantially the same proposed rule change to propose the change described herein.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Through its Fixed Income and Data Services (“FIDS”) business, Intercontinental Exchange, Inc. (“ICE”) operates the MDC. The Exchange and the Affiliate SROs are indirect subsidiaries of ICE.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 99168 (December 14, 2023), 88 FR 88152 (December 20, 2023) (SR-NYSENAT-2023-29).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to eliminate the “Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb” service as obsolete. Currently, no Users have the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb, and the Exchange understands that FIDS does not expect that any Users will acquire a 1 Gb Optic Access circuit.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         In 2024 the Optic Low Latency Circuit—1 Gb was deleted as obsolete. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 101253 (October 4, 2024), 89 FR 82276 (October 10, 2024) (SR-NYSENAT-2024-27).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>To implement the change, the Exchange proposes to amend the chart under “E. FIDS Circuits” in the Fee Schedule to eliminate the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb, as follows (deleted text bracketed):</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s25,r25">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Type of service</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Fees</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">[Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            $1,500 initial charge plus
                            <LI>$650 monthly charge].</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    The Exchange also proposes to clarify the list of FIDS access centers to which the remaining 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits may connect. In its filing to add “Optic Access” circuits to the Fee Schedule,
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Exchange stated that 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39148"/>
                    Optic Access circuits could connect between the MDC and FIDS access centers at five third-party owned data centers. The Exchange proposes to clarify that the 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits will no longer connect to (1) 111 Eighth Avenue, New York, NY; (2) 32 Avenue of the Americas, New York, NY; or (3) 165 Halsey, Newark, NJ (the three together, the “Obsolete Access Centers”).
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         88 FR 88152, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 6, at 88152.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         The remaining third party access centers to which Optic Access would connect are in Secaucus and Carteret, New Jersey.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Currently, no Users have Optic Access circuits between the MDC and any of the three Obsolete Access Centers. The Exchange understands that FIDS does not expect that any Users will seek to connect to the Obsolete Access Centers from the MDC.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Application and Impact of the Proposed Changes</HD>
                <P>The proposed change is not targeted at, or expected to be limited in applicability to, a specific segment of market participant. The proposed changes do not apply differently to distinct types or sizes of customers. Rather, they apply to all customers equally.</P>
                <P>No Users have either (a) the Optic Access Circuit -1 Gb or (b) an Optic Access circuit between the MDC and an Obsolete Access Center. The Exchange understands that FIDS does not expect that any Users would require the services. Accordingly, no Users would be impacted by the proposed change.</P>
                <P>
                    As is currently true, the 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits would be available for purchase for any potential User requiring a circuit between the MDC and the FIDS access centers in the Secaucus Access Center or Carteret Access Center, as well as the other circuits offered by FIDS or the circuits offered by the 17 third-party telecommunications service providers that have installed their equipment in the MDC's two meet-me-rooms (“Telecoms”).
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Use of services in this filing are completely voluntary and available to all market participants on a non-discriminatory basis.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         Telecoms are licensed by the Federal Communications Commission and are not required to be, or be affiliated with, a member of the Exchange or an Affiliate SRO.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The proposed changes are not otherwise intended to address any other issues relating to services related to the MDC and/or related fees, and the Exchange is not aware of any problems that market participants would have in complying with the proposed change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, because it is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest and because it is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that discontinuing offering the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb and clarifying that the Optic Access Circuits are not available in the Obsolete Access Centers would perfect the mechanisms of a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, protect investors and the public interest. Demand for such connections is non-existent and there are currently no Users that subscribe to the services. The Exchange does not expect demand to rebound given that FIDS does not expect to acquire any customers for these services and FIDS understands that Users do not wish to connect to the Obsolete Access Centers from the MDC.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes that removing references to the fees for the obsolete Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb from the Fee Schedule would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because they would make the Fee Schedule easier to read, understand, and administer.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change does not significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest. No Users have the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb or use an Optic Access Circuit connection to the Obsolete Access Centers. The proposed rule change would delete an obsolete service from the Fee Schedule, which would enhance transparency and alleviate potential customer confusion.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes that removing this obsolete service from the Fee Schedule and changing the description of the remaining Optic Access circuits would not permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers. The proposed changes would apply equally to all Users.</P>
                <P>For these reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposal will not impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of Section 6(b)(8) of the Act.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed rule change is not designed to address any competitive issues but rather is designed to enhance the clarity and transparency of the Fee Schedule and alleviate possible customer confusion that may arise from the inclusion of obsolete services
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(8).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act 
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) thereunder.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because the proposed rule change does not: (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative prior to 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, if consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest, the proposed rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act and Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii) thereunder.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6). In addition, Rule 19b-4(f)(6) requires a self-regulatory organization to give the Commission written notice of its intent to file the proposed rule change, along with a brief description and text of the proposed rule change, at least five business days prior to the date of filing of the proposed rule change, or such shorter time as designated by the Commission. The Exchange has satisfied this requirement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6) 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     normally does not become operative prior to 30 days after the date of the filing. However, pursuant 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39149"/>
                    to Rule 19b4(f)(6)(iii),
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Commission may designate a shorter time if such action is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B) 
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Act to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-NYSENAT-2026-20 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSENAT-2026-20. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSENAT-2026-20 and should be submitted on or before July 20, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13011 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 3235-0385]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Extension: Rule 15g-9</SUBJECT>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">Upon Written Request, Copies Available From:</E>
                     Securities and Exchange Commission, Office of FOIA Services, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-2736
                </FP>
                <P>
                    Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), the Securities and Exchange Commission (“SEC” or “Commission”) is soliciting comments on the proposed collection of information provided for in Rule 15g-9 (17 CFR 240.15g-9), under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S. C. 78a 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) (“Exchange Act”).
                </P>
                <P>Section 15(c)(2) of the Exchange Act authorizes the Commission to promulgate rules reasonably designed to prevent fraudulent, deceptive, or manipulative device or contrivance in connection with the over-the-counter market. Pursuant to this authority, the Commission adopted Rule 15g-9 to require broker-dealers, prior to effecting a person's transaction in a penny stock, to: (1) approve their account for transactions in penny stocks by, among other things: (a) obtaining from them information concerning their financial situation, investment experience, and investment objectives; (b) reasonably determining that transactions in penny stocks are suitable for them, and that he or she (or their independent adviser) has sufficient knowledge and experience in financial matters and is capable of evaluating the risks of transactions in penny stocks; and (c) delivering to them a written statement: (i) setting forth the basis on which the broker-dealer made the suitability determination; (ii) stating in a highlighted format that it is unlawful for the broker-dealer to effect a transaction in a penny stock unless the broker-dealer has received, prior to the transaction, a written agreement to the transaction from the person; and (iii) stating in a highlighted format immediately preceding the person's signature line that: (A) the broker-dealer is required to provide the person with the written statement; and (B) the person should not sign and return the written statement to the broker-dealer if it does not accurately reflect their financial situation, investment experience, and investment objectives; and (d)(i) obtaining from the person a signed and dated copy of the statement; and (ii) waiting at least two business days after sending the statement to effect the penny stock transaction.</P>
                <P>As of May 1, 2026, there are 3,248 registered broker-dealers. Of the 3,248 broker-dealers, approximately five percent, or 162 broker-dealers, are engaged in penny stock transactions and thereby subject to Rule 15g-9 (5% × 3,248 broker-dealers = 162 broker-dealers). The Commission estimates that each of these broker-dealers effects 3 persons' first penny stock transaction per week. Thus, each respondent delivers approximately 156 penny stock written statements per year (52 weeks per year × 3 transactions per week) for a total aggregate of approximately 25,272 responses per year (162 respondents × 156 penny stock written statements per year).</P>
                <P>The Commission estimates that a broker-dealer would take approximately one-half hour per new penny stock investor to obtain, review, and process (including delivering to the person) the information required by Rule 15g-9, or approximately 78 hours per year (156 new persons × .5 hours), for a total aggregate burden of approximately 12,636 hours per year (162 respondents × 78 hours per year) for this third-party disclosure obligation.</P>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB Control Number.</P>
                <P>Written comments are invited on: (a) whether this proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the SEC, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the SEC's estimate of the burden imposed by the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and the assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated, electronic collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>
                    Please direct your written comments on this 60-Day Collection Notice to Austin Gerig, Director/Chief Data 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39150"/>
                    Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, c/o Tanya Ruttenberg via email to 
                    <E T="03">PaperworkReductionAct@sec.gov</E>
                     by August 28, 2026.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Dated: June 25, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13090 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105765; File No. SR-NASDAQ-2026-056]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule General 8 Connectivity To Establish Fees for its TNO Cross-Connect Service</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>June 24, 2026.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    , and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on June 11, 2026, The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC (“Nasdaq” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III, below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8 (Connectivity) to establish fees for its TNO Cross-Connect service, as described further below.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://listingcenter.nasdaq.com/rulebook/nasdaq/rulefilings,</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8 (Connectivity) to establish fees for its TNO Cross-Connect service.</P>
                <P>TNO Cross-Connect is a telecommunications network operator (“TNO” or “telco”) connectivity service that consists of the cabling running from a TNO's carrier cabinet to a Nasdaq-managed distribution point within the Exchange's data center campus. The TNO Cross-Connect service constitutes a defined and Nasdaq-managed component of the telco to customer connectivity path and serves as a standardized point of access for TNO connectivity inside the Exchange's data center.</P>
                <P>
                    In its proposal introducing TNO Cross-Connect as a connectivity offering,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Exchange noted that it would submit a separate rule filing to establish fees for the TNO Cross-Connect service. This proposed rule change establishes fees for the service.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 105014 (Mar. 16, 2026), 91 FR 13371 (Mar. 19, 2026) (SR-NASDAQ-2026-014) (“TNO Cross-Connect Proposal”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Specifically, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8, Section 1(b) to establish an installation fee and an ongoing monthly fee for its TNO Cross-Connect service.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed installation fee is $550 and the proposed ongoing monthly fee is $385.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         For purposes of this proposal, each telco provider-to-customer cross-connection would constitute a TNO Cross-Connect subject to the fees herein proposed. For example, if a telco provider provides three separate cross-connects for a single customer, each such telco-to-customer cross connect would constitute a TNO Cross Connect subject to the installation and ongoing monthly fees proposed herein.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         To effectuate this change, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8, Section 1(b) to delete the acronym “TBD” in all instances where it appears in connection with the installation and ongoing monthly fee for the TNO Cross-Connect service and substitute therefor the corresponding installation fee of $550 and ongoing monthly fee of $385, as proposed. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Rule General 8, Section 1(b). Upon implementation of the proposed rule change on or about the third quarter of 2026, the Exchange will charge the proposed installation fee only to telco providers who submit new orders for installation of TNO Cross-Connect. Such telco providers will also be subject to the proposed recurring monthly fee. The Exchange will not, however, charge the installation fee to telco providers for whom the TNO Cross-Connect has already been installed as of that implementation date. Such telco providers will, however, be assessed the ongoing monthly fee starting on the date the proposed offering is implemented by the Exchange. The Exchange does not currently charge telco providers any fee—whether an installation fee, monthly fee, or otherwise—for the proposed connectivity service and will continue not to do so until the proposed service is implemented.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that establishing fees for TNO Cross-Connect is appropriate and reasonable because the service entails Exchange-provided and Exchange-managed infrastructure, cabling, inventory management, ongoing maintenance, and operational oversight. The fees also reflect the resources required for the Exchange to implement, administer, monitor, and support the service on a non-discriminatory basis for all TNOs.</P>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to implement the proposed changes during the third quarter of 2026 on or about July 1, 2026. The Exchange will announce the specific implementation date via Nasdaq's customer portal.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Sections 6(b)(4) and 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, in that it provides for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees and other charges among members and issuers and other persons using any facility, and is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4) and (5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed fees for TNO Cross-Connect are reasonable because they reflect the Exchange's provision, operation, maintenance, and oversight of a defined, Exchange-managed telecommunications connectivity component that is required for TNOs seeking to provide services to Nasdaq data center customers. As described in the TNO Cross-Connect Proposal, the Exchange administers and manages the cabling, demarcation points, inventory, and ongoing operational support associated with this connectivity path.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange further believes that the proposed fees are reasonable because they are comparable to, and lower than, fees charged by another national securities exchange for a similar telecommunications carrier connectivity service. Specifically, NYSE offers a Carrier Connection Fee service 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     for a 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39151"/>
                    recurring monthly charge of $1,150.00 per connection, while the Exchange proposes an ongoing monthly fee of $385.00 for TNO Cross-Connect. The Exchange's proposed monthly fee is therefore $765.00 lower than NYSE's comparable monthly fee, or approximately 66.5% lower. In addition, even including the Exchange's proposed one-time installation fee of $550, the total first-month cost of the Exchange's service would be $935, which remains below NYSE's $1,150 recurring monthly charge.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         The New York Stock Exchange LLC, Connectivity Fee Schedule (Mar. 27, 2026), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nyse.com/publicdocs/nyse/Wireless_Connectivity_Fees_and_Charges.pdf</E>
                         (setting forth a recurring monthly charge of $1,150.00 per connection for the Carrier Connection 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        Fee service). To the best of the Exchange's knowledge, the NYSE offering is comparable to the proposed TNO Cross-Connect. Specifically, the Exchange believes that the NYSE recurring charge of $1,150 per connection for its Carrier Connection Fee is a service priced on a per telco-provider-to-customer connection basis, such that if a telco provider has multiple connections to a customer, each such connection would be assessed the recurring $1,150 per connection ongoing monthly fee. The Exchange is aware of no bundling or other incentive-based pricing for such NYSE service.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed fees represent an equitable allocation and are not unfairly discriminatory because they apply uniformly to all telecommunications network operators that provide services to Nasdaq colocation customers. All TNOs seeking to connect to customers within the Exchange's data center campus are subject to the same service requirements and the same fees for TNO Cross-Connect. As the Exchange discussed in the TNO Cross-Connect Proposal,
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     all TNOs seeking to offer their services to Exchange customers must use the connectivity offered by TNO Cross-Connect. The Exchange does not differentiate among TNOs based on size, affiliation, volume, or any other characteristic. The proposed fees therefore allocate charges fairly among similarly situated persons using the Exchange's facilities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         TNO Cross-Connect Proposal, supra note 3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes that the proposed fees will not impose an undue burden on intramarket competition because they apply uniformly to all telecommunications network operators seeking to provide services to Nasdaq data center customers. As described above, all TNOs that wish to serve Nasdaq customers must connect through TNO Cross-Connect, and the Exchange will charge the same installation and monthly fees to all such TNOs. The Exchange will not differentiate among TNOs based on size, affiliation, business model, or any other characteristic. Accordingly, the proposed fees do not favor or disadvantage any particular TNO relative to another, but instead apply equally to all similarly situated users of the Exchange's facilities.</P>
                <P>The Exchange also believes that the proposed fees will not impose an undue burden on intermarket competition. The proposed fees are for a telecommunications connectivity service offered within the Exchange's data center campus and reflect the Exchange's provision, management, and support of that service. In addition, the proposed fees are comparable to, and in important respects lower than, the fees charged by another national securities exchange for a similar telecommunications carrier connectivity service. Specifically, NYSE offers a Carrier Connection Fee service for a recurring monthly charge of $1,150.00 per connection, while the Exchange proposes an ongoing monthly fee of $385.00 for TNO Cross-Connect. The Exchange's proposed monthly fee is therefore $765.00 lower than NYSE's comparable monthly fee, or approximately 66.5% lower. Even including the Exchange's proposed one-time installation fee of $550, the total first-month cost of the Exchange's service would be $935, which remains below NYSE's $1,150 recurring monthly charge. The Exchange therefore does not believe that the proposed fees will impose any inappropriate burden on competition among exchanges.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were either solicited or received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-NASDAQ-2026-056 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NASDAQ-2026-056. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NASDAQ-2026-056 and should be submitted on or before July 20, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13016 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="39152"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105763; File No. SR-CBOE-2026-016]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing of Amendment No. 2 and Order Granting Accelerated Approval of a Proposed Rule Change, as Superseded by Amendment No. 1 and Modified by Amendment No. 2, To Amend its Rules Relating to Designated Primary Market-Maker Appointments in Global Trading Hours and Curb Sessions</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>June 24, 2026.</DATE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>
                    On January 30, 2026, Cboe Exchange, Inc. filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     a proposed rule change to modify rules pertaining to Designated Primary Market-Makers. The proposed rule change was published for comment in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on February 13, 2026.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On March 25, 2026, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2)(A)(ii)(I) of the Act,
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Commission designated a longer period within which to approve the proposed rule change, disapprove the proposed rule change, or institute proceedings to determine whether to approve or disapprove the proposed rule change.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On April 13, 2026, the Exchange filed Amendment No. 1 to the proposed rule change, which superseded and replaced the initial proposal in its entirety.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On May 18, 2026, the Commission published Amendment No. 1 for comment in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     and instituted proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act to determine whether to approve or disapprove the proposed rule change.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On May 15, 2026, the Exchange filed partial Amendment No. 2.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission received no comments on the proposed rule change. The Commission is publishing this Notice and Order to solicit comment on partial Amendment No. 2, and to approve the proposed rule change, as superseded by Amendment No. 1 and modified by partial Amendment No. 2 (“Amended Proposal”), on an accelerated basis.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 104807 (Feb. 10, 2026), 91 FR 6966.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)(A)(ii)(I).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 105077, 90 FR 15659 (March 30, 2026). The Commission designated May 14, 2026 as the date by which the Commission shall approve or disapprove, or institute proceedings to determine whether to approve or disapprove, the proposed rule change.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Amendment No. 1, 
                        <E T="03">available at:</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/comments/sr-cboe-2026-016/srcboe2026016-748767-2315874.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 105479 (May 13, 2026), 91 FR 28705 (SR-CBOE-2026-016) (“Am. No. 1 Notice/OIP”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Amendment No. 2, 
                        <E T="03">available at:</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/comments/SR-CBOE-2026-016/srcboe2026016-779287-2374674.pdf</E>
                         (“Am. 2”). In Amendment No. 2, the Exchange provides additional information and analysis to support the proposed rule change but does not propose any substantive changes to the proposal. Specifically, Amendment No 2: (i) clarifies that the priority overlays for DPMs set forth in Cboe Rule (“Rule”) 5.32(a)(2), including the participation and small-size order entitlements, will apply to Global Trading Hours (“GTH”) and Curb Trading Hours (“Curb”) sessions as they do in Regular Trading Hours (“RTH”) sessions; (ii) further explains the proposal to apply DPM participation entitlements during GTH and Curb sessions; and (iii) corrects a description of Market-Maker obligations to provide continuous electronic quotes in 60% of the series of the Market-Maker's appointed classes (subject to certain exclusions) for 90% of the time the Market-Maker is required to provide electronic quotes in an appointed class on a given trading day, and adds context regarding these obligations.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">
                    II. Description of the Amended Proposal 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </HD>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         For additional detail and Exchange justification regarding the Amended Proposal, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         Amendment Nos. 1 and 2, 
                        <E T="03">infra</E>
                         notes 6-8.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    A Designated Primary Market-Maker (“DPM”) is a Trading Permit Holder (“TPH”) that is approved by the Exchange to function in appointed securities as a Market-Maker.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange currently operates three trading sessions—RTH,
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     GTH,
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Curb 
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    —but appoints DPMs only to the RTH session. The Amended Proposal sets forth interconnected rule changes regarding Exchange flexibility to make DPM appointments for any of the trading sessions that occur on the Exchange, and the applicability of DPM quoting obligations and priority overlays to DPMs appointed to more than one trading session.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 1.1 (definition of DPM).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         RTH occurs from 9:30 a.m. to 4:00 p.m. or 4:15 p.m. ET, depending on the specific security, Monday through Friday. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.1(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         The GTH session for exclusively listed index option occurs from 8:15 p.m. to 9:25 a.m. the next day, Monday through Friday, and a GTH session for multi-listed equity options is permitted to occur from 7:30 a.m. to 9:25 a.m. Monday through Friday. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.1(c).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         The Curb session for exclusively listed index option occurs from 4:15 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. Monday through Friday, and a Curb session for multi-listed equity options is permitted to occur from 4:00 p.m. to 4:15 p.m. Monday through Friday. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.1(d).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         The Exchange also has proposed two administrative amendments to Rule 5.50. First, the Exchange has proposed to amend Rule 5.50(b) to remove the specific deadlines therein for submission of Market-Maker appointment requests, relocate them to the Exchange's technical specifications, and state in the amended rule that such deadlines will be specified by the Exchange. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Rule 5.50(b); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         Am. 1 Notice/OIP, 91 FR at 28709. Second, the Exchange has proposed to amend Rule 5.50(l) to return language to the provision that was inadvertently removed previously, such that the amended rule would state that if the Exchange determines to list SPX or VIX on a group basis, it will have the authority to change the eligible categories of Market-Maker participants for each group. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Rule 5.50(l).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Specifically, under the Amended Proposal, the Exchange would be permitted to appoint a DPM in a class for any trading session that occurs on the Exchange, as well as appoint the same or a different DPM in a class across trading sessions.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange would apply to GTH and Curb sessions the DPM continuous quoting obligations that currently apply during RTH.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In particular, a DPM would be required to provide continuous electronic quotes 90% of the time in its appointed classes during its appointed trading sessions, as measured in the aggregate across its appointed classes and trading sessions.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Further, the Exchange could apply DPM priority overlays—namely, the participation and small-size order entitlements—to the GTH and/or Curb sessions, in addition to RTH, if a DPM quotes at the top of the book.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Rules 1.1 and 3.53; 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         Am. 1 Notice/OIP, 91 FR at 28706. Relatedly, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule 1.1 to account for the facts that the Exchange floor operates only during RTH, and the GTH and Curb sessions are electronic only. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Rule 1.1. The proposal also would allow the Exchange to permit trading to occur in a GTH or Curb session when there is no DPM for such session(s) due to resignation, termination or otherwise. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Rule 3.53(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Rule 5.54.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.;</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         Am. 1 Notice/OIP, 91 FR at 28707. The DPM would continue to be required to provide continuous electronic quotes 90% of the time in at least the lesser of 99% of the non-adjusted option series or 100% of the non-adjusted option series minus one call-put pair. In addition, the DPM would continue to be required to assure that its disseminated market quotations are accurate. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Rule 5.54.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Rule 5.32(a)(2)(B). Cboe rules currently permit the Exchange to determine what allocation algorithm and priority overlays it may apply to RTH, GTH, and Curb, with the exception of the DPM participation entitlement. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Am. 2 at 4; 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         current Rule 5.32(a)(2)(B)(iv). The DPM participation entitlement is explicitly excluded from GTH and Curb sessions pursuant to Rule 5.32(a)(2)(B)(iv); however, Exchange rules do not include the same prohibition for other priority overlays, including the small-size order entitlement. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Am. 2 at 4. The proposed rule change would amend Rule 5.32(a)(2)(B)(iv) to state that the DPM participation entitlement may apply during all sessions.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion and Commission Findings</HD>
                <P>
                    After careful review, the Commission finds that the Amended Proposal is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39153"/>
                    securities exchange.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In particular, the Commission finds that the Amended Proposal is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which requires, among other things, that a proposed rule change be designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, to protect investors and the public interest, and not be designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers; and Section (b)(8) of the Act,
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which requires that a proposed rule change not impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         In approving this proposed rule change, the Commission has considered the proposed rule's impact on efficiency, competition, and capital formation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         15 U.S.C. 78c(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(8).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Amended Proposal is reasonably designed to incentivize DPM participation in the extended trading hours sessions for which they are appointed and help promote active, liquid markets during the Exchange's extended trading hours sessions, consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest. At the same time, the Amended Proposal would provide flexibility as to how DPMs appointed in multiple trading sessions may satisfy their quoting obligations, such as if trading activity is less in one particular session compared to another, which would foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in facilitating securities transactions.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, the proposed application of the DPM continuous quoting obligation represents an extension to DPMs of functionality that already exists for Market-Makers on the Exchange, as they may be appointed in classes during the GTH and Curb trading sessions (in addition to RTH) and must provide continuous electronic quotes 90% of the time in the aggregate across their appointed classes and trading sessions.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         In a similar vein, the proposed relocation to the Exchange's technical specifications of deadlines for Market-Maker appointment requests is reasonably designed to provide the Exchange with flexibility to adjust the deadlines quicker and react to future advancements in technology that may allow the Exchange to provide more time to Market-Makers to submit appointment requests.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.52(d)(2)(E); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         Am. No.1 Notice/OIP, 91 FR at 28707. Similar to a DPM, a Market-Maker must provide continuous electronic quotes quote 90% of the time but, unlike a DPM, a Market-Maker must do so in 60% of the series in their appointed classes, subject to certain exclusions. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.52(d)(2); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         Am. No. 2 at 5-6.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    A potential implication of the Amended Proposal is that a DPM appointed in multiple trading sessions could receive a priority overlay during a particular session (by quoting at the top of the book during that session) even if the DPM does not meet its continuous quoting obligations during that particular session (so long as the DPM satisfies those obligations in the aggregate across its appointed trading sessions and classes). For example, under the Amended Proposal, a DPM appointed to multiple trading sessions could potentially receive a priority overlay during RTH (by quoting at the top of the book) while submitting continuous electronic quotes less than 90% of the time during RTH across its appointed classes, so long as the DPM quotes sufficiently during the other sessions to which its appointed such that it meets it quoting obligation in the aggregate.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Am. No. 1 Notice/OIP, 91 FR at 28707-08.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange states that it does not believe that applying priority overlays across trading sessions will result in a reduction in DPM quoting activity during the RTH session because it expects liquidity and demand to remain at their highest during RTH.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Indeed, the Exchange has observed that trading characteristics during RTH are typically different than those during extended hours trading sessions in that extended sessions have lower trading levels, reduced liquidity, and fewer participants. The Exchange therefore does not believe that determining compliance with quotation obligations across trading sessions will result in less liquidity in RTH; to the contrary, the Exchange anticipates that DPMs may utilize quoting activity in RTH to meet any shortfalls in quoting obligations that a DPM may experience in GTH or Curb.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Moreover, the Exchange has observed that the majority of Market-Makers quoting in multiple sessions would satisfy quoting requirements if measured on a per session basis.
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, DPMs must still satisfy obligations set forth in Rule 5.54 in all trading sessions, including to make competitive markets. Further, the Exchange states that it will monitor DPM activity to verify compliance with quoting obligations, that it may conduct a review of a DPM's performance at any time,
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and that, if warranted, it will impose penalties or issue fines to DPMs that do not fulfill their obligations.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                         at 28708.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Am. No. 2 at 6.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Amendment No. 1 Notice/OIP, 91 FR at 28708-09. The Exchange states that it currently conducts regular reviews of DPM performance, and that the Exchange would expand these reviews to include GTH and Curb. 
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange thus has in place safeguards that should enable it to ensure appropriate DPM quoting activity under the proposal, consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, the Amended Proposal is designed to extend to DPMs appointed to multiple trading sessions a balance of obligations and benefits that is appropriate and similar to what applies to DPMs appointed to RTH currently, and that is not designed to permit unfair discrimination, consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and that would not impose an undue burden on competition, consistent with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act.
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For the foregoing reasons, the Commission finds that the Amended Proposal is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(8). Further, the proposed administrative changes to Rule 5.50 do not raise any novel regulatory issues, and are designed to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments on Partial Amendment No. 2 to the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning whether the Amended Proposal is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-CBOE-2026-016 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <P>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-CBOE-2026-016 on the subject line. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39154"/>
                    and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-CBOE-2026-016 on the subject line, and should be submitted on or before July 20, 2026.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Accelerated Approval of Amended Proposal, as Modified by Partial Amendment No. 2</HD>
                <P>
                    The Commission finds good cause to approve the Amended Proposal prior to the 30th day after the date of publication of Amendment No. 2 in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Amendment No. 2 sets forth additional representations and support for the Amended Proposal without proposing any substantive changes from Amendment No. 1 to the proposal, which superseded the initial proposal in its entirety.
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Thus, the Commission finds that Amendment No. 2 raises no novel regulatory issues that have not previously been subject to comment, and is reasonably designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to protect investors and the public interest, and not designed to permit unfair discrimination or impose an unnecessary or inappropriate burden on competition. Accordingly, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
                    <SU>34</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Commission finds good cause to approve the Amended Proposal on an accelerated basis prior to the 30th day after publication of notice of the filing of Amendment No. 2 in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         note 8, 
                        <E T="03">supra; see</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">also</E>
                         Am. No. 1 Notice/OIP; Am. No. 2.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Conclusion</HD>
                <P>
                    It is therefore ordered, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
                    <SU>35</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     that the proposed rule  change (SR-CBOE-2026-016), as superseded by Amendment No. 1 and modified by partial Amendment No. 2, be, and hereby is, approved on an accelerated basis.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>36</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>36</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13014 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">TIME AND DATE: </HD>
                    <P>1:00 p.m. on Thursday, July 9, 2026.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PLACE: </HD>
                    <P>The meeting will be held via remote means and at the Commission's headquarters, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">STATUS: </HD>
                    <P>This meeting will be closed to the public.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">MATTERS TO BE CONSIDERED: </HD>
                    <P>Commissioners, Counsel to the Commissioners, the Secretary to the Commission, and recording secretaries will attend the closed meeting. Certain staff members who have an interest in the matters also may be present.</P>
                    <P>
                        In the event that the time, date, or location of this meeting changes, an announcement of the change, along with the new time, date, and/or place of the meeting will be posted on the Commission's website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>The General Counsel of the Commission, or his designee, has certified that, in his opinion, one or more of the exemptions set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(3), (5), (6), (7), (8), 9(B) and (10) and 17 CFR 200.402(a)(3), (a)(5), (a)(6), (a)(7), (a)(8), (a)(9)(ii) and (a)(10), permit consideration of the scheduled matters at the closed meeting.</P>
                    <P>The subject matter of the closed meeting will consist of the following topics:</P>
                    <P>Institution and settlement of injunctive actions;</P>
                    <P>Institution and settlement of administrative proceedings;</P>
                    <P>Resolution of litigation claims; and</P>
                    <P>Other matters relating to examinations and enforcement proceedings.</P>
                    <P>At times, changes in Commission priorities require alterations in the scheduling of meeting agenda items that may consist of adjudicatory, examination, litigation, or regulatory matters.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">CONTACT PERSON FOR MORE INFORMATION: </HD>
                    <P>For further information, please contact Vanessa A. Countryman from the Office of the Secretary at (202) 551-5400.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                         5 U.S.C. 552b.
                    </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: June 25, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Vanessa A. Countryman, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13082 Filed 6-25-26; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105769; File No. SR-MRX-2026-29]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq MRX, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule General 8 Connectivity To Establish Fees for Its TNO Cross-Connect Service</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>June 24, 2026.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    , and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on June 11, 2026, Nasdaq MRX, LLC (“MRX” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III, below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8 (Connectivity) to establish fees for its TNO Cross-Connect service, as described further below.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://listingcenter.nasdaq.com/rulebook/mrx/rulefilings,</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
                    <PRTPAGE P="39155"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8 (Connectivity) to establish fees for its TNO Cross-Connect service.</P>
                <P>TNO Cross-Connect is a telecommunications network operator (“TNO” or “telco”) connectivity service that consists of the cabling running from a TNO's carrier cabinet to a Nasdaq-managed distribution point within the Exchange's data center campus. The TNO Cross-Connect service constitutes a defined and Nasdaq-managed component of the telco to customer connectivity path and serves as a standardized point of access for TNO connectivity inside the Exchange's data center.</P>
                <P>
                    In its proposal introducing TNO Cross-Connect as a connectivity offering,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Exchange noted that it would submit a separate rule filing to establish fees for the TNO Cross-Connect service. This proposed rule change establishes fees for the service.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 105013 (Mar. 16, 2026), 91 FR 13373 (Mar. 19, 2026) (SR-MRX-2026-08) (“TNO Cross-Connect Proposal”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Specifically, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8, Section 1(b) to establish an installation fee and an ongoing monthly fee for its TNO Cross-Connect service.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed installation fee is $550 and the proposed ongoing monthly fee is $385.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         For purposes of this proposal, each telco provider-to-customer cross-connection would constitute a TNO Cross-Connect subject to the fees herein proposed. For example, if a telco provider provides three separate cross-connects for a single customer, each such telco-to-customer cross connect would constitute a TNO Cross Connect subject to the installation and ongoing monthly fees proposed herein.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         To effectuate this change, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule General 8, Section 1(b) to delete the acronym “TBD” in all instances where it appears in connection with the installation and ongoing monthly fee for the TNO Cross-Connect service and substitute therefor the corresponding installation fee of $550 and ongoing monthly fee of $385, as proposed. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Rule General 8, Section 1(b). Upon implementation of the proposed rule change on or about the third quarter of 2026, the Exchange will charge the proposed installation fee only to telco providers who submit new orders for installation of TNO Cross-Connect. Such telco providers will also be subject to the proposed recurring monthly fee. The Exchange will not, however, charge the installation fee to telco providers for whom the TNO Cross-Connect has already been installed as of that implementation date. Such telco providers will, however, be assessed the ongoing monthly fee starting on the date the proposed offering is implemented by the Exchange. The Exchange does not currently charge telco providers any fee—whether an installation fee, monthly fee, or otherwise—for the proposed connectivity service and will continue not to do so until the proposed service is implemented.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that establishing fees for TNO Cross-Connect is appropriate and reasonable because the service entails Exchange-provided and Exchange-managed infrastructure, cabling, inventory management, ongoing maintenance, and operational oversight. The fees also reflect the resources required for the Exchange to implement, administer, monitor, and support the service on a non-discriminatory basis for all TNOs.</P>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to implement the proposed changes during the third quarter of 2026 on or about July 1, 2026. The Exchange will announce the specific implementation date via Nasdaq's customer portal.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Sections 6(b)(4) and 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, in that it provides for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees and other charges among members and issuers and other persons using any facility, and is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4) and (5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed fees for TNO Cross-Connect are reasonable because they reflect the Exchange's provision, operation, maintenance, and oversight of a defined, Exchange-managed telecommunications connectivity component that is required for TNOs seeking to provide services to Nasdaq data center customers. As described in the TNO Cross-Connect Proposal, the Exchange administers and manages the cabling, demarcation points, inventory, and ongoing operational support associated with this connectivity path.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange further believes that the proposed fees are reasonable because they are comparable to, and lower than, fees charged by another national securities exchange for a similar telecommunications carrier connectivity service. Specifically, NYSE offers a Carrier Connection Fee service 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     for a recurring monthly charge of $1,150.00 per connection, while the Exchange proposes an ongoing monthly fee of $385.00 for TNO Cross-Connect. The Exchange's proposed monthly fee is therefore $765.00 lower than NYSE's comparable monthly fee, or approximately 66.5% lower. In addition, even including the Exchange's proposed one-time installation fee of $550, the total first-month cost of the Exchange's service would be $935, which remains below NYSE's $1,150 recurring monthly charge.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         The New York Stock Exchange LLC, Connectivity Fee Schedule (Mar. 27, 2026), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nyse.com/publicdocs/nyse/Wireless_Connectivity_Fees_and_Charges.pdf</E>
                         (setting forth a recurring monthly charge of $1,150.00 per connection for the Carrier Connection Fee service). To the best of the Exchange's knowledge, the NYSE offering is comparable to the proposed TNO Cross-Connect. Specifically, the Exchange believes that the NYSE recurring charge of $1,150 per connection for its Carrier Connection Fee is a service priced on a per telco-provider-to-customer connection basis, such that if a telco provider has multiple connections to a customer, each such connection would be assessed the recurring $1,150 per connection ongoing monthly fee. The Exchange is aware of no bundling or other incentive-based pricing for such NYSE service.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed fees represent an equitable allocation and are not unfairly discriminatory because they apply uniformly to all telecommunications network operators that provide services to Nasdaq colocation customers. All TNOs seeking to connect to customers within the Exchange's data center campus are subject to the same service requirements and the same fees for TNO Cross-Connect. As the Exchange discussed in the TNO Cross-Connect Proposal,
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     all TNOs seeking to offer their services to Exchange customers must use the connectivity offered by TNO Cross-Connect. The Exchange does not differentiate among TNOs based on size, affiliation, volume, or any other characteristic. The proposed fees therefore allocate charges fairly among similarly situated persons using the Exchange's facilities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         TNO Cross-Connect Proposal, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes that the proposed fees will not impose an undue burden on intramarket competition because they apply uniformly to all telecommunications network operators seeking to provide services to Nasdaq data center customers. As described above, all TNOs that wish to serve Nasdaq customers must connect through TNO Cross-Connect, and the Exchange will charge the same installation and monthly fees to all such TNOs. The Exchange will not differentiate among TNOs based on size, affiliation, business model, or any other characteristic. Accordingly, the proposed fees do not favor or disadvantage any particular TNO relative to another, but instead 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39156"/>
                    apply equally to all similarly situated users of the Exchange's facilities.
                </P>
                <P>The Exchange also believes that the proposed fees will not impose an undue burden on intermarket competition. The proposed fees are for a telecommunications connectivity service offered within the Exchange's data center campus and reflect the Exchange's provision, management, and support of that service. In addition, the proposed fees are comparable to, and in important respects lower than, the fees charged by another national securities exchange for a similar telecommunications carrier connectivity service. Specifically, NYSE offers a Carrier Connection Fee service for a recurring monthly charge of $1,150.00 per connection, while the Exchange proposes an ongoing monthly fee of $385.00 for TNO Cross-Connect. The Exchange's proposed monthly fee is therefore $765.00 lower than NYSE's comparable monthly fee, or approximately 66.5% lower. Even including the Exchange's proposed one-time installation fee of $550, the total first-month cost of the Exchange's service would be $935, which remains below NYSE's $1,150 recurring monthly charge. The Exchange therefore does not believe that the proposed fees will impose any inappropriate burden on competition among exchanges.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were either solicited or received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-MRX-2026-29 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-MRX-2026-29. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-MRX-2026-29 and should be submitted on or before July 20, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13020 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105756; File No. SR-NYSE-2026-31]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Connectivity Fee Schedule</SUBJECT>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>June 24, 2026.</P>
                    <P>
                        Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) 
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         notice is hereby given that on June 17, 2026, New York Stock Exchange LLC (“NYSE” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the self-regulatory organization. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 78a.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                </DATES>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend the Connectivity Fee Schedule (“Fee Schedule”) to delete the currently-filed “Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb” service as obsolete. The Exchange also proposes to clarify to which access centers the 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits connect. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.nyse.com</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedule to delete the currently-filed “Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb” service as obsolete. The Exchange also proposes to clarify to which access centers the 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits connect.</P>
                <P>
                    In 2023, the Exchange filed to amend the Fee Schedule to add several “FIDS Circuits” available to Users 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     at the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39157"/>
                    Mahwah, New Jersey data center (“MDC”),
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     including “Optic Access” circuits in 1 Gb, 10 Gb, and 40 Gb sizes.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         For purposes of the Exchange's colocation services, a “User” means any market participant that requests to receive colocation services directly from the Exchange. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 76008 (September 29, 2015), 80 FR 60190 (October 5, 2015) (SR-NYSE-2015-40). As 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        specified in the Fee Schedule, a User that incurs colocation fees for a particular colocation service pursuant thereto would not be subject to colocation fees for the same colocation service charged by NYSE American LLC, NYSE Arca, Inc., NYSE National, Inc. and NYSE Texas, Inc. (together, the “Affiliate SROs”). Each Affiliate SRO has submitted substantially the same proposed rule change to propose the change described herein.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Through its Fixed Income and Data Services (“FIDS”) business, Intercontinental Exchange, Inc. (“ICE”) operates the MDC. The Exchange and the Affiliate SROs are indirect subsidiaries of ICE.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 99165 (December 13, 2023), 88 FR 87832 (December 19, 2023) (SR-NYSE-2023-48).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to eliminate the “Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb” service as obsolete. Currently, no Users have the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb, and the Exchange understands that FIDS does not expect that any Users will acquire a 1 Gb Optic Access circuit.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         In 2024 the Optic Low Latency Circuit—1 Gb was deleted as obsolete. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 101248 (October 4, 2024), 89 FR 82281 (October 10, 2024) (SR-NYSE-2024-61).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>To implement the change, the Exchange proposes to amend the chart under “E. FIDS Circuits” in the Fee Schedule to eliminate the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb, as follows (deleted text bracketed):</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,r50">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Type of service</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Fees</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">[Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            $1,500 initial charge plus.
                            <LI>$650 monthly charge].</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    The Exchange also proposes to clarify the list of FIDS access centers to which the remaining 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits may connect. In its filing to add “Optic Access” circuits to the Fee Schedule,
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Exchange stated that Optic Access circuits could connect between the MDC and FIDS access centers at five third-party owned data centers. The Exchange proposes to clarify that the 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits will no longer connect to (1) 111 Eighth Avenue, New York, NY; (2) 32 Avenue of the Americas, New York, NY; or (3) 165 Halsey, Newark, NJ (the three together, the “Obsolete Access Centers”).
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         88 FR 87832, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 6, at 87833.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         The remaining third party access centers to which Optic Access would connect are in Secaucus and Carteret, New Jersey.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Currently, no Users have Optic Access circuits between the MDC and any of the three Obsolete Access Centers. The Exchange understands that FIDS does not expect that any Users will seek to connect to the Obsolete Access Centers from the MDC.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Application and Impact of the Proposed Changes</HD>
                <P>The proposed change is not targeted at, or expected to be limited in applicability to, a specific segment of market participant. The proposed changes do not apply differently to distinct types or sizes of customers. Rather, they apply to all customers equally.</P>
                <P>No Users have either (a) the Optic Access Circuit -1 Gb or (b) an Optic Access circuit between the MDC and an Obsolete Access Center. The Exchange understands that FIDS does not expect that any Users would require the services. Accordingly, no Users would be impacted by the proposed change.</P>
                <P>
                    As is currently true, the 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits would be available for purchase for any potential User requiring a circuit between the MDC and the FIDS access centers in the Secaucus Access Center or Carteret Access Center, as well as the other circuits offered by FIDS or the circuits offered by the 17 third-party telecommunications service providers that have installed their equipment in the MDC's two meet-me-rooms (“Telecoms”).
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Use of services in this filing are completely voluntary and available to all market participants on a non-discriminatory basis.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         Telecoms are licensed by the Federal Communications Commission and are not required to be, or be affiliated with, a member of the Exchange or an Affiliate SRO.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The proposed changes are not otherwise intended to address any other issues relating to services related to the MDC and/or related fees, and the Exchange is not aware of any problems that market participants would have in complying with the proposed change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, because it is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest and because it is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that discontinuing offering the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb and clarifying that the Optic Access Circuits are not available in the Obsolete Access Centers would perfect the mechanisms of a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, protect investors and the public interest. Demand for such connections is non-existent and there are currently no Users that subscribe to the services. The Exchange does not expect demand to rebound given that FIDS does not expect to acquire any customers for these services and FIDS understands that Users do not wish to connect to the Obsolete Access Centers from the MDC.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes that removing references to the fees for the obsolete Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb from the Fee Schedule would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because they would make the Fee Schedule easier to read, understand, and administer.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change does not significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest. No Users have the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb or use an Optic Access Circuit connection to the Obsolete Access Centers. The proposed rule change would delete an obsolete service from the Fee Schedule, which would enhance transparency and alleviate potential customer confusion.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes that removing this obsolete service from the Fee Schedule and changing the description of the remaining Optic Access circuits would not permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers. The proposed changes would apply equally to all Users.</P>
                <P>For these reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposal will not impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of Section 6(b)(8) of the Act.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed rule change is not designed to address any competitive issues but rather is designed to enhance the clarity and transparency of the Fee Schedule and alleviate possible 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39158"/>
                    customer confusion that may arise from the inclusion of obsolete services
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(8).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act 
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) thereunder.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because the proposed rule change does not: (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative prior to 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, if consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest, the proposed rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act and Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii) thereunder.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6). In addition, Rule 19b-4(f)(6) requires a self-regulatory organization to give the Commission written notice of its intent to file the proposed rule change, along with a brief description and text of the proposed rule change, at least five business days prior to the date of filing of the proposed rule change, or such shorter time as designated by the Commission. The Exchange has satisfied this requirement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6) 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     normally does not become operative prior to 30 days after the date of the filing. However, pursuant to Rule 19b4(f)(6)(iii),
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Commission may designate a shorter time if such action is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B) 
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Act to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-NYSE-2026-31 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSE-2026-31. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSE-2026-31 and should be submitted on or before July 20, 2026.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13008 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-105757; File No. SR-NYSEAMER-2026-53]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE American LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Connectivity Fee Schedule</SUBJECT>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>June 24, 2026.</P>
                    <P>
                        Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) 
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         notice is hereby given that on June 17, 2026, NYSE American LLC (“NYSE American” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the self-regulatory organization. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1)
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 78a.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                </DATES>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend the Connectivity Fee Schedule (“Fee Schedule”) to delete the currently-filed “Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb” service as obsolete. The Exchange also proposes to clarify to which access centers the 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits connect. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.nyse.com</E>
                     and at the principal office of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and the Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedule to delete the currently-filed “Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb” service as obsolete. The Exchange also proposes to clarify to which access centers the 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits connect.</P>
                <P>
                    In 2023, the Exchange filed to amend the Fee Schedule to add several “FIDS Circuits” available to Users 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     at the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39159"/>
                    Mahwah, New Jersey data center (“MDC”),
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     including “Optic Access” circuits in 1 Gb, 10 Gb, and 40 Gb sizes.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         For purposes of the Exchange's colocation services, a “User” means any market participant 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        that requests to receive colocation services directly from the Exchange. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 76009 (September 29, 2015), 80 FR 60213 (October 5, 2015) (SR-NYSEMKT-2015-67). As specified in the Fee Schedule, a User that incurs colocation fees for a particular colocation service pursuant thereto would not be subject to colocation fees for the same colocation service charged by the New York Stock Exchange LLC, NYSE Arca, Inc., NYSE National, Inc. and NYSE Texas, Inc. (together, the “Affiliate SROs”). Each Affiliate SRO has submitted substantially the same proposed rule change to propose the change described herein.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Through its Fixed Income and Data Services (“FIDS”) business, Intercontinental Exchange, Inc. (“ICE”) operates the MDC. The Exchange and the Affiliate SROs are indirect subsidiaries of ICE.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 99179 (December 14, 2023), 88 FR 88155 (December 20, 2023) (SR-NYSEAMER-2023-65).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to eliminate the “Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb” service as obsolete. Currently, no Users have the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb, and the Exchange understands that FIDS does not expect that any Users will acquire a 1 Gb Optic Access circuit.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         In 2024 the Optic Low Latency Circuit—1 Gb was deleted as obsolete. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 101249 (October 4, 2024), 89 FR 82272 (October 10, 2024) (SR-NYSEAMER-2024-59).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>To implement the change, the Exchange proposes to amend the chart under “E. FIDS Circuits” in the Fee Schedule to eliminate the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb, as follows (deleted text bracketed):</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,r50">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Type of service</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Fees</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">[Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            $1,500 initial charge plus.
                            <LI>$650 monthly charge.]</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    The Exchange also proposes to clarify the list of FIDS access centers to which the remaining 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits may connect. In its filing to add “Optic Access” circuits to the Fee Schedule,
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Exchange stated that Optic Access circuits could connect between the MDC and FIDS access centers at five third-party owned data centers. The Exchange proposes to clarify that the 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits will no longer connect to (1) 111 Eighth Avenue, New York, NY; (2) 32 Avenue of the Americas, New York, NY; or (3) 165 Halsey, Newark, NJ (the three together, the “Obsolete Access Centers”).
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         88 FR 88155, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 6, at 88156.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         The remaining third party access centers to which Optic Access would connect are in Secaucus and Carteret, New Jersey.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Currently, no Users have Optic Access circuits between the MDC and any of the three Obsolete Access Centers. The Exchange understands that FIDS does not expect that any Users will seek to connect to the Obsolete Access Centers from the MDC.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Application and Impact of the Proposed Changes</HD>
                <P>The proposed change is not targeted at, or expected to be limited in applicability to, a specific segment of market participant. The proposed changes do not apply differently to distinct types or sizes of customers. Rather, they apply to all customers equally.</P>
                <P>No Users have either (a) the Optic Access Circuit -1 Gb or (b) an Optic Access circuit between the MDC and an Obsolete Access Center. The Exchange understands that FIDS does not expect that any Users would require the services. Accordingly, no Users would be impacted by the proposed change.</P>
                <P>
                    As is currently true, the 10 Gb and 40 Gb Optic Access circuits would be available for purchase for any potential User requiring a circuit between the MDC and the FIDS access centers in the Secaucus Access Center or Carteret Access Center, as well as the other circuits offered by FIDS or the circuits offered by the 17 third-party telecommunications service providers that have installed their equipment in the MDC's two meet-me-rooms (“Telecoms”).
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Use of services in this filing are completely voluntary and available to all market participants on a non-discriminatory basis.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         Telecoms are licensed by the Federal Communications Commission and are not required to be, or be affiliated with, a member of the Exchange or an Affiliate SRO.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The proposed changes are not otherwise intended to address any other issues relating to services related to the MDC and/or related fees, and the Exchange is not aware of any problems that market participants would have in complying with the proposed change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, because it is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest and because it is not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that discontinuing offering the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb and clarifying that the Optic Access Circuits are not available in the Obsolete Access Centers would perfect the mechanisms of a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, protect investors and the public interest. Demand for such connections is non-existent and there are currently no Users that subscribe to the services. The Exchange does not expect demand to rebound given that FIDS does not expect to acquire any customers for these services and FIDS understands that Users do not wish to connect to the Obsolete Access Centers from the MDC.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes that removing references to the fees for the obsolete Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb from the Fee Schedule would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because they would make the Fee Schedule easier to read, understand, and administer.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change does not significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest. No Users have the Optic Access Circuit—1 Gb or use an Optic Access Circuit connection to the Obsolete Access Centers. The proposed rule change would delete an obsolete service from the Fee Schedule, which would enhance transparency and alleviate potential customer confusion.</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes that removing this obsolete service from the Fee Schedule and changing the description of the remaining Optic Access circuits would not permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers. The proposed changes would apply equally to all Users.</P>
                <P>For these reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposal will not impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of Section 6(b)(8) of the Act.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed rule change is not designed to address any competitive issues but rather is designed to enhance the clarity and transparency of the Fee 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39160"/>
                    Schedule and alleviate possible customer confusion that may arise from the inclusion of obsolete services.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(8).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act 
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) thereunder.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because the proposed rule change does not: (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative prior to 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, if consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest, the proposed rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act and Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii) thereunder.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6). In addition, Rule 19b-4(f)(6) requires a self-regulatory organization to give the Commission written notice of its intent to file the proposed rule change, along with a brief description and text of the proposed rule change, at least five business days prior to the date of filing of the proposed rule change, or such shorter time as designated by the Commission. The Exchange has satisfied this requirement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6) 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     normally does not become operative prior to 30 days after the date of the filing. However, pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii),
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Commission may designate a shorter time if such action is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B) 
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Act to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-NYSEAMER-2026-53 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <P>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSEAMER-2026-53. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the filing will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSEAMER-2026-53 and should be submitted on or before July 20, 2026.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13009 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice: 13050]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Determinations; Culturally Significant Objects Being Imported for Exhibition—Determinations: “Across Wine-Dark Seas: Art and Identity Beyond Ancient Greece” Exhibition</SUBJECT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that certain objects being imported from abroad pursuant to agreements with their foreign owners or custodians for temporary display in the exhibition “Across Wine-Dark Seas: Art and Identity Beyond Ancient Greece” at The Metropolitan Museum of Art, New York, New York, and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, are of cultural significance, and, further, that their temporary exhibition or display within the United States as aforementioned is in the national interest. I have ordered that Public Notice of these determinations be published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Reed Liriano, Program Coordinator, Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email: 
                        <E T="03">section2459@state.gov</E>
                        ). The mailing address is U.S. Department of State, L/PD, 2200 C Street NW (SA-5), Suite 5H03, Washington, DC 20522-0505.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), Executive Order 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                     22 U.S.C. 6501 note, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), Delegation of Authority No. 234 of October 1, 1999, Delegation of Authority No. 236-3 of August 28, 2000, and Delegation of Authority No. 523 of December 22, 2021.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sherry C. Keneson-Hall,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary for Educational and Cultural Affairs, Bureau of Educational and Cultural Affairs, Department of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13025 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-05-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="39161"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2026-7360]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Requests for Comments; Clearance for Renewal of Information Collection: Privacy International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Address</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, FAA invites public comments about our intention to request the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for an information collection renewal. The collection involves an aircraft operator's request for a privacy ICAO address through a web-based application process. The information to be collected is necessary to qualify for the authorized use of the privacy ICAO address services and for monitoring to support continued airworthiness and enforcement activities.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments should be submitted by 25 August 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Please send written comments:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">By Electronic Docket: www.regulations.gov</E>
                         (Enter docket number into search field).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">By mail:</E>
                         Send comments to FAA at the following address: Mr. Evan Setzer, Program Manager, Surveillance and Broadcast Services, AJM-42, Program Management Organization, Federal Aviation Administration, 600 Independence Ave. SW, Wilbur Wright Building, Washington, DC 20597.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">By fax:</E>
                         202-267-1277 (Attention: Mr. Evan Setzer, Program Manager, Surveillance and Broadcast Services, AJM-42, Program Management Organization, Federal Aviation Administration).
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For technical questions concerning this action, contact Mr. Jamal A. Wilson, Surveillance and Broadcast Services, AJM 42, PIA Program Manager at 
                        <E T="03">jamal.wilson@faa.gov</E>
                         or at (202) 267-4301.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>You are asked to comment on any aspect of this information collection, including (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for FAA's performance; (b) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (c) ways for FAA to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (d) ways that the burden could be minimized without reducing the quality of the collected information. The agency will summarize and/or include your comments in the request for OMB's clearance of this information collection renewal.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2120-0779.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Privacy International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Address Program.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Numbers:</E>
                     Not applicable.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Renewal of an information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Background:</E>
                     In 2010, the FAA issued a final rule mandating equipage requirements and performance standards for Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out avionics on aircraft operating in certain airspace after December 31, 2019. Aircraft operators must be equipped with ADS-B Out to fly in most controlled airspace. Federal Regulations 14 CFR 91.225 and 14 CFR 91.227 contain requirement details. Each registered aircraft is assigned an aircraft registration number and an ICAO 24-bit aircraft address. This is also referred to as a “Mode S Code” in some FAA documents and websites, including the FAA Aircraft Registry. Where a 1090- MHz Extended Squitter (1090ES) transponder is required for ADS-B Out compliance, this ICAO 24-bit aircraft address, based on current transponder avionics standards, is openly broadcasted on the 1090 MHz frequency in transponder replies and ADS-B messages. Subsequently, the nature of openly broadcasting makes the identity of the aircraft publicly available. Industry stakeholders have long suggested that FAA develop a process for aircraft operators who seek anonymity such that their aircraft movements and identity cannot be traced or seen by privately owned sensors that monitor the 1090 MHz frequency and combine this with other downlinked ADS-B and Mode S data being disseminated using the internet. The FAA intends to develop a process for operators who wish to mask their aircraft movements and identity for a period while flying within the sovereign airspace of the United States. Participation in the assignment of privacy ICAO Code addresses is voluntary. Only U.S. registered aircraft can be assigned a privacy ICAO aircraft address. No operator can use a privacy ICAO aircraft address for a U.S.-registered aircraft unless that operator is authorized to use a third-party flight identification for that same aircraft. No unique privacy ICAO address will be assigned to more than one U.S.-registered aircraft at any given time. Once approved, the operator will be assigned a privacy ICAO address. The operator will be required to notify the FAA when their avionics have been loaded with the assigned temporary ICAO 24-bit aircraft address. Owners and operators must verify that the ICAO 24-bit aircraft address (Mode S code) broadcast by their ADS-B equipment matches the assigned privacy ICAO address for their aircraft. Operators can verify what ICAO 24-bit aircraft address is being broadcast by their aircraft by visiting: 
                    <E T="03">https://adsbperformance.faa.gov/PAPRRequest.aspx.</E>
                     For monitoring privacy ICAO address use, the information will be downloaded by the FAA and entered into the FAA's ADS-B Performance Monitor [Docket No. FAA-2017-1194 published in 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , December 20, 2017, as Document Number: 2017-27202].
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Information Collected:</E>
                     Information collected by privacy ICAO address program includes aircraft registration number, permanent ICAO address, and aircraft owner's information to include phone number, email address, and physical address.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Intended for operators who seek anonymity such that their aircraft movements and identity cannot be easily traced or seen by privately owned sensors that monitor the 1090 MHz frequency. FAA estimates up to 15,000 respondents.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Frequency will be occasional based on specific scenarios. An operator can change privacy ICAO aircraft addresses, but no more often than once every 20 days. In the event real-world security concerns become evident, an operator can elect to change their PIA address sooner than 20 days.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Average Burden per Response:</E>
                     Approximately 15 minutes per application.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden:</E>
                     12,563 hours.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on June 25, 2026.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jamal A. Wilson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Privacy ICAO Address (PIA) Program Manager, In-Service Performance and Sustainment (AJM-4220), Federal Aviation Administration.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13035 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="39162"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of the Secretary of Transportation</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Beautifying Transportation Infrastructure Council; Public Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of the Secretary (OST), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of public meetings.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Office of the Secretary of Transportation (OST) announces the next public meeting of the Beautifying Transportation Infrastructure Council (Council) on July 29, 2026. This notice announces the date, time, and location of the virtual meeting, which will be open to the public. The purpose of the Council is to advise the Secretary of Transportation on enhancing the aesthetic value of our Nation's transportation systems.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The meeting will be held on July 29, 2026, beginning at 10:00 a.m. (EST) and ending at 2:30 p.m. (EST). The exact start and end times are subject to change; please monitor 
                        <E T="03">https://www.transportation.gov/beautifytransportation/meetings</E>
                         for the latest information.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Council will meet virtually. The public may join the meeting virtually, with information available on 
                        <E T="03">https://www.transportation.gov/beautifytransportation/meetings.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Council's Designated Federal Officer, Julianne Schwarzer, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Transportation Policy, Office of the Secretary, 
                        <E T="03">BeautifyTransportation@dot.gov</E>
                         or 617-999-9667.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>The U.S. Secretary of Transportation (Secretary) established the Council as a Federal Advisory Committee in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 5 U.S.C. Ch. 10) to advise the Secretary of Transportation on enhancing the aesthetic value of our Nation's transportation systems. The Council provides recommendations on policies, designs, and funding priorities that beautify transportation infrastructure, including highways, bridges, and transit hubs, while maintaining safety and efficiency.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agenda</HD>
                <P>At the meeting, the proposed agenda will cover the Call to Order, Official Statement of the Designated Federal Officer, Meeting Logistics, Opening Remarks, Committee Business, and Review of Next Steps. The agenda is subject to change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Participation</HD>
                <P>
                    The meeting will be open to the public through a virtual meeting. Registration for the meeting can be found here: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.transportation.gov/beautifytransportation/meetings.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Members of the public may submit comments to the Committee in advance, as well as any requests for an electronic meeting accommodation consistent with the relevant sections of the Rehabilitation Act, as amended, 29 U.S.C. 794, by contacting the individual listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this notice no later than July 23, 2026.
                </P>
                <P>All advance submissions will be reviewed by the Designated Federal Officer. If approved, advance submissions shall be circulated to the Council members for review prior to the meeting. All advance submissions will become part of the official record of the meeting.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     The Council is a discretionary advisory committee under the authority of the U.S. Department of Transportation and was established in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, 5 U.S.C. Ch. 10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Owen Morgan, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary for Transportation Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13075 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-9X-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of Foreign Assets Control</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of OFAC Sanctions Action</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is publishing the names of one or more persons that have been placed on OFAC's Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons List (SDN List) based on OFAC's determination that one or more applicable legal criteria were satisfied. All property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of these persons are blocked, and U.S. persons are generally prohibited from engaging in transactions with them.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This action was issued on May 19, 2026. See 
                        <E T="02">Supplementary Information</E>
                         for relevant dates.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        OFAC: Associate Director for Global Targeting, 202-622-2420; Assistant Director for Licensing, 202-622-2480; Assistant Director for Sanctions Compliance, 202-622-2490 or 
                        <E T="03">https://ofac.treasury.gov/contact-ofac.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Electronic Availability</HD>
                <P>
                    The SDN List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available on OFAC's website: 
                    <E T="03">https://ofac.treasury.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice of OFAC Action</HD>
                <P>On May 19, 2026, OFAC determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Individuals</HD>
                <P>1. AHMED, Sherif Ahmed Ewis (a.k.a. AMAR, Saif Aldeen), Turkey; DOB 03 Mar 1987; alt. DOB 03 Mar 1983; nationality Egypt; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224, as amended by Executive Order 13886; Passport A19586466 (Egypt) expires 21 Dec 2023; alt. Passport N010823022 (Syria); National ID No. 28703032200032 (Egypt) (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: HASM).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(A) of E.O. 13224 of September 23, 2001, “Blocking Property and Prohibiting Transactions With Persons Who Commit, Threaten To Commit, or Support Terrorism,” 66 FR 49079, 3 CFR, 2001 Comp., p. 786, as amended by Executive Order 13886 of September 9, 2019, “Modernizing Sanctions To Combat Terrorism,” 84 FR 48041, 3 CFR, 2019 Comp., p. 356 (E.O. 13224, as amended), for being directed by, or having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, HASM, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13224, as amended.</P>
                <P>2. AL-NAJJAR, Muhammad Jamal Hassan, Turkey; DOB 19 Jun 1988; nationality Palestinian; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224, as amended by Executive Order 13886; Passport 5799691 (Palestinian) expires 09 May 2028; National ID No. 801991969 (Palestinian) (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: HAMAS).</P>
                <P>
                    Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(C) of E.O. 13224, as amended, for having materially assisted, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39163"/>
                    sponsored, or provided financial, material, or technological support for, or goods or services to or in support of, HAMAS, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13224, as amended.
                </P>
                <P>3. MOGHNY, Karim Sayed Ahmed, Turkey; DOB 24 Aug 1974; nationality Turkey; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224, as amended by Executive Order 13886; Passport U21113393 (Turkey); alt. Passport U22175027 (Turkey); National ID No. 40262238872 (Turkey) (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: HAMAS; Linked To: HASM).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(C) of E.O. 13224, as amended, for having materially assisted, sponsored, or provided financial, material, or technological support for, or goods or services to or in support of, HASM, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13224, as amended.</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(A) of E.O. 13224, as amended, for being directed by, or having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, HAMAS, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13224, as amended.</P>
                <P>4. ABUKISHEK, Saif Hashim Kamel, Barcelona, Spain; DOB 13 Jun 1981; POB Nablus, West Bank; nationality Palestinian; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224, as amended by Executive Order 13886; Passport 3624406 (Palestinian) expires 21 Jan 2020; National ID No. 905632774 (Palestinian) (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: POPULAR CONFERENCE FOR PALESTINIANS ABROAD).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(E) of E.O. 13224, as amended, for being a leader or official of the POPULAR CONFERENCE FOR PALESTINIANS ABROAD, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13224, as amended.</P>
                <P>5. MAHFOUZ, Hisham Abu, Amman, Jordan; DOB 12 Mar 1961; POB Amman, Jordan; nationality Palestinian; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224, as amended by Executive Order 13886 (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: POPULAR CONFERENCE FOR PALESTINIANS ABROAD).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(E) of E.O. 13224, as amended, for being a leader or official of the POPULAR CONFERENCE FOR PALESTINIANS ABROAD, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13224, as amended.</P>
                <P>6. AUEDA, Jaldia Abubakra, Madrid, Spain; DOB 28 Feb 1967; nationality Spain; Gender Female; Secondary sanctions risk: section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224, as amended by Executive Order 13886; National ID No. 51449229T (Spain) (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: SAMIDOUN PALESTINIAN PRISONER SOLIDARITY NETWORK).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(E) of E.O. 13224, as amended, for being a leader or official of the SAMIDOUN PALESTINIAN PRISONER SOLIDARITY NETWORK, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13224, as amended.</P>
                <P>7. KHATIB, Mohammed, Belgium; DOB 13 Apr 1990; POB Lebanon; nationality Palestinian; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224, as amended by Executive Order 13886; Passport TA017352 (Belgium) expires 18 Jan 2019 (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: SAMIDOUN PALESTINIAN PRISONER SOLIDARITY NETWORK).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(E) of E.O. 13224, as amended, for being a leader or official of the SAMIDOUN PALESTINIAN PRISONER SOLIDARITY NETWORK, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13224, as amended.</P>
                <P>8. ABU RAS, Marwan Muhammad Ayish (a.k.a. ABU-RAS, Marwan Mohammed Ayesh), Gaza; DOB 12 Jul 1958; POB Gaza; nationality Palestinian; Gender Male; Secondary sanctions risk: section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224, as amended by Executive Order 13886 (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: HAMAS).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(A) of E.O. 13224, as amended, for being directed by, or having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, HAMAS, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13224, as amended.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Entity</HD>
                <P>1. THE PALESTINIAN SCHOLARS ASSOCIATION, Al-Katiba Street, Opposite the Civil Service Bureau, Gaza; Secondary sanctions risk: section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224, as amended by Executive Order 13886; Organization Established Date 1992; Registration Number 8239 (Palestinian) [SDGT] (Linked To: HAMAS).</P>
                <P>Designated pursuant to section 1(a)(iii)(A) of E.O. 13224, as amended, for being owned, controlled, or directed by, or having acted or purported to act for or on behalf of, directly or indirectly, HAMAS, a person whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to E.O. 13224, as amended.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: E.O. 13224, as amended)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Bradley T. Smith,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of Foreign Assets Control.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13059 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-AL-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 2900-0205]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activity: Title 38 Health Care Positions—Trainee Application and Appraisal</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Veterans Health Administration (VHA), Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish a notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension of a currently approved collection, and allow 60 days for public comment in response to the notice.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before August 28, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments must be submitted through 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Program-specific information:</E>
                         Rebecca Mimnall, 202-695-9434, 
                        <E T="03">vhacopra@va.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">VA PRA information:</E>
                         Dorothy Glasgow, 202-461-1084, 
                        <E T="03">VAPRA@va.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.</P>
                <P>
                    With respect to the following collection of information, VHA invites comments on: (1) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of VHA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of VHA's estimate of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39164"/>
                    the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Title 38 Health Care Positions—Trainee Application and Appraisal (VA Forms 10-2850d and 10-2850e).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number: 2900-0205. https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRASearch</E>
                     (Once at this link, you can enter the OMB Control Number to find the historical versions of this Information Collection).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Reinstatement with change of a previously approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The collection of this information is authorized by Title 38 United States Code (U.S.C.) Section 7403, which provides that appointments of Title 38 positions will be made only after qualifications have been satisfactorily verified in accordance with regulations prescribed by the Secretary. Occupations listed in 38 U.S.C. 7401(1) and 7401(3) are appointed at a grade and step rate or an assignment based on careful evaluation of the trainee's education and experience. Title 38 U.S.C. 7302 requires VA to assist in the training of health professionals for the agency's own needs and for those of the nation. All health position trainee applicants must provide information concerning their background, training, and education, as well as previously held licenses/registrations, to determine if they meet requirements.
                </P>
                <P>VA Form 10-2850d is used to collect appropriate information to support the qualifications for each trainee participating in accredited educational programs with VA. Trainee applicants participating in accredited educational programs must complete and submit the 10-2850d form.</P>
                <P>VA Form 10-2850e is the pre-employment reference form used to elicit information concerning the prior education and/or performance of the Title 38 trainee applicant. The information provided is used to determine if the applicant meets the requirements for employment. VA sends the 10-2850e form to the educational institutions, organizations, and individuals indicated by the applicant on the employment application form.</P>
                <P>The forms have been updated with required PRA language. There is a decrease in the total estimated number of responses and burden hours for this collection based upon program data since the last PRA clearance, including the discontinuance and removal of three forms. This information collection is only for VA health position trainee applicants.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Number of Responses =</E>
                     171,820.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Time Burden =</E>
                     85,910 hours.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">VA Form 10-2850d</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals or Households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Burden:</E>
                     60,500 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Average Burden per Respondent:</E>
                     30 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Once annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses:</E>
                     121,000.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">VA Form 10-2850e</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals or Households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Burden:</E>
                     25,410 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Average Burden per Respondent:</E>
                     30 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Once annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses:</E>
                     50,820.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Lanea Haynes,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Alternate, VA PRA Clearance Officer, Office of Information Technology, Data Governance Analytics, Department of Veterans Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13036 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8320-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 2900-0920]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activity: Copayment Exemption for Indian Veterans—Documentation of Indian or Urban Indian Status</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Veterans Health Administration (VHA), Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish a notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension of a currently approved collection, and allow 60 days for public comment in response to the notice.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before August 28, 2026.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments must be submitted through 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Program-specific information:</E>
                         Rebecca Mimnall, 202-695-9434, 
                        <E T="03">vhacopra@va.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">VA PRA information:</E>
                         Dorothy Glasgow, 202-461-1084, 
                        <E T="03">VAPRA@va.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.</P>
                <P>With respect to the following collection of information, VHA invites comments on: (1) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of VHA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of VHA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Copayment Exemption for Indian Veterans—Documentation of Indian or Urban Indian Status, VA Form 10-334.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number: 2900-0920.</E>
                      
                    <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRASearch</E>
                     (Once at this link, you can enter the OMB Control Number to find the historical versions of this Information Collection).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Reinstatement with change of a previously approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     VA previously amended its medical regulations to implement a statute exempting Indian and urban Indian veterans from copays for the receipt of hospital care or medical services under laws administered by VA. Public Law (PL) 116-315, sec. 3002 of the Johnny Isakson and David P. Roe, M.D. Veterans Health Care and Benefits Improvement Act of 2020 (signed January 5, 2021) amended section 1730A of title 38 U.S.C. to eliminate copays for the receipt of hospital care or medical services under laws administered by VA for veterans who are either Indian or urban Indian, as 
                    <PRTPAGE P="39165"/>
                    those terms are defined in section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act. Section 4 is codified at 25 U.S.C. 1603, and the definitions for Indian and urban Indian are located in paragraphs 13 and 28, respectively, of section 1603.
                </P>
                <P>To demonstrate that a veteran meets the definition of Indian or urban Indian, as defined in 25 U.S.C. 1603(13) or (28), VA may ask the veteran to submit documentation to VA. The veteran should use VA Form 10-334 as a cover sheet for submission of documentation requested by VA. There is a decrease in the estimated annual respondents and burden hours based upon data since the last PRA clearance.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals or Households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Burden:</E>
                     750 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Average Burden per Respondent:</E>
                     15 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     One time.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses:</E>
                     3,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Lanea Haynes,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Alternate, VA PRA Clearance Officer, Office of Information Technology, Data Governance Analytics, Department of Veterans Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13041 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8320-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
    </NOTICES>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>123</NO>
    <DATE>Monday, June 29, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="39167"/>
            <PARTNO>Part II</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Department of Health and Human Services</AGENCY>
            <SUBAGY>Food and Drug Administration </SUBAGY>
            <HRULE/>
            <CFR>21 CFR Part 1108</CFR>
            <TITLE>Establishment Registration and Product Listing for Tobacco Products; Proposed Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <PRORULES>
            <PRORULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="39168"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                    <SUBAGY>Food and Drug Administration</SUBAGY>
                    <CFR>21 CFR Part 1108</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FDA-2025-N-7130]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 0910-AH59</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Establishment Registration and Product Listing for Tobacco Products</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Food and Drug Administration, HHS.</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>The Food and Drug Administration (FDA, the Agency, or we) is proposing regulations to prescribe the format, content, and procedures for establishment registration and tobacco product listing. Complete and accurate establishment registration and product listing information is important to accomplish statutory, regulatory, and public health objectives. Currently, only domestic owners and operators are required to register their establishments and list their tobacco products with FDA while foreign owners and operators are not subject to these requirements, creating significant gaps in Agency information. This action, if finalized, would extend registration and listing requirements to include owners and operators of foreign establishments.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>Either electronic or written comments on the proposed rule must be submitted by September 14, 2026.</P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <ADD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                        <P>
                            You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. The 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                             electronic filing system will accept comments until 11:59 p.m. Eastern Time at the end of September 14, 2026. Comments received by mail/hand delivery/courier (for written/paper submissions) will be considered timely if they are received on or before that date.
                        </P>
                    </ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Submissions</HD>
                    <P>Submit electronic comments in the following way:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments. Comments submitted electronically, including attachments, to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         will be posted to the docket unchanged. Because your comment will be made public, you are solely responsible for ensuring that your comment does not include any confidential information that you or a third party may not wish to be posted, such as medical information, your or anyone else's Social Security number, or confidential business information, such as a manufacturing process. Please note that if you include your name, contact information, or other information that identifies you in the body of your comments, that information will be posted on 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Written/Paper Submissions</HD>
                    <P>Submit written/paper submissions as follows:</P>
                    <P>• Mail/Hand Delivery/Courier (for written/paper submissions): Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.</P>
                    <P>• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions received must include the Docket No. FDA-2025-N-7130 for “Establishment Registration and Product Listing for Tobacco Products.” Received comments, those filed in a timely manner (see 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                        ), will be placed in the docket and, except for those submitted as “Confidential Submissions,” publicly viewable at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         or at the Dockets Management Staff between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, 240-402-7500.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Submit both copies to the Dockets Management Staff. If you do not wish your name and contact information to be made publicly available, you can provide this information on the cover sheet and not in the body of your comments and you must identify this information as “confidential.” Any information marked as “confidential” will not be disclosed except in accordance with 21 CFR 10.20 and other applicable disclosure law. For more information about FDA's posting of comments to public dockets, see 80 FR 56469, September 18, 2015, or access the information at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/FR-2015-09-18/pdf/2015-23389.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         For access to the docket to read background documents, the plain language summary of the proposed rule of not more than 100 words as required by the “Providing Accountability Through Transparency Act,” or the electronic and written/paper comments received, go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and insert the docket number, found in brackets in the heading of this document, into the “Search” box and follow the prompts and/or go to the Dockets Management Staff, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500.
                    </P>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>
                            With regard to the proposed rule: James Anthony, Office of Regulations, or Anthony Villa, Office of Compliance and Enforcement, Food and Drug Administration, Center for Tobacco Products, Document Control Center, Bldg. 71, Rm. G335, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 877-287-1373, 
                            <E T="03">CTPRegulations@fda.hhs.gov.</E>
                             With regard to the information collection: Amber Barrett, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North 10A-12M, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852, 301-796-8867, 
                            <E T="03">PRAStaff@fda.hhs.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Executive Summary</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Purpose of the Proposed Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Summary of the Major Provisions of the Proposed Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Legal Authority</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Costs and Benefits</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Table of Abbreviations/Commonly Used Acronyms in This Document</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Background and Purpose</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Legal Authority</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Description of the Proposed Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Scope (Proposed § 1108.1)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Definitions (Proposed § 1108.3)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Who Must Register and Submit a Tobacco Product List (Proposed § 1108.20)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. When To Submit Establishment Registration and Tobacco Product Listing (Proposed § 1108.22)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                            E. Information Required for Tobacco Product Establishment Registration and Tobacco Product Listing (Proposed § 1108.24)
                            <PRTPAGE P="39169"/>
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Maintaining a Historical File (Proposed § 1108.26)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. Updating Tobacco Product Listing Information (Proposed § 1108.28)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">H. Assignment of an FDA Establishment Identifier (FEI) Number (Proposed § 1108.32)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">I. Electronic Registration of Establishments and Listing of Tobacco Products (Proposed § 1108.40)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">J. Establishment Registration and Tobacco Product Listing for Foreign Establishments Importing or Offering for Import Tobacco Products Into the United States (Proposed § 1108.50)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">K. Conditions for Registration of Foreign Tobacco Product Establishments (Proposed § 1108.52)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">L. Public Availability of Registration and Tobacco Product Listing Information (Proposed § 1108.60)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">M. Misbranding (Proposed § 1108.62)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Proposed Effective Date</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VII. Preliminary Economic Analysis of Impacts</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Introduction</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Overview of Benefits, Costs, and Transfers</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VIII. Analysis of Environmental Impact</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IX. Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">X. Federalism</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">XI. Severability</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">XII. Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">XIII. References</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Executive Summary</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Purpose of the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>The Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act (Pub. L. 111-31) (Tobacco Control Act) added section 905 to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&amp;C Act) (21 U.S.C. 387e), requiring the owners and operators of domestic tobacco product manufacturing establishments to register their establishments with FDA and submit product listings. Currently, domestic establishments are required to submit registration and product listing information and FDA has issued guidance to help tobacco establishments implement this provision. Under section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 387e), every person who owns or operates any domestic establishment engaged in the “manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing” of a tobacco product, including repackagers/relabelers, is required to register and list. For the purposes of the proposed rule, the term “manufacture” would include assembling, processing, homogenizing, mixing, formulating, labeling, or packaging. This proposed rule clarifies that persons who engage in the manufacture of a tobacco product include specification developers, third-party manufacturers, and bulk tobacco product manufacturers. For the purposes of this proposed rule, references to manufacturers or manufacturing hereinafter are inclusive of this definition and the requirements of the proposed rule would apply to owners and operators of establishments that perform manufacturing, preparation, compounding, or processing functions.</P>
                    <P>FDA is also proposing corresponding changes to the forms currently used by domestic establishments, which would be used by all registrants to submit registration and listing information, and proposing that all registration and listing information be submitted electronically, unless a waiver has been granted by FDA for the registrant. Under sections 905 and 909 of the FD&amp;C Act, FDA is also proposing recordkeeping requirements for a historical file of consumer information, labeling and advertisements for all tobacco products listed, as well as recordkeeping requirements for information about the distribution of free samples of smokeless tobacco products.</P>
                    <P>Section 905 also applies to owners or operators of foreign establishments engaged in such functions, but section 905(h), specific to foreign establishments, requires the Secretary of Health and Human Services to promulgate regulations to implement the provision. This creates significant gaps in Agency information. This proposed rule would extend registration and listing requirements to foreign establishments that engage in the “manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing” of a tobacco product. Registered foreign establishments would be subject to inspection under section 905(g) and 905(h) of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 387e(g) and 387e(h)).</P>
                    <P>Consequently, this rule would allow FDA to better protect the public health by helping to ensure that owners and operators of domestic and foreign establishments that manufacture tobacco products sold in, distributed in, and/or imported into the United States, are complying with Federal law, including FDA's premarket authorization requirements. Information that would be required by the rule would enable FDA to better pursue enforcement actions against non-compliant tobacco products that have entered commercial distribution or await entry into commercial distribution, at the border or otherwise, and in doing so better protect the public health. For example, registration and listing information would enable FDA to more efficiently identify adulterated or misbranded tobacco products, including unauthorized electronic nicotine delivery system (ENDS) products, which would be subject to refusal when imported or offered for import into the United States. In addition, since registered establishments are subject to FDA inspections by statute, this rule will extend FDA's inspections of establishments to foreign establishments. FDA currently inspects foreign establishments only to support premarket tobacco product application (PMTA) review per 21 CFR 1114.27.</P>
                    <P>On February 13, 2025, the President signed Executive Order (E.O.) 14212 titled “Establishing the President's Make America Healthy Again Commission.” The E.O. sets forth that “[i]t shall be the policy of the Federal Government to aggressively combat the critical health challenges facing our citizens, including the rising rates of mental health disorders, obesity, diabetes, and other chronic diseases. To do so, executive departments and agencies (agencies) that address health or healthcare must focus on reversing chronic disease.” On September 9, 2025, the Make America Healthy Again Commission released the Strategy Report titled “Make Our Children Healthy Again,” which outlines a strategy of increased enforcement against illegal ENDS products.</P>
                    <P>Tobacco use is the leading preventable cause of death and disease in the United States, including preventable chronic disease. Accordingly, this rule would support FDA's efforts to advance Administration priorities by helping FDA identify tobacco products sold, distributed, and/or imported into the United States, and the establishments that manufacture them, that do not comply with Federal law, and by enabling FDA to better pursue enforcement actions against non-compliant tobacco products.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Summary of the Major Provisions of the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        The proposed rule would prescribe the format, content, and procedures for establishment registration and tobacco product listing for domestic and foreign manufacturers of tobacco products. The proposed rule would extend registration and listing requirements to foreign establishments that engage in the “manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing” of a tobacco product. Registered foreign establishments would be subject to inspection under section 905(g) and 905(h) of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 387e(g) and 387e(h)). Proposed 21 CFR 1108 describes criteria for who would be required to register and list, when and how they would be required to register and list, and the type of information they would be required to submit to FDA. For both domestic and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39170"/>
                        foreign establishments, this includes clarifying that the term “manufacture” includes persons who engage in this activity, such as specification developers, third-party manufacturers, and bulk manufacturers. Proposed 21 CFR 1108 would streamline the registration and listing process by enabling registrants to confirm that there are no changes and thereby complete their updates more efficiently, specifying the establishment information and uniquely identifying information for each listed product, and designating which establishment and unique product information is required or voluntary. Proposed 21 CFR 1108 generally would require the electronic submission of the registration and listing information. FDA is also proposing to require owners or operators of such establishments to maintain a historical file of consumer information, labeling and advertisements for all tobacco products listed in accordance with this part, as well as information related to the distribution of free samples of smokeless tobacco products.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Legal Authority</HD>
                    <P>FDA is issuing this proposed rule under its authority delegated under sections 301, 701(a), 801(p), 902, 903, 905, 907, 909, 910, and 911 of the FD&amp;C Act. Section 301 of the FD&amp;C Act describes the acts that are prohibited by the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 331). Section 701(a) of the FD&amp;C Act gives FDA general rulemaking authority to issue regulations for the efficient enforcement of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 371(a)). Section 801(p) of the FD&amp;C Act requires FDA to report to Congress on exports of tobacco products that do not conform to tobacco product standards established pursuant to the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 381(p)). Sections 902 (21 U.S.C. 387b) and 903 (21 U.S.C. 387c) of the FD&amp;C Act describe the scenarios in which a tobacco product will be deemed adulterated and misbranded, respectively. Section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act sets forth establishment registration and product listing requirements for owners and operators of domestic establishments engaged in the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of tobacco products. In addition, section 905 permits FDA, by regulation, to require any foreign establishments engaged in the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of tobacco products to register and list (21 U.S.C. 387e). Under section 907 of the FD&amp;C Act, FDA can adopt a tobacco product standard if it finds that the standard is appropriate for the protection of the public health (21 U.S.C. 387g). Section 909 of the FD&amp;C Act permits FDA, by regulation, to require manufacturers and importers of tobacco products to establish and maintain records, make reports, and provide information to ensure that such tobacco products are not adulterated or misbranded, and to otherwise protect the public health (21 U.S.C. 387i). Section 910 of the FD&amp;C Act sets forth requirements for the premarket submission of applications and authorization of certain tobacco products (21 U.S.C. 387j). Moreover, under section 910(g) of the FD&amp;C Act, FDA has the authority to exempt by regulation tobacco products intended for investigational use from the provisions of Chapter IX of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 387j(g)). Section 911 of the FD&amp;C Act sets forth requirements for modified risk tobacco products, including product authorization and marketing (21 U.S.C. 387k).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Costs and Benefits</HD>
                    <P>This proposed rule prescribes the format, content, and procedures for establishment registration and tobacco product listing. If finalized, this proposed rule would also extend registration and listing requirements to owners and operators of foreign establishments where, currently, only domestic owners and operators are required to register and list their tobacco products. In addition, since registered establishments are subject to FDA inspections by statute, this rule will extend FDA's inspections of establishments to foreign establishments. While the specific benefits are difficult to quantify, having complete and accurate tobacco product establishment registration and product listing information for both domestic and foreign establishments can help FDA accomplish several important statutory, regulatory, and public health objectives, such as identifying establishments operating in violation of the FD&amp;C Act, facilitating the recall of non-compliant tobacco products that have entered commercial distribution, or refusing adulterated or misbranded tobacco products imported or offered for import.</P>
                    <P>We quantify costs to be incurred by both domestic and foreign establishments from the time used to enter and submit their registration and product listing information and also from the time it takes for their managers to accompany FDA inspections. The 20-year annualized total costs to domestic and foreign establishments and FDA would range from $6.80 million to $26.55 million at a 7 percent discount rate, with a primary estimate of $15.57 million. Costs incurred by domestic establishments would be $0.013 million (primary estimate at 7% discount rate), representing 0.1% of total costs. Costs incurred by foreign establishments are $0.37 million (primary estimate at 7% discount rate), representing 2.4% of total costs; FDA costs would account for the remaining 97.5% of total costs. This proposed rule would not affect the total amount of user fees set by statute nor the size of the federal budget.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Table of Abbreviations/Commonly Used Acronyms in This Document</HD>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="xs100,r100">
                        <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Abbreviation/acronym</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">What it means</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">CFR</ENT>
                            <ENT>Code of Federal Regulations.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">CTP</ENT>
                            <ENT>Center for Tobacco Products.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">DUNS</ENT>
                            <ENT>Data Universal Numbering System.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">ENDS</ENT>
                            <ENT>Electronic Nicotine Delivery Systems.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">E.O.</ENT>
                            <ENT>Executive Order.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">EX REQ</ENT>
                            <ENT>Substantial Equivalence Exemption Request.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">FDA</ENT>
                            <ENT>Food and Drug Administration.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">FD&amp;C Act</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">FEI</ENT>
                            <ENT>FDA Establishment Identifier.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">FR</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal Register.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">FTZ</ENT>
                            <ENT>Foreign Trade Zone.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">FURLS</ENT>
                            <ENT>FDA Unified Registration and Listing System.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">HTP</ENT>
                            <ENT>Heated Tobacco Products.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">MRTPA</ENT>
                            <ENT>Modified Risk Tobacco Product Application.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PD #</ENT>
                            <ENT>FDA-assigned Product Identification Number.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">PMTA</ENT>
                            <ENT>Premarket Tobacco Product Application.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="39171"/>
                            <ENT I="01">PRIA</ENT>
                            <ENT>Preliminary Regulatory Impact Analysis.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">RGID #</ENT>
                            <ENT>FDA-assigned Registration Identification Number.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">SE</ENT>
                            <ENT>Substantial Equivalence.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">SKU</ENT>
                            <ENT>Stock Keeping Unit.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">STN</ENT>
                            <ENT>FDA-assigned Submission Tracking Number.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Tobacco Control Act</ENT>
                            <ENT>Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">TP #</ENT>
                            <ENT>FDA-assigned Tobacco Product Number.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">TRLM</ENT>
                            <ENT>Tobacco Registration and Listing Module.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">TRLM NG</ENT>
                            <ENT>Tobacco Registration and Listing Module Next Generation.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">UPC</ENT>
                            <ENT>Universal Product Code.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">U.S.</ENT>
                            <ENT>United States.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">U.S.C.</ENT>
                            <ENT>United States Code.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Background and Purpose</HD>
                    <P>FDA is proposing regulations that would prescribe the form and content for (1) registration by owners or operators of domestic and foreign establishments that manufacture, prepare, compound, or process tobacco products, and (2) listing of finished tobacco products manufactured, prepared, compounded, or processed by such persons. FDA is issuing this proposed rule under its authority delegated under sections 301, 701(a), 801(p), 902, 903, 905, 907, 909, and 910 of the FD&amp;C Act. Complete and accurate establishment registration and product listing information is important to accomplish statutory, regulatory, and public health objectives. For example, we may use establishment registration and listing information to:</P>
                    <P>• Identify, conduct surveillance on, and catalog marketed tobacco products;</P>
                    <P>• Identify persons or establishments producing a specific tobacco product;</P>
                    <P>• Schedule and plan inspections of registered establishments pursuant to section 905(g) and 905(h) of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 387e(g) and 387e(h));</P>
                    <P>• Facilitate the recall of tobacco products commercially distributed by owners or operators of tobacco product establishments;</P>
                    <P>• Identify tobacco products marketed in violation of the law;</P>
                    <P>• Identify and surveil tobacco products imported or offered for import into the United States from foreign establishments;</P>
                    <P>• Identify tobacco products manufactured in the United States that are intended for export;</P>
                    <P>• Identify establishments operating in violation of the FD&amp;C Act and its implementing regulations;</P>
                    <P>• Facilitate communication between the Agency and the tobacco product industry; and</P>
                    <P>
                        • Provide public access to up-to-date information regarding registered establishments and listed products through FDA's Establishment Registration &amp; Tobacco Product Listing page.
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             The FDA Center for Tobacco Product's Establishment Registration and Tobacco Product Listing Page can be found at 
                            <E T="03">https://trlm-ng-rlsite.fda.gov/home.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Additionally, we rely on up-to-date registration and listing information to help us carry out several other statutory provisions. For instance, we use this information to generate accurate estimates of the number of businesses that are affected by our rulemaking activities. These estimates help us assess the impact of our regulations on regulated industry as required under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521) and E.O. 12866.</P>
                    <P>
                        In proposing the requirements, we considered: (1) FDA's ongoing experience since 2009 with tobacco product establishment registration and product listing for domestic establishments, including FDA's experience implementing its electronic tobacco product registration and listing system for domestic establishments; (2) Public comments on a draft guidance on the topic of registration and listing; 
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and (3) FDA's need for information about the types and number of manufactured tobacco products. If finalized, the rule would explain the detailed requirements of the registration and listing processes.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             FDA announced the availability of the draft guidance on October 21, 2009 (74 FR 54052). Public comments on the draft guidance are available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/FDA-2009-D-0508.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        FDA based many of the requirements in this proposed rule on the recommendations and interpretations originally outlined in an FDA guidance for industry entitled “Registration and Product Listing for Owners and Operators of Domestic Tobacco Product Establishments” (R&amp;L Guidance) 
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         (finalized and first issued on November 12, 2009 (74 FR 58298) and subsequently revised in 2014, 2016, 2017, and most recently in 2023). This guidance is intended to assist persons making tobacco product establishment registration and product listing submissions to FDA under the requirements of section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 387e). While several of the requirements in this proposed regulation are the same as or similar to the R&amp;L Guidance recommendations, FDA has further refined the proposed requirements to implement the statutory requirements set forth by section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 387e). Taking into account the Agency's and industry's experience with registration and listing of domestic establishments, this proposed rule would provide additional clarity and efficiency for the format, content, and procedures for establishment registration and tobacco product listing for domestic and foreign owners and operators.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             Available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fda.gov/regulatory-information/search-fda-guidance-documents/registration-and-product-listing-owners-and-operators-domestic-tobacco-product-establishments.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 387e) requires the owners and operators of domestic establishments engaged in the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of a tobacco product to register their establishments with FDA and submit product listings. Currently, domestic establishments are required to submit registration and product listing information and FDA has issued guidance to help tobacco product establishments implement this provision. In this proposed rule, FDA is clarifying that persons who engage in the manufacture of a tobacco product include specification developers, third-party manufacturers, and bulk tobacco product manufacturers. FDA is proposing corresponding changes to the forms currently used by domestic establishments, which would be used by all registrants to submit registration and listing information and proposing that all registration and listing information be submitted electronically, unless a waiver has been granted by FDA for the registrant. Under sections 905 and 909 of the FD&amp;C Act, FDA is also proposing 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39172"/>
                        recordkeeping requirements for a historical file of consumer information, labeling and advertisements for all tobacco products listed, as well as recordkeeping requirements for information about the distribution of free samples of smokeless tobacco products.
                    </P>
                    <P>Section 905(h) of the FD&amp;C Act provides FDA with the authority to issue regulations requiring foreign manufacturers to register their establishments and list their products. Section 905(h) states, “[a]ny establishment within any foreign country engaged in the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of a tobacco product or tobacco products, shall register under this section under regulations promulgated by [FDA].” Because FDA has not issued such regulations, foreign owners or operators are not currently required to register their establishments or list their tobacco products that are imported or offered for import into the United States, unlike domestic owners or operators who are subject to the already effective, self-implementing registration and listing requirements of section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 387e). This discrepancy creates gaps in information for FDA to perform its public health mission. This proposed rule would therefore extend registration and listing requirements to foreign establishments that engage in the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of a tobacco product. Registered foreign establishments would be subject to inspection under section 905(g) and 905(h) of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 387e(g) and 387e(h)). FDA believes that issuing this regulation to apply these requirements to foreign owners and operators would bring parity between foreign and domestic owners and operators and in doing so improve FDA's understanding of the types of tobacco products being manufactured, the tobacco products sold in the United States, and the location of all establishments engaged in manufacturing them. For example, FDA does not have registration and listing information from establishments that manufacture ENDS outside of the United States that are imported or offered for import into the United States; having that information would help FDA more efficiently identify commercially marketed tobacco products in the United States that do not comply with the law and keep abreast of the marketplace. Accordingly, FDA is proposing registration and listing requirements for foreign tobacco product establishments.</P>
                    <P>
                        In addition to providing FDA with important information to protect public health, registration and listing information allows FDA to generate estimates of the number of businesses that are affected by rulemaking activities. These estimates help us assess the impact of FDA regulations on regulated industry, which is required under the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (5 U.S.C. 601-612), as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996; the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1501 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ); the PRA; and E.O. 12866 (September 30, 1993). Additionally, establishment registration and product listing information provides FDA with the data for the annual export report to Congress required under section 801(p)(1) of the FD&amp;C Act. In addition to lessening the burden on FDA and tobacco product establishments, electronic submission of registration and listing information furthers the purpose of the Government Paperwork Elimination Act of 1998 (GPEA) (44 U.S.C. 3504(a)(1)(B)(vi)). GPEA requires Federal agencies to give persons who are required to maintain, submit, or disclose information, the option of doing so electronically when practicable as a substitute for paper, and to use electronic authentication (electronic signature) methods to verify the identity of the sender and the integrity of the electronic content.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Legal Authority</HD>
                    <P>The Tobacco Control Act was enacted on June 22, 2009, amending the FD&amp;C Act by, among other things, adding a new chapter (chapter IX) granting FDA authority to regulate the manufacture, marketing, and distribution of tobacco products to protect the public health. The Tobacco Control Act added section 905 to the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 387e), requiring the owners and operators of domestic manufacturing establishments engaged in manufacturing tobacco products to register with FDA and submit product listings.</P>
                    <P>Section 905(b) of the FD&amp;C Act requires “every person who owns or operates any establishment in any State engaged in the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of a tobacco product or tobacco products” to register with FDA the name, places of business, and all such establishments owned or operated by that person (21 U.S.C. 387e(b)). Under section 905(b) of the FD&amp;C Act, every owner and operator must register by December 31st of each year.</P>
                    <P>Section 905(c) of the FD&amp;C Act requires that every person upon first engaging in the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of a tobacco product(s) in any such establishment immediately register its establishment (21 U.S.C. 387e(c)). Section 905(d) of the FD&amp;C Act requires that every person required to register under section 905(b) or (c) immediately register any additional establishment which that person owns or operates in any State and in which that person begins to engage in such activities (21 U.S.C. 387e(d)). Section 905(f) of the FD&amp;C Act provides that, upon request, FDA must make any registration filed under section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act available to the requestor for inspection (21 U.S.C. 387e(f)). Additionally, section 905(h) of the FD&amp;C Act gives FDA authority to require foreign establishments that are engaged in the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of a tobacco product(s) to register their establishments and to list their products in accordance with regulations published by FDA (21 U.S.C. 387e(h)). Such regulations shall require foreign establishments to provide the information required by section 905(i) and shall include provisions for registration of foreign establishments upon the condition that adequate and effective means are available, by arrangement with the government of such foreign country or otherwise, to enable the Secretary to determine from time to time whether tobacco products manufactured, prepared, compounded, or processed in such establishment, if imported or offered for import into the United States, shall be refused admission on any of the grounds set forth in section 801(a). (21 U.S.C. 381(a)).</P>
                    <P>Section 905(i)(1) of the FD&amp;C Act requires that all registrants “shall, at the time of registration . . . file with [FDA] a list of all tobacco products which are being manufactured, prepared, compounded, or processed by that person for commercial distribution,” along with certain accompanying information, including a copy of all consumer information and other labeling (21 U.S.C. 387e(i)(1)). In addition, section 905(i)(3) of the FD&amp;C Act requires that certain changes to previously submitted product listing information be reported to FDA biannually (21 U.S.C. 387e(i)(3)).</P>
                    <P>
                        Information provided pursuant to section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act directly implicates, or has the ability to implicate, several prohibited acts under section 301 of the FD&amp;C Act. For example, the failure to register in 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39173"/>
                        accordance with section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act, the failure to provide any information required by section 905(i) of the FD&amp;C Act, and the failure to provide a notice required by section 905(i)(3) of the FD&amp;C Act constitute prohibited acts under section 301(p) of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 331(p)). Additionally, prohibited acts under the FD&amp;C Act also include: the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of any tobacco product that is adulterated or misbranded (section 301(a)), the adulteration or misbranding of any tobacco product in interstate commerce (section 301(b)), and the receipt in interstate commerce of any tobacco product that is adulterated or misbranded, and the delivery or proffered delivery thereof for pay or otherwise (section 301(c)) (21 U.S.C. 331(a)-(c)). A tobacco product is deemed adulterated under section 902 of the FD&amp;C Act when, for example, it is a tobacco product subject to a tobacco product standard under section 907 and it is not in conformity with such standard (section 902(6)) or it is required by section 910(a) to have premarket review and does not have an order in effect under section 910(c)(1)(A)(i) (section 902(6)) (21 U.S.C. 387b(5)-(6)). A tobacco product is misbranded under section 903 of the FD&amp;C Act when, for example, it was manufactured, prepared, propagated, compounded, or processed in an establishment not duly registered under section 905(b), 905(c), 905(d), or 905(h) or if it was not included in a product list required by section 905(i) (section 903(a)(6)) (21 U.S.C. 387c(a)(6)). Violations relating to establishment registration and product listing are subject to regulatory action, including, but not limited to, civil money penalties, seizure, and injunction.
                    </P>
                    <P>Section 801(p)(1) of the FD&amp;C Act requires FDA to provide an annual report to the Senate Committee on Health, Education, Labor and Pensions and to the House of Representatives Committee on Energy and Commerce (21 U.S.C. 381(p)(1)). This report must contain: (1) the nature, extent, and destination of United States tobacco product exports that do not conform to tobacco product standards established pursuant to the FD&amp;C Act; (2) the public health implications of such exports, including any evidence of a negative public health impact; and (3) recommendations or assessments of policy alternatives available to Congress and the executive branch to reduce any negative public health impact caused by such exports.</P>
                    <P>Under section 907 of the FD&amp;C Act, FDA can adopt a tobacco product standard if it finds that the standard is appropriate for the protection of the public health (21 U.S.C. 387g). Section 909 of the FD&amp;C Act permits FDA, by regulation, to require manufacturers and importers of tobacco products to establish and maintain records, make reports, and provide information to ensure that such tobacco products are not adulterated or misbranded, and to otherwise protect the public health (21 U.S.C. 387i). Section 910 of the FD&amp;C Act sets forth requirements for the premarket submission of applications and authorization of certain tobacco products (21 U.S.C. 387j). Moreover, under section 910(g) of the FD&amp;C Act, FDA has the authority to exempt by regulation tobacco products intended for investigational use from the provisions of Chapter IX of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 387j(g)). Section 911 of the FD&amp;C Act sets forth requirements for modified risk tobacco products, including product authorization and marketing (21 U.S.C. 387k). In addition, under section 701(a) of the FD&amp;C Act, FDA has the authority to issue regulations for the efficient enforcement of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 371(a)).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Description of the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Scope (Proposed § 1108.1)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1108.1 sets forth that the requirements of this part apply to domestic and foreign establishments that manufacture, prepare, compound, or process tobacco products that are subject to chapter IX of the FD&amp;C Act.
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Tobacco product manufacturers would include specification developers, third-party manufacturers, bulk tobacco product manufacturers, and repackagers/relabelers.
                        <SU>5</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The proposed scope is discussed further in subsection 
                        <E T="03">C. Who Must Register and Submit a Tobacco Product List</E>
                         (Proposed § 1108.20) and subsection 
                        <E T="03">J. Establishment Registration and Tobacco Product Listing for Foreign Establishments Importing or Offering for Import Tobacco Products into the United States</E>
                         (Proposed § 1108.50).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             The proposed rule would thus not apply to “premium cigars” that are not subject to chapter IX of the FD&amp;C Act. By rulemaking, FDA has deemed all cigars, among other products, subject to chapter IX of the FD&amp;C Act. On August 9, 2023, the U.S. District Court for the District of Columbia issued an order vacating that rule (generally referred to as the Deeming Rule) “insofar as it applies to premium cigars.” 
                            <E T="03">Cigar Ass'n of Am.</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">FDA,</E>
                             No. 16-cv-01460, Dkt. No. 277 (D.D.C. Aug. 9, 2023). The court gave a definition that specified what constituted a premium cigar for the purposes of its ruling. On January 24, 2025, the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit affirmed the district court's order, in part, and reversed and remanded the case back to the district court “so that the district court can invite briefing on the appropriate definition of `premium cigars.' ” 
                            <E T="03">Cigar Ass'n of Am.</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">FDA,</E>
                             No. 23-5220, Document #2096141 (D.C. Cir. Jan. 24, 2025.). That litigation is pending.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             Similar to the proposed rule entitled “Requirements for Tobacco Product Manufacturing Practice” (88 FR 15174, March 10, 2023), this proposed rule clarifies that persons who engage in the manufacture of a tobacco product include specification developers, third-party manufacturers, bulk tobacco product manufacturers, and repackagers/relabelers. For example, if a specification developer designs and establishes tobacco product specifications of a finished or bulk tobacco product and provides the specifications to a third-party manufacturer to physically manufacture the product, both the specification developer and the third-party manufacturer would be engaged in the manufacture of a tobacco product for purposes of this rule and would be required to comply with this proposed rule.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Definitions (Proposed § 1108.3)</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.3 sets forth several proposed definitions applicable to this part. The definitions follow.</P>
                    <P>
                        The term “accessory” would be defined the same way it is in 21 CFR 1100.3. It would mean any product that is intended or reasonably expected to be used with or for the human consumption of a tobacco product; does not contain tobacco or nicotine, and is not made or derived from tobacco or nicotine from any source; and meets either of the following: (a) is not intended or reasonably expected to affect or alter the performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics of a tobacco product or (b) is intended or reasonably expected to affect or maintain the performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics of a tobacco product but (1) solely controls moisture and/or temperature of a stored tobacco product; or (2) solely provides an external heat source to initiate but not maintain combustion of a tobacco product. This definition is consistent with FDA's “Registration and Product Listing for Owners and Operators of Domestic Tobacco Product Establishments, Guidance for Industry” (revised March 2023). Examples of accessories are ashtrays, spittoons, hookah tongs, cigar clips and stands, and pipe pouches, because they do not contain tobacco or nicotine or are not derived from tobacco or nicotine from any source, and do not affect or alter the performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics of a tobacco product. Examples of accessories also include humidors or refrigerators that solely control the moisture and/or temperature of a stored product and conventional matches and lighters that solely provide an external heat source to initiate but not maintain combustion of a tobacco product. An electric heater or charcoal used for prolonged heating of waterpipe tobacco is not an accessory because it is 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39174"/>
                        used to maintain the combustion of the tobacco.
                    </P>
                    <P>The term “brand” would be defined the same way it is in section 900(2) of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 387(2)). It would mean a variety of tobacco product distinguished by the tobacco used, tar content, nicotine content, flavoring used, size, filtration, packaging, logo, registered trademark, brand name(s), identifiable pattern of colors, or any combination of such attributes. For example, Company Q manufactures cigarettes under the following brand and subbrand names: “Acme Gold, Acme Blue, Bravo Red, and Bravo Green.” Company Q uses 100 percent burley tobacco for its Acme products and 100 percent flue-cured tobacco for its Bravo products. Since Company Q selected the product names primarily to distinguish the type of tobacco used in each, the company has chosen to market its cigarettes under two separate brands (“Acme” and “Bravo”) and indicates subbrands as Gold or Blue for Acme and Red or Green for Bravo.</P>
                    <P>The term “brand owner” would be defined as a person that owns a brand, through creation, acquisition, trademark, patent, copyright, or otherwise, and has directly or through license, the control and/or direction of the brand.</P>
                    <P>
                        The term “bulk tobacco product” would be defined as a tobacco product not sealed in final packaging but otherwise suitable for consumer use as a tobacco product (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         bulk cigarettes, bulk roll-your-own (RYO) tobacco, bulk pipe tobacco). The proposed definition of bulk tobacco product also includes components or parts of tobacco products that are not sealed in final packaging but are otherwise suitable for consumer use as tobacco products (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         bulk filters, bulk e-liquids). Products that are suitable for consumer use as tobacco products are those products that do not require further processing by a tobacco product manufacturer, such as mixing, cutting, curing, blending, or adding components or parts, ingredients, additives and materials, before they can be used by a consumer. For example, an e-liquid not sealed in final packaging is suitable for consumer use as a tobacco product because it requires no additional processing by a tobacco product manufacturer before it can be used by a consumer in an ENDS device; it requires only final packaging and labeling to be a finished tobacco product. A product can be suitable for consumer use as a tobacco product even if it 
                        <E T="03">could</E>
                         undergo additional processing by a manufacturer, such as blending, as long as it does not 
                        <E T="03">require</E>
                         further processing by a manufacturer before use by a consumer. For example, coconut and pineapple flavored e-liquids not sealed in final packaging would be considered bulk tobacco products because they are suitable for consumer use as tobacco products, even if they might later be blended together by a manufacturer to make piña colada flavored e-liquid.
                    </P>
                    <P>The term “commercial distribution” would be defined the same way it is in 21 CFR 1107.12. It would mean any distribution of a tobacco product, whether domestic or imported, to consumers or to any person, but does not include interplant transfers of a tobacco product between establishments within the same parent, subsidiary, and/or affiliate company, nor does it include providing a tobacco product for product testing where such product is not made available for consumption or resale. This definition is consistent with FDA's “Registration and Product Listing for Owners and Operators of Domestic Tobacco Product Establishments, Guidance for Industry” (revised March 2023). This term would not include the handling or transfer of a tobacco product from one consumer to another for personal consumption. The term would have the same meaning for foreign establishments, but it would not include the distribution of any tobacco products that are neither imported nor offered for import into the United States. Finally, the definition would not include shipment of a tobacco product into a foreign trade zone if the product is then exported and not further distributed in the United States.</P>
                    <P>The term “component or part” would be defined as any software or assembly of materials intended or reasonably expected: (a) to alter or affect the tobacco product's performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics; or (b) to be used with or for the human consumption of a tobacco product. Component or part excludes anything that is an accessory of a tobacco product. This definition is consistent with FDA's “Registration and Product Listing for Owners and Operators of Domestic Tobacco Product Establishments, Guidance for Industry” (revised March 2023).</P>
                    <P>
                        The term “domestic establishment” would be defined as an establishment in any State or Territory or possession of the United States.
                        <SU>6</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This definition is consistent with FDA's “Registration and Product Listing for Owners and Operators of Domestic Tobacco Product Establishments, Guidance for Industry” (revised March 2023). We note that this definition includes establishments on Tribal land. FDA respects tribal sovereignty and understands the importance of collaboration and consultation, as appropriate, with federally-recognized tribal governments.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             As set forth by section 900(22) of the FD&amp;C Act, the term `United States' means “the 50 States of the United States of America and the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Wake Island, Midway Islands, Kingman Reef, Johnston Atoll, the Northern Mariana Islands, and any other trust territory or possession of the United States.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The term “establishment” would be defined as a place of business under one ownership at one general physical location, engaged in an operation described in § 1108.20(a). This definition is consistent with FDA's “Registration and Product Listing for Owners and Operators of Domestic Tobacco Product Establishments, Guidance for Industry” (revised March 2023). Establishment would refer to both domestic and foreign establishments unless otherwise noted. This definition is similar to the one included in the registration and listing guidance. If a general physical location, such as a campus, includes multiple buildings under the same management, then it would not be necessary to register each building as a separate establishment. However, buildings in the same general physical location that have different management would need to be registered as separate establishments.</P>
                    <P>The term “finished tobacco product” would be defined to mean a tobacco product, including all components and parts, sealed in final packaging intended for consumer use. This definition is consistent with FDA's “Registration and Product Listing for Owners and Operators of Domestic Tobacco Product Establishments, Guidance for Industry” (revised March 2023). Examples of finished tobacco products would include a pack of cigarettes, a can of moist snuff, and rolling papers, filters, filter tubes, or e-liquids sold to consumers.</P>
                    <P>The term “foreign establishment” would be defined to mean an establishment other than a domestic establishment.</P>
                    <P>
                        The term “industry product identification number” would be defined to mean a unique, product-specific identifier or alphanumeric code, such as a universal product code (UPC), stock keeping unit (SKU), Item #, or Catalog #, that industry generates for internal record keeping and tracking. FDA intends to utilize an industry product identification number when corresponding with industry as a point 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39175"/>
                        of reference to help distinguish a specific product from other similar products made by the same manufacturer but with slight differences in product attributes (such as volume or quantity or packaging).
                    </P>
                    <P>The term “labeling” would be defined in a similar way as in section 201(m) of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 321(m)). It would mean: all labels and other written, printed, or graphic matter (a) upon any tobacco product or any of its containers or wrappers; or (b) accompanying such tobacco product. This definition is consistent with FDA's “Registration and Product Listing for Owners and Operators of Domestic Tobacco Product Establishments, Guidance for Industry” (revised March 2023).</P>
                    <P>The term “manufacturer” would be defined as any person who manufactures, prepares, compounds, or processes a tobacco product, including repackaging or relabeling of any tobacco product. Examples of manufacturing include assembling, processing, homogenizing, mixing, formulating, labeling, or packaging. Manufacturers include specification developers, third-party manufacturers, bulk tobacco product manufacturers, and repackagers/relabelers. For a manufacturer that is a specification developer, their establishment would be where the owner or operator develops the specifications.</P>
                    <P>The term “material change” would be defined to include: (a) any change in the tobacco product name (including brand or subbrand), warnings, or instructions for use; (b) any change in the owner or operator, or establishment; (c) any other significant change with respect to consumer information, to other labeling, or to the advertisements for the tobacco product, such as changes to the logo(s), identifiable patterns of color, or product descriptors; (d) any change in the marketing authorization or status for the marketing of such product; and (e) any change with respect to whether or not the product is subject to a tobacco product standard established under section 907 of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 387g). With respect to changes in consumer information or other labeling of the tobacco product, changes that are not significant include changes to grammar, correction of typographical errors that do not change the content of the labeling, and changes in tax stamp or bar code. A change in marketing authorization or status that would create a material change under this definition includes: a change in any pre-existing tobacco product status determination, such as, for example if a pre-existing tobacco product is determined to not have been on the market as of February 15, 2007 (under 910(a)(1)); all authorizations to legally market a tobacco product including an order finding that a new tobacco product is exempt from the requirements of substantial equivalence (SE) (21 CFR 1107); an SE order; a PMTA marketing granted order; a modified risk tobacco product application (MRTPA) order which allows a product to include a modified risk or exposure statement or a non-renewal of a modified risk order; a not substantially equivalent order for provisional products under 910(a)(2)(B)(i); or an order withdrawing or temporarily suspending authorization under 910(d) to legally market a product under 910(c)(1)(A)(i).</P>
                    <P>The term “operator” would be defined to mean a person, as defined in section 201(e) of the FD&amp;C Act, who has management authority over an establishment. This definition is consistent with FDA's “Registration and Product Listing for Owners and Operators of Domestic Tobacco Product Establishments, Guidance for Industry” (revised March 2023).</P>
                    <P>The term “owner” would be defined to mean a person, as defined in section 201(e) of the FD&amp;C Act, who has an ownership interest in an establishment. This definition is consistent with FDA's “Registration and Product Listing for Owners and Operators of Domestic Tobacco Product Establishments, Guidance for Industry” (revised March 2023).</P>
                    <P>The term “Product Identification Number (PD #)” would be defined to mean the number that FDA assigns to each product within a submission to distinguish among the products included in that submission. A PD # is only relevant within the context of a specific Submission Tracking Number (STN).</P>
                    <P>The term “Registration Identification Number (RGID #)” would be defined to mean the FDA-assigned unique identifier for a registered establishment's registration. The RGID # is assigned to each new electronic tobacco product registration and listing system submission and attaches to the establishment(s) and the product(s) in the initial submission. This information is important to ensure FDA and industry are referring to the same registered establishments and listed products. Updates to establishment registration and product list information would reference the RGID # from the initial FDA submission.</P>
                    <P>
                        The term “representative sampling of advertisements” would be defined to mean advertising material that gives a comprehensive picture of the promotional claims and campaigns in use for each tobacco product and which includes representative material from each medium being used to promote the product (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         advertisements that appear in or on magazines, newspapers, direct mail materials, retail or point-of-sale displays, posters, billboards, and via internet and mobile communications, such as web pages, banner advertisements, and text messages).
                    </P>
                    <P>The term “specification developer” would be defined as a person who controls the design and development of a tobacco product or initiates or creates the specifications for the product.</P>
                    <P>The term “Submission Tracking Number (STN)” would be defined to mean the number that FDA assigns to submissions that are received from an applicant, such as a PMTA, supplemental PMTA, SE reports, SE exemption requests (EX REQ), MRTPA, and submissions related to investigational tobacco products.</P>
                    <P>The term “third-party manufacturer” would be defined as an entity, including a contract manufacturer, that physically manufactures a tobacco product on behalf of, or to specifications established by, another party, such as a brand owner or specification developer.</P>
                    <P>The term “tobacco product” would be defined the same way as in section 201(rr) of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 321(rr)). It would mean any product made or derived from tobacco, or containing nicotine from any source, that is intended for human consumption, including any component, part, or accessory of a tobacco product (except for raw materials other than tobacco used in manufacturing a component, part, or accessory of a tobacco product). The term “tobacco product” does not mean an article under the FD&amp;C Act that is a drug (section 201(g)(1)), a device (section 201(h)), or a combination product (section 503(g)). The term “tobacco product” does not mean an article that is a food (section 201(f)) if such article contains no nicotine, or no more than trace amounts of naturally occurring nicotine. This definition is consistent with FDA's “Registration and Product Listing for Owners and Operators of Domestic Tobacco Product Establishments, Guidance for Industry” (revised March 2023).</P>
                    <P>
                        The term “Tobacco Product Number (TP #)” would be a product-specific number that is generated by FDA for each product listed on an establishment's registration.
                        <PRTPAGE P="39176"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Who Must Register and Submit a Tobacco Product List (Proposed § 1108.20)</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.20(a) and (b) specify those persons who would be required to register and to submit a tobacco product list to FDA. This paragraph would require an owner or operator of an establishment, except those listed in § 1108.20(c), engaged in the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of a tobacco product to register in accordance with section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act. This includes any owner or operator of any domestic establishment that manufactures a tobacco product for export, as well as any owner or operator of any establishment engaged in the manufacture of free smokeless tobacco samples. Manufacturers of tobacco products also include specification developers, third-party manufacturers, bulk tobacco product manufacturers, and repackagers/relabelers.</P>
                    <P>FDA is aware that some tobacco product manufacturers have established an organizational structure that places the specification development functions in an entity separate from the entity in charge of physically manufacturing the tobacco product; these entities develop and usually control changes to the specifications of the tobacco product. Such entities are specification developers under the proposed rule. If a specification developer designs, establishes, or provides the specifications of a tobacco product to another entity to physically manufacture the product, both the specification developer and the other entity would be engaged in the manufacture of tobacco products for purposes of this rule and would be required to comply with this proposed rule. Product design and the development of product specifications are integral parts of manufacturing.</P>
                    <P>Additionally, owners or operators are required to register every domestic establishment engaged in the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of tobacco products, whether those establishments are distributing their tobacco product into domestic commerce or exporting them. FDA has the authority to inspect these establishments regardless of the destination of their shipments, and registration and listing information helps FDA ensure that products produced by export-only manufacturers comply with the FD&amp;C Act and applicable regulations.</P>
                    <P>To avoid unnecessary duplicate registrations, proposed § 1108.20(a) would permit a parent, subsidiary, or affiliate company to submit registration information for all establishments when operations are conducted at more than one establishment and the establishments are under common or joint ownership or control, which is consistent with FDA's drug registration requirements for domestic and foreign establishments (see 21 CFR 207.17(a)). To reduce duplicative submissions, registration information for an establishment should be submitted by only one entity—the owner or operator of that establishment, or the establishment's parent, subsidiary, or affiliate establishment. Duplicate submissions would create unnecessary burden for the Agency in its submission review and create unnecessary work for registrants. For example, if the parent company has a subsidiary and an affiliate, the parent company can submit the registration information on behalf of the parent, the subsidiary, and the affiliate. Additionally, an owner or operator may authorize a third-party agent to register the establishment(s) on its behalf.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.20(b) provides that every person who is required to register, as specified in § 1108.20(a), would also be required to submit a listing of all tobacco products that are being manufactured, prepared, compounded or processed by such person for commercial distribution, in accordance with section 905(i) of the FD&amp;C Act and this proposed regulation. To reduce duplicative submissions, when operations are conducted at more than one establishment and the establishments are under common or joint ownership or control, this section would permit the parent, subsidiary, or affiliate company to submit listing information for all establishments.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.20(c) specifies persons who would not be required to register their establishments or submit a tobacco product list. Proposed § 1108.20(c)(1) states that persons engaged only in manufacturing investigational use tobacco products where the product is not available for sale or distribution other than as part of an investigation would not be required to register their establishments or list their products. However, if a manufacturer manufactures products for both investigational use and for commercial distribution, that manufacturer would be required to register its establishment and would be required to list its tobacco products that are manufactured for commercial distribution.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.20(c)(2) states that manufacturers of only raw materials, other than tobacco, used in manufacturing a component or part of a tobacco product would not be required to register their establishments or list their products. Examples of such raw materials would be unprocessed acacia gum (taken from a tree and not processed) and minted titanium dioxide (used for whitening cigarette and tipping paper). For example, a manufacturer that only produces acetate tow used in the manufacturing of a filter for a cigarette would not be required to register its establishment or list its products. However, a manufacturer of both a tobacco product and raw material would have to register the establishment and list the tobacco product.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.20(c)(3) states that common carriers, in their receipt, carriage, holding, or delivery of a tobacco product in the usual course of business would not need to register their establishment or submit a tobacco product list. For example, a carrier for the United Parcel Service would typically be considered a common carrier under this proposed provision and, accordingly, would not be required to comply with the registration and listing requirements.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.20(d) states that registration and listing of a product does not constitute an admission, agreement, or determination by FDA that a product is a tobacco product within the meaning of section 201(rr) of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 321(rr)). In addition, registration and listing do not denote FDA authorization for the marketing of tobacco products in the United States within the meaning of sections 905 or 910 of the FD&amp;C Act. Listed products that are subject to sections 905 and 910 of the FD&amp;C Act are not authorized for the legal sale and distribution in the United States unless they have an FDA marketing authorization order in effect.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. When To Submit Establishment Registration and Tobacco Product Listing (Proposed § 1108.22)</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.22 prescribes when an owner or operator of an establishment would have to submit its initial establishment registration and tobacco product listing as well as the continuing obligations of owners and operators to submit this information.</P>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1108.22(a) provides that an owner or operator of a domestic establishment that has not previously engaged in an operation described in § 1108.20(a) would have to submit establishment registration and product listing information within five business days from first engaging in an operation described in § 1108.20(a). Section 905(c) requires domestic manufacturers to “immediately register” their 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39177"/>
                        establishments and list their products upon beginning any of these operations. We interpret “immediately” as used in section 905(c) to mean within five days from beginning the operation. This is the same interpretation of “immediately” that FDA has implemented for initial drug registration requirements for domestic establishments (see section 510(c) of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 360(c)) and 21 CFR 207.21(a)).
                    </P>
                    <P>Section 905(h) requires foreign manufacturers to register “under regulations promulgated by the Secretary.” Proposed § 1108.22(a) provides that an owner or operator of a foreign establishment engaged in an operation described in proposed § 1108.20(a) would be required to submit establishment registration and tobacco product listing information before any tobacco product manufactured, prepared, compounded, or processed at the establishment is imported or offered for import into the United States, which also comports with FDA's initial drug registration requirements for foreign establishments (see 21 CFR 207.21(b)).</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.22(b) would require owners or operators to review, change as needed, or confirm there have been no changes to, their establishment registration and product listing information that is on file with FDA, documenting any changes that were not previously reported. Proposed § 1108.22(b) would also outline the submission timelines for these updates.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.22(b)(1) would require that, by December 31st of each year, each owner or operator of an establishment engaged in an operation described in § 1108.20(a) must register each of its establishments, and certify that all information associated with the registered establishments and its listed products is accurate and up to date. Each owner or operator of a registered establishment would need to review, change as needed, or confirm there have been no changes to, the registered establishment information and listed products. Annual registration would still be required even to confirm that there have been no changes.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.22(b)(2) would require each owner or operator of an establishment engaged in an operation described in § 1108.20(a) to review, change as needed, or confirm there have been no changes to their tobacco product listing information on file with FDA in June and December of every year. Owners or operators would be required to report any changes or deletions to listings previously reported, including any material changes to product listings previously reported, as described in § 1108.28, and list any new products not previously reported. For example, if the labeling for a product is changed in October, the product listing information would have to be changed accordingly in December of the same year. This information would be used to help ensure the products marketed are in compliance with the FD&amp;C Act and its implementing regulations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Information Required for Tobacco Product Establishment Registration and Tobacco Product Listing (Proposed § 1108.24)</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.24 would contain the requirements for an owner or operator to submit information about their establishment and tobacco products. The Tobacco Control Act and its implementing regulations establish a framework that enables FDA to request and receive information on establishment registration and tobacco product listing, and to set up systems through which FDA would have an integrated picture of the tobacco product distribution system. As a part of FDA's central information system, this proposed rule addresses the need for information on which domestic and foreign establishments manufacture a tobacco product or tobacco products distributed in the United States; which tobacco product each establishment handles; and how each establishment can be contacted. This information helps facilitate communication between the Agency and tobacco product establishments and is important for FDA to schedule and plan statutorily required inspections of registered establishments. This information would help FDA identify establishments operating in violation of the FD&amp;C Act, such as those manufacturing products that are adulterated or misbranded under sections 902 and 903 of the FD&amp;C Act or products that are non-compliant with FDA's premarket authorization requirements under section 910 of the FD&amp;C Act, or to facilitate the recall of non-compliant tobacco products that have entered United States commercial distribution. For example, FDA has used registration and listing information from domestic establishments that have initiated recalls to determine the depth of recall for the establishment's recall strategy and for FDA to verify the effectiveness of the recall depth specified by the strategy. This information would likewise facilitate the recall strategy and effectiveness checks for foreign establishments that initiate recalls.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.24(a) would contain the establishment registration information required, if applicable, to be submitted to FDA using FDA's electronic tobacco product registration and listing system, except as provided in § 1108.40(b). Proposed § 1108.24(a)(1) would require the full name, physical address, mailing address, and contact information for the establishment. Proposed § 1108.24(a)(2) would require the name, address, phone number, fax number, and email address of the owner and operator; if a partnership, the name of each partner; if a corporation, the place of incorporation and the name of each corporate officer and director; any trade names used by the owner and operator or other names under which the owner and operator conducts business or additional names by which the owner and operator is known. This information is important for FDA to efficiently coordinate inspections under section 905(g) of the FD&amp;C Act, including by reducing duplication of registered establishments.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.24(a)(3) would require the name, address, phone number, fax number, and email address of the official correspondent designated by the owner or operator. This information is necessary in order for FDA to efficiently correspond on issues regarding the registration and listing submissions.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.24(a)(4) would require any trade names used by the establishment or other names under which the establishment conducts business or additional names by which the establishment is known. This information would allow FDA to reduce duplication and properly identify establishments to determine whether they are properly registered and would eliminate confusion if an establishment is known by multiple names or if different establishments are known by similar names.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.24(a)(5) would require the establishment's website address(es) that concern tobacco products. This information is important to enable FDA to determine that tobacco products being manufactured for distribution are in compliance with the FD&amp;C Act and applicable regulations. For example, FDA would be better able to determine whether such activities render a product misbranded under the FD&amp;C Act or reflect the marketing of an unlisted or unauthorized product. Although this would only apply to manufacturers at this time, FDA would consider expanding this type of requirement to other entities that have websites that market tobacco products.</P>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1108.24(a)(6) would require the RGID # of the establishment, if previously assigned by FDA. This 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39178"/>
                        information is important to ensure FDA and industry are referring to the same registered establishments and listed products and is needed as a point of reference when processing registration and product listing updates, including when a waiver has been obtained for paper submission.
                    </P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.24(a)(7) would require the FDA Establishment Identifier (FEI) number if FDA previously assigned one to the establishment. FDA would provide an FEI number if the establishment has not been assigned one. Proposed § 1108.24(a)(7) would also allow optional submission of another unique identifier, such as a Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS) Number, for the place of business of the owner, the place of business of the operator, and the location of the establishment. If submitted, this information would help FDA determine whether an establishment has been duly registered and to distinguish between registered establishments, especially if they have similar names.</P>
                    <P>Lastly, proposed § 1108.24(a)(8) would require the name of the Tribe if the establishment is located on Indian Country. The name of the Tribe for establishments located on Indian Country would help FDA coordinate compliance directly with the appropriate tribal government and respect statutory limits on contracting with third parties for inspections in Indian Country.</P>
                    <P>FDA is considering requiring establishments to provide additional contact information in their registration. The Agency requests comments on whether to also require the name, address, and contact information for the establishment's direct accounts, if applicable. Because tobacco products move through direct accounts, knowing those accounts would be helpful for FDA to verify compliance, facilitate the identification of adulterated or misbranded tobacco products that have entered commercial distribution, and take prompt compliance and enforcement actions when warranted.</P>
                    <P>FDA also requests comments on whether to require the name, address, phone number, fax number, email address, and contact information for the establishment's importers and consignees, if applicable. Section 905(h) of the FD&amp;C Act requires registration of foreign establishments whose products are imported or offered for import into the United States. Importer and consignee information would help FDA determine whether imported tobacco products originate from registered establishments and would help FDA identify such products that may be in commercial distribution, including those that may be adulterated or misbranded under sections 902 and 903 of the FD&amp;C Act.</P>
                    <P>FDA also requests comments on whether to require, for any tobacco product brand manufactured by the establishment that is not owned by the establishment, the name, address, phone number, fax number, email address, and contact information for the establishment's tobacco product brand owners. Requiring contact information for tobacco product brand owners would ensure that FDA can associate all manufacturers of finished and bulk tobacco products with brand owners. Section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act requires owners or operators to register each establishment engaged in the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of a tobacco product. Because brand owners may contract out these functions while retaining ultimate control over the product, the information that would be required would enable FDA to identify the brand owners on whose behalf manufacturers are producing a specific tobacco product. This information would help FDA identify the entity responsible for marketing or introducing such products into commercial distribution, including tobacco products that may be adulterated or misbranded under sections 902 and 903 of the FD&amp;C Act.</P>
                    <P>FDA also requests comments on whether to require the name, address, phone number, fax number, email address, and contact information for the establishment's tobacco product specification developers, if any. As discussed in proposed § 1108.20(a), manufacturers of tobacco products include specification developers, so specification developers would be required to register their establishments and list their tobacco products. Because specification developers exercise functional control over product design and specifications, even if physical manufacturing is performed by another manufacturer, requiring the specification developer's contact information would help FDA associate manufacturers that physically manufacture finished and bulk tobacco products with the manufacturers that develop their specifications. To this end, this information would help FDA efficiently identify establishments operating in violation of the FD&amp;C Act, such as products that are adulterated or misbranded under sections 902 and 903 of the FD&amp;C Act, or products that are non-compliant with FDA's premarket authorization requirements under section 910 of the FD&amp;C Act, or to facilitate the recall of non-compliant tobacco products that have entered United States commercial distribution.</P>
                    <P>FDA requests comments on whether to require the brand owner, direct account, consignee, and importer information described above that the Agency is considering requiring, or any other information, and the reasons why.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.24(b) would provide that owners or operators of tobacco product establishments who have been granted a waiver under § 1108.40(b) from filing electronically through FDA's tobacco product registration and listing system must submit the information required by § 1108.24(a) in paper form using the procedures provided by FDA in accordance with § 1108.40(c).</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.24(c) would require the owner or operator to designate an official correspondent for the registration to serve as their point of contact with FDA on issues relating to establishment registration and listing of tobacco products. Similar to what is recommended by the R&amp;L Guidance, proposed § 1108.24(c)(1) and (c)(2) state that the official correspondent would be responsible for electronically transmitting to FDA all required registration and listing information unless a waiver from electronic submission has been granted in accordance with § 1108.40(b) as well as serving as a liaison for all correspondence with FDA concerning registration and listing.</P>
                    <P>FDA is proposing to require identification of an official correspondent for two reasons. First, an official correspondent is important to help FDA ensure adequate notice is provided to registrants through official Agency communications. As such, the designation of an official correspondent provides the agency with an official contact who can receive the information or documentation on behalf of the registrant. Second, identification of an official correspondent would assist FDA in communication with the registrant and help the Agency to efficiently process submissions and avoid delays. An official correspondent would act as a communications link between FDA and the registrant and would facilitate timely correspondence between FDA and the registrant, including responding to questions concerning registrations.</P>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1108.24(d) would provide that the designation of an official correspondent does not in any manner affect the liability of the owner or operator of the establishment or any other individual under section 301(p) of the FD&amp;C Act or any other provision of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39179"/>
                        the FD&amp;C Act and its implementing regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.24(e) would require owners or operators to submit listing information identified in paragraphs (e)(1) through (e)(10) for each tobacco product manufactured, prepared, compounded, or processed for commercial distribution. This information is important for FDA to identify the specific tobacco products that are being manufactured at each establishment. For example, FDA would be able to determine whether the same or similar products are being marketed under different brands or subbrands of tobacco products. The information must be submitted electronically through FDA's tobacco product registration and listing system unless FDA grants a waiver from electronic submission under § 1108.40(b).</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.24(e)(1) would require each listing to include the current electronic tobacco product registration and listing system RGID # and the name of each establishment. The RGID # and name of each establishment would help FDA identify the products manufactured at that establishment, especially where multiple establishments have similar names. In the case of an owner or operator with multiple establishments, FDA would be able to use the manufacturing location to determine where to inspect to determine each tobacco product's compliance with the requirements of the FD&amp;C Act. FDA would assign a RGID # to the initial establishment registration and product list submission. Any subsequent new establishment with the same owner and/or operator which begins performing a tobacco product manufacturing activity would be added by the registrant under that RGID #.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.24(e)(2) would require the name, including brand and subbrand name, or other commercial name(s) used in commercial distribution, for each tobacco product the registrant manufactures, prepares, compounds, or processes at a registered establishment.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.24(e)(3) would require the uniquely identifying information for each tobacco product the registrant manufactures, prepares, compounds, or processes, including product category, product subcategory, and product properties as provided in Table 1 below. If the product does not have a particular listed product property, such as filter ventilation percentage or characterizing flavor, the application would need to state “none” for that property. If a tobacco product listing did not include uniquely identifying information required under proposed § 1108.24(e)(3), the listing would not be complete.</P>
                    <P>FDA is proposing that uniquely identifying information would include the following:</P>
                    <P>
                        • Product category (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         cigarette, smokeless tobacco product);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Product subcategory (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         filtered cigarettes, loose moist snuff);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Package type (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         hard pack or soft pack, plastic bag);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Product quantity or count (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         15 grams (g), 10 pouches);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Portion size (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         1.5 g/pouch);
                    </P>
                    <P>• Length for cigarettes, cigarette tubes, rolling paper, paper tips, filters, and other tobacco products that contain this property;</P>
                    <P>• Width of rolling paper and other tobacco products that contain this property;</P>
                    <P>• Diameter of cigarettes, cigarette tubes, filters, and other tobacco products for which this property may be calculated;</P>
                    <P>• Filter ventilation percentage of cigarettes, filtered cigarette tubes, paper tips, filters, and other tobacco products that contain this property;</P>
                    <P>
                        • E-liquid volume (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         0.5 ml, 2.0 ml);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Nicotine concentration (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         0 mg/ml, 0.2 mg/ml, 0.4 mg/ml, 1%, 0.2 mg/e-cigarette);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Nicotine source (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Propylene glycol (numeric value) and vegetable glycerin (numeric value) (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         N/A, 0/100, 50/50, 100/0);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Wattage (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         100 W, 200 W);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Battery capacity (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         100 mAh, 200 mAh);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         menthol, tobacco, strawberry, grape, orange, clove, cinnamon, pineapple, vanilla, coconut, licorice, cocoa, chocolate, cherry, coffee, unflavored), which is from the packaging or other labeling if applicable; and
                    </P>
                    <P>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</P>
                    <P>The following table is not exhaustive and does not encompass all potential products and their uniquely identifying properties and is intended to serve as an example.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r150">
                        <TTITLE>Table 1—Elements of Uniquely Identifying Information by Tobacco Product Category and Subcategory</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Tobacco product category</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Tobacco product
                                <LI>subcategory</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Product properties</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Cigarettes</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Filtered</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 hard pack, soft pack, clam shell).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     20 cigarettes, 25 cigarettes).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 89.1 mm, 100.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Diameter (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Filter ventilation percentage (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 none, 10.0%, 25.0%).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Cigarettes </ENT>
                            <ENT>• Non-filtered</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 hard pack, soft pack, clam shell).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     20 cigarettes, 25 cigarettes).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 89.1 mm, 100.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Diameter (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Filter ventilation percentage (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 none, 10.0%, 25.0%).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Cigarettes</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Other</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 hard pack, soft pack, clam shell).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     20 cigarettes, 25 cigarettes).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="39180"/>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 89.1 mm, 100.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Diameter (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 6.0 mm, 8.125 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Filter ventilation percentage (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 none, 10.0%, 25.0%).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">RYO tobacco</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Roll-Your-Own Tobacco Filler</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 bag, pouch).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     20.1 g, 16.0 oz).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, menthol).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">RYO tobacco</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Rolling Paper</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 box, booklet).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     50 sheets, 200 papers).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 79.1 mm, 100.0 mm, 110.2 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Width (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 28.1 mm, 33.0 mm, 45.2 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, menthol).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">RYO tobacco</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Cigarette Tube, Filtered</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 bag, box)
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     100 tubes, 200 tubes).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 89 mm, 100.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Diameter (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Filter ventilation percentage (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 none, 10.0%, 25.0%).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">RYO tobacco</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Cigarette Tube, Non-filtered</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 bag, box).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     100 tubes, 200 tubes).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 89.1 mm, 100.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Diameter (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">RYO tobacco</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Filter</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 bag, box).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     100 filters, 200 filters).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 8.0 mm, 12.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Diameter (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">RYO tobacco</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Paper Tip</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 bag, box).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     200 tips, 275 tips).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 12.0 mm, 15.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Width (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 27.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">RYO tobacco</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Other</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 bag, box).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     200 tips, 100 filters, 200 tubes).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Smokeless tobacco</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Moist Snuff, Loose</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     20.0 g, 2.1 oz).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="39181"/>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Smokeless tobacco</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Moist Snuff, Portioned</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     22.5 g, 20.0 g).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion count (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 15 pouches, 20 pieces).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion mass (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 1.5 g/pouch, 1.0 g/piece).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 15.0 mm, 20.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion width (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 10.0 mm, 15.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion thickness (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 5.0 mm, 7.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Smokeless tobacco</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Snus, Loose</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     20.0 g, 2.1 oz).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Smokeless tobacco</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Snus, Portioned</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
                                <LI>• Product quantity (22.5 g, 20.0 g).</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion count (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 15 pouches, 20 pieces).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion mass (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 1.5 g/pouch, 1.0 g/piece).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 15.0 mm, 20.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion width (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 10.0 mm, 15.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion thickness (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 5.0 mm, 7.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Smokeless tobacco</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Dry Snuff, Loose</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     20.0 g, 2.1 oz.)
                                </LI>
                                <LI>
                                    • Nicotine source (
                                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                     tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Smokeless tobacco</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Dissolvable</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     22.5 g, 20.0 g).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion count (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 15 sticks, 20 pieces).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion mass (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 1.5 g/strip, 1.0 g/piece).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 10.0 mm, 15.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion width (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 5.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion thickness (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 3.0 mm, 4.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Smokeless tobacco</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Chewing Tobacco, Loose</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 bag, pouch, wrapped).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     20.0 g, 3.1 oz).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Smokeless tobacco</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Chewing Tobacco, Portioned</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 plastic can with metal lid, plastic can with plastic lid).
                                <LI>• Product quantity (22.5 g, 20.0 g).</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion count (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 10 bits).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion mass (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 2.1 g/bit).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 8.0 mm, 10.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion width (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion thickness (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 5.1 mm, 7.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="39182"/>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Smokeless tobacco</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Other</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 bag, box, can).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     20.1 g, 22.5 g, 3.0 oz.).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">ENDS</ENT>
                            <ENT>• E-Liquid, Open</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 bottle, box, pod).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     1 bottle, 5 bottles).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • E-liquid volume (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 0.5 ml, 2.0 ml, 5.1 ml).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine concentration (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 0 mg/ml, 0.2 mg/ml, 0.4 mg/ml, 1%, 0.2 mg/bottle).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Propylene glycol (PG)/vegetable glycerin (VG) ratio (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 not applicable [N/A], 0/100, 50/50, 100/0).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">ENDS</ENT>
                            <ENT>• E-Liquid, Closed</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 cartridge, pod).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     1 cartridge, 5 cartridges).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • E-liquid volume (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 0.5 ml, 2.0 ml, 5.1 ml).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine concentration (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 0 mg/ml, 0.2 mg/ml, 0.4 mg/ml, 1%, 2.0 mg/bottle).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • PG/VG ratio (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 N/A, 0/100, 50/50, 100/0).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">ENDS</ENT>
                            <ENT>• E-Cigarette, Closed</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 box, none, plastic clamshell).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     1 e-cigarette, 5 e-cigarettes).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 100.0 mm, 120.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Diameter (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 6.0 mm, 8.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Wattage (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 100 W, 200 W).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Battery capacity (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 100 mAh, 200 mAh).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • E-liquid volume (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 0.5 ml, 2.0 ml, 5.1 ml).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine concentration (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 0 mg/ml, 0.2 mg/ml, 0.4 mg/ml, 1%, 0.2 mg/e-cigarette).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • PG/VG ratio (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 N/A, 0/100, 50/50, 100/0).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">ENDS</ENT>
                            <ENT>• E-Cigarette, Open</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 box, none, plastic clamshell).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     1 e-cigarette, 5 e-cigarettes).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 100.0 mm, 120.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Diameter (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 6.0 mm, 8.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • E-liquid volume (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 0.5 ml, 2.0 ml, 5.1 ml).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Wattage (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 100 W, 200 W).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Battery capacity (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 100 mAh, 200 mAh).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">ENDS</ENT>
                            <ENT>• ENDS Component</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 box, none, plastic clamshell).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                    1 coil).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol, cherry, wintergreen).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">ENDS</ENT>
                            <ENT>• ENDS Other</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 box, none, plastic clamshell).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     1 e-cigarette, 5 bottles).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="39183"/>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, cherry, wintergreen, tobacco, menthol).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Cigars</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Cigar, Filtered Sheet-Wrapped</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 hard pack, soft pack, clam shell).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     20 filtered cigars, 25 filtered cigars).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 89.1 mm, 100.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Diameter (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Filter ventilation percentage (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 none, 0%, 10.0%, 25.0%).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, menthol).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Cigars</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Cigar, Unfiltered Sheet-Wrapped</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 box, film sleeve).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     1 cigar, 5 cigarillos).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 100.1 mm, 140.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Diameter (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 8.0 mm, 10.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Tip (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 none, wood tips, plastic tips).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, menthol).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Cigars</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Cigar, Unfiltered Leaf-Wrapped</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 box, film, sleeve, none).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     1 cigar, 5 cigars).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 150.1 mm, 200.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Diameter (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 8.0 mm, 10.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Wrapper material (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 burley tobacco leaf, Connecticut shade grown tobacco leaf).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, whiskey).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Cigars</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Cigar Component</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 box, booklet).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     10 wrappers, 20 leaves).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, menthol, cherry).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Cigars</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Cigar Tobacco Filler</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 bag, pouch).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     20.0 g, 16.1 oz.).
                                </LI>
                                <LI>
                                    • Nicotine source (
                                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                     tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, menthol, cherry).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Cigars</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Other</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 box, booklet).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     1 cigar, 5 cigars, 20 leaves, 16 g).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, menthol, cherry).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pipe Tobacco Products</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Pipe</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 box, none).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     1 pipe).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 200.0 mm, 300.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Diameter (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 25.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, menthol, cavendish, cherry).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pipe Tobacco Products</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Pipe Tobacco Filler</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 bag, none).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     20.0 g, 16.1 oz).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Tobacco cut style (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 standard cut, such as shag cut, bugler cut, loose cut, etc., or a pressed cut, such as flake, cube cut, roll cake, etc., or a mixture).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="39184"/>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, menthol, cavendish, cherry).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pipe Tobacco Products</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Pipe Component</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 box, bag, none).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     1 bowl, 1 stem, 100 filters).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, cherry).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Pipe Tobacco Products</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Other</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 bag, box, none).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     1 pipe).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, cherry).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Waterpipe Tobacco Products</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Waterpipe</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 box, none).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     1 waterpipe).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Height (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 200.0 mm, 500.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Width (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 100.1 mm, 300.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Diameter (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 100.1 mm, 300.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Number of hoses (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 1, 2, 4).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Waterpipe Tobacco Products</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Waterpipe Tobacco Filler</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 bag, pouch).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     20.0 g, 16.1 oz.).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol, apple).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Waterpipe Tobacco Products</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Waterpipe Heat Source</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 box, film sleeve, bag, none).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     150.0 g, 680.0 g).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion count (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 20 fingers, 10 discs, 1 base).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion mass (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 15.0 g/finger, 10.0g/brick).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 40.0 mm, 100.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion width (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 10.0 mm, 40.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Portion thickness (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 10.0 mm, 40.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Source of energy (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 charcoal, battery, electrical).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, menthol, apple).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Waterpipe Tobacco Products</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Waterpipe Component</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 bag, box, none).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     1 base, 1 bowl, 1 hose, 10 mouthpieces).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, menthol, cherry).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Waterpipe Tobacco Products</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Waterpipe Other</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 bag, box, none).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     1 base, 1 bowl, 1 hose, 10 mouthpieces).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, cherry).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Heated Tobacco Products (HTP)</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Closed HTP</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 box, none, plastic clamshell).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     1 device, 1 HTP).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 100.0 mm, 120.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Diameter (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Wattage (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 100 W, 200 W).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Battery capacity (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 100 mAh, 200 mAh).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="39185"/>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Heated Tobacco Products (HTP)</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Open HTP</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 box, none, plastic clamshell).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     1 device, 1 HTP).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 100.0 mm, 120.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Diameter (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Wattage (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 100 W, 200 W).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Battery capacity (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 100 mAh, 200 mAh).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Heated Tobacco Products (HTP)</ENT>
                            <ENT>• HTP Consumable</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 hard pack, soft pack, plastic clamshell).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     20 sticks, 25 cartridges).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Length (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 60.0 mm, 82.0 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Diameter (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 6.0 mm, 8.1 mm).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Filter ventilation percentage (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 none, 10.0%, 25.0%).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, menthol).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Heated Tobacco Products (HTP)</ENT>
                            <ENT>• HTP Component</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 box, none, plastic clamshell).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     1 mouthpiece, 1 spacer).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Heated Tobacco Products (HTP)</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Other</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 box, bag, plastic clamshell, none).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     1 base, 5 capsules).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Other Tobacco Products</ENT>
                            <ENT>• Other</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                • Package type (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 box, bag, plastic clamshell, none).
                                <LI>
                                    • Product quantity (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     1 base, 5 capsules).
                                </LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Nicotine source (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 tobacco-derived nicotine (TDN), non-tobacco derived nicotine (NTN), both, or none).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>
                                • Characterizing flavor(s) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 unflavored, tobacco, menthol, cherry).
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                            <ENT>• Additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product (if applicable).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        This information would enable the Agency to accurately identify each individual tobacco product in commercial distribution. Additionally, this information would allow for a 1:1 comparison to link tobacco products across submissions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         ingredient listings, harmful and potentially harmful constituent listings, premarket orders). This would increase the efficiency with which FDA would be able to process those submissions.
                    </P>
                    <P>We seek comments on other unique identification elements to require for cigars, pipes, waterpipes, ENDS, and other tobacco products beyond those identified in Table 1. Please specifically identify the elements FDA should require and why they are needed to uniquely identify the product.</P>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1108.24(e)(4) would require tobacco product listing information to include the FDA-assigned TP #, for updates to previous product list submissions, and the industry-assigned UPC. If a UPC number is not available, an alternative industry product identification number, to include the number itself and the type of identifier (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         SKU, Item #, or Catalog #) must be provided in lieu of the UPC. The UPC is obtained and implemented by the manufacturer or brand owner as a globally unique identifier for each individual product or product variation (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         different colors, sizes, or flavors of the same product). SKU and catalog/item numbers typically have a more limited scope for tracking product inventory or a general product line and may vary according to a retailer or manufacturer's needs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1108.24(e)(5) would require the tobacco product listing information to include all FDA-assigned STNs, if any. STN would be defined to mean the number that FDA assigns to submissions that are received from an applicant, such as a PMTA, supplemental PMTA, SE reports, SE EX REQ, MRTPA, and submissions related to investigational tobacco products. Proposed § 1108.24(e)(6) would require the FDA-assigned Product Identification 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39186"/>
                        Number (PD #), if any. The PD # would be defined to mean the number that FDA assigns to each product within a submission to distinguish among the products included in that submission. A PD # is only relevant within the context of a specific STN. The FDA-assigned STN and PD #, if any, are required because section 905(i)(1)(A) of the FD&amp;C Act sets forth that a listed tobacco product subject to a tobacco product standard established under section 907 of the FD&amp;C Act or which is subject to section 910 of the FD&amp;C Act must provide a reference to the authority for the marketing of the tobacco product.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1108.24(e)(7) would require the listing to include the operations or processes that are conducted or done to the tobacco product at the establishment (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         compounding, repackaging, relabeling, remanufacturing, processing, contract manufacturing, specification development, manufacturing for export, or manufacturing activities other than those listed). This information would allow FDA to understand the stage of the manufacturing process that occurs for each tobacco product at each establishment location, which can help direct FDA inspections, aid in potential recalls, and assist with any enforcement actions. Additionally, the information would allow FDA to better prepare for each upcoming inspection. For example, a smokeless tobacco product may have manufacturing that occurs in one location, repackaging that occurs in a second location, and relabeling that occurs in a third location. The proposed requirement would require each establishment to list the operation or process that occurs at the establishment.
                    </P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.24(e)(8) would require that the listing for a tobacco product manufactured in any domestic establishment for export that does not conform to tobacco product standards established pursuant to section 907 of the FD&amp;C Act to include: (1) The manner in which the product does not conform to applicable tobacco product standards, (2) the destinations of the exported tobacco products for the previous year, and (3) the quantity of the product shipped to each country during the previous year. This information would need to be provided in the June biannual listing update required by § 1108.22(b)(2) and would assist FDA in preparing its tobacco product export report to Congress required under section 801(p) of the FD&amp;C Act.</P>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1108.24(e)(9) would require, per section 905(i)(1)(A) of the FD&amp;C Act, registrants to submit, for a tobacco product subject to a tobacco product standard established under section 907 of the FD&amp;C Act or which is subject to section 910 of the FD&amp;C Act for any new tobacco product, a reference to the authority for the marketing of the tobacco product (the submitter would have a list to choose from to indicate the type of market authorization status, such as a marketing granted order, SE order, SE exemption order, and would be able to enter STN as free text, as applicable), a legible, full color copy of all labeling for the product, indication of the category (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         labeling) of material being submitted and the associated product(s), and the original date the labeling materials were first disseminated and date when their dissemination was discontinued. Proposed § 1108.24(e)(10) would require registrants to submit, for all tobacco products not covered by paragraph (9), a legible, full color copy of all consumer information and other labeling for the product, a representative sampling of advertisements for the product, indication of the category (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         labeling, advertising, consumer information) of material being submitted and the associated product(s), and the original date the materials were first disseminated and date when their dissemination was discontinued. For labeling under §§ (9) and (10), only one representative package label need be submitted where differences exist only in the bar code, tax stamp, or pricing sticker. A material change to product labeling would require resubmission. Resubmission would not be required if the labeling change is insignificant (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         pertains only to grammar, non-substantial typographical errors, or to the tax stamp or bar code).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The dates of dissemination will facilitate FDA's surveillance of labeling and advertising by helping FDA determine when a tobacco product with violative labeling is being sold and when violative advertising for a tobacco product is in use. This information will enable FDA to more efficiently and effectively identify violations for current tobacco product labeling and advertising and pursue compliance and enforcement as appropriate. For example, if in its review FDA identifies evidence of a violation in labeling and/or advertising for a tobacco product (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         product labeling indicating that the product presents a reduced health risk without a modified risk tobacco product order in effect, or labeling that is false or misleading), the dates of dissemination will help FDA target its surveillance to determine whether the violative labeling is for a product currently being sold and whether the violative advertising is currently being used. This information, in turn, will help FDA more effectively ensure compliance with the requirements of the law and take enforcement action as appropriate.
                    </P>
                    <P>Currently, FDA reviews advertisements to help determine whether the advertisements and the product comply with the requirements in the FD&amp;C Act.</P>
                    <P>
                        The representative sampling of advertisements must include representative material from each medium being used to promote the product, such as advertisements that appear in or on magazines, newspapers, direct mail material, retail or point-of-sale displays, posters, billboards, and via internet and mobile communications (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         web pages, banner advertisements, text messages). For example, if more than one magazine advertisement is used for a brand of tobacco product, only one would need to be submitted, provided the promotional message is the same and the overall presentation only differs superficially, such as in background color, font type or border style.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, the proposed requirement would require the product listing to include a copy of all consumer information. Consumer information would not include information directed at wholesalers, distributors, or retailers, where such information is not available to consumers or the public (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         potential consumers).
                    </P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.24(f) states per section 905(i)(1)(C) of the FD&amp;C Act that, upon FDA's request, each owner or operator must submit: (1) A brief statement of the basis of the determination, if the registrant has determined that a tobacco product being listed is not subject to a tobacco product standard established under section 907 of the FD&amp;C Act, and (2) for good cause, a copy of all advertisements for a particular tobacco product not subject to a standard established under 907 of the FD&amp;C Act or to section 910 of the FD&amp;C Act. The required information would be required to be submitted within 30 calendar days of FDA's request.</P>
                    <P>
                        FDA requests comments on whether to require an owner or operator that has manufactured a tobacco product for distribution under a label other than its own to submit, upon request by FDA, the names of all distributors for whom it has been manufactured. This requirement would help FDA to efficiently and effectively ensure that currently marketed tobacco products are not adulterated or misbranded and protect the public health, by enabling FDA, for example, to identify, locate, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39187"/>
                        and take appropriate action regarding violative tobacco products, including in the event of a recall.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Maintaining a Historical File (Proposed § 1108.26)</HD>
                    <P>We believe the creation and maintenance of a historical file is reasonably required under section 909 of the FD&amp;C Act for FDA to ensure that the tobacco product is not adulterated or misbranded and to otherwise protect the public health. First, we believe this information is necessary for FDA to have access to a complete and accurate picture of the consumer information, labeling, and advertisements for the tobacco product, to more effectively and efficiently ensure compliance with the requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and its implementing regulations, which is necessary for the protection of the public health. Further, a historical file is necessary to ensure that the manufacturer can adequately comply with an FDA request made under section 905(i)(1)(B) of the FD&amp;C Act, which allows FDA to request for good cause “a copy of all advertisements for a particular tobacco product.” Moreover, the requirement for a historical file would not be unduly burdensome, taking into account that most manufacturers likely already maintain records of the labeling, advertising, and consumer information that a historical file would contain. FDA has observed on inspections of tobacco product manufacturers that most manufacturers are maintaining these types of records.</P>
                    <P>A historical file would help FDA to determine whether the labeling or advertising would render a tobacco product adulterated or misbranded. Under sections 903(a)(1) and (a)(7) of the FD&amp;C Act, a tobacco product is misbranded if its labeling or advertising, respectively, is false or misleading in any particular, and under section 902(8) of the FD&amp;C Act, a tobacco product is deemed adulterated if it is in violation of section 911 of the FD&amp;C Act. A historical file would enable FDA and registrants to evaluate compliance across all labeling and advertising, whether included in a representative sample or not. For example, FDA may make a determination that a piece of advertising contained in the representative sample submitted to FDA indicates that a product is being marketed as a modified risk tobacco product without a modified risk tobacco product order from the FDA order in effect. This would violate section 911 of the FD&amp;C Act and render a tobacco product adulterated under section 902(8) of the FD&amp;C Act. FDA may also determine, for instance, that a piece of labeling or advertising contains a claim that is false or misleading, which would render a product misbranded under section 903(a)(1) or section 903(a)(7)(A) of the FD&amp;C Act. In either instance, without a historical file, the registrant may not be able to review all similar pieces of advertising or labeling to bring its product into compliance. A historical file would also enable FDA to determine whether changes to such labeling and advertising necessary to bring the product into compliance are made across all consumer information and other labeling and advertising. For example, a historical file could contain advertising first disseminated in previous years, and that continues to be disseminated for tobacco products sold or distributed to consumers but was not submitted under section 905(i) of the FD&amp;C Act. A historical file requirement would also enable FDA, through a request made pursuant to section 905(i)(1)(B) of the FD&amp;C Act, to determine whether such advertising, and in turn, the product on the market, is in compliance with the requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and its implementing regulations (for example, to ensure that such advertising does not indicate that a product is a modified risk tobacco product without an FDA order in effect, or contain a claim that is false or misleading).</P>
                    <P>Moreover, a historical file is a critical tool for FDA to assess compliance during inspections. For example, during such inspections, FDA could review a firm's historical file to ensure that it accurately and correctly listed their tobacco products as required under proposed part 1108. In addition, FDA may review a registrant's historical file to ensure that it appropriately included required warnings on all labeling and advertising for such products on the market. Failure to include required warnings on labeling and advertising, for example, would render a tobacco product misbranded under section 903 of the FD&amp;C Act and would constitute a material change. Additionally, for products that are required to rotate required warning statements, reviewing a historical file would enable FDA to evaluate all advertisements disseminated over a specific timeframe to determine whether the advertisements adhere to the schedule of the quarterly rotation of the required warning statements in the applicable warning plan. Furthermore, reviewing a historical file would also enable FDA to evaluate compliance with warning statement requirements on all labels, such as random display and distribution requirements for warnings on packaging for certain products, including the requirement that such random display and distribution is done in accordance with an FDA approved warning plan.</P>
                    <P>Accordingly, proposed § 1108.26(a) and (b) would require each owner or operator to maintain a copy of all consumer information, labeling, and advertisements in use on the effective date of this rule for all tobacco products listed in accordance with this part. In addition, they would require each owner or operator to maintain a copy of all consumer information, labeling, and advertisements that is first used after the effective date of this rule. For the purposes of this subsection, consumer information, labeling, and advertisements are first used when the owner or operator had not used them previously or had used them previously but made a material change to them. This requirement would apply regardless of the type of consumer information, labeling, and advertisements, including when they are inserts, onserts, coupons, flyers, store circulars, direct mailers, email messages, social media sites, information contained in audio or video formats, point-of-sale materials, and any other promotional activities targeting consumers. This would include consumer information and other labeling (including package labels) for each tobacco product included in the product listing and advertisements (including those advertisements not submitted to FDA as part of a representative sampling of advertisements) for such tobacco products.</P>
                    <P>To satisfy this requirement, a registrant could maintain actual copies of the consumer information and other labeling (including labels), and advertisements disseminated for tobacco products. Alternatively, a registrant could maintain artwork files that show the design, layout, and content of the consumer information, labeling, and advertisements disseminated for use on or for the tobacco products. For example, a manufacturer may have labeling materials with different warning statements or different product inserts or onserts. In this case, the manufacturer would have to include, or reference, the location of each of the materials with different warning statements.</P>
                    <P>
                        Maintaining a copy of all consumer information, labeling, and advertisements can help provide FDA with a complete picture of how the product is marketed to consumers and whether it is compliant with the FD&amp;C Act. For example, section 903 provides 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39188"/>
                        that a tobacco product is misbranded if, for example, its labeling or advertising is false or misleading in any particular or if the product does not bear labeling that is required by an applicable tobacco product standard established under section 907 (section 903(a)(1) and (a)(9) of the FD&amp;C Act). The proposed rule's historical file requirements would also help enable FDA to determine if the tobacco products display required warning statements and are in compliance with the MRTP provisions in section 911 of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 387k). Furthermore, the materials maintained in a historical file would help to determine, for example, whether a tobacco product is counterfeit, as it would contain records from a manufacturer of its actual labeling, advertising, and consumer information, which could be used to compare to a potentially counterfeit tobacco product. The information maintained in a historical file would enable FDA to take enforcement action against counterfeit tobacco products more quickly and efficiently.
                    </P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.26(c) would require each owner or operator required to register and list who also distributes or causes to be distributed free samples of a smokeless tobacco product under 21 CFR 1140.16(d)(2) to maintain in the historical file documentation of such activities associated with such free sample distribution, including the name, date, and location of each event at which free samples are distributed, the names of the designated representatives who distribute the samples on behalf of the owner or operator, documentation of compliance with § 1140.16(d)(2)(iii)(A), including the identification of the law enforcement officer or licensed security guard present at the event, and documentation of steps taken to comply with § 1140.16(d)(2)(iv). Requiring such documentation can help to ensure that firms are aware of all the requirements for free sample distribution and that all elements of a qualified adult-only facility are present at each event. In addition, retention of advertisements used at free sample events under proposed section 1108.26(a) could allow FDA to verify whether branded t-shirts, posters, or other advertisements displayed in a qualified adult-only facility contain the required warning statements and that brand name signs are only used to identify the adult-only facility. This information can help FDA to prioritize compliance and enforcement activities such as investigations of free sample events.</P>
                    <P>Maintaining such free sample distribution information in the historical file documentation can help FDA to ensure that the free sample distribution activity at an event did not render a tobacco product misbranded or adulterated. For example, FDA could review the historical file to help verify whether owners or operators are in compliance with the qualified adult-only facility requirements for free sample distribution in 21 CFR 1140.16(d)(2)(iii) and (iv), to help ensure that such tobacco products were not distributed to a person younger than 21 years of age and were distributed in limited quantities. For example, FDA has received complaints alleging that some firms at promotional events were not checking identification and that particular firms distributed free samples that were not in compliance with 21 CFR 1140.16(d). This is particularly concerning to the extent free samples have allowed individuals younger than 21 years of age to obtain and use smokeless tobacco. FDA expects that owners or operators required to register and list are the entities that distribute, or cause the distribution of, most free samples of smokeless tobacco products. Nonetheless, in addition to this rulemaking, FDA would consider whether to expand this requirement to other entities that distribute, or cause the distribution of, free samples of smokeless tobacco products.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.26(d) would provide a timeframe for each owner or operator to maintain consumer information and other labeling or advertisements, as well as free sample distribution information for smokeless products, in the historical file. Specifically, this provision would state that each owner or operator must retain consumer information or other labeling or advertisements from the historical file while currently in use and retain for a period of not less than four years after the date of final dissemination for materials that are discontinued. In addition, each owner or operator would have to retain free sample distribution information for smokeless products for a period of not less than four years after the date of the event documented. The four-year timeframe is based on the particular material, not the continuous commercial distribution of the tobacco product. For example, if an owner or operator creates a magazine advertisement for a tobacco product, it would be required to maintain a copy of that advertisement until four years after the last time that particular advertisement was disseminated. In addition, each owner or operator would be permitted to discard free sample distribution information for smokeless products four years after the date the event was held.</P>
                    <P>FDA's ability to address potentially violative labeling and advertising may be hampered if firms were not required to maintain a historical file of labeling, advertising, and consumer information it disseminated for a sufficient time period. For example, FDA would be limited in its ability to ensure that firms comply with the requirements of the FD&amp;C Act and its implementing regulations if FDA could not demonstrate or verify that the firm commercially marketed violative products. In addition, FDA's ability to pursue violations of the FD&amp;C Act identified through routine internet and publication surveillance and investigate reports of tobacco related violations received from consumer complaints would be similarly affected. The materials maintained in a historical file would help FDA to address potentially violative tobacco products on the market by providing information that a manufacturer commercially marketed a tobacco product in a particular timeframe and/or location(s). Such evidence can help FDA target surveillance, collect additional evidence, and take appropriate action with respect to violative tobacco products on the market.</P>
                    <P>FDA has selected four years to help ensure that the records would be available for at least one FDA inspection under sections 704 and 905(g) of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 374). FDA's biennial inspections under section 905(g) are required to occur at least once in every 2-year period after a manufacturer registers an establishment with FDA, which could result in inspections occurring nearly 4 years apart. The four-year timeframe also takes into account that advertising can and sometimes does remain in use for several years since it is first disseminated for tobacco products that are sold or distributed, such as advertising in retail environments accessible to youth. We seek comments on whether the four-year timeframes are an appropriate length of time for each owner or operator to maintain such information and documentation in the historical file. Please explain the basis for your comment and any sources for reference.</P>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1108.26(e) contains the proposed requirements for the location of the historical file. Proposed § 1108.26(e)(1) and (e)(2) state that the contents of the historical file must be readily available at the registered establishment for inspection and copying by FDA and that it must be accessible within a reasonable time 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39189"/>
                        during inspection or upon FDA request. This provision, coupled with the requirements in proposed § 1108.26(a), would give FDA access to all consumer information, labeling, and advertising information that is needed to assess compliance with the FD&amp;C Act and its implementing regulations and help prevent adulterated and misbranded products from further distribution.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Updating Tobacco Product Listing Information (Proposed § 1108.28)</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.28 would provide the proposed requirements for an owner or operator to update its tobacco product listing information in accordance with section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act. These updates would assist FDA in conducting inspections and any investigations into the source of a reported adverse experience or complaint. Inaccurate or outdated product listing information would interfere with FDA's ability to effectively perform inspections and understand the scope of any such issues. Additionally, this information is important to enable FDA to stay current on those tobacco products introduced or delivered for introduction into interstate commerce in the United States and to make sure such tobacco products comply with the law.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.28(a)(1) would require tobacco product listing information to be updated if there is a change to the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing for commercial distribution of a listed tobacco product. Updates would be required when an establishment begins performing another activity on or to the tobacco product, discontinues manufacturing a tobacco product included in a list provided in proposed § 1108.24(e) for commercial distribution, or resumes manufacturing a tobacco product for which a notice of discontinuance was reported. For example, if an establishment registers in February as a facility that only manufactures finished tobacco products, but thereafter begins manufacturing bulk tobacco products at the same establishment in April, the establishment would have to provide that information in the June biannual listing of the same year according to the timeframe provided under proposed § 1108.22(b). Additionally, under proposed § 1108.28(a)(2), any material change to the listing information previously submitted would trigger the requirement to update the listing information. This would include when a registrant has begun to engage in manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of a listed tobacco product at an additional establishment added to the previously submitted registration or material changes to the previously submitted labeling, representative sampling of advertisements, or other consumer information for the product. Proposed § 1108.28(a)(3) would require updates to be made within the timeframes specified in § 1108.22(b) and to include the brand name of the product and the date it was introduced or activities were begun, discontinued, or resumed.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.28(b) would require an owner or operator who intends to introduce a tobacco product into commercial distribution, which was not previously included on their product list, to add that product to their product listing and provide product information required by § 1108.24(e).</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.28(c) and (d) would provide the proposed requirements for how to update product listing information when discontinuing a tobacco product and later resuming its commercial distribution, respectively. Proposed § 1108.28(c) would require an owner or operator who discontinues commercial distribution of a product to update the listing information using FDA's electronic tobacco product registration and listing system, except as provided in § 1108.40(b), to indicate the listed tobacco product is inactive. Additionally, proposed § 1108.28(d) would state that if commercial distribution is later resumed, the owner or operator must reactivate the previously inactivated product listed using FDA's electronic tobacco product registration and listing system and indicate the date on which commercial distribution resumed, except as provided in § 1108.40(b).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Assignment of an FDA Establishment Identifier (FEI) Number (Proposed § 1108.32)</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.32 states that FDA would assign each establishment an FEI number after confirming that complete initial establishment registration information has been submitted. FDA would send this information to the official correspondent of the owner or operator by email or postal mail (if the establishment has been granted a waiver under § 1108.40(b) of this part). Because an establishment can have a different address from the owner or operator, each establishment is assigned a unique FEI number.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Electronic Registration of Establishments and Listing of Tobacco Products (Proposed § 1108.40)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1108.40 contains the procedural requirements for electronically registering an establishment and listing tobacco product(s) and for obtaining a waiver from electronic submission. The majority of facilities, both in the United States and outside of the United States, have access to the internet, either within their companies or via other public means (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         public libraries or internet cafes).
                    </P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.40(a) states that all initial establishment registration information, updates to registration, initial tobacco product listing information, and updates to tobacco product listings would need to be provided to FDA via the electronic registration and listing system, except if FDA grants the owner or operator a waiver from electronic submission.</P>
                    <P>In April 2014, FDA replaced its original electronic submission system, eSubmitter, with the FDA Unified Registration and Listing System (FURLS) Tobacco Registration and Listing Module (TRLM). In 2020, FDA replaced the legacy FURLS TRLM system with a scalable tobacco registration system to handle large data processing and storage, the Tobacco Registration and Listing Module Next Generation (TRLM NG). TRLM NG makes the process of submitting registration and listing information more efficient for industry while providing faster access to this information for both FDA and industry.</P>
                    <P>Unlike the previous eSubmitter process, the current registration and listing electronic system is an online application that can be accessed from the TRLM NG website. This online system allows users to view and update their registration and listing information from any location and at any time. This system makes registration and listing information more accessible for both FDA and industry. When an establishment wants to view its establishment registration and product listing data, TRLM NG allows the establishment to do so via one website. This system reduces the burden on industry by eliminating the need to submit first-party Freedom of Information Act requests (as was the case with eSubmitter). TRLM NG also allows establishments to distinguish the items that need to be updated from those that do not need to be updated, thereby eliminating any confusion that previously led to duplicate data submissions. Lowering the number of duplicate data submissions reduces the administrative burden on industry and FDA.</P>
                    <P>
                        Electronic registration benefits both registering establishments and FDA. FDA can accept submissions from anywhere in the world, 24 hours a day 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39190"/>
                        and 7 days a week via the electronic tobacco product registration and listing system. Electronic registration enables the owner or operator to register more quickly than via the mail because confirmation occurs instantaneously with electronic registration. Additionally, electronic registration can be completed only when all of the required fields are complete, thereby ensuring all required data elements are entered and reducing the occurrence of incomplete registration. Moreover, the electronic registration system takes less time to complete than its paper counterpart, thus saving owners or operators additional time when registering more than one establishment. For example, the electronic registration would not require certain duplicative fields to be populated if the information is maintained in the submission. Finally, the electronic tobacco product registration and listing system (currently, TRLM NG) allows companies to update information or to indicate that no changes were made. If changes have been made, the establishment would be required to submit only the information or documents that have been changed; they would not have to resubmit information or documents that have not been changed.
                    </P>
                    <P>However, FDA recognizes that some owners or operators might be unable to access the internet and the electronic tobacco product registration and listing system. Proposed § 1108.40(b) states that waivers would be granted only if use of electronic means is not reasonable for the person requesting the waiver. To request a waiver, applicants would be required to send a letter to FDA requesting the waiver and provide certain information. Under proposed § 1108.40(b)(1) and (b)(2), the owner or operator would be required to submit the name and address of the tobacco product establishment(s) to be registered, a contact person for the owner or operator of the establishment, and the telephone number at which that person can be reached. If the establishment(s) has/have registered in the past, the letter would also have to include the RGID # and each registered establishment's FEI number. The owner or operator would also be required to submit a signed statement that use of the internet is not reasonable for the person requesting the waiver, and an explanation of why such use is not reasonable. Waiver requests may be granted if the owner or operator does not have an email address, access to a computer, or an internet service provider that can access the electronic tobacco product registration and listing system. FDA's experience is that a majority of establishment registration and product listing submissions are electronic and that paper submissions are rare. The Agency anticipates that requests for waivers will be minimal.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.40(c) explains that FDA would provide instructions on how to submit information to FDA if an owner or operator is granted a waiver. Generally, individuals granted a waiver from electronic filing would be required to submit the information specified in proposed § 1108.24 by postal mail in the timeframe specified in proposed § 1108.22. These timeframe requirements are the same as the requirements for those individuals submitting their registration and listing information electronically. Individuals granted a waiver would have to ensure their establishment registration is received by FDA annually by December 31st of each year and tobacco product listing information biannually in June and December—the same requirements for electronic filers.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.40(d) would provide that owners and operators who have obtained a waiver from filing electronically must notify FDA within 30 calendar days of any changes regarding the reasonableness of the waiver. For the owner or operator to be in compliance with the 30-calendar-day requirement, FDA would have to receive any notification of changes within 30 days of such change. These changes may include obtaining an internet service provider or other access to the internet. Proposed § 1108.40(d) is consistent with FDA's drug registration and listing requirements, which state that FDA may limit the duration and specify terms of a waiver from filing electronically (see 21 CFR 207.65(c)).</P>
                    <P>FDA is requesting comments from owners or operators who believe they would be unable to register electronically.</P>
                    <P>Lastly, proposed § 1108.40(e) would require that all registration and listing information must be provided in the English language. If a company publishes or disseminates consumer information, other labeling, or advertisements in a foreign language in the United States, the company would be required to submit the advertisement, other labeling, or consumer information in the foreign language as well as a true and accurate English translation of the material, along with a signed statement by an authorized representative of the establishment certifying that the English language translation is complete and accurate and a brief statement of the qualifications of the person that made the translation.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">J. Establishment Registration and Tobacco Product Listing for Foreign Establishments Importing or Offering for Import Tobacco Products Into the United States (Proposed § 1108.50)</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.50 sets forth the proposed establishment registration and tobacco product listing requirements for foreign tobacco product establishments. The proposed requirements are similar to those we are proposing for domestic owners or operators. FDA believes that applying these requirements similarly to domestic and foreign owners or operators would bring parity between them and improve FDA's understanding of the types of tobacco products being manufactured, the tobacco products sold in the United States, and the location of all establishments engaged in manufacturing them. This approach is consistent with FDA's drug registration and listing requirements, which likewise apply requirements similarly to domestic and foreign establishments (see 21 CFR 207).</P>
                    <P>Under proposed § 1108.50(a), any foreign establishment engaged in the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of a tobacco product that is imported or offered for import into the United States would have to register such establishment and submit its tobacco product listing information for products manufactured for commercial distribution in the United States.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.50(a)(1) would require the foreign establishment's official correspondent to facilitate communication among the establishment, the government of such foreign country, and representatives of FDA regarding matters related to establishment registration and tobacco product listing under section 905(h) of the FD&amp;C Act. Having a designated correspondent would foster consistent, efficient, and effective communication among these parties to make arrangements with the government of such foreign country or to otherwise ensure that adequate and effective means are available to enable FDA to determine whether tobacco products manufactured in such establishment, if imported or offered for import into the United States, are in compliance with the FD&amp;C Act. An official correspondent may also assist in coordinating FDA inspection of the registered establishment with the government of such foreign country or otherwise.</P>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1108.50(a)(2) would establish that certain foreign establishments would not be required to register or list. Specifically, the proposed requirements state that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39191"/>
                        establishments that only manufacture, prepare, compound, or process tobacco products that have entered a foreign trade zone (FTZ) and are exported from that FTZ without being further distributed in the United States (15 CFR part 400 and 19 CFR part 146) would not have to register or list. In contrast, if tobacco products are further distributed in the United States from an FTZ, the foreign establishment would be required to register and list its products in the same fashion as other foreign establishments that distribute tobacco products in the United States. Additionally, under the proposed rule, a foreign establishment would not be required to register if it is otherwise not required to register or list in accordance with proposed § 1108.20(c).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">K. Conditions for Registration of Foreign Tobacco Product Establishments (Proposed § 1108.52)</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.52 outlines the conditions of registration for foreign tobacco product establishments. Section 905(h) of the FD&amp;C Act grants the authority to issue regulations requiring foreign establishment registration and product listing provided that adequate and effective means are available to enable FDA to determine whether the manufacturer's products shall be refused entry on grounds set forth in section 801(a). Such means would exist through these proposed regulations to enable the Agency to identify listed foreign tobacco products for inspection and examination under section 801(a) that may include requesting copies of documents, taking photographs, collecting samples of finished tobacco products, components or parts, packaging, labeling, or labels, or other information.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">L. Public Availability of Registration and Tobacco Product Listing Information (Proposed § 1108.60)</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.60 outlines the proposed public availability of registration and tobacco product listing information. The proposed requirements in this section implement section 905(f) of the FD&amp;C Act, which expressly requires FDA to make establishment registration information available to the public for inspection. Proposed § 1108.60 states that establishment registration and tobacco product listing information would be available for public inspection and would be posted on the FDA website, in a manner consistent with 21 CFR part 20. Additionally, the proposed provision provides information for where to send requests for information for those without internet access.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">M. Misbranding (Proposed § 1108.62)</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.62 states that the registration of a tobacco product establishment or assignment of a registration number would not in any way denote FDA approval of the establishment or marketing authorization for its tobacco products. Any representation in consumer information, labeling, or advertising that creates an impression of FDA approval of a registered establishment, or an impression of FDA marketing authorization of a listed tobacco product, or an impression that a listed tobacco product is safe or less harmful because of registration or possession of a registration number, would be misleading and would result in the product being deemed misbranded under section 903 of the FD&amp;C Act. If a tobacco product is manufactured, prepared, propagated, compounded, or processed in an establishment not duly registered under section 905(b), 905(c), 905(d), or 905(h), is not included in a product list required by section 905(i), or its labeling or advertising is false or misleading in any particular, the product would be deemed misbranded under section 903(a) of the FD&amp;C Act. Section 301 of the FD&amp;C Act prohibits, among other things, the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of any tobacco product that is misbranded. The failure to register in accordance with section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act and the implementing regulations in this part, the failure to provide any information required by section 905(i) of the FD&amp;C Act and the implementing regulations in this part, or the failure to provide a notice required by section 905(i)(3) of the FD&amp;C Act and the implementing regulations in this part is a prohibited act under section 301(p) of the FD&amp;C Act.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Proposed Effective Date</HD>
                    <P>
                        FDA proposes that any final rule that issues based on this proposal become effective 60 days after the final rule publishes in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . FDA requests comments on this proposed effective date.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Preliminary Economic Analysis of Impacts</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Introduction</HD>
                    <P>We have examined the impacts of the proposed rule under E.O. 12866, E.O. 13563, E.O. 14192, the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612), and the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4).</P>
                    <P>Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct us to assess all benefits and costs of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Rules are economically significant under E.O. 12866 if they have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more; or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or Tribal governments or communities. The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) has determined that this proposed rule is a significant regulatory action under E.O. 12866.</P>
                    <P>Executive Order 14192 requires that any new incremental costs associated with certain significant regulatory actions “shall, to the extent permitted by law, be offset by the elimination of existing costs associated with at least 10 prior regulations.” This proposed rule, if finalized as proposed, is expected to be an E.O. 14192 regulatory action.</P>
                    <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act requires us to analyze regulatory options that would minimize any significant impact of a rule on small entities. Because the additional costs per entity of this rule are small, we propose to certify that the proposed rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.</P>
                    <P>The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Section 202(a)) requires us to prepare a written statement, which includes estimates of anticipated impacts, before proposing “any rule that includes any Federal mandate that may result in the expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted annually for inflation) in any 1 year.” The current threshold after adjustment for inflation is $187 million, using the most current (2024) Implicit Price Deflator for the Gross Domestic Product. This proposed rule would not result in an expenditure in any year that meets or exceeds this amount.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Overview of Benefits, Costs, and Transfers</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C § 387e) requires owners and operators of domestic establishments, upon first engaging in the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of a tobacco product, to immediately register their establishment, and to register annually thereafter.
                        <SU>7</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         It also requires owners and operators who register their establishment to submit, at the time of registration, a list of all tobacco 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39192"/>
                        products it manufactures, prepares, compounds, or processes.
                        <SU>8</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Changes to the product list are to be reported twice a year. Section 905 also requires foreign establishments to register in accordance with regulations published by FDA. This proposed rule would prescribe the format, content, and procedures for registration and product listing of domestic establishments and extend those requirements to foreign establishments engaged in the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of a tobacco product that is imported or offered for import into the United States.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             See Section 905(b), (c).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>8</SU>
                             See Section 905(i). The product listing includes additional information, such as a copy of all consumer information and other labeling as well as a representative sample of advertising for certain listed tobacco products.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Table 2 presents estimated annualized total costs associated with the provisions in this proposed rule for both domestic and foreign establishments as well as for FDA. The 20-year annualized total costs range from $6.80 million to $26.55 million at a 7 percent discount rate, with a primary estimate of $15.57 million. The annualized total costs range from $6.81 million to $26.55 million at a 3 percent discount rate, with a primary estimate of $15.57 million. Estimated costs to establishments are derived from registration and listing activities and from inspection costs. Total annualized costs to domestic tobacco product establishments are estimated at $13,574 and $13,429 per year using a discount rate of 7 and 3 percent respectively (primary estimate), over a period of 20 years. Total annualized costs to foreign tobacco product establishments are estimated at $370,215 and $377,071 per year using a discount rate of 7 and 3 percent respectively (primary estimate). Annualized costs to FDA are approximately $15.18 million, also using a discount rate of 7 percent and 3 percent (primary estimate). These costs include costs to FDA associated with conducting both domestic and foreign inspections.</P>
                    <P>The proposed establishment registration and product listing requirements would generate several categories of benefits including several increased efficiencies in FDA enforcement and compliance activities, faster public health response, enhanced deterrence and compliance, reduced availability of unauthorized products, and reduced public health burden. We describe these benefits qualitatively due to data limitations and modeling constraints. To illustrate the potential economic benefits of the proposed rule, we provide an example of the potential reduction in illegal imported e-cigarette products.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,9,9,9,9,9,9,r50">
                        <TTITLE>Table 2—Summary of Benefits, Costs, and Distributional Effects of the Proposed Rule</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[Millions of 2024 dollars]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Primary estimate</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Low
                                <LI>estimate</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                High
                                <LI>estimate</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Units</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Year
                                <LI>dollars</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Discount rate
                                <LI>(%)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Period covered</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Notes</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Benefits:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Annualized Monetized $/year</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                7
                                <LI>3</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI>Not Quantified.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="03">Annualized Quantified</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                7
                                <LI>3</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="03">Qualitative</ENT>
                            <ENT A="02"/>
                            <ENT A="02"/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Costs:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">
                                Annualized Monetized $/year
                                <LI O="xl"/>
                                <LI>Annualized Quantified</LI>
                                <LI O="xl"/>
                                <LI>Qualitative</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                $15.57
                                <LI>15.57</LI>
                                <LI/>
                                <LI/>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                $6.80
                                <LI>6.81</LI>
                                <LI/>
                                <LI/>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                $26.55
                                <LI>26.55</LI>
                                <LI/>
                                <LI/>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                2024
                                <LI>2024</LI>
                                <LI/>
                                <LI/>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                7
                                <LI>3</LI>
                                <LI/>
                                <LI/>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                2027-2046
                                <LI O="xl"/>
                                <LI O="xl"/>
                                <LI O="xl"/>
                                <LI O="xl"/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Costs incurred by domestic establishments are $13,574 (primary estimate at 7% discount rate) representing 0.1% of total costs. Estimated foreign costs are $370,215 at 7 percent discount rate representing 2.4% of total costs. FDA costs account for the remaining 97.5% of total costs.
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Transfers:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="03">Federal Annualized Monetized $/year</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                7
                                <LI>3</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="03">From/To</ENT>
                            <ENT A="L02">From:</ENT>
                            <ENT A="L02">To:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="03">Other Annualized Monetized $/year</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                7
                                <LI>3</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <LI/>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="03">From/To</ENT>
                            <ENT A="L02">From:</ENT>
                            <ENT A="L02">To:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="07">
                            <ENT I="22">Effects:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03" O="xl">State, Local or Tribal Government:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03" O="xl">Small Business: none.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03" O="xl">Wages: none.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03" O="xl">Growth: none.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             This rule would not affect the total amount of user fees set by statute nor the size of the federal budget.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        In line with E.O. 14192, in Table 3 we estimate present and annualized values of costs, cost savings, and net costs over a perpetual time horizon. We estimate that this proposed rule would generate $12.56 million in annualized net costs at a 7 percent discount rate (primary estimate), discounted relative to year 2024 over a perpetual time horizon. The majority of these net costs are FDA costs.
                        <PRTPAGE P="39193"/>
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,17,15,15">
                        <TTITLE>Table 3—Executive Order 14192 Summary Table</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[Millions of 2024 dollars, discounted over a perpetual time horizon relative to year 2024 at a 7 percent discount rate]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Primary estimate</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Low estimate</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">High estimate</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Present Value of Costs</ENT>
                            <ENT>$179.40</ENT>
                            <ENT>$77.52</ENT>
                            <ENT>$307.14</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Present Value of Cost Savings</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Present Value of Net Costs</ENT>
                            <ENT>179.40</ENT>
                            <ENT>77.52</ENT>
                            <ENT>307.14</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Annualized Costs</ENT>
                            <ENT>12.56</ENT>
                            <ENT>5.43</ENT>
                            <ENT>21.50</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Annualized Cost Savings</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Annualized Net Costs</ENT>
                            <ENT>12.56</ENT>
                            <ENT>5.43</ENT>
                            <ENT>21.50</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        We have developed a Preliminary Economic Analysis of Impacts that assesses the impacts of the proposed rule. The full preliminary analysis of economic impacts is available in the docket for this proposed rule (Ref. 3, FDA) and at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fda.gov/about-fda/economics-staff/regulatory-impact-analyses-ria.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Analysis of Environmental Impact</HD>
                    <P>We have determined under 21 CFR 25.30(h) that this action is of a type that does not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. No extraordinary circumstances exist to indicate that the specific proposed action may significantly affect the quality of the human environment. Therefore, neither an environmental assessment nor an environmental impact statement is required.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IX. Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995</HD>
                    <P>This proposed rule contains information collection provisions that are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the PRA. A description of these provisions is given in the Description section with an estimate of the annual reporting and recordkeeping burden. Included in the estimate is the time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing each collection of information.</P>
                    <P>FDA invites comments on these topics: (1) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information would have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Title:</E>
                         Establishment Registration and Product Listing for Tobacco Products. OMB Control Number 0910-0650—Revision.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Description:</E>
                         The Tobacco Control Act was enacted on June 22, 2009, amending the FD&amp;C Act and providing FDA with the authority to regulate tobacco products. The Agency is proposing a rule, in accordance with section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act, requiring owners or operators of domestic and foreign establishments engaged in the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of tobacco products, to register their establishments. Further, the proposed rule would require owners or operators of both domestic and foreign establishments to, at the time of registration, list all tobacco products which are being manufactured, prepared, compounded, or processed by that person for commercial distribution. Currently, in accordance with section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act, only domestic owners and operators are required to register their establishments and list their tobacco products with FDA while foreign owners and operators are not subject to these requirements, creating significant gaps in Agency information. If finalized, this rule would extend registration and listing requirements to include owners and operators of foreign establishments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Description of Respondents:</E>
                         This proposed rule would require owners or operators of an establishment engaged in the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of a tobacco product to register those establishments and list their tobacco products that are being manufactured, prepared, compounded, or processed by that person for commercial distribution. The proposed rule applies to owners or operators of domestic and foreign establishments. Manufacturers of tobacco products include specification developers, third-party manufacturers, bulk tobacco product manufacturers, repackagers/relabelers, any owner or operator of any domestic establishment that manufactures a tobacco product for export, or any owner or operator of an establishment that manufactures free smokeless tobacco samples. The proposed rule includes some exceptions, including persons who solely manufacture a tobacco product intended solely for investigational use under section 910(g) of the FD&amp;C Act; manufacturers of only raw materials other than tobacco used in manufacturing a component or part of a tobacco product who would not otherwise be required to register; and common carriers in the receipt, carriage, holding, or delivery of a tobacco product in the usual course of business as carriers. This rule enables FDA to get a full and accurate inventory of establishments that engage in the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of tobacco products, including their corporate structure, if applicable, and their supply chain. To avoid unnecessary duplicate registrations and listings, proposed § 1108.20(a) would permit a parent, subsidiary, or affiliate company to submit registration information for all establishments when operations are conducted at more than one establishment and the establishments are under common or joint ownership or control.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1108.22(a) provides that an owner or operator of a domestic establishment engaged in an operation described in § 1108.20(a) would have to register the establishment and submit tobacco product listing information within five business days from first engaging in the operation. Further, this regulation would require owners or operators of foreign establishments engaged in an operation described in § 1108.20(a) to register the establishment and submit tobacco product listing information before any tobacco product manufactured, prepared, compounded or processed at the establishment is imported or offered for import into the United States, which comports with FDA's initial drug registration requirements for foreign establishments (see 21 CFR 207.21(b)). Proposed § 1108.50 would describe 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39194"/>
                        additional conditions and exceptions for foreign tobacco product establishments.
                    </P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.22(b)(1) would require that annual registration be completed and submitted to FDA by December 31st of each year, even if there are no changes to the establishment registration.</P>
                    <P>As required by section 905(i)(3) of the FD&amp;C Act, proposed § 1108.22(b)(2) would require owners or operators to review and update their tobacco product listing information in June and December of every year. Owners or operators would be required to report any changes or deletions to listings described in § 1108.28 and list any new products not previously reported. For example, if the labeling for a product is changed in October, the product listing information would have to be updated accordingly in December of the same year. This information would be used to help ensure the products marketed are in compliance with the FD&amp;C Act and implementing regulations.</P>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1108.24(a) would specify the information required for tobacco product establishment registration (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         information about the establishment, owner and operator, official correspondent, trade names, website address(es), RGID #, FEI number, Tribe). Proposed § 1108.24(e) would specify the tobacco listing information to be provided for each tobacco product listed (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         RGID # and name of each establishment, product information, product numbers and tracking information, operation and process information, product standard information, marketing authority, labeling information). In addition, proposed § 1108.24(f) would specify that owners or operators may be required to submit to FDA upon request information for products that have been determined to not be subject to tobacco product standards or products manufactured for distribution under a label other than its own.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1108.26 would require owners or operators who manufacture a tobacco product to maintain a historical file containing a copy of all consumer information, labeling, and advertisements in use as of the effective date of the rule for all tobacco products contained in the product list for four years (including any information which has had a material change after the effective date of the rule). Additionally, those who distribute smokeless samples must keep, for four years after the date of the event, information about the events (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         compliance information, details about the event). The authority for the proposed § 1108.26 recordkeeping requirements comes from sections 905 and 909 of the FD&amp;C Act.
                    </P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.28 would include requirements for updating tobacco product listing information, including what changes would require an update; the timeframe for making updates; and how to add, discontinue, or renew product listings.</P>
                    <P>
                        FDA currently collects the information (OMB control number 0910-0650) submitted pursuant to section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act through the Tobacco Registration and Product Listing Module Next Generation (TRLM NG) electronic portal and FDA Forms 3741 and 3741b. TRLM NG is designed to streamline the data entry process for registration and product listing. Electronic submission through TRLM NG, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fda.gov/tobacco-products/manufacturing/tobacco-registration-and-listing-module-next-generation-trlm-ng-instructions,</E>
                         would be required under proposed § 1108.40 unless a registrant receives a waiver from FDA under proposed § 1108.40(b). To request a waiver, § 1108.40(b) would require applicants to send a letter to FDA's Center for Tobacco Products with information about the establishment and a signed statement explaining the need for a waiver. For owners or operators that have obtained a waiver, if information changes that might result in termination of the waiver, § 1108.40(d) would require that the owner or operator to notify FDA within 30 calendar days.
                    </P>
                    <P>FDA's burden estimates are based on FDA's experience with tobacco registration and listing, FDA inspection reports, and Preliminary Regulatory Impact Analysis assumptions. The requirements in the proposed rule would apply to both domestic and foreign manufacturers of all tobacco products which are being manufactured, prepared, compounded, or processed by that person for commercial distribution in the United States.</P>
                    <P>The currently approved information collection under OMB Control Number 0910-0650 includes the following annual burden estimates for establishment registration and product listing activities:</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,9,xs72,10">
                        <TTITLE>Table 4—Existing Burden for OMB Control Number 0910-0650, Estimated Annual Reporting Burden</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">FDA Form/activity/FD&amp;C Act section</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Number of 
                                <LI>respondents</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Number of 
                                <LI>responses per </LI>
                                <LI>respondent</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Total 
                                <LI>annual </LI>
                                <LI>responses</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Hours per response</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Total hours</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                Establishment Registration (Initial), the initial registration of a tobacco product establishment using Form FDA 3741, Form FDA 3741a, and the new Form FDA 3741 (Electronic and Paper submissions).
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                 Sections 905(b), 905(c), 905(d), 905(h), or 905(i)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>37</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>37</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.65 (99 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>61</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                Establishment Registration (Renewal), the registration renewal of a tobacco product establishment using Form FDA 3741, Form FDA 3741a, and the new Form FDA 3741 (Electronic and Paper submissions).
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                 Sections 905(b), 905(c), 905(d), 905(h), or 905(i)
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>900</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>900</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.28 (17 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>252</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">Product Listing (Initial), the initial listing of tobacco products. (New) Form FDA 3741b, “Tobacco Product List Spreadsheet”</ENT>
                            <ENT>37</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>37</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.22 (13 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>8</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>974</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>321</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             This initial submission is averaged over the three years of the information collection utilizing the current Form FDA 3741 and 3741a, which will be combined in updated Form FDA 3741 in Spring 2026.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             This renewal submission is averaged over the three years of the information collection utilizing the current Form FDA 3741 and 3741a, which will be combined in Form FDA 3741 “Registration and Product Listing of Tobacco Product Manufacturing Establishments” with product listing and material file information updates.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        The currently approved information collection also includes burden for ingredient listing activities under Form FDA 3742 (180 hours) and obtaining a D-U-N-S number (19 hours), which total 199 hours. These activities are not part of this proposed rule and are therefore excluded from the comparison. The total currently approved burden is 520 hours, but only 321 hours are relevant to the establishment registration and product listing activities covered by this proposed rule (see Table 4). The currently approved information collection does not include registration and listing requirements for foreign establishments and historical file 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39195"/>
                        maintenance requirements under proposed § 1108.26.
                    </P>
                    <P>FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,9,xs72,10">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 5—Estimated Annual Reporting Burden—Domestic Establishments 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">FDA Form/activity/21 CFR section</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Number of 
                                <LI>respondents</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Number of 
                                <LI>responses per </LI>
                                <LI>respondent</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Total 
                                <LI>annual </LI>
                                <LI>responses</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Hours per response</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Total hours</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">First Time Burden</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Establishment Registration (Initial), the initial registration of a tobacco product establishment using Form FDA 3741. Proposed 1108.22(a), 1108.24, 1108.22(b)(1)</ENT>
                            <ENT>47</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>47</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.83 (110 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>86</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Product Listing (Initial), the initial listing of tobacco products (New) Form FDA 3741b, “Product List Spreadsheet”. 1108.24, 1108.22(b)(2)</ENT>
                            <ENT>47</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>47</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.42 (25 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>20</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Establishment Registration (Renewal), the registration renewal of a tobacco product establishment using Form FDA 3741. 1108.24, 1108.28 (update to Product Listing)</ENT>
                            <ENT>947</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>947</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.33 (20 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>313</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">Waiver from electronic submission requirement. 1108.40</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.25 (15 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="03">Total First Time Burden Hours—Domestic</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>419</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Annual Recurring</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Establishment Registration (Initial), the initial registration of a tobacco product establishment using Form FDA 3741. Proposed 1108.22(a), 1108.24, 1108.22(b)(1)</ENT>
                            <ENT>37</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>37</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.83 (110 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>68</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Product Listing (Initial), the initial listing of tobacco products (New) Form FDA 3741b, “Product List Spreadsheet”. 1108.24, 1108.22(b)(2)</ENT>
                            <ENT>37</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>37</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.42 (25 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>16</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Establishment Registration (Renewal), the registration renewal of a tobacco product establishment using Form FDA 3741. 1108.24, 1108.28 (update to Product Listing)</ENT>
                            <ENT>910</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>910</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.33 (20 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>300</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">Waiver from electronic submission requirement. 1108.40</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.25 (15 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="03">Total Annual Recurring Burden Hours—Domestic</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>384</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total Burden Hours—Domestic</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>803</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             There are no capital costs or operating and maintenance costs associated with this collection of information.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,9,xs72,10">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 6—Estimated Annual Reporting Burden—Foreign Establishments 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">FDA Form/activity/21 CFR Section</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Number of 
                                <LI>respondents</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Number of 
                                <LI>responses per </LI>
                                <LI>respondent</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Total 
                                <LI>annual </LI>
                                <LI>responses</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Hours per  response 
                                <SU>2</SU>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Total hours</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">First Time Burden</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Establishment Registration (Initial), the initial registration of a tobacco product establishment using Form FDA 3741 (foreign). Proposed 1108.22(a), 1108.24, 1108.22(b)(1)</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,253</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,253</ENT>
                            <ENT>2.61 (157 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,490</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Product Listing (Initial), the initial listing of tobacco products (New) Form FDA 3741b, “Product List Spreadsheet” (foreign). 1108.24, 1108.22(b)(2)</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,253</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,253</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.60 (36 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,952</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Establishment Registration (Renewal), the registration renewal of a tobacco product establishment using Form FDA 3741 (foreign). 1108.24, 1108.28 (update to Product Listing)</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,253</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,253</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.47 (28 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,529</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">Waiver from electronic submission requirement. 1108.40</ENT>
                            <ENT>130</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>130</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.36 (22 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>47</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="03">Total First Time Burden Hours—Foreign</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>12,018</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Annual Recurring</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Establishment Registration (Initial), the initial registration of a tobacco product establishment using Form FDA 3741. Proposed 1108.22(a), 1108.24, 1108.22(b)(1)</ENT>
                            <ENT>134</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>134</ENT>
                            <ENT>2.61 (157 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>350</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Product Listing (Initial), the initial listing of tobacco products (New) Form FDA 3741b, “Product List Spreadsheet”. 1108.24, 1108.22(b)(2)</ENT>
                            <ENT>134</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>134</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.60 (36 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>80</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Establishment Registration (Renewal), the registration renewal of a tobacco product establishment using Form FDA 3741. 1108.24, 1108.28 (update to Product Listing)</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,253</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,253</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.47 (28 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,529</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">Waiver from electronic submission requirement. 1108.40</ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>5</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.36 (22 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>2</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="03">Total Annual Recurring Burden Hours—Foreign</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>1,961</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total Burden Hours—Foreign</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>13,979</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             There are no capital costs or operating and maintenance costs associated with this collection of information.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             Foreign Hours per response = domestic hours multiplied by 1.43 (adjustment for English Proficiency/internet Access)
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        For this proposed rule, FDA has based the estimates on the experience with current registration and listing submissions through OMB Control Number 0910-0650, tobacco import data, and FDA experience and subject matter expertise as discussed in the regulatory impact analysis. Taking into consideration the clarification of industry requirements provided by this rule and the extension of establishment registration and product listing 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39196"/>
                        requirements to foreign establishments, FDA estimates an increase in registrants and consequently an increase in estimated annual burden.
                    </P>
                    <P>The currently approved total annual hours for domestic establishments, covering registration and listing only, is 321 hours, as reflected in Table 4 above. Under the proposed rule, the total annual recurring hours for domestic establishments would increase to 384 hours, representing an increase of 63 hours. This increase is attributable to enhanced data elements and clarified requirements introduced by the proposed rule. The proposed rule includes a total first-time burden of 419 hours due to 10 additional domestic establishments expected to register in the initial year of implementation, reflecting the transition to the new requirements. The proposed rule includes a total first-time burden of 12,018 hours for foreign establishments in the initial year of implementation, reflecting the new requirement for foreign establishments to register and list their products. We expect a total annual recurring burden for foreign establishments to be 1,961 hours.</P>
                    <P>Further, FDA estimates an overall increase in average hours per response associated with initial registration using Form FDA 3741 (from 100 minutes to 110 minutes), and the initial product listing spreadsheet (Form FDA 3741b) submission (from 20 minutes to 25 minutes) for domestic entities. Separate tables for domestic and foreign estimated annual hourly burden are provided.</P>
                    <P>Table 5 displays the estimated annual reporting burden for domestic tobacco establishments and Table 6 displays the estimated annual reporting burden for foreign tobacco establishments. The foreign hours per response rate were adjusted by multiplying the domestic hours per response by 1.43. This adjustment accounts for potential differences in English proficiency and availability of internet access.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.22(a) and § 1108.24 set forth when to submit initial establishment registration and product listing and the information required for submission. FDA estimates that domestic establishments will need approximately 110 minutes (1.83 hours) to complete the initial Form FDA 3741 for establishment registration and labeling, advertising, and consumer information submission, while foreign establishments will require 157 minutes (= 1.43 × 1.83 hours, or 2.61 hours). The Agency estimates that with 47 domestic and 3,253 foreign tobacco establishments each submitting one initial form, the total burden would result in 3,300 total respondents and 8,576 burden hours (86 hours domestic + 8,490 hours foreign) for the initial year after the rule goes into effect. In the following years, FDA estimates the number of initial registrations to decrease to 37 domestic and 134 foreign establishments submissions via Form FDA 3741, resulting in a total burden of 418 hours (68 hours domestic + 350 hours foreign) annually.</P>
                    <P>FDA also estimates that it would take approximately 25 minutes (0.42 hours) to prepare and complete the initial product listing registration using Form FDA 3741b for a domestic establishment, and approximately 36 minutes (= 1.43 × 0.42, or 0.60 hours) for foreign establishments. The Agency estimates that the same 3,300 total respondents will each submit 1 initial product listing Form FDA 3741b, for a combined total of 1,972 burden hours (20 hours domestic + 1,952 hours foreign). In the following years, FDA estimates these numbers to decrease to 37 domestic and 134 foreign establishments submitting initial product listings via Form FDA 3741b, resulting in a total burden of 96 hours (16 hours domestic + 80 hours foreign) annually.</P>
                    <P>Both domestic and foreign establishment submissions would be required to be completed electronically using Form FDA 3741 and Form FDA 3741b via TRLM-NG or, if FDA has granted a waiver, through paper submissions.</P>
                    <P>
                        In terms of proposed § 1108.22 (b) and § 1108.28, continued establishment registration and product list filing via Form FDA 3741 (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the confirmation or updating of establishment registration and product listing information as required by section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act), FDA estimates that it will take each domestic respondent approximately 20 minutes (0.33 hours) to complete the renewal submission, while foreign establishments will require approximately 28 minutes (= 1.43 × 0.33 hours, or 0.47 hours). FDA estimates that up to 947 domestic and 3,253 foreign owners or operators will be submitting registration renewals during the first year after the proposed rule goes into effect. This results in a total of 4,200 respondents and a total burden of 1,842 hours (313 hours domestic + 1,529 hours foreign) for the initial year after the rule goes into effect. These renewals may encompass an acknowledgment of accurate product listing through a certification statement, or a more substantive review that includes updates to product listings, with updates typically occurring in June and the completion of the renewal processes taking place in December. In the following years, FDA estimates these renewal submission numbers to decrease to 910 for domestic establishments and to remain at 3,253 for foreign establishments submitting renewal registrations and product listings via Form FDA 3741, resulting in a total burden of 1,829 hours (300 hours domestic + 1,529 hours foreign) annually.
                    </P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1108.40 would require an applicant to submit Forms FDA 3741 and 3741b and all supporting and related documents to FDA in electronic format that FDA can process, review, and archive unless an applicant requests, and FDA grants, a waiver from this requirement under proposed § 1108.40(b). FDA estimates that 4 percent of the respondents may request a waiver. Consistent with our other application estimates for waivers, we estimate it would take 15 minutes (0.25 hours) per waiver for domestic establishments, and approximately 22 minutes (= 1.43 × 0.25, or 0.36 hours) for foreign establishments. During the initial year after the proposed rule takes effect, the Agency estimates that approximately 2 domestic and 130 foreign waiver applications will be submitted, for a total of 48 burden hours (1 hours domestic + 47 hours foreign). In the following years, FDA estimates these numbers to decrease to 1 domestic and 5 foreign waiver applications, resulting in a total burden of 3 hours (1 hour domestic + 2 hours foreign) annually.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,9,xs72,10">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 7—Estimated Annual Recordkeeping Burden 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">FDA form/activity/21 CFR section</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Number of 
                                <LI>respondents</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Number of 
                                <LI>responses per </LI>
                                <LI>respondent</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Total 
                                <LI>annual </LI>
                                <LI>responses</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Hours per response</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Total hours</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">First Time—Single Year Burden (Domestic and Foreign)</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Maintaining historical file. 1108.26</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,200</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,200</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.10 (6 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>420</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                            <PRTPAGE P="39197"/>
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Recurring Annual (Domestic and Foreign)</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">Maintaining historical file. 1108.26</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,163</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,163</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.10 (6 minutes)</ENT>
                            <ENT>416</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total Recordkeeping Burden</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>836</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             There are no capital costs or operating and maintenance costs associated with this collection of information.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>Table 7 describes the annual recordkeeping burden per the requirements in this proposed rule. The currently approved collection has no recordkeeping burden, therefore all burden hours for recordkeeping are new. FDA estimates that in the initial year 4,200 recordkeepers, encompassing both domestic and foreign establishments, will maintain records at 0.10 hours per record, for a total of 420 hours. In the following years, FDA estimates these numbers to decrease to 4,163 recordkeepers, resulting in a total burden of 416 hours annually. Firms would have already established the required records when submitting the initial or renewal registration and listing submission. We believe this time is usual and customary for these firms and it would take 6 minutes to establish and/or update the required historical file. Proposed § 1108.26 requires respondents to maintain a historical file for 4 years and keep records related to smokeless tobacco product sample distribution for 4 years.</P>
                    <P>FDA estimates that the total burden for the activities in this rulemaking is 15,618 hours (14,782 hours reporting + 836 hours recordkeeping).</P>
                    <P>If finalized, the new collections of information will revise OMB Control Number 0910-0650. Our estimated burden for the proposed rule reflects an overall increase of 15,098 hours from the currently approved information collection. We attribute this increase to the proposed rule's clarification of industry requirements and the extension of establishment registration and product listing requirements to owners and operators of foreign establishments.</P>
                    <P>
                        To ensure that comments on information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be submitted through 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain</E>
                         (see 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                        ). All comments should be identified with the title of the information collection.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In compliance with the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3407(d)), the Agency has submitted the information collection provisions of this proposed rule to OMB for review. These information collection requirements will not be effective until FDA publishes a final rule, OMB approves the information collection requirements, and the rule goes into effect. FDA will announce OMB approval of these requirements in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">X. Federalism</HD>
                    <P>We have analyzed this proposed rule in accordance with the principles set forth in E.O. 13132. Section 4(a) of the E.O. requires Agencies to “construe . . . a Federal statute to preempt State law only where the statute contains an express preemption provision or there is some other clear evidence that the Congress intended preemption of State law, or where the exercise of State authority conflicts with the exercise of Federal authority under the Federal statute.”</P>
                    <P>Section 916(a)(2) of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 387p) is an express preemption provision. Section 916(a)(2) provides that “no State or political subdivision of a State may establish or continue in effect with respect to a tobacco product any requirement which is different from, or in addition to, any requirement under the provisions of this chapter relating to . . . registration.” Thus, if this proposed rule is made final, the final rule would create requirements that fall within the scope of section 916(a)(2) of the FD&amp;C Act.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">XI. Severability</HD>
                    <P>
                        In accordance with section 5 of the Tobacco Control Act, which provides for the severability of, 
                        <E T="03">inter alia,</E>
                         all “regulations promulgated under” the authorities provided by that Act, FDA would consider the various requirements and prohibitions established by this rule, if finalized, to be severable. It is FDA's interpretation and position that the invalidity of any provision of a final rule would not affect the validity of any other part of the rule. In the event any court or other lawful authority were to temporarily or permanently invalidate, restrain, enjoin, or suspend any provision of a final rule, FDA intends for the remaining parts to continue to be valid. Additionally, as further stated in section 5 of the Tobacco Control Act, if certain applications of a final rule to persons or circumstances (discussed in the preamble or otherwise) are held to be invalid, application of such provisions to any other person or circumstance will not be affected and will continue to be enforced to the fullest extent possible. Each provision of the rule is independently supported by data and analysis as described or referenced in this preamble and, if issued separately, would remain a proper exercise of FDA authority.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">XII. Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                    <P>We have analyzed this proposed rule in accordance with the principles set forth in E.O. 13175. We have tentatively determined that the rule does not contain policies that would have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian Tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes. The Agency solicits comments from tribal officials on any potential impact on Indian Tribes from this proposed action.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">XIII. References</HD>
                    <P>
                        The following references are on display at the Dockets Management Staff (see 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                        ) and are available for viewing by interested persons between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday; they are also available electronically at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Although FDA verified the website addresses in this document, please note that websites are subject to change over time.
                    </P>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">1. FDA. Draft Form FDA 3741 (Registration of Tobacco Product Establishments and Listing of Tobacco Products in Commercial Distribution).</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">2. FDA. Draft Form FDA 3741b (Tobacco Product List Spreadsheet).</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            3. FDA. 
                            <E T="03">Preliminary Regulatory Impact Analysis, Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis, Unfunded Mandates Reform Act Analysis, Establishment Registration and Product Listing for Tobacco Products.</E>
                             Silver Spring, MD: U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, FDA, Center for Tobacco 
                            <PRTPAGE P="39198"/>
                            Products, 2026. Available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fda.gov/economics-staff/regulatory-impact-analyses-ria.</E>
                        </FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 21 CFR Part 1108</HD>
                        <P>Tobacco products, Registration, Product listing.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <P>Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&amp;C Act) and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, it is proposed that chapter I of title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations be amended by adding part 1108 to subchapter K to read as follows:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1108—REGISTRATION OF TOBACCO PRODUCT ESTABLISHMENTS AND LISTING OF TOBACCO PRODUCTS IN COMMERCIAL DISTRIBUTION</HD>
                        <CONTENTS>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General Provisions</HD>
                                <SECTNO>1108.1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1108.3</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Procedures for Tobacco Product Establishments</HD>
                                <SECTNO>1108.20</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Who must register and submit a tobacco product list.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1108.22</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>When to submit establishment registration and tobacco product listing.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1108.24</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Information required for tobacco product establishment registration and tobacco product listing.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1108.26</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Maintaining a historical file.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1108.28</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Updating tobacco product listing information.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1108.32</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Assignment of an FDA Establishment Identifier (FEI) number.</SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Format for Establishment Registration and Tobacco Product Listing</HD>
                                <SECTNO>1108.40</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Electronic registration of establishments and listing of tobacco products.</SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Procedures for Foreign Tobacco Product Establishments</HD>
                                <SECTNO>1108.50</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Establishment registration and tobacco product listing for foreign establishments importing or offering for import tobacco products into the United States.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1108.52</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Conditions for registration of foreign tobacco product establishments.</SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart E—Miscellaneous</HD>
                                <SECTNO>1108.60</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Public availability of registration and tobacco product listing information.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1108.62</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Misbranding.</SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                        </CONTENTS>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                            <P> 21 U.S.C. 331, 371(a), 374, 381(p), 387b, 387c, 387e, 387g, 387i, 387j, and 387k.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General Provisions</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1108.1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) This part prescribes the format and content for registration of domestic and foreign establishments that manufacture tobacco products and listing of tobacco products manufactured by such establishments, along with requirements of this part that will help ensure tobacco products are not adulterated or misbranded and comply with FDA's premarket authorities. The requirements of this part apply to domestic and foreign establishments that manufacture, prepare, compound, or process tobacco products that are subject to chapter IX of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&amp;C Act).</P>
                                <P>(b) The requirements in this part are intended to protect the public health and ensure that tobacco products are in compliance with the relevant provisions of the FD&amp;C Act and its implementing regulations.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1108.3</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>For purposes of this part:</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Accessory</E>
                                     means any product that is intended or reasonably expected to be used with or for the human consumption of a tobacco product; does not contain tobacco or nicotine, and is not made or derived from tobacco or nicotine from any source; and meets either of the following:
                                </P>
                                <P>(a) Is not intended or reasonably expected to affect or alter the performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics of a tobacco product; or</P>
                                <P>(b) Is intended or reasonably expected to affect or maintain the performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics of a tobacco product but:</P>
                                <P>(1) Solely controls moisture and/or temperature of a stored tobacco product; or</P>
                                <P>(2) Solely provides an external heat source to initiate but not maintain combustion of a tobacco product.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Brand</E>
                                     means a variety of tobacco product distinguished by the tobacco used, tar content, nicotine content, flavoring used, size, filtration, packaging, logo, registered trademark, brand name(s), identifiable pattern of colors, or any combination of such attributes.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Brand owner</E>
                                     means a person that owns a brand, through creation, acquisition, trademark, patent, copyright, or otherwise, and has directly or through license, the control and/or direction of the brand.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Bulk tobacco product</E>
                                     means a tobacco product not sealed in final packaging but otherwise suitable for consumer use as a tobacco product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Commercial distribution</E>
                                     means any distribution of a tobacco product, whether domestic or imported, to consumers or to any person, but does not include interplant transfers of a tobacco product between establishments within the same parent, subsidiary, and/or affiliate company, nor does it include providing a tobacco product for product testing where such product is not made available for consumption or resale. “Commercial distribution” does not include the handling or transfer of a tobacco product from one consumer to another for personal consumption. For foreign establishments, the term “commercial distribution” has the same meaning, except that it does not include distribution of a tobacco product that is neither imported nor offered for import into the United States. Nor does it include shipment of a tobacco product into a foreign trade zone if the product is then exported and not further distributed in the United States.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component or part</E>
                                     means any software or assembly of materials intended or reasonably expected:
                                </P>
                                <P>(a) to alter or affect the tobacco product's performance, composition, constituents, or characteristics; or:</P>
                                <P>(b) to be used with or for the human consumption of a tobacco product. Component or part excludes anything that is an accessory of a tobacco product.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic establishment</E>
                                     means an establishment in any State or Territory or possession of the United States.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Establishment</E>
                                     means a place of business, under one ownership at one general physical location, engaged in an operation described in § 1108.20(a). A single building may house more than one distinct establishment if the establishments are under separate ownership. Establishment refers to both domestic and foreign establishments unless otherwise noted.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Finished tobacco product</E>
                                     means a tobacco product, including all components and parts, sealed in final packaging intended for consumer use (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     filters or filter tubes sold separately to consumers or as part of kits).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Foreign establishment</E>
                                     means an establishment other than a domestic establishment.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Industry product identification number</E>
                                     means a unique, product-specific identifier or alphanumeric code, such as a universal product code (UPC), stock keeping unit (SKU), Item #, or Catalog #, that industry generates for internal record keeping and tracking. FDA intends to utilize an industry product identification number when corresponding with industry as a point of reference to help distinguish a specific product from other similar products made by the same manufacturer but with slight differences in product attributes (such as volume or quantity or packaging).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Labeling</E>
                                     means all labels and other written, printed, or graphic matter:
                                    <PRTPAGE P="39199"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>(a) upon any tobacco product or any of its containers or wrappers, or;</P>
                                <P>(b) accompanying such tobacco product.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Manufacturer</E>
                                     means any person who manufactures, prepares, compounds, or processes a tobacco product, including repackaging or relabeling of any tobacco product. Examples of manufacturing include assembling, processing, homogenizing, mixing, formulating, labeling, or packaging. Manufacturers include specification developers, third-party manufacturers, bulk tobacco product manufacturers, and repackagers/relabelers.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Material change</E>
                                     includes:
                                </P>
                                <P>(a) any change in the tobacco product name (including brand or subbrand), warnings, or instructions for use;</P>
                                <P>(b) any change in the owner or operator, or establishment;</P>
                                <P>(c) any other significant change with respect to consumer information, to other labeling, or to the advertisements for the tobacco product, such as changes to the logo(s), identifiable patterns of color, or product descriptors;</P>
                                <P>(d) any change in the marketing authorization or status for the marketing of such product; and</P>
                                <P>(e) any change with respect to whether or not the product is subject to a tobacco product standard established under section 907 of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 387g).</P>
                                <P>With respect to changes in consumer information or other labeling of the tobacco product, changes that are not significant include changes to grammar, correction of typographical errors that do not change the content of the labeling, and changes in tax stamp or bar code.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Operator</E>
                                     means a person, as defined in section 201(e) of the FD&amp;C Act, who has management authority over an establishment.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Owner</E>
                                     means a person, as defined in section 201(e) of the FD&amp;C Act, who has an ownership interest in an establishment.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Product Identification Number</E>
                                     (PD #) means the number that FDA assigns to each product within a submission to distinguish among the products included in that submission. A PD # is only relevant within the context of a specific STN.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Registration Identification Number</E>
                                     (RGID #) means the FDA-assigned unique identifier for a registered establishment's registration. The RGID # is assigned to each new electronic tobacco product registration and listing system submission and attaches to the establishment(s) and the product(s) in the initial submission.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Representative sampling of advertisements</E>
                                     means advertising material that gives a comprehensive picture of the promotional claims and campaigns in use for each brand of tobacco product and which includes representative material from each medium being used to promote the product (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     advertisements that appear in or on magazines, newspapers, direct mail materials, retail or point-of-sale displays, posters, billboards, and via internet and mobile communications, such as web pages, banner advertisements, and text messages).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Specification developer</E>
                                     means a person who controls the design and development of a tobacco product or initiates or creates the specifications for the product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Submission Tracking Number</E>
                                     (STN) means the number that FDA assigns to submissions that are received from an applicant, such as a Premarket Tobacco Product Application (PMTA), supplemental PMTA, Substantial Equivalence (SE) reports, SE exemption requests (EX REQ), Modified Risk Tobacco Product Application (MRTPA), and submissions related to investigational tobacco products.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Third-party manufacturer</E>
                                     means an entity, including a contract manufacturer, that physically manufactures a tobacco product on behalf of, or to specifications established by, another party, such as a brand owner or specification developer.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Tobacco product</E>
                                     means any product made or derived from tobacco, or containing nicotine from any source, that is intended for human consumption, including any component, part, or accessory of a tobacco product (except for raw materials other than tobacco used in manufacturing a component, part, or accessory of a tobacco product). The term “tobacco product” does not mean an article that is a drug under section 201(g)(1) (21 U.S.C. 321(g)(1)), a device under section 201(h) (21 U.S.C. 321(h)), or a combination product described in section 503(g) of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 353(g)). The term “tobacco product” does not mean an article that is a food under section 201(f) (21 U.S.C. 321(f)), if such article contains no nicotine, or no more than trace amounts of naturally occurring nicotine.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Tobacco Product Number</E>
                                     (TP #) refers to a product-specific number that is generated by FDA for each product listed on an establishment's registration.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Procedures for Tobacco Product Establishments</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1108.20</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Who must register and submit a tobacco product list.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) An owner or operator of any establishment, except those entities as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, engaged in the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of a tobacco product must register in accordance with section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act, including specification developers, third-party manufacturers, bulk tobacco product manufacturers, repackagers/relabelers, any owner or operator of any domestic establishment that manufactures a tobacco product for export, and any owner or operator of any establishment that manufactures free smokeless tobacco samples. When operations are conducted at more than one establishment and the establishments are under common or joint ownership or control, the parent, subsidiary, or affiliate company may submit registration information for all establishments on behalf of their respective owners and operators, in lieu of each establishment registering separately. In this case, duplicative registration for any establishment need not also be submitted by the owner and operator of the establishments.</P>
                                <P>(b) Every person who registers under this part must submit a list of all tobacco products that are being manufactured, prepared, compounded, or processed by that person for commercial distribution in the form and manner prescribed in this part in accordance with section 905(i) of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 387e(i)). When operations are conducted at more than one establishment and the establishments are under common or joint ownership or control, the parent, subsidiary, or affiliate company may submit listing information for all establishments.</P>
                                <P>(c) Persons not required to register their establishments or submit a tobacco product list:</P>
                                <P>(1) Persons engaged only in manufacturing investigational use tobacco products where the product is not available for sale or distribution other than as part of an investigation.</P>
                                <P>(2) Manufacturers of only raw materials, other than tobacco, used in manufacturing a component or part of a tobacco product.</P>
                                <P>(3) Common carriers, in their receipt, carriage, holding, or delivery of a tobacco product in the usual course of business.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) Registration and listing do not constitute an admission, agreement, or determination by FDA that a product is 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="39200"/>
                                    a tobacco product within the meaning of section 201(rr) of the FD&amp;C Act (21 U.S.C. 321(rr)). In addition, registration and listing do not denote FDA authorization for the marketing of tobacco products in the United States within the meaning of sections 905 or 910 of the FD&amp;C Act. Listed products that are subject to sections 905 and 910 of the FD&amp;C Act are not authorized for the legal sale and distribution in the United States unless they have an FDA marketing authorization order in effect.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1108.22</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>When to submit establishment registration and tobacco product listing.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Initial establishment registration and product listing.</E>
                                     An owner or operator of a domestic establishment engaged in an operation described in § 1108.20(a) must register the establishment and submit tobacco product listing information within five business days from first engaging in the operation. An owner or operator of a foreign establishment engaged in an operation described in § 1108.20(a) must register the establishment and submit tobacco product listing information before any tobacco product manufactured, prepared, compounded, or processed at the establishment is imported or offered for import into the United States.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Continued establishment registration and product list filing.</E>
                                     Owners or operators shall review, change as needed, or confirm there have been no changes to, their establishment registration and tobacco product listing information that is on file with FDA, documenting any changes that were not previously reported as follows:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (1) 
                                    <E T="03">Annual establishment registration.</E>
                                     By December 31 of each year, each owner or operator of an establishment engaged in an operation described in § 1108.20(a) must register each of its establishments, and certify that all information associated with the registered establishments and its listed products is accurate and up to date. Each owner or operator of a registered establishment must review, change as needed, or confirm there have been no changes to, the registered establishment information and listed products. Annual registration is still required even to confirm that there have been no changes.
                                </P>
                                <P>(2) In June and December of every year, each owner or operator of an establishment engaged in an operation described in § 1108.20(a) shall review, change as needed, or confirm there have been no changes to, their tobacco product listing information that is on file with FDA, reporting any changes or deletions to listings as described in § 1108.28 and any new listings that were not previously reported.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1108.24</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Information required for tobacco product establishment registration and tobacco product listing.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) Owners or operators of establishments that are subject to the registration and listing requirements of this part must provide the following information, if applicable, to FDA using FDA's electronic tobacco product registration and listing system, except as provided in § 1108.40(b):</P>
                                <P>(1) The full name, physical address, mailing address, and contact information for the establishment;</P>
                                <P>(2) The name, address, phone number, fax number, and email address of the owner and operator; if a partnership, the name of each partner; if a corporation, the place of incorporation and the name of each corporate officer and director; any trade names used by the owner and operator or other names under which the owner and operator conducts business or additional names by which the owner and operator is known;</P>
                                <P>(3) The name, address, phone number, fax number, and email address of the official correspondent designated by the owner or operator as required under paragraph (c) of this section;</P>
                                <P>(4) Any trade names used by the establishment or other names under which the establishment conducts business or additional names by which the establishment is known;</P>
                                <P>(5) The establishment's website address(es) that concern tobacco products;</P>
                                <P>(6) The Registration Identification Number (RGID #) of the establishment, if previously assigned by FDA; and</P>
                                <P>(7) The FDA Establishment Identifier (FEI) number of the establishment, if previously assigned by FDA. If not previously assigned by FDA, FDA will assign an FEI number as provided in § 1108.32. An additional unique establishment identifier, such as a Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS) Number, for the place of business of the owner, the place of business of the operator, and the location of the establishment, is optional.</P>
                                <P>(8) The name of the Tribe if the establishment is located on Indian Country.</P>
                                <P>(b) Owners or operators who have been granted a waiver under § 1108.40(b) from filing electronically through FDA's tobacco product registration and listing system must submit the establishment registration information described in paragraph (a) of this section in paper form using the procedures provided by FDA in accordance with § 1108.40(c).</P>
                                <P>(c) An official correspondent for the registration must be designated by the owner or operator to serve as a point of contact with FDA on matters relating to the registration of tobacco product establishments and the listing of tobacco products. The official correspondent is responsible for:</P>
                                <P>(1) Electronically transmitting to FDA all required registration and listing information unless a waiver from electronic submission has been granted in accordance with § 1108.40(b); and</P>
                                <P>(2) Serving as a liaison for all correspondence with FDA concerning registration and listing.</P>
                                <P>(d) The designation of an official correspondent does not in any manner affect the liability of the owner or operator of the establishment or any other individual under section 301(p) of the FD&amp;C Act or any other provision of the FD&amp;C Act and its implementing regulations.</P>
                                <P>(e) Tobacco product listing information must be submitted to FDA electronically through FDA's tobacco product registration and listing system unless a waiver from electronic submission has been granted in accordance with § 1108.40(b). Owners or operators who have been granted a waiver must submit, in accordance with § 1108.20, the required tobacco product listing information, including information required by this paragraph, and any additional listing information required under § 1108.28, in paper form using the procedures provided by FDA in accordance with § 1108.40(c). The following listing information must be provided for each tobacco product manufactured, prepared, compounded, or processed for commercial distribution by the registrant:</P>
                                <P>(1) The current electronic Registration Identification Number (RGID #) and name of each establishment.</P>
                                <P>(2) The name, including brand and subbrand name, or other commercial name(s) used in commercial distribution, for each tobacco product manufactured, prepared, compounded, or processed at a registered establishment.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) Uniquely identifying information for each tobacco product manufactured, prepared, compounded, or processed, including, product category, product subcategory, package type, characterizing flavor, and, as applicable, nicotine source, product quantity, portion size, length, width, diameter, filter ventilation percentage, e-liquid volume, nicotine concentration, propylene glycol (PG) (numeric value) and vegetable glycerin (VG) (numeric value), wattage, battery capacity, and 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="39201"/>
                                    any additional properties needed to uniquely identify the tobacco product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (4) The FDA-assigned Tobacco Product Number (TP #), if an update to a previous submission, and the industry-assigned Universal Product Code (UPC). If a UPC number is not available, an alternative industry product identification number, to include the number itself and the type of identifier (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     SKU, Item #, or Catalog #) must be provided in lieu of the UPC.
                                </P>
                                <P>(5) All FDA-assigned Submission Tracking Numbers (STN), if any.</P>
                                <P>(6) The FDA-assigned Product Identification Number (PD #), if any.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (7) The operations or processes that are conducted or done to the tobacco product at the establishment (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     compounding, repackaging, relabeling, remanufacturing, processing, contract manufacturing, specification development, manufacturing for export, or manufacturing activities other than those listed).
                                </P>
                                <P>(8) In the case of a tobacco product manufactured in any domestic establishment for export that does not conform to tobacco product standards established pursuant to section 907 of the FD&amp;C Act, the following information shall be provided each year with the June biannual listing update required by § 1108.22(b)(2):</P>
                                <P>(i) The manner in which the exported tobacco product does not conform to applicable tobacco product standards;</P>
                                <P>(ii) Each country of destination of the exported tobacco product during the previous calendar year; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) The quantity of the tobacco product shipped to each country of destination during the previous calendar year.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (9) In the case of a tobacco product subject to a tobacco product standard established under section 907 of the FD&amp;C Act or which is subject to section 910 of the FD&amp;C Act, a reference to the authority for the marketing of the tobacco product, a legible, full color copy of all labeling for the product (except that only one representative package label need be submitted where differences exist only in the bar code, tax stamp, or pricing sticker), indication of the category (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     labeling) of material being submitted and the associated product(s), and the original date the labeling materials were first disseminated and date when their dissemination was discontinued.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (10) For all tobacco products not covered by Paragraph (e)(9) of this section, a legible, full color copy of all consumer information and other labeling for the product (except that only one representative package label need be submitted where differences exist only in the bar code, tax stamp, or pricing sticker), a representative sampling of advertisements for the product, indication of the category (
                                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                     labeling, advertising, consumer information) of the material being submitted and the associated product(s), and the original date the materials were first disseminated and date when their dissemination was discontinued.
                                </P>
                                <P>(f) An owner or operator shall submit to FDA, upon request (for good cause for paragraph (2)), the following information:</P>
                                <P>(1) If the registrant has determined that a tobacco product being listed is not subject to a tobacco product standard established under section 907 of the FD&amp;C Act, a brief statement of the basis for that determination.</P>
                                <P>(2) A copy of all advertisements for a particular tobacco product that is not subject to section 907 or section 910 of the FD&amp;C Act. Such information must be submitted within 30 calendar days of the date of FDA's request.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1108.26</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Maintaining a historical file.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) Each owner or operator shall maintain a historical file containing a copy of all consumer information, labeling, and advertisements in use on the effective date of this rule for all tobacco products contained in the product list.</P>
                                <P>(b) In addition to the requirements set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, each owner or operator shall maintain in the historical file a copy of all consumer information, labeling, and advertisements that is first used after the effective date of this rule. For the purposes of this subsection, consumer information, labeling, and advertisements is first used if the owner or operator had not used it previously or had used it previously but made a material change to it.</P>
                                <P>(c) Each owner or operator required to register and list who also distributes or causes to be distributed free samples of a smokeless tobacco product under 21 CFR 1140.16(d)(2) shall maintain in the historical file for that product documentation of the name, date, and location of each event at which free samples have been distributed, the names of its designated representatives who distributed the samples on behalf of the owner or operator, documentation of compliance with § 1140.16(d)(2)(iii)(A), including identification of the law enforcement officer or licensed security guard present at the event, and documentation of the steps taken to comply with § 1140.16(d)(2)(iv).</P>
                                <P>(d) Each owner or operator must retain consumer information, labeling, or advertisements from the historical file while currently in use and retain for a period of not less than four years after the date of final dissemination for materials that are discontinued. Each owner or operator must retain free sample distribution information for smokeless products for a period of not less than four years after the date of the event documented.</P>
                                <P>(e) Location of the file:</P>
                                <P>(1) The contents of the historical file must be readily available at the registered establishment for inspection and copying by officers or employees duly designated by the Secretary.</P>
                                <P>(2) The contents of the historical file must be made accessible within a reasonable time during inspection or upon FDA request.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1108.28</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Updating tobacco product listing information.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) Each owner or operator shall update its tobacco product listing with the following information:</P>
                                <P>(1) All changes to the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing for commercial distribution of a listed tobacco product, such as when a registrant begins or discontinues performing such activity on or to the tobacco product, or resumes performing such activity if notice of discontinuance was previously reported.</P>
                                <P>(2) All material changes to product listing information previously submitted, including when a registrant has begun to engage in manufacture, preparation, compounding or processing of a listed tobacco product at an additional establishment added to the previously submitted registration or material changes to the previously submitted labeling, representative sampling of advertisements, or other consumer information for the product.</P>
                                <P>(3) Updates shall be made within the timeframes specified in § 1108.22(b) and shall include the brand name of the product and the date it was introduced, or activities were begun, discontinued, or resumed.</P>
                                <P>(b) An owner or operator who intends to introduce into commercial distribution a tobacco product that was not previously included on its product list must add that product to its product listing and provide product information required by § 1108.24(e).</P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) An owner or operator who discontinues commercial distribution of a tobacco product must inactivate the listed tobacco product and must do so using the FDA electronic tobacco product registration and listing system except as provided in § 1108.40(b).
                                    <PRTPAGE P="39202"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>(d) If commercial distribution of a discontinued tobacco product is resumed, the owner or operator must reactivate the previously inactivated product listed and must do so using the electronic tobacco product registration and listing system except as provided in § 1108.40(b).</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1108.32</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Assignment of an FDA Establishment Identifier (FEI) number.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>FDA will assign each establishment an FDA Establishment Identifier (FEI) number after confirming that complete establishment registration information has been submitted. All numbers will be sent to the official correspondent by email, or by postal mail if the owner or operator has been granted a waiver under § 1108.40(b) from the requirement to file registration and listing information electronically.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Format for Establishment Registration and Tobacco Product Listing</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1108.40</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Electronic registration of establishments and listing of tobacco products.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Electronic format requirement.</E>
                                     Owners and operators that are subject to the registration and listing requirements of this part must provide the following information to FDA using the electronic tobacco product registration and listing system, except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section:
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Initial establishment registration information as required by §§ 1108.22(a) and 1108.24;</P>
                                <P>(2) Updates to registration information as required by §§ 1108.22(b) and 1108.24;</P>
                                <P>(3) Initial tobacco product listing information as required by §§ 1108.22(a), 1108.24, and 1108.28;</P>
                                <P>(4) Updates to tobacco product listing information as required by §§ 1108.22(b), 1108.24, and 1108.28.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Waivers from electronic format requirement.</E>
                                     If the establishment registration and tobacco product listing information cannot be submitted electronically through FDA's tobacco product registration and listing system, a waiver may be requested. Waivers will be granted only if use of electronic means is not reasonable for the person requesting the waiver. To request a waiver, applicants must send a letter to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Tobacco Products, Attn: Document Control Center, Bldg. 71, Rm. G335, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, which includes the following information:
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) The name and address of the tobacco product establishment(s) to be registered, a contact person for the owner or operator of the establishment, and the telephone number at which that person can be reached. If the establishment(s) has/have registered in the past, the letter should also include the Registration Identification Number (RGID #) and each registered establishment's FDA Establishment Identifier (FEI) number.</P>
                                <P>(2) A signed statement that use of the internet is not reasonable for the person requesting the waiver, and an explanation of why such use is not reasonable. Waiver requests may be granted if the owner or operator does not have an email address, access to a computer, or an internet service provider that can access the electronic tobacco product registration and listing system. This statement must be signed by the owner or operator of the establishment or by an employee of the owner or operator who is authorized to make the declaration on behalf of the owner or operator.</P>
                                <P>(c) If FDA grants the waiver from filing registration and listing information electronically, FDA will provide information on how to submit such information.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) 
                                    <E T="03">Termination of waivers.</E>
                                     Those owners or operators who have obtained a waiver from filing registration and listing information electronically must notify FDA within 30 calendar days of any changes in the information described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, including if the owner or operator obtains an email address, access to a computer, or an internet service provider that can access the electronic tobacco product registration and listing system. This notification must be submitted by letter to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Tobacco Products, Attn: Document Control Center, Bldg. 71, Rm. G335, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Changes in this information terminate the owner or operator's waiver. Owners or operators whose waivers are terminated must follow the procedures outlined in paragraph (a) of this section for submitting registration and listing information, or must apply for a new waiver under paragraph (b) of this section and explain why use of the internet is still not reasonable for the person.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (e) 
                                    <E T="03">English language.</E>
                                     Registration and listing information must be provided in the English language, except that if any part or whole of any consumer information or other labeling, or advertisements is in a foreign language, a copy of the material shall be provided in the language in which it is published or disseminated. If any such foreign language consumer information or other labeling, or advertisements are submitted, an accurate and complete English translation of the material must be appended to that part of the submission along with a signed statement by an authorized representative of the establishment certifying that the English language translation is complete and accurate and a brief statement of the qualifications of the person that made the translation.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Procedures for Foreign Tobacco Product Establishments</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1108.50</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Establishment registration and tobacco product listing for foreign establishments importing or offering for import tobacco products into the United States.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) Any foreign establishment engaged in the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of a tobacco product that is imported or offered for import into the United States must register such establishment and list such tobacco products in conformance with the procedures in this section and subparts B and C of this part.</P>
                                <P>(1) The official correspondent for the foreign establishment shall facilitate communication among the foreign establishment, the government of such foreign country, and representatives of FDA regarding matters related to establishment registration and tobacco product listing under section 905(h) of the FD&amp;C Act.</P>
                                <P>(2) Exceptions to registration of foreign establishments:</P>
                                <P>(i) If an establishment only manufactures, prepares, compounds, or processes a tobacco product that has entered a foreign trade zone and is exported from that foreign trade zone without being further distributed in the United States, it is not required to register or list its products.</P>
                                <P>(ii) If the establishment is otherwise not required to register or submit a tobacco product list in accordance with subpart B of this part.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1108.52</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Conditions for registration of foreign tobacco product establishments.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    Any establishment in a foreign country engaged in the manufacture, preparation, compounding, or processing of a tobacco product that is imported or offered for import into the United States shall register under the provisions of section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act and this part provided that adequate and effective means are available, by arrangement with the government of such foreign country or otherwise, to enable the Secretary to determine from 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="39203"/>
                                    time to time whether a tobacco product manufactured, prepared, compounded, or processed in such establishment, if imported or offered for import, shall be refused admission on any of the grounds set forth in section 801(a).
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart E—Miscellaneous</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1108.60</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Public availability of registration and tobacco product listing information.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>Establishment registration and tobacco product listing information is available for public inspection and will be posted on the FDA website in a manner consistent with 21 CFR part 20. Requests for information by persons who do not have access to the internet should be directed to the Food and Drug Administration, Center for Tobacco Products, Freedom of Information Staff, Attn: Document Control Center, Bldg. 71, Rm. G335, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1108.62</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Misbranding.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>Registration of a tobacco product establishment or assignment of a registration number does not in any way denote FDA approval of the establishment or marketing authorization for its tobacco products. Any representation in consumer information, labeling, or advertising that creates an impression of FDA approval of a registered establishment, or an impression of FDA marketing authorization of a listed tobacco product, or an impression that a listed tobacco product is safe or less harmful because of registration or possession of a registration number, is misleading and constitutes misbranding. If a tobacco product is manufactured, prepared, propagated, compounded, or processed in an establishment not duly registered under section 905(b), 905(c), 905(d), or 905(h), is not included in a product list required by section 905(i), or its labeling or advertising is false or misleading in any particular, the product is deemed misbranded under section 903(a) of the FD&amp;C Act. Section 301 of the FD&amp;C Act prohibits, among other things, the introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of any tobacco product that is misbranded. The failure to register in accordance with section 905 of the FD&amp;C Act and the implementing regulations in this part, the failure to provide any information required by section 905(i) of the FD&amp;C Act and the implementing regulations in this part, or the failure to provide a notice required by section 905(i)(3) of the FD&amp;C Act and the implementing regulations in this part is a prohibited act under section 301(p) of the FD&amp;C Act.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                        <SIG>
                            <NAME>Robert F. Kennedy, Jr.,</NAME>
                            <TITLE>Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services.</TITLE>
                        </SIG>
                    </PART>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13047 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4164-01-P</BILCOD>
            </PRORULE>
        </PRORULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>123</NO>
    <DATE>Monday, June 29, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Notices</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="39205"/>
            <PARTNO>Part III</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Department of Commerce</AGENCY>
            <SUBAGY> National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
            <HRULE/>
            <TITLE>Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to Turnagain Marine Construction's Douglas Island Cruise Ship Terminal Near Juneau, Alaska; Notice</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <NOTICES>
            <NOTICE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="39206"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                    <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                    <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XF340]</DEPDOC>
                    <SUBJECT>Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to Turnagain Marine Construction's Douglas Island Cruise Ship Terminal Near Juneau, Alaska</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Notice; proposed incidental harassment authorizations; request for comments on proposed authorizations and possible renewal.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>NMFS has received a request from Turnagain Marine Construction (Turnagain) for authorization to take marine mammals incidental to construction of the Douglas Island Cruise Ship Terminal near Juneau, Alaska. Pursuant to the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA), NMFS is requesting comments on its proposal to issue two consecutive incidental harassment authorizations (IHAs) to take marine mammals incidental to the specified activities. NMFS is also requesting comments on possible one-time, 1-year renewals that could be issued under certain circumstances and if all requirements are met, as described in Request for Public Comments at the end of this notice. NMFS will consider public comments prior to making any final decision on the issuance of the requested MMPA authorizations.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <DATES>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>Comments and information must be received no later than July 29, 2026.</P>
                    </DATES>
                    <ADD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                        <P>
                            Comments should be addressed to Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service and should be submitted via email to 
                            <E T="03">ITP.clevenstine@noaa.gov.</E>
                             Electronic copies of the application and supporting documents, as well as a list of the references cited in this document, may be obtained online at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/incidental-take-authorizations-construction-activities.</E>
                             In case of problems accessing these documents, please call the contact listed below.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                             NMFS is not responsible for comments sent by any other method, to any other address or individual, or received after the end of the comment period. Comments, including all attachments, must not exceed a 25-megabyte file size. All comments received are part of the public record and will generally be posted online at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/permit/incidental-take-authorizations-under-marine-mammal-protection-act</E>
                             without change. All personal identifying information (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             name, address) voluntarily submitted by the commenter may be publicly accessible. Do not submit confidential business information or otherwise sensitive or protected information.
                        </P>
                    </ADD>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>Alyssa Clevenstine, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8401.</P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                    <P>
                        The MMPA prohibits the “take” of marine mammals, with certain exceptions. Section 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) directs the Secretary of Commerce (as delegated to NMFS) to allow, upon request, the incidental, but not intentional, taking of small numbers of marine mammals by U.S. citizens who engage in a specified activity (other than commercial fishing) within a specified geographical region if certain findings are made and either regulations are proposed or, if the taking is limited to harassment, a notice of a proposed IHA is provided to the public for review.
                    </P>
                    <P>Authorization for incidental takings shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s) and will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for taking for subsistence uses (where relevant). Further, NMFS must prescribe the permissible methods of taking; other “means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact” on the affected species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of the species or stocks for taking for certain subsistence uses (collectively referred to as “mitigation”); and requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of the takings. The definitions of all applicable MMPA statutory terms used above are included in the relevant sections below and can be found in section 3 of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1362) and NMFS regulations at 50 CFR 216.103.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">National Environmental Policy Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        To comply with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) and NOAA Administrative Order (NAO) 216-6A, NMFS must review our proposed action (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the issuance of two IHAs) with respect to potential impacts on the human environment.
                    </P>
                    <P>This action is consistent with categories of activities identified in Categorical Exclusion B4 (IHAs with no anticipated serious injury or mortality) of the Companion Manual for NAO 216-6A, which do not individually or cumulatively have the potential for significant impacts on the quality of the human environment and for which we have not identified any extraordinary circumstances that would preclude this categorical exclusion. Accordingly, NMFS has preliminarily determined that the issuance of the proposed IHAs qualifies to be categorically excluded from further NEPA review.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Request</HD>
                    <P>On August 28, 2025, NMFS received a request from Turnagain for two consecutive IHAs to take marine mammals incidental to pile driving (installation and removal) associated with construction of a cruise ship terminal on Douglas Island near Juneau, Alaska. Following NMFS' review of the application, Turnagain submitted revised versions on January 14, March 16, April 23, May 5, and May 8, 2026. The application was deemed adequate and complete on May 18, 2026. Turnagain's request is for take of 10 species (15 stocks) of marine mammals by Level B harassment and, for a subset of these species, Level A harassment (9 species (11 stocks)). Neither Turnagain nor NMFS expect serious injury or mortality to result from this activity and, therefore, IHAs are appropriate.</P>
                    <P>
                        NMFS previously issued IHAs to Turnagain for similar work (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         work that utilizes in-water pile driving) at other locations in Alaska (see 88 FR 19927, April 4, 2023; 89 FR 22679, April 2, 2024; 90 FR 44047, September 11, 2025). Turnagain complied with all the requirements (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         mitigation, monitoring, and reporting) of the previous IHAs, and information regarding their monitoring results may be found on our website (
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/incidental-take-authorizations-construction-activities</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Proposed Activity</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Overview</HD>
                    <P>
                        Turnagain proposes to construct two separate cruise ship berths and associated facilities on the western shore of Douglas Island in Stephens Passage near Juneau, Alaska. The proposed project is necessary to provide safe harbor for cruise ships and to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39207"/>
                        accommodate passengers during the Southeast Alaska visitor season (late April to mid-October) while reducing overall congestion in downtown Juneau. The new development would require the placement of 120 temporary and 345 permanent pilings installed via impact, down-the-hole (DTH), and vibratory pile driving. These methods of pile driving would introduce underwater sounds that may result in take, by Level A and Level B harassment, of marine mammals. Temporary template piles would be installed using vibratory and/or DTH driving and removed using vibratory methods while permanent piles would be installed using any or all methods.
                    </P>
                    <P>The proposed project entails coastal construction activities that would be completed in two phases: Phase I and Phase II, which would be separated into Phase II South and Phase II North. Given the use of vibratory pile driving, impact pile driving, and DTH for in-water construction activities, there is the potential for marine mammals to be taken by Level A harassment and/or Level B harassment.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Dates and Duration</HD>
                    <P>Turnagain anticipates the project would occur in two phases over 2 years. Each of the two proposed IHAs would be valid for the statutory maximum of 1 year from the date of effectiveness, and will become effective upon written notification from the applicant to NMFS. The period of effectiveness for the Phase I IHA would begin not later than 1 year from the date of issuance or extend beyond 2 years from the date of issuance. The period of effectiveness for the Phase II IHA would begin not later than 1 year from the date of expiration of the Phase I IHA or extending beyond 2 years from the date of expiration of the Phase I IHA. Phase I is expected to last approximately 122 non-consecutive days, and Phase II is expected to consist of 217 non-consecutive days. The schedule accounts for the mobilization of barges and vessels, as well as potential delays, inclement weather, and shutdowns that may occur upon presence of marine mammals.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Specific Geographic Region</HD>
                    <P>The proposed project would occur on the northwest side of Douglas Island, which lies within the northern Stephens Pass of Southeast Alaska. Douglas Island is separated from Juneau, Alaska, by the Gastineau Channel and the project site is approximately 15 kilometers (km) west of Juneau (figure 1).</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P?</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="620">
                        <PRTPAGE P="39208"/>
                        <GID>EN29JN26.000</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C?</BILCOD>
                    <PRTPAGE P="39209"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Detailed Description of the Specified Activity</HD>
                    <P>Turnagain proposes to install temporary and permanent piles and components to support construction of two large-class cruise ship berths and associated infrastructure on Douglas Island. In-water construction would be completed in two phases (Phase I and Phase II) over 2 years and includes both onshore and offshore components. Phase I includes the north berth, north trestle, and part of the south trestle. Phase II is further described as Phase II South and Phase II North. Phase II South includes the remainder of the south trestle, south berth, and tour boat return dock. Phase II North includes the multi-use harbor, concrete boat launch, and offshore utilities.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Phase I</HD>
                    <P>The main components of Phase I include the development of the north berth and trestle, as well as the start of the south trestle. The north berth would consist of a floating cruise ship dock with a small boat float, a 262-m long curved approach trestle, a transfer span, four mooring dolphins, two float restraint dolphins, and a series of connecting catwalks. Turnagain anticipates part of the south trestle would be installed during Phase I, depending on how construction progresses. In total, Phase I is expected to require installation of the following steel piles:</P>
                    <P>• Seventy-eight 36-inch (in) (91.4-centimeters (cm)) diameter temporary template piles to guide permanent piles into place (all template piles would subsequently be removed using vibratory methods);</P>
                    <P>• Sixty-six 36-in (91.4-cm) diameter permanent piles (six of these would be installed above the high tide line); and</P>
                    <P>• Twenty-eight 48-in (121.9-cm) diameter permanent piles.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Phase II South</HD>
                    <P>Phase II South consists of the installation of the remaining components of the south trestle and installation of all south berth infrastructure. The south berth would serve as a cruise ship moorage and access to onshore facilities or commercial marine tours. This includes a floating cruise ship dock with small boat float, a 189-m long curved approach trestle, a transfer span, four mooring dolphins, two float restraint dolphins, and a series of connecting catwalks. These components of Phase II South are expected to require installation of the following steel piles:</P>
                    <P>• Thirty-four 36-in (91.4-cm) diameter temporary template piles (all template piles would subsequently be removed using vibratory methods);</P>
                    <P>• Forty-eight 36-in (91.4-cm) diameter permanent piles (15 of which would be installed above the high tide line); and</P>
                    <P>• Twenty-eight 48-in (121.9-cm) diameter permanent piles.</P>
                    <P>Additionally, during Phase II South, a tour boat return dock would be constructed to serve as a temporary tour boat moorage and as an access point to the onshore facilities for passengers returning from a commercial marine tour. These structures would also require the installation of the following steel piles:</P>
                    <P>• Twenty-three 36-in (91.4-cm) diameter temporary template piles (all template piles would subsequently be removed using vibratory methods); and</P>
                    <P>• Fifty-seven 36-in (91.4-cm) diameter permanent piles (nine of which would be installed above the high tide line).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Phase II North</HD>
                    <P>In-water work for Phase II North consists of a multi-use harbor and a concrete boat launch. The multi-use harbor would consist of five connected floats, which would serve as a small boat harbor, seaplane base, and fuel dock for commercial tour boats and planes that use the site. The multi-use harbor would be accessed by a 170.7-m long approach trestle and a 30.5-m long transfer span. The concrete boat launch would require the development and installation of a pre-cast concrete plank and steel piles would be used to support a float for temporary moorage that would be positioned on top of the boat launch. These structures would require the installation of the following steel piles:</P>
                    <P>• Thirty 36-in (91.4-cm) diameter temporary template piles (all template piles would subsequently be removed using vibratory methods);</P>
                    <P>• Sixty 24-in (61-cm) diameter permanent piles;</P>
                    <P>• Forty-two 36-in (91.4-cm) diameter permanent piles (six of which would be installed above the high tide line); and</P>
                    <P>• Sixteen 24-in (61-cm) diameter permanent piles for the concrete boat launch.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Construction Equipment and Installation and Removal Approach</HD>
                    <P>Turnagain proposes to utilize the following equipment for the installation and removal of piles to support the components and infrastructure development:</P>
                    <P>• A vibratory hammer (ICE 44B) with a static weight of 5,556.5 kg;</P>
                    <P>• A diesel impact hammer (Delmag D46) with maximum energy of 145,452.1 joules (J) of capability; and</P>
                    <P>• Three shaft drills:</P>
                    <P>1. NUMA Patriot 180 for 24-in (61-cm) piles;</P>
                    <P>2. MF34 for 36-in (91.4-cm) piles; and</P>
                    <P>3. Hyper 331 for 48-in (121.9-cm) piles.</P>
                    <P>
                        All temporary template piles would be installed using a vibratory hammer and/or DTH driving then subsequently removed via vibratory methods. All permanent piles would be installed using any or all available methods of pile driving (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         vibratory, impact, DTH), as dictated by engineering requirements and substrate conditions. The methodology used in Turnagain's application assumed that all three pile driving methods would be used for all permanent piles; however, not all three approaches may be necessary. In circumstances where all three methods are used, piles would first be vibrated into the seafloor substrate, then an impact hammer would be used to drive to tip elevation, and then a DTH hammer would be placed inside the piling and the shaft would be drilled into the bedrock. A summary of all piles proposed for removal and/or installation below the high tide line are included in tables 1-3. Take is not anticipated to occur from pile installation above the high tide line.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="39210"/>
                        <GID>EN29JN26.001</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="39211"/>
                        <GID>EN29JN26.002</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="39212"/>
                        <GID>EN29JN26.003</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Proposed mitigation, monitoring, and reporting measures are described in detail later in this document (please see Proposed Mitigation and Proposed Monitoring and Reporting).
                        <PRTPAGE P="39213"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description of Marine Mammals in the Area of Specified Activities</HD>
                    <P>
                        Sections 3 and 4 of the application summarize available information regarding status and trends, distribution and habitat preferences, and behavior and life history of the potentially affected species. NMFS fully considered all of this information, and we refer the reader to these descriptions, instead of reprinting the information. Additional information regarding population trends and threats may be found in NMFS' Stock Assessment Reports (SARs) (
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/marine-mammal-stock-assessments</E>
                        ) and more general information about these species (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         physical and behavioral descriptions) may be found on NMFS' website (
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/find-species</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>Table 4 lists all species or stocks for which take is likely and proposed to be authorized for this activity and summarizes information related to the population or stock, including regulatory status under the MMPA and Endangered Species Act (ESA) and potential biological removal (PBR), where known. PBR is defined by the MMPA as the maximum number of animals, not including natural mortalities, that may be removed from a marine mammal stock while allowing that stock to reach or maintain its optimum sustainable population (as described in NMFS' SARs). While no serious injury or mortality is anticipated or proposed to be authorized here, PBR and annual mortality and serious injury (M/SI) from anthropogenic sources are included here as gross indicators of the status of the species or stocks and other threats.</P>
                    <P>
                        Marine mammal abundance estimates presented in this document represent the total number of individuals that make up a given stock or the total number estimated within a particular study or survey area. NMFS' stock abundance estimates for most species represent the total estimate of individuals within the geographic area, if known, that comprises that stock. For some species, this geographic area may extend beyond U.S. waters. All managed stocks in this region are assessed in NMFS' U.S. Pacific and Alaska SARs (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Carretta 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2026; Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2026). All values presented in table 4 are the most recent available at the time of publication and are available online at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/marine-mammal-stock-assessments.</E>
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="39214"/>
                        <GID>EN29JN26.004</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        As indicated above, all 10 species (with 15 managed stocks) in table 4 temporally and spatially co-occur with the activity to the degree that take is likely to occur. All species that could potentially occur in the proposed 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39215"/>
                        project area are included in table 10 of the application. While gray whales (
                        <E T="03">Eschrichtius robustus</E>
                        ), sperm whales (
                        <E T="03">Physeter macrocephalus</E>
                        ), and Pacific white-sided dolphins (
                        <E T="03">Lagenorhynchus obliquidens</E>
                        ) have been documented in the area, the temporal and/or spatial occurrence of these species is such that take is not expected to occur, and they are not discussed further. Gray whales and Pacific white-sided dolphins are considered to be very rare and sperm whales are considered to be rare in the project area. Take of these species has not been requested nor proposed to be authorized and these species are not considered further in this document.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, the northern sea otter (
                        <E T="03">Enhydra lutris kenyoni</E>
                        ) can be found in Southeast Alaska; however, this species is managed by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service and is not considered further in this document.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Humpback whales are the most commonly observed baleen whale in Alaska and have been observed in Southeast Alaska in all months of the year (Baker 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1986). NMFS recognizes five stocks of humpback whales in the North Pacific: (1) the Central America/Southern Mexico-California-Oregon-Washington stock (found from Central America to the West Coast of the U.S. and includes the Central America DPS); (2) the Mainland Mexico-California-Oregon-Washington stock (found from Mexico to the West Coast of the U.S., Alaska, and Russia and includes the Mexico DPS); (3) the Hawaii stock (found from Hawaii to the West Coast of the U.S., Alaska, and Russia and includes the Hawaii DPS); (4) the Mexico-North Pacific stock (found from Mexico to the West Coast of the U.S. and includes the Mexico DPS); and (5) the Western North Pacific stock (found from Asia to Russia and Western Alaska/Bering Sea and includes the Western North Pacific DPS) (Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2026). In the project area, humpback whales are expected to be from the Hawaii stock and the Mexico-North Pacific stock. Humpback whales migrate to Southeast Alaska in spring to feed after months of fasting in equatorial breeding grounds in Hawaii and Mexico. Humpback whales found in the project area are predominantly members of the Hawaii DPS (98 percent probability in Southeast Alaska), which is not listed under the ESA; however, based on a comprehensive photo-identification study, members of the Mexico DPS, which is listed as threatened, have a small potential to occur in the project location (2 percent probability in Southeast Alaska) (Wade, 2021). Peak abundance of humpback whales in Southeast Alaska typically occurs during late summer to early fall. Most humpback whales begin returning to southern breeding grounds in fall or winter. However, due to temporal overlap between whales departing and returning, humpbacks can be found in Alaskan feeding grounds in every month of the year (Baker 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1985; Straley, 1990; Wynne and Witteveen, 2009). It is also common for some humpback whales to overwinter in areas of Southeast Alaska. It is thought that those humpbacks that remain in Southeast Alaska do so in response to the availability of winter schools of fish, such as herring (Straley, 1990).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Humpback whales are dependent on foraging resources in Southeast Alaska, and large portions of Southeast Alaska have been identified as biologically important areas (BIAs) for seasonal feeding due to the high density of animals, with the Lynn Canal and Stephens Passage a BIA for humpback whale feeding from April through October (Wild 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). In Stephens Passage, humpback whales are most often observed during seasons of high prey concentration, May through September (Witteveen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2011); however, feeding humpback whales' presence in the Gulf of Alaska has also been correlated closely with peak abundance of Pacific herring (
                        <E T="03">Clupea pallasii</E>
                        ) during late fall and early winter. Most humpback whales migrate to other regions during winter to breed but over-wintering (non-breeding) humpback whales have been noted and may be increasingly common (Straley, 1990), and a few may skip migration altogether (Straley 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018). Therefore, humpbacks may be present year-round in Stephens Passage, but are less common during the late winter and early spring. The project area is not located in or near designated critical habitat for threatened and endangered humpback whale DPSs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Minke whales in Southeast Alaska are part of the Alaska stock (Muto 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022). Dedicated surveys for cetaceans in Southeast Alaska found that minke whales were scattered throughout inland waters from Glacier Bay and Icy Strait to Clarence Strait, with small concentrations near the entrance of Glacier Bay. All sightings were of single minke whales, except for a single sighting of multiple minke whales. Surveys took place in spring, summer, and fall, and minke whales were present in low numbers in all seasons and years. No information appears to be available on the winter occurrence of minke whales in Southeast Alaska and Dahlheim 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2009) could not assess seasonality of minke whales' presence in the area due to low encounter rates; however, they were observed in Chatham Strait south of the project area.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Killer whales have been observed in all the world's oceans, but the highest densities occur in colder and more productive waters found at high latitudes. Killer whales occur along the entire Alaska coast, in British Columbia and Washington inland waterways, and along the outer coasts of Washington, Oregon, and California. There are three distinct ecotypes, or forms, of killer whales recognized: resident, transient, and offshore. The three ecotypes differ morphologically, ecologically, behaviorally, and genetically. In Southeast Alaska, two resident ecotypes (Alaska Resident and Northern Resident) range from the Aleutian Islands to Washington State and two transient populations (West Coast Transient and Gulf of Alaska, Aleutian Islands and Bering Sea Transient) are found from California to Southeast Alaska (Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2026; Myers 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021). The Alaska Resident stock and the West Coast Transient stock are frequently seen in the project area while the Northern Resident stock and the Aleutian Islands and Bering Sea Transient stock are considered very rare in the project area.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Dall's porpoises are found throughout the North Pacific Ocean, from southern Japan to southern California and north to the Bering Sea. All Dall's porpoises in Alaska are members of the Alaska stock. This species can be found in offshore, inshore, and nearshore habitat, but prefers waters more than 183-m deep (Dahlheim 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009; Jefferson, 2009). Dall's porpoises have been consistently observed in Lynn Canal, Stephens Passage, upper Chatham Strait, Frederick Sound, and Clarence Strait (Dalheim 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000). Despite generalized water depth preferences, Dall's porpoises may occur in shallower waters. Moran 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2018) recently mapped Dall's porpoise distributions in bays, shallow water, and nearshore areas of Prince William Sound, habitats not typically utilized by this species. Jefferson 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2019) estimated the highest density of Dall's porpoise during summer months (31.6 individuals/100 km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Harbor porpoises from the Northern Southeast Alaska Inland Waters stock range from Cape Suckling to the Canada border (Muto 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022). Harbor porpoises frequent primarily coastal waters in Southeast Alaska (Dalheim 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009) and occur most frequently in waters less than 100-m deep (Hobbs and Waite, 2010). Harbor porpoises forage in waters less than 200-m deep on small pelagic schooling fish such as herring, cod, pollock, octopus, smelt, and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39216"/>
                        bottom-dwelling fish, occasionally feeding on squid and crustaceans (Bjørge and Tolley 2009; Wynne 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2011). Calving generally occurs from May to August, but can vary by region. Abundance data for harbor porpoises in Southeast Alaska were collected during 18 seasonal surveys spanning 22 years, from 1991 to 2012, and the density in Lynn Canal and Stephens Passage was estimated as 0.023 individuals/km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         (Dahlheim 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015). Zerbini 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2022) estimated harbor porpoise density in northern Southeast Alaska as 0.106 animals/km
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        California sea lions from the U.S. stock have been sighted in recent decades in Southeast Alaska and have been seen during all seasons but most often in spring (Valenzuela-Toro 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023; Maniscalco 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004). Male California sea lions disperse widely from their breeding rookeries in southern California to forage as far north as Canada (Carretta 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022), with some individuals observed dispersing farther north. The U.S. stock of California sea lions have a wide range, typically from the border of the United States and Mexico. During the winter males commonly migrate to feeding grounds off California, Oregon, Washington, British Columbia and recently Southeast Alaska. There is an active unusual mortality event declared for the U.S. stock of California sea lions but this is mostly limited to southern California. Females and pups on the other hand stay close to breeding colonies until the pups have weened. The furthest north females have been observed is off the coast of Washington and Oregon during warm water years. California sea lions feed primarily offshore in coastal waters. California sea lion breeding areas are mostly in southern California and are not expected to spatially overlap with the project area. They have been observed co-located with Steller sea lions north of Douglas Island in Favorite Channel and Lynn Canal on Portland Island, Little Island, Benjamin Island, Faust Rock, and Poundstone Rock.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Northern fur seals occur from southern California north to the Bering Sea and west to the Sea of Okhotsk and Honshu Island, Japan. During the summer breeding season, most of the worldwide population is found on the Pribilof Islands (St. Paul Island and St. George Island) in the southern Bering Sea, with the remaining animals on rookeries in Russia, on Bogoslof Island in the southern Bering Sea, on San Miguel Island and the Farallon Islands in California (Muto 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2022). Northern fur seals feed on a variety of prey including, squid, walleye pollock, Pacific herring, and capelin (Diaz Gomez 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015). While fur seals are rare in the project area, they have been spotted in this area during the winter. In January 2024, a fur seal was observed at the northern end of Lynn Canal for 7 days near the project site during the Skagway Ore Terminal Redevelopment project in Skagway, Alaska. Fur seals may only occur near the project area during their migration between the Pribilof Islands and California in the fall and spring. Since they are mostly solitary when out on the ocean, large groups are not expected near the project area.
                    </P>
                    <P>Steller sea lions are found throughout the North Pacific Ocean, including coastal and inland waters from Russia (Kuril Islands and the Sea of Okhotsk), east to Alaska, and south to central California (Año Nuevo Island). Steller sea lions were listed as threatened range-wide under the ESA on November 26, 1990 (55 FR 49204, November 26, 1990); they were subsequently partitioned into the western and eastern DPSs, respectively, in 1997 (Allen and Angliss, 2010). The Eastern DPS remained classified as threatened (62 FR 24345, May 5, 1997) until it was delisted in November 2013, while the Western DPS (those individuals west of 144° W longitude or Cape Suckling, Alaska) was upgraded to endangered status following separation of the stocks, and it remains listed as endangered.</P>
                    <P>
                        The majority of Steller sea lions that inhabit Southeast Alaska are part of the Eastern DPS; however, branded individuals from the Western DPS make regular movements across the 144° longitude boundary to the northern “mixing zone” haulouts and rookeries within Southeast Alaska (Jemison 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013). While haulouts and rookeries in the northern portion of Southeast Alaska may be important areas for Western DPS animals, there continues to be little evidence that their regular range extends to the southern haulouts and rookeries in Southeast Alaska (Jemison 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018). However, genetic data analyzed in Hastings 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2020) indicated that up to 1.4 percent of Steller sea lions near the project area may be members of the Western DPS, which NMFS recommends using in their 2020 guidance (Hastings 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020; NMFS, 2020). There are several haulouts in Southeast Alaska but only one, Benjamin Island, has been documented near Stephens Passage in southern Lynn Canal. Local tour operators expressed that sea lions are frequently seen in the area and also frequently seen on a channel marker at the south end of Horse Island, located across Stephens Passage from the project area. The project area is not located in or near designated critical habitat for the Western DPS of Steller sea lions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Harbor seals range from Baja California north along the west coasts of California, Oregon, Washington, British Columbia, and Southeast Alaska; west through the Gulf of Alaska, Prince William Sound, and the Aleutian Islands; and north in the Bering Sea to Cape Newenham and the Pribilof Islands. Harbor seals occur year-round in the inside passages of Southeast Alaska and are regularly sighted in Auke Bay. Harbor seals forage on fish and invertebrates (Orr 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004) including capelin, eulachon, cod, pollock, flatfish, shrimp, octopus, and squid (Wynne, 2012). They are opportunistic feeders that forage in marine, estuarine, and occasionally freshwater habitat, adjusting their foraging behavior to take advantage of prey that are locally and seasonally abundant (Payne and Selzer, 1989). Research has demonstrated that harbor seals conduct both shallow and deep dives while foraging (Tollit 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1997), depending on prey availability. Harbor seals usually give birth to a single pup between May and mid-July; birthing locations are dispersed over several haulout sites and not confined to major rookeries (Klinkhart 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008). Harbor seals haul out on rocks, reefs, beaches, and drifting glacial ice. They are non-migratory; their local movements are associated with tides, weather, season, food availability, and reproduction, as well as sex and age class (Swain 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1996; Lowry 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2001; Boveng 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012). Harbor seals are commonly sighted in the waters of the inside passages throughout Southeast Alaska and there are two recorded haulouts near the project area at Horse Shoal (3.7 km away) and Scull Island (8.6 km away) where harbor seals are frequently seen (AFSC, 2024).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Northern elephant seals breed and give birth in California (U.S.) and Baja California (Mexico), primarily on offshore islands, from December to March (Stewart 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1993). Spatial segregation in foraging areas between males and females is evident from satellite tag data (Le Beouf 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000). Males migrate to the Gulf of Alaska and western Aleutian Islands along the continental shelf to feed on benthic prey, while females migrate to pelagic areas in the Gulf of Alaska and the central North Pacific to feed on pelagic prey (Le Beouf 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000). Breeding and important haulouts areas are not expected to spatially overlap with the project area but there has been an increase in sightings of around 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39217"/>
                        Southeast Alaska in recent years, including in the Juneau area, with recent sightings near the project area.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Marine Mammal Hearing</HD>
                    <P>
                        Hearing is the most important sensory modality for marine mammals underwater, and exposure to anthropogenic sound can have deleterious effects. To appropriately assess the potential effects of sound exposure, it is necessary to understand the frequency ranges marine mammals are able to hear. Because not all marine mammal species have equal hearing capabilities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019; Erbe 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2025), NMFS divides marine mammals into hearing groups and identifies generalized hearing ranges for each group (table 5). For more information on how these hearing groups and ranges were derived, see the Updated Technical Guidance (NMFS, 2024).
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="165">
                        <GID>EN29JN26.005</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>For more detail concerning these groups and associated frequency ranges, please see NMFS (2024) for a review of available information.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Potential Effects of Specified Activities on Marine Mammals and Their Habitat</HD>
                    <P>This section discusses how components of the specified activity may impact marine mammals and their habitat. The Estimated Take of Marine Mammals section includes a quantitative analysis of the number of individuals that are expected to be taken by this activity. The Negligible Impact Analysis and Determination section considers the content of this section, the Estimated Take of Marine Mammals section, and the Proposed Mitigation section to draw conclusions regarding the likely impacts of these activities on the reproductive success or survivorship of individuals and whether those impacts are reasonably expected to, or reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.</P>
                    <P>Acoustic effects on marine mammals during the specified activities are expected to potentially occur from impact pile driving for installation, vibratory pile driving for installation and removal, and DTH systems. The effects of underwater noise from Turnagain's proposed activities have the potential to result in Level B harassment of marine mammals in the action area and, for some species/stocks as a result of certain proposed activities, Level A harassment.</P>
                    <P>The proposed activities include in the installation and/or removal of steel piles of varying diameters. There are a variety of types and degrees of effects to marine mammals, prey species, and habitat that could occur as a result of the proposed activities. Below we provide a brief description of the types of sound sources that would be generated by the project, the general impacts from these types of activities, and an analysis of the anticipated impacts on marine mammals from the project, with consideration of the proposed mitigation measures.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Description of Sound Sources for the Specified Activities</HD>
                    <P>
                        Activities associated with the project that have the potential to incidentally take marine mammals though exposure to sound include impact pile driving for installation, vibratory pile driving for removal and installation, and DTH. Impact hammers typically operate by repeatedly dropping and/or pushing a heavy piston onto a pile to drive the pile into substrate. Sound generated by impact hammers is impulsive, characterized by rapid rise times and high peak levels, a potentially injurious combination (Hastings and Popper, 2005). Vibratory hammers install piles by vibrating them and allowing the weight of the hammer to push them into substrate. Vibratory hammers typically produce less sound (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         lower levels) than impact hammers. Peak sound pressure levels (SPLs) may be 180 dB or greater, but are generally 10-20 dB lower than SPLs generated during impact pile driving of the same-sized pile (Oestman 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009; California Department of Transportation, 2020). Sounds produced by vibratory hammers are non-impulsive; compared to sounds produced by impact hammers, the rise time is slower, reducing the probability and severity of injury, and the sound energy is distributed over a greater amount of time (Nedwell and Edwards, 2002; Carlson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DTH systems use a combination of percussive and drilling mechanisms to advance a hole into rock, with or without simultaneously advancing a pile/casing into that hole. Drill cuttings and debris at the rock face are removed by an air-lift exhaust through the inside of the pile (Guan and Miner, 2020). Unlike other pile installation methods, at least one sound source during DTH is found at the intersection of the drill tip and the substrate and is often more characteristically a point source rather than a linear source. A DTH system drills through bedrock using a rotating function like a standard drill, in concert with a hammering mechanism integrated into the system to increase speed of progress through the substrate (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         it is similar to a “hammer drill” hand tool). DTH systems typically involve a single hammer (mono-hammer) but multi- or “cluster” hammer drills may also be used.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The sounds produced by the DTH system simultaneously contain both a continuous non-impulsive component from the drilling action and an 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39218"/>
                        impulsive component from the hammering action. Therefore, for purposes of evaluating Level A and Level B harassment under the MMPA, NMFS treats DTH systems as both impulsive (Level A harassment thresholds) and continuous, non-impulsive (Level B harassment thresholds) sound source types simultaneously.
                    </P>
                    <P>The likely or possible impacts of Turnagain's proposed activities on marine mammals could involve both non-acoustic and acoustic stressors. Potential non-acoustic stressors could result from the physical presence of the equipment and personnel; however, given the known pinniped haul-out sites are not in the immediate vicinity of the project area (located 3.7 and 8.6 km away from the project site), visual and other non-acoustic stressors would be limited, and any impacts to marine mammals are expected to primarily be acoustic in nature.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Potential Effects of Underwater Sound on Marine Mammals</HD>
                    <P>
                        The introduction of anthropogenic noise into the aquatic environment from impact pile driving, vibratory pile driving, and DTH is the primary means by which marine mammals may be harassed during the specified activity. Anthropogenic sounds cover a broad range of frequencies and sound levels and can have a range of highly variable impacts on marine life from none or minor to potentially severe responses depending on received levels, duration of exposure, behavioral context, and various other factors. Broadly, underwater sound from active acoustic sources can potentially result in one or more of the following: temporary or permanent hearing impairment, non-auditory physical or physiological effects, behavioral disturbance, stress, and masking (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995; Gordon 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003; Nowacek 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007; Southall
                        <E T="03"> et al.,</E>
                         2007; Götz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We describe the more severe effects of certain non-auditory physical or physiological effects only briefly as we do not expect that use of impact, vibratory, and DTH driving are reasonably likely to result in such effects. Potential effects from impulsive sound sources can range in severity from effects such as behavioral disturbance or tactile perception to physical discomfort, slight injury of the internal organs and the auditory system, or mortality (Yelverton 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1973). Non-auditory physiological effects or injuries that theoretically might occur in marine mammals exposed to high level underwater sound or as a secondary effect of extreme behavioral reactions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         change in dive profile as a result of an avoidance reaction) caused by exposure to sound include neurological effects, bubble formation, resonance effects, and other types of organ or tissue damage (Cox 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006; Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007; Zimmer and Tyack, 2007; Tal 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2015). The proposed project activities considered here do not involve the use of devices, such as explosives or mid-frequency active sonar, that are associated with these types of effects.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The degree of effect of an acoustic exposure on marine mammals is dependent on several factors, including, but not limited to, sound type (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         impulsive vs. non-impulsive), signal characteristics, the species, age and sex class (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         adult male vs. mom with calf), duration of exposure, the distance between the noise source and the animal, received levels, behavioral state at time of exposure, and previous history with exposure (Wartzok 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003; Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). In general, sudden, high-intensity sounds can cause hearing loss as can longer exposures to lower-intensity sounds. Moreover, any temporary or permanent loss of hearing, if it occurs at all, will occur almost exclusively for noise within an animal's hearing range. We describe below the specific manifestations of acoustic effects that may occur based on the activities proposed by Turnagain.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (1995) described zones of increasing intensity of effect that might be expected to occur in relation to distance from a source and assuming that the signal is within an animal's hearing range. First (at the greatest distance) is the area within which the acoustic signal would be audible (potentially perceived) to the animal but not strong enough to elicit any overt behavioral or physiological response. The next zone (closer to the receiving animal) corresponds with the area where the signal is audible to the animal and of sufficient intensity to elicit behavioral or physiological responsiveness. The third is a zone within which, for signals of high intensity, the received level is sufficient to potentially cause discomfort or tissue damage to auditory or other systems. Overlaying these zones to a certain extent is the area within which masking (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         when a sound interferes with or masks the ability of an animal to detect a signal of interest that is above the absolute hearing threshold) may occur; the masking zone may be highly variable in size.
                    </P>
                    <P>Below, we provide additional detail regarding potential impacts on marine mammals and their habitat from noise in general, starting with hearing impairment, as well as from the specific activities Turnagain proposes to conduct, to the degree it is available.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Hearing Threshold Shifts</HD>
                    <P>
                        NMFS defines a noise-induced threshold shift (TS) as a change, usually an increase, in the threshold of audibility at a specified frequency or portion of an individual's hearing range above a previously established reference level (NMFS, 2018, 2024). The amount of threshold shift is customarily expressed in dB. TS can be permanent or temporary. As described in NMFS (2018, 2024) there are numerous factors to consider when examining the consequence of TS, including, but not limited to, the signal temporal pattern (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         impulsive or non-impulsive), likelihood an individual would be exposed for a long enough duration or to a high enough level to induce a TS, the magnitude of the TS, time to recovery (seconds to minutes or hours to days), the frequency range of the exposure (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         spectral content), the hearing frequency range of the exposed species relative to the signal's frequency spectrum (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         how animal uses sound within the frequency band of the signal; 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014), and the overlap between the animal and the source (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         spatial, temporal, and spectral).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Auditory Injury (AUD INJ)</HD>
                    <P>
                        NMFS (2024) defines AUD INJ as damage to the inner ear that can result in destruction of tissue, such as the loss of cochlear neuron synapses or auditory neuropathy (Houser, 2021; Finneran, 2024). AUD INJ may or may not result in a permanent threshold shift (PTS). PTS is subsequently defined as a permanent, irreversible increase in the threshold of audibility at a specified frequency or portion of an individual's hearing range above a previously established reference level (NMFS, 2024). PTS does not generally affect more than a limited frequency range, and an animal that has incurred PTS has some level of hearing loss at the relevant frequencies; typically animals with PTS or other AUD INJ are not functionally deaf (Au and Hastings, 2008; Finneran, 2016). Available data from humans and other terrestrial mammals indicate that a 40-dB threshold shift approximates AUD INJ onset (see Ward 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1958, 1959; Ward, 1960; Kryter 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1966; Miller, 1974; Ahroon 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1996; Henderson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008). AUD INJ levels for marine mammals are estimates, as with the exception of a single study unintentionally inducing PTS in a harbor seal (Kastak 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008), there 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39219"/>
                        are no empirical data measuring AUD INJ in marine mammals largely due to the fact that, for various ethical reasons, experiments involving anthropogenic noise exposure at levels inducing AUD INJ are not typically pursued or authorized (NMFS, 2024).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Temporary Threshold Shift (TTS)</HD>
                    <P>
                        TTS is a temporary, reversible increase in the threshold of audibility at a specified frequency or portion of an individual's hearing range above a previously established reference level (NMFS, 2024), and is not considered an AUD INJ. Based on data from marine mammal TTS measurements (see Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 2019), a TTS of 6 dB is considered the minimum threshold shift clearly larger than any day-to-day or session-to-session variation in a subject's normal hearing ability (Finneran 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000, 2002; Schlundt 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000). As described in Finneran (2015), marine mammal studies have shown the amount of TTS increases with the 24-hour cumulative sound exposure level (SEL
                        <E T="52">24</E>
                        ) in an accelerating fashion: at low exposures with lower SEL
                        <E T="52">24</E>
                        , the amount of TTS is typically small and the growth curves have shallow slopes. At exposures with higher SEL
                        <E T="52">24</E>
                        , the growth curves become steeper and approach linear relationships with the sound exposure level (SEL).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Depending on the degree (elevation of threshold in dB), duration (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         recovery time), and frequency range of TTS, and the context in which it is experienced, TTS can have effects on marine mammals ranging from discountable to more impactful (similar to those discussed in auditory masking, below). For example, a marine mammal may be able to readily compensate for a brief, relatively small amount of TTS in a non-critical frequency range that takes place during a time when the animal is traveling through the open ocean, where ambient noise is lower and there are not as many competing sounds present. Alternatively, a larger amount and longer duration of TTS sustained during time when communication is critical for successful mother/calf interactions could have more severe impacts. We note that reduced hearing sensitivity as a simple function of aging has been observed in marine mammals, as well as humans and other taxa (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007), so we can infer that strategies exist for coping with this condition to some degree, though likely not without cost.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Many studies have examined noise-induced hearing loss in marine mammals (see Finneran (2015) and Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2019) for summaries). TTS is the mildest form of hearing impairment that can occur during exposure to sound. While experiencing TTS, the hearing threshold rises, and a sound must be at a higher level in order to be heard. In terrestrial and marine mammals, TTS can last from minutes or hours to days (in cases of strong TTS). In many cases, hearing sensitivity recovers rapidly after exposure to the sound ends. For cetaceans, published data on the onset of TTS are limited to captive bottlenose dolphin (
                        <E T="03">Tursiops truncatus</E>
                        ), beluga whale (
                        <E T="03">Delphinapterus leucas</E>
                        ), harbor porpoise, and Yangtze finless porpoise (
                        <E T="03">Neophocoena asiaeorientalis</E>
                        ) (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019). For pinnipeds in water, measurements of TTS are limited to harbor seals, elephant seals, bearded seals (
                        <E T="03">Erignathus barbatus</E>
                        ) and California sea lions (Kastak 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007; Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019b, 2019c, 2021, 2022a, 2022b; Reichmuth 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019; Sills 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2020). TTS was not observed in spotted (
                        <E T="03">Phoca largha</E>
                        ) and ringed (
                        <E T="03">Pusa hispida</E>
                        ) seals exposed to single airgun impulse sounds at levels matching previous predictions of TTS onset (Reichmuth 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2016). These studies examine hearing thresholds measured in marine mammals before and after exposure to intense or long-duration sound exposures. The difference between the pre-exposure and post-exposure thresholds can be used to determine the amount of threshold shift at various post-exposure times.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The amount and onset of TTS depends on the exposure frequency. Sounds below the region of best sensitivity for a species or hearing group are less hazardous than those near the region of best sensitivity (Finneran and Schlundt, 2013). At low frequencies, onset-TTS exposure levels are higher compared to those in the region of best sensitivity (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         a low frequency noise would need to be louder to cause TTS onset when TTS exposure level is higher), as shown for harbor porpoises and harbor seals (Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019a, 2019c). Note that in general, harbor seals and harbor porpoises have a lower TTS onset than other measured pinniped or cetacean species (Finneran, 2015). In addition, TTS can accumulate across multiple exposures, but the resulting TTS will be less than the TTS from a single, continuous exposure with the same SEL (Mooney 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009; Finneran 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2010; Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014, 2015). This means that TTS predictions based on the total, SEL
                        <E T="52">24</E>
                         will overestimate the amount of TTS from intermittent exposures, such as sonars and impulsive sources. Nachtigall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2018) describe measurements of hearing sensitivity of multiple odontocete species (bottlenose dolphin, harbor porpoise, beluga, and false killer whale (
                        <E T="03">Pseudorca crassidens</E>
                        )) when a relatively loud sound was preceded by a warning sound. These captive animals were shown to reduce hearing sensitivity when warned of an impending intense sound. Based on these experimental observations of captive animals, the authors suggest that wild animals may dampen their hearing during prolonged exposures or if conditioned to anticipate intense sounds. Another study showed that echolocating animals (including odontocetes) might have anatomical specializations that might allow for conditioned hearing reduction and filtering of low-frequency ambient noise, including increased stiffness and control of middle ear structures and placement of inner ear structures (Ketten 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021). Data available on noise-induced hearing loss for mysticetes are currently lacking (NMFS, 2024). Additionally, the existing marine mammal TTS data come from a limited number of individuals within these species.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Relationships between TTS and AUD INJ thresholds have not been studied in marine mammals, and there are no measured PTS data for cetaceans, but such relationships are assumed to be similar to those in humans and other terrestrial mammals. AUD INJ typically occurs at exposure levels at least several dB above that inducing mild TTS (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a 40-dB threshold shift approximates AUD INJ onset (Kryter 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1966; Miller, 1974), while a 6-dB threshold shift approximates TTS onset (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 2019). Based on data from terrestrial mammals, a precautionary assumption is that the AUD INJ thresholds for impulsive sounds (such as impact pile driving pulses as received close to the source) are at least 6 dB higher than the TTS threshold on a peak-pressure basis and AUD INJ cumulative sound exposure level thresholds are 15 to 20 dB higher than TTS cumulative sound exposure level thresholds (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 2019). Given the higher level of sound or longer exposure duration necessary to cause AUD INJ as compared with TTS, it is considerably less likely that AUD INJ could occur.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Behavioral Effects</HD>
                    <P>
                        Exposure to noise also has the potential to behaviorally disturb marine mammals response—in other words, not every response qualifies as behavioral disturbance, and for responses that do, those of a higher level, or accrued across 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39220"/>
                        a longer duration, have the potential to affect foraging, reproduction, or survival. Behavioral disturbance may include a variety of effects, including subtle changes in behavior (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         minor or brief avoidance of an area or changes in vocalizations), more conspicuous changes in similar behavioral activities, and more sustained and/or potentially severe reactions, such as displacement from or abandonment of high-quality habitat. Behavioral responses may include changing durations of surfacing and dives, changing direction and/or speed; reducing/increasing vocal activities; changing/cessation of certain behavioral activities (such as socializing or feeding); eliciting a visible startle response or aggressive behavior (such as tail/fin slapping or jaw clapping); and avoidance of areas where sound sources are located. In addition, pinnipeds may increase their haul out time, possibly to avoid in-water disturbance (Thorson and Reyff, 2006).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Behavioral responses to sound are highly variable and context-specific and any reactions depend on numerous intrinsic and extrinsic factors (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         species, state of maturity, experience, current activity, reproductive state, auditory sensitivity, time of day), as well as the interplay between factors (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995; Wartzok 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003; Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007, 2019; Weilgart, 2007; Archer 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2010). Behavioral reactions can vary not only among individuals but also within an individual, depending on previous experience with a sound source, context, and numerous other factors (Ellison 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012), and can vary depending on characteristics associated with the sound source (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         whether it is moving or stationary, number of sources, distance from the source). In general, pinnipeds seem more tolerant of, or at least habituate more quickly to, potentially disturbing underwater sound than do cetaceans, and generally seem to be less responsive to exposure to industrial sound than most cetaceans. Please see appendices B and C of Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2007) and Gomez 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2016) for reviews of studies involving marine mammal behavioral responses to sound.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Habituation can occur when an animal's response to a stimulus wanes with repeated exposure, usually in the absence of unpleasant associated events (Wartzok 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003). Animals are most likely to habituate to sounds that are predictable and unvarying. It is important to note that habituation is appropriately considered as a “progressive reduction in response to stimuli that are perceived as neither aversive nor beneficial,” rather than as, more generally, moderation in response to human disturbance (Bejder 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009). The opposite process is sensitization, when an unpleasant experience leads to subsequent responses, often in the form of avoidance, at a lower level of exposure.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As noted above, behavioral state may affect the type of response. For example, animals that are resting may show greater behavioral change in response to disturbing sound levels than animals that are highly motivated to remain in an area for feeding (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995; Wartzok 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003; National Research Council (NRC), 2005). Controlled experiments with captive marine mammals have shown pronounced behavioral reactions, including avoidance of loud sound sources (Ridgway 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1997). Observed responses of wild marine mammals to loud-pulsed sound sources (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         seismic airguns) have been varied but often consist of avoidance behavior or other behavioral changes (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995; Morton and Symonds, 2002; Nowacek 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Available studies show wide variation in response to underwater sound; therefore, it is difficult to predict specifically how any given sound in a particular instance might affect marine mammals perceiving the signal (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Erbe 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019). If a marine mammal does react briefly to an underwater sound by changing its behavior or moving a small distance, the impacts of the change are unlikely to be significant to the individual, let alone the stock or population. If a sound source displaces marine mammals from an important feeding or breeding area for a prolonged period, impacts on individuals and populations could be significant (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Lusseau and Bejder, 2007; Weilgart, 2007; NRC, 2005). However, there are broad categories of potential response, which we describe in greater detail here, that include alteration of dive behavior, alteration of foraging behavior, effects to breathing, interference with or alteration of vocalization, avoidance, and flight.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Avoidance and Displacement</HD>
                    <P>
                        Changes in dive behavior can vary widely and may consist of increased or decreased dive times and surface intervals as well as changes in the rates of ascent and descent during a dive (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Frankel and Clark, 2000; Costa 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003; Ng and Leung, 2003; Nowacek 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; Goldbogen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013a, 2013b). Variations in dive behavior may reflect interruptions in biologically significant activities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         foraging) or they may be of little biological significance. The impact of an alteration to dive behavior resulting from an acoustic exposure depends on what the animal is doing at the time of the exposure and the type and magnitude of the response.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Disruption of feeding behavior can be difficult to correlate with anthropogenic sound exposure, so it is usually inferred by observed displacement from known foraging areas, the appearance of secondary indicators (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         bubble nets or sediment plumes), or changes in dive behavior. Acoustic and movement bio-logging tools also have been used in some cases to infer responses to anthropogenic noise. For example, Blair 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2016) reported significant effects on humpback whale foraging behavior in Stellwagen Bank in response to ship noise including slower descent rates, and fewer side-rolling events per dive with increasing ship nose. In addition, Wisniewska 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2018) reported that tagged harbor porpoises demonstrated fewer prey capture attempts when encountering occasional high-noise levels resulting from vessel noise as well as more vigorous fluking, interrupted foraging, and cessation of echolocation signals observed in response to some high-noise vessel passes. As for other types of behavioral response, the frequency, duration, and temporal pattern of signal presentation, as well as differences in species sensitivity, are likely contributing factors to differences in response in any given circumstance (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Croll 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2001; Nowacek 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; Madsen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006; Yazvenko 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). A determination of whether foraging disruptions incur fitness consequences would require information on or estimates of the energetic requirements of the affected individuals and the relationship between prey availability, foraging effort and success, and the life history stage of the animal.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Respiration rates vary naturally with different behaviors and alterations to breathing rate as a function of acoustic exposure can be expected to co-occur with other behavioral reactions, such as a flight response or an alteration in diving. However, respiration rates in and of themselves may be representative of annoyance or an acute stress response. Various studies have shown that respiration rates may either be unaffected or could increase, depending on the species and signal characteristics, again highlighting the importance in understanding species differences in the tolerance of underwater noise when determining the potential for impacts resulting from anthropogenic sound exposure (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2001; Gailey 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). For example, harbor porpoise respiration rates increased in response to pile driving sounds at and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39221"/>
                        above a received broadband SPL of 136 dB (zero-peak SPL: 151 dB re 1 μPa; SEL of a single strike (SEL
                        <E T="52">ss</E>
                        ): 127 dB re 1 μPa
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        -s) (Kastelein 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Avoidance is the displacement of an individual from an area or migration path as a result of the presence of a sound or other stressors, and is one of the most obvious manifestations of disturbance in marine mammals (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995). Harbor porpoises, Atlantic white-sided dolphins (
                        <E T="03">Lagenorhynchus actusus</E>
                        ), and minke whales have demonstrated avoidance in response to vessels during line transect surveys (Palka and Hammond, 2001). In addition, beluga whales in the St. Lawrence Estuary in Canada have been reported to increase levels of avoidance with increased boat presence by way of increased dive durations and swim speeds, decreased surfacing intervals, and by bunching together into groups (Blane and Jaakson, 1994). Avoidance may be short-term, with animals returning to the area once the noise has ceased (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Bowles 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1994; Morton and Symonds, 2002; Gailey 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). Longer-term displacement is possible, however, which may lead to changes in abundance or distribution patterns of the affected species in the affected region if habituation to the presence of the sound does not occur (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Blackwell 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; Bejder 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006; Teilmann 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2006).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A flight response is a dramatic change in normal movement to a directed and rapid movement away from the perceived location of a sound source. The flight response differs from other avoidance responses in the intensity of the response (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         directed movement, rate of travel). Relatively little information on flight responses of marine mammals to anthropogenic signals exist, although observations of flight responses to the presence of predators have occurred (Connor and Heithaus, 1996; Bowers 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018). The result of a flight response could range from brief, temporary exertion and displacement from the area where the signal provokes flight to, in extreme cases, marine mammal stranding. However, it should be noted that response to a perceived predator does not necessarily invoke flight (Ford and Reeves, 2008), and whether individuals are solitary or in groups may influence the response.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Behavioral disturbance can also impact marine mammals in more subtle ways. Increased vigilance may result in costs related to diversion of focus and attention (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         when a response consists of increased vigilance, it may come at the cost of decreased attention to other critical behaviors such as foraging or resting). These effects have generally not been demonstrated for marine mammals, but studies involving fishes and terrestrial animals have shown that increased vigilance may substantially reduce feeding rates (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Beauchamp and Livoreil, 1997; Fritz 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2002; Purser and Radford, 2011). In addition, chronic disturbance can cause population declines through reduction of fitness (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         decline in body condition) and subsequent reduction in reproductive success, survival, or both (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Daan 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1996; Bradshaw 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1998). However, Ridgway 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2006) reported that increased vigilance in bottlenose dolphins exposed to sound over a 5-day period did not cause any sleep deprivation or stress effects.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Many animals perform vital functions, such as feeding, resting, traveling, and socializing, on a diel cycle (24-hour cycle). Disruption of such functions resulting from reactions to stressors such as sound exposure are more likely to be significant if they last more than one diel cycle or recur on subsequent days (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). Consequently, a behavioral response lasting less than 1 day and not recurring on subsequent days is not considered particularly severe unless it could directly affect reproduction or survival (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). Note that there is a difference between multi-day substantive (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         meaningful) behavioral reactions and multi-day anthropogenic activities. For example, just because an activity lasts for multiple days does not necessarily mean that individual animals are either exposed to activity-related stressors for multiple days or, further, exposed in a manner resulting in sustained multi-day substantive behavioral responses.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Physiological Stress Responses</HD>
                    <P>
                        An animal's perception of a threat may be sufficient to trigger stress responses consisting of some combination of behavioral responses, autonomic nervous system responses, neuroendocrine responses, or immune responses (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Selye, 1950; Moberg, 2000). In many cases, an animal's first and sometimes most economical (in terms of energetic costs) response is behavioral avoidance of the potential stressor. Autonomic nervous system responses to stress typically involve changes in heart rate, blood pressure, and gastrointestinal activity. These responses have a relatively short duration and may or may not have a significant long-term effect on an animal's fitness.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Neuroendocrine stress responses often involve the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal system. Virtually all neuroendocrine functions that are affected by stress—including immune competence, reproduction, metabolism, and behavior—are regulated by pituitary hormones. Stress-induced changes in the secretion of pituitary hormones have been implicated in failed reproduction, altered metabolism, reduced immune competence, and behavioral disturbance (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Moberg, 1987; Blecha, 2000). Increases in the circulation of glucocorticoids are also equated with stress (Romano 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004).
                    </P>
                    <P>The primary distinction between stress (which is adaptive and does not normally place an animal at risk) and “distress” is the cost of the response. During a stress response, an animal uses glycogen stores that can be quickly replenished once the stress is alleviated. In such circumstances, the cost of the stress response would not pose serious fitness consequences. However, when an animal does not have sufficient energy reserves to satisfy the energetic costs of a stress response, energy resources must be diverted from other functions. This state of distress will last until the animal replenishes its energetic reserves sufficient to restore normal function.</P>
                    <P>
                        Relationships between these physiological mechanisms, animal behavior, and the costs of stress responses are well studied through controlled experiments and for both laboratory and free-ranging animals (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Holberton 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1996; Hood 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1998; Jessop 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003; Krausman 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; Lankford 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2005; Ayres 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012; Yang 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021). Stress responses due to exposure to anthropogenic sounds or other stressors and their effects on marine mammals have also been reviewed (Fair and Becker, 2000; Romano 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2002b) and, more rarely, studied in wild populations (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Romano 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2002a). For example, Rolland 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2012) found that noise reduction from reduced ship traffic in the Bay of Fundy was associated with decreased stress in North Atlantic right whales (
                        <E T="03">Eubalaena glacialis</E>
                        ). In addition, Lemos 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2022) observed a correlation between higher levels of fecal glucocorticoid metabolite concentrations (indicative of a stress response) and vessel traffic in gray whales. Yang 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2021) studied behavioral and physiological responses in captive bottlenose dolphins exposed to playbacks of “pile-driving-like” impulsive sounds, finding significant changes in cortisol and other physiological indicators but only minor behavioral changes. These and other studies lead to a reasonable expectation that some marine mammals will 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39222"/>
                        experience physiological stress responses upon exposure to acoustic stressors and that it is possible that some of these would be classified as “distress.” In addition, any animal experiencing TTS would likely also experience stress responses (NRC, 2005), however distress is an unlikely result of this project based on observations of marine mammals during previous, similar construction projects.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Vocalizations and Auditory Masking</HD>
                    <P>
                        Since many marine mammals rely on sound to find prey, moderate social interactions, and facilitate mating (Tyack, 2008), noise from anthropogenic sound sources can interfere with these functions, but only if the noise spectrum overlaps with the hearing sensitivity of the receiving marine mammal (Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007; Clark 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009; Hatch 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012). Chronic exposure to excessive, though not high-intensity, noise could cause masking at particular frequencies for marine mammals that utilize sound for vital biological functions (Clark 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009). Acoustic masking is when other noises such as from human sources interfere with an animal's ability to detect, recognize, or discriminate between acoustic signals of interest (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         those used for intraspecific communication and social interactions, prey detection, predator avoidance, navigation) (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995; Erbe 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2016). Therefore, under certain circumstances, marine mammals whose acoustical sensors or environments are being severely masked could also be impaired from maximizing their performance fitness in survival and reproduction. The ability of a noise source to mask biologically important sounds depends on the characteristics of both the noise source and the signal of interest (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         signal-to-noise ratio, temporal variability, direction), in relation to each other and to an animal's hearing abilities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         sensitivity, frequency range, critical ratios, frequency discrimination, directional discrimination, age or TTS hearing loss), and existing ambient noise and propagation conditions (Hotchkin and Parks, 2013).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Marine mammals vocalize for different purposes and across multiple modes, such as whistling, echolocation click production, calling, and singing. Changes in vocalization behavior in response to anthropogenic noise can occur for any of these modes and may result from a need to compete with an increase in background noise or may reflect increased vigilance or a startle response. For example, in the presence of potentially masking signals, humpback whales and killer whales have been observed to increase the length of their songs (Miller 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000; Fristrup 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2003) or vocalizations (Foote 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004), respectively, while North Atlantic right whales have been observed to shift the frequency content of their calls upward while reducing the rate of calling in areas of increased anthropogenic noise (Parks 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007). Fin whales (
                        <E T="03">Balaenoptera physalus</E>
                        ) have also been documented lowering the bandwidth, peak frequency, and center frequency of their vocalizations under increased levels of background noise from large vessels (Castellote 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012). Other alterations to communication signals have also been observed. For example, gray whales, in response to playback experiments exposing them to vessel noise, have been observed increasing their vocalization rate and producing louder signals at times of increased outboard engine noise (Dahlheim and Castellote, 2016). Alternatively, in some cases, animals may cease sound production during production of aversive signals (Bowles 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1994, Wisniewska 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2018).
                    </P>
                    <P>Under certain circumstances, marine mammals experiencing significant masking could also be impaired from maximizing their performance fitness in survival and reproduction. Therefore, when the coincident (masking) sound is human-made, it may be considered harassment when disrupting or altering critical behaviors. It is important to distinguish TTS and PTS, which persist after the sound exposure, from masking, which occurs during the sound exposure. Because masking (without resulting in TS) is not associated with abnormal physiological function, it is not considered a physiological effect, but rather a potential behavioral effect (though not necessarily one that would be associated with harassment).</P>
                    <P>
                        The frequency range of the potentially masking sound is important in determining any potential behavioral impacts. For example, low-frequency signals may have less effect on high-frequency echolocation sounds produced by odontocetes but are more likely to affect detection of mysticete communication calls and other potentially important natural sounds such as those produced by surf and some prey species. The masking of communication signals by anthropogenic noise may be considered as a reduction in the communication space of animals (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Clark 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009) and may result in energetic or other costs as animals change their vocalization behavior (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Miller 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000; Foote 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2004; Parks 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007; Di Iorio and Clark, 2010; Holt 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009). Masking can be reduced in situations where the signal and noise come from different directions (Richardson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1995), through amplitude modulation of the signal, or through other compensatory behaviors, including modifications of the acoustic properties of the signal or the signaling behavior (Hotchkin and Parks, 2013). Masking can be tested directly in captive species (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Erbe, 2008), but in wild populations it must be either modeled or inferred from evidence of masking compensation. There are few studies addressing real-world masking sounds likely to be experienced by marine mammals in the wild (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Branstetter 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Masking occurs in the frequency band that the animals utilize, and is more likely to occur in the presence of broadband, relatively continuous noise sources such as vibratory pile driving. The energy distribution of sound from vibratory pile driving covers a broad frequency spectrum, and is anticipated to be within the audible range of marine mammals present in the proposed action area. Since noises generated from the proposed construction activities are mostly concentrated at low frequencies (&lt;2 kHz), these activities likely have less effect on mid-frequency echolocation sounds produced by odontocetes (toothed whales). However, lower frequency noises are more likely to affect detection of communication calls and other potentially important natural sounds such as surf and prey noise. Low-frequency noise may also affect communication signals when they occur near the frequency band for noise and thus reduce the communication space of animals (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Clark 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009) and cause increased stress levels (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Holt 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009). Unlike TS, masking, which can occur over large temporal and spatial scales, can potentially affect the species at population, community, or even ecosystem levels, in addition to individual levels. Masking affects both senders and receivers of the signals, and at higher levels for longer durations, could have long-term chronic effects on marine mammal species and populations. However, the noise generated by Turnagain's proposed activities will only occur intermittently, across an estimated total of 339 (not necessarily consecutive) days during the full 2-year authorization period covered by each IHA, if finalized, in a relatively small area focused around the proposed construction site. Thus, Turnagain's proposed activities may mask some acoustic signals that are relevant to the daily behavior of marine mammals, the short-term duration and limited areas 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39223"/>
                        affected make it very unlikely that the fitness of individual marine mammals would be impacted.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Airborne Acoustic Effects</HD>
                    <P>
                        Pinnipeds that occur near the project site could be exposed to airborne sounds associated with construction activities that have the potential to cause behavioral harassment, depending on their distance from these activities. Airborne noise would primarily be an issue for pinnipeds that are swimming or hauled out near the project site within the range of noise levels elevated above airborne acoustic harassment criteria. Although pinnipeds are known to haul-out regularly on man-made objects, we believe that incidents of take resulting solely from airborne sound are unlikely due to the proximity between the proposed project area and the known haul out sites (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         3.7 km and 8.6 km away for harbor seals; 61 km for Steller sea lions). Cetaceans are not expected to be exposed to airborne sounds that would result in harassment as defined under the MMPA.
                    </P>
                    <P>We recognize that pinnipeds in the water could be exposed to airborne sound that may result in behavioral harassment when looking with their heads above water. Most likely, airborne sound would cause behavioral responses similar to those discussed above in relation to underwater sound. For instance, anthropogenic sound could cause hauled-out pinnipeds to exhibit changes in their normal behavior, such as reduction in vocalizations, or cause them to flush from haul outs, temporarily abandon the area, and or move further from the source. However, these animals would previously have been `taken' because of exposure to underwater sound above the behavioral harassment thresholds, which are in all cases larger than those associated with airborne sound. Thus, the behavioral harassment of these animals is already accounted for in these estimates of potential take. Therefore, we do not believe that authorization of incidental take resulting from airborne sound for pinnipeds is warranted, and airborne sound is not discussed further here.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Potential Effects on Marine Mammal Habitat</HD>
                    <P>Turnagain's proposed activities could have localized, temporary impacts on marine mammal habitat, including prey, by increasing in-water SPLs. Increased noise levels may affect the acoustic habitat (refer to masking discussion) and adversely affect marine mammal prey in the vicinity of near the project areas (see discussion below). During DTH, impact, and vibratory pile driving or removal, elevated underwater noise levels would ensonify the project areas where both fish and mammals occur and could affect foraging success. Additionally, marine mammals may avoid the area during the proposed construction activities; however, displacement due to noise is expected to be temporary and is not expected to result in long-term effects toon the individuals or populations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">In-Water Construction Effects on Potential Foraging Habitat</HD>
                    <P>
                        As previously mentioned, the project area in Southeast Alaska does not contain habitat of known importance other than being designated as a feeding BIA for humpback whales during the months of April through October (Wild 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). However, the designated area only represents a tiny segment of foraging habitat for humpback whales. Foraging BIAs for other species, such as the gray whale (second half of March through the first half of June) and sperm whale (April through September), do not spatially overlap with the project area and are found seaward in the Gulf of Alaska (Wild 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023). No critical habitat is located within the project area and the project area is highly influenced by pre-existing and ongoing anthropogenic development and activities.
                    </P>
                    <P>The total seafloor area likely to be impacted by Turnagain's activities is relatively small compared to the vast foraging area available habitat in Southeast Alaska. At best, the impact area provides marginal foraging habitat for marine mammals and fish. Furthermore, proposed pile driving for installation and removal at the project site would not be expected to obstruct the movement or migration of marine mammals.</P>
                    <P>A temporary and localized increase in turbidity near the seafloor would occur in the immediate area due to the area where piles are installed or removed. In general, turbidity associated with pile installation is localized to about a 7.6-m radius around the pile. The sediments of the project site would settle out rapidly when disturbed. Cetaceans are not expected to be close enough to the pile-driving areas to experience the effects of turbidity, and any pinnipeds could avoid localized turbid areas. Depending on the tidal stage, local strong currents are anticipated to disburse any additional suspended sediments produced by project activities at moderate to rapid rates. Therefore, we expect the impact from increased noise is turbidity levels to be discountable to marine mammals and do not discuss it further.</P>
                    <P>
                        The potential for prey (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         fish) to temporarily avoid the immediate area is also possible. The duration of fish and marine mammal avoidance of this area after pile driving stops is unknown, but a rapid return to normal recruitment, distribution, and behavior is anticipated. Any behavioral avoidance by fish or marine mammals of the in the disturbed area would still leave significantly large areas of fish and marine mammal foraging habitat in the nearby vicinity.
                    </P>
                    <P>The proposed project will occur within the same footprint as existing marine infrastructure. The nearshore and intertidal habitat where the proposed project will occur is an area of relatively high marine vessel traffic. Most marine mammals do not generally use the area within the footprint of the project area. Temporary, intermittent, and short-term habitat alteration may result from increased noise levels during the proposed construction activities. Effects on marine mammals will be limited to temporary displacement from pile installation and removal noise, and effects on prey species will be similarly limited in time and space.</P>
                    <P>Temporary and localized reduction in water quality will occur as a result of in-water construction activities. Most of this effect would occur during the installation and removal of piles when seafloor sediments are disturbed. The installation and removal of piles would disturb seafloor sediments and may cause a temporary increase in suspended sediment in the project area. During pile extraction, sediment attached to the pile moves vertically through the water column until gravitational forces cause it to slough off under its own weight. The small resulting sediment plume is expected to settle out of the water column within a few hours. Studies of the effects of turbid water on fish (marine mammal prey) suggest that concentrations of suspended sediment can reach thousands of milligrams per liter before an acute toxic reaction is expected (Burton, 1993).</P>
                    <P>
                        Impacts to water quality from DTH are expected to be similar to those described for pile driving. Impacts to water quality would be localized and temporary and would have negligible impacts on marine mammal habitat. Drilling would have negligible impacts on water quality from sediment resuspension because the system would operate within a casing set into the bedrock. The drill would collect excavated material inside of the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39224"/>
                        apparatus where it would be lifted to the surface and placed onto a barge for subsequent disposal.
                    </P>
                    <P>Effects to turbidity and sedimentation are expected to be short-term, minor, and localized. Since there may be currents that are strong in the area, following the completion of sediment-disturbing activities, suspended sediments in the water column should dissipate and quickly return to background levels in all construction scenarios. Turbidity within the water column has the potential to reduce the level of oxygen in the water and irritate the gills of prey fish species in the proposed project area. However, turbidity plumes associated with the project would be temporary and localized, and fish in the proposed project area would be able to move away from and avoid the areas where plumes may occur. Therefore, it is expected that the impacts on prey fish species from turbidity, and therefore on marine mammals, would be minimal and temporary. In general, the area likely impacted by the proposed construction activities is relatively small compared to the available marine mammal habitat in Southeast Alaska.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Potential Effects on Prey</HD>
                    <P>
                        Sound may affect marine mammals through impacts on the abundance, behavior, or distribution of prey species (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         crustaceans, cephalopods, fishes, zooplankton). Marine mammal prey varies by species, season, and location and, for some, is not well documented. Studies regarding the effects of noise on known marine mammal prey are described here.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Fishes utilize the soundscape and components of sound in their environment to perform important functions such as foraging, predator avoidance, mating, and spawning (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Zelick 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1999; Fay, 2009). Depending on their hearing anatomy and peripheral sensory structures, which vary among species, fishes hear sounds using pressure and particle motion sensitivity capabilities and detect the motion of surrounding water (Fay 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2008). The potential effects of noise on fishes depends on the overlapping frequency range, distance from the sound source, water depth of exposure, and species-specific hearing sensitivity, anatomy, and physiology. Key impacts to fishes may include behavioral responses, hearing damage, barotrauma (pressure-related injuries), and mortality.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Fish react to sounds that are especially strong and/or intermittent low-frequency sounds, and behavioral responses such as flight or avoidance are the most likely effects. Short duration, sharp sounds can cause overt or subtle changes in fish behavior and local distribution. The reaction of fish to noise depends on the physiological state of the fish, past exposures, motivation (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         feeding, spawning, migration), and other environmental factors. Hastings and Popper (2005) identified several studies that suggest fish may relocate to avoid certain areas of sound energy. Additional studies have documented effects of pile driving on fishes (
                        <E T="03">e.g.</E>
                         Scholik and Yan, 2001, 2002; Popper and Hastings, 2009). Several studies have demonstrated that impulse sounds might affect the distribution and behavior of some fishes, potentially impacting foraging opportunities or increasing energetic costs (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Fewtrell and McCauley, 2012; Pearson 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1992; Skalski 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1992; Santulli 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         1999; Paxton 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2017). However, some studies have shown no or slight reaction to impulse sounds (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Peña 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013; Wardle 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2001; Jorgenson and Gyselman, 2009; Cott 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012). More commonly, though, the impacts of noise on fishes are temporary.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        SPLs of sufficient strength have been known to cause injury to fishes and fish mortality (summarized in Popper 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2014). However, in most fish species, hair cells in the ear continuously regenerate and loss of auditory function likely is restored when damaged cells are replaced with new cells. Halvorsen 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2012b) showed that a TTS of 4 to 6 dB was recoverable within 24 hours for one species. Impacts would be most severe when the individual fish is close to the source and when the duration of exposure is long. Injury caused by barotrauma can range from slight to severe and can cause death, and is most likely for fish with swim bladders. Barotrauma injuries have been documented during controlled exposure to impact pile driving (Halvorsen 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012a; Casper 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013, 2017).
                    </P>
                    <P>Fish populations in the proposed project area that serve as marine mammal prey could be temporarily affected by noise from pile installation and removal. The frequency range in which fishes generally perceive underwater sounds is 50 to 2,000 Hz, with peak sensitivities below 800 Hz (Popper and Hastings, 2009). Fish behavior or distribution may change, especially with strong and/or intermittent sounds that could harm fishes. High underwater SPLs have been documented to alter behavior, cause hearing loss, and injure or kill individual fish by causing serious internal injury (Hastings and Popper, 2005).</P>
                    <P>
                        Zooplankton is a food source for several marine mammal species, as well as a food source for fish that are then preyed upon by marine mammals. Population effects on zooplankton could have indirect effects on marine mammals. Data are limited on the effects of underwater sound on zooplankton species, particularly sound from construction (Erbe 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2019). Popper and Hastings (2009) reviewed information on the effects of human-generated sound and concluded that no substantive data are available on whether the sound levels from pile driving, seismic activity, or any human-made sound would have physiological effects on invertebrates. Any such effects would be limited to the area very near (1 to 5 m) the sound source and would result in no population effects because of the relatively small area affected at any one time and the reproductive strategy of most zooplankton species (short generation, high fecundity, and very high natural mortality). No adverse impact on zooplankton populations is expected to occur from the specified activity due in part to large reproductive capacities and naturally high levels of predation and mortality of these populations. Any mortalities or impacts that might occur would be negligible.
                    </P>
                    <P>The greatest potential impact to marine mammal prey during construction would occur during impact pile driving, rock hammering, and DTH excavation. Impact pile driving, vibratory pile driving, and DTH could possibly elicit behavioral reactions from fishes such as temporary avoidance of the area but is unlikely to cause injuries to fishes or have persistent effects on local fish populations. However, generally, the duration of impact pile driving would be limited to the final stage of installation (“proofing”) after the pile has been driven as close as practicable to the design depth with a vibratory driver (where necessary). In-water construction activities would only occur during daylight hours, allowing fish to forage and transit the project area in the evening.</P>
                    <P>Construction likely would have minimal permanent and temporary impacts on benthic invertebrate species, a marine mammal prey source. In addition, it should be noted that the area in question is low-quality habitat since it is already highly developed and experiences a high level of anthropogenic noise from normal operations and other vessel traffic.</P>
                    <P>
                        There are several fish species near Juneau for which NMFS has identified Essential Fish Habitat (EFH), including: chinook salmon (
                        <E T="03">
                            Oncorhynchus 
                            <PRTPAGE P="39225"/>
                            tshawytscha
                        </E>
                        ), chum salmon (
                        <E T="03">O. keta</E>
                        ), coho salmon (
                        <E T="03">O. kisutch</E>
                        ), pink salmon (
                        <E T="03">O. gorbuscha</E>
                        ), and sockeye salmon (
                        <E T="03">O. nerka</E>
                        ) in fresh and estuarine waters; and staghorn sculpin (
                        <E T="03">Leptocottus armatus</E>
                        ), sablefish (
                        <E T="03">Anoplopoma fimbria</E>
                        ), Pacific Ocean perch (
                        <E T="03">Sebastes alutus</E>
                        ), yelloweye rockfish (
                        <E T="03">S. ruberrimus</E>
                        ), shortraker rockfish (
                        <E T="03">S. borea</E>
                        ), rougheye rockfish (
                        <E T="03">S. aleutianus</E>
                        ), dusky rockfish (
                        <E T="03">S. ciliatus</E>
                        ), Pacific cod, starry flounder (
                        <E T="03">Platichthys stellatus</E>
                        ), yellowfin sole (
                        <E T="03">Pleuronectes asper</E>
                        ), and rock sole (
                        <E T="03">P. bilineatus</E>
                        ) (Federal Aviation Administration, 2005). Additionally there are various other “forage fish” in marine waters located near the project area. Many creeks and water bodies are presented in the area where these species made reside (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         Duck Creek, Jordan Creek, Mendenhall River, Tidal Sloughs, Low Marsh, and High Marsh) (Federal Aviation Administration, 2005). Given the temporary nature of activities and the number of additional waterbodies in the area that present viable habitat, adverse effects on EFH in this area are not expected.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Potential Effects on Foraging Habitat</HD>
                    <P>
                        The proposed project is not expected to result in any habitat related effects that could cause significant or long-term negative consequences for individual marine mammals or their populations, since installation and removal of in-water piles would be temporary and intermittent. The total seafloor area affected by pile installation and removal is a very small area compared to the vast foraging area available to marine mammals outside this project area. Although Southeast Alaska in its entirety is listed as a BIA for humpback whales (Wild 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023), the proposed project area does not contain particularly high-value habitat and is not unusually important for this species or any of the other species potentially impacted by Turnagain's activities. The area impacted by the project is relatively small compared to the available habitat just outside the project area, and there are no areas of particular importance that would be impacted by this project. Any behavioral avoidance by fish of the disturbed area would still leave significantly large areas of fish and marine mammal foraging habitat in the nearby vicinity. As described in the preceding, the potential for Turnagain's construction to affect the availability of prey to marine mammals or to meaningfully impact the quality of physical or acoustic habitat is considered to be insignificant. Therefore, impacts of the project are not likely to have adverse effects on marine mammal foraging habitat in the proposed project area.
                    </P>
                    <P>There are times of known seasonal marine mammal foraging in Southeast Alaska around fish processing/hatchery infrastructure or when fish are congregating, but the affected areas of Southeast Alaska are a small portion of the total foraging habitat available in the region. In general, effects on marine mammal prey species are expected to be minor and temporary due to the short timeframe of the project and the small project footprint.</P>
                    <P>Increased turbidity from construction activities can adversely affect forage fish and juvenile salmonid out-migratory routes in the project area. Both herring and salmon form a significant prey base for Steller sea lions, whereas herring is the primary prey species of humpback whales; both herring and salmon are components of the diet of many other marine mammal species that occur in the project area. Increased turbidity is expected to happen near construction activities. However, suspended sediments and particulates are expected to dissipate quickly within a single tidal cycle. Given the limited area affected and high tidal dilution rates, any effects on forage fish and salmon are expected to be minor or negligible. In addition, best management practices would be in effect, limiting the extent of turbidity to the immediate project area. Finally, exposure to turbid waters from construction activities is not expected to differ from the current exposure; fish of the disturbed area and marine mammals in the Southeast Alaska region are routinely exposed to substantial levels of suspended sediment from glacial sources.</P>
                    <P>In summary, given the temporary nature of the construction project and relatively small areas being affected, the DTH and pile driving installation and removal activities associated with the proposed action are not likely to have a permanent, adverse effect on any fish habitat or populations of fish species. The most likely impact to fishes at the project site would be temporary avoidance of the area. The most likely impact on fish from DTH and pile driving and removal activities at the project area would be temporary behavioral avoidance of the area. The duration of fish avoidance in this area after pile driving stops is unknown, but a rapid return to regular recruitment, distribution, and behavior is anticipated. Any behavioral avoidance by fish in disturbed areas would still leave significantly large areas of fish and marine mammal foraging habitat in the nearby vicinity. Thus, we preliminarily conclude that the impacts of the specified activities are not likely to have more than short-term adverse effects on any prey habitat or populations of prey species. Further, any impacts to marine mammal habitat are not expected to result in significant or long-term consequences for individual marine mammals, or to contribute to the adverse effects on their populations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Estimated Take of Marine Mammals</HD>
                    <P>This section provides an estimate of the number of incidental takes proposed for authorization through the IHA, which will inform NMFS' consideration of “small numbers,” the negligible impact determinations, and impacts on subsistence uses.</P>
                    <P>Harassment is the only type of take expected to result from these activities. Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, section 3(18) of the MMPA defines “harassment” as any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance, which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).</P>
                    <P>
                        Takes proposed for authorization would primarily be by Level B harassment, as use of the acoustic source/s (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         impact pile driving, vibratory pile driving, and DTH drilling) has the potential to result in disruption of behavioral patterns for individual marine mammals. There is also some potential for AUD INJ (Level A harassment) to result, primarily for mysticetes, very high frequency species, and phocids because predicted AUD INJ zones are larger than for high-frequency species. AUD INJ is unlikely to occur for high-frequency species. The proposed mitigation and monitoring measures are expected to minimize the severity of the taking to the extent practicable. As described previously, no serious injury or mortality is anticipated or proposed to be authorized for this activity. Below we describe how the proposed take numbers are estimated.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For acoustic impacts, generally speaking, we estimate take by considering: (1) acoustic criteria above which NMFS believes there is some reasonable potential for marine mammals to be behaviorally harassed or incur some degree of AUD INJ; (2) the area or volume of water that will be ensonified above these levels in a day; (3) the density or occurrence of marine mammals within these ensonified areas; and, (4) the number of days of activities. 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39226"/>
                        We note that while these factors can contribute to a basic calculation to provide an initial prediction of potential takes, additional information that can qualitatively inform take estimates is also sometimes available (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         previous monitoring results or average group size). Below, we describe the factors considered here in more detail and present the proposed take estimates.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Acoustic Criteria</HD>
                    <P>NMFS recommends the use of acoustic criteria that identify the received level of underwater sound above which exposed marine mammals would be reasonably expected to be behaviorally harassed (equated to Level B harassment) or to incur AUD INJ of some degree (equated to Level A harassment).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Level B Harassment</HD>
                    <P>
                        Though significantly driven by received level, the onset of behavioral disturbance from anthropogenic noise exposure is also informed to varying degrees by other factors related to the source or exposure context (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         frequency, predictability, duty cycle, duration of the exposure, signal-to-noise ratio, distance to the source), the environment (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         bathymetry, other noises in the area, predators in the area), and the receiving animals (hearing, motivation, experience, demography, life stage, depth) and can be difficult to predict (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2007; Southall 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2021; Ellison 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2012). Based on what the available science indicates and the practical need to use a threshold based on a metric that is both predictable and measurable for most activities, NMFS typically uses a generalized acoustic threshold based on received level to estimate the onset of behavioral harassment. NMFS generally predicts that marine mammals are likely to be behaviorally harassed in a manner considered to be Level B harassment when exposed to underwater anthropogenic noise above root-mean-squared pressure received levels (RMS SPL) of 120 dB referenced to 1 microPascal (re 1 μPa) for continuous (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         vibratory pile driving, drilling) and above RMS SPL 160 dB re 1 μPa for non-explosive impulsive (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         seismic airguns) or intermittent (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         scientific sonar) sources. Generally speaking, Level B harassment take estimates based on these behavioral harassment thresholds are expected to include any likely takes by TTS as, in most cases, the likelihood of TTS occurs at distances from the source less than those at which behavioral harassment is likely. TTS of a sufficient degree can manifest as behavioral harassment, as reduced hearing sensitivity and the potential reduced opportunities to detect important signals (conspecific communication, predators, prey) may result in changes in behavior patterns that would not otherwise occur.
                    </P>
                    <P>Turnagain's proposed construction activities include the use of continuous (vibratory pile driving and DTH) and impulsive (impact pile driving and DTH) sources, and therefore, the RMS SPL thresholds of 120 and 160 dB re 1 μPa are applicable.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Level A Harassment</HD>
                    <P>NMFS' Updated Technical Guidance for Assessing the Effects of Anthropogenic Sound on Marine Mammal Hearing (Version 3.0) (NMFS, 2024) identifies dual criteria to assess AUD INJ (Level A harassment) to five different underwater marine mammal groups (based on hearing sensitivity) as a result of exposure to noise from two different types of sources (impulsive or non-impulsive). Turnagain's proposed activities includes the use of impulsive (impact pile driving and DTH) and non-impulsive (vibratory hammer and DTH) sources.</P>
                    <P>
                        The 2024 Updated Technical Guidance criteria include both updated thresholds and updated weighting functions for each hearing group. The thresholds are provided in table 6. The references, analysis, and methodology used in the development of the criteria are described in NMFS' 2024 Updated Technical Guidance, which may be accessed at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/marine-mammal-acoustic-technical-guidance-other-acoustic-tools.</E>
                    </P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="399">
                        <PRTPAGE P="39227"/>
                        <GID>EN29JN26.006</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Ensonified Area</HD>
                    <P>Here, we describe operational and environmental parameters of the activity used to estimate the area ensonified above the acoustic thresholds, including source levels and transmission loss coefficient.</P>
                    <P>
                        The sound field in the project area consists of existing background noise plus additional construction noise from the proposed project. Marine mammals are expected to be affected via sound generated by the primary components of the project (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         impact, vibratory, DTH). The source levels assumed for both removal and installation activities are based on reviews of measurements of the same or similar types and dimensions available in the scientific literature and from similar coastal construction projects. The source levels for the piles and activities (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         installation or removal and simultaneous pile driving scenarios) are presented in tables 7-8. A 5-dB reduction in source levels was applied to all 48-in proxy sound sources due to use of an unconfined bubble curtain during impact pile driving and DTH (see Proposed Mitigation section for further information).
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="261">
                        <PRTPAGE P="39228"/>
                        <GID>EN29JN26.007</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="272">
                        <GID>EN29JN26.008</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Transmission Loss (
                        <E T="03">TL</E>
                        ) is the decrease in acoustic intensity as an acoustic pressure wave propagates out from a source. 
                        <E T="03">TL</E>
                         parameters vary with frequency, temperature, sea conditions, current, source and receiver depth, water depth, water chemistry, and seafloor composition and topography. The general formula for underwater 
                        <E T="03">TL</E>
                         is:
                    </P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">TL = B</E>
                         × 
                        <E T="03">Log10(R</E>
                        <E T="52">1</E>
                        /R
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        <E T="03">)</E>
                        ,
                    </FP>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">where:</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            <E T="03">TL</E>
                             = transmission loss in dB,
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            <E T="03">B</E>
                             = transmission loss coefficient,
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            <E T="03">R</E>
                            <E T="52">1</E>
                             = the distance of the modeled SPL from the driven pile, and
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            <E T="03">R</E>
                            <E T="52">2</E>
                             = the distance from the driven pile of the initial measurement.
                        </FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        This formula neglects loss due to scattering and absorption, which is assumed to be zero here. The degree to which underwater sound propagates away from a sound source depends on various factors, most notably the water 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39229"/>
                        bathymetry and the presence or absence of reflective or absorptive conditions, including in-water structures and sediments. Spherical spreading occurs in a perfectly unobstructed (free-field) environment not limited by depth or water surface, resulting in a 6 dB reduction in sound level for each doubling of distance from the source (20*log[range]). Cylindrical spreading occurs in an environment in which sound propagation is bounded by the water surface and seafloor, resulting in a reduction of 3 dB in sound level for each doubling of distance from the source (10*log[range]). A practical spreading value of 15 is often used under conditions where water increases with depth as the receiver moves away from the shoreline, resulting in an expected propagation environment that would lie between spherical and cylindrical spreading loss conditions. Absent site-specific acoustical monitoring with differing measured 
                        <E T="03">TL,</E>
                         practical spreading is used. Site-specific 
                        <E T="03">TL</E>
                         data for Juneau is not available; therefore, the default coefficient of 15 is used to calculate the distances to the Level A and Level B harassment thresholds.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Assuming practicable spreading and other assumptions regarding the source characteristics and operational logistics (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         source level, number of strikes per pile, number of piles per day), Turnagain calculated distances to the Level A harassment and Level B harassment thresholds and associated ensonified areas. Because an ensonified area associated with Level A harassment is more technically challenging to predict given the accounting for a cumulative energy component that changes over time, to assist applicants in assessing the potential for Level A harassment without the need for complex modeling, NMFS developed an optional User Spreadsheet tool to accompany the 2024 Updated Technical Guidance (see 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/marine-mammal-acoustic-technical-guidance-other-acoustic-tools</E>
                        ). This relatively simple tool can be used to calculate a Level A harassment isopleth distance for use in conjunction with marine mammal density or occurrence to help predict the amount of take that may occur incidental to an activity. We note that because of some of the assumptions included in the methods underlying this optional tool, we anticipate that the resulting isopleth estimates are typically going to be overestimates of some degree, which may result in an overestimate of potential take by Level A harassment. However, this optional tool offers the best way to estimate isopleth distances when more sophisticated modeling methods are not available or practical. For stationary sources (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         impact, vibratory, DTH), the optional User Spreadsheet tool predicts the distance at which, if a marine mammal remained at that distance for the duration of the activity, it would be expected to incur AUD INJ. Inputs used in the optional User Spreadsheet tool are reported below in tables 9-11.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="39230"/>
                        <GID>EN29JN26.009</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="39231"/>
                        <GID>EN29JN26.010</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="39232"/>
                        <GID>EN29JN26.011</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Using the practical spreading model, NMFS determined that the underwater noise would yield the following calculated distances to the Level A harassment and Level B harassment 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39233"/>
                        thresholds for marine mammals (tables 12-13).
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <GID>EN29JN26.012</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="161">
                        <PRTPAGE P="39234"/>
                        <GID>EN29JN26.013</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Marine Mammal Occurrence</HD>
                    <P>In this section, we provide information about the occurrence of marine mammals, including density or other relevant information, which will inform the take calculations. Available information regarding marine mammal occurrence in the project area includes monitoring data, previous monitoring reports, and consultation with local researchers and marine professionals. Next, we describe how all of the information described above is synthesized to produce a quantitative estimate of the take that is reasonably likely to occur and proposed for authorization. Occurrence probability estimates are based on approximations for each species and factor in historic data of occurrence, seasonality, and estimated group size in Stephens Passage. A summary of expected occurrence is shown in table 14 and group size is based on the best available published research for these species and their presence in the project area (see table 12 in the application for additional information).</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="258">
                        <GID>EN29JN26.014</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Minke whales are generally rare in Southeast Alaska, infrequently sighted in Stephens Passage, and are often observed as single individuals (Dahlheim 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2009). NMFS estimates that up to one group of one individual per month may occur within the Level A and Level B harassment zones.
                    </P>
                    <P>Humpback whales found in the project areas are predominantly members of the Hawai'i DPS (98 percent probability), which is not listed under the ESA. However, based on a comprehensive photo-identification study, members of the Mexico DPS, which is listed as threatened under the ESA, have a small potential to occur (2 percent probability) (Wade, 2016). It is estimated that up to two groups of two individuals per day of either stock may occur, with a likelihood of no more than 1 group of two whales per week in the Level A harassment zone.</P>
                    <P>
                        Killer whales occur along the entire coast of Alaska (Braham and Dahlheim, 1982), are often observed in inland waterways of Southeast Alaska, and four stocks may be present in the project area: 1) Alaska Resident; 2) Gulf of Alaska, Aleutian Islands, and Bering Sea Transient; 3) Northern Resident; and 4) West Coast Transient. Two groups of six 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39235"/>
                        individuals per week from the resident stocks (Alaska Resident; Northern Resident) are expected to occur in the Level B harassment zone and one group of four individuals per week from the transient stocks (Gulf of Alaska, Aleutian Islands, and Bering Sea Transient; West Coast Transient) are expected to occur in the Level B harassment zone.
                    </P>
                    <P>Dall's porpoises are frequently observed in Stephens Passage and NMFS estimates up to two groups of three individuals per week will occur in the Level B harassment zone and one group of three individuals per week will occur in the Level A harassment zone.</P>
                    <P>Harbor porpoises are observed almost daily during the summer near Colt and Horse Islands across Stephens Passage from the project site on Douglas Island. NMFS estimates up to two groups of two individuals per week will occur in the Level B harassment zone and one group of two individuals per week will occur in the Level A harassment zone.</P>
                    <P>Harbor seal are commonly seen on two haulouts near the project area: Horse Shoal approximately 3.7 km southwest of the project site and Scull Island approximately 8.6 km south of the project site. During a geotechnical study of the project site in September 2025, five harbor seals were recorded during 4 days of in-water work approximately 80-200 m from the proposed project location. NMFS estimates five groups of two individuals per day will occur in the Level B harassment zone and three groups of two individuals per week will occur in the Level A harassment zone.</P>
                    <P>
                        Northern elephant seal males migrate from Baja California, Mexico, and California to the Gulf of Alaska and western Aleutian Islands along the continental shelf to feed on benthic prey, while females migrate to pelagic areas in the Gulf of Alaska and the central North Pacific to feed on pelagic prey (Le Beouf 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2000). NMFS estimates one group of one individual per month will occur in the Level B harassment zone and one group of one individual per month will occur in the Level A harassment zone.
                    </P>
                    <P>Northern fur seals have been reported near Juneau in the winter and as far north as the northern end of Lynn Canal. Northern fur seals are rare in the project area but one lone animal was sighted swimming in the Gastineau Channel in 2019 and three were sighted in 2021 near Juneau. NMFS estimates one group of one individual per month will occur in the Level B harassment zone and one group of one individual per month will occur in the Level A harassment zone.</P>
                    <P>California sea lions are also rare in the project area but are known to co-locate with Steller sea lions at haulouts. During the winter males commonly migrate to feeding grounds off California, Oregon, Washington, British Columbia, and recently Southeast Alaska. NMFS estimates one group of one individual per month will occur in the Level B harassment zone and one group of one individual per month will occur in the Level A harassment zone.</P>
                    <P>
                        Steller sea lions commonly occur in the project area and both the Western and Eastern DPSs may occur near Douglas Island, located in the Lynn Canal region delineated by Hastings 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2020). Based on these data, 1.4 percent of Steller sea lions are expected to be from the Western stock while 98.6 percent are expected to be from the Eastern stock, and it is estimated that up to five groups of one individual per day may occur, with a likelihood of no more than three groups per week in the Level A harassment zone.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Take Estimation</HD>
                    <P>Here we describe how the information provided above is synthesized to produce a quantitative estimate of the take that is reasonably likely to occur and proposed for authorization.</P>
                    <P>
                        Based on the species-specific information, the expected occurrence (inclusive of group size and estimated frequency of presence) was multiplied by the number of days of each type of pile driving activities to determine the total take estimate. Turnagain does not yet have the operational details necessary to determine how many days of concurrent pile driving may occur, so group size, expected frequency of presence, and overall construction days (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         assuming the maximum number of construction days as if no concurrent activities were planned) were used to estimate take incidental to that activity. Estimated take was calculated either daily or monthly, depending on the occurrence information available for each species, using the following formulas:
                    </P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Estimated take (daily) = group size × groups per day × days of pile driving;</E>
                         and
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="03">Estimated take (monthly) = group size × groups per month (i.e., 30-day period) × months of pile driving activity (i.e., number of days of pile driving activity/30 days))</E>
                    </FP>
                    <P>The equation for daily estimated take was used for species whose occurrence was “common” and therefore had a daily occurrence estimate. The equation for monthly estimated take was used for all other species. Other factors, such as approximate group size, expected frequency of appearance, and overall number of construction days, were used in the calculation to determine the take proposed for authorization (table 15). While Turnagain primarily expects take by Level B harassment to occur, a small amount of take by Level A harassment is proposed for 9 species (11 stocks). Table 15 summarizes proposed amounts of take by both Level A and Level B harassment, as well as the percentage of each stock expected to be taken during both phases of the proposed activity.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="616">
                        <PRTPAGE P="39236"/>
                        <GID>EN29JN26.015</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Mitigation</HD>
                    <P>
                        In order to issue an IHA under section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA, NMFS must set forth the permissible methods of taking pursuant to the activity, and other means of effecting the least practicable impact on the species or stock and its habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of the species or stock 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39237"/>
                        for taking for certain subsistence uses (latter not applicable for this action). NMFS regulations require applicants for ITAs to include information about the availability and feasibility (economic and technological) of equipment, methods, and manner of conducting the activity or other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact upon the affected species or stocks, and their habitat (50 CFR 216.104(a)(11)).
                    </P>
                    <P>In evaluating how mitigation may or may not be appropriate to ensure the least practicable adverse impact on species or stocks and their habitat, as well as subsistence uses where applicable, NMFS considers two primary factors:</P>
                    <P>(1) The manner in which, and the degree to which, the successful implementation of the measure(s) is expected to reduce impacts to marine mammals, marine mammal species or stocks, and their habitat, as well as subsistence uses. This considers the nature of the potential adverse impact being mitigated (likelihood, scope, range). It further considers the likelihood that the measure will be effective if implemented (probability of accomplishing the mitigating result if implemented as planned), the likelihood of effective implementation (probability implemented as planned); and</P>
                    <P>(2) The practicability of the measures for applicant implementation, which may consider such things as cost, and impact on operations.</P>
                    <P>The mitigation requirements described in the following were proposed by Turnagain in its adequate and complete application or are the result of subsequent coordination between NMFS and Turnagain. Turnagain has agreed that all of the mitigation measures are practicable. NMFS has fully reviewed the specified activities and the mitigation measures to determine if the mitigation measures would result in the least practicable adverse impact on marine mammals and their habitat, as required by the MMPA, and has determined the proposed measures are appropriate. NMFS describes these below as proposed mitigation requirements, and has included them in the proposed IHA.</P>
                    <P>In addition to the measures described later in this section, Turnagain would follow these general mitigation measures:</P>
                    <P>• Take proposed for authorization, by Level A and Level B harassment only, would be limited to the species and numbers listed in table 15. In-water piling activities would be required to be halted upon observation of either a species for which incidental take was not authorized or for a species for which incidental take has been authorized but the number of takes has been met, entering or is within the harassment zone, if the IHA is issued;</P>
                    <P>• The taking by serious injury or death of any of the species listed in table 15 or any taking of any other species of marine mammal would be prohibited and would result in the modification, suspension, or revocation of the IHA, if issued. Any taking exceeding the amounts proposed for authorization, as listed in table 15, would be prohibited and would result in the modification, suspension, or revocation of the IHA, if issued;.</P>
                    <P>• Ensure that construction supervisors and crews, the marine mammal monitoring team, and relevant staff are trained prior to the start of all construction activities, so that responsibilities, communication procedures, marine mammal monitoring protocol, and operational procedures are clearly understood. New personnel joining during the project must be trained prior to commencing work;</P>
                    <P>• Turnagain, construction supervisors and crews, PSOs, and relevant staff must avoid direct physical interaction with marine mammals during construction activity. If a marine mammal comes within 10 m of such activity, operations must cease and vessels must reduce speed to the minimum level required to maintain steerage and safe working conditions, as necessary to avoid direct physical interaction;</P>
                    <P>• Employ PSOs and establish monitoring locations as described in the Protected Species Monitoring and Mitigation Plan (PSMMP). Turnagain must monitor the project area to the maximum extent possible based on the required number of PSOs, required monitoring locations, and environmental conditions;</P>
                    <P>• Turnagain also would abide by the reasonable and prudent measures and terms and conditions of a Biological Opinion and Incidental Take Statement, if issued by NMFS, pursuant to Section 7 of the ESA; and</P>
                    <P>• Turnagain, in alignment with the PSMMP, would abide by vessel measures related to North Pacific right whales (50 CFR 224.103(c)), Steller sea lions (50 CFR 224.103(d)), and humpback whales (50 CFR 224.103(b), 50 CFR 223.214).</P>
                    <P>Additionally, the following mitigation measures apply to Turnagain's in-water construction activities.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Pre- and Post-Activity Monitoring</HD>
                    <P>Turnagain would be required to establish pre- and post-activity monitoring zones with radial distances (based on the distances to the Level B harassment threshold), as identified in tables 16-17, for all in-water proposed construction activities.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="309">
                        <PRTPAGE P="39238"/>
                        <GID>EN29JN26.016</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="153">
                        <GID>EN29JN26.017</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Monitoring would take place from 30 minutes prior to initiation of any pile driving activity (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         pre-start clearance monitoring) through 30 minutes post-completion of pile driving activity. In addition, monitoring for 30 minutes would take place whenever a break in the specified activity (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         impact pile driving, vibratory pile driving, DTH) of 30 minutes or longer occurs. Pre-start clearance monitoring would be conducted during periods of visibility sufficient for the lead PSO to determine that the shutdown zones (indicated further below) are clear of marine mammals. Pile driving may commence following 30 minutes of observation when the determination is made that the shutdown zones are clear of marine mammals.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Soft-Start</HD>
                    <P>Turnagain would use soft start techniques when using impact driving methods. For impact driving, soft-start requires contractors to provide an initial set of three strikes at reduced energy, followed by a 30-second waiting period, then two subsequent reduced-energy strike sets.</P>
                    <P>A soft-start would be implemented at the start of each day's impact pile driving and at any time following cessation of impact for a period of 30 minutes or longer. Soft-start procedures are used to provide additional protection to marine mammals by providing warning and/or giving marine mammals a chance to leave the area prior to the equipment operating at full capacity.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Establishment of Shutdown Zones</HD>
                    <P>
                        Turnagain would establish shutdown zones with radial distances as identified in tables 18-19 for in-water construction activities. The purpose of a shutdown zone is generally to define an area within which shutdown of the activity would occur upon sighting of a marine mammal (or in anticipation of an animal entering the defined area). Shutdown zones would vary based on the activity type and marine mammal-hearing 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39239"/>
                        group. If a marine mammal is observed entering or within the shutdown zones indicated in tables 18-19, pile driving and DTH activities must be delayed or halted. If pile driving is delayed or halted due to the presence of a marine mammal, the activity may not commence or resume until either the animal has voluntarily exited and been visually confirmed beyond the shutdown zones or a specific time period has passed without re-detection of the animal (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         15 minutes). If a marine mammal comes within or approaches the shutdown zone indicated in tables 18-19 (project-phase dependent), such operations must cease.
                    </P>
                    <P>The shutdown zone proposed for harbor seals is 25 m to reduce the likelihood of potential delays during both phases of the project. This proposal is based on a geotechnical study conducted at the project site in September 2025 during which several harbor seals were observed in proximity (80-200 m) to the proposed project location. The shutdown zone for all other PW ranges from 50 to 300 m (table 18).</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="432">
                        <GID>EN29JN26.018</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="231">
                        <PRTPAGE P="39240"/>
                        <GID>EN29JN26.019</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-C</BILCOD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Bubble Curtain</HD>
                    <P>Turnagain would use an unconfined bubble curtain during impact pile driving of 48-in (122-cm) piles. The bubble curtain would be operated as necessary to achieve optimal performance. At a minimum, the bubble curtain would distribute air bubbles around 100 percent of the piling circumference for the full depth of the water column, the lowest bubble ring would be in contact with the substrate for the full circumference of the ring, and the weights attached to the bottom ring would ensure 100 percent substrate contact. No parts of the ring or other objects would prevent full substrate contact. In addition, airflow to the bubblers would be balanced around the circumference of the pile.</P>
                    <P>Turnagain does not plan to use a confined bubble curtain, but bubbles will surround the pile during installation to provide acoustic dampening. The applicant has determined that there will not be tidal influence in this area sufficient to impact effectiveness of the bubble curtain, given the deeper waters that the 48-in (122-cm) pile would be installed in.</P>
                    <P>Based on our evaluation of the applicant's proposed measures, NMFS has preliminarily determined that, for each IHA, the proposed mitigation measures provide the means of effecting the least practicable impact on the affected species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Monitoring and Reporting</HD>
                    <P>In order to issue an IHA for an activity, section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA states that NMFS must set forth requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking. The MMPA implementing regulations at 50 CFR 216.104(a)(13) indicate that requests for authorizations must include the suggested means of accomplishing the necessary monitoring and reporting that will result in increased knowledge of the species and of the level of taking or impacts on populations of marine mammals that are expected to be present while conducting the activities. Effective reporting is critical both to compliance as well as ensuring that the most value is obtained from the required monitoring.</P>
                    <P>Monitoring and reporting requirements prescribed by NMFS should contribute to improved understanding of one or more of the following:</P>
                    <P>
                        • Occurrence of marine mammal species or stocks in the area in which take is anticipated (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         presence, abundance, distribution, density);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Nature, scope, or context of likely marine mammal exposure to potential stressors/impacts (individual or cumulative, acute or chronic), through better understanding of: (1) action or environment (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         source characterization, propagation, ambient noise); (2) affected species (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         life history, dive patterns); (3) co-occurrence of marine mammal species with the activity; or (4) biological or behavioral context of exposure (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         age, calving or feeding areas);
                    </P>
                    <P>• Individual marine mammal responses (behavioral or physiological) to acoustic stressors (acute, chronic, or cumulative), other stressors, or cumulative impacts from multiple stressors;</P>
                    <P>• How anticipated responses to stressors impact either: (1) long-term fitness and survival of individual marine mammals; or (2) populations, species, or stocks;</P>
                    <P>
                        • Effects on marine mammal habitat (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         marine mammal prey species, acoustic habitat, or other important physical components of marine mammal habitat); and
                    </P>
                    <P>• Mitigation and monitoring effectiveness.</P>
                    <P>The monitoring and reporting requirements described in the following were proposed by Turnagain in its adequate and complete application and PSMMP, or are the result of subsequent coordination between NMFS and Turnagain following receipt of the application. Turnagain has agreed that all of the mitigation measures are appropriate. NMFS describes these below as proposed requirements, and has included them in the proposed IHA.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Monitoring</HD>
                    <P>
                        All PSOs must be NMFS-approved. PSOs would be independent of the activity contractor (for example, employed by a subcontractor) and have no other assigned tasks during monitoring periods. At least one PSO would have prior experience performing the duties of a PSO during an activity pursuant to a NMFS-issued ITA or Letter of Concurrence. Other PSOs may substitute other relevant experience (including relevant Alaska Native 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39241"/>
                        traditional knowledge), education (degree in biological science or related field), or training for prior experience performing the duties of a PSO during construction activity pursuant to a NMFS-issued ITA.
                    </P>
                    <P>Additionally, PSOs would be required to meet the following qualifications:</P>
                    <P>• The ability to conduct field observations and collect data according to assigned protocols;</P>
                    <P>• Experience or training in the field identification of marine mammals, including the identification of behaviors;</P>
                    <P>• Sufficient training, orientation, or experience with the construction operation to provide for personal safety during observations;</P>
                    <P>• Writing skills sufficient to prepare a report of observations including but not limited to:</P>
                    <P>(1) Number and species of marine mammals observed;</P>
                    <P>(2) Dates and times when in-water construction activities were conducted;</P>
                    <P>(3) Dates, times, and reason for implementation of mitigation (or why mitigation was not implemented when required); and</P>
                    <P>(4) Marine mammal behavior.</P>
                    <P>Where a team of three or more PSOs is required, a lead observer or monitoring coordinator would be designated. The lead observer must have prior experience performing the duties of a PSO during construction activity pursuant to a NMFS-issued ITA or Letter of Concurrence. All PSOs must have the ability to communicate orally, by radio or in person, with Project personnel to provide real-time information on marine mammals observed in the area, as necessary.</P>
                    <P>Turnagain must establish monitoring locations, as described in PSMMP. During all pile driving activities, a minimum of one PSO must be assigned to each active pile driving and DTH location to monitor the applicable shutdown zones. The specific locations of the PSOs will be based on project activities and are as follows (in alignment with figure 18 in the PSMMP).</P>
                    <P>A minimum of one PSO would be used, and up to four as necessary. As described in the PSMMP, the number and locations of monitors will be based on the following in-water work scenarios:</P>
                    <P>• Scenario #1: One PSO (located at Location 1) when the distance to the Level A harassment threshold is less than 1,000 m;</P>
                    <P>• Scenario #2: Two PSOs (located at Locations 1 and 2) when the distance to the Level A harassment threshold is between 1,000 m and 3,000 m;</P>
                    <P>• Scenario #3: Three PSOs (located at Locations 1, 2, and 3) when the distance to the Level A harassment threshold is between 3,000 m and 5,000 m; and</P>
                    <P>• Scenario #4: Four PSOs (located at Locations 1, 2, 3, and 4) when the distance to the Level A harassment threshold is greater than 5,000 m.</P>
                    <P>At all locations, all PSOs, to the extent practicable, must use an elevated platform at observation points to enhance observation ability. PSOs would be required to record all observations of marine mammals, regardless of distance from the pile being driven, as well as the additional data indicated below and in section 6 of the IHAs, if issued.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Reporting</HD>
                    <P>Turnagain would be required to submit an annual draft summary report on all construction activities and marine mammal monitoring results to NMFS within 90 days following the end of construction or 60 calendar days prior to the requested issuance of any subsequent IHA for similar activity at the same location, whichever comes first. The draft summary report would include an overall description of construction work completed, a narrative regarding marine mammal sightings, and associated raw PSO data sheets (in electronic spreadsheet format). Specifically, the report must include:</P>
                    <P>• Dates and times (begin and end) of all marine mammal monitoring;</P>
                    <P>• Construction activities occurring during each daily observation period, including:</P>
                    <P>
                        (1) how many and what type of piles were driven or removed and the method (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         impact, vibratory, DTH); and
                    </P>
                    <P>(2) the total duration of time for each pile (vibratory driving) or number of strikes for each pile (impact driving);</P>
                    <P>• PSO locations during marine mammal monitoring; and</P>
                    <P>• Environmental conditions during monitoring periods (at beginning and end of PSO shift and whenever conditions change significantly), including Beaufort sea state and any other relevant weather conditions including cloud cover, fog, sun glare, and overall visibility to the horizon, and estimated observable distance.</P>
                    <P>Upon observation of a marine mammal, the following information must be reported:</P>
                    <P>• Name of PSO who sighted the animal(s) and PSO location and activity at the time of the sighting;</P>
                    <P>• Time of the sighting;</P>
                    <P>
                        • Identification of the animal(s) (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         genus/species, lowest possible taxonomic level, or unidentified), PSO confidence in identification, and the composition of the group if there is a mix of species;
                    </P>
                    <P>• Distance and bearing of each observed marine mammal relative to the pile being driven or removed for each sighting;</P>
                    <P>• Estimated number of animals (min/max/best estimate);</P>
                    <P>
                        • Estimated number of animals by cohort (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         adults, juveniles, neonates, group composition, 
                        <E T="03">etc.</E>
                        );
                    </P>
                    <P>• Animal's closest point of approach and estimated time spent within the estimated harassment zone(s);</P>
                    <P>
                        • Description of any marine mammal behavioral observations (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         observed behaviors such as feeding or traveling), including an assessment of behavioral responses thought to have resulted from the activity (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         no response or changes in behavioral state such as ceasing feeding, changing direction, flushing, or breaching);
                    </P>
                    <P>• Number of marine mammals detected within the estimated harassment zones, by species; and</P>
                    <P>
                        • Detailed information about implementation of any mitigation (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         shutdowns and delays), a description of specified actions that ensured, and resulting changes in behavior of the animal(s), if any.
                    </P>
                    <P>If no comments are received from NMFS within 30 days after the submission of the draft summary report, the draft report would constitute the final report. If Turnagain received comments from NMFS, a final summary report addressing NMFS' comments would be submitted within 30 days after receipt of comments.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Reporting Injured or Dead Marine Mammals</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the event that personnel involved in Turnagain's activities discover an injured or dead marine mammal, Turnagain would report the incident to the NMFS Office of Protected Resources (OPR) (
                        <E T="03">PR.ITP.MonitoringReports@noaa.gov and ITP.clevenstine@noaa.gov</E>
                        ) and to the Alaska Regional Stranding Coordinator (877-925-7773) as soon as feasible. If the death or injury was clearly caused by the specified activity, Turnagain would immediately cease the specified activities until NMFS is able to review the circumstances of the incident and determine what, if any, additional measures are appropriate to ensure compliance with the IHAs. Turnagain would not resume their activities until notified by NMFS. The report would include the following information:
                    </P>
                    <P>• Description of the incident;</P>
                    <P>
                        • Environmental conditions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Beaufort sea state, visibility);
                        <PRTPAGE P="39242"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>• Description of all marine mammal observations in the 24 hours preceding the incident;</P>
                    <P>• Photographs or video footage of the animal(s) (if equipment is available);</P>
                    <P>• Time, date, and location (latitude/longitude) of the first discovery (and updated location information if known and applicable);</P>
                    <P>• Species identification (if known) or description of the animal(s) involved;</P>
                    <P>• Condition of the animal(s) (including carcass condition if the animal is dead);</P>
                    <P>• Observed behaviors of the animal(s), if alive; and</P>
                    <P>• General circumstances under which the animal was discovered.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Negligible Impact Analysis and Determination</HD>
                    <P>
                        NMFS has defined negligible impact as an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (50 CFR 216.103). A negligible impact finding is based on the lack of likely adverse effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         population-level effects). An estimate of the number of takes alone is not enough information on which to base an impact determination. In addition to considering estimates of the number of marine mammals that might be “taken” through harassment, NMFS considers other factors, such as the likely nature of any impacts or responses (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         intensity, duration), the context of any impacts or responses (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         critical reproductive time or location, foraging impacts affecting energetics), as well as effects on habitat, and the likely effectiveness of the mitigation. We also assess the number, intensity, and context of estimated takes by evaluating this information relative to population status. Consistent with the 1989 preamble for NMFS' implementing regulations (54 FR 40338, September 29, 1989), the impacts from other past and ongoing anthropogenic activities are incorporated into this analysis via their impacts on the baseline (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         as reflected in the regulatory status of the species, population size and growth rate where known, ongoing sources of human-caused mortality, or ambient noise levels).
                    </P>
                    <P>To avoid repetition, the discussion of our analysis applies to all the species listed in table 4, given that the anticipated effects of this activity on these different marine mammal stocks are expected to be similar. There is little information about the nature or severity of the impacts, or the size, status, or structure of any of these species or stocks that would lead to a different analysis for this activity.</P>
                    <P>Impact and vibratory pile driving for installation and removal, and DTH activities associated with the proposed project, have the potential to disturb or displace marine mammals. Specifically, the specified activities may result in take in the form of Level A harassment and/or Level B harassment from underwater sounds generated from pile driving installation and removal. Potential takes could occur if individuals of these species are present in zones ensonified above the thresholds for Level A harassment or Level B harassment identified above when these activities are underway. Given the nature of the proposed activities, NMFS does not anticipate serious injury or mortality due to Turnagain's proposed project, even in the absence of required mitigation. The Level A harassment zones identified in tables 18-19 are based upon an animal exposed to vibratory pile driving, impact pile driving, or DTH pile installation (or a combination of such activities) for periods ranging from 10 minutes to 240 minutes per day. Exposures of this length are, however, unlikely for vibratory driving and DTH pile installation scenarios, given marine mammal movement throughout the area. Even during impact driving scenarios, an animal exposed to the accumulated sound energy would likely only experience limited AUD INJ at the lower frequencies where pile driving energy is concentrated.</P>
                    <P>As stated in the Proposed Mitigation section, Turnagain would implement shutdown zones that equal or exceed many of the Level A harassment isopleths shown in tables 12-13. Take by Level A harassment is proposed for 9 species (11 stocks). This accounts for the potential that an animal could enter and remain within the area between a Level A harassment zone and the shutdown zone for long enough to be taken by Level A harassment. Additionally, in some cases, this would account for the possibility that an animal could enter a shutdown zone without detection, given the various obstructions along the shoreline, and remain in the Level A harassment zone for a duration long enough to be taken by Level A harassment before being observed and a shutdown occurring. That said, take by Level A harassment is expected to arise from, at most, a small degree of AUD INJ because animals would need to be exposed to higher levels and/or longer duration than are expected to occur here to incur any more than a small degree of AUD INJ. Additionally, and as noted previously, some subset of the individuals that are behaviorally harassed could also simultaneously incur some small degree of TTS for a short duration of time. Because of the small degree anticipated, any AUD INJ or TTS potentially incurred here is not expected to adversely affect an animal's individual fitness, let alone annual rates of recruitment or survival.</P>
                    <P>For all species and stocks, take is expected to occur within a limited, confined area (adjacent to the project site) of the stock's range. The intensity and duration of take by Level A harassment and Level B harassment would be expected to be minimized through the proposed mitigation measures described herein. Furthermore, the amount of take proposed for authorization is small compared to the relative stock's abundance, even assuming that every take for any particular species could wholly occur to individuals of an individual stock.</P>
                    <P>
                        Behavioral responses of marine mammals to pile driving, pile removal, and DTH at the project site, if any, are expected to be mild, short-term, and temporary. Given that the removal and installation activities proposed by Turnagain would occur for set periods of time per day and for an approximate number of days of less than a year (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         in-water construction activities would not be occurring consecutively every day) any harassment is expected to be temporary and intermittent. Marine mammals within the Level B harassment zones may not show any visual cues they are disturbed by activities or they could become alert, avoid the area, leave the area, or display other mild responses that are not observable, such as changes in vocalization patterns. Additionally, many of the species present in region would only be present temporarily based on seasonal patterns or during active transit between other habitats. Most likely, during pile driving, individuals would be expected to move away from the sound source and be temporarily displaced from the areas of pile driving. However, this reaction has been observed primarily associated with impact pile driving. While vibratory driving associated with the proposed project may produce sound at distances of many kilometers from the project site, thus overlapping with some likely less-disturbed habitat, the project site itself is located in a busy harbor, and the majority of sound fields produced by the specified activities are close to the harbor. Animals disturbed by project 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39243"/>
                        sounds would be expected to avoid the area and use nearby higher-quality habitats. Pinnipeds in the area would have the ability to haul-out to avoid the activities (noting that the known haul-outs are located away from the project area) and no in-air harassment is anticipated from the proposed activities.
                    </P>
                    <P>Any impacts on marine mammal prey that would occur during Turnagain's proposed activities would have, at most, short-term effects on foraging of individual marine mammals, and likely no effect on the populations of marine mammals as a whole. Indirect effects on marine mammal prey during the construction are expected to be minor, and these effects are unlikely to cause substantial effects on marine mammals at the individual level, with no expected effect on annual rates of recruitment or survival.</P>
                    <P>
                        The area likely impacted by the project is relatively small compared to the available habitat in the surrounding waters of Southeast Alaska and Tongass Narrows. Although this area is part of an identified BIA for feeding humpback whales (Wild 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023), not all months would overlap with the proposed timing of the proposed project (September 2026 through August 2028) (approximately 122 days for Phase I and up to 217 days for Phase II). Additionally, humpback foraging within the area is likely comparatively low due to the lower value of the habitat in the immediate area (Wild 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2023), as evidenced by the typically low occurrence of humpback whales in the area. Finally, there is no ESA-designated critical habitat in the area for humpback whales.
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition, it is unlikely that minor noise effects in a small, localized area of habitat would have any effect on the reproduction or survival of any individuals, much less the stocks' annual rates of recruitment or survival. In combination, we believe that these factors, as well as the available body of evidence from other similar activities, demonstrate that the potential effects of the specified activities would have only minor, short-term effects on individuals. As already said, the specified activities are not expected to impact rates of recruitment or survival; therefore, these effects would not be expected to result in population-level impacts.</P>
                    <P>In summary and as described above, the following factors primarily support our preliminary determination that the impacts resulting from this activity are not expected to adversely affect any of the species or stocks through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival:</P>
                    <P>• No serious injury or mortality is anticipated or proposed for authorization;</P>
                    <P>
                        • Any Level A harassment exposures are anticipated to result in slight AUD INJ (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         of a few decibels) within the lower frequencies associated with pile driving;
                    </P>
                    <P>• The anticipated incidents of Level B harassment would consist of, at worst, temporary modifications in behavior that would not result in fitness impacts to individuals;</P>
                    <P>• The area affected by the specified activity is very small relative to the overall habitat ranges of all species, does not include any rookeries, does not include ESA-designated critical habitat, and only temporally overlaps with the Southeast Alaska humpback whale feeding BIA;</P>
                    <P>• Effects on species that serve as prey for marine mammals from the activities are expected to be short-term and, therefore, any associated impacts on marine mammal feeding are not expected to result in significant or long-term consequences for individuals, or to accrue to adverse impacts on their populations; and</P>
                    <P>• The project area is located in an industrialized and commercial marina.</P>
                    <P>Based on the analysis contained herein of the likely effects of the specified activity on marine mammals and their habitat, and taking into consideration the implementation of the proposed monitoring and mitigation measures, NMFS preliminarily finds, for each IHA, that the total marine mammal take from the proposed activity will have a negligible impact on all affected marine mammal species or stocks.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Small Numbers</HD>
                    <P>As noted previously, only take of small numbers of marine mammals may be authorized under section 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA for specified activities other than military readiness activities. The MMPA does not define small numbers and so, in practice, where estimated numbers are available, NMFS compares the number of individuals taken to the most appropriate estimation of abundance of the relevant species or stock in our determination of whether an authorization is limited to small numbers of marine mammals. When the predicted number of individuals to be taken is fewer than one-third of the species or stock abundance, the take is considered to be of small numbers (see 86 FR 5322, January 19, 2021). Additionally, other qualitative factors may be considered in the analysis, such as the temporal or spatial scale of the activities. As previously stated, no mortality or serious injury has been requested, nor is it anticipated to occur from the activities described herein.</P>
                    <P>The amount of take NMFS is proposing to authorize is below one-third of the estimated stock abundance for all species and stocks. For all species and stocks other than the West Coast Transient, Eastern North Pacific northern Resident, and Gulf of Alaska/Aleutian Islands/Bering Sea Transient stocks of killer whales, the number of takes proposed for authorization would be considered small relative to the relevant stock's abundances, even in the unlikely scenario that each estimated taking occurred to a new individual.</P>
                    <P>The West Coast Transient stock of killer whale occurs from California through Southeast Alaska, the Eastern North Pacific Northern Resident stock of killer whale occurs from Washington State through part of Southeast Alaska, and the Gulf of Alaska/Aleutian Islands/Bering Sea stock of killer whale occurs across the Southeast Alaska to the Aleutian Islands and Bering Sea. Movements of killer whales, for both transient and resident stocks, between widely separated geographical areas have been documented. However, given the relatively sheltered location of the project site in inland waters of Southeast Alaska, it is unlikely that numerous discrete groups of individuals sufficient to exceed one-third of the stock abundance would occur within the immediate vicinity of the project. It is more likely that individual groups that occur in the area would remain for periods of time and potentially be re-sighted on multiple days. As such, and given that the proposed number of takes would be allocated among four distinct killer whale stocks (inclusive of the Eastern North Pacific Alaska resident stock), the numbers of individuals taken would likely comprise less than one-third of the best available population abundance estimate of all three of the aforementioned stocks.</P>
                    <P>
                        There are no complete abundance estimates available for humpback whale (Mexico-North Pacific stock), minke whale (Alaska stock), or Dall's porpoise (Alaska stock). There is no recent stock abundance estimate for the Mexico-North Pacific stock of humpback whale and the minimum population is considered unknown (Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024). There are two minimum population estimates for this stock that are over 15 years old: 2,241 (Martínez-Aguilar, 2011) and 766 (Wade, 2021). Using either of these estimates, the 10 total takes proposed for Phase I (10 by Level B) and 18 total takes proposed for Phase II (17 by Level B harassment and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39244"/>
                        1 by Level A harassment) represent small numbers of the stock.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Similarly, there is also no current abundance estimate of the Alaska stock of minke whale, but an abundance of 2,020 individuals was estimated on the eastern Bering shelf based on a 2010 survey (Friday 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2013; Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.,</E>
                         2024). Therefore, the 7 total takes proposed for authorization for Phase I (4 by Level B harassment and 3 by Level A harassment) and the 12 total proposed for Phase II (7 by Level B harassment and 5 by Level A harassment) represent small numbers of this stock, even if each take occurred to a new individual.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The most recent stock abundance estimate of the Alaska stock of Dall's porpoise was 83,400 animals, which is more than 8 years old. However, Young 
                        <E T="03">et al.</E>
                         (2024) presented an estimate of 13,110 animals, which is more recent. Therefore, the 138 total takes proposed for authorization for Phase I (105 by Level B harassment and 33 by Level A harassment) and the 244 total proposed for Phase II (186 by Level B harassment and 58 by Level A harassment), represent small numbers of this stock.
                    </P>
                    <P>Based on the analysis contained herein of the proposed activity (including the proposed mitigation and monitoring measures) and the anticipated take of marine mammals, NMFS preliminarily finds, for each IHA, that small numbers of marine mammals would be taken relative to the population size of the affected species or stocks.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Unmitigable Adverse Impact Analysis and Determination</HD>
                    <P>In order to issue an IHA, NMFS must find that the specified activity will not have an “unmitigable adverse impact” on the subsistence uses of the affected marine mammal species or stocks by Alaskan Natives. NMFS has defined “unmitigable adverse impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as an impact resulting from the specified activity: (1) That is likely to reduce the availability of the species to a level insufficient for a harvest to meet subsistence needs by: (i) Causing the marine mammals to abandon or avoid hunting areas; (ii) Directly displacing subsistence users; or (iii) Placing physical barriers between the marine mammals and the subsistence hunters; and (2) That cannot be sufficiently mitigated by other measures to increase the availability of marine mammals to allow subsistence needs to be met.</P>
                    <P>The proposed project is not known to occur in an important subsistence hunting area. The project area, near Juneau, is a developed area with regular marine vessel traffic. Of the marine mammals considered in this IHA application, only harbor seals (more common) and Steller sea lions (rare) are known to be used for subsistence in the project area. However, the Alaska Department of Fish &amp; Game (ADFG) last recorded subsistence harvest in Juneau in 2008, where 12 harbor seals were harvested (ADFG, 2025). During a previous consultation over construction activities at Statter Harbor (approximately 15 km from the project site) from 2017 with ADFG, representatives from the Douglas Indian Association, Sealaska Heritage Institute, and the Central Council of the Tlingit and Haida Indian Tribes of Alaska indicated that the primary concern with construction activities in Statter Harbor was impacts to herring fisheries, not marine mammals (City and Borough of Juneau, 2018). As stated above, impacts to fish from the proposed project are expected to be localized and temporary, so are not likely to impact herring fisheries. If any tribes express concerns regarding project impacts to subsistence hunting of marine mammals, further communication will take place, including provision of any project information and clarification of any mitigation and minimization measures that may reduce potential impacts to marine mammals.</P>
                    <P>Given all of this information, NMFS preliminarily agrees with Turnagain's determination that the proposed project is not likely to adversely affect the availability of any marine mammal species or stocks that would traditionally be used for subsistence purposes, or would affect any subsistence harvest in the region because of the following reasons:</P>
                    <P>• The proposed construction activities are spatially localized within a discrete area that has been previously developed;</P>
                    <P>• The proposed activities are expected to be temporary in nature;</P>
                    <P>• Turnagain would be required to implement mitigation measures that minimize any disturbance to marine mammals in the action area, including traditionally harvested species;</P>
                    <P>• NMFS expects most of the effects on marine mammals would be in the form of behavioral harassment (Level B harassment) and would be temporary in nature and any impacts that would qualify as AUD INJ (Level A harassment) would be limited to a small number of animals (table 15); and</P>
                    <P>• No serious injury or mortality is expected to result from the proposed activities; therefore, the project would not result in any significant change to the availability of subsistence resources.</P>
                    <P>Based on the description of the specified activity, the measures described to minimize adverse effects on the availability of marine mammals for subsistence purposes, and the proposed mitigation and monitoring measures, NMFS has preliminarily determined, for each IHA, that there will not be an unmitigable adverse impact on subsistence uses from Turnagain's proposed activities.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Endangered Species Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 7(a)(2) of the ESA of 1973 (16 U.S.C. 1531 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) requires that each Federal agency ensures that any action it authorizes, funds, or carries out is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any endangered or threatened species or result in the destruction or adverse modification of designated critical habitat. To ensure ESA compliance for the issuance of IHAs, NMFS consults internally whenever we propose to authorize take for ESA-listed species, in this case with the NMFS Alaska Regional Office (AKRO).
                    </P>
                    <P>NMFS is proposing to authorize take of humpback whale (Mexico-North Pacific stock) and Steller sea lion (Western DPS), which are listed under the ESA. The NMFS Office of Protected Resources has requested the initiation of section 7 consultation with AKRO for the issuance of these IHAs. NMFS would conclude the ESA consultation prior to reaching a determination regarding the proposed issuance of the authorizations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Authorization</HD>
                    <P>
                        As a result of these preliminary determinations, NMFS proposes to issue two IHAs to Turnagain for construction of the Douglas Island Cruise Ship Terminal near Juneau, Alaska, provided the previously mentioned mitigation, monitoring, and reporting requirements are incorporated. Drafts of the proposed IHAs can be found at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/national/marine-mammal-protection/incidental-take-authorizations-construction-activities.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request for Public Comments</HD>
                    <P>We request comment on our analyses, the proposed authorizations, and any other aspect of this notice of proposed IHAs for the proposed pile driving activities. We also request comment on the potential renewal of these proposed IHAs as described in the paragraph below. Please include with your comments any supporting data or literature citations to help inform decisions on the request for these IHAs or a subsequent renewal IHA.</P>
                    <P>
                        On a case-by-case basis, NMFS may issue a one-time, 1-year renewal IHA 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39245"/>
                        following notice to the public providing an additional 15 days for public comments when (1) up to another year of identical or nearly identical activities as described in the Description of Proposed Activity section of this notice is planned or (2) the activities as described in the Description of Proposed Activity section of this notice would not be completed by the time the IHA expires and a renewal would allow for completion of the activities beyond that described in the 
                        <E T="03">Dates and Duration</E>
                         section of this notice, provided all of the following conditions are met:
                    </P>
                    <P>• A request for renewal is received no later than 60 days prior to the needed renewal IHA effective date (recognizing that the renewal IHA expiration date cannot extend beyond 1 year from expiration of the initial IHA).</P>
                    <P>• The request for renewal must include the following:</P>
                    <P>
                        (1) An explanation that the activities to be conducted under the requested renewal IHA are identical to the activities analyzed under the initial IHA, are a subset of the activities, or include changes so minor (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         reduction in pile size) that the changes do not affect the previous analyses, mitigation and monitoring requirements, or take estimates (with the exception of reducing the type or amount of take).
                    </P>
                    <P>(2) A preliminary monitoring report showing the results of the required monitoring to date and an explanation showing that the monitoring results do not indicate impacts of a scale or nature not previously analyzed or authorized.</P>
                    <P>• Upon review of the request for renewal, the status of the affected species or stocks, and any other pertinent information, NMFS determines that there are no more than minor changes in the activities, the mitigation and monitoring measures will remain the same and appropriate, and the findings in the initial IHA remain valid.</P>
                    <SIG>
                        <DATED>Dated: June 25, 2026.</DATED>
                        <NAME>Kimberly Damon-Randall,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Director, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13055 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
            </NOTICE>
        </NOTICES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>123</NO>
    <DATE>Monday, June 29, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="39247"/>
            <PARTNO>Part IV</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Department of Homeland Security</AGENCY>
            <CFR>8 CFR Part 264</CFR>
            <TITLE>Alien Registration Form and Evidence of Registration; Final Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <RULES>
            <RULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="39248"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                    <CFR>8 CFR Part 264</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[CIS No. 2810-25; DHS Docket No. USCIS-2025-0004]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 1615-AC96</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Alien Registration Form and Evidence of Registration</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS), Department of Homeland Security (DHS).</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Final rule with request for comments.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>On March 12, 2025, DHS issued an interim final rule (IFR) with request for comments amending DHS regulations to designate a new registration form for aliens to comply with statutory alien registration and fingerprinting provisions. Unregistered aliens may use this general registration form to satisfy their statutory obligations. This final rule responds to public comments, amends DHS regulations to adjust the lists of forms and processes that may serve as registration forms and evidence of alien registration, and seeks comments on other potential changes to the regulations relating to alien registration and fingerprinting.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>This final rule is effective on June 29, 2026.</P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Comment period for solicited comments:</E>
                             Comments on the other potential changes relating to alien registration and fingerprinting described in section V, Request for Comments, of this preamble must be submitted on or before August 28, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <ADD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Comment period for solicited additional comments:</E>
                             You may submit comments on the specific issues identified in section V, Request for Comments, of this preamble via Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                             to DHS Docket Number USCIS-2025-0004. Follow the website instructions for submitting comments.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            Comments submitted in a manner other than via 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                             including emails or letters sent to the Department's officials, will not be considered and may not receive a response from the Department. Please note that the Department cannot accept any comments that are hand-delivered or couriered. In addition, the Department cannot accept comments contained on any form of digital media storage, such as CDs, DVDs, or USB drives. The Department is not accepting mailed comments at this time. If you cannot submit your comment by using 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                             please contact John R. Pfirrmann-Powell, Acting Chief, Regulatory Coordination Division, Office of Policy and Strategy, U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security, by telephone at (240) 721-3000 for alternate instructions.
                        </P>
                    </ADD>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>Branch Chief, Residence and Admissibility Branch, Residence and Naturalization Division, Office of Policy and Strategy, U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, 5900 Capital Gateway Drive, Camp Springs, MD 20746; telephone (240) 721-3000 (not a toll-free call).</P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Executive Summary</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Basis and Purpose</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Legal Authority</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Summary of the Changes From the Interim Final Rule to the Final Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Request for Comments on Potential Future Changes</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Severability</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Costs and Benefits</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Background</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Alien Registration Requirements of the Immigration and Nationality Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Regulations Prior to the 2025 IFR</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. The March 2025 IFR</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Response to Public Comments on the IFR</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Overview of Comments on the IFR</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Support for the IFR</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Opposition to the Rule and Policy Objections</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. General Negative Impacts</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Impact on Specific Populations</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Impact on Aliens' Legal Services</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4. Impact on the Immigration System and Government Operations</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">5. Impact on Communities and Public Safety</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Legal Issues and Statutory Provisions</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. General Legal Authority and Legality of the IFR</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Legal Basis for the IFR</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Constitutional Concerns Related to the IFR</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4. The IFR's Compliance With International Law</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Applicability</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. General Applicability</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Applicability to Minors</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Applicability to Canadian Citizens</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4. Applicability to Aliens Seeking Humanitarian Relief</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">5. Applicability to Other Immigrant Populations</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Specific Rule Provisions</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Regulatory Structure of 8 CFR 264.1(a) and (b)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Submission Process</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Proof of Registration</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4. Biometrics Process</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">5. Filing Fee</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">6. Registration Validity</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. Other Issues Relating to the Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Confidentiality/Privacy of Registration and Fingerprinting</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Implementation Timeline</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Other Issues Related to the Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">H. Statutory and Regulatory Requirements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Administrative Procedure Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Regulatory Impact Analysis, Costs, and Benefits (E.O. 12866 and E.O. 13563)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Other Statutory and Regulatory Requirements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">I. Out of Scope</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Registration Requirements Under Pre-Existing Statute and Regulation</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Enforcement of Criminal Provisions</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Other Out of Scope (Not Related to Registration Requirements)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Additional Changes in the Final Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Changes to the Prescribed Registration Forms in 8 CFR 264.1(a)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Removing Prescribed Registration Forms</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Updating Prescribed Registration Form Names, Numbers, and Related Classes</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Changes to Forms Constitute Evidence of Registration in 8 CFR 264.1(b)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Updating Form I-94 as Evidence of Registration</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Updating Forms Name and Numbers Related to Bordering Crossing Cards</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Adding Forms that Constitute Evidence of Registration</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4. Remove “Form” in 8 CFR 264.1(b)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Changes to Fingerprint Waiver in 8 CFR 264.1(e)(1)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Updates to 8 CFR 264.1(g)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Changes to Temporary Evidence of Permanent Resident Status in 8 CFR 264.5(h)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Changes to Related to the Application for a Nonimmigrant Arrival-Departure Record in 8 CFR 264.6</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Request for Comments</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Prescribe Additional Registration Forms To Align With DHS Information Collections and Ensure Screening and Vetting to a Uniform Baseline</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Ensuring That Evidence of Registration Is Provided to Aliens Who Have Registered and Been Screened and Vetted to a Uniform Baseline</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Eliminate Certain Prescribed Evidence of Alien Registration Forms From 8 CFR 264.1(b)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Updates to the Classes of Aliens for Whom a Form I-94 Constitutes Evidence of Registration Under 8 CFR 264.1(b)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Issuance of Evidence of Registration Prior to Adjudication of Related Benefit Request</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Updating Outdated Waivers of Biometrics Requirement for Certain Nonimmigrants</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Eliminate or Replace the Biometrics Waiver for Certain Nonimmigrant Aliens</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Clarify “Not Previously Fingerprinted” in 8 CFR 264.1(e)(2) and (3)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Requirement To Apply for Replace Permanent Resident Card When Alien Reaches 14 Years Old</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Statutory and Regulatory Requirements</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Administrative Procedure Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Procedural Rule Exception</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">2. Delayed Effective Date</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Executive Order 12866, 13563</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">1. Summary</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                            2. Affected Population
                            <PRTPAGE P="39249"/>
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">3. Costs</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">4. Benefits</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Regulatory Flexibility Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Congressional Review Act)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Executive Order 13132 (Federalism)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. Executive Order 12988 (Civil Justice Reform)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">H. Executive Order 13175 (Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">I. Family Assessment</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">J. National Environmental Policy Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">K. Paperwork Reduction Act</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Abbreviations</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">APA—Administrative Procedure Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ADIT—Alien Documentation Identification and Telecommunication</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ARR—Alien Registration Requirement</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ASC—USCIS Application Support Center</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">BCC—Border Crossing Card</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">BIA—Board of Immigration Appeals</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CBP—U.S. Customs and Border Protection</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CFR—Code of Federal Regulations</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CPI-U—Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CRCL—DHS Office for Civil Rights and Civil Liberties</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DACA—Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS—Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DOJ—U.S. Department of Justice</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DOL—U.S. Department of Labor</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">EAD—Employment Authorization Document</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ELIS—Electronic Immigration System</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">E.O.—Executive Order</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">EOIR—Executive Office for Immigration Review</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">EWI—Entered Without Inspection</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FAM—Foreign Affairs Manual</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FBI—Federal Bureau of Investigation</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FISMA—Federal Information Security Modernization Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FOIA—Freedom of Information Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">FR—Federal Register</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">HHS—U.S. Department of Health and Human Services</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">HSA—Homeland Security Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ICE—U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ID—Identification Card</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">IFR—Interim Final Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">IIRIRA—Illegal Immigration Reform and Immigrant Responsibility Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">INA—Immigration and Nationality Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">INS—Immigration and Naturalization Service</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">IRCA—Immigration Reform and Control Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">IT—Information Technology</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">LPR—Lawful Permanent Resident</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NATO—North Atlantic Treaty Organization</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NEPA—National Environment Policy Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM—Notice of Proposed Rulemaking</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NSEERS—National Security Entry-Exit Registration System</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NTA—Notice to Appear</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">OHSS—Office of Homeland Security Statistics</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">OIRA—Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">OMB—Office of Management and Budget</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">ORR—Office of Refugee Resettlement</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">PIA—Privacy Impact Assessment</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">PRA—Paperwork Reduction Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Pub. L.—Public Law</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">RFA—Regulatory Flexibility Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SAW—Special Agricultural Worker</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SBREFA—Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Secretary—Secretary of Homeland Security</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SIJ—Special Immigrant Juvenile</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SORN—System of Record Notice</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">SSN—Social Security Number</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">State—U.S. Department of State</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">TPS—Temporary Protected Status</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">TVPA—Trafficking Victims Protection Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">TVPRA—William Wilberforce Trafficking Victims Protection Reauthorization Act of 2008</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">TTP—Trusted Traveler Programs</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">UAC—Unaccompanied Alien Child</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">UMRA—Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S.C.—United States Code</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">USCIS—U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">VAWA—Violence Against Women Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">VTVPA—Victims of Trafficking and Violence Protection Act</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Public Participation</HD>
                    <P>
                        Instructions for providing comments are in the 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                         caption.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Interested persons are invited to submit comments on the specific issues identified in section V, Request for Comments, of this preamble by submitting relevant written data, views, comments, and arguments by the deadline stated in the 
                        <E T="02">DATES</E>
                         caption. To provide the most assistance to DHS, comments should explain the reason for any recommendation and include data, information, or authority that supports the recommended course of action. Comments must be submitted in English, or an English translation must be provided. Comments submitted in a manner other than pursuant to the instructions, including emails or letters sent to the Department's officials, will not be considered comments on the rule and may not receive a response from the Department.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                         You may wish to consider limiting the amount of personal information that you provide in any public comment submission you make to the Department. The Department may withhold information provided in comments from public viewing that they determine may impact the privacy of an individual or is offensive. For additional information, please read the Privacy and Security Notice at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         For access to the docket and to read background documents or comments received, go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         referencing DHS Docket No. USCIS-2025-0004. You may also sign up for email alerts on the online docket to be notified when additional documents are added to the docket.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Executive Summary</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Basis and Purpose</HD>
                    <P>
                        On March 12, 2025, DHS issued an IFR with request for comments. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 11793 (Mar. 12, 2025). The IFR was effective on April 11, 2025. The IFR amended DHS regulations to designate a new registration form for aliens to comply with the statutory alien registration and fingerprinting provision. The IFR partially implemented section 7 of the Executive Order (E.O.) 14159, Protecting the American People Against Invasion (Jan. 20, 2025), 90 FR 8443 (Jan. 29, 2025), which directed the Secretary of Homeland Security (Secretary), among other things, to take appropriate action to ensure that all previously unregistered aliens in the United States comply with the statutory registration requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>After careful consideration of the public comments submitted in connection with the IFR, DHS is finalizing the IFR and making additional procedural and technical modifications to the regulatory text at 8 CFR 264.1 in response to the public comments. The rationale for the changes provided to 8 CFR 264.1 in the IFR and the reasoning provided in the IFR's preamble remain valid, except as distinguished in this final rule.</P>
                    <P>The purpose of this final rule remains the same as articulated throughout the IFR: to improve the registration outcomes for certain groups of aliens to better ensure that all previously unregistered aliens in the United States comply with the statutory requirements in sections 261 through 266 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), 8 U.S.C. 1301 through 1306. The IFR filled a gap in the DHS regulatory regime by prescribing a registration form available to all aliens regardless of their status and corresponding evidence as proof of that registration. This final rule adopts the IFR as final. The rule improves DHS law enforcement efficacy, making it easier and safer for DHS to enforce the law by providing more comprehensive information about the location of aliens in the United States. Additionally, increased compliance with fingerprinting requirements will provide DHS with additional information about an alien's criminal record, including whether the alien is a known or suspected terrorist.</P>
                    <P>
                        The final rule also makes additional technical corrections in the existing regulations to replace the name, description, and number of certain forms in 8 CFR 264.1(a) and (b) that have evolved or changed over time, eliminates references to certain long-
                        <PRTPAGE P="39250"/>
                        expired forms that aliens cannot use to register, and prescribes some additional forms as evidence of registration. The final rule also makes technical amendments and corrections to the fingerprinting waiver provisions of 8 CFR 264.1(e) and 8 CFR 264.1(g) related to the registration requirement of aliens who turn 14 years, as well as the provisions of 8 CFR 264.5(h) relating to temporary evidence of registration and lawful permanent resident (LPR) status. Finally, the rule makes technical corrections to 8 CFR 264.6. These changes reduce confusion and improve the usability of the revised provisions. These technical amendments and corrections do not substantively impact the regulated public.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Legal Authority</HD>
                    <P>
                        The authority for the Secretary to issue this final rule is found in various provisions of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1101 
                        <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                         including section 103(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1103(a), which authorizes the Secretary to administer and enforce the immigration laws and establish such regulations as the Secretary deems necessary for carrying out such authority. The authority is furthermore found in sections 262 through 266 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302 through 1306, which govern the registration of aliens and authorizes the Secretary to prepare forms for registration and fingerprinting of aliens. Section 102(a)(3) of the Homeland Security Act of 2002 (HSA), 6 U.S.C. 112(a)(3), vests all functions of all DHS officers, employees, and organizational units in the Secretary. 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         6 U.S.C. 202, 271; INA sec. 214(a)(1), 8 U.S.C. 1184(a)(1).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Summary of the Changes From the Interim Final Rule to the Final Rule</HD>
                    <P>Following careful consideration of the public comments received in response to the IFR, this final rule makes additional changes to DHS's registration and fingerprinting regulations. DHS is not seeking public comments on these changes. DHS is taking the following actions in this final rule:</P>
                    <P>• Adopting the changes to 8 CFR 264.1(a) and (b) made by the IFR as final. DHS is adopting as final the IFR's amendments to 8 CFR 264.1(a) and (b) without change. The IFR added to the list of prescribed registration forms in the table of 8 CFR 264.1(a) a reference to the Form G-325R, Biographic Information (Registration). The IFR also added to the list of evidence of registration in the table of 8 CFR 264.1(b) the USCIS Proof of Alien G-325R Registration.</P>
                    <P>• Revising the table in 8 CFR 264.1(a) by removing the entries related to the I-67, Inspection Record—Hungarian refugees (Act of July 25, 1958), I-691, Notice of Approval for Status as a Temporary Resident, and I-700, Application for Status as a Temporary Resident.</P>
                    <P>• Revising the tables in 8 CFR 264.1(a) and (b) by updating the Arrival-Departure Record Form Number and Class. In 8 CFR 264.1(a) and (b), DHS is adding Form I-94A/94W to the item for the Form I-94. DHS is also removing in 8 CFR 264.1(a) and (b) the entry referring to the class of “aliens whose claimed entry prior to July 1, 1924, cannot be verified, they having satisfactorily established residence in the United States since prior to July 1, 1924.”</P>
                    <P>• Revising the table in 8 CFR 264.1(a) by updating the entry relating to Form I-181, Memorandum of Creation of Record of Lawful Permanent Residence. In 8 CFR 264.1(a), DHS is revising the class to “aliens born to an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence during a temporary visit abroad admitted without a visa under 8 CFR 211.1(b).”</P>
                    <P>• Revising the table in 8 CFR 264.1(a) by updating the entry relating to Form I-485 and the Adjustment of Status Form Title. In 8 CFR 264.1(a), DHS is revising the form title for Form I-485 to “Application to Register Permanent Residence or Adjust Status, or its predecessor or successor form.”</P>
                    <P>• Revising the table in 8 CFR 264.1(a) by updating the form title and class of alien of the Form I-590. In 8 CFR 264.1(a), DHS is revising the form title and class of alien of Form I-590 to read as “Form I-590, Registration for Classification as Refugee or its successor form, or its predecessor form—Applicants under section 207 of the INA and Refugee-escapees paroled pursuant to section 1 of the Act of July 14, 1960.”</P>
                    <P>• Revising the table of 8 CFR 264.1(a) by updating the entry relating to Form I-817, Application for Voluntary Departure under the Family Unity Program. In 8 CFR 264.1(a), DHS is revising the form title of Form I-817 to “Application for Family Unity Benefits or its successor form, or its predecessor form.”</P>
                    <P>• Revising the table in 8 CFR 264.1(b) by removing the references to Form I-185, Nonresident Alien Canadian Border Crossing Card, and Form I-186, Nonresident Alien Mexican Border Crossing Card. DHS is removing the form numbers and titles of the Canadian Border Crossing Card (BCC) and the Mexican BCC and adding Form DSP-150, B-1/B-2 Visa and Border Crossing Card or its successor form, or its predecessor form in 8 CFR 264.1(b).</P>
                    <P>• Amending the table in 8 CFR 264.1(b) by adding Form I-860, Notice and Order of Expedited Removal, and Form I-871, Notice of Intent/Decision to Reinstate Prior Order and the class of aliens for each form. DHS is adding “Form I-860, Notice and Order of Expedited Removal” with the class of aliens who have been determined to be inadmissible under section 212(a)(6)(C) or (7) of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended, and ordered removed under section 235(b)(1) of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended, and “Form I-871, Notice of Intent/Decision to Reinstate Prior Order” with the class of aliens who reentered the United States illegally and whose prior order of removal has been reinstated under section 241(a)(5) of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended, as evidence of registration in 8 CFR 264.1(b).</P>
                    <P>• Amending the table in 8 CFR 264.1(b) by removing “Form” from the entry relating to the I-862, Notice to Appear, and the I-863, Notice of Referral to Immigration Judge.</P>
                    <P>• Amending the table in 8 CFR 264.1(b) by adding “CBP-approved document or its electronic equivalent for the Trusted Traveler Programs NEXUS, SENTRI, FAST, and Global Entry—Aliens who were last admitted to the United States through NEXUS, SENTRI, FAST, or Global Entry facilitated processing.”</P>
                    <P>• Amending 8 CFR 264.1(e)(1) relating to fingerprint waiver. DHS is removing the language waiving the fingerprinting requirements for “nonimmigrant aliens admitted as foreign government officials and employees; international organization representatives, officers and employees” from 8 CFR 264.1(e)(1) and adding reference to 22 CFR 41.26(a)(2) and section 101(a)(11) of the Immigration and Nationality Act to describe aliens who are holders of diplomatic visas. Additionally, DHS is also adding language to clarify that the attendants, servants, or personal employees of North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) representatives, officers, and employees (NATO-7 nonimmigrants) are not themselves eligible for the waiver because they are not and have never been classified as NATO representatives, officers, or employees.</P>
                    <P>• Restructuring paragraph (e) of 8 CFR 264.1 to separate the three fingerprint waivers into three paragraphs and adding “she” or “her” where appropriate.</P>
                    <P>
                        • Amending 8 CFR 264.1(g) to add “or by law” after “under the Act.”
                        <PRTPAGE P="39251"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>• Amending paragraph (g)(1) of 8 CFR 264.1(g) to clarify that an LPR who reaches 14 years old must apply for registration in accordance with the applicable form instructions and with the fee specified in 8 CFR 106.2 to replace a permanent residence card within 30 days of the alien's return to the United States; to remove the requirement of a physical photograph when applying for registration; to remove “if a lawful permanent resident of the United States in the second sentence of the provision; and to add “she” or “her” where appropriate.</P>
                    <P>• Amending 8 CFR 264.5(h) to state that USCIS may issue temporary evidence of registration and LPR status to an alien who is a “lawful permanent resident or conditional permanent resident alien who has properly filed an application for a replacement permanent resident card or for naturalization, petitioned for the removal of the conditions on his or her residence using the form prescribed by USCIS, or as otherwise determined by USCIS in accordance with the form instructions.” In 8 CFR 264.5(h), DHS is also clarifying that the temporary evidence of registration placed by USCIS in the alien's passport does not need to be surrendered to USCIS by the alien when the alien is issued a new Form I-551.</P>
                    <P>• Amending 8 CFR 264.6 related to the application for a nonimmigrant arrival-departure record. DHS is amending regulations in 8 CFR 264.6 by making technical editorial updates to remove obsolete regulatory references.</P>
                    <P>While DHS did not impose a fee as part of the IFR, DHS requested comments on adding a potential biometric services fee per registrant of $30. After careful consideration of the comments received, DHS has determined that it will not, at this time, impose a biometric services fee, but may impose an application or biometric services fee in the future.</P>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, within the IFR, DHS requested comments on the Office of Management and Budget (OMB)-approved Form G-325R, Biographic Information (Registration), for purposes of the 60-day 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         Notice under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501 
                        <E T="03">et seq. See</E>
                         90 FR 11793, 11799 (Mar. 12, 2025). The comment period for purposes of the PRA ended on May 12, 2025. Any public comment received on Form G-325R as a result of the IFR has been responded to in the 30-day 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         Notice published for purposes of obtaining OMB approval of Form G-325R 
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         on August 11, 2025, at 90 FR 38655. The information collection instrument with instructions and additional supporting documents, including responses to comments submitted as part of the 60-day 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         Notice, can be accessed by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket ID number USCIS-2025-0005.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             DHS had requested, and OMB approved, Form G-325R on an emergency review basis pursuant to 44 U.S.C. 3507(j) and 5 CFR 1320.13, on March 5, 2025. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Notice of Action for OMB Control Number 1615-0166 (Mar. 5, 2025), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov.</E>
                             The information collection was submitted to OMB on August 22, 2025 and is pending OMB approval.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Request for Comments on Potential Future Changes</HD>
                    <P>In section V of this preamble, DHS solicits comments on certain potential amendments throughout the existing regulation in 8 CFR part 264 to improve usability and reduce the need for conforming changes in future rules. Potential future amendments for which DHS is seeking comments include:</P>
                    <P>• Prescribing additional registration forms, including but not limited to Form I-90, Application to Replace Permanent Resident Card, Form I-539, Application to Extend/Change Status, and Form I-589, Application for Asylum and Withholding of Removal.</P>
                    <P>• Eliminating certain prescribed evidence of Alien Registration forms from 8 CFR 264.1(b), such as Form I-766, Employment Authorization Document;</P>
                    <P>• Updating the classes of aliens for whom Form I-94 constitutes evidence of Registration under 8 CFR 264.1(b).</P>
                    <P>• Issuing evidence of registration prior to the adjudication of related benefit requests.</P>
                    <P>• Updating and clarifying edits related to the waiver of fingerprinting requirements in 8 CFR 264.1(e).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Severability</HD>
                    <P>In issuing this final rule, it is DHS's intention that the rule's various provisions be considered severable from one another to the greatest extent possible. If a court of competent jurisdiction were to hold that any of the provisions amended were not to be applied to a particular category of individuals or circumstances, DHS would intend for the court to leave the remainder of the rule in place with respect to all covered persons and circumstances. DHS's overarching goal is to improve the registration outcomes of aliens not previously registered consistent with the provisions of the INA.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Benefits and Costs</HD>
                    <P>
                        This rule makes available another method for aliens to comply with the alien registration requirements of the INA. The rule does not impose new registration or fingerprinting obligations separate from the obligations already contained in the INA. The rule provides benefits by providing a general registration option to allow unregistered aliens to comply with their registration requirements and improve DHS enforcement. DHS recognizes that there are costs to aliens to comply with registration requirements in the INA. Because this rule does not impose new alien registration or biometric obligations separate from those already contained in the INA, the costs are inherent to compliance with the statute and are not a result of this rule. This rule may result in increased compliance costs for aliens that use this option. Costs to aliens may include the time to complete and file a registration form, as well as time spent traveling to an ASC, submitting fingerprints, and record retention. There is currently no fee for applicants to file the form or to submit biometrics. This rule may increase costs to DHS from additional alien registrations resulting from this rule. DHS estimates current registration and biometrics submissions under this rule have cost aliens approximately $21.3 million, as of May 7, 2026. The estimated burden to the Agency is $0.6 million from collecting and processing biometrics. DHS has considered the possibility that this rule, perhaps in combination with other policies, could have some indirect effects, such as increased legal costs for those who choose to seek legal assistance and potential workforce impacts. We do not have sufficient information to quantify these effects.Table 1 provides a summary of the regulatory changes and the estimated costs and benefits associated with the expected impacts.
                        <PRTPAGE P="39252"/>
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,r130">
                        <TTITLE>Table 1—Summary of Estimated Impacts of the Rule, FY 2025</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Summary of the change to provision</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Expected impact of the rule</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Amend existing regulations to make available another method for aliens to comply with the alien registration requirements of the INA</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Quantitative:</E>
                                <LI>
                                    <E T="03">Benefits</E>
                                </LI>
                                <LI O="oi3">• None.</LI>
                                <LI>
                                    <E T="03">Costs</E>
                                </LI>
                                <LI O="oi3">• $21.3 million to aliens in registration costs.</LI>
                                <LI O="oi3">• $0.6 million to USCIS in biometric costs.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Qualitative:</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Benefits</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="oi3">• The rule is expected to result in increased alien registrations that are consistent with provisions of the INA.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Costs</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="oi3">
                                • Technical changes are expected to have a 
                                <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                                 effect on costs.
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT O="oi3">• Indirect costs of the rule may include increased legal costs for those who choose to seek legal assistance and potential workforce impacts. Public comments identified these and other potential indirect effects, which are difficult to quantify.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>Source: USCIS analysis.</TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Alien Registration Requirements of the Immigration and Nationality Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Alien Registration Act of 1940, also known as the Smith Act, was enacted into law on June 28, 1940.
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Smith Act generally required all aliens in the country beyond 30 days to apply to register and to be fingerprinted. Congress later incorporated these requirements, as amended, in the Immigration and Nationality Act of 1952, Public Law 82-414, 66 Stat. 163. The registration and fingerprinting requirements currently appear, as amended, in part VII of subchapter II of chapter 12 of title 8, United States Code (8 U.S.C. 1301 through 1306). Throughout this preamble, we refer to such requirements as the alien registration requirements or the alien registration requirements of the INA.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Public Law 76-670, 54 Stat. 670 (June 28, 1940).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Under the alien registration requirements of the INA, with limited exceptions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         for visa holders who have already been registered and fingerprinted (through their application for a visa) and A and G visa holders),
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         all aliens above the age of 14 who remain in the United States for 30 days or longer must apply for registration and be fingerprinted before the expiration of 30 days. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 262(a), 8 U.S.C. 1302(a). Similarly, parents and legal guardians must ensure that their children below the age of 14 are registered. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 262(b), 8 U.S.C. 1302(b). Within 30 days of reaching his or her 14th birthday, the alien child must “apply in person for registration and to be fingerprinted.” 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         The Secretary may, in his discretion and on the basis of reciprocity pursuant to such regulations as he may prescribe, waive the requirement of fingerprinting specified in section 262(a) and (b) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302(a) and (b), in the case of any nonimmigrant. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 262(c), 8 U.S.C. 1302(c). As discussed in the next section, the Secretary has exercised this discretion with respect to certain nonimmigrants.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             INA sec. 221(b), 8 U.S.C. 1201(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        An alien's willful failure or refusal to apply to register or to be fingerprinted is punishable by a fine of up to $5,000 or imprisonment for up to 6 months, or both.
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The same applies to an alien's parent or legal guardian's willful failure or refusal to register. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec 266(a), 8 U.S.C. 1306(a). Any alien or any parent or legal guardian of an alien who files a registration application “containing statements known by him to be false, or who procures or attempts to procure registration of himself or through another person by fraud” is subject to criminal prosecution. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 266(c), 8 U.S.C. 1306(c). 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         18 U.S.C. 1001, 1546. A conviction for fraudulent registration constitutes a ground of removal under section 237(a)(3)(B)(i) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1227(a)(3)(B)(i).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             INA sec. 266(a), 8 U.S.C. 1306(a). 8 U.S.C 1306(a) refers to a fine of up to $1,000, but the general fine provisions of 18 U.S.C. 3571 supersede that language. As a class B misdemeanor, the applicable fine is not more than $5,000. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             18 U.S.C. 3559(a)(7).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Secretary has authority to “prepare forms for the registration and fingerprinting of aliens,” which “shall contain inquiries with respect to (1) the date and place of entry of the alien into the United States; (2) activities in which he has been and intends to be engaged; (3) the length of time he expects to remain in the United States; (4) the police and criminal record, if any, of such alien; and (5) such additional matters as may be prescribed.” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 264(a), 8 U.S.C. 1304(a). The Secretary also has authority to prescribe “special regulations and forms for the registration and fingerprinting of” certain classes of aliens, including “aliens of any other class not lawfully admitted to the United States for permanent residence,” “[n]otwithstanding the provisions of” sections 261 and 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1301 and 1302. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 263(a), 8 U.S.C. 1303(a). Although this rule is fully consistent with sections 261 and 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1301 and 1302 and related authority, the Secretary also invokes section 263(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1303(a) to the extent necessary to support this rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Every alien in the United States who has been registered and fingerprinted under the alien registration requirements of the INA must “be issued a certificate of alien registration or an alien registration receipt card in such form and manner and at such time as shall be prescribed under regulations issued by the [Secretary].” 
                        <SU>5</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Every registered alien 18 years of age and over must at all times carry and have in his or her personal possession any certificate of alien registration or alien registration receipt card. Noncompliance is a misdemeanor punishable by a fine of up to $5,000 or imprisonment for not more than 30 days, or both. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 266(b), 8 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39253"/>
                        U.S.C. 1306(b); 18 U.S.C. 3559(a)(8), 3571(b)(6).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             INA sec. 264(d), 8 U.S.C. 1304(d). As of March 1, 2003, in accordance with section 1517 of title XV of the HSA, Public Law 107-296, 116 Stat. 2135, any reference to the Attorney General in a provision of the INA describing functions that were transferred from the Attorney General or other DOJ official to DHS by the HSA “shall be deemed to refer to the Secretary” of Homeland Security. 6 U.S.C. 557 (2003) (codifying HSA, title XV, sec. 1517); 6 U.S.C. 542 note; 8 U.S.C. 1551 note.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Finally, each alien required to be registered under the alien registration requirements of the INA who is within the United States must notify DHS in writing of each change of address and new address within 10 days from the date of such change and provide such additional information as the Secretary may require by regulation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 265(a), 8 U.S.C. 1305(a). Noncompliance is a misdemeanor punishable by a fine of up to $5,000 or imprisonment for not more than 30 days, or both. In addition, any alien who has failed to comply with the change-of-address notification requirements of 8 U.S.C. 1305 is removable unless the alien establishes that such failure was reasonably excusable or was not willful. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 237(a)(3)(A), 8 U.S.C. 1227(a)(3)(A).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Regulations Prior to the 2025 IFR</HD>
                    <P>
                        Longstanding regulations provide that within 30 days after reaching the age of 14 years old, an alien in the United States who is not exempt from alien registration must apply for registration and fingerprinting, unless fingerprinting is waived under 8 CFR 264.1(e),
                        <SU>6</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         in accordance with applicable form instructions. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 264.1(g).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">DHS may waive fingerprinting requirements for some nonimmigrants. Such waivers are in the DHS's discretion, on the basis of reciprocity, and pursuant to such DHS regulations. See</E>
                             INA sec. 262(c), 8 U.S.C. 1302(c). DHS regulations waive fingerprinting requirements for some nonimmigrants, which covers various diplomatic and similar categories; other nonimmigrant aliens, while they maintain nonimmigrant status, who are nationals of countries which do not require fingerprinting of U.S. citizens, temporarily residing therein; and nonimmigrants who depart from the United States within 1 year of admission. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             8 CFR 264.1(e)(1) and (2). A nonimmigrant who fails to maintain his or her nonimmigrant status must apply to be fingerprinted at once upon failing to maintain nonimmigrant status. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             8 CFR 264.1(e)(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        If such alien is an LPR of the United States and is temporarily absent from the United States when he or she reaches the age of 14, the alien must apply for registration and provide a photograph within 30 days of his or her return to the United States in accordance with applicable form instructions. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 264.1(g)(1). The alien, if an LPR of the United States, must surrender any prior evidence of alien registration. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS regulations prescribe forms that satisfy the alien registration requirements. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 264.1(a). The regulations also designate certain forms as constituting evidence of registration. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 264.1(b).
                    </P>
                    <P>Before the IFR added Form G-325R, 8 CFR 264.1(a) identified the following forms as registration forms:</P>
                    <P>• I-67, Inspection Record—Hungarian refugees (Act of July 25, 1958).</P>
                    <P>
                        • I-94, Arrival-Departure Record—Aliens admitted as nonimmigrants; 
                        <SU>7</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         aliens paroled into the United States under section 212(d)(5) of the Immigration and Nationality Act; aliens whose claimed entry prior to July 1, 1924, cannot be verified, they having satisfactorily established residence in the United States since prior to July 1, 1924; aliens lawfully admitted to the United States for permanent residence who have not been registered previously; aliens who are granted permission to depart without the institution of deportation proceedings or against whom deportation proceedings are being instituted.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             This includes aliens admitted as B-1/B-2 nonimmigrants through the Visa Waiver Program who were issued a Nonimmigrant Visa Waiver Arrival/Departure Record (Form I-94W).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>• I-95, Crewmen's Landing Permit—Crewmen arriving by vessel or aircraft.</P>
                    <P>• I-181, Memorandum of Creation of Record of Lawful Permanent Residence—Aliens presumed to be lawfully admitted to the United States under 8 CFR 101.1.</P>
                    <P>• I-485, Application for Status as Permanent Resident—Applicants under sections 245 and 249 of the Immigration and Nationality Act as amended, and section 13 of the Act of September 11, 1957.</P>
                    <P>• I-590, Registration for Classification as Refugee—Escapee—Refugee-escapees paroled pursuant to section 1 of the Act of July 14, 1960.</P>
                    <P>• I-687, Application for Status as a Temporary Resident—Applicants under section 245A of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended.</P>
                    <P>• I-691, Notice of Approval for Status as a Temporary Resident—Aliens adjusted to lawful temporary residence under 8 CFR 210.2 and 245A.2.</P>
                    <P>• I-698, Application to Adjust Status from Temporary to Permanent Resident—Applicants under section 245A of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended.</P>
                    <P>• I-700, Application for Status as a Temporary Resident—Applicants under section 210 of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended.</P>
                    <P>
                        • I-817, Application for Voluntary Departure under the Family Unity Program.
                        <SU>8</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>8</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             8 CFR 264.1(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Before the IFR added “USCIS Proof of Alien G-325R Registration,” 8 CFR 264.1(b) listed the following forms as constituting evidence of registration:</P>
                    <P>• I-94, Arrival-Departure Record—Aliens admitted as nonimmigrants; aliens paroled into the United States under section 212(d)(5) of the Immigration and Nationality Act; aliens whose claimed entry prior to July 1, 1924, cannot be verified, they having satisfactorily established residence in the United States since prior to July 1, 1924; and aliens granted permission to depart without the institution of deportation proceedings.</P>
                    <P>• I-95, Crewmen's Landing Permit—Crewmen arriving by vessel or aircraft.</P>
                    <P>• I-184, Alien Crewman Landing Permit and Identification Card—Crewmen arriving by vessel.</P>
                    <P>• I-185, Nonresident Alien Canadian Border Crossing Card—Citizens of Canada or British subjects residing in Canada.</P>
                    <P>• I-186, Nonresident Alien Mexican Border Crossing Card—Citizens of Mexico residing in Mexico.</P>
                    <P>• I-221, Order to Show Cause and Notice of Hearing—Aliens against whom deportation proceedings are being instituted.</P>
                    <P>• I-221S, Order to Show Cause, Notice of Hearing, and Warrant for Arrest of Alien—Aliens against whom deportation proceedings are being instituted.</P>
                    <P>• I-551, Permanent Resident Card—Lawful permanent resident of the United States.</P>
                    <P>• I-766, Employment Authorization Document (EAD).</P>
                    <P>• Form I-862, Notice to Appear—Aliens against whom removal proceedings are being instituted.</P>
                    <P>
                        • Form I-863, Notice of Referral to Immigration Judge—Aliens against whom removal proceedings are being instituted.
                        <SU>9</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             8 CFR 264.1(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In addition, under a note to 8 CFR 264.1(b), a valid, unexpired nonimmigrant DHS admission or parole stamp in a foreign passport constitutes evidence of registration.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. The March 2025 IFR</HD>
                    <P>
                        On March 12, 2025, DHS published an IFR with request for comments in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        <E T="03">,</E>
                         90 FR 11793 (Mar. 12, 2025). The IFR partially implemented section 7 of E.O. 14159, Protecting the American People Against Invasion, issued on January 20, 2025. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 8443 (Jan. 29, 2025). Section 7 directs the DHS, in coordination with the Department of State (State) and the Attorney General, to take all appropriate action to:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Immediately announce and publicize information about the legal obligation of all previously unregistered aliens in the United States to comply with the requirements of part VII of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39254"/>
                        subchapter II of chapter 12 of title 8, U.S. Code (8 U.S.C. 1301 through 1306);
                    </P>
                    <P>• Ensure that all previously unregistered aliens in the United States comply with 8 U.S.C. 1301 through 1306; and</P>
                    <P>
                        • Ensure that failure to comply with the legal obligations of 8 U.S.C. 1301 through 1306 is treated as a civil and criminal enforcement priority. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 8443 (Jan. 29, 2025).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Following the issuance of this E.O., DHS reviewed the registration regulations at 8 CFR part 264 and determined that it would be appropriate to designate a general registration form in addition to those already identified in the regulations to improve registration outcomes for certain groups of aliens who currently lack a designated registration form, such as aliens who are present without being admitted or paroled and have not otherwise been encountered by DHS, or Canadian nonimmigrants for business or pleasure who are not issued Form I-94. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 11793, 11795 (Mar. 12, 2025).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Consistent with the E.O. and the alien registration requirements of the INA, the IFR designated new Form G-325R, Biometric Information (Registration) as a general registration option available to all unregistered aliens regardless of their status. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 11793, 11795 (Mar. 12, 2025). As explained in the IFR, to use this option, aliens must create their own unique account, or an account for their child, in myUSCIS at 
                        <E T="03">https://my.uscis.gov/</E>
                         and then complete the Form G-325R, Biographic Information (Registration). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 11793, 11796 (Mar. 12, 2025). There is no fee.
                    </P>
                    <P>Submission of the registration in myUSCIS initiates the process for the alien's biometric services appointment at a local USCIS Application Support Center (ASC) for the collection of biometrics, including fingerprints, photograph, and signature.</P>
                    <P>Once an alien successfully completes his or her biometrics appointment at an ASC, the USCIS Electronic Immigration System (ELIS) case management system triggers the creation of “USCIS Proof of Alien G-325R Registration” with a unique identifier printed on the document. For those aliens, such as Canadian nonimmigrants and aliens under the age of 14 years old, required to register but for whom the fingerprint requirement is waived, the ELIS case management system triggers the creation of the “USCIS Proof of Alien G-325R Registration” upon receipt of the Form G-325R. This “USCIS Proof of Alien G-325R Registration” document is then posted to the alien's myUSCIS account. In the myUSCIS account, the alien is allowed to download a PDF version of the document and can print it. This document serves as evidence of the alien's registration for purposes of section 264(d) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(d).</P>
                    <P>
                        The IFR filled the gaps in the regulatory regime by prescribing a registration form available to all aliens regardless of their status, in addition to the other forms already listed. Specifically, the IFR listed the new form at 8 CFR 264.1(a) and listed the corresponding evidence of registration at 8 CFR 264.1(b). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 11793, 11796 (Mar. 12, 2025).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Consistent with section 289 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1359, DHS interpreted the registration and fingerprinting requirements of section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302 to exclude from “all aliens” American Indians born in Canada who possess at least 50 per centum of blood of the American Indian race who are present in the United States under the authority of section 289 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1359, as section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302 and other provisions of subchapter II of chapter 12, title 8 of the U.S. Code are construed consistent with their right to pass the borders of the United States.
                        <SU>10</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, the registration form added in the IFR is not used by these entrants because such entrants do not have to register.
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>10</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See Akins</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Saxbe,</E>
                             380 F. Supp. 1210 (D. Me. 1974); 
                            <E T="03">Matter of Yellowquill,</E>
                             16 I&amp;N Dec. 576 (BIA 1978). Members of the Texas Band of Kickapoo Indians similarly are not required to register. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Texas Band of Kickapoo Act, Public Law 97-429, sec. 4(d) (1983) (“Notwithstanding the Immigration and Nationality Act, 8 U.S.C. 1101, all members of the Band shall be entitled to freely pass and repass the borders of the United States and to live and work in the United States.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             While DHS wrote in the IFR that American Indians born in Canada who enter the United States under INA sec. 289, 8 U.S.C. 1359, may register using Form G-325R “if they wish,” this is not consistent with the statute. Just as U.S. citizens and nationals are excluded from “all aliens,” so are American Indians Born in Canada who enter under INA sec. 289, 8 U.S.C. 1359, and members of the Kickapoo Traditional Tribe of Texas who enter the United States under the Texas Band of Kickapoo Act. If individuals in any of these groups submit Form G-325R to USCIS, USCIS will not register them and instead will send them a notice informing them that they are not required to register.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The IFR did not impose any new registration or fingerprinting obligations separate from the obligations already contained in the INA. An alien who has previously registered consistent with 8 CFR 264.1(a), or an alien who has evidence of registration consistent with 8 CFR 264.1(b), generally need not register again, although such an alien is subject to ongoing change of address reporting requirements under section 265(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1305(a) and 8 CFR 265.1, which are in addition to, and separate from, any other address reporting obligations the alien may have.</P>
                    <P>While DHS did not incorporate a fee for filing the Form G-325R, DHS requested comments in the IFR on the option of adding biometric services fee per registrant of $30, for the collection, use, and storage of biometric information, pursuant to 8 CFR 103.16 and 17.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Response to Public Comments on the IFR</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Overview of Comments on the IFR</HD>
                    <P>
                        When issuing the IFR, DHS invited the public to participate in the rulemaking by submitting post-promulgation comments on every aspect of the rule. DHS also invited the public to comment on a potential biometric services fee, including on the calculation of the fee. Additionally, the IFR contained a secondary comment period for purposes of the 60-day 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice under the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                         and OMB approved Form G-325R, Biographic Information (Registration). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 11793, 11799 (Mar. 12, 2025). DHS requested that comments on the information collection included the term OMB Control Number 1615-NEW. The comment period for purposes of the PRA ended on May 12, 2025. Any public comment received on Form G-325R has been responded to as part of the 30-day 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice published for purposes of obtaining OMB approval of Form G-325R 
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         on August 11, 2025, at 90 FR 38655. The information collection instrument with instructions and additional supporting documents, including responses to comments submitted as part of the 60-day 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         Notice, can be accessed by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at: 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket ID number USCIS-2025-0005.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             12 DHS had requested, and OMB approved, Form G-325R on an emergency review basis pursuant to 44 U.S.C. 3507(j) and 5 CFR 1320.13, on March 5, 2025. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Notice of Action, OMB Control Number 1615-0166 (Mar. 5, 2025), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov.</E>
                             The information collection approved on an emergency review basis had a subsequent information collection request for revision of the information collection submitted timely to OMB and thus, USCIS may continue to conduct the information collection while the submission is pending OMB review.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Comments were submitted by a range of entities and individuals, including attorneys and legal service providers, applicants, individual commenters, professional organizations, unions, advocacy groups, religious organizations, research and community 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39255"/>
                        organizations, and State and local government agencies or elected officials.
                    </P>
                    <P>In response to the IFR, DHS received 4,198 public comment submissions during the initial comment period that ended on April 11, 2025, for purposes of the IFR and the information collection. The secondary comment period for purposes of the information collection closed on May 12, 2025, with 71 additional submissions received to the docket after April 11, 2025.</P>
                    <P>DHS appreciates all comments and feedback. A few commenters expressed their support for the IFR or parts thereof, and the registration requirements. The majority of commenters opposed the statutory registration requirement and thus, the implementation thereof, including the IFR, Form G-325R, or the form's contents based on the impact on various populations or past practices but without providing specific suggestions. The majority of the commenters requested that DHS rescind the rule.</P>
                    <P>DHS is responding to the feedback received in this final rule but reiterates that, for approximately 85 years, the laws of the United States, including longstanding regulations, have required most aliens present in the United States who remain for 30 days or longer to register and, with some exceptions based on age or nonimmigrant status, be fingerprinted. The IFR and this final rule have not modified these statutory requirements. Similarly, the IFR and final rule do not modify the criminal penalties established by Congress many decades ago that apply when aliens fail to meet their registration and related obligations. This rule is consistent with E.O. 14159 and the alien registration requirements in sections 262 through 265 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302 through 1305, and establishes a general registration option available to all unregistered aliens regardless of immigration status. DHS has no authority to rescind the E.O. or the alien registration requirements of the INA.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Support for the IFR</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Multiple commenters expressed support for the IFR. One commenter noted the IFR is a means for DHS and USCIS to comply with E.O. 14159. The commenter reasoned that a general registration form for all unregistered aliens,
                        <SU>13</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         regardless of status, would improve registration outcomes and support the enforcement of immigration laws and regulations. The commenter added that this new registration form would bridge the regulatory gap between “certain immigration statuses” and appropriate registration procedures and requirements. Another commenter reasoned that “aliens need to be vetted” to protect the safety of U.S. citizens, including by knowing “who has entered our country,” and encouraged DHS to “pass” this regulation.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>13</SU>
                             The commenter used the word “alien,” consistent with the terminology in the alien registration provisions of the INA. Other commenters used different terminology. In general, when describing comments in this preamble, DHS has sought to mirror the language used in those comments, sometimes with quotation marks for clarity. Otherwise, DHS has used the statutory term “alien.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS agrees that the new registration form and evidence of registration will improve registration outcomes and support the enforcement of immigration laws and regulations. DHS appreciates the commenters' feedback and support for DHS obligation to faithfully execute immigration laws established by Congress.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Opposition to the IFR and Policy Objections</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. General Negative Impacts</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Overreach and Invasiveness Concerns</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters voiced concerns with Federal overreach as a result of the IFR. Commenters variously wrote that the IFR is “invasive,” “out of bounds,” would create a “police state,” “has no place in our system of democratic laws,” would violate the rule of law, would allow excessive surveillance or government control that sets a troubling precedent, represents an abuse of power, and is a dangerous expansion of state control that will enable the government to surveil millions of people. A commenter stated that once implemented, the IFR could provide a tool by which any future administration could enact targeted, repressive measures against alien residents of the United States. The commenter remarked that authority, once delegated to governing bodies, is rarely yielded or revoked, and that DHS should take care to consider the regulatory precedent the IFR would establish. Another commenter stated that the IFR imposes a similar registration requirement that was imposed by Germany during World War II as a means to control unpopular groups. A commenter added that while the registration is codified in the laws of the United States and it is lawful to ensure compliance, the law disproportionately impacts individuals and their families who have been living and contributing to society peacefully for years, especially those with pending immigration relief or humanitarian protections.
                    </P>
                    <P>Another commenter stated that the normalization of mass surveillance for one group sets a dangerous precedent, potentially paving the way for broader erosions of privacy and civil rights for all individuals. A commenter stated that the IFR gives the Secretary of Homeland Security unchecked discretionary power to monitor, register, and remove immigrants and thus, was “a sweeping revision of prior powers to the Secretary.”</P>
                    <P>Commenters expressed reservations about the implications of surveillance by law enforcement. For example, a commenter wrote that surveillance measures weaken the social fabric of entire communities. Other commenters wrote that the expansion of surveillance could eventually include all U.S. citizens, with another expressing concern about the ease with which the policy could expand surveillance and restrict individual liberties.</P>
                    <P>A commenter wrote that the IFR would create “undignified” monitoring requirements that would be a barrier to integration, economic participation, and community trust. Another commenter said the IFR is an “absolute abomination,” as it targets and entraps people who contribute to the cultural depth and economic vitality of the United States. One commenter stated that this tactic relies on lies to divide people, while another commenter said that “this program” sends an unwelcoming message.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter expressed concern that the data collected under the IFR could facilitate human rights abuses, similar to those seen in historical mandatory registration programs. The commenter cited examples such as the internment of Japanese citizens during World War II, the post-September 11 NSEERS (National Security Entry-Exit Registration System) program, and the registration of Jews during the Holocaust. The commenter remarked that there are no safeguards in the IFR to prevent such abuses and recommended rescinding the rule to protect privacy and prevent potential harm.</P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter wrote that if the Federal Government intends to enforce a “show me your papers” rule against aliens, then every person in the United States, including U.S. citizens, must carry proof of their immigration status or face penalties. With regard to “carrying papers,” a commenter stated that registered immigrants risk prosecution if they do not carry them or update their address, while aliens face deportation or criminal charges. A different commenter said that certain States have already 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39256"/>
                        seen immigration enforcement and said that with a nationwide “show me your papers” law, U.S. citizens without proof on them, or LPRs, are also at risk of being unlawfully detained and even deported. The commenter stated that the rule and registration processes are an affront to public safety as well as national security, which this process purports to uphold.
                    </P>
                    <P>Another commenter criticized the IFR as a “deep overreach” in Federal authority, despite the administration's promises to turn more power to the States. Another commenter viewed the IFR as contradictory to the administration's stated goal of reducing regulations. Commenters also wrote that the rule and forced registration reinforces the idea of a “Deep State” and surveillance state, where government officials use registration data to track, target, and punish individuals in direct violation of human rights and U.S. rights.</P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that requiring registered aliens to update the government with their current residence is surveillance “on par with a parole sentence that no other U.S. citizen has to go through.” Commenters stated that the IFR and the registration requirement are a step toward mass surveillance and criminalization of “undocumented” communities; that these requirements are “Orwellian;” and that they have the potential government overreach and the misuse of data to surveil immigrants.</P>
                    <P>Numerous commenters suggested that the rule is un-American or runs contrary to U.S. values, authoritarian, un-democratic, that it would reinforce harmful stereotypes; or that it was an “attempt to complete [an] authoritarian takeover,” or establish a dictatorship. Other commenters stated that the IFR disagrees with the American value of free movement; is dangerous; fascist; punitive; inhumane; immoral; or exploitative. A few commenters wrote that only Native Americans are not immigrants to the United States, and that the IFR's policies are hypocritical as a result.</P>
                    <P>Commenters wrote that the IFR is “cruel” and contradicts the values of welcoming aliens and providing them with safety and freedom, as represented by the Statue of Liberty. Similarly, a few commenters remarked that the United States is a nation of immigrants that should embrace diversity and be more respectful of those immigrants; that the U.S. immigration system should be fair and provide viable paths to legal status, and that the rule does not further those goals. Other commenters said that the United States should not intimidate or demean aliens and that the United States should honor its reputation of accepting aliens in need of protection from persecution, threats, torture, and death from their own country. Stating that the rule imposes an undue burden and creates fear in communities, a commenter said that making criminals out of people who are contributing to society was nonsensical. Discussing efforts in their State, the commenter noted that there can be “calls for border security” while still treating all people with respect and acknowledging the value of immigrants in society.</P>
                    <P>Several commenters called the registration requirement a violation of human rights. A commenter also said that the IFR would open the door for human rights abuse. Commenters stated that the IFR risks damaging the United States' international reputation as a champion of fairness, human rights, and due process. Another commenter wrote that the IFR aims to “reduce the immigrant to an undesirable person,” which contradicts religious principles, is against Christian values, and prevents individuals from practicing their religious beliefs. Commenters also stated that the IFR raises moral and legal questions and harkens back to dark days in Jewish history.</P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that the Federal Government, under the previous Presidential administration, repeatedly committed to a humane, trauma-informed immigration policy, particularly for children and families. The commenters said that the IFR contradicts those values and codifies fear-based compliance mechanisms without providing pathways to safety, legal relief, or stability, which was particularly concerning in cities like Chicago, where thousands of asylum seekers are still awaiting work permits, school placements, and basic housing.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS disagrees with the characterization of the IFR as overreach, discriminatory, or otherwise contrary to the principles and values of American society, as raised by the commenters. DHS also disagrees with the concerns raised by commenters that equate the registration program with government overreach, mass surveillance, eroding civil liberties, punishment, lack of safeguards, and setting precedents for mass surveillance of U.S. citizens. Congress directed and provided the necessary authority for the registration of aliens, including the content of the registration in sections 262 through 266 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302 through 1306. It is Congress that sets the policy and consequences; DHS is directed by Congress and committed to carry out the congressional mandate.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        President Trump directed DHS to take all appropriate action to ensure that previously unregistered aliens in the United States comply with their duty to register with the government. DHS identified a gap in the regulatory regime and established a new general registration option so that previously unregistered aliens could comply with the longstanding statutory requirement. As explained throughout this rulemaking, registration has existed for over 80 years; administrations had implemented the registration requirement in the longstanding regulation at 8 CFR 264.1, listing forms and evidence of registration, such as Form I-485. The IFR and this final rule is limited in scope by prescribing an additional registration form and evidence of registration for unregistered aliens regardless of immigration status. The general registration form collects basic biographic information and information required by section 264(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(a), which USCIS has a legal responsibility to safeguard, similar to the other form types collected by the agency. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 264(b), 8 U.S.C. 1304(b).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Effect on Removal, Detention, and Criminalization</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters criticized the rule as an attempt to entrap aliens by forcing them to either register (causing them to face potential deportation), or face criminal penalties for failing to comply. Another commenter described the rule as “unnecessarily complicated and clearly designed to entrap and ensnare people,” while another described it as a “bad faith `policy' ” meant to confuse immigrants into providing information that would be used to persecute them by illegal or unconstitutional means.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that in media interviews, then-Secretary Noem indicated that the purpose of registration is to facilitate removal of people from the United States, and that those who register would likely face detention, removal proceedings, and eventual deportation. A commenter stated opposition to the IFR and the potential detention of aliens resulting from it, describing conditions in immigration detention centers as potentially deadly and noting reports of medical abuse.</P>
                    <P>
                        Numerous other commenters stated that the IFR would lead to unjust detentions, the criminalization of aliens' presence in the United States, arbitrary searches and seizures, unjust deportations (including for aliens in the country legally and awaiting court hearings), scapegoating of hardworking 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39257"/>
                        immigrants, and punishing people without merit. A commenter expressed concern that the main purpose of the rule is to make it easier for DHS to identify and deport aliens, and stated that following the IFR's logic, similar measures should be applied to U.S. citizens because it would be easier to identify them for arrest should it be deemed necessary. Another commenter stated that coupling the new registration requirement with an E.O. requiring DHS to prioritize prosecuting violations and misdemeanors, rather than serious crimes, highlights that the purpose of this registration is “mass deportation.” A commenter expressed concern that the current administration would weaponize the process against individuals who have no criminal history and no immediate path to legal status under the current law, but are otherwise valued members of society.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter wrote that E.O. 14159, alien registration, and the focus on deportation indicate that the primary aim of the Federal Government in enforcing these provisions is to use the registry as a tool to identify, detain, and deport “undocumented immigrants” or incentivize them to self-deport. Other commenters stated that the IFR fails to meaningfully distinguish between lawfully present aliens and those without status, which they said could lead to the treatment of all aliens as potential enforcement targets, regardless of their legal status or history.</P>
                    <P>Other comments stated that, unlike programs such as Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals (DACA), this registration process offers no benefits, no legal protections, no form of immigration relief, and no shield from deportation, and added that the IFR makes no promises that the data collected through this process would not be used for enforcement purposes. Another commenter stated that past attempts to enforce registration requirements in the interest of national security included explicit assurances that those who complied would be afforded due consideration for immigration relief, and stated that such a requirement without providing opportunities for registrants to pursue legal pathways toward status adjustment undermines our collective commitment to establishing a just, efficient immigration system that prioritizes the wellbeing of long-term residents. The commenter said that rather than incentivizing compliance, this policy punishes those who self-identify.</P>
                    <P>A commenter indicated that the rule would fail to meet the administration's policy goals of improving registration outcomes because the administration fails to incentivize “undocumented immigrants” to register. Discussing the historical context of the Alien Registration Act of 1940, the commenter wrote that Congress had given then Attorney General Robert H. Jackson the power to relieve registrants of penalties for illegal entry. As a result, and because of the Attorney General's successful public messaging encouraging aliens to register, approximately 5 million aliens registered with the Federal Government by January 1941. In contrast, according to the commenter, this Administration made clear that it plans to use the registration process to advance its immigration enforcement activities, including removal, which fails to incentivize “undocumented immigrants” to register. Similarly, a commenter also indicated that it is the first time the government has required registration as part of a campaign to prioritize the prosecution of immigration offenses and encourage self-removal, rather than providing assurances, unlike in the past, that registration might lead to lawful status or that the alien does not have to fear adverse consequences for registering.</P>
                    <P>Several commenters expressed concerns that DHS would use the rule to facilitate deportations under the Alien Enemies Act of 1798.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The goal of the IFR and this final rule is to fill a gap in the regulatory regime by prescribing a general registration form available to all aliens. The IFR did not establish the statutory requirements to register or carry evidence of registration, or establish the criminal penalties established by Congress many decades ago that apply when aliens failed to meet their registration and related obligations.
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS agrees that the registration is not an immigration status, and the registration documentation does not evidence an immigration status, establish employment authorization, or provide any other right or benefit under the INA or any other U.S. law.</P>
                    <P>However, the statute provides that most aliens 14 years of age or older who were not registered and fingerprinted (if required) when applying for a U.S. visa and who remain in the United States for 30 days or longer, must apply for registration and to be fingerprinted. The statute imposes civil and criminal penalties for failure to comply. The purpose of this rule is to provide a straightforward way for aliens to meet their statutory obligations to register, rather than to provide incentives beyond those already contained in the INA.</P>
                    <P>
                        As then-Attorney General Robert H. Jackson stated in his address before the Common Council for American Unity, “[t]hese detailed individual records enable the government to deal with any alien problems on the basis of individual merits, and they take away any excuse for indiscriminating dragnet procedures or mass action.” 
                        <SU>14</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Many aliens who are present in the United States have already fulfilled their duty to register through a variety of pathways identified in 8 CFR 264.1. Each registration Form G-325R will undergo an individual review to determine if the alien has already complied with the registration requirements in some other way and does not need to submit Form G-325R or if the alien is required to appear for a biometric services appointment.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>14</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             “Address of Robert H. Jackson, Attorney General of the United States, before the Common Council for American Unity” (Apr. 4, 1941), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.justice.gov/sites/default/files/ag/legacy/2011/09/16/04-03-1941.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS believes that improved registration outcomes will improve DHS law enforcement efficacy by providing more comprehensive information about the location of aliens in the United States, which makes it easier and safer for DHS to enforce the law. The increased compliance with fingerprinting requirements would provide DHS with additional information about an alien's criminal record, including whether the alien is a known or suspected terrorist. DHS does not believe that a nexus between registration and law enforcement efficacy is problematic; Congress specifically provided for the sharing of alien registration information with Federal, State, and local law enforcement, and DHS complies with the laws as duly passed by Congress.
                        <SU>15</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>15</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             INA sec. 264(b), 8 U.S.C. 1304(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Administrative and Financial Impacts to Nonimmigrant Populations</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters opposed the IFR due to financial and administrative burdens on immigrant populations. A commenter stated that registration requirements would challenge immigrants experiencing changes in living situations, particularly those needing to relocate quickly. The commenter noted that change-of-address update requirements could impede immigrants' ability to navigate the court system, while bureaucratic backlogs might incorrectly label mobile immigrants as non-compliant with registration requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter expressed concern about potential financial burdens if DHS implemented processing fees for Form G-325R, especially for individuals submitting multiple registrations due to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39258"/>
                        changing circumstances. These administrative requirements would compound existing challenges immigrants face while managing legal proceedings, education, family responsibilities, and digital barriers. Many commenters suggested that requiring the Form G-325R would add unnecessary bureaucratic and financial burdens, as immigrants already submit extensive documentation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The IFR and this rule are limited in scope and designate a new registration form for aliens to comply with the statutory alien registration and fingerprinting provisions. DHS was directed through E.O. 14159 to take all appropriate action to ensure that aliens understand their duty under the law and have a path to satisfy that duty through the new general registration process and form. This rulemaking has not modified the duty established by Congress for aliens to register and be fingerprinted. Similarly, this IFR did not create or modify the criminal penalties established by Congress many decades ago that apply when aliens fail to meet their registration and related obligations, including the requirement to notify DHS of change of address. The law created by Congress requires that aliens who are required to register update their address with the government within 10 days of moving. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 265, 8 U.S.C. 1305.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The general registration form collects basic biographic information and information required by section 264(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(a). The form is a digital form that can be easily accessed through an internet browser or a person's cell phone. Additionally, public libraries and other private and public institutions provide access to the internet. The burden assessed for the average hour burden per response for completion of Form G-325R is 2.5 hours. Also, many aliens in the United States have already registered, as required by law, and would not need to complete Form G-325R. DHS thus disagrees with the characterization that the rule imposes an undue burden on the public or compounds existing challenges immigrants are facing. If an individual encounters difficulties with registering, DHS recommends contacting the USCIS Contact Center for live assistance.
                        <SU>16</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>16</SU>
                             USCIS Contact Center, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/contactcenter</E>
                             (accessed Oct. 24, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>DHS has determined that it will not impose a biometric services fee for registration applicants as part of this final rule. Section III.F.5 of this preamble provides more details on the determination of the filing fee.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters said that the additional Form G-325R registration requirement would impose financial burdens on low-income aliens due to legal and application costs or other costs associated with the IFR, such as missing work or school, arranging childcare, and even travel for biometrics appointments, or to obtain specific documentation, which places an undue strain on their limited resources, all of which can make compliance unattainable. A commenter stated that immigration forms frequently require outside assistance to ensure compliant completion, and prospective registrants are likely to seek external support given the penalties for noncompliance.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS acknowledges there are burdens to registrants associated with this rule. These costs include, but are not limited to, time burden to submit biometrics, and travel costs to go to an ASC. A more detailed breakdown of the costs associated with this rule is in section VI, the Statutory and Regulatory Requirements section of this preamble.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Health Impacts</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated that the IFR would endanger communities' mental and physical well-being. Another commenter cited a study finding that restrictive immigration policies and surveillance measures correlate with poorer mental and physical health outcomes among aliens, including heightened anxiety and depression, as well as reduced access to healthcare services. Yet another commenter expressed concern that the IFR would limit their ability to provide medical care to patients due to patients' fear of encountering ICE, and further raised concerns about the health conditions in alien detention facilities, stating that “multiple people” have died in them due to inhumane, unsafe, and unsanitary conditions. A commenter wrote that the increased stress from the IFR to vulnerable populations would lead to higher contact with emergency rooms, mental health agencies, and primary health care providers. A commenter wrote that the additional burden from the IFR on USCIS processing centers could increase stress for aliens waiting for decisions, leading to mental and physical health challenges.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         For over 80 years, the laws of the United States have required most aliens present in the United States who remain for 30 days or longer to register and, with some exceptions based on age or nonimmigrant status, be fingerprinted.
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS identified a gap in the regulatory regime and established a new general registration option that aliens, who are required to register but have not yet done so, may use to satisfy their statutory obligations. The IFR and this rule are limited in scope by amending DHS regulations to designate a new registration form and evidence of registration for unregistered aliens regardless of immigration status.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Impact on Specific Populations</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Groups Based on Immigration Status</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter said that the population of refugees, asylum seekers, visa holders, and permanent residents they serve almost exclusively comprises aliens who have been persecuted in their home countries, adding that a new registration requirement gives them more reason to fear the place they have come to for refuge and protection. Another commenter stated that the rule may cause aliens who are already legally registered using other registration forms to be increasingly fearful and uncertain. Multiple commenters added that the IFR would severely impact lawful immigration.
                    </P>
                    <P>Some commenters stated that the registration would be used to single out “undocumented” individuals for law enforcement actions. A commenter stated that the “undocumented” community includes hardworking individuals who contribute to the United States but do not see the benefits of their work. The commenter concluded that registration would harm communities and generate fear.</P>
                    <P>Others indicated that the IFR would negatively impact individuals who contribute richly to our country and pose no threat to U.S. citizens, including DACA recipients and other individuals who arrived in the United States at a young age.</P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that the organization's members, including “noncitizens” who entered without inspection, are directly impacted by the registration requirements and potential criminal penalties for noncompliance. The commenter expressed concern for members with pending immigration relief applications or deferred action requests (such as U visas or DACA) who have completed biometrics appointments but lack EADs that would qualify as valid registration. The commenter said it had helped submit numerous DACA applications in 2020 to 2021 that were never adjudicated due to a court order.</P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter wrote that the IFR would target and disproportionately affect long-term U.S. residents awaiting 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39259"/>
                        immigration relief or humanitarian protections. A commenter questioned the rationale behind DHS's decision, suggesting that it creates an additional procedural hurdle for vulnerable populations who have likely already submitted their biometric data to the government. Another commenter expressed concern that registration often leads to negative outcomes, such as surveillance, segregation, and incrimination. The commenter remarked that identifying a group as separate from the rest can have serious consequences, regardless of the original intentions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The IFR and this rule are limited in scope to establish a general registration option available to all unregistered aliens regardless of immigration status to improve registration outcomes for certain groups of aliens. An alien who has been issued one of the documents designated as evidence of registration under 8 CFR 264.1(b) has already registered, and an alien who has submitted one of the forms designated at 8 CFR 264.1(a) and provided fingerprints (unless waived), but was not issued one of the evidence of registration designated at 8 CFR 264.1(b), has complied with the registration requirement of section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. If an alien does not have any other pathway to register and to be fingerprinted, the alien may file the Form G-325R to comply with their duty under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. Aliens who are registered and reached 14 years old may use the new form to register if they have no other pathway to satisfy this requirement.
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS is aware that there are areas of the existing regulations that could be improved, including amending the list of forms prescribed as registration forms in 8 CFR 264.1(a) and the list of forms constituted as evidence of registration in 8 CFR 264.1(b). As part of this final rule, DHS is requesting comments on various ways to amend the DHS regulation to improve implementation of the registration requirement under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. See section V of this preamble.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Families and Children</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters state that the IFR would harm children and families. Several commenters indicated that the IFR could deter families from enrolling children in school, from seeking medical care, or from reporting crimes. Speaking to the impact on children's education, a commenter stated that the registration system could lead to a risk of punishment and parents may be hesitant to register themselves or their children out of fear the information could be used to initiate removal proceedings. They concluded that this undermines the trust necessary not only to cooperate with local law enforcement to reduce crime, but for educators, social workers, and healthcare partners to serve these families effectively.
                    </P>
                    <P>Several other commenters remarked that the IFR does not contain safeguards for families and stated that the IFR could lead to the deportation of parents or caregivers, and leading to family separation, including for mixed-status families. A commenter criticized USCIS' assumption that potential registrants would understand they need to register and described immigrants as “targets for family separation, detention, or deportation.”</P>
                    <P>A commenter voiced concern that the IFR would create burdens for those families with minor children who lack access to stable housing, legal counsel, digital literacy, or reliable internet and potentially facing criminal penalties if not successful at registering.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter stated that the IFR fails to consider the significant impact on its application of expedited removal to parolees would have on families and communities, adding that subjecting them to removal without appropriate procedural protections could result in severe social and economic consequences for these individuals and their families. With regard to the economy, commenters wrote that many “mixed-status” families would be harmed, despite having significantly contributed to the economy.</P>
                    <P>A commenter wrote that some immigrant families are already in the midst of pursuing lawful immigration relief and that the IFR could introduce confusion and risk of unintentional noncompliance into that process. Another commenter stated the rule would cause immigrant families to withdraw from everyday life for fear of criminalization, leading to negative impacts on local communities, economies, and public safety.</P>
                    <P>Numerous commenters stated that the trauma of fear of deportation and family separation resulting from the IFR and from registration leads to long-term emotional, developmental, health (including heart disease, diabetes, substance abuse, and depression), and educational harm for children. Another commenter wrote that the IFR would impact hardworking families, taxpayers, and individuals who speak and write in English, and would harm the mental health of alien children, leading some to consider taking their own lives. Another commenter wrote that the administration is using immigrants, regardless of status, and children whose parents arrived to the United States “undocumented,” as “pawns” in a “power struggle.” Another commenter stated that IFR would make children who are victims of trafficking and abuse less likely to come forward and report their experiences to law enforcement.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS has an obligation to faithfully execute the laws established by Congress, including provisions related to the alien registration requirements. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 103(a), 8 U.S.C. 1103(a).
                    </P>
                    <P>President Trump directed DHS to take all appropriate steps to ensure that previously unregistered aliens in the United States comply with the statutory duty to register with the government. DHS identified a gap in the regulatory regime and established a new general registration option to improve registration outcomes of certain groups of aliens. The IFR and this rule are limited in scope to establishing the new registration form and evidence of registration for unregistered aliens regardless of immigration status. This rulemaking has not created these requirements or modified the duties established by Congress for aliens.</P>
                    <P>DHS notes that the statute requires, with limited exceptions, all aliens 14 years or older who remain in the United States for 30 days or longer must apply for registration and to be fingerprinted before the expiration of 30 days. Similarly, parents and legal guardians of aliens below the age of 14 must ensure that those aliens are registered. Within 30 days of an alien reaching his or her 14th birthday, all previously registered alien must apply for re-registration and be fingerprinted.</P>
                    <P>
                        Before the IFR, longstanding regulations already provided that within 30 days after reaching the age of 14, any alien in the United States who is not exempt from the alien registration requirement must apply for re-registration and be fingerprinted, unless fingerprinting is waived. The IFR and this rule do not change those procedures but fill a gap in the regulation by adding a general option available to unregistered alien, regardless of status to improve registration outcomes for certain groups of aliens. Also, many aliens in the United States have already registered, as required by law. An alien who was issued an immigrant or nonimmigrant visa and at his or her most recent arrival was admitted into the United States using that visa is registered. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 221(b), 8 U.S.C. 1201(b). This includes aliens admitted 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39260"/>
                        as nonimmigrant students and exchange visitors. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>For these reasons and the reasons articulated in previous responses, DHS does not believe that the IFR or this rule, particularly when viewed separate and apart from the alien registration requirements of the INA, creates a burden for families and children or otherwise leads to a negative impact on families, local communities and public safety.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Numerous commenters expressed opposition to the IFR's application to minors and children. Several commenters urged DHS to rescind or abandon the IFR on the basis of potential impacts to minors subject to the registration requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that many children affected by the IFR have experienced trauma, such as threats of harm or death, abuse, or neglect, and that trauma-related challenges can further impair their ability to comply with the numerous and complex requirements of the IFR.</P>
                    <P>A commenter wrote that young people are often particularly fearful of procedures such as fingerprinting due to trauma they experienced in their home countries. The commenter said that if they are navigating the immigration legal system with specially trained legal advice and support, they are able to overcome such fears as part of the process of being scrutinized for lawful status in the United States but added that many of these children are set to lose representation due to funding cuts and thus are not able to successfully navigate the legal process as they will lack the help to understand the purpose and relative safety of such procedures. A commenter wrote that the information required for registration may be either unavailable or incomprehensible to children, including unaccompanied children and especially those in Federal Government custody. The commenter said that especially for children who have faced significant trauma, best practice indicates that they be provided special consideration and trauma-informed care, not an expectation to comply with the same requirements as adults for processes that potentially implicate criminal liability.</P>
                    <P>Expressing concerns about the IFR's requirement for children between the ages of 14 and 18 to submit to registration, fingerprinting, and background checks, a commenter stated that these registration's invasive requirements failed to account for evolving understanding of childhood vulnerabilities since the underlying law was written. The commenter noted the increased exploitation of vulnerable migrants, particularly minors, under a universal registration requirement, because on account of fraudsters and scammers, including those impersonating Federal agents. The commenter urged DHS to reconsider registration requirements to preserve civil rights and public safety protections for minors. Similarly, a commenter expressed concern for children between the ages of 12 and 18 who may not have a license being targeted for their skin color or lack of English language skills, and the commenter therefore opposed the requirement to carry ID or registration cards.</P>
                    <P>Similarly, commenters expressed concern about the impact of the registration requirements on children and youth. A commenter stated that the criminal penalties contemplated also extend to children between the ages of 14-18, placing them at particular risk of profiling and criminalization, noting that a 1940-era statute does not account for the decades of improvement that have been made regarding the criminal prosecution of juveniles.</P>
                    <P>Other commenters stated that the IFR makes no exceptions for the severe consequences of not registering, treating youth the same as adults. One commenter stated that with the return of family detention, youth could potentially be held with their parents or alone, facing possible deportation to countries where their safety and well-being may be compromised. The commenter cited the American Academy of Pediatrics' position that “no amount of time in detention is safe for a child” and referenced a DHS advisory committee report concluding that “detention is generally neither appropriate nor necessary for families” and is “never in the best interest of children.”</P>
                    <P>Another commenter stated that if children's sponsors and family members are criminally prosecuted for failing to register or not having proof of registration on their person, children would remain detained even longer awaiting reunification and release, and many would be left without anyone to house and care for them.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter expressed concern that the rule's requirement to carry registration documentation could be used as a pretext for law enforcement actions against children and families. The commenter stated this could lead to racial profiling of people who may appear “foreign” to law enforcement officials, a practice the commenter described as disproportionately harming “Black and Brown” youth and their families, regardless of citizenship or immigration status. The commenter said that failure to register or carry documentation essentially criminalizes youth by default and creates additional distrust of law enforcement, making it less likely that young people and families report crimes or seek assistance from law enforcement. The commenter suggested this could particularly impact unaccompanied youth who are at higher risk for child labor exploitation and other types of abuse, as they may be more reluctant to seek help. Another commenter stated that the IFR would harm children subjected to profiling based on skin color or perceived nation of origin, and children who are victims of trafficking or other crimes.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The statute requires, with limited exceptions, all aliens 14 years or older who remain in the United States for 30 days or longer must apply for registration and to be fingerprinted before the expiration of 30 days. Similarly, parents and legal guardians of aliens below the age of 14 must ensure that those aliens are registered. Within 30 days of an alien reaching his or her 14th birthday, all previously registered aliens must apply for re-registration and be fingerprinted. The statute further requires aliens 18 years or older in the United States who are required to register must at all times carry with them and have in their personal possession any certificate of alien registration or alien registration receipt card issued to them. DHS, with the IFR and final rule, has not created these requirements or modified the duties established by Congress for aliens.
                    </P>
                    <P>Longstanding regulations before this IFR already provided that, within 30 days after reaching the age of 14, any alien in the United States who is not exempt from the alien registration requirement must apply for re-registration and be fingerprinted, unless fingerprinting is waived. The IFR and final rule do not change those procedures but fill a gap in the regulatory regime by prescribing a general registration option available to all aliens regardless of their status and corresponding evidence as proof of that registration.</P>
                    <P>
                        The comments regarding the enforcement of the criminal provisions are out of scope of this rulemaking. This rulemaking does not set civil immigration or criminal enforcement policies or priorities. Children under 14 years of age face no criminal penalties for a willful failure or refusal to register. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 266(a), 8 U.S.C. 1306(a).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Comments said that the IFR would also disproportionately harm children with disabilities, youth with certain mental health, developmental or cognitive disabilities, and those with 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39261"/>
                        limited English proficiency, adding that youth with certain mental health, developmental or cognitive disabilities may face challenges in being able to comprehend that the registration requirement applies to them, complete the requirements, or understand that they need to carry proof of registration with them at all times. Another commenter said that youth who are unable to speak or read English may also face significant challenges, especially since unaccompanied youth come from all around the globe, many of whom speak indigenous languages and other uncommon languages and often lack access to interpretation assistance. Another comment stated that faced with law enforcement interactions, youth with certain mental health, developmental, or cognitive disabilities are at higher risk of worse outcomes, such as arrest, detention, or even physical harm.
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters also stated that children with limited technology access or who otherwise need support to comply with the requirement may seek guidance from teachers and other school personnel, adding burdens to the education system.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter said that the registration requirement would prejudice children in living situations where they may not have access to their immigration paperwork or have not had the opportunity to speak to a lawyer. The commenter added that children may not have an adult who understands English, let alone the complex nature of the form required for registration.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The statute provides that, with limited exceptions, all aliens 14 years or older who remain in the United States for 30 days or longer must apply for registration and to be fingerprinted before the expiration of 30 days. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 262, 8 U.S.C. 1302. Similarly, parents and legal guardians of aliens below the age of 14 must ensure that those aliens are registered. Within 30 days of an alien reaching his or her 14th birthday, all previously registered aliens must apply for re-registration and be fingerprinted. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 262(b), 8 U.S.C. 1302(b). DHS, with the IFR and this final rule, has not changed the requirements established by Congress for aliens. The IFR and this rule are limited in scope, designating a new registration form for aliens to comply with the statutory registration and fingerprinting requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS acknowledges the challenges that children may encounter, in particular children with disabilities, mental health difficulties, limited English proficiency, or based on socio-economic situation. These difficulties apply generally to any statutorily imposed obligations codified by Congress, and the longstanding alien registration requirement does not distinguish itself in this manner. To address concerns about disability and access issues, DHS provides various accommodations, in accordance with current laws. DHS and USCIS electronic and information technology (IT) systems meet and in some respects may exceed the requirement of section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act (29 U.S.C. 794d) and related guidance. DHS and USCIS are committed to making the public information and data accessible and usable by individuals with disabilities in a manner that is comparable with individuals who do not have disabilities. USCIS provides accommodations consistent with section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act.
                        <SU>17</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>17</SU>
                             See USCIS, “Disability Accommodations for the Public,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/about-us/disability-accommodations-for-the-public</E>
                             (last updated Oct. 19, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        USCIS also established a dedicated website with information on the Alien Registration Requirement (ARR) and an ARR Tool that help aliens determine if they must register.
                        <SU>18</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The tool poses a series of questions to aliens and based on an alien's responses, may help an alien determine if they must register.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>18</SU>
                             See USCIS, “Alien Registration Requirement,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov//alienregistration</E>
                             (last updated May 6, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter expressed concern that the IFR creates a financial burden on unaccompanied children who typically lack independent income sources. The commenter stated that children might feel compelled to work to comply with the IFR, though many cannot, due to lack of work authorization or school attendance. The commenter identified several costs that would burden children, including application fees, technology access, transportation to biometrics appointments, document costs, fingerprinting fees, interpretation services, and legal consultation expenses. The commenter concluded that these financial barriers would prevent many children from complying with the requirements, potentially subjecting them to criminal liability.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The statute requires, with limited exceptions, that all aliens 14 years or older who remain in the United States for 30 days or longer must apply for registration and to be fingerprinted before the expiration of 30 days. Similarly, parents and legal guardians of aliens below the age of 14 must ensure that those aliens are registered. Within 30 days of an alien reaching his or her 14th birthday, all previously registered aliens must apply for re-registration and be fingerprinted.
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS, with the IFR and final rule, has not modified the duties established by Congress for aliens. Before the IFR, regulations already provided that within 30 days after reaching the age of 14, any alien in the United States who is not exempt from the alien registration requirement must apply for re-registration and be fingerprinted, unless fingerprinting is waived. The IFR and final rule do not change those procedures but fills a gap in the regulation by adding an option for aliens to comply with the existing statutory registration requirements. DHS notes that some unaccompanied alien children will already be registered by virtue of having been placed in removal proceedings via the Form I-862, Notice to Appear.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. People With Disabilities</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters stated that the IFR would disproportionately harm people with disabilities. Similarly, commenters stated that individuals with mental, developmental, or health-related disabilities may be unable to reliably carry documentation as described in the IFR. The commenter wrote that without available assistance from family members or others, these individuals would face increased risk of law enforcement actions, incarceration, and removal from the United States without meaningful due process.
                    </P>
                    <P>Similarly, commenters stated that the IFR would deter sponsors and family members from providing support for Non-Qualified Respondent Program participants with mental disabilities. The commenter noted that immigration judges often require individuals with mental disabilities to be released into family members' care during bond hearings, ensuring their participation in legal proceedings. According to the commenter, the IFR would discourage family members from acting as sponsors due to concerns about potential consequences if the respondent fails to register. The commenter said this would prolong detention of individuals with mental disabilities, who may lose their support system and be unable to meaningfully participate in immigration proceedings.</P>
                    <P>
                        Similarly, commenters stated that people with disabilities would not have meaningful access to the registration process for several reasons. The commenters wrote that people with certain mental health, developmental, or cognitive disabilities may be unable to determine if the registration requirement applies to them. The commenters stated that additionally, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39262"/>
                        registration requires access to the internet, a computer or smartphone, and an email address, which may be difficult or impossible for people with various disabilities, including those who are blind or have low vision, those with mobility issues affecting manual dexterity or ability to navigate technology, and those with intellectual or cognitive disabilities. Commenters added that the registration process also requires cognitive capacity to follow a multi-step process for creating an account and registering for myUSCIS, including a two-factor authentication process. Finally, a commenter said that registrants must have the cognitive capacity to answer a long list of questions with minimal instructions or risk civil and criminal penalties.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter said that expecting individuals with disabilities to comply with the registration requirement would place “an unrealistic and significant burden on them,” reasoning that clients with health needs living in the community are frequently without stable housing. Specifically, the commenter noted that as these individuals move from one transitional housing situation to another, papers are frequently lost, and, often, possessions are stolen.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS, with the IFR and this final rule, has not changed the requirements established by Congress for aliens. The IFR and this rule are limited in scope, designating a new registration form for aliens to comply with the statutory registration and fingerprinting requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>Most aliens in the United States already complied with the registration requirement prior to the publication of the IFR. For many decades, these aliens have satisfied the requirement through a variety of pathways. However, the IFR and this final rule fills a gap in the regulatory regime by prescribing a general registration option available to all aliens regardless of their status and corresponding evidence as proof of that registration. DHS believes that this new option may improve registration outcomes for certain groups of aliens.</P>
                    <P>DHS and USCIS are committed to making electronic and information technologies accessible to individuals with disabilities. The myUSCIS site and its technology are designed to ensure individuals with disabilities can access and use information and data in a way that is comparable to those without disabilities.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Form G-325R complies with section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act; additionally, USCIS provides reasonable accommodations in accordance with section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act.
                        <SU>19</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As part of the accommodation, we encourage individuals to reach out to the USCIS Contact Center if they require help with alien registration.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>19</SU>
                             See USCIS, “Disability Accommodations for the Public,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/about-us/disability-accommodations-for-the-public</E>
                             (last updated Oct. 19, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>DHS notes that this rulemaking has not changed the requirement that all aliens 18 years or older in the United States who are required to register must at all times carry with them and have in their personal possession any certificate of alien registration or alien registration receipt card issued to them. These are statutory requirements under section 264(e) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(e).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Victims of Crime and Abuse</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters stated that the IFR undermines and threatens the safety of victims of human trafficking and domestic and sexual violence, and law enforcement depends on community cooperation to maintain public safety, which becomes difficult when crime victims are afraid to report crimes or speak to police. A commenter emphasized that immigrant women, particularly those who are “undocumented,” are extremely vulnerable to domestic violence, sexual assault, human trafficking, and other violent crimes. The commenter explained that these victims face significant barriers to seeking safety because perpetrators, often U.S. citizens, exploit the victims' immigration status to control them and threaten escalated violence if they seek help. The commenter reasoned that the expanded registration requirements in the IFR create an unnecessary climate of fear in immigrant communities that undermines public safety, as crime victims would avoid contacting police due to fears of penalties, detention, or deportation. The commenter stated that the IFR effectively renders current Violence Against Women Act (VAWA) legal protections for immigrant victims of human trafficking and domestic/sexual violence meaningless. The commenter wrote that the IFR puts immigrant victims with pending applications for protection and those already working with government authorities at immediate risk for deportation or criminal prosecution, removing incentives for immigrant victims of violent crime to seek help. The commenter further noted that the new registration process creates an additional tool for abusive partners to harm victims by establishing what they described as an impossible barrier to safety for immigrant survivors.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that the IFR would cause people to be targeted by ICE before they have had a chance to get trustworthy legal advice, including individuals who have survived human trafficking, and adolescents and young children who have been granted specialized status due to their victimization. The commenter wrote that the IFR would retraumatize these groups by arresting them and forcing them to show documentation. A commenter said that the IFR introduces new requirements that would deter survivors from coming forward, increase the risk of re-traumatization, and make it easier for abusers and perpetrators to maintain control over their victims. A commenter raised specific concerns regarding the impact on survivors of abuse who have received or are seeking humanitarian protection through VAWA, T, or U visas.</P>
                    <P>A union said that the IFR will chill reporting of serious workplace violations and harm “applicants” for U and T nonimmigrant status, in violation of congressional intent of the Victims of Trafficking and Violence Protection Act (VTVPA). The commenter elaborated, discussing various implications of the IFR for U and T visa applicants that the commenter said DHS did not consider. The commenter remarked on unnecessary and unjustified paperwork burdens, a lack of clarity around privacy protections, and “bad policy” set forth in the IFR that undoes the victim and witness protection scheme set forth in the VTVPA, triggering adverse immigration consequences, “intolerable” abuses against individual alien workers, and harms to all U.S. workers.</P>
                    <P>A commenter expressed concern about the IFR's lack of privacy and confidentiality protections associated with the registration requirement. According to the commenter, this deficiency could enable abusers to leverage survivors' fears to prevent their access to the immigration system. Multiple commenters remarked that abusers might manipulate, control, coerce, and intimidate survivors by interfering with the registration process, preventing access to necessary technology, obstructing biometrics appointments, or hindering access to legal assistance. The commenter reported that their organization has observed clients struggling to determine whether they need to register and experiencing fear and hesitancy around the registration process.</P>
                    <P>
                        A few commenters similarly described the existing barriers survivors 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39263"/>
                        experience while submitting requests for immigration benefits, such as: language access; the length and complexity of the forms; ability to gather the necessary documents and evidence to support their claims; and geographical barriers to accessing government offices and legal, community, and financial services. The commenters suggested that the IFR would exacerbate the barriers, fear, and confusion this population already faces. Another commenter added that the broad scope and lack of clear delineation regarding who must register may inadvertently create opportunities for fraudulent actors to exploit vulnerable populations. The commenter stated that despite DHS's ongoing initiatives to combat immigration services scams, in the absence of explicit guidance, individuals may fall prey to scams promising assistance with the registration process, leading to financial loss and further misinformation.
                    </P>
                    <P>Multiple commenters remarked that domestic or sexual violence perpetrators could manipulate the registration process by erroneously registering survivors or interfering with a survivor's ability to complete registration, including attending biometrics appointments, thus exposing them to criminalization and enforcement. Other commenters noted that abusers might also prevent survivors from carrying proof of registration, exposing them to enforcement under section 264(e) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(e). A commenter recommended that any registration process provide flexibility for survivors to correct inconsistencies and consider how victimization may impact compliance before conducting enforcement actions based on section 264(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1306(a).</P>
                    <P>A commenter noted that immigration-related abuse is a common tactic used by abusers and perpetrators of crime to maintain power and control over victims, citing the National Center for Domestic and Sexual Violence's “Immigrant Power and Control Wheel.” The commenter explained that survivors often depend on abusive partners or employers for their immigration status, housing, transportation, income, and access to technology, creating dependencies that abusers intentionally maintain to isolate and control survivors. The commenter stated that these vulnerabilities are compounded in today's digital environment, citing research indicating that 80 percent of stalking victims report being stalked using technology, with over one-third targeted by current or former intimate partners. The commenter said that phones, apps, and digital tools have become weapons for monitoring, harassing, and interfering with survivors' efforts to escape or seek help. The commenter reasoned that the IFR's registration requirements could be manipulated by abusers who might block internet access, withhold necessary documents, prevent survivors from attending biometrics appointments, or deliberately mislead survivors about compliance requirements, causing them to unknowingly fall out of compliance. The commenter wrote that without survivor-specific safeguards, the registration process could become another tool of coercion, placing survivors at further risk of removal or harm. The commenter recommended that if DHS does not rescind the IFR, it should include clear provisions allowing survivors to correct abuser-generated inconsistencies, explain delays or gaps, and avoid penalties for noncompliance resulting from abuse. The commenter emphasized that no survivor should face immigration consequences because of coercion, fear, or manipulation by someone who has already caused them harm.</P>
                    <P>A commenter also stated that the requirement to possess proof of registration at all times would disproportionately harm survivors of violence who may be fleeing abuse or whose abusers control their documentation as a means of maintaining power and control. The commenter urged DHS to consider factors such as emergencies, victimization, and health conditions in its enforcement actions related to 8 U.S.C. 1304(e).</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS notes the IFR and this rule have not changed the registration requirements established by Congress. This rulemaking establishes a general registration option available to all unregistered aliens regardless of immigration status to improve registration outcomes for certain groups of aliens.
                    </P>
                    <P>The INA requires that, with limited exceptions, most aliens in the United States who remain in the United States for 30 days or longer must apply for registration and fingerprinting. Prior to the IFR, most aliens already complied with the registration requirements, however, the IFR and this final rule fill a gap in the regulatory regime by prescribing a registration form for unregistered aliens.</P>
                    <P>The IFR and this final rule have not changed any current procedures or processes related to aliens who are eligible for and recipients of victim-based immigration relief (specifically, VAWA self-petitioners as well as applicants and petitioners for, and recipients of, T and U nonimmigrant status). Also, the IFR and this final rule have not changed the procedures or practices of DHS agencies to protect against the unauthorized disclosure of personally identifiable information that it collects, uses, or maintains.</P>
                    <P>DHS notes that if a registered alien does not have immediate possession of his or her evidence of registration, DHS agencies have access to DHS databases to confirm whether an alien satisfies the registration requirement.</P>
                    <P>
                        DHS recognizes that the immigration processes can be complex and that requestors, including registrants, may still be at risk of becoming victims of scams or fraud. DHS encourages requestors to use the information on the USCIS website to avoid becoming victims of common scams, fraud, and misconduct.
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             See USCIS, “Scams, Fraud, and Misconduct,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/scams-fraud-and-misconduct/scams-fraud-and-misconduct</E>
                             (last visited June 23, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Other Populations</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters stated that individuals with limited English proficiency or limited access to technology or financial access barriers would be exposed to punitive ramifications due to inability to file the Form G-325R electronically. Another commenter also said that the IFR makes no mention of its impact on “noncitizens” with limited English proficiency or other language barriers, and noted that the IFR does not account for any translation of the registration forms or instructions.
                    </P>
                    <P>One of the commenters voiced concern that those with limited English proficiency might inadvertently register when not required to do so, potentially triggering erroneous immigration enforcement actions. Other commenters stated that the rule fails to mention its impact on “noncitizens” with limited English proficiency or other language barriers, nor does it account for any translation of Form G-325R or the rule itself.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS notes that this rulemaking has not changed the requirement that all aliens 18 years or older in the United States who are required to register must at all times carry with them and have in their personal possession any certificate of alien registration or alien registration receipt card issued to them. These are statutory requirements under section 264(e) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(e). In addition, this rulemaking does impose 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39264"/>
                        any new registration or fingerprinting obligations separate from the obligations already contained in the INA.
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS acknowledges there are costs to registrants associated with the statutory requirements to register. These costs include, but are not limited to, time burden to submit biometrics, and travel costs to go to an ASC. As a result of comments received, a more detailed breakdown of the costs associated with this rule is in section VI, the Statutory and Regulatory Requirements section of this preamble.</P>
                    <P>
                        USCIS also established a dedicated website with information on the ARR and an ARR Tool that may help aliens determine whether they must register.
                        <SU>21</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS also notes Form G-325R is a digital form that can be easily accessed through an internet browser or a person's cell phone. Additionally, public libraries and other private and public institutions can provide access to the internet.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>21</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS, “Alien Registration Requirement,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/alienregistration</E>
                             (last updated May 6, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS notes that USCIS' immigration forms are offered and must be submitted in English.
                        <SU>22</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         USCIS also provides a PDF copy of Form G-325R for aliens to access before completing the form.
                        <SU>23</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         An alien may also use the assistance of an interpreter for reading the instructions and questions on the new registration form. If the alien uses an interpreter, he or she must provide the contact information of that interpreter and upload the interpreter's certification and signature when applying for registration.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>22</SU>
                             The exception to this general rule is the Form I-9, Employment Eligibility Verification, which is offered in the Spanish language for employers in Puerto Rico only, and is not filed with USCIS. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS, “I-9, Employment Eligibility Verification,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/i-9</E>
                             (last updated Apr. 2, 2025). USCIS also has a Multilingual Resource Center, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/tools/multilingual-resource-center,</E>
                             and a website in Spanish, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/es/herramientas/centro-de-recursos-multilingues.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>23</SU>
                             23 See USCIS, “G-325R, Biographic Information (Registration),” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/forms/all-forms/g-325r</E>
                             (last updated Apr. 11, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Impact on Aliens' Legal Services</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters stated that as providers of comprehensive legal services to refugees and displaced persons, the IFR would adversely impact their client communities as well as stretch their resources, hindering their mission to expand access to protection, lasting safety, and due process for aliens and displaced persons. Another commenter stated that confusion surrounding the IFR would cause them to expend more resources to investigate which of their clients would require registration. A commenter remarked that their organization has been receiving numerous inquiries from community members asking whether they need to register or not, creating a strain on their resources that could be better utilized helping people to apply for immigration relief.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter said that they would need to screen every individual they encounter, potentially changing intake processes, risk assessment, advisal, and training to determine registration applicability for clients and their family members. The commenter noted that providing competent legal advice would require assessing the IFR's constitutional implications, necessitating expert review and supervision for each case. The commenter remarked that these changes would require additional staff hours, diverting resources from serving more clients. The commenter anticipated clients facing fines and criminal penalties that would require legal advice and rapid response review. Additionally, the commenter expressed concern about potential “notario” misrepresentation and abuse, which could defraud individuals acting under faulty registration advice. The commenter concluded this would significantly reduce their capacity to provide services and pursue permanent relief for immigrants and asylum seekers they would normally serve. A commenter said that since providers are overwhelmed across the country due to funding cuts and increased demand for services, it is unlikely that they and other nonprofit organizations would have capacity to assist with registration under the rule, which is needed for many aliens with limited English proficiency, raising a host of fairness concerns.</P>
                    <P>A commenter similarly wrote that the IFR places heavy administrative, time, and financial burdens on organizations serving immigrants, as they must educate community members and help navigate complex compliance requirements. The commenter described determining registration eligibility as “extremely time-consuming” and difficult for individuals who may lack necessary records. The commenter contextualized the IFR within numerous other immigration policy changes, citing alleged confusion created by actions revoking certain grants of parole. The commenter stated that proper notice is impossible if the Administration changes status determinations in real time without resolving ambiguities, concluding that the IFR's requirements could change without due consideration of impacts on immigrant communities and supporting organizations.</P>
                    <P>A commenter voiced concern that the IFR would be burdensome and limit their ability to fulfill their mission of serving alien communities in New York. The commenter expressed that there is widespread confusion about the rule among immigrant communities, stating that individuals with various immigration statuses have raised questions about the rule's applicability to their particular situations. The commenter indicated that the complexity and rapid implementation of the IFR have created vulnerability to misinformation. According to the commenter, addressing this confusion requires extensive one-on-one consultation with their members, which exceeds their organization's capacity. The commenter stated that their legal team's experience has demonstrated both the complexity of determining registration requirements and the significant barriers to understanding and complying with the rule. The commenter explained, for instance, that determining whether an alien has previously registered requires knowing whether the alien has filed a Form I-485 or Form I-765 and knowing the outcome of such application. The commenter further noted that clients could reasonably be confused about whether they had registered if the client had previously submitted extensive documentation to USCIS that does not qualify as registration under the regulations. The commenter said that for some aliens, the only way to verify their registration status and obtain the documents they must now carry by law would be through a Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) request—which is a multi-step process that can take months, consumes their organization's staff time, and requires maintaining contact. Other commenters also remarked that the IFR would lead to an increase in FOIA requests due to a lack of clarity about who is required to complete the new registration process and would place burdens on immigration attorneys to file FOIA requests.</P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter stated that the IFR's complexity and inconsistency pose significant challenges to their staff, who cannot confidently advise members on registration requirements in group settings such as committee meetings and workshops that often include dozens of attendees. According to the commenter, the confusing nature of the registration requirement, coupled with its nearly universal impact, undermines their model of providing community education and know-your-rights presentations. The commenter stated 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39265"/>
                        that with tens of thousands of members, their legal team lacks the capacity to provide individual advice to all potentially affected individuals. A commenter stated that the rule's unclear requirements and lack of a concerted rollout or public education on the part of USCIS impose tremendous burdens on its organization and its members. The commenter said this also creates an environment ripe for fraud.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter said that it would be forced to prioritize helping clients obtain registration documents quickly to avoid enforcement actions, adding that its staff would have to devote more time and resources abiding by such a rule, which would divert capacity to assist with other vital legal services and pathways to relief.</P>
                    <P>A commenter wrote that Michigan professionals who serve survivors of domestic and sexual violence would be “left in the lurch” about what could happen to survivors when they register, adding that without being able to safely provide guidance and avoid unauthorized practice of law, such advocates would struggle to support their clients to stay safe and to keep their children safe. The commenter also stated that Michigan police officers would struggle to secure supportive witnesses in their investigations because survivors would be so fearful of removal that they would not come forward.</P>
                    <P>A commenter voiced concern about the IFR's impact on organizations like themselves, stating that their organization has already experienced a significant increase in requests for information, legal advice, and assistance from existing clients regarding the IFR's registration and proof requirements. Additionally, the commenter reported increased inquiries and concerns from the broader community, which has interfered with their core function of providing immigration legal services. The commenter explained that the complexity and “inconsistencies” of the rule, coupled with its nearly universal impact, mean that even existing clients who may be considered “registered” would need legal advice to confidently make that determination. The commenter added that this is particularly true for clients with pending applications or those in mixed-status households where there is greater ambiguity about who needs to comply with the process. The commenter raised concerns about the IFR's impact on their organization's funding and operations. The commenter explained that they receive a significant portion of their funding from grants and contracts that require specific deliverables of immigration legal services, with some contracts paid on a “per case” basis and others paid in cycles based on reporting requirements. The commenter said that advising and assisting existing clients and community members around the new rule would not qualify under these grants as deliverables, since those grants fund other specific services. The commenter warned that failure to comply with current grant metrics and reporting requirements due to the diversion of resources to address the IFR may result in the loss of remaining funds under those grants. The commenter expressed concern that this could jeopardize the organization's ability to apply for future grants, potentially leading to staff layoffs and other cost-cutting measures, ultimately reducing their ability to assist existing and future clients.</P>
                    <P>A commenter wrote that the immigrant registration requirement would present a conflict of interest for their organization and the defense attorneys they work with because it would force attorneys to advise “noncitizens” to comply with a law that likely violates the Fifth Amendment right against self-incrimination. The commenter further said that since failure to register can be prosecuted as a misdemeanor, it would be more difficult to accurately advise on the risks and benefits of criminal case dispositions and would complicate plea negotiations. Another commenter said that the IFR creates moral issues for attorneys, who are not going to want to advise their clients not to register because of the associated legal obligations.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS understands that organizations may experience an increase in inquiries from client communities, or an expansion of an organization's services to include additional assistance about the alien registration requirement. However, this is often the case with new processes and is not unique to this IFR. DHS disagrees with the characterization that the IFR and alien registration presents legal organizations and defense attorneys with a conflict of interest or moral issues. Legal services providers would presumably advise their clients about the directives of section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, as they would any other legal obligation.
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS also notes that the IFR and this final rule have not changed the registration requirements and related obligations established by Congress many decades ago. The statute requires that, with limited exceptions, all aliens 14 years or older who were not registered and fingerprinted, if required, who remain in the United States for 30 days or longer, must apply for registration and fingerprinting. These rulemakings fill a gap in DHS's regulatory regime by establishing a general registration option available to all aliens, regardless of status. DHS believes that this option may improve registration outcomes for certain groups of aliens.</P>
                    <P>
                        USCIS also established a dedicated website with information on the ARR and an ARR Tool that may help aliens determine whether they must register.
                        <SU>24</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>24</SU>
                             See USCIS, “Alien Registration Requirement,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/alienregistration</E>
                             (last updated May 6, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As part of this rulemaking, DHS is also requesting comments on proposed amendments to prescribe certain existing forms with information collection and thorough biometric-based screening and vetting for use by aliens to improve registration outcomes for certain populations of aliens while increasing efficiency and reducing burden for the public and the government. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Section V.A of this preamble.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Impact on the Immigration System and Government Operations</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Unclear Benefits to Enforcement Capabilities</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters said that the IFR fails to provide sufficient evidence demonstrating that the current system is inadequately enforced or that the proposed rule would provide a benefit for enforcement effectiveness or efficiency, public safety, or national security. Multiple other commenters described the rule as unnecessary, highly costly, and ineffective, with several commenters calling for its rescission. A commenter expressed concern that the IFR does not meaningfully distinguish between different immigration statuses, which could lead to confusion and duplicated registrations. A couple of commenters warned that similar registration policies were used during World War II and “consistently failed to enhance security.” A commenter described the IFR as “addressing a problem that does not exist.” A different commenter reasoned that perpetrators of serious crimes would not be likely to follow the registration requirement, writing that the similar NSEERS registration requirement imposed after September 11th was not productive and that there was no evidence of any terrorist identified through the program. Similarly, a commenter wrote that sweeping registries “don't make us safer.” The commenter stated that after September 11, 2001, a similar program 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39266"/>
                        (NSEERS) targeted Muslim immigrants and failed to produce a single terrorism conviction—while causing lasting harm. They added that true safety comes from trust and smart, targeted policies—not from a fear-based overreach. Another commenter expressed concern that the rule would consume vast amounts of resources for data likely to be of poor quality.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter said that the rule would press immigration authorities to detain more individuals based on the perception of noncompliance, including U.S. citizens, undermining public safety and wasting enforcement resources that should target legitimate security threats. The commenter articulated that the rule lacks evidence to justify the costs to benefit public safety, citing studies indicating that past uses of this section of immigration law do not provide such evidence. Some commenter said the rule would apply more resources to immigration enforcement by flooding courts with low-level administrative cases, which would divert resources away from prosecuting crimes against public safety, such as felonies and other serious crimes and limit agency resources on border enforcement, fraud prevention, and asylum adjudication. Another commenter said the rule's effects would be compounded for immigration enforcement officers in the field, who would be required to spend disproportionate time seeking out and reviewing registration documents rather than focusing on priority enforcement tasks, with consequences for national security and overall public safety.</P>
                    <P>A few commenters similarly wrote that it is unclear how the rule would significantly improve national security or law enforcement efficacy beyond existing measures. One of these commenters discussed the existing measures at both the State and Federal level to verify employment, driver's licenses, and legal status and cited research from the Migration Policy Institute to demonstrate that measures such as E-Verify and REAL ID are sufficient. A commenter stated that DHS already possesses registration and biometric data for most individuals it interacts with, and the background checks associated with the G-325R form replicate checks already done through visa, asylum, TPS, and employment authorization applications. The commenter stated that, rather than improving DHS's ability to identify threats, the rule may hamper enforcement by overloading systems with redundant data and discouraging cooperation from immigrant communities who fear retaliation for attempted compliance. A commenter similarly said that existing processes and systems already track individuals who interact with immigration agencies and there is no indication that current tracking mechanisms have left DHS unable to identify or apprehend individuals who pose real public safety or national security risks, making this “sweeping expansion” both unnecessary and inefficient. Similarly, another commenter urged the Department to focus on improving existing systems rather than creating unnecessary administrative complexities, while a different commenter described the registry requirement as an “unnecessary overhaul” of the immigration system.</P>
                    <P>One commenter expressed concern that the IFR would be impossible to enforce. Another commenter recommended that DHS ensure the proposed registration would not automatically trigger enforcement actions.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The IFR and final rule do not change current procedures but fill a gap in the regulatory regime by prescribing a general registration option available to all aliens regardless of their status and corresponding evidence as proof of that registration. The rule is expected to improve DHS law enforcement efficacy by providing more comprehensive information about the location of aliens in the United States to make it easier and safer for DHS to enforce the law. The increased compliance with fingerprinting requirements provides DHS with additional information about an alien's criminal record, including whether an alien is a known or suspected terrorist. DHS also notes that most aliens lawfully present in the United States are likely already registered. Finally, DHS notes that even if this rulemaking lacked a clear net positive effect on law enforcement efficacy, DHS would pursue this rulemaking consistent with DHS's duty to faithfully implement the alien registration requirements of the INA and the President's direction in E.O. 14159.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Government Cost and Misallocation of Government Resources</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters expressed concern regarding increased DHS costs arising from the IFR and described it as misallocation of government resources. For example, some commenters opposed the use of tax dollars to fund the policing and deportation of individuals fleeing conditions they attributed to U.S. foreign policy. Another commenter recommended against using resources to fund policing practices they viewed as invasive. A couple of commenters wrote that government resources should be directed toward ensuring basic human needs.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that the rule would create an expensive, bloated bureaucracy in an effort to criminalize neighbors if they fall behind on their paperwork and constitutes a waste of resources given that the government already has all the information it needs.</P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that DHS would need to create a whole new system to keep track of these registrations, creating an undue burden. A commenter stated that, as currently written, any LPR who takes even a 1-hour trip to Mexico could be subject to having to tender their Green Card upon each re-entry and be re-fingerprinted, leading to an “absurd result” and waste of time and resources.</P>
                    <P>One commenter wrote that it would not be an efficient use of resources to institute this registration process, describing it as “unrelated to the general welfare of Americans nor to the provision of the benefits USCIS already administers.”</P>
                    <P>Other commenters said the rule's criminal penalties for failing to comply with registration requirements would create a high cost for civil and criminal law enforcement. Describing the difficulty authorities faced in effectively carrying out the NSEERS program and its financial costs, a commenter wrote that this history and the lack of a clear and manageable method of implementing the various aspects of the program should be informative to the IFR and its potential financial implications, as the impending registration requirement would require multiple agencies and authorities to troubleshoot the various aspects of the program. Some commenters wrote that the IFR would lead to more litigation and abuse, with an individual commenter expressing concern about “legal fees” DHS might incur and become a “waste of taxpayer money.”</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         With this IFR and final rule, as always, DHS strives to be fair and efficiently execute the laws established by Congress. This rulemaking addresses a gap in the existing regulatory regime and ensures that there is a way for all aliens, regardless of their immigration status, to comply with their duty under the law and to improve overall registration outcomes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To address the resource and efficiency concerns of the comments, the Form G-325R process is entirely electronic. Anyone issued Form I-94 or I-94W upon their admission or parole to the United States is already registered. LPRs 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39267"/>
                        who reenter the United States after a temporary absence abroad have generally already been registered as they are in possession of a Form I-551 (“a green card”) and are generally not seeking admission to the United States. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 101(a)(13)(C), 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(13)(C).
                    </P>
                    <P>The statute requires an alien to provide fingerprints, unless waived, as part of the registration process, and in general, USCIS has not seen any significant delays or inefficiencies in biometric collection services. Section VI.B.3 of this preamble provides further discussion on the estimated cost to the agency of this rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>To the extent that the commenters suggest that DHS should not fully administer and enforce the alien registration requirements of the INA, DHS respectfully disagrees. Furthermore, the rule does not obligate additional enforcement of the existing statute DHS will administer, enforce, and faithfully execute these laws consistent with DHS's statutory duties under the INA, and as directed by the President, which includes defending against challenges from those who would prefer that the government not enforce these laws. DHS does not believe that defending the faithful implementation of immigration laws, as passed by Congress, against legal challenges is a waste of government resources, but instead is part of the government's mandate.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few commenters expressed general concerns that the IFR would support government corruption and inappropriate usage of the immigration system. One of the commenters wrote that the requirement could lead to an increase in officers within the immigration system abusing their position of authority and that the government is trying to appear effective without being effective.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         As part of E.O. 14159, President Trump made it a priority to enforce the registration requirement in accordance with the law, and to publicize information about the duty of aliens described in section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, to register and be fingerprinted (if required), as well as the related requirements to carry such evidence of registration and notify DHS of changes of address.
                    </P>
                    <P>The goal of the IFR and final rule is to faithfully implement the alien registration requirements of the INA. DHS seeks to better ensure that aliens understand their duty under the law and have a path to satisfy that statutory duty through the new general registration process and form. Speculation about potential future misuse of authority or other malfeasance by government officials is beyond the scope of this rulemaking. This rulemaking does not set enforcement policy and cannot reasonably be expected to comprehensively account for such activity.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Duplicating Existing Processes and Exacerbating Backlog</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters wrote that the IFR does not adequately address how DHS would handle the massive influx of registrations and the associated administrative and enforcement costs of the rule, as well as impacts to the existing backlog and other essential DHS functions. Many commenters also expressed concern that the new registration system would further burden an overwhelmed system and exacerbate the USCIS backlog, resulting in negative effects, such as loss of protection, delays in visa and petition processing, and interruption in employment authorization.
                    </P>
                    <P>Many commenters similarly stated that requiring millions of people to register and enforcing proof of registration would increase administrative costs for DOJ and USCIS, including costs for personnel, training, and materials; they said the latter agency already has severe backlogs in processing several benefit categories. Likewise, a commenter stated that creating, maintaining, and enforcing compliance with a massive registration regime would be extraordinarily costly and require new bureaucracy, increased surveillance, and extensive enforcement operations to act on the data collected, thus overwhelming DHS resources and layering on to existing backlogs. A commenter stated that the significant challenges USCIS already faces in processing Form I-765 filings would only become more acute if resources are diverted to process millions of Form G-325Rs, thus increasing current EAD processing backlogs and harming workers, businesses, and the overall economy in the process. A few commenters encouraged DHS to focus on other priorities, including improving efficiency within the existing system, such as reducing the case backlog, instead of expanding alien registration requirements.</P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that DHS does not have the necessary resources for increased logistics, staffing, training, and developing and maintaining a system, adding that if DHS does currently have the funding, the government could put it to better use in other departments within the government ” to improve services, staffing, training, etc.” A commenter also noted that the IFR would create unnecessary administrative burden for DHS employees during a period of Federal job reductions. Several commenters critiqued the rule for its lack of discussion on the current backlog at USCIS or how the rule would affect this backlog. Commenters expressed concern that USCIS is already experiencing significant backlogs in processing various applications, including asylum applications, Special Immigrant Juvenile (SIJ) status petitions, and other immigration benefits. Commenters also critiqued the IFR for its lack of discussion on the potential costs of adding “significant” additional workload to the overburdened state of USCIS, describing the ongoing economic damage of the backlog across benefit categories.</P>
                    <P>One of the commenters wrote that the government collects extensive biometric and biographic data through multiple agencies. Some commenters stated that many aliens are already registered, including individuals who have been granted or applied for lawful permanent residence, received a Form I-94 when arriving in the United States, were issued an EAD, or were issued a nonimmigrant or immigrant visa prior to their most recent arrival in the United States. Similarly, a commenter said relevant information is already collected via longstanding forms such as I-94, I-485, I-589, and I-765. The commenter stated that this rule fragments the system further, confusing both applicants and government agencies, creating overlap with existing databases and identification mechanisms, thus directly contradicting calls for immigration system streamlining. The commenter urged DHS to develop registration mechanisms that integrate with existing forms and databases, rather than creating redundant and confusing parallel systems.</P>
                    <P>Multiple commenters similarly expressed concern with the requirement for asylum applicants, Temporary Protected Status (TPS) holders, and others who have applied for humanitarian benefits not currently listed as a registration form, to submit the G-325R. A commenter noted that this duplication places a significant and unnecessary burden on DHS employees at a time when the Federal Government is cutting jobs.</P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter stated that numerous immigration forms that require biometrics upon receipt as part of the form's application process are not listed as acceptable forms of registration, writing that this omission shows that this type of mandatory registration is outdated and unnecessary. For example, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39268"/>
                        the commenter said Form I-589 is not included on the list of accepted forms, but as part of the asylum process, all applicants must disclose extensive biographical and demographic information on Form I-589 and also complete the biometrics process. Therefore, the commenter reasoned that to consider asylum applicants as “not registered” is unreasonable and arbitrary and that the same argument would hold for a variety of different immigration forms and application processes, including U and T visas, SIJ, and VAWA relief. The commenter concluded that to force asylum, U visa, T visa, SIJ, and VAWA applicants to register using the G-325R would be a waste of government resources and time since the government already has the same information that is being asked for in the G-325R.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS has an obligation to faithfully execute the laws established by Congress, including the alien registration requirement. The statute requires most aliens who remain in the United States for 30 days or longer to apply for registration and with some exceptions based on age or nonimmigrant status, be fingerprinted. DHS, with the IFR and this final rule, has not created or modified the statutory requirements of an alien's duty to register with the government under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302.
                    </P>
                    <P>In general, the IFR has not caused any significant processing delays or an increase of backlogs on other immigration benefits processed by USCIS. DHS purposefully streamlined the process by which unregistered aliens may register and comply with the law as required by the INA to benefit aliens and USCIS. The Form G-325R process is entirely electronic. Unlike paper filings, an unregistered alien submits information through the electronic process and is automatically prompted to provide necessary information to complete his or her registration. An alien obtains evidence of registration (USCIS Proof of Alien G-325R Registration) almost instantly after applying for registration or after providing biometrics, if required. In the alien's myUSCIS account, he or she will be able to download and print a PDF version of the evidence of registration (USCIS Proof of Alien G-325R Registration), which is of significance in light of the requirement in section 264(e) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(e), that all aliens 18 years or older in the United States who are required to register must at all times carry with them and have in their personal possession any certificate of alien registration or alien registration receipt card issued to them. The electronic processing of the Form G-325R eliminates manual intake processing that includes opening envelopes of a mailed submission, checking forms against acceptance criteria, and scanning the documents to convert them into electronic format or otherwise entering form responses into USCIS systems. Manual intake processing is more time-consuming and burdensome for the agency and could lead to delays in processing and data integrity issues. The electronic processing of Form G-325R has enhanced automated services for unregistered aliens and USCIS. This process has not created any significant processing delays and has not required reallocation of resources from other workloads in USCIS.</P>
                    <P>At this time, under 8 CFR 264.1(a) and (b), aliens who have filed the Form I-589, Application for Asylum and Withholding of Removal, and other forms that are not enumerated in the existing regulations, are not considered to be registered. DHS notes that Form I-766, Employment Authorization Document, is listed as evidence of registration at 8 CFR 264.1(b). Many asylees, asylum applicants, TPS applicants, and other aliens have received such evidence of registration.</P>
                    <P>
                        DHS is aware that there are areas of the existing regulations that could be improved, including amending the list of forms prescribed as registration forms in 8 CFR 264.1(a) and the list of forms constituted as evidence of registration in 8 CFR 264.1(b). As part of this final rule, DHS is requesting comments on various ways to amend the DHS regulation to improve implementation of the registration requirement under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section V of this preamble.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Impact on Communities and Public Safety</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Impacts and Implications for Law Enforcement and Participation in Community Safety</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters expressed concerns that the rule would undermine public safety and law enforcement effectiveness. A commenter stated that communities across the country rely on a strong relationship with law enforcement officers; they said the IFR threatens that relationship due to the increased threat or perception of wrongful arrests, which would lead to a downward spiral of eroding trust impacting both U.S. citizens and aliens. Similarly, a different commenter expressed concern that enforcement agencies would be unable to distinguish between immigrants of different registration statuses and that there would be an increase in false arrests. With regard to trust, commenters wrote that the policy would damage community trust in law enforcement, subject both U.S citizens and lawfully present aliens, including LPRs, to wrongful arrests and detentions, and place additional strain on the immigration legal system without achieving meaningful public safety benefits. One commenter wrote that the current administration has already engaged in “haphazard and aggressive pattern of enforcement actions,” and that “this IFR will only fuel the alarming enforcement practices commonplace in this administration.” In connection with their stated concerns about public safety, some commenters wrote that aliens commit crime at lower rates than U.S. citizens.
                    </P>
                    <P>Separate commenters wrote that the policy would pave the way for widespread abuse without improving community safety, with others adding that it would impede cooperation with law enforcement, make communities less safe, and also undermine officer safety. As an alternative to the IFR, a commenter recommended concentrating on improved coordination with local law enforcement agencies on tailored cooperation and focusing resources on the most serious national security and public safety threats, rather than registering and pursuing millions of aliens indiscriminately. A different commenter suggested that policymakers should pursue immigration policies that benefit the economy and increase public safety and prioritize the removal of legitimate public safety threats over individuals without a criminal record.</P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter wrote that the IFR is expected to divert law enforcement from essential duties. The commenter warned that local officers directed to enforce the requirement to carry evidence of registration would need to engage in “complex interactions with considerable fourth and fifth amendment entanglements without appropriate funding for training in immigration requirements,” reducing overall public safety efficacy. With regard to police, a commenter stated that they are not trained in immigration law and may struggle to differentiate if someone is properly registered, potentially leading to false charges and litigation. The commenter cited a 2008 report from the Goldwater Institute stating that the effectiveness of the Maricopa County, Arizona Sheriff's Department “was compromised by misplaced priorities,” including immigration enforcement.
                        <PRTPAGE P="39269"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that law enforcement officials themselves have expressed concern about the impact of immigration enforcement on community trust, in particular when people are unwilling to or fearful of calling the police, report victimization, or cooperate as witnesses, it increases the vulnerability of everyone in the city to victimization. A commenter said that because of the severe penalties for not having registration, immigrants would be reluctant to have any contact with law enforcement officials, even if they are victims or witnessed a crime.</P>
                    <P>Many commenters stated that mandatory registration might deter individuals from seeking essential services, seeking help, or reporting crimes. For example, one of those commenters cited research that, per the commenter, showed that Hispanic community members were 30 percent less likely to report crimes during the implementation of Secure Communities, a 2008 program that automatically forwarded fingerprints of all arrestees to DHS. The same commenter noted that a review of local cooperation in Federal enforcement programs found that “none reduced violent crime [and] on the contrary, two of the arrangements significantly increased a person's risk of experiencing violent crime.” Another commenter wrote that the IFR makes communities less safe by creating a hostile environment for immigrants, affecting both immigrants and U.S. citizens. They said this could result in over-policing and stated that mandatory registration might deter “noncitizens” from reporting crimes, therefore undermining public safety and allowing crimes to go unreported, which impacts the broader community.</P>
                    <P>Expressing agreement with this viewpoint, another commenter wrote that there would be a “dramatic” spike in detention and deportation. They also wrote that USCIS fails to consider the impact of arbitrary and discriminatory searches, seizures, detentions, and deportations premised on the rule and the impacts on “noncitizens” and U.S. citizens alike. Numerous commenters expressed concern that the IFR would harm or instill fear in immigrant communities. A commenter stated that the rule may cause aliens who are already legally registered using other registration forms to be increasingly fearful and uncertain. A commenter wrote that fear among alien communities is being exacerbated by the administration's “threatening” rhetoric and by the tactics employed in immigration enforcement. Numerous commenters raised concerns that fear stemming from the IFR would lead to deterioration of trust in the immigration system and potential chilling effects on aliens' access or willingness to engage with public services, health care, the legal system, or legal immigration processes. For example, a commenter discussed potential fears that registering could expose individuals to future enforcement actions, deportation proceedings, or discriminatory treatment, and stated that the rule exacerbates fears, rather than addressing legitimate concerns transparently. Other commenters stated that the IFR would generally discourage civic participation or limit access to social services, because aliens are being treated with suspicion, rather than as valued members of society.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS disagrees that the IFR negatively impacts public safety and participation in community safety, puts an undue burden on law enforcement, or would divert them from performing their essential duties. The alien registration requirement is not new. For the last 85 years, the laws of the United States have required most aliens present in the United States who remain for 30 days or longer to register and, with some exceptions based on age or nonimmigrant status, be fingerprinted. The requirement that aliens register and update their address with the government within 10 days of moving, and the requirement that aliens issued evidence of registration carry such evidence on their person, were also established by Congress in the middle of the 20th century.
                        <SU>25</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS, with the IFR and this final rule, has not created these requirements or modified the duties established by Congress for aliens. Similarly, this IFR did not create or modify the criminal penalties established by Congress many decades ago that apply when aliens fail to meet their registration and related obligations. This rule is consistent with E.O. 14159 and the alien registration requirements in sections 262 through 265 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302 through 1305, and establishes a general registration option available to all unregistered aliens regardless of immigration status. It is within Congress' control and its policy choice to change the statutory registration requirement.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>25</SU>
                             The Alien Registration Act of 1940, also known as the Smith Act, required all aliens in the United States beyond 30 days to apply to register and to be fingerprinted. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Public Law 76-670, 54 Stat. 670 (June 28, 1940).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Furthermore, the rule does not obligate additional enforcement of the existing statute. The rule also does not oblige the removal of any unauthorized alien from the country. The rule establishes that those aliens that have not registered through other means can now register using Form G-325R. As explained in the IFR, the rule is expected to improve DHS law enforcement efficacy and to provide more comprehensive information about the location of aliens in the United States. Further, it will make it easier and safer for DHS to enforce the law and increase alien compliance with statutory fingerprinting requirements. These biometrics would provide the Department with additional information about an alien's criminal record, including whether the alien is a known or suspected terrorist.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Impacts on Communities</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters stated that registration programs do not make communities safer but instead undermine community wellbeing, harm the community, drive families into hiding, and weaken the community instead of strengthening it. While expressing opposition, a commenter generally wrote that the rule would “attack our community.”
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters further wrote that the rule would make people afraid to send their children to school, leave their homes to go to work, and contribute to their communities. For example, a commenter, stating that they are a teacher, said that a public registry of immigrants would make it impossible for their students to attend school every day, and they expressed fear for their own safety if the registry were implemented.</P>
                    <P>Multiple commenters condemned the proposed registration process as unjust and infuriating, while others said it would destabilize communities, with another criticizing the policy as dangerous, saying that paperwork errors are harming innocent peoples' lives. Commenters added that registration programs do not make communities safer but instead would lead to civic disengagement and community divestment. Expressing a similar opinion, a commenter wrote that the IFR would impose unclear and punitive bureaucracy on immigrant workers and establishes a one-size-fits-all regulatory structure that does not differentiate between high-risk and low-risk individuals or those with legal protections and those without. They said this approach encourages disengagement from lawful processes, undermining both public safety and economic participation.</P>
                    <P>
                        Commenters wrote that people deserve to live safely in their communities, with a commenter saying immigrants are integral to all corners of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39270"/>
                        life, including their neighborhood. A commenter generally stated that they oppose the alien registration as it would be a disservice to the American people to “implement such a task.”
                    </P>
                    <P>Referring to personal experience, a commenter stated they live in a city with many aliens who contribute to the economy. They expressed concern about the potential separation of families and loved ones due to the new process, which they regarded as unjust. A commenter wrote that with their 45 years of experience in fostering learning and intercultural community, they recognize the widespread harm that would result if the IFR were implemented. Expressing opposition and without specifics, another commenter wrote that the rule is a step deeper into fascism and would hurt communities and the country at-large.</P>
                    <P>Commenters wrote that they value immigrants as important members of their communities and support their ability to remain in the United States while navigating the lengthy and complex citizenship process.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         This rulemaking has not changed the existing statutory registration requirements established by Congress. For many decades, the laws of the United States have required most aliens present in the United States who remain for 30 days or longer to register, and with some exceptions based on age or nonimmigrant status, be fingerprinted. The statute further requires that all aliens 18 years or older in the United States who are required to register must at all times carry with them and have in their personal possession any certificate of alien registration or alien registration receipt card issued to them. Most aliens in the United States already complied with the alien registration requirement prior to the publication of the IFR and related information collection. The IFR fills a gap in the DHS's regulatory regime by prescribing a registration form available to all aliens regardless of their immigration status and corresponding evidence as proof of that registration. DHS believes that this general registration option may improve registration outcomes for certain groups of aliens.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Impact on Academic Communities</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         With regard to university communities, some commenters wrote that student enrollment would be affected by the rule, with one of those citing research highlighting the impact of restrictive immigration on education. Another commenter said the United States is a top destination for individuals seeking to build skills and engage in intellectual exchange, adding that “noncitizen” students, graduates, and researchers enhance the U.S. workforce, economic competitiveness, and global leadership. The commenter wrote that on college campuses, both short- and long-term visitors enrich learning, advance knowledge, drive innovation, and offer fresh perspectives that benefit communities and the nation. Further, they wrote that the registration requirement could discourage immigrant populations, including immigrant students, scholars, and workers, from enrolling or seeking employment at U.S. higher education institutions. They continued, saying that this reduction in participation would negatively impact U.S. innovation and research, harming global competitiveness. The commenter said that countries with more predictable and readily intelligible immigration systems would have an advantage in recruiting top talent, contributing to recent trends that see international students and graduates choosing competitor countries over the United States. Additionally, they remarked that it would affect surrounding communities that rely on the economic and social contributions of students, faculty, and staff. They concluded that the United States risks losing both immediate consumer spending and long-term intellectual and social contributions from “noncitizen” communities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS, with the IFR and final rule, has not changed the existing statutory registration requirements established by Congress for aliens. This longstanding statute has always provided that most aliens over the age of 14 who remain in the United States for 30 days or longer must apply for registration and to be fingerprinted before the expiration of the 30 days. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 262, 8 U.S.C. 1302.
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS notes that many aliens in the United States have already registered, as required by law. Any alien who was issued an immigrant or nonimmigrant visa and at his or her most recent arrival was admitted into the United States using that visa is registered. This includes aliens who are nonimmigrant students or exchange visitors.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Legal Issues and Statutory Provisions</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. General Legal Authority and Legality of the IFR</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters discussed and compared alien registration under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, to NSEERS, a program implemented after 9/11, stating that past attempts to enforce similar policies led to the disproportionate targeting, detention and deportation of U.S. residents, and increased discrimination.
                        <SU>26</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For example, a commenter remarked that while NSEERS rarely resulted in criminal prosecution, prosecution is a major component of this IFR. Commenters also stated that NSEERS led to prolific racial, ethnic, and religious discrimination and many legally questionable outcomes, including possible First and Fourteenth Amendment and civil rights violations. A commenter remarked that NSEERS resulted in over 13,000 people being placed in removal proceedings, yet produced no convictions for terrorism, contrary to the purported purpose of the program. Comparing NSEERS to the IFR, a commenter stated that an Office of Inspector General report in 2012 found that the NSEERS was ineffective and duplicative of existing, more reliable methods of information gathering. The commenter stated that the IFR's registration system would face similar problems, such as difficulty for registrants to adhere to requirements due to system outages and delays and other technical glitches and lack of access (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         technology and language barriers) in its online-only model.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>26</SU>
                             NSEERS was a special registration program implemented by the U.S. government and former INS after the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks, requiring nonimmigrants from selected countries to report to INS. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             67 FR 52584 (Aug. 12, 2002).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The IFR and this final rule serves a different purpose than NSEERS, which primarily established criteria for the registration of special groups under section 263 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1303. In contrast, the IFR merely identifies an additional registration form related to general registration requirements that already apply. The goal of the IFR and this final rule is to ensure that aliens have a straightforward way to satisfy their obligation to register. The Form G-325R is available to all unregistered aliens regardless of immigration status, religion, nationality, or race. Comments regarding technical difficulties with the online G-325R are addressed in more detail in section III.F.2.b of this preamble.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Legal Basis for the IFR</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter indicated that while the INA includes registration provisions, the IFR would exceed the law's intended administrative functions and would weaponize registration to effect mass removals. Another commenter wrote that the IFR exceeds sections 262 through 264 of the INA authorities, remarking that those provisions govern entry documentation, not retroactive registration of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39271"/>
                        individuals already residing in the United States. Many commenters criticized the IFR as an attempt to facilitate the removal of individuals under the Alien Enemies Act,
                        <SU>27</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         which they stated the President has invoked illegally or improperly, and for the purpose of terrorizing aliens with removal and criminal penalties, and removing and detaining individuals without due process solely based on national origin or perceived threats Another commenter wrote that the Department should not implement any registration requirements until the administration “complies with existing laws, rules, regulations, and court orders.”
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>27</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             50 U.S.C. 21 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS disagrees with the assertion that the intent of the IFR is to “weaponize registration to effect mass removals,” or to terrorize aliens or remove them without due process. This rule is also unrelated to the Alien Enemies Act. Section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, simply requires registration and fingerprinting of aliens in the United States for 30 days or more, which is well within this nation's sovereign prerogative to require. This rule addresses a gap in the existing regulatory regime and ensures that all aliens, regardless of their immigration status, have a way to comply with their duty under the law. The Department has a duty to implement the registration requirements and administer and enforce all the immigration laws of the United States.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Claims That the Rule Is Based on Outdated or Racist Laws</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters expressed their opposition to the registration of aliens by citing to examples of historic use of registration as an explanation as to why they believe that the IFR would result in violations and harm to the immigrant and U.S. communities, as well as the Federal Government, and why registration is an ineffective method of keeping the United States safe. For example, a commenter wrote that during World War II the Alien Registration Act of 1940 required aliens to register with the Federal Government or face imprisonment or fine. Specifically relating to World War II, commenters noted that by early 1942, the U.S. Department of Justice (DOJ) had arrested 2,192 Japanese, 1,393 German, and 264 Italian nationals, and that this law also led to the internment of over 120,000 individuals of Japanese descent, including U.S. citizens. Several commenters similarly expressed general concerns about the Department invoking the statute that led to internment use during World War II for modern immigration issues. Citing to research, commenters indicated that U.S. internments during World War II caused trauma with long-lasting effect, and were later found to not be supported by military necessity. Commenters wrote that racism, war hysteria, and failure of political leadership led to grave injustice to communities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter stated that while the Supreme Court originally upheld the practice of the imprisonment of thousands of Japanese residents during World War II in 
                        <E T="03">Korematsu</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">United States</E>
                         (1944),
                        <SU>28</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         it repudiated that decision in 
                        <E T="03">Trump</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Hawaii</E>
                         (2018),
                        <SU>29</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         when the first Trump administration cited to 
                        <E T="03">Korematsu</E>
                         in its defense in a lawsuit over a travel ban on certain people groups.
                        <SU>30</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Commenters also remarked that the “invasion” narrative has been part of xenophobic, discriminatory, and anti-immigrant rhetoric for over a century, citing to examples such as the “Chinese Invasion” in 1873 that incited hate against Chinese immigrants and paved the way for the Chinese Exclusion Act of 1882 or the Immigration Act of 1924. Other commenters stated that the IFR reanimates a World War II-era policy originally invoked during a time of war, which they said no longer aligns with the values and needs of a modern and diverse society.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>28</SU>
                             323 U.S. 214 (1944).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>29</SU>
                             585 U.S. 667 (2018).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>30</SU>
                             The commenter correctly noted the Supreme Court found that 
                            <E T="03">Korematsu</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">United States,</E>
                             323 U.S. 214 (1944), was gravely wrongly decided, overruled in the court of history, and that the decision has no place in law under the U.S. Constitution. 
                            <E T="03">See Trump</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Hawaii,</E>
                             585 U.S. 667, 710 (2018). However, the Court also explained that 
                            <E T="03">Korematsu</E>
                            —which dealt with the “forcible relocation of U.S. citizens to concentration camps, solely and explicitly based on race”—was unlawful and outside the scope of the Presidential authority. 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             The Court also found that 
                            <E T="03">Korematsu</E>
                             had nothing to do with the proclamation at issue, which prevented entry of nationals who could not be adequately vetted and inducing other nations to improve their practices. 
                            <E T="03">See id.</E>
                             Similarly, registration has nothing to do with 
                            <E T="03">Korematsu.</E>
                             Implementing the registration provisions codified by Congress is neither objectively unlawful nor outside the scope of the President's or DHS's authority.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         On January 20, 2025, President Trump issued E.O. 14159, Protecting the American People Against Invasion, which directed DHS to ensure that aliens comply with their statutory duty, as provided by Congress, to register with the government under sections 262 through 265 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302 through 1305. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 8443, 8444 (Jan. 29, 2025). The President further directed DHS and DOJ to ensure that failure to comply with the registration requirement is treated as a civil and criminal enforcement priority. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 8443, 8444 (Jan. 29, 2025).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Many aliens in the United States have already registered, as required by law, through a variety of pathways identified in 8 CFR 264.1 or through the visa application process with State. However, a significant number of aliens present in the United States, including many who have not previously been encountered by DHS, have no straightforward way to register and meet their registration obligations under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. Despite the history cited in the comments, Congress specifically included alien registration requirements in the INA of 1952, well after World War II had ended. Congress made the policy choice to require registration; DHS is merely administering and enforcing longstanding legal requirements, consistent with the President's direction. The purpose of establishing the new form, G-325R, Biometric Information (Registration), is not to target racial groups or for other discriminatory purposes, but to create an online process by which unregistered aliens may register and comply with the alien registration provisions of the INA. As explained in the IFR, DHS does believe that one of the benefits of the designation of a general registration form option is that it will improve the registration outcomes for aliens, which in turn will result in improved law enforcement efficacy. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 11793, 11797 (Mar. 12, 2025).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters expressed concern with the statutory basis for the rule, with many stating that the alien registration requirements of the INA: (1) are obsolete or misaligned with the current immigration landscape; (2) originated in a different historical context; (3) are not well suited to address the current U.S. immigration system; or (4) do not align with modern values of inclusivity, fairness, and human rights. Commenters stated that the United States has effectively abandoned universal registration for the past 75 years, and that after the overhaul of federal immigration law in 1952 and 1965, the U.S. Government shifted registration into regularized immigration applications and enforcement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Many commenters believed that mandatory registration is not commensurate with, nor reflective of, modern immigration law and practice, and is contrary to the intent of our current laws. For example, commenters remarked that the IFR essentially revives a policy deemed unnecessary 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39272"/>
                        and irrelevant to the country's postwar immigration framework. Commenters, expressing concerns with the IFR, stated that the Alien Registration Act of 1940 (also known as the Smith Act) had been dormant, and not operationalized on such a large scale as the IFR since 1940, and that it would have negative economic and societal costs while providing minimal benefits to Americans and the United States. Commenters similarly remarked that the IFR marks a stark departure from the narrow application of the registration statute over the past 80 years and that the World War II-era independent registration process reflected in the statute has been abandoned since 1950.
                    </P>
                    <P>Other commenters wrote that the administration is “weaponizing once unenforceable and obsolete laws” rooted in wartime xenophobia, and with the IFR, is undermining democracy, freedom, and human rights, and is proliferating “inhumane and racist” immigration policies. Commenters suggested that DHS remove 8 CFR part 264 entirely due to the “obsolescence of the underlying legal regime.”</P>
                    <P>Some commenters stated that the IFR is an inappropriate way to apply the Smith Act in today's immigration context because the country is not at war and the Smith Act's purpose and intent, which was based on World War II policies, was to protect the United States from potential invasion by an enemy power and prevent communists who sought to overthrow the U.S. Government from immigrating. Thus, commenters concluded that the Smith Act was created in a vastly different context, while the current circumstances involve individuals and families who have been living and contributing to society for years, including those who are waiting for a resolution regarding their asylee or refugee status. In light of these concerns, many commenters stated that the registration requirement should be either rescinded or modified. A commenter suggested that Congress should have a “proper discussion” around this and other immigration policies.</P>
                    <P>A commenter wrote that while registration requirements were added to the INA in 1952, the government has not previously leveraged these provisions to support a separate, national registration process applicable to all aliens. Instead, the commenter said, DHS regulations have identified various immigration forms that constitute evidence of registration, such as Form I-94 (Arrival/Departure Record), Form I-862 (NTA), Form I-766 (EAD), and Form I-551 (Permanent Resident Card), among others. The commenter expressed concern that, prior to the IFR, the government did not maintain another process for individuals not covered by the enumerated forms to register, yet, this rule would require millions of people, including children, to interpret the IFR's complex provisions and complete a separate form requesting information with bearing on their cases for immigration relief, without guidance or legal assistance.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Since 1940, the laws of the United States have required most aliens present in the United States who remain for 30 days or longer to register, and with some exceptions based on age or nonimmigrant status, be fingerprinted. DHS agrees that the law was enacted at a different time in history, but this is true of many laws and many provisions of the INA. Since the time Congress first enacted the Smith Act, Congress has codified alien registration requirements into the INA in 1952 and subsequently amended the INA many times without eliminating these requirements. To offer a non-exhaustive list, Congress amended section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, in 1994, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         Public Law 103-416, title II, sec. 219(n) (Oct. 25, 1994) (technical correction); in 1988, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         Public Law 100-525, sec. 8(h) (Oct. 24, 1988) (adding fingerprinting waiver authority); and in 1986, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         Public Law 99-653, sec. 9 (Nov. 14, 1986) (technical correction). And Congress amended section 264 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304 in 1996, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         Public Law 104-208, Div. C, title IV, sec. 415 (Sept. 30, 1996) (authority to require aliens to provide their Social Security numbers (SSNs)), and in 1990, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         Public Law 101-649, title V, sec. 503(b)(2) (Nov. 29, 1990) (adding reference to information sharing under section 287(f)(2) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1357(f)(2)). And as part of a 2008 law extending U.S. immigration laws to the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Congress provided the Secretary with additional alien registration authority and specifically clarified that “[n]othing in this paragraph shall modify or limit section 262 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1302) or other provision of the Immigration and Nationality Act relating to the registration of aliens.” 48 U.S.C. 1806(e)(3).
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS and State have continued over the years to provide ways for many aliens to register by providing several pathways to do so and made changes to the registration provisions in the regulations to reflect current procedures and processes. However, following the issuance of E.O. 14159, DHS was aware that there was a gap in the existing regulatory regime that made it difficult for some aliens to comply with the registration requirement. The President is charged with taking care that the laws be faithfully executed, and by establishing this general registration form and process, DHS is faithfully executing these laws.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter listed other U.S. laws or programs that they compared to the IFR and that they said were discriminatory, including the Johnson-Reed Act (1924), the Relatives Rule (1941), and the Bracero programs (1917-21 and 1942-64). Other commenters, while criticizing the legal and constitutional basis for the IFR, likened it to historical discriminatory legal regimes abroad, such as those in Nazi Germany or apartheid-era South Africa.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The historically discriminatory regimes abroad do not correlate to the alien registration requirement. Furthermore, DHS disagrees that the U.S. laws or programs cited by the commenter are comparable to the alien registration requirement. Unlike the alien registration requirement, the referenced laws or programs were either repealed or were not incorporated into the INA. The alien registration requirement was incorporated into the INA periodically updated by Congress, with the most recent updates in the 1990s.
                        <SU>31</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>31</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Public Law 103-416, 180 Stat. 4305, 4317 (Oct. 25, 1994).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. E.O. 14159, Sec. 7</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter objected to the IFR, stating that it is based on an E.O. containing “broad mandates and inflammatory, xenophobic language.” Questioning the legal basis of the rule, a commenter stated that the E.O. that the rule implements is unlawful. The commenter wrote that the E.O. seeks to characterize “lawful and necessary” migration driven by persecution, war, famine, and natural disasters as an “invasion.” The commenter added that if the government's true intent were to remove violent criminals, it could accomplish this by cross-referencing State criminal databases and focusing on removing these individuals. Instead, the commenter wrote, the IFR would criminalize refugees and asylum seekers. Other commenters stated that the E.O. is “inherently founded in race-based prejudice.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS disagrees with the commenters and notes that the language choices in the E.O. have no impact on the lawfulness of implementing section 7 of the E.O., which merely directs DHS and other agencies to faithfully execute 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39273"/>
                        the laws established by Congress relating to alien registration.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Major Questions Doctrine and Congressional Intent</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters indicated that the IFR addresses a question of major national significance and is not clearly supported by clear congressional authorization, such that courts should apply the “major questions doctrine” when evaluating the rule's lawfulness. A commenter reasoned that the IFR imposes a registration obligation that impacts between 2.2 and 3.2 million people, with the likely purpose of removing individuals and conferring criminal penalties on those who fail to register. This commenter, as well as others, stated that the IFR effectively criminalizes unlawful status, which has historically been a civil offense. The commenter wrote that Congress had considered creating criminal penalties for unlawful presence in the United States in the Border Protection, Antiterrorism, and Illegal Immigration Control Act of 2005 but rejected doing so.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The commenter observed that Congress' alleged failure to criminalize unlawful presence, combined with the general and long-standing shift in the use of registration, indicated that the IFR creating such criminal penalties is contrary to congressional intent and the purpose of the statute. Citing 
                        <E T="03">West Virginia</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                         597 U.S. 697 (2022), the commenter opined that the IFR uses an outdated and dormant national security provision to effect a major policy change, violating the major questions doctrine. Therefore, the commenter concluded that its issues should be left to Congress to consider for legislation.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that the IFR created a “two-track registration system” under which an alien would either admit to the crime of illegal entry by submitting Form G-325R or be guilty of failing to register. The commenter suggested that this approach is inconsistent with “the single-track registration system created by Congress,” under which Congress contemplated that aliens would be able to register without needing to admit to any crimes.</P>
                    <P>A few commenters stated that the IFR represents a “betrayal” of the mission with which Congress charged USCIS as an immigration benefits and adjudications agency, insofar as registration is an immigration enforcement tool for DHS and the administration.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         In relation to the major questions doctrine,
                        <SU>32</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Congress, in sections 262 through 265 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302 through 1305, specifically authorized and directed DHS 
                        <SU>33</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         to register aliens, and in section 264 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304, to prescribe forms for the registration of aliens under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, and related actions.
                        <SU>34</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Congress also specifically directed DHS to include, on alien registration forms, inquiries into “the date and place of entry of the alien into the United States.” INA sec. 264(a)(1), 8 U.S.C. 1304(a)(1). The decision to offer a registration form to those who must register, and to include on that form the questions that Congress required DHS to ask, does not implicate the major questions doctrine and DHS disagrees with the commenter's characterization of this rule as an action of major political or economic significance as described in 
                        <E T="03">West Virginia.</E>
                         However, even if the matter were of great political or economic significance, it would be supported by clear congressional authorization.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>32</SU>
                             Congress frequently delegates, in legislation, the authority to agencies to regulate particular aspects. In a number of decisions, however, the Supreme Court has declared that if an agency seeks to decide an issue of major national economic or political significance in regulations its action must be supported by clear congressional authorization. 
                            <E T="03">See West Virginia</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                             597 U.S. 697, 732 (2022). For more on the major question doctrine, see Kate R. Bowers, Congressional Research Service (CRS), “The Major Questions Doctrine” (Nov. 2, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.congress.gov/crs-product/IF12077.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>33</SU>
                             Although the statutory registration provisions, such as INA sec. 264(a), 8 U.S.C. 1304, refer to the Attorney General, Congress authorized DHS's administration of the INA. As of March 1, 2003, the former INS, which was part of DOJ, ceased to exist and its functions respecting immigration benefits applications, petitions, and requests under INA, including registration, were transferred to USCIS within DHS. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Homeland Security Act of 2002, Public Law 107-296, sec. 471(a) (Nov. 25, 2002); 68 FR 10922 (Mar. 6, 2003).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>34</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             INA sec. 264(a), 8 U.S.C. 1304(a) (“The Attorney General and the Secretary of State jointly are authorized and directed to prepare forms for the registration of aliens under section 1301 of this title, and the Attorney General is authorized and directed to prepare forms for the registration and fingerprinting of aliens under section 1302 of this title.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>However, as explained in the preamble to the IFR, Federal statutes have, since 1940, generally required aliens present in the United States for 30 days or more to register and be fingerprinted.</P>
                    <P>
                        DHS also disagrees that this rule criminalizes unlawful status or presence in the United States. The INA has long contained provisions criminalizing various forms of immigration-related conduct. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         INA secs. 264(e), 366, 272-278, 8 U.S.C. 1304(e), 1306, 1322-1328. Thus, although the commenter is correct that immigration violations are often handled as civil matters, any criminal liability feared by the commenter nevertheless exists by virtue of longstanding statutory provisions. Nothing in the IFR, by designating a registration form and evidence of registration as a general means for individuals to comply with the statutory registration requirement, impermissibly deviates from congressional intent or the plain meaning of the statute.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Other Comments on Authority and Alignment With Authorizing Statutes</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated that the “new registration requirement” is “redundant,” because section 262(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302(a), already requires covered aliens to register. A commenter wrote that self-registration is not necessary to enforce the statutory scheme, stating that the government's interest—“the criminalization of non-citizens without proper registration”—is not significant, as many States already provide an identification card (ID) for aliens. Commenters also stated that the purpose of registration is not to detect and prosecute criminal aliens, but rather, to criminalize all aliens who do not have the Form G-325R.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The registration requirement is not new or redundant. Congress prescribed the requirement in section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, and directed DHS to implement the requirement. DHS designated the new registration form to address a gap in the existing regulatory regime relating to registration and allow all aliens, regardless of their status, to fulfill their duty to register under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. DHS has the obligation to faithfully execute the laws established by Congress, including the alien registration requirement, regardless of other ID provided by States. In response to the specific comment about the criminalization of “all aliens who do not have” the new evidence of registration, this is inaccurate. Many aliens inside the United States are already registered and have evidence of registration without the need to utilize the new form and process.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Legal Issues for Survivors of Domestic Violence, Sexual Assault, and Human Trafficking</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters discussed the history of legislation providing protections for survivors of domestic violence, sexual assault, human trafficking, and other serious crimes, such as VAWA and the VTVPA. The commenters remarked that over 30 years ago, a bipartisan Congress recognized the risks faced by aliens who are 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39274"/>
                        immigrant survivors when it enacted VAWA, which created immigration protections for survivors who experience battery or extreme cruelty that allow them to apply for immigration relief without the knowledge or consent of the abusive partner, giving them a path to safety and independence. The commenters continued, writing that Congress strengthened protections through VTVPA, which created the T nonimmigrant status (“T visa”) for victims of trafficking and the U nonimmigrant status (“U visa”) for victims of certain qualifying crimes who are willing to cooperate with law enforcement. The commenters criticized the IFR, stating that it disregards the congressional intent of these laws by exposing survivors of violence to immigration enforcement before their cases are resolved and deprives them of the protections Congress explicitly created for them. A commenter emphasized the historical importance of VAWA and VTVPA protections and urged DHS to uphold them.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter said that the IFR's content regarding change of address requirements creates needless hardships for aliens as it would deprive them of private, safe addresses to protect themselves from their abusers as they take steps toward independence.</P>
                    <P>A commenter remarked that 8 U.S.C. 1367 prohibits DHS from making adverse determinations using information furnished by abusers or disclosing information about alien victims. The commenter expressed concern that the IFR does not address how these privacy protections, particularly with respect to address reporting on Form G-325R, would be maintained, and that the IFR does not account for domestic violence laws that establish address confidentiality for eligible aliens for their safety. The commenter concluded that despite the IFR mentioning “safe addresses,” it does not explain what that means in the context of registration, nor does Form G-325R appear to allow for address confidentiality.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter wrote that the IFR failed to address the special circumstances of alien victims in shelters and at unsafe addresses; under USCIS special protections, applicants for VAWA, T- and U-based benefits are entitled to use safe mailing addresses and have their cases processed according to strict privacy rules. The commenter stated that the IFR would violate those privacy protections by demanding that such aliens register using a general registration form that is not processed by the “special applicants' office of the Vermont Service Center,” and that, unlike other immigration information collections, the IFR includes no provisions related to procedures that would be used to protect this data in conformity with heightened VAWA protections. The commenter added that disclosing shelter addresses is often against the policies of the shelter and doing so can result in aliens becoming ineligible for housing there.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Aliens submitting a Form G-325R do not qualify as a protected alien under 8 U.S.C. 1367, by virtue of such filing; however, if the alien is otherwise designated as a protected alien on another basis, USCIS would maintain the same protections for information submitted through the Form G-325R process as it does for other information provided by such protected aliens. Form G-325R collects a physical address and allows aliens to provide a safe address. As with all USCIS forms in which an alien may provide a safe address, if USCIS contacts the alien through the mail it will use the safe address that he or she provides. However, the G-325R process is entirely electronic at this time. All notices sent from USCIS to an alien are uploaded to the alien's myUSCIS account. None of the notices correlating to a Form G-325R are issued via mail. Therefore, not only may aliens provide a safe address, consistent with longstanding USCIS practice, USCIS does not at this time send any documents through the mail in connection with Form G-325R. While an alien is required to provide a physical address, DHS will continue to ensure that personnel adhere to statutory requirements and protections.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Constitutional Concerns Related to the IFR</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters expressed general concerns related to the constitutionality of the IFR or registration requirement. For example, a commenter expressing opposition to the IFR urged those in power to stop the “blatant violation” of the U.S. Constitution and indicated that those involved in this process who do not attempt to stop it are in dereliction of their duty to the U.S. Constitution. Commenters criticized the IFR, saying that it “fails to account for its sweeping impact on the constitutional rights of citizens and noncitizens alike.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS disagrees with commenters' broad characterization of this rule as unconstitutional. This rule makes available a new mechanism by which aliens may comply with longstanding statutory registration and fingerprinting requirements, as directed by Congress. It is the Executive's constitutional duty to faithfully execute the law created by Congress. DHS responds to comments raising specific constitutionality concerns later in this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        With respect to the U.S. Government's general authority to require aliens within its borders to register, DHS notes that a nation has a sovereign prerogative to control its borders. 
                        <E T="03">Cf. Ping</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">United States,</E>
                         130 U.S. 581, 603-04 (1889) (“That the government of the United States, through the action of the legislative department, can exclude aliens from its territory is a proposition which we do not think open to controversy. Jurisdiction over its own territory to that extent is an incident of every independent nation. It is a part of its independence. If it could not exclude aliens it would be to that extent subject to the control of another power.”). Congress long ago legislated in pursuit of this utmost responsibility by, among others, setting statutory registration and fingerprinting requirements. What is more, the U.S. Constitution vests both Congress and the Executive with control over immigration matters; the Supreme Court for over a century has acknowledged that the President's broad foreign affairs power extends to matters of immigration. U.S. Const. Art. II, § 2, cl. 2; 
                        <E T="03">Fong Yue Ting</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">United States,</E>
                         149 U.S. 698, 713 (1893) (finding because the regulation of immigration is “a power affecting international relations,” it appropriately “is vested in the political departments of the government”). These broad constitutional authorities further support the statutory alien registration requirements and the President's authority to direct DHS to take care to faithfully execute such requirements. They provide ample authority for the IFR, which merely designates a new form by which aliens can comply with longstanding statutory requirements.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. The Right Against Self-Incrimination</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters expressed general concern that the disclosures required by the IFR, such as the requirement to report past criminal activity, would violate the Fifth Amendment right against self-incrimination, would place aliens in a position of identifying themselves for purposes of enforcement, or would generally violate Fifth Amendment rights. One commenter stated that the IFR is “unconstitutional on its face,” because it would ask aliens to confess to crimes and violations of criminal substance abuse laws and requires aliens who are present in the United States without documentation to register 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39275"/>
                        “even though the current administration regards undocumented immigrants to be illegal.”
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters stated that the requirement to register and potential penalties for non-registration implicate Fifth Amendment protections in several ways, including by:</P>
                    <P>• Effectively compelling aliens to admit unlawful presence in the United States or provide other information that could potentially expose them to criminal prosecution or removal; and</P>
                    <P>• Creating a “Catch-22” situation in which registering would risk self-incrimination through acknowledging unlawful status, while not registering would trigger penalties for noncompliance.</P>
                    <P>In light of these concerns, commenters either urged DHS to withdraw or not implement the rule, or to reconsider the registration requirement and develop an alternative approach that respects constitutional protections against self-incrimination.</P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter reasoned that because of the privilege against self-incrimination, the requirement would be unenforceable and that it would be impossible to convict an alien for willful failure to register, citing 
                        <E T="03">Grosso</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">United States,</E>
                         390 U.S. 67, 70 (1968). The commenter reasoned that the finding in this case requires that DHS amend the form to include a guarantee that information required by the form would never be used to prosecute a registrant for criminal offenses. This commenter further remarked that the Alien Registration Act itself did not have such a self-incrimination problem, because the form it imposed was universal for all aliens and did not demand admission of a crime.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Citing to case law, a commenter stated that the privilege against self-incrimination protects not just against answers that would alone support convictions, but also against evidence needed to prosecute for a Federal crime.
                        <SU>35</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A commenter concluded that because of the Supreme Court's rejection of the “exculpatory no,” 
                        <SU>36</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the only way an alien subject to the IFR can invoke their privilege against self-incrimination is either not to register, or to register without fully completing the registration form. The commenter specifically identified questions 1.11 (address history), 1.12 (last arrival), 1.13 (I-94 information), 3.2 (crimes committed without arrest), and 3.5 (controlled substance violations) as problematic from a self-incrimination perspective.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>35</SU>
                             Commenters cited 
                            <E T="03">Hoffman</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">United States,</E>
                             341 U.S. 479, 486 (1951); 
                            <E T="03">Kastigar</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">United State</E>
                            s, 406 U.S. 441, 444-45 (1972); and 
                            <E T="03">Marchetti</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">United States,</E>
                             390 U.S. 39, 48 (1968).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>36</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Brogan</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">United States,</E>
                             522 U.S. 398, 400-06 (1998).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Another commenter discussed the “essentially regulatory” exception to the Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination, which the commenter said permits compelled disclosure of testimonial information as part of a comprehensive regulatory scheme when the government action is directed at the public at large and related to an essentially noncriminal and regulatory inquiry. The commenter stated that the IFR does not qualify for this exception because it targets those suspected of criminal conduct and is not essentially regulatory in nature.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS disagrees that this rule violates aliens' Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination. The Fifth Amendment does not forbid the government from asking questions and it does not forbid the government from taking the answers. 
                        <E T="03">See Nat'l Fed'n of Fed. Emps.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Greenberg,</E>
                         983 F.2d 286, 291 (D.C. Cir. 1993). Nor does it impede the enforcement of a valid civil regulatory regime. 
                        <E T="03">Rajah</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Mukasey,</E>
                         544 F.3d 427, 442 (2d Cir. 2008). Courts “have long recognized the power to expel or exclude aliens as a fundamental sovereign attribute exercised by the Government's political departments largely immune from judicial control.” 
                        <E T="03">Fiallo</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Bell,</E>
                         430 U.S. 787, 792 (1977). The nature of registration is regulatory rather than criminal because it is not “permeated with criminal statutes and [ ] there is a substantial non-prosecutorial interest served by the reporting regime.” 
                        <E T="03">Rajah,</E>
                         544 F.3d at 442. Specifically, the primary purpose of registration is to enhance immigration law enforcement through the regulation of aliens seeking to enter and remain in the United States. Certainly, there are criminal penalties for willful failure to register and failure to notify DHS of a change in address, but the purpose of the statutory framework is to exercise authority over the regulation of aliens in this country. Furthermore, courts consistently acknowledge that the Fifth Amendment does not relieve individuals of their statutory obligations to make certain submissions to the Federal Government. 
                        <E T="03">See United States</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Oliver,</E>
                         505 F.2d 301, 307 (7th Cir. 1974) (observing Fifth Amendment does not relieve taxpayers of statutory obligation to report income in full, including income from illegal ventures) (overruled on other grounds).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Thus, the Fifth Amendment does not protect an alien from having to provide information relevant to the registration that is a condition of the alien's presence in the United States, including information from passports, other documents, or statements regarding his or her immigration status. 
                        <E T="03">See Rajah,</E>
                         544 F.3d at 441 (relating to NSEERS registration policy); 
                        <E T="03">see also, e.g., United States</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Sacco,</E>
                         428 F.2d 264, 271 (9th Cir. 1970); 
                        <E T="03">Matter of Chen,</E>
                         15 I&amp;N Dec. 480, 482 (BIA 1975); 
                        <E T="03">Matter of Yau,</E>
                         14 I&amp;N Dec. 630, 635 (BIA 1974). Finally, a Fifth Amendment self-incrimination claim is not ripe until a claim of the privilege is actually asserted. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Carman</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Yellen,</E>
                         112 F.4th 386, 404 (6th Cir. 2024).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Due Process</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters also indicated that the IFR would violate or result in violations of Fifth Amendment due process protections, such as protections against arbitrary or wrongful government actions like immigration enforcement, arrests, detentions, or removals. Commenters also indicated that this is particularly likely given accessibility challenges such as language barriers and lack of access to counsel of understand the IFR. Others expressed due process concerns relating to the targeting of cities and States with welcoming policies for enforcement actions; warrantless collateral arrests that violate binding settlement agreements; and removal of whole families that include U.S. citizens. A commenter urged DHS to revise the IFR to include “due process safeguards, such including clear eligibility guidelines, waiver processes, and appeal mechanisms.” The commenter did not suggest specific guidelines or processes, or bases for appeal.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Citing to the three-part test for evaluating due process requirements from 
                        <E T="03">Mathews</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Eldridge,</E>
                         424 U.S. 319 (1976), a commenter stated that aliens have a significant private interest in avoiding criminal prosecution; that due to language barriers and poverty there is a significant risk of erroneous deprivation; and that the government's interest in this case is not in genuine security but in leveraging fear over immigration for political purposes. This commenter also stated that with the registration requirement, individuals are not afforded a meaningful opportunity to be heard before the governmental action deprives them of a significant interest as required by 
                        <E T="03">Goldberg</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Kelly,</E>
                         397 U.S. 254 (1970), because DHS is not providing registrants reasonable opportunities to comply with its stringent deadlines or to access legal counsel, placing undue burdens on aliens to submit required documentation within an unrealistic time frame.
                        <PRTPAGE P="39276"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS disagrees that this rule violates aliens' Fifth Amendment right to due process and also declines to establish additional eligibility guidelines, waiver processes, and appeal mechanisms associated with the registration.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The IFR simply amended the regulations to designate a new registration form for aliens to comply with the statutory registration requirements. The registration requirement of section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302 was implemented by Congress; any due process objection to a registration obligation in general amounts to an objection to the statute rather than this rule. This rule's only effect is to create a registration form that ensures all aliens have a way to register, consistent with the statute. And in any event, there is no cognizable due process interest in violating U.S. immigration law and remaining undetected indefinitely, or in failing to register consistent with one's statutory obligations. It has long been held that aliens enjoy some constitutional protections regardless of their status, but the protection is limited by Congress' broad powers to control immigration. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Ahmed</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Gonzales,</E>
                         447 F.3d 433, 439 (5th Cir. 2006) (recognizing, as part of NSEERS registration, Congress' broad power to control immigration) (citing 
                        <E T="03">Rodriguez-Silva</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">INS,</E>
                         242 F.3d 243, 246, 247 (5th Cir. 2001)). DHS also notes that the duty to register and its consequences is unrelated to the consequences of potential removal because of other actions that render individuals removable and that with the registration requirement, DHS neither is targeting certain classes of aliens, cities, or States. Rather, Congress universally prescribed the registration requirement to all aliens, and the general registration option provided by DHS is available to all previously unregistered aliens regardless of their status.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding commenters' statements about certain aliens' limited proficiency in English or access to legal resources, DHS notes that immigration forms are only offered in English.
                        <SU>37</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Inability to speak English because the alien does not understand English, but can vocalize other languages, is not a disability warranting a reasonable accommodation under the Rehabilitation Act.
                        <SU>38</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS also notes that any individual—alien or citizen—potentially affected by a DHS regulation may theoretically have limited access to legal resources to help them understand that regulation and how it may affect them. DHS is not required to provide aliens with legal resources, but this rule does not prevent an alien from seeking counsel. DHS accordingly does not view commenters' concern about access to legal resources as outweighing the agency's interest in faithfully executing the statutory registration and fingerprinting requirements. For all these reasons, this rule steers well clear of infringing upon the Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination and right to due process and equal protection of law.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>37</SU>
                             With the exception of Form I-9, Employment Eligibility Verification, which is also available in Spanish for employers in Puerto Rico.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>38</SU>
                             USCIS provides reasonable accommodations in accordance with section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS, “Disability Accommodations for the Public,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/about-us/disability-accommodations-for-the-public</E>
                             (last updated Oct. 19, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Due Process of Children and Unaccompanied Minors</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         An organization commented that subjecting alien children to the requirements of the rule belies the outdated nature of the registration statute and remarked that since its enactment, our understanding of childhood and adolescence has significantly evolved, with subsequent legislation recognizing the differences and vulnerabilities of children and teenagers. Another commenter stated that the key change attempts to divert juveniles away from the criminal legal system.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Another commenter stated that Congress created specific procedural protections for unaccompanied alien children (UAC) in the William Wilberforce Trafficking Victims Protection Reauthorization Act of 2008 (TVPRA), 
                        <E T="03">see, e.g.,</E>
                         8 U.S.C. 1232, in recognition of UAC's particular vulnerability and to prevent their return to trafficking and other harm. The commenter reasoned that the IFR's and E.O. 14159's compliance with the TVPRA is questionable, because the IFR would subject aliens over the age of 14 to its requirements, but it does not appear to consider alien children's distinct developmental needs, limited understanding of immigration law, and need for support and care from trusted adults, with greater barriers for UACs. The commenter elaborated on concerns for UACs, writing that noncompliance with the IFR could lead to detention of them, but that the IFR does not explain how such detentions would comport with TVPRA, the 
                        <E T="03">Flores</E>
                         Settlement Agreement, or other juvenile justice reforms. The commenter concluded that the IFR would allow for the summary detention, removal, or other penalties for alien children, and therefore contravenes TVPRA's aim of ensuring vulnerable alien children are able to fairly access legal protections to prevent their return to trafficking and other harm, adding that there is no reason to think that Congress anticipated the Executive Branch would revive a comprehensive registration program and apply it in a manner that would threaten alien children's due process protections.
                    </P>
                    <P>Citing multiple concerns about impacts of the IFR on alien children, a commenter urged DHS to reconsider registration requirements to preserve civil rights and public safety protections for alien children. The commenter stated that a universal registration requirement for aliens “as the IFR proposes” would “increase the vectors by which vulnerable migrants, particularly minors, may be exploited by bad actors.” The commenter explained that they had worked with an alien who is 19 years old and fled Guatemala after having been forced to work as a child domestic servant, and that even after arriving in the United States, this alien had such limited access to necessary information that she would have been “an ideal target for would-be cozeners seeking to prey on newcomers who are unfamiliar with the requirements of the IFR.” Another commenter urged DHS to protect aliens who were brought to the United States as children.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS disagrees that the registration requirement threatens due process interests of alien children. The USCIS website contains information to help all aliens understand the registration requirement. All aliens, including UACs, must follow the INA, which requires all aliens, with limited exceptions, to apply for registration and fingerprinting if they are age 14 or older and will remain in the United States for 30 days or longer.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. First Amendment, Expression, Assembly, and Association</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters expressed a general concern that the IFR would require aliens to show proof of registration, which would also lead to racial profiling, fears of detention, and ultimately chill First Amendment liberties, including the right to assembly and freedom of expression. Citing to research, a commenter said that studies have found a direct link between widespread surveillance or profiling and restricted First Amendment activity among members of the community being targeted. Others expressed particular concerns for the IFR's chilling effect in the context of the Trump administration's broader immigration enforcement policies, including the right to nonviolently object to government policies that have a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39277"/>
                        potential discriminatory effect and to arbitrary enforcement practices. A commenter stated that the IFR would facilitate the administration's agenda of targeting individuals based on speech by providing near-universal centralized identifying information for all aliens.
                    </P>
                    <P>Another commenter opposed the IFR because alien registration would be used to persecute those who exercise their freedom of speech to disagree with the policies of an administration or political party.</P>
                    <P>Several commenters voiced concern that the IFR would have, and already has had, a chilling effect on free speech and expression for aliens, due to fear of detention and deportation. A commenter stated that the IFR trespasses on freedom of religion and speech by working “hand-in-hand with the rescinding of the Sensitive Locations Memos to intrude upon the religious freedom of U.S. residents by discouraging many from attending religious services for fear of being profiled or to exercise their freedom of speech for fear of being targeted for deportation, even erroneously.” Regarding speech rights, a commenter stated that the current administration has been revoking immigration status, including student visas, based on speech and that IFR would facilitate this agenda by providing centralized identifying information for all aliens, creating a chilling effect on First Amendment protections.</P>
                    <P>A commenter expressed concern that the organization's most visible and active members could become targets for enforcement whether they register or not, directly impacting their work of advocating for low-income and immigrant communities. The commenter remarked that their organization's advocacy often relies on in-person events such as rallies to advance policy proposals and that the IFR creates a chilling effect on individuals' willingness to participate in these forms of advocacy. The commenter stated that the IFR would necessitate greater surveillance and monitoring of their community, and reported that they have already witnessed the negative impact of registration-like policies on political speech and the organization's advocacy activities, such as their ability to find and support members willing to share their stories for use with the press, legislators, and social media in support of building grassroot support and advancing the organization's policy goals. Additionally, the commenter stated that during rallies organizers spend significant time addressing these concerns.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Citizens and aliens of course may object to various statutes, regulations, and policies and express those objections publicly. This rule does not abridge the freedom of speech, of the press, or of association or peaceful assembly. A pre-enforcement facial challenge under the First Amendment cannot lie unless an individual establishes that he or she faces a “credible threat of prosecution” “under a statute [or rule] that appears to render the [individual]'s arguably protected speech illegal.” 
                        <E T="03">Am. Library Ass'n</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Barr,</E>
                         956 F.2d 1178, 1194 (D.C. Cir. 1992). That is not and cannot be the case here. Neither section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, nor this rule renders illegal any form of speech. Section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302 simply requires registration and fingerprinting of aliens in the United States for 30 days or more, which is well within this nation's sovereign prerogative to require. This rule addresses a gap in the existing regulatory regime and provides a way for all aliens, regardless of their immigration status, to comply with their duty under the law.
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS notes that registration activity has always taken place, as evidenced by the forms listed in 8 CFR 264.1, in accordance with the nearly century-old statutory requirement. The questions on the Form G-325R are similar to questions on other registration forms designated at 8 CFR 264.1(a), including the Form I-485, Application to Register Permanent or Adjust Status.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Equal Protection, Racial Profiling, and Discrimination,</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters expressed a general concern that the IFR would lead to in racism, xenophobia, racial profiling, or discrimination.
                    </P>
                    <P>Some commenters indicated that the IFR would lead to racial profiling which, in turn, would lead to wrongful arrests of U.S. citizens and LPRs. A commenter said that the rule fundamentally alters the rights and interests of millions of people, including U.S. citizens who may be asked to show “proof” of their citizenship in any discriminatory dragnet created by this registration rule, adding that this process is part of a larger attack on immigrant communities.</P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that the IFR would particularly target aliens based not only on national origin but also on race and ethnicity in order boost arrest statistics to meet quotas. The commenter referenced a Washington Post report stating that the administration has directed ICE officials to increase arrests to meet daily quotas, with each field office required to make 75 arrests per day and managers being held accountable for failing to meet these targets. This commenter and others reasoned that racial profiling is an unavoidable certainty in a system where law enforcement is encouraged to demand proof of registration without justification. Commenters said that law enforcement could ask for proof of registration based on factors such as an individual's ethnicity, skin color, uncommon name, language proficiency, or perceived foreign accent.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter stated that enforcement of the IFR would rely on the national origin of individuals under scrutiny by law enforcement officials, which would “undoubtedly lead to racial profiling, wrongful arrests, and detention of U.S. citizens and other individuals with lawful status.” This commenter wrote that U.S. citizens are already being racially profiled in immigration enforcement under the Trump administration and that the IFR would exacerbate this problem. This commenter and others cited examples of State-level “show me your papers” laws, such as Arizona Senate Bill 1070, the “Support Our Law Enforcement and Safe Neighborhoods Act,” that resulted in lawsuits over the constitutionality of racial profiling against Latino and Asian Americans. Several commenters stated that there have been reports of Native Americans and other U.S. citizens who have been detained by immigration authorities due to racial profiling.</P>
                    <P>
                        Another commenter stated that the IFR would exacerbate the problems that result from racial and ethnic profiling being a “cornerstone” of U.S. immigration enforcement, specifically citing the U.S. Immigration and Custom Enforcement (ICE's) 287(g) Program Task Force Model, which “allows deputized officers to ask about immigration status of individuals stopped during routine traffic stops and make arrests based solely on federal immigration grounds.” A commenter wrote that discrimination on account of national origin should not be legal in the United States. Another commenter raised concern that the IFR would affect lawful immigrants and U.S. citizens. For example, providing an anecdotal account, a commenter wrote that U.S. citizens were arrested for speaking Spanish. A commenter stated that discrimination on account of national origin should not be legal in the United States and that the IFR did not have enough government-overreach-safeguards to pass constitutional muster. The commenter also stated that even if national security were at issue, it would not give the Federal Government a license to violate the rights of aliens.
                        <PRTPAGE P="39278"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>Another commenter wrote that the IFR's criminalization of alien status and the IFR's underlying racially discriminatory motive and “show-your-paper regime” would disproportionately harm “Black and Brown” and Latino communities, as well as communities of color generally, which are already disproportionately incarcerated and subjected to police stops, questioning, and searches. The commenter said that these policies would lead to a situation in which U.S. citizens of color would need to have proof of citizenship to avoid being swept into the enforcement and criminalization under the rule.</P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that while some may attempt to justify the implementation of the rule due to the necessity for increased vetting for the purposes of national security, the rule will necessarily rely on national origin, which will inevitably result in racial profiling and wrongful arrests and detention of U.S. citizens and lawfully present noncitizens including lawful permanent residents. The commenter stated that the alleged intent to discriminate based on national origin reflects political rhetoric against immigrant communities and racial prejudice, not a legitimate concern about national security or the U.S. public well-being. According to the commenter, E.O. 14159 “is inherently founded in race-based prejudice and its implementation through the IFR is based on the premise that immigrants that are not citizens are `invading' the United States. The commenter wrote that “[t]he misuse of a military term of war equates migrants, immigrants, and asylum seekers with a group incursion that is hostile and armed.” Another commenter stated that such an approach is also linked to political rhetoric against immigrant communities and racial prejudice, rather than legitimate national security or public concerns, referencing, as evidence, President Trump's statements, including claims about “bad genes” and immigrants “poisoning the blood of our country,” as well as an immigrant “invasion.”</P>
                    <P>Many commenters expressed concern that the rule would lead to racial profiling and civil rights violations that would undermine public safety. A commenter stated that the rule's criminal penalty for failing to carry “proof of registration” on one's person at all times encourages racial profiling and arbitrary searches, seizures, detention or arrest by immigration officials and law enforcement officers of individuals whom they perceive to be immigrants, including children and families.</P>
                    <P>Commenters stated that the IFR would create a “hostile environment” and target anyone perceived as foreign, and harm both aliens and U.S. citizens, leading to over-policing. Another couple of commenters wrote that the implementation of this rule would likely result in discriminatory searches and seizures, as well as wrongful arrests that would impact U.S. citizens and “non-citizens” alike.</P>
                    <P>A commenter wrote that the requirements of the IFR would disproportionately impact vulnerable groups, such as low-income immigrants and those with limited access to legal assistance. A commenter indicated that the IFR would instill fear in Asian, Native Hawaiian, and Pacific Islander community members, preventing them from accessing schools, healthcare, employment, and other benefits. Similarly, a couple of commenters wrote that the IFR instills fear in or criminalizes integral members of the Asian and Pacific Islander community, who make up one in seven “undocumented immigrants,” and scapegoats them simply for their national origin, targets them for racial profiling, and makes compliance difficult due to high rates of limited English proficiency in these communities.</P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that the IFR did not account for the social and economic impacts that the IFR would have on minority communities, citing examples of alleged discriminatory immigration enforcement in New York. Another commenter wrote that immigration policy and enforcement reinforce harmful stereotypes and social inequities that impact all Latinos, regardless of their legal status; they added that although permanent residents have legal work authorization, they often encounter discrimination when seeking resources. A commenter stated that rural communities in California with disproportionate Latino farm workers are already being targeted for immigration enforcement, which the commenter said DHS falsely characterizes as targeting aliens with criminal records. Another commenter wrote that immigration policy and enforcement is a tool of white supremacy, reasoning that it limits access to resources, services, and opportunities among Latinos and other immigrants in the United States.</P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that the IFR and DHS conflate “undocumented” and unregistered “noncitizens” with gang members and criminals. The commenter stated that, while U.S. public safety and national security are important concerns, the rule stems from a misplaced and exaggerated focus on crime committed by “noncitizens.” The commenter referenced a January 21, 2025, DOJ memo that linked “transnational gangs” and “illegal aliens” to “brutal and intolerant violent crime” that is “escalating rapidly across the country.” The commenter said that this characterization fails to distinguish between misdemeanors and more serious criminal activities. The commenter wrote that individual violent crimes by “noncitizens” are often highlighted to justify actions like the passage of the Laken Riley Act, but suggested these incidents are presented without proper context regarding the actual level of crime committed by aliens. The commenter cited academic research suggesting that criminal activity by “noncitizens” is not disproportionate to the U.S. population at large.</P>
                    <P>Expressing a slightly different concern, a commenter wrote that the IFR fails to consider or take steps to safeguard against entrepreneurial burdens, taxpayer expenditures, and public safety costs. Further, another commenter wrote that the IFR would broaden DHS's ability to arbitrarily arrest and deport more asylum seekers to danger, adding that though DHS has no lawful right to deport U.S. citizens, this is likely to become a daily occurrence with the implementation of this IFR.</P>
                    <P>Similarly, a commenter opposed the proposed “noncitizen” registration policy, arguing it would lead to discriminatory law enforcement practices. The commenter stated that requiring “noncitizens” to carry registration documents at all times would create enforcement challenges, as DHS officers would have no practical way to identify who would be subject to this requirement without resorting to profiling.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter further wrote that the administration would employ arbitrary methods of identifying “noncitizens” under the policy. According to a commenter, while the IFR's stated purpose is to enhance law enforcement by DHS to protect public safety and reduce violent crime, it is important to remember that equal protection under the law means criminal activity is caused by individual actions, not group identity or status, with a different commenter stating that communities would be irreparably harmed by attempts to identify and detain suspected aliens.</P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter expressed concern that enforcement practices can create fear even among lawful permanent residents and U.S. citizens, which leads to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39279"/>
                        reduced participation in civil society. As an example, they cited a study on Arizona's stringent immigration laws and said that it found that such policies negatively impact Latino youths in particular. A commenter wrote that this process negates everything the United States should stand for and should not be “reinstated” in this country. Commenters also stated that the IFR's enforcement practices enable racial profiling and create fear and anxiety even among lawful permanent residents and U.S. citizens. The commenters cited research on stringent immigration laws, specifically Arizona's Support our Law Enforcement and Safe Neighborhoods Act, which found that policies promoting racial profiling negatively impact Latino youths' mental health and academic achievement. The commenters stated that while the IFR estimates the registration requirement would directly impact 2 to 3 million people, the racial profiling likely to occur would have detrimental effects on the broader population of over 63 million Latino residents in the United States.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter voiced concern that without clear protections, the registration process could be misused to target certain populations unfairly, particularly with giving preference to immigrants from specific countries over others. While discussing allegedly discriminatory practices under the former NSEERS program, other commenters also stated that expanding alien registration requirements could once again lead to biased enforcement practices, eroding trust between immigrant communities and government agencies, dehumanizing immigrants, and infringing on aliens' basic rights.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS strongly disagrees with the characterization of the IFR as linked to political rhetoric against immigrant communities and racial prejudice, rather than legitimate concerns of implementing a statutory mandate, as well as national and public security concerns. The laws of the United States generally require aliens to register—either as part of the visa process or upon being present in the United States for 30 days or more. The IFR and this final rule are limited in scope to establish a general registration option for aliens to comply, as applicable, with their statutory duty to register and to be fingerprinted. This rulemaking does not impose any new obligations on any population, or create disparate treatment motivated by racial prejudice. Similarly, the IFR and this rule do not create or modify the criminal penalties established by Congress many decades ago that apply when aliens fail to meet their registration and related obligations. The rule also does not oblige the removal of any alien from the country. The registration requirements apply to all aliens who are 14 years or older, have not been registered and fingerprinted, and remain in the United States for 30 days or longer. If an alien does not have any other pathway to register and to be fingerprinted, the alien may file the Form G-325R to comply with their duty under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. The rule is expected to improve DHS law enforcement efficacy and to provide more comprehensive information about the location of aliens in the United States to make it easier and safer for DHS to enforce the law. The increased compliance with statutory fingerprinting requirements would provide DHS with additional information about an alien's criminal record, including whether the alien is a known or suspected terrorist. Finally, DHS reiterates that the alien registration requirements of the INA require aliens—not U.S. citizens—to register.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Two commenters objected to the use of the word “alien” in the IFR as offensive and subjective, as well as inaccurate and suggested, as part of providing safeguards, to change the term.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The term “alien” is a legal term defined in the INA that is used to describe any person who is not a citizen or national of the United States.
                        <SU>39</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Moreover, the term alien is used in sections 261 through 266 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1301 through 1306, the sections that describe the alien registration requirements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>39</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             INA sec.101(a)(3), 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter said the comprehensive registration policy that was established in the Alien Registration Act of 1940 was abandoned in the decades following its adoption due, in part, to its social and economic costs, and stated that the enforcement of this registration policy would fail to achieve the goals of the administration while leading to discriminatory targeting of U.S. citizens and “noncitizens” based on their perceived race or ethnicity.
                    </P>
                    <P>While discussing discriminatory practices under the former NSEERS program, another commenter remarked that expanding alien registration requirements could once again lead to biased enforcement practices, eroding trust between immigrant communities and government agencies.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         This rule is consistent with E.O. 14159 and the alien registration requirements in section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. This rulemaking establishes a general registration option available to all unregistered aliens, regardless of immigration status, to improve the registration outcomes of certain groups of aliens. This rulemaking does not change or modify the existing statutory requirements that most aliens must comply with the existing statutory registration requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Multiple comments expressed a general concern that the IFR would violate equal protection rights guaranteed under the Fifth Amendment's Due Process Clause. Citing to case law from the Supreme Court,
                        <SU>40</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         commenters indicated that the rule would disproportionately impact aliens from low-income, non-English-speaking communities and that it, therefore, may violate equal protection and should be subject to strict scrutiny. A commenter warned that the IFR raises equal protection concerns because its complex requirements would be overwhelming and confusing for aliens with limited formal education or English proficiency. Commenters expressed particular concern for equal protection violations and racial profiling resulting from the IFR's implicit “show your papers” requirement.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>40</SU>
                             Commenters cited to 
                            <E T="03">Shapiro</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Thompson,</E>
                             394 U.S. 618, 629 (1969) (extending the Fourteenth Amendment's State equal protection guarantees to Federal actions through the Fifth Amendment); 
                            <E T="03">Washington</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Davis,</E>
                             426 U.S. 229 (1976) (providing that laws disproportionately impacting specific groups must meet strict scrutiny if the classification is based on race or national origin); and 
                            <E T="03">Yick Wo</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Hopkins,</E>
                             118 U.S. 356 (1886) (finding that facially neutral laws may violate equal protection if they are applied in a discriminatory manner).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>A commenter indicated that the IFR would violate equal protection principles because Form G-325R is only available in English, remarking that while a plaintiff must prove a discriminatory purpose to prove in an equal protection claim and the IFR is facially neutral, the administration has made statements and taken other actions, such as declaring English as the official U.S. language, that would support the contention that the government elected not to translate Form G-325R as part of larger scheme to limit language access in government services.</P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter stated that while there are bona fide arguments for government interest in information about residents, the IFR would create a disproportionate and deleterious burden on aliens subject to its terms, and therefore exceeds that government interest, crossing into equal protection violations.
                        <PRTPAGE P="39280"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS disagrees that this rule violates equal protection. Section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, is a facially neutral law, requiring “
                        <E T="03">every</E>
                         alien now or hereafter in the United States, who (1) is fourteen years of age or older, (2) has not been registered and fingerprinted under [section 211(b) of the INA], and (3) remains in the United States for thirty days or longer, to apply for registration and to be fingerprinted before the expiration of such thirty days.” 8 U.S.C. 1302(a) (emphasis added). This rule likewise creates an additional mechanism by which 
                        <E T="03">any</E>
                         previously unregistered alien may comply with his or her statutory duty regardless of the alien's country of nationality.
                        <SU>41</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         It thus does not violate equal protection.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>41</SU>
                             Even if DHS were to adopt a special registration policy for nationals of certain countries, such classifications under the immigration laws may be made so long as they have a rational basis. 
                            <E T="03">See Rajah,</E>
                             544 F.3d at 438 (rejecting equal protection challenge to NSEERS); 
                            <E T="03">see also Narenji</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Civiletti,</E>
                             617 F.2d 745, 747 (D.C. Cir. 1979) (“Distinctions on the basis of nationality may be drawn in the immigration field by the Congress or the Executive. So long as such distinctions are not wholly irrational they must be sustained.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Fourth Amendment Issues</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters expressed a general concern that the IFR would lead to violations of Fourth Amendment rights, such as arbitrary searches and seizures of U.S. citizens and aliens alike. A commenter stated that the IFR's implementation without clear and narrowly tailored enforcement guidelines would increase the risk of Fourth Amendment violations, as officers may stop and detain individuals without reasonable suspicion or probable cause solely to verify registration status. This commenter reasoned that this would create an unconstitutional presumption of illegality tied to race, a practice long rejected by Federal courts.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS disagrees that the IFR would lead to violations of an alien's Fourth Amendment rights. Congress has long required aliens described in section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, to register and be fingerprinted (if required) as well as carry evidence of registration and notify DHS of a change in address, and it is the duty of DHS to carry out those laws. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 103(a), 8 U.S.C. 1103(a); 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         E.O. No. 14159 sec. 7, Protecting the American People Against Invasion (Jan. 20, 2025), 90 FR 8443, 8444 (Jan. 29, 2025). The goal of the IFR and final rule is to ensure that aliens understand their duty under the law and have a path to comply with that duty through the new general registration process and form. The IFR has not changed the existing authority provided to DHS on engagement with aliens.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">g. Eighth Amendment Issues</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter raised concerns that causing “undocumented people” to live in fear of both potential consequences in their country of origin and “cruel treatment” from ICE could constitute a violation of their Eighth Amendment rights. Another commenter expressed concern that the IFR would lead to inhumane and illegal extraterritorial or indefinite imprisonment. A commenter stated that the penalties aliens would face under the IFR for noncompliance are disproportionate to the alleged offense, particularly where the violation is technical or inadvertent. Citing 
                        <E T="03">Trop</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Dulles,</E>
                         356 U.S. 86 (1958), which found that punishment must be proportionate to the offense, the commenter concluded that the IFR violates this principle by imposing penalties for procedural or technical violations, which the commenter said would constitute cruel and unusual punishment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Congress has established civil and criminal penalties for a variety of offenses relating to immigration. While certain aliens may be afraid of being subjected to the penalties connected to their choices and actions, this rule does not establish any such consequences or offenses. This rule also has no impact on the constitutional protections available to aliens within the United States. The criminal penalties for failure to register or meet the other associated requirements under sections 262 through 265 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302-1305, were established by Congress and also fall outside the scope of this rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">h. Privacy Rights</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter wrote that the information collected by this registration information cannot be used by ICE under existing law and regulation, for its enforcement actions because under 8 U.S.C. 1357(f)(2), ICE is a civil enforcement body, not a law enforcement agency. The commenter also stated that the IFR does not contain any designations by the Attorney General to expand the persons with whom registration and fingerprint records may be shared, as required under 8 U.S.C. 1304(b).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         For approximately 85 years, the laws of the United States have required most aliens present in the United States for 30 days or longer to register and, with some exceptions based on age or nonimmigrant status, be fingerprinted. DHS, with the IFR and this final rule, has not changed the existing statutory registration requirements or established by Congress for aliens but merely prescribed a general means for aliens to register, as required by law. The requirements that aliens are required to register, update his or her address with the government within 10 days of moving, and carry evidence of registration on their person, were also established by Congress in the middle of the 20th century. Similarly, this IFR has not created or modified the criminal penalties established by Congress many decades ago that apply when aliens fail to meet their registration and related obligations. This rule is consistent with E.O. 14159 and the alien registration requirements in sections 262 through 265 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302 through 1305, and establishes a general registration option available to all unregistered aliens regardless of immigration status.
                    </P>
                    <P>In regard to the comment addressing sharing of information pursuant to section 264(b) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(b), DHS disagrees with the commenter's view that registration and fingerprint records cannot be shared within DHS for immigration enforcement purposes, as well as the commenter's view that ICE is not a law enforcement agency in general.</P>
                    <P>
                        Moreover, under section 264(b) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(b), all registration and fingerprint records “shall be confidential, and shall be made available only”: (1) pursuant to section 287(f)(2) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1357(f)(2) (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the provision cited by the commenter); and (2) to such persons or agencies as may be designated by the Secretary.
                        <SU>42</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The statute does not direct USCIS alone to register aliens and prescribe registration forms, or to hold alien registration records confidential. The statute vests these authorities in the Secretary, in whom all authorities of USCIS, ICE, and other DHS components are vested.
                        <SU>43</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         It would make little sense to interpret the confidentiality provision to require the Secretary to hold alien registration information confidential as against ICE and CBP, which are subagencies within DHS, particularly in light of the Secretary's plenary authority to make alien registration and fingerprint records available “to such 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39281"/>
                        persons or agencies” as he may designate.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>42</SU>
                             As of March 1, 2023, in accordance with the HSA any reference to the Attorney General in a provision of the INA describing functions that were transferred from the Attorney General or other DOJ official to DHS by the HSA, are deemed to refer to the Secretary of Homeland Security. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             6 U.S.C. 557; 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             6 U.S.C. 542 note; 8 U.S.C. 1551 note.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>43</SU>
                             6 U.S.C. 112(a)(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In any event, the IFR did not change DHS practices related to the maintenance, collection, and use of the information, including alien registration information; such information was available to ICE and CBP even before the IFR.
                        <SU>44</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>44</SU>
                             Alien registration has typically been covered by a DHS SORN published pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974, in particular the A-File SORN. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             82 FR 43556 (Sept. 18, 2017) (SORN for Department of Homeland Security/U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement, U.S. Customs and Border Protection—001 Alien File, Index, and National File Tracking System of Records). Alien registration information may be covered by other DHS systems of records, as noted on the form used to collect such information. This has been true even though many aliens who register are not covered by the Privacy Act of 1974, by law or policy. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             5 U.S.C. 552a(a)(2) (the term “individual” for purposes of the Privacy Act means a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             DHS, ” Privacy Policy and Compliance,” Instruction Number 047-01-001, Revision 00.1 (Feb. 3, 2025), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.dhs.gov/sites/default/files/2025-02/25_0205_mgmt-047-01-001-Privacy-Policy-Compliance-Instruction.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters expressed general concern that the IFR would violate individuals' privacy rights. A commenter reasoned that mandatory registration, including current addresses, poses threats to privacy rights guaranteed by the Privacy Act of 1974 and 
                        <E T="03">Griswold</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Connecticut,</E>
                         381 U.S. 479 (1965). The commenter remarked that fears of excessive surveillance have repeatedly led to the deferral or rejection of universal registration mandates, including the long-running delays in the implementation of the REAL ID Act of 2005 (REAL ID Act).
                        <SU>45</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter added that the privacy concerns are heightened because the IFR makes no exception for registration requirements based on age, only procedural allowances for aliens under the age of 14. The commenter said that the inadequate privacy protection for this information raises considerations for the safety of both minors and survivors of domestic abuse.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>45</SU>
                             Public Law 109-13, 119 Stat. 302.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>A commenter stated that the IFR is silent on privacy and confidentiality protections associated with the registration requirement, remarking that any DHS disclosures of information collected under the IFR must comply with 8 U.S.C. 1367 and related guidance.</P>
                    <P>A commenter expressed concern that the IFR does not provide clear information regarding its privacy impact or how it comports with existing law, including 8 U.S.C. 1367 and related guidance such as DHS Instruction 002-02-001, Revision 00.1; DHS Directive 215-01; DHS Instruction 215-01-001; and DHS Instruction 215-01-002. The commenter remarked that the lack of clarity would make it difficult for individuals, including those subject to 8 U.S.C. 1367 protections or Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals (DACA) recipients, to fully understand how their information would be used and shared in compliance with existing law.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Aliens submitting G-325R do not qualify as protected aliens under 8 U.S.C. 1367, by virtue of such filing; however, if the alien is otherwise designated as a protected alien on another basis, USCIS maintains the same protection for the alien, including for the safe address. Form G-325R provides fields for the alien's mailing or safe address, and if different from his or her mailing or safe address, the alien's physical address. As with all USCIS forms in which an alien may provide a safe address, if USCIS contacts the alien through the mail, USCIS will use the safe address that he or she provides. However, the G-325R process is entirely electronic at this time. All notices sent from USCIS to an alien are uploaded to the alien's myUSCIS account. None of the notices correlating to Form G-325R are issued via mail. Therefore, not only may aliens provide a safe address, consistent with longstanding USCIS practice, USCIS does not at this time send any documents through the mail in connection with Form G-325R.
                    </P>
                    <P>This rule also does not change any procedures or practices of DHS and its subagencies to protect against the unauthorized disclosure of personally identifiable information that DHS collects, disseminates, uses, or maintains.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Freedom of Movement</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated that the financial and criminal penalties created by the IFR, related to the requirement to register and update addresses, would threaten individuals' freedom of movement, a right affirmed by the Supreme Court in 
                        <E T="03">Paul</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Virginia,</E>
                         8 Wall. 168 (1868), and 
                        <E T="03">Saenz</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Roe,</E>
                         526 U.S. 489 (1999). With respect to the statement in the IFR's preamble that “any alien who has failed to comply with the change-of-address notification requirements of 8 U.S.C. 1305 is deportable unless the alien establishes that such failure was reasonably excusable or was not willful” (citing 8 U.S.C. 1227(a)(3)(A)), the commenter stated that this discussion is insufficient because it “provides no framework by which this clause may be interpreted by either registrants or federal officials, exposing registrants to undue subjectivity.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         This IFR neither restricts an alien's freedom of movement 
                        <SU>46</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         nor creates or modifies the criminal penalties, established by Congress many decades ago, that apply when aliens failed to meet their registration and related obligations. The requirements that aliens are required to register, update their address with the government within 10 days of moving, and carry evidence of registration on their person are also not new. DHS, with the IFR and this final rule, has not created these requirements or modified the duties established by Congress for aliens. Providing a current address to DHS is the responsibility of each covered alien.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>46</SU>
                             In other context, several federal courts of appeals have found that a registration requirement and notification provisions do not put a physical restraint on an individual's freedom of movement. 
                            <E T="03">See, e.g., Williamson</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Gregoire,</E>
                             151 F.3d 1180, 1184-85 (9th Cir. 1998) (concluding that the sex offender statute requiring the petitioner to register did not constitute a significant restraint on the petitioner's freedom of movement because the law did not specify a place where the petitioner could not travel and did not otherwise impose great burden); 
                            <E T="03">Wilson</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Flaherty,</E>
                             689 F.3d 332, 337-38 (4th Cir. 2012) (same—citing cases).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">j. Separation of Powers</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Citing Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution, 
                        <E T="03">INS</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Chadha,</E>
                         462 U.S. 919 (1983), and 
                        <E T="03">Brown</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Board of Education,</E>
                         347 U.S. 483 (1954), a commenter stated that the IFR violates the separation of powers doctrine, and that regulations that significantly affect immigrants' rights should be grounded in congressional legislation, not solely in administrative rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The IFR is firmly grounded in congressional legislation; it implemented the alien registration requirements of sections 262 through 266 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302 through 1306. Additionally, section 103(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1103(a), as well as the registration provisions cited previously, provide broad statutory authorization to implement these registration requirements. These laws are duly enacted by Congress. DHS disagrees with the commenters that the IFR suffers from any separation-of-powers defect.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. The IFR's Compliance With International Law</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated that the IFR would violate U.S. international legal obligations to refugees and asylum seekers, obligations stemming from the 1967 Protocol Relating to the Status of Refugees that have been implemented in domestic U.S. law through the Refugee 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39282"/>
                        Act of 1980 and that have been interpreted by the Supreme Court in 
                        <E T="03">INS</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Cardoza-Fonseca,</E>
                         480 U.S. 421, 426 (1987). The commenter remarked that, internationally, registration requirements are intended to facilitate the protection of refugees but that the IFR appears to intend to use registration as a method to target individuals for removal. The commenter wrote that E.O. 14159's purported aim is to “faithfully executing the immigration laws of the United States,” but it does not acknowledge that those laws include the Refugee Act, and that such faithful execution includes providing asylum and other humanitarian protections as appropriate. The commenter criticized the IFR, stating that it fails to take such protections into account.
                    </P>
                    <P>More specifically, the commenter cited Article 31(1) of the 1951 Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees, which establishes that refugees generally may not be penalized for their illegal entry or presence when they come directly from territories where their life or freedom is threatened, present themselves without delay to the authorities, and show good cause for their irregular entry or presence save under certain specified circumstances. Stating that the IFR lacks clarity with respect to whether and how it applies to aliens who are asylees, asylum applicants, and people with protection needs who have not yet applied for asylum, and that it makes no provision for consideration of their individual circumstances, the commenter concluded that the IFR's civil and criminal penalties, if applied to refugees, would generally constitute such impermissible penalties according to international law. Finally, the commenter expressed concern that the registration requirement could lead directly to refugees being removed in violation of non-refoulement requirements, or, for aliens who are in or have completed the asylum application process, that registration noncompliance penalties could lead to either a negative discretionary asylum determination or interfere later with their adjustment of status or naturalization.</P>
                    <P>Other commenters stated that the IFR would infringe on human rights through arbitrary interference with privacy, family, and home law. The commenters noted inadequate information on safeguarding confidential information. While acknowledging the government's authority to regulate immigration, the commenters characterized the IFR as an effort to intimidate aliens that risks violating human rights.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The IFR and this rule are limited in scope to establish a general registration option available to all unregistered aliens regardless of immigration status. An alien who has been issued one of the documents designated as evidence of registration under 8 CFR 264.1(b) has already registered, and an alien who has submitted one of the forms designated at 8 CFR 264.1(a) and provided fingerprints (unless waived), but was not issued one of the evidence of registration designated at 8 CFR 264.1(b), has complied with the registration requirement of section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. If an alien does not have any other pathway to register and to be fingerprinted, the alien may file the Form G-325R to comply with their duty under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Moreover, neither the 1951 Refugee Convention nor its 1967 Protocol preclude state parties from requiring refugees to register with immigration authorities. Indeed, Article 2 of the Convention states, “Every refugee has duties to the country in which he finds himself, which require in particular that he conform to its laws and regulations as well as to measures taken for the maintenance of public order.” And the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) encourages the prompt registration of aliens seeking refugee protection.
                        <SU>47</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>47</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             UNHCR, Registration and Identity Management, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.unhcr.org/us/what-we-do/protect-human-rights/protection/registration-and-identity-management;</E>
                             UNHCR, Handbook for Registration (Sept. 2003), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.refworld.org/policy/opguidance/unhcr/2003/en/20510.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Applicability</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. General Applicability</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters expressed concern that the rule and the new registration process creates confusion surrounding who is required to register and who is exempt. Commenters stated that the IFR and registration requirements caused confusion and lacked clarity and, therefore, the IFR would lead to errors and result in legal immigrants being wrongly penalized for not carrying proof of registration. Commenters similarly expressed concern that the rule is confusing about who is considered registered and lacks clarity for individuals who have already filed immigration forms and may have attended USCIS biometrics appointments.
                    </P>
                    <P>Another commenter wrote that the “confusing” nature of the IFR, coupled with the anxiety and fear, driven by the administration's enhanced immigration enforcement efforts, could lead to the spread of misinformation, with “drastic” consequences even for individuals not subject to the requirement. The commenter wrote that the combination of confusion on how to register with the sudden removal of legal status is entrapment. Other commenters stated that increased bureaucratic hurdles may discourage or complicate compliance. A couple of commenters stated that the IFR adds unnecessary complexity to an already complex immigration system. A commenter wrote that the IFR creates confusion and fear, particularly for immigrants who may already be considered registered through other processes. Another commenter echoed that the IFR creates confusion among those who believe they have already submitted proof of registration, and the omission of certain common immigration documents within the IFR exacerbates the potential for confusion. A commenter stated that, by imposing registration requirements with criminal penalties for noncompliance, it treats immigrants as enforcement targets, regardless of their legal status or history.</P>
                    <P>A commenter expressed concern that the IFR's approach to immigration forms for registration requirements was inadequate and would create stress, fear, and confusion among lawfully present individuals who should be considered registered. The commenter additionally stated that they had heard from community members that unscrupulous actors were exploiting this confusion by promising permanent residency through the registration process and deliberately conflating “Registry” with “Registration” to defraud vulnerable individuals.</P>
                    <P>
                        Specifically, commenters expressed concern that it would be difficult for individuals to accurately assess whether they have previously registered because of the lack of guidance in the IFR, and, therefore, would lead to individuals failing to file Form G-325R. Commenters expressed particular concern about the enumerated lists of registration forms and forms that constitute evidence of registration; commenters stated that these lists of forms do not include all forms that would appear to meet the threshold requirements for registration and fingerprints as prescribed in the INA. A commenter said that those who have submitted lengthy and detailed immigration application forms and undergone fingerprinting and biometrics would reasonably believe that they are already registered.
                        <PRTPAGE P="39283"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter wrote that individuals may not know whether their admission at a U.S. border was pursuant to parole or not, and they may not have an easy way to tell whether an NTA was issued to them, given the wide variation in case processing at the southern U.S. border. The commenter said that its members and clients generally do not know which documents were issued to them at the border and many have lost their documents by the time they reach their place of residence. The commenter raised additional concerns about confusion stating, for instance, that not all of their members who were issued NTAs were fingerprinted in the process. They said that the rule's suggestion that they do not need to do anything else to be considered “registered” leaves no guidance and questions about whether they also need to comply with the fingerprinting requirement. The commenter raised the same question for individuals who submit Form I-485 and for whom it is unclear whether they were previously fingerprinted or if any prior fingerprinting, potentially decades ago, is sufficient for purposes of the registration. Other commenters said that opaque language in the IFR makes the requirements difficult to understand, particularly for those with DACA or TPS status who are technically registered with the U.S. Government but would have to re-register only if they did not have a work permit.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         To the extent that confusion exists regarding whether a given alien has met their registration obligations, the IFR is not responsible for such confusion, and may in fact help abate it. The IFR helped ensure that all aliens have a straightforward way to comply with their alien registration obligations. The IFR did not create alien registration obligations or impose new consequences on aliens for failing to meet those obligations; the requirement to register, the requirement to carry evidence of registration, and the consequences for failing to do so are all creatures of statute. And the President directed DHS and DOJ to prioritize full implementation and enforcement of the law. If an alien was unsure about their registration status prior to the IFR or had lost documents necessary to comply with the alien registration requirements of the INA, the alien might today see a need to clarify his or her registration status or seek a replacement document; but that is not a function of the IFR.
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition to the IFR that publicized the legal obligation of unregistered aliens in the United States to comply with the registration requirements, USCIS established a dedicated website with information on the ARR and created an ARR Tool that may help aliens determine whether they must register.48</P>
                    <P>In principle, DHS agrees that if an application form contains the data elements for alien registration described in 8 U.S.C. 1304(a) and the alien has satisfied relevant fingerprinting requirements, DHS should consider designating such application form and related evidence of registration under 8 CFR 264.1(a) and (b). In section V.A of this preamble, DHS seeks comment on a number of potential forms that DHS may designate at a future date.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter similarly wrote that the Department failed to consider the effects of the IFR on the broader pool of aliens who have registered, leaving a “troubling array of practical issues unaddressed.” The commenter questioned whether LPRs would be required to carry a physical copy of their Green Card at all times, or whether a photocopy would suffice. The commenter further questioned what individuals should do if a Green Card is lost or stolen, as processing times for replacing a Green Card are over 2 years. Additionally, the commenter asked whether those deemed registered by submitting a benefits application, such as a Form I-485, would be required to always carry a copy of the 24-page application on their person. Additionally, for those whose registration hinges on their having been placed into immigration court removal proceedings, the commenter asked whether they must carry a copy of an NTA, even if those proceedings concluded years or decades ago.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The IFR did not change the requirement that aliens issued evidence of registration carry such evidence on their person. The IFR filled a gap in the regulation by adding a general option for unregistered aliens who previously did not have a straightforward way to comply with the existing statutory registration requirements. Such aliens may register using the Form G-325R and carry a copy of the USCIS Proof of Alien G-325R Registration, or its successor form.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The IFR had no effects on LPRs, because LPRs are considered registered and are issued a permanent resident card as evidence of registration.
                        <SU>49</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Such persons are not affected by the IFR's prescribing of the Form G-325R as a registration form. DHS notes that, as required by statute, LPRs 18 years of age or older must carry their evidence of registration on their person. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 264(e), 8 U.S.C. 1304(e). If an LPR's permanent resident card is lost or stolen and the LPR files the Form I-90 to replace his or her card, the LPR could obtain temporary evidence of LPR status, such as an Alien Documentation Identification and Telecommunication (ADIT) stamp (also known as an I-551 stamp). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 264.5(h). DHS agencies have access to DHS databases, which contain information regarding a pending Form I-90. Similarly, DHS agencies have access to DHS database to confirm a pending adjustment of status application and whether an alien has been fingerprinted as part of that application.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>49</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             8 CFR 264.1(a) and (b). However, DHS notes that if an LPR turns 14, the LPR is required to re-register by filing Form I-90, Application to Replace Permanent Resident Card, pursuant to 8 CFR 264.5.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        If an alien's evidence of registration is the Form I-862, Notice to Appear, the alien must carry that evidence of registration and always have that evidence in their personal possession as required by the law. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 U.S.C. 1304(e); 8 CFR 264.1(b). But that requirement is not a function of this rule; it is a function of the alien registration requirements of the INA and longstanding regulations.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Applicability to Minors</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Legal Considerations of Applicability to Minors</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Multiple commenters discussed the legal implications of applying registration requirements to minors. Commenters said the application of the IFR to minors would raise numerous concerns and “belies the outdated nature of the law on which this rule is based.” These commenters remarked that in the decades since the Alien Registration Act was written, our understanding of childhood and adolescence has evolved, including intervening law that recognizes the unique, significant vulnerabilities and differences of children. To support their position on the IFR's perceived departure from the prevailing law and science of childhood and adolescence, commenters cited examples of case law, such as 
                        <E T="03">Roper</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Simmons,</E>
                         543 U.S. 551 (2005); 
                        <E T="03">In re Gault,</E>
                         387 U.S. 1 (1967); and 
                        <E T="03">Matter of Devison,</E>
                         22 I&amp;N Dec. 1362 (BIA 2000). A commenter, echoing these remarks, said that immigration law has long recognized a distinction between juvenile and adult law, and children have not been held to the same standards as adults.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Multiple commenters wrote that requiring children between the ages of 14 and 18 years old to register and be fingerprinted runs contrary to longstanding norms in the U.S. legal system. The commenters wrote that juvenile justice experts agree that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39284"/>
                        juvenile justice policies and stakeholders should avoid exposing youth to the criminal juvenile justice system. Thus, the commenters reasoned, expecting that a child of middle- or high-school age would be aware of, understand, and complete the complex process and implications of registration with the Federal Government or face exposure to the U.S. criminal juvenile system for failure to comply would be “unduly burdensome and harsh, as well as inappropriate and unfounded.” A commenter, citing the Juvenile Delinquency Act and 18 U.S.C. 5031 and 5032, remarked that while States determine their own age of majority, under Federal law, individuals under 18 are typically considered too young to bear full criminal responsibility and are generally processed through State juvenile courts, with adult prosecution occurring only in specific circumstances involving violent crimes. The commenter expressed concern that violations of registration and biometric requirements could potentially classify children as “juvenile delinquents” for failing to comply with administrative regulations they may not fully understand. The commenter pointed out that for alien minors aged 14 to 18, compliance with registration requirements assumes these adolescents have complete knowledge of their immigration status and can independently take legal action. The commenter concluded that channeling alien children into juvenile or Federal court systems as a consequence of noncompliance with registration and biometric requirements could potentially compromise children's wellbeing and place inappropriate legal burdens on minors.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter stated that the registration requirements under the IFR would negatively impact children's safety, health and well-being, and their family integrity. The commenter suggested that this would defy universal standards found in State courts as well as multiple aspects of immigration law, which consider a child's best interests. Specifically, the commenter wrote that all 50 States and the District of Columbia require courts to consider a child's best interests (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the child's safety and well-being; expressed interests; health; and their rights to family integrity, liberty, development, and identity) in decisions about the child's custody, placement, or other critical life issues. While providing detailed remarks and examples, including Executive Office for Immigration Review (EOIR) guidance requiring immigration judges to “employ age-appropriate procedures whenever a juvenile respondent or witness is present in the courtroom,” the commenter stated that this same awareness of what is best for children is not reflected in the IFR.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Congress, by the express terms of section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, intended that the ARR apply to aliens 14 years of age or older. It is the duty of DHS to administer and enforce that law. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 103(a)(1), 8 U.S.C. 1103(a)(1); 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         E.O. 14159 sec. 7, 90 FR 8443 (Jan. 20, 2025). As explained in the IFR, the IFR did not impose any new registration or fingerprinting obligations separate from the obligations already contained in the INA, including for children who turn 14 years of age. Parents and legal guardians of aliens under the age of 14, not the children themselves, must ensure that those alien children are registered.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Information Access, Comprehension, and Developmental Considerations for Minors</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters expressed concern that the IFR would subject children to “invasive” reporting requirements. Another commenter similarly wrote that the requirement that non-U.S. citizens aged 14 and older register, provide fingerprints, and list their current address is an “overstep.” The commenter reasoned that children's rights should be protected by the law, and many aliens are already registered (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         via Form I-94, an EAD, or nonimmigrant or immigrant visa). Thus, the commenter concluded, this policy would not provide any additional protection, but, instead, would encroach on the rights of children and produce fear.
                    </P>
                    <P>Numerous commenters regarded reporting requirements for minors as inappropriate or unnecessary. Many commenters said it is not developmentally appropriate to expect children ages 14 to 18 to understand and fulfill the requirement to register and be fingerprinted or to safeguard or always carry proof of registration on their person. Commenters stated that the IFR holds children to unrealistically high standard, and that children as young as 14 cannot be expected to understand and fulfill the registration requirement or carry proof of registration—nor can they be expected to be aware of the need to register, in addition to the consequential implications of noncompliance. Another commenter generally remarked that children should not be treated as adults, regardless of their immigration status.</P>
                    <P>A commenter cited research on the development of children and adolescents and said it would be “unfair and unwise” to place such a consequential requirement on children, based on what is known about their development. Other commenters cited numerous scientific studies and standards within the Federal Sentencing Commission to demonstrate that the brains of children and adolescents have not developed fully in a way that provides them the necessary reasoning skills to comply with the registration requirements or meaningfully calculate the long-term effects of certain actions.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter likewise wrote that the age limit for the unaccompanied minors program illustrates the government's understanding that 18 years old is a reasonable threshold at which to expect that a child is capable of handling their affairs independently. Thus, the commenter concluded, the IFR's application to 14-year-olds ignores the modern understanding of adolescence and a teenager's ability to understand not only the process but also the repercussions of violating the registration requirement. A commenter, similarly raising developmental concerns for minors subject to the IFR, further reasoned that for adults, the choices and consequences presented by the IFR are difficult enough to fully understand; to expect children to make such a decision would be “unconscionable.”</P>
                    <P>Multiple commenters similarly expressed concern that the information required for registration may be unavailable or incomprehensible to minors, and specifically, commenters remarked that children 14 years or older may have been very young when they entered the United States and may not easily be able to access their immigration history, such as their date of arrival. Another commenter explained that questions regarding immigration history, dates of entry, and parental information may be difficult for children to know or recall, and questions about criminal history may be misunderstood by a child, including children who have been exploited or trafficked by criminal actors.</P>
                    <P>
                        Commenters additionally wrote that the Form G-325R asks complex questions that minors would be unlikely to comprehend, such as questions about past and future activities in the United States. A commenter reasoned that the registration process is highly complex, leaving “no room for errors or gaps”; however, the commenter said, as many of those completing the form would be minors and may have limited English proficiency, such errors could result in serious consequences for that population.
                        <PRTPAGE P="39285"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that questions regarding immigration history, dates of entry, and parental information may be difficult for children to know or recall, and questions about criminal history may be misunderstood by a child, including children who have been exploited or trafficked by criminal actors, potentially abridging children's legal rights. The commenter said that many of these questions may be duplicative of information requested on applications for legal relief that a child may already have on file with the government.</P>
                    <P>A commenter, expressing concerns about impacts of the rule on minors, wrote that the IFR provides no provisions for developmentally appropriate information or guidance related to the many mandatory questions on Form G-325R. A commenter similarly noted that for children under 14 and their guardians, there is a lack of age-specific instruction or accommodation, increasing the risk of mistaken noncompliance.</P>
                    <P>A commenter wrote that requiring immigrant minors to register with the Federal Government could lead to unnecessary fiscal and health costs, while exposing minors to targeting, arrests, and detention.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS notes that many aliens are already registered and, thus, are not directly affected by this IFR or the new general registration option. The statute requires, with limited exceptions, that all aliens over the age 14 who remain in the United States for 30 days or longer must apply for registration and to be fingerprinted, if required, before the expiration of 30 days. Similarly, parents and legal guardians of aliens below the age of 14 must ensure that those aliens are registered. Within 30 days of an alien reaching his or her 14th birthday, all previously registered aliens must apply for re-registration and be fingerprinted. DHS, with the IFR and final rule, has not changed the existing statutory registration requirements established by Congress for aliens. It is within Congress' control and its policy choice to change the statutory registration requirement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        With regard to the complexity of questions on the Form G-325R, aliens who are 14 years or older already receive service of notices to initiate removal proceedings, and must sign their own applications for immigration benefits. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 103.2(a)(2), 103.8(c)(2)(ii). The questions on the Form G-325R are similar to the questions asked on other registration forms in 8 CFR 264.1(a), including the Form I-485, Application to Register Permanent Residence or Adjust Status. With regard to aliens under 14 years of age, the parent or legal guardian has the duty to register aliens under 14, using an USCIS online account that the parent or legal guardian creates for the alien child.
                    </P>
                    <P>Additionally, aliens under the age of 18 are not forced to carry proof of registration at all times. The statutory carry requirement under section 264(e) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(e) applies only to aliens 18 years of age and over in the United States, including but not limited to those who register using this new process. The statute does not require children under the age of 18 to carry proof of the registration.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A different commenter suggested that the application of the IFR to minors is misguided. The commenter questioned how fingerprinting migrant children falls under “Protecting the American People Against Invasion,” and requested statistics of crimes committed by migrant children in the United States. The commenter further questioned why a child would need fingerprinting as they are being placed into foster care and asked whether the same is done with naturalized children.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The statute requires most aliens over the age of 14 who remain in the United States for 30 days or longer are required to apply for registration and with some exceptions based on age or nonimmigrant status, be fingerprinted. This rule is consistent with the requirements outlined in section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302 and E.O. 14159 and simply prescribe a general registration option available to all unregistered aliens regardless of immigration status. DHS, with the IFR and this final rule, has not created or modified the statutory requirements of an alien's duty to register with the government under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. DHS has an obligation to faithfully execute the laws established by Congress, including the alien registration requirement. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 103(a), 8 U.S.C. 1103(a). The IFR established a general registration option available to all unregistered aliens regardless of immigration status.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters also expressed concern that children who are forced to carry proof of registration at all times could be marginalized and separated from their citizen peers, which a commenter said would have detrimental developmental impacts.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS disagrees with the characterization and the impact described by commenters. Aliens under the age of 18 are not forced to always carry proof of registration. The statutory carry requirement under section 264(e) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(e) applies only to aliens 18 years of age and over in the United States, including but not limited to those who register using this new process. The statute does not require children under the age of 18 to carry proof of the registration.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Inconsistencies or Clarity of the Rule for Minors</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter asked whether children under 14 years of age who enter the United States on a visa are required to re-register under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, including the new requirement to register and be fingerprinted when they turn 14 years old.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The statute, with limited exceptions, requires that within 30 days of an alien reaching his or her 14th birthday, all previously registered aliens must apply for re-registration and be fingerprinted. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 262(b), 8 U.S.C. 1302(b).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter criticized the IFR as confusing, questioned the applicability of the biometrics requirement to minors under 14, and wrote that border authorities reportedly issued a policy providing for the collection of biometrics from all minors, despite the waiver in the IFR for those under 14.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The statute requires parents and legal guardians of aliens under the age of 14 to register those aliens. These aliens are not required to appear for a biometric services appointment to register, and USCIS will provide evidence of registration after the parent or legal guardian complies with the registration requirement. The collection of biometrics by CBP is outside the scope of the rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated the IFR is replete with ambiguities that require more clarification from DHS, including the extent to which the registration requirements are retroactive, and whether they cover people who entered the United States more than 30 days before the IFR was published or takes effect, or whether they cover children subject to registration upon turning 14 who turned 14 more than 30 days before the IFR was published or takes effect. The commenter said, if it is not retroactive, then it is unclear whether DHS is setting the applicability date at the IFR publication date of March 12, 2025, or the IFR effective date of April 11, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS, with the IFR and this final rule, has not created new requirements or modified the legal obligations that most aliens who are in the United States for 30 days or longer to comply with the registration requirements. This rulemaking has 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39286"/>
                        established a general registration option to ensure that all aliens have a way to register. The IFR had an effective date of April 11, 2025, and thus provided sufficient notice again of the enforcement priority pursuant to President Trump's directing on the enforcement priority. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 11793 (Mar. 12, 2025); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         DHS, Press Release, “Secretary Noem Reminds Foreign Nationals to Register under Longstanding Federal Law or Face Legal Penalties” (Apr. 11, 2025), 
                        <E T="03">https://www.dhs.gov/news/2025/04/11/secretary-noem-reminds-foreign-nationals-register-or-face-legal-penalties.</E>
                         In any event, many months have passed since the IFR's publication.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters stated that children under the age of 14 who were issued an immigrant or a nonimmigrant visa were already registered pursuant to section 221 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1201 and should not have to register again.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS agrees that an alien who has not turned 14 years old and was issued an immigrant visa or nonimmigrant visa prior to admission to the United States is considered registered under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. However, these aliens will have to re-register and be fingerprinted within 30 days after reaching 14 years of age, in accordance with section 262(b) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302(b).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated that it is unclear whether all children who received Form I-551 while under the age of 14 are exempt from the process as long as they comply with the existing rule that they file a Form I-90, Application to Replace Permanent Resident Card, within 30 days of turning 14 to apply for a new Green Card.
                    </P>
                    <P>The commenter also asked whether children who do not file a Form I-90 within 30 days of turning 14 because their current Green Card expires before they turn 16, would need to complete Form G-325R when they turn 14. These children are using the regulatory exception that allows them not to submit a Form I-90 (and be fingerprinted) until they file their routine Green Card extension application within 6 months of the card's expiration.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS notes that in accordance with 8 CFR 264.1(g), an alien who reaches 14 years of age and who is an LPR must apply for registration and to be fingerprinted, unless waived. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 262(a), 8 U.S.C. 1302(a); 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         8 CFR 264.1(g). As noted in the Form I-90 instructions, such an alien submits the Form I-90 to comply with his or her duty to register with the government under the statute.
                        <SU>50</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Such an alien would not submit the Form G-325R. DHS is also soliciting comments in section V of this preamble on updating the regulatory text in 8 CFR 264.5(b)(8) to align with section 262(b) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302(b), which requires aliens who turn 14 to register irrespective of whether they were registered previously. The instructions of Form I-90 are clear on this point, and accurate.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>50</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS, Form I-90, “Instruction for Application to Replace Permanent Resident Card,” OMB No. 1615-0082 (expires Feb. 28, 2027), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/sites/default/files/document/forms/i-90instr.pdf</E>
                             (“After reaching 14 years of age, a lawful permanent resident must register and submit Form I-90. Registration and fingerprinting are required within 30 days after a child reaches 14 years of age.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few commenters addressed ambiguities in the IFR's discussion of the provisions for minors. The commenters noted that the rule states in one section that if children have one of the forms listed, they “need not register again,” while in another section, the rule states that all “noncitizen” children must register when they turn 14, whether previously registered or not. A couple of these commenters quoted the rule, stating that while the IFR explains that someone “who has previously registered consistent with 8 CFR 264.1(a), or. . .who has evidence of registration consistent with 8 CFR 264.1(b), need not register again,” it elsewhere states that affected populations include a “noncitizen” “whether previously registered or not, who turns 14 years old in the United States and therefore must register within 30 days after their 14th birthday.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The statute requires aliens under the age of 14 who remain in the United States for 30 days or longer to be registered by their parents or legal guardians before the expiration of the 30 days. There is no fingerprint requirement for the registration of these aliens under the age of 14. USCIS and the former INS have consistently implemented the plain language of section 262(b) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302(b) (for example, in the context of LPRs turning 14 years of age) over the years. The broad language of the second sentence of section 262(b) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302(b) (“whenever any alien attains his fourteenth birthday in the United States he shall”) compels such aliens to register again and to be fingerprinted (unless waived) within 30 days after their 14th birthday. This requirement has been in place in section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302(b), without amendment by Congress, since the ARR was initially placed in the INA in 1952. Indeed, the requirement (using this language) initially appeared in the Alien Registration Act of 1940, Public Law 76-670.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter said the IFR does not address how the enumerated criminal penalties would be assessed to children who may not be able to meet the requirements to register or maintain proof of registration.
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters noted that the rule is silent on the implications for a child who is not living with a parent or legal guardian, or who lives with one who is abusive or neglectful and does not register on the child's behalf.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS notes that the alien registration requirement, including the provisions relating to children under 14 years of age, those who have recently turned 14 years of age within the United States, or those 14 years of age or older, as well as the related criminal penalties, has been a part of our laws since 1940. The IFR and the final rule add another method for compliance with the existing statutory registration requirements. This IFR did not create or modify the obligations and consequences related to the registration requirement, including the criminal penalties. The registration requirement was established by Congress many decades ago and is thus a longstanding legal requirement. While DHS defers to its partners at the DOJ regarding the enforcement of the criminal provisions, DHS notes that for children under 14 years of age, the children themselves face no criminal penalties for a failure or refusal to register, but rather the parents and or the legal guardians could face criminal penalties. For those 14 years of age or older, DHS notes that only a “willful” failure or refusal to register is penalized in section 266(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1306(a).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter said that the IFR does not consider how law enforcement implementing the carry requirement would distinguish between children under 18 and youth 18 and over. The commenter asked whether this implicitly imposes a separate carry requirement for adolescent children subject to registration to always carry proof of their age on their person and asked what kind of proof of age would suffice.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS notes that the IFR and this rule have not changed procedures related to the carry requirements under section 264(e) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(e). The comments regarding the enforcement of section 264(e) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(e) is out of scope of this rulemaking. In general, however, DHS agencies enforcing the carry requirement have access to DHS 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39287"/>
                        databases, which contain not only information about whether DHS has issued evidence of registration to a specific alien, but also the alien's age. Additionally, aliens under the age of 18 are not forced to carry proof of registration at all times. The statutory carry requirement under section 264(e) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(e) applies only to aliens 18 years of age and over in the United States, including but not limited to those who register using this new process. The statute does not require children under the age of 18 to carry proof of the registration.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Safety Concerns for Minors</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         While citing reports and anecdotal evidence, a commenter additionally expressed concern that uncertainty about registration requirements could expose minors to potential abuse. Specifically, the commenter said that a “universal registration requirement” for aliens as proposed under the IFR would increase the vectors by which bad actors impersonating Federal agents can exploit vulnerable migrants, particularly minors, while simultaneously hindering compliance with registration requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter expressed concern that questioning “undocumented” minors as young as 14 years old would provide an avenue to incarcerate them, adding that detention facilities are detrimental to mental and physical health and even fatal.</P>
                    <P>A commenter expressed safety concerns related to the registration requirement for parents and legal guardians while discussing the risks of family safety and stability. The commenter expressed concern with family separation under the IFR, stating that by subjecting parents who fail to register or who lack proof of registration to detention or criminal prosecution, the IFR would institutionalize family separation and psychological harm to children. The commenter added that the IFR requires parents to volunteer information about their children that could expose their children to immigration enforcement, including detention and deportation, impacting the authority of parents to direct the education, nurture, and supervision of their children. The commenter concluded that these impacts on family well-being, autonomy and integrity would violate section 654 of the Treasury General Appropriations Act of 1999.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         As stated in the IFR, DHS has determined that the implementation of this regulation will not negatively affect family well-being in accordance with section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act of 1999 
                        <SU>51</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and will not have any impact on the autonomy and integrity of the family as an institution. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 11793, 11799 (Mar. 12, 2025). The registration requirement neither impacts the stability or the safety of the family, particularly in terms of the marital commitment, nor the well-being of a family overall. To the contrary, as outlined in President Trump's E.O., enforcing the Nation's immigration laws is critically important to the national security and public safety of the United States and individuals present within the United States. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         E.O. 14159, sec. 1.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>51</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Public Law 105-277, 112 Stat. 2681 (1998).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Unaccompanied Alien Children</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter, offering highly detailed remarks on the IFR, stated that UACs are among the world's most vulnerable populations, with thousands fleeing violence, persecution, abuse, and trafficking each year. The commenter noted that Congress created specific procedural protections for UACs in the TVPRA to prevent their return to trafficking and other harm. The commenter wrote that the TVPRA provides safeguards for UACs, including exemption from expedited removal, placement in full immigration removal proceedings, the right to have asylum applications first considered by USCIS in an interview setting, and exemption from the 1-year filing deadline for asylum and from the safe third country bar. The commenter expressed concern that the IFR fails to consider these existing protections and the unique needs of UACs. Furthermore, the commenter observed that the IFR does not specifically mention UACs, their legal protections, or provide an exemption for this population. The commenter additionally warned that DHS's failure to consider the specific ways in which the IFR would impact UACs could cause significant harm as a result of noncompliance.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS notes that the various existing protections mentioned in the context of UACs were established by Congress through legislation. While various pieces of legislation providing protections for UACs have been enacted, Congress has not made any changes to sections 262 through 266 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302 through 1306, regarding UACs and the alien registration requirement. However, DHS notes that the criminal provision relating to a failure or refusal to register does not apply to aliens under 14 years of age, and for aliens 14 years of age or older requires that such a failure or refusal to register be willful. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 266(a), 8 U.S.C. 1306(a). In addition, the carry requirement of section 264(e) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(e), only applies to aliens 18 years of age or older who have been issued evidence of registration by DHS.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter expressed concern that the rule does not address whether and how UACs who do not have parents or legal guardians in the United States would comply with the initial registration requirement; who would be responsible for registering children in ORR custody or released to a nonparental/non-guardian sponsor; and how UACs turning 18 would learn if they were previously registered or provide evidence of such registration. Another commenter also raised concerns about compliance for those in government custody with ORR. A commenter said that it may be particularly challenging for UACs and those previously in Federal Government custody to obtain the information required for registration.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that the IFR, as written, would cause confusion among shelter providers and sponsors about whether and when children in ORR custody need to register, and who is responsible for registration. The commenter warned that this confusion could expose children to prolonged detention and later arrest due to the rule's vagueness as to who has responsibility for registering them and how to comply when a child is in government custody. The commenter further expressed concern that the IFR does not provide children with a mechanism to comply while in government custody. They explained that children in ORR shelters are rarely permitted to leave and would face structural barriers to complying with the registration requirements, including not having basic access to the rules or the ability to obtain fingerprinting and biometrics. Finally, the commenter warned that the IFR leaves foster children who are in the custody of State foster agencies vulnerable to the risk of arrest and deportation.</P>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters expressed concern that the IFR lacks clarity regarding who would be required to register an unaccompanied child released to a sponsor who was neither a parent nor a legal guardian. A commenter voiced concern that the rule lacks clarity regarding its application to UACs and their sponsors, which they said may make it less likely that they would be able to determine whether they are required to complete Form G-325R to register with the Federal 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39288"/>
                        Government. The commenter wrote, under the IFR, parents and legal guardians of alien children under the age of 14 have a duty to register their child, but the IFR does not account for the fact that many UACs under the age of 14 are released to a sponsor who is not their parent or legal guardian. Citing HHS data, the commenter said that, from November 30, 2024, to February 28, 2025, 49.7 percent of UACs in ORR custody were released to a sponsor who was neither a parent nor a legal guardian. Commenting from the viewpoint of a legal services provider for many UACs, the commenter expressed deep concerns about a lack of clarity around who is required to register such individuals and potential penalties for failing to register before the age of 14 and requested additional guidance from DHS around how to ensure young immigrant children comply with the IFR.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that the IFR does not address if and how the registration requirement would be applied to children under the age of 14 placed with non-parental/non-guardian sponsors. The commenter expressed concern that children could be registered inconsistently or with inaccurate information or be compelled to interact with parents with whom they may not otherwise be in contact, potentially risking harm to children seeking protection from abuse, abandonment, neglect, or similar parental mistreatment. Furthermore, the commenter said it is unclear whether UACs or sponsors would be advised of registration requirements through legal orientations during ORR care or upon release, and how children turning 14 while in the care of a non-parent/non-guardian sponsor would learn of related requirements to register themselves. The commenter also expressed concern that a child's registration status could vary unexpectedly over time based on their submission or receipt of immigration forms, their age, or other factors, creating confusion and barriers, particularly for UACs turning 18, who are expected to carry proof of registration at all times or face significant penalties.</P>
                    <P>A commenter said the rule would have a chilling effect on potential sponsors of UACs, who may fear that they would be targeted if they have not registered, or that, by agreeing to sponsor an unaccompanied child under the age of 14, they would assume a legal obligation to ensure that child is registered.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter wrote that a lack of clarity around the applicability of the IFR to UACs would increase reluctance among immigrant children to confide in or cooperate with law enforcement, causing particular harm to children who are victims of or witnesses to trafficking or other crimes, making children and communities less safe.</P>
                    <P>A commenter, citing multiple studies and reports, stated that immigrant children, including many UACs the commenter serves, have suffered trauma—from poverty, trafficking, or violence—that affects cognitive development, maturity, and memory. The commenter said that these conditions could make responding to the registration process more difficult for these children. A commenter in the healthcare sector noted that pediatricians who provide care to immigrant children are reporting great confusion over how to comply with the IFR, as patients who are UACs and their family members or caregivers do not understand whether they are subject to the IFR. The commenter said its members lack clarity from DHS on how best to advise these patients.</P>
                    <P>Commenters expressed concern that UACs may face prolonged family separation and profound re-traumatization if their sponsors or family are criminally prosecuted for failure to register or carry proof of registration. Similarly, a commenter voiced concern about chilling effects on those willing to be sponsors as a result of the IFR, as adults living with children would be held criminally responsible for complying with the registration requirement. This, the commenter cautioned, would lead to children languishing for longer periods in ORR custody, where educational curricula are limited, and certain developmental needs—such as hugs—are prohibited. A commenter additionally commented that prioritized enforcement against those who fail to comply with registration and fingerprinting requirements could impact potential sponsors of UACs, including children's parents and other family members, impeding their ability to care for children once they leave ORR custody. Consequently, the commenter said, children could face prolonged time in ORR care or face release to more distant and potentially less suitable sponsors.</P>
                    <P>A commenter said the Department offers no clarity about what would happen to minors who are arrested for noncompliance, including whether they may be returned to Federal custody, such as under ORR. The commenter and others, citing multiple reports, expressed additional concern for children in ORR custody due to the rule's complexity and language requirements, which the commenters warned could lead to unnecessary registrations of children 14 and older and enforcement actions against children and their families. The commenters said this is particularly concerning, as ORR has begun dismantling legal services for UACs and has issued its own IFR for ORR employees to share information about sponsors to ICE.</P>
                    <P>A commenter, discussing detailed concerns, wrote that the IFR is silent on whether DHS intends to apply the registration requirement to UACs in government custody. The commenter said it is also unclear whether ORR must complete registration forms for children in its care, how ORR would make such determinations, what physical address would be used, how to avoid duplication of registration, and other considerations for UACs. The commenter noted that average lengths of stay in ORR custody exceed 30 days, and some children may remain in long-term foster care placements for months or longer, meaning many UACs may still be in government care when they are required to comply with registration provisions. Citing the ORR Policy Guide, the commenter explained that ORR currently undertakes certain actions to ensure a child's attendance at immigration hearings scheduled while the child is in custody and facilitates access to legal orientations and screenings; however, the commenter noted that ORR generally must not make representations or share information about a child's immigration case with other Federal agencies unless requested by the child or their legal service provider. The commenter said that these safeguards recognize the harmful and prejudicial effect that unauthorized information sharing could have on a child's rights, fair adjudication of applications for humanitarian protection, and overall safety.</P>
                    <P>The commenter expressed concern that Form G-325R includes numerous questions with potential bearing on a child's immigration case that may also be contained within other legal applications the child is completing or has submitted. The commenter stated it would be inappropriate and prejudicial for ORR to complete this form on a child's behalf, particularly without the child's ability to consult with legal counsel.</P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter expressed concern about the potential for imprisonment of UACs based on noncompliance with requirements discussed in the IFR, stating that this raises serious issues that the Department should have considered but does not address in the IFR. The commenter stated it would therefore be 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39289"/>
                        possible for UACs to face re-detention in ORR custody or in ICE or other law enforcement facilities. The commenter questioned how any such arrests would comport with the TVPRA, Flores Settlement, and juvenile justice reforms regarding conditions and procedural protections for children and youth.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The IFR and this final rule are limited in scope and establish a general registration option available to all unregistered aliens regardless of immigration status. When Congress established the alien registration requirement in 1940, it did not address scenarios in which an alien child under 14 years of age required to register would be present in the United States without a parent or legal guardian. However, the statute and the registration processes does not require a parent or legal guardian to themselves be present in the United States in order to register an alien child under 14 years of age as required under section 262(b) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302(b). The same is true for UACs under 14 years of age in HHS custody or who have been released to a nonparental or non-legal guardian sponsor; the statute still places duty to register the UAC on the parent or legal guardian. The statute does not place a duty to register a UAC on ORR or on any nonparental or non-legal guardian sponsor. Also, in general, UACs are served Form I-862, Notice to Appear, and placed in removal proceedings by DHS before the UAC is transferred to ORR care, custody, and placement. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 U.S.C. 1232(a)(5)(D) and 8 CFR 236.3(f)(1). UACs are considered to be registered once the Form I-862 is issued by DHS. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 264.1(b). With regard to UACs who are 14 years of age or older, DHS notes that they already receive personal service of notices to initiate removal proceedings on Form I-862, Notice to Appear, which constitutes as evidence of registration in 8 CFR 264.1(b), and must sign their own applications for immigration benefits. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 103.8(c)(2)(ii); 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         8 CFR 103.2(a)(2). DHS, as directed by President Trump in E.O. 14159, has publicized information about the duty of aliens described in section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, to register and be fingerprinted (if required). In addition to the rulemaking actions to publicize information on the alien registration requirement, USCIS established a dedicated website with information on the ARR and an ARR Tool that may help aliens determine whether they must register.
                    </P>
                    <P>Also, as mentioned previously, the criminal provision relating to a failure or refusal to register does not apply to aliens under 14 years of age. While DHS defers to its partners at DOJ regarding the enforcement of the criminal provisions, DHS notes that for aliens 14 years of age or older only a “willful” failure or refusal to register or be fingerprinted is penalized in section 266(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1306(a).</P>
                    <P>
                        If any alien is unsure whether they are registered, an alien may use the ARR Tool established by USCIS, to determine if an alien must register.
                        <SU>52</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In addition, the carry requirement of section 264(e) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(e), only applies to aliens 18 years of age or older who have been issued evidence of registration by DHS.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>52</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS, “Alien Registration Requirement,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/alienregistration</E>
                             (last updated May 6, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Following the placement of an unaccompanied child with a sponsor, the child is to be provided with an NTA (Form I-862), which 8 CFR 264.1(b) lists as satisfying the registration requirements; however, multiple commenters discussed confusion and practical concerns about UACs fulfilling the registration requirements with an NTA. Commenters said that, while the rule exempts those who have been served an NTA, this would be confusing for many UACs and their families. They wrote that UACs not only may be unaware of the specific documentation they have received by nature of their age, vulnerability, and lack of legal competency; but they also may not have received an NTA. While citing a report, some commenters wrote that, until recently, ICE maintained a policy of deferring filings with immigration courts of UACs' NTAs until their placement with sponsors. Furthermore, the commenter reasoned, receipt of NTAs for unaccompanied youth has also been hampered by address changes amongst children and families, and by information errors and improper service by the government.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter remarked that lawyers have reported many cases where DHS either fails to file or delays in filing NTAs that have been issued to UACs with the DOJ's EOIR. The commenter said that, in cases where the form is not filed with EOIR in a timely manner, an unaccompanied child should not be expected to file Form G-325R; instead, once they have been issued an NTA, they should be considered registered. The commenter expressed concern that the IFR does not contemplate this scenario and requested clarity as to whether the issuance of Form I-862 without the filing of said form with EOIR would satisfy the registration requirements.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The IFR and this rule are limited in scope and establish a general registration option available to all unregistered aliens regardless of immigration status. The regulations identify a Form I-862 as constituting evidence of registration under 8 CFR 264.1(b), and an alien with this evidence of registration is considered to have complied with their duty to register with the government under section 262(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302(a). If a UAC or his or her sponsor is unsure whether the UAC is registered, the UAC or his or her sponsor may use the ARR Tool established by USCIS, to determine if an alien must register.
                        <SU>53</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>53</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS, “Alien Registration Requirement,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/alienregistration</E>
                             (last updated May 6, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter expressed concern with the requirement to admit juvenile adjudications, even those that were sealed, which the commenter said could have immigration consequences children would not understand.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Under section 262(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302(a), forms designated to register aliens “shall contain queries with respect to . . . the police and criminal record, if any, of such alien.” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 264(a), 8 U.S.C. 1304(a). Many forms used to seek immigration benefits request information about the applicant's criminal history, even if the criminal activity occurred when the applicant is a minor. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Form I-485, Application to Register Permanent Residence or Adjust Status, Part 9, Question 23; Form I-589, Application for Asylum and for Withholding of Removal, Part B, Question 2.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter expressed his concerns about the confusion and compliance challenges for UACs, including those in ORR custody, and suggested that there should, at the least, be a clear carveout for children who are currently or have previously been in Federal immigration custody. The commenter reasoned that these children have already been processed by government agencies and should have been issued an NTA, although it may not be in their possession due to government practices and policies, and that these children have necessarily provided biographic and biometric information, rendering further registration unnecessary. Another commenter urged DHS to rescind the IFR, and, at minimum, exempt UACs from the provisions, to prevent the return of this population to trafficking and other harm. The commenter suggested, rather than increasing barriers for UACs facing known harm, DHS could have exempted UACs 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39290"/>
                        altogether or considered children's other legal applications as evidence of registration.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The statute provides limited exemptions 
                        <SU>54</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         to the alien registration requirements. The IFR and this final rule have not created or modified the statutory requirements established by Congress that apply to aliens under 14 years of age, those who have recently turned 14 years of age within the United States, and those 14 years of age or older who are still a “child” for immigration purposes.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>54</SU>
                             Aliens who are exempt from the registration requirement are A and G nonimmigrants in the United States until they cease to be entitled to such nonimmigrant status pursuant to INA sec. 263(b), 8 U.S.C. 1303(b), American Indians born in Canada who entered the United States under INA sec. 289, 8 U.S.C. 1359, and Members of the Kickapoo Traditional Tribe of Texas who entered the United States under the Texas Band of Kickapoo Act sec. 4(d) of Public Law 97-429 (1983)
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>DHS agrees that aliens issued an NTA on a Form I-862 have evidence of registration in accordance with 8 CFR 264.1(b) and would not complete the general registration option as provided in the IFR and this final rule. An alien is, in general, already registered if the alien:</P>
                    <P>• Was issued an immigrant or nonimmigrant visa and at his or her most recent arrival was admitted into the United States using that visa;</P>
                    <P>• Has been issued one of the documents designated as evidence of registration under 8 CFR 264.1(b); or</P>
                    <P>• Submitted one of the forms designated at 8 CFR 264.1(a) and provided fingerprints (unless waived) but was not issued one of the forms of evidence of registration designated at 8 CFR 264.1(b).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Special Immigrant Juveniles</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter expressed concern that children who file Form I-360, seeking SIJ status, would experience difficulties assessing whether they have met the registration requirements. The commenter said, after filing a SIJ-based Form I-360, applicants generally are not required to attend biometrics appointments; however, those who file Form I-765, after they receive a SIJ-based deferred action determination are required to attend a biometrics appointment, although they are not always fingerprinted. The commenter said that many of these children would be uncertain as to whether they are registered and would be unlikely to complete Form G-325R on their own. They urged the Federal Government to take the age and particular vulnerabilities of children who file for SIJ status into account and waive the requirement for children who file Form I-360 to be fingerprinted, just as it waives the requirement for all children under the age of 14.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS, as directed by President Trump in E.O. 14159, has publicized information about the duty of aliens described in section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, to register and be fingerprinted (if required). In addition to the rulemaking actions to publicize information on the alien registration requirement, USCIS established a dedicated website with information on the ARR and an ARR Tool that may help aliens determine whether they must register. If any alien is unsure whether they are registered, an alien may use the ARR Tool established by USCIS, to determine if an alien must register.
                        <SU>55</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>55</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS, “Alien Registration Requirement,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/alienregistration</E>
                             (last updated May 6, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>An alien issued one of the documents designated as evidence of registration under 8 CFR 264.1(b), including a Form I-766, Employment Authorization Document, has already registered. However, an alien who was issued evidence of registration and turns 14 years old in the United States must apply for reregistration within 30 days after the 14th birthday and be fingerprinted, if required. These aliens may submit a Form G-325R to reregister and be fingerprinted.</P>
                    <P>These rulemakings have not created or modified the statutory requirements established by Congress that apply to aliens under 14 years of age, those who have recently turned 14 years of age within the United States, and those 14 years of age or older who are still a “child” for immigration purposes.</P>
                    <P>
                        The statute requires aliens 14 years or older to be fingerprinted. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 262, 8 U.S.C. 1302. Children under the age of 14 do not have to be fingerprinted for purposes of the registration statute. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 262(b), 8 U.S.C. 1302(b). Pursuant to section 262(c) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302(c), the Secretary may, in the Secretary's discretion and on the basis of reciprocity pursuant to regulations as the Secretary may prescribe, waive the requirement for fingerprinting in the case of any nonimmigrant. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 262(c), 8 U.S.C. 1302(c). That authority was exercised through long-standing regulations at 8 CFR 264.1(e). The purpose of the IFR was to amend DHS regulations at 8 CFR 264.1(a) and (b) to designate a new registration form and an additional documentation that may serve as evidence of alien registration. The IFR did not alter the existing fingerprinting waiver scheme as outlined in 8 CFR 264.1(e), which is beyond the scope of the IFR and this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">g. Child Survivors</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter expressed particular concern that the registration process could be manipulated by abusers seeking to control, coerce, or intimidate immigrant child victims. The commenter said that although there is an exception to criminal liability for lack of willfulness in failing to register, this exception requires a sophisticated understanding of criminal law, which children between 14 and 18 should not be expected to have, especially if they do not have access to counsel.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS agrees that the criminal provision relating to a failure or refusal to register does not apply to aliens under 14 years of age and that, for aliens 14 years of age or older, it requires that such a failure or refusal to register be “willful.” INA sec. 266(a), 8 U.S.C. 1306(a), but DHS defers to DOJ regarding enforcement of the criminal provisions.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Applicability to Canadian Citizens</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Burdens and Redundant Requirements for Canadians</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters expressed concerns about the application to Canadian visitors, with commenters warning that the requirements would deter Canadians from visiting or returning to the United States.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter specifically expressed concern about applicability of the IFR to nonimmigrant Canadian tourists and business travelers, who were not issued an electronic Form I-94 upon processing at a land port of entry, to submit Form G-325R if they plan to be physically present in the United States for 30 days or longer.</P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter expressed concern that the IFR creates an unnecessary burden on Canadian tourists to the United States. The commenter reasoned that Canadian citizens entering the United States by land typically do not receive an electronic Form I-94, unlike those arriving by air or sea. As a result, the commenter said that hundreds of thousands of Canadian travelers who enter the United States for extended stays of 30 days or longer through land ports of entry would be required to register with USCIS. The commenter said this requirement is redundant given the extensive information sharing between Canada and the United States, including the coordinated Entry/Exit information system established under the Beyond the Border security agreement in 2011, which permits the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39291"/>
                        sharing of biographic entry data on all travelers who cross the land border. The commenter also remarked that the United States has access to Canadian criminal record and public safety information through the Canadian Police Information Centre system.
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters expressed concerns with the applicability of the IFR to Canadian visitors who entered the United States at land ports of entry and were not issued evidence of registration, reasoning that it would be overly burdensome for them to fulfill the requirement to create an individual electronic account, complete a form asking for more information than they would have otherwise had to provide for admission into the United States, and then appear for a biometrics appointment at an ASC. Furthermore, the commenters wrote that the Department could better meet the IFR's compliance objectives and increase efficiency by capturing all of the information at one's time of entry, rather than waiting 30 days for such individuals to self-report. A commenter specifically expressed concern that the fingerprinting proposal would lead Canadians to exit en masse and suggested that “a form and a passport” is sufficient.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS agrees that aliens who are Canadian citizens and admitted at land ports of entry as nonimmigrant visitors for business or pleasure are generally not issued a Form I-94. Under 8 CFR 212.1, a visa is generally not required for these aliens and under 8 CFR 235.1(h), the Form I-94 is not required. An alien who was admitted without the issuance of Form I-94 and without issuance of a nonimmigrant visa under section 221 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1201, who remains for 30 days or more in the United States must register in order to comply with section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. Such an alien may use the general registration option available to all unregistered aliens regardless of immigration status or one of the other paths to registration available under the regulation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the commenters' suggestion that it would be reasonable for Canadian visitors to register in connection with their admission to the United States as nonimmigrants, rather than after their admission, DHS agrees. While most Canadian citizens seeking to be admitted at land ports of entry as nonimmigrant visitors for business or pleasure, or for direct transit through the United States, are not subject to the Form I-94 requirement under 8 CFR 235.1(h)(1)(i), they may choose to request a Form I-94 from CBP in advance of their travel at 
                        <E T="03">https://i94.cbp.dhs.gov/home.</E>
                         Aliens issued Form I-94 upon admission as nonimmigrants are considered registered under 8 CFR 264.1, and a Canadian citizen who opts for this approach has fulfilled his or her duty to register under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, and generally, does not have to register again during his or her visit to the United States. DHS agrees with these and other commenters who have suggested that DHS should consider whether there are other processes that include robust information collection and thorough screening and vetting, including the provision of biometrics, that may be suitable ways for aliens to comply with the registration requirement of section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. DHS has updated the list of prescribed registration forms as well as evidence of registration as a part of this final rule. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section IV.A.2 of this preamble. DHS is also seeking comments on the possible addition of other forms. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section V. of this preamble.
                    </P>
                    <P>A nonimmigrant who is a Canadian citizen and who files the G-325R may be eligible for a waiver of the registration fingerprinting requirement under 8 CFR 264.1(e)(2) or, in more limited circumstances, 8 CFR 264.1(e)(1). Once an alien submits the Form G-325R, USCIS reviews the information and any DHS records to determine if an alien is already registered or if fingerprints are required. If a Canadian nonimmigrant who submits Form G-325R is not already registered and is not required to be fingerprinted, USCIS will provide the alien with evidence of registration through his or her USCIS online account without the scheduling of a biometrics appointment. Under section 264(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(a), forms for registration of aliens should collect information related to an alien, including activities in which the alien has been and intends to be engaged. Further, as mentioned in the IFR and this rule, the information an alien provides in the registration process and the biometric collection, if required, provides DHS with additional information about an alien's criminal record, including whether the alien is a known or suspected terrorist. DHS prioritizes the removal of aliens who pose threats to public safety and national security and this information helps DHS address such threats.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Requests for Exemptions</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated that Canadians should be exempt from the rule, reasoning that requiring registration for Canadians who plan to stay in the United States longer than 30 days adds an unnecessary burden for both Canadian visitors and DHS. The commenter further reasoned that Canadians pose very little to no risk to national security and have close relations with the United States. Another commenter wrote that Canada and the United States “have always had open borders” and warned that this would put a strain on relationships across the borders, particularly for Canadians needing access to U.S. medical facilities. The commenter further expressed concern that the rule would stop travel on the Alaska Highway or entry into Canada.
                    </P>
                    <P>Other commenters discussed the historical and practical reasons for insulating Canadian visitors from registration. Citing research, the commenters stated that, by 1952, Canadians visiting the United States for less than 6 months were exempt from registration requirements, even though there was no clear authorization in the statute for these exemptions. Additionally, the commenters said that, for Canadian visitors present in the United States for 30 days or more, CBP has long waived the need to obtain an admission stamp in their passport or a Form I-94 admission record. Furthermore, the commenters reasoned that CBP admits many Canadian nonimmigrants to the United States at the land border without a Form I-94 admission record. Furthermore, due to CBP's implementation of stampless entry, the commenters said Canadian nonimmigrants are unlikely to be provided an admission stamp that references an entry date, category of admission, and end date. The commenters said that land border entries have always been treated differently due to processing time concerns for pedestrian, commercial, and passenger vehicular traffic, reasoning that, due to CBP's pragmatic approach, Canadians are accustomed to being allowed to remain in the United States for up to 6 months after driving into the United States via a land port of entry. The commenters ultimately expressed concern that the IFR does not maintain these exemptions despite Canadians' low security risk and visa exemptions in most nonimmigrant categories. The commenters said that enforcing the provisional Form I-94 process at land borders would burden limited CBP staff while yielding minimal security benefits.</P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter similarly recommended exempting Canadian travelers who have not been issued an electronic Form I-94 from the general registration requirement, reasoning that Canadian citizens entering the United States at the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39292"/>
                        land border should be considered “registered” when they are inspected and admitted by CBP officers. The commenter further reasoned that the E.O. was intended to apply to unlawfully present individuals, not tourists temporarily visiting the United States, and noted that the registration form itself does not permit users to enter a foreign address, such as a Canadian residential address.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS has an obligation to faithfully execute the laws established by Congress, including the alien registration requirement. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 103(a), 8 U.S.C. 1103(a). Through the IFR and this final rule, DHS created a new mechanism for aliens to comply with the registration requirement. Creating exemptions to the requirement is beyond the scope of this rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS notes that as part of the administration's communication outreach, the U.S. Embassy in Canada has created a website with additional guidance as a resource for Canadians traveling to the United States. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         U.S. Embassy &amp; Consulates in Canada, “What does the Alien Registration Act mean for Canadians?” (Mar. 25, 2025), 
                        <E T="03">https://ca.usembassy.gov/alien-registration-requirement/#canadians.</E>
                         Also, in response to comments, DHS has prescribed additional forms that constitute evidence of registration to the regulations. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Section IV of this preamble.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Impacts to the Economy and Relations With Canada</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters wrote that Canadians travel to U.S. states like Arizona and Florida, contributing significantly to local communities, tourism, and the economy; commenters cautioned that the rule would alienate Canadians or damage the United States' personal or economic relations with Canada.
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters expressed concern that admissions at the northern land border have already decreased, leading to negative implications for the U.S. economy and U.S.-Canadian relations. While providing detailed remarks to support this view, a commenter stated that applying the general registration requirement to Canadian visitors would negatively impact tourism to the United States. The commenter stated that Canada is the largest international tourism market for the United States, with annual spending exceeding $20 billion U.S. dollars, and that Canadians represent almost 40 percent of all foreign visitors to Florida. The commenter added that many local economies in the U.S. Sunbelt are reliant on Canadian visitors and the tourism dollars they bring. The commenter cited estimates from the U.S. Travel Association, writing that a 10 percent reduction in Canadian visitation could result in 2 million fewer visits, or $2.1 billion in lost spending, and 14,000 job losses. The commenter additionally voiced concern that policies such as the registration requirement under the IFR have contributed to decreases in cross-border travel, reasoning that the number of travelers entering the United States in a passenger vehicle dropped from 2,696,512 in February 2024 to 2,223,408 in March 2025—the lowest numbers since April 2022. The commenter characterized the IFR as “a step backward in bi-national relations and border security strategy,” noting that there is no reciprocal registration required of U.S. citizens temporarily visiting Canada. They concluded that the IFR establishes an unprecedented registration requirement on Canadian tourists, potentially subjecting them to civil and criminal penalties if they do not timely register with USCIS.</P>
                    <P>A commenter further emphasized the significant economic relationship between the United States and Canada, and the long-standing, mutually beneficial streamlined procedures for Canadian visitors. The commenters cited Canadian government statistics showing that at the end of 2024, 60 percent of Canada's foreign financial assets and 53 percent of international liabilities were in the United States, with Canadian investors' holdings of U.S. securities increasing by 270 percent over the prior 10 years to $3,044.8 billion.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS welcomes all visitors to the United States who follow the appropriate procedures for entry into the United States and appreciates their positive impact and economic contributions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS has the obligation to faithfully execute the laws established by Congress, including the alien registration requirement. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 103(a), 8 U.S.C. 1103(a). The statute requires most aliens, regardless of country of citizenship or nationality, present in the United States who remain for 30 days or longer to register and with some exceptions based on age or nonimmigrant status, be fingerprinted. DHS, with the IFR and this final rule, has not created these requirements or modified the duties established by Congress for aliens. This rule is consistent with E.O. 14159 and the alien registration requirements in sections 262 through 265 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302 through 1305, and establishes a general registration option available to all unregistered aliens regardless of immigration status. By having prescribed a free, online, convenient, and easily accessible general registration option, DHS hopes to improve registration outcomes for certain groups of aliens.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Feedback and Other Recommendations Related to Canadians</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters questioned whether visa-exempt Canadian children who enter the United States under the age of 14 would be subject to the requirement to register and be fingerprinted when they turn 14.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Within 30 days of an alien reaching his or her 14th birthday, all previously registered aliens must apply for re-registration and to be fingerprinted. If an alien does not have any other pathway to register and to be fingerprinted, the alien may file the Form G-325R to comply with their duty under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter wrote that Canadian citizens with a valid NEXUS card should not be subjected to checks, reasoning that they have already been vetted, their biometric information is already on file with the U.S. Government, and NEXUS is linked to passports. Another commenter similarly wrote that many Canadian visitors who are frequent border crossers (and, therefore, do not receive a Form I-94 or a Form I-94W upon entry) and who would be subject to the rule possess NEXUS or Global Entry. This commenter said that there is no good reason why NEXUS would not count as valid registration. Another commenter thanked DHS for “taking [its] border security seriously” and asked whether Canadians with a NEXUS card would be required to complete the new registration for Canadians staying for more than 30 days. A commenter also questioned if members of the Canadian NEXUS trusted traveler program who had already submitted fingerprints or biometrics would be exempt from the registration requirement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS is aware that there are areas of the existing regulations that could be improved, including amending the list of forms constituted as evidence of registration in 8 CFR 264.1(b). Based on the comment relating to the Trusted Traveler Programs, and as part of this final rule, DHS is updating 8 CFR 264.1(b), to include as evidence of registration a CBP-approved document or its electronic equivalent for the Trusted Traveler Programs, Global Entry, NEXUS, SENTRI, and FAST and include the class of aliens who were last admitted to the United States through 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39293"/>
                        those programs. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         new 8 CFR 264.1(b).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In regard to biometric collection, DHS has broad statutory authority to collect biometric information when such information is necessary or relevant to the administration of the INA, including for the alien registration requirement under section 264(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(a). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 103.2(b)(9), 8 CFR 103.16 and 17. However, an alien who is a Canadian visitor and who files the new registration form may be exempted from the fingerprint requirement under 8 CFR 264.1(e)(2), or, in more limited circumstances, 8 CFR 264.1(e)(1)
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, as part of this final rule, DHS is requesting comments on certain proposals that could be finalized through a future rulemaking to improve the usability of the regulations relating to the registration requirement under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section V, Request for Comments, of this preamble.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Applicability to Aliens Seeking Humanitarian Relief</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Multiple commenters requested that applicants for humanitarian relief should be considered already registered under the IFR and not be required to file Form G-325R. Specifically, should the rule go into effect, VAWA, T, and U benefit requestors should be considered already registered under 8 U.S.C. 1304 and should not be required to file Form G-325R. The commenter also suggested all immigrants with pending applications for relief who have already supplied USCIS with the same or similar types of information as collected on Form G-325R, should be considered already registered. Another commenter similarly remarked that, at the very least, the IFR should be amended to allow U, T, and VAWA pending applications to satisfy the registration requirement, reasoning that by not doing so, it would create confusion for applicants and additional legal barriers that jeopardize approval of their pending applications. A commenter said that any registration rule should create exceptions for survivors of abuse, crime and human trafficking who may have failed to register due to their fear of repercussions, violence, threats or coercive control by their abuser.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter questioned why this information would not be sufficient to constitute registration, noting that many survivors with pending VAWA, T, or U filings would face complex calculations to determine whether they need to additionally register under the IFR. The commenter stated that survivors of abuse already face significant barriers when requesting legal status, including language access challenges, travel difficulties, and fear of retribution from abusers and traffickers. The commenter said that requiring these individuals to complete a separate registration process wastes resources and exacerbates fear by transforming USCIS from a benefit-granting agency into what they characterized as another enforcement arm of DHS.</P>
                    <P>Numerous commenters expressed concern that applying the registration requirements to applicants for humanitarian protection would exacerbate barriers to legal protections, including by increasing burdens, fear, and confusion. A commenter said that because the IFR relies on the outdated 1940 Alien Registration Act, many immigration applications, benefits, and standard forms updated in more recent years are excluded from the IFR's purview, creating unnecessary confusion and fear for immigrants who have come forward seeking established benefits and protections. The commenter said that the IFR would cause “immense confusion,” as those with DACA or TPS who have already provided extensive information and biometrics to USCIS, may reasonably believe that they have already registered, given the ambiguity and complexity of the rule and the Department's limited public notice of the new registration requirements. A few commenters expressed concerns about the applicability of the registration requirement or a lack of clarity in the IFR about DACA applicants. A commenter questioned why DACA enrollment would not count as a form of registration if not accompanied by an EAD, reasoning that DACA recipients already have submitted a substantial amount of information to USCIS and, thus, should be considered registered “in all practical sense.” Another commenter expressed concern that the IFR would cause confusion, including for those with DACA. The commenter said that determining whether a “noncitizen” needs to submit a G-325R is extremely complex and depends on several factors including their manner of entry, whether they have been in removal proceedings, whether they have ever filed a Form I-485, whether they have a Form I-766, Employment Authorization Document, and the ultimate decision in their cases. However, the commenter said, the rule is silent on whether someone possessing a regulatory “form” or “evidence” of registration but who was not fingerprinted would have to use the new registration process, be fingerprinted, or both in order to be registered.</P>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters wrote that DHS did not provide sufficient rationale for the exclusion of certain applicants for humanitarian benefits from the IFR. A commenter wrote that while the IFR lists about 22 groups of persons who are already considered “registered” because they have filed for a benefit and been fingerprinted by DHS, the rule excludes additional groups of persons who have also filed for a benefit and have been fingerprinted, including persons who have filed for U, T, or VAWA benefits in addition to persons who filed for asylum or TPS. The commenter stated that no rationale is provided for the exclusions from this list. Another commenter also expressed concern that DHS seeks to amend the provisions through this IFR to require TPS and asylum applicants to comply with the registration requirement, stating that DHS could easily have designated Form I-821 and I-589 as forms that meet the registration requirement pursuant to this rule, reasoning that these forms collect substantial amounts of biometrics and data about the applicants
                        <SU>.</SU>
                         Some commenters stated that the IFR inexplicably fails to explain—or even address—the decision not to use these existing forms for purposes of registration, ignoring the impact, including the cost, it will have on these groups and the unnecessary duplicity of the information collection of individuals who have already submitted to DHS screening.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter wrote that DHS did not consider the burdens the IFR would impose on applicants for humanitarian relief, reasoning, for example, that while some I-360 self-petitioners can file Form I-485 with their I-360, not all are eligible for simultaneous filing. While providing detailed remarks and citing multiple studies on the impacts of trauma among survivors, the commenter stated that the IFR would place significant burdens on survivors, further exposing them to safety risks, without taking into account the trauma that results from the violence they have endured.</P>
                    <P>
                        Commenters further questioned the intent behind the exclusion of certain humanitarian groups, raising concerns of enforcement. A commenter said that the omission of these forms makes it clear that the “real intent of the IFR is not to `register' immigrants but instead to criminalize them.” Another commenter wrote that capturing data the Federal Government already has and requiring aliens to submit to biometrics when they have likely already done so, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39294"/>
                        is “arbitrary and seemingly based on bias against these groups of noncitizens who are politically disfavored.” The commenter warned that, whether intended or not, the consequence of this requirement is that these groups would face another procedural hurdle in obtaining legal status and criminal consequences if they fail to comply. Another commenter said that, if the registration requirement of the IFR were used as an immigration enforcement tool against VAWA, T, and U applicants while their applications are pending, this would undermine the congressional intent of VAWA and the TVPA. Another commenter also remarked that the rule's applicability to VAWA, T, and U visa applicants runs contrary to the IFR's purported law enforcement goals, as these humanitarian relief programs already support law enforcement efforts by encouraging survivors to engage with the justice system
                    </P>
                    <P>Another commenter recommended that any registration process provide flexibility to allow survivors of violence to correct inconsistencies and consider how victimization may impact an individual's opportunity to comply with the registration process prior to conducting enforcement actions based on 8 U.S.C. 1306(a). The commenter cited a report indicating that 97 percent of victim service providers reported that victims who seek their services are being harassed, monitored, and threatened by offenders misusing technology. They expressed concern that abusers seeking to control, coerce, or intimidate victims might manipulate the registration process by interfering or preventing survivors from accessing the technology needed to complete registration.</P>
                    <P>Similarly, a commenter wrote that the IFR increases opportunities for bad actors to defraud immigrants and recommended that DHS rescind the IFR. Another commenter wrote that the registration process may be manipulated by abusers, traffickers against vulnerable populations, citing past examples of abusers manipulating victims by using their confusion over immigration forms or fraudulent actors who pose as law enforcement to make money from registering aliens.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS notes that the various existing protections in the context of aliens who are applying for immigration benefits under a humanitarian program were established by Congress through legislation. While various pieces of legislation providing protections for aliens have been enacted, Congress has not made any changes to sections 262 through 266 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302 through 1306, regarding these humanitarian programs and the alien registration requirement.
                    </P>
                    <P>The IFR and this rule is limited in scope to establish a general registration option available to all unregistered aliens regardless of immigration status to improve registration outcomes for certain groups of aliens. An alien who has been issued one of the documents designated as evidence of registration under 8 CFR 264.1(b) has already registered, and an alien who has submitted one of the forms designated at 8 CFR 264.1(a) and provided fingerprints (unless waived), but was not issued one of the evidence of registration designated at 8 CFR 264.1(b), has complied with the registration requirement of section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. If an alien does not have any other pathway to register and to be fingerprinted, the alien may file the Form G-325R to comply with their duty under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302.</P>
                    <P>
                        In addition to the rulemaking actions to publicize information on the alien registration requirement, USCIS established a dedicated website with information on the ARR and an ARR Tool that may help aliens determine whether they must register.
                        <SU>56</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>56</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS, “Alien Registration Requirement,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/alienregistration</E>
                             (last updated May 6, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS recognizes that the immigration processes can be complex and that requestors, including registrants, may still be at risk of becoming victims of scams or fraud. DHS encourages requestors to use the information on the USCIS website to avoid becoming victims of common scams, fraud and misconduct.
                        <SU>57</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS also notes an alien who needs to correct an error on his or her Form G-325R should use the same procedures for correcting errors on immigration benefit requests. DHS recommends the alien to either contact the USCIS Contact Center for live assistance or submit an e-Request through the USCIS self-service tools.
                        <SU>58</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>57</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS, “Scams, Fraud, and Misconduct,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/scams-fraud-and-misconduct/</E>
                            scams-fraud-and-misconduct (last visited June 24, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>58</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS, “Case Inquiry,” 
                            <E T="03">https://egov.uscis.gov/e-request/</E>
                             (last visited on Jul. 18, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As mentioned elsewhere in this preamble, DHS is aware that there are areas of the existing regulations that could be improved, including amending the list of forms prescribed as registration forms in 8 CFR 264.1(a) and the list of forms constituted as evidence of registration in 8 CFR 264.1(b). As part of this final rule, DHS is requesting comments on various ways to amend the DHS regulation to improve implementation of the registration requirement under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section V of this preamble.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Applicability to Other Immigrant Populations</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Lawful Permanent Residents</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters discussed concerns related to the applicability of the IFR to LPRs. A couple of commenters expressed concern that the E.O. does not specify which immigrant statuses it would affect and, therefore, could be applied to all individuals with immigrant status, including legal immigrants, permanent resident card holders and returning permanent residents after they temporarily leave and return to the United States, creating increased costs and administrative burden for these individuals.
                    </P>
                    <P>Another commenter similarly wrote that this provision affecting LPRs lacks clarity and that DHS already has the requisite information on LPRs, and they concluded that this section is seemingly outside of the scope of this rule in addition to creating significant confusion regarding whether LPRs fall under the requirement to register “as if they were an “undocumented” individual.” Another commenter, expressing similar concerns, said that 8 CFR 264.1(g)(1) requires LPRs who are “temporarily” absent from the United States to apply for registration upon their return to the United States, and asked what is meant by “temporarily absent.” The commenter discussed the practical implications of this regulation and said that it “does not make sense,” reasoning that a temporary absence is not a permanent absence, and LPRs should not need to register if their Green Card is already proof of registration.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The current regulation in 8 CFR 264.1(g)(1) applies to LPRs who reach the age of 14 when temporarily absent from the United States; the regulation requires such aliens to apply for registration within 30 days of returning to the United States using the applicable form instructions. For these cases, the alien would file the Form I-90 to register upon his or her return to the United States.
                        <SU>59</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         LPRs who are present in, or who reenter the United States after a temporary visit abroad, have complied with the alien registration requirement because they are in possession of a Form I-551 (“a green card”) and are generally not 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39295"/>
                        seeking admission to the United States. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 101(a)(13)(C), 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(13)(C).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>59</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS, Form I-90, “Instruction for Application to Replace Permanent Resident Card,” OMB No. 1615-0082 (expires Feb. 28, 2027).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Spouses of U.S. Citizens</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter requested that spouses of U.S. citizens with an I-130 and submitting I-601A waivers should not have to register, reasoning that these individuals “are trying to do things the legal way.”
                    </P>
                    <P>Another commenter asked for clarification from DHS regarding aliens who are in the United States illegally but have a pending family petition can stay in United States while waiting for their consular interview. The commenter said that their I-601A waiver application requires fingerprints. The commenter further asked whether registering and opting for voluntary departure would provide any benefits during the consular process, such as waiving the unlawful presence bar and eliminating the need for an I-601A waiver.</P>
                    <P>
                        The commenter stated that “technically” a person is registered if they have applied for an I-601A waiver and have an alien number and have provided the required documents (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         resident addresses, date of arrival, existing police reports). The commenter urged DHS to reflect that aliens who are in the process with the National Visa Center and USCIS to attain legal status fulfill the registration requirement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Aliens who are spouses of U.S. citizens with an approved immigration petition and have applied for a provisional waiver for unlawful presence are not registered unless the alien has been issued one of the documents designated as evidence of registration under 8 CFR 264.1(b). With regard to the question if registering would benefit an alien during the consular process, DHS notes that registration is not an immigration status, and registration documentation does not create an immigration status, establish employment authorization, or provide any other right or benefit under the INA or any other U.S. law.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Long-Term Residents</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter urged DHS to consider the unique status of long-term residents. Specifically, the commenter requested that DHS exempt from the registration and fingerprinting requirements law abiding residents who have been present in the United States for over 20 years. The commenter also suggested that DHS develop a framework that distinguishes between genuine security threats and those who have made enduring, positive contributions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS, with the IFR and this final rule, has not changed the existing statutory registration requirements established by Congress for alien in section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. Because the registration of aliens is required by statute, DHS does not have the authority to categorically exempt such aliens or allow for special considerations; only Congress has that authority. DHS notes that many aliens who are present in the United States have already fulfilled their duty to register through a variety of pathways identified in 8 CFR 264.1.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Specific Rule Provisions</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Regulatory Structure of 8 CFR 264.1(a) and (b)</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter raised concerns about the structure of 8 CFR 264.1, which the commenter said the IFR fails to remedy. Specifically, the commenter expressed concern that 8 CFR 264.1(a) does not list certain forms and applications that, when approved, result in the issuance of documents listed in 8 CFR 264.1(b). The commenter remarked that the regulatory text provides no guidance on whether individuals already possessing a form constituting evidence of registration are required to submit one of the prescribed registration forms if they have not done so already. The commenter concluded that the IFR fails to remedy this contradictory scheme and merely adds one newly created form to each of the lists in 8 CFR 264.1(a) and (b).
                    </P>
                    <P>A few commenters further discussed contradictory guidance in the rule regarding whether asylum seekers with certain documents (like EADs) are considered registered, creating confusion about compliance requirements.</P>
                    <P>A commenter reasoned that when DACA is granted and a work permit is issued, that work permit constitutes “evidence of registration” according to DHS's regulations. The commenter expressed discontent that the IFR does not address this issue and added that USCIS website's new guidance does not state whether DACA applicants must register using a Form G-325R, while it says applicants for asylum and TPS must do so. The commenter, therefore, requested that the IFR be revised to expressly list Forms I-821D and I-765 as “registration forms” under 8 CFR 264.1(a), to relieve DACA applicants of any obligation to register again by using the new Form G-325R, or at least make it clear whether DACA applicants must register even though they have already submitted documents that seemingly satisfy the statute's registration requirements. A commenter articulated additional concern that the IFR creates confusion by using outdated form names and not updating the names of forms listed in 8 CFR 264.1(a) and (b). As an example, the commenter cited Form I-590, “Registration for Classification as Refugee,” and said that the regulatory text does not indicate whether a successor form would be considered a registration form, which adds to the confusion.</P>
                    <P>A commenter said that the rule is vague and confusing, as it excludes certain groups from the list of immigration applications that can serve as proof of registration. Specifically, the commenter noted that applicants for U nonimmigrant status who have submitted Form I-918 and their biometrics, but have not yet received an EAD, presumably must still register, despite having already given detailed information to DHS. Another commenter expressed concern with the IFR's statement that it would amend regulations to designate additional documentation serving as evidence of registration.</P>
                    <P>Similarly, another commenter wrote that the rule leaves “crucial” questions unanswered, exposing individuals to criminal liability for issues beyond their control. The commenter said that while the regulations consider filing Form I-485 a form of registration, an I-485 receipt notice is not listed as an acceptable proof of registration. Similarly, the commenter continued an individual admitted with an immigrant visa would not have proof of their registration until receiving their Permanent Resident Card, which they said could take 90 days from the date of their entry to the United States. The commenter reasoned that individuals entering with immigrant visas are not always issued physical I-94s, nor does the I-94 website reliably provide copies of visa holders' I-94s. In such cases, the commenter said, individuals who have complied with the registration requirement could be subject to criminal liability for failing to carry proof of registration.</P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter recommended that DHS add receipt notices to 8 CFR 264.1(b) as proof of registration. Citing text from the “Basis and Purpose of the IFR,” the commenter reasoned that individuals with pending applications may not have evidence of registration, as “the acceptable evidence of registration at 8 CFR 264.1(b) is the result of an approved application only.” The commenter wrote that, since the IFR is already revising 8 CFR 264.1(b) to add Form G-325R as a new proof of registration, DHS should take the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39296"/>
                        opportunity to add receipt notices for other applications, such as receipt notices for Form I-485 (application for Adjustment of Status). The commenter reasoned that this would help to reduce paperwork, saving those with pending Form I-485 applications from having to fill out another form to comply with registration evidence requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>Another commenter, echoing these remarks, stated that the list of proof of registration seems to be based on forms in existence in 1957, which the commenter regarded as “fundamentally unfair.” The commenter reasoned that anyone with an alien registration number is fingerprinted and registered by definition. Furthermore, the commenter suggested that anyone who has provided prints in any other immigration context or assigned an alien number should be classified as already registered, regardless of whether the form is on the list or whether their application was denied or is pending.</P>
                    <P>A commenter suggested that the IFR be revised through normal rulemaking procedures to expand the list of documents providing proof of alien registration such that any foreign national who has provided biometrics may be considered registered. They suggested that USCIS should focus its resources on collecting biographic information and biometrics from those who had not previously submitted applications or attended biometrics appointments. The commenter reasoned that a “simpler, more efficient solution” would be to consider Biometrics Appointment Notices (Form I-797C, Notice of Action) that have been stamped and dated by a USCIS officer at an ASC as proof of registration and include this form in 8 CFR 264.1. The commenter said that if the government fears that foreign nationals will fail to provide biometrics, it could be stipulated that a Form I-797 or Form I-797C containing the applicant's name and alien registration number becomes evidence of registration by function of law once biometrics are completed. They further stated that DHS officers, when presented with an individual's name and A-number, should be able to access all required information about that individual through existing systems. Thus, the commenter suggested that individuals who had already submitted immigration applications should not be required to submit the G-325R form, as this would represent an unnecessary duplication of information already in the government's possession.</P>
                    <P>Commenters wrote that there is no recognition of receipts generated via the Trusted Traveler Programs of CBP, such as Global Entry, as registration documents.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS is aware that there are areas of the existing regulations that could be improved, including amending the list of forms prescribed as registration forms in 8 CFR 264.1(a) and the list of forms prescribed as evidence of registration in 8 CFR 264.1(b). Based on the comment relating to current Form I-590, and as part of this final rule, DHS is updating 8 CFR 264.1(a), to correctly reflect Form I-590's current title. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         new 8 CFR 264.1(a).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, in response to these comments DHS is proposing and requesting comments on amending the regulation to improve implementation of the registration requirement under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section V of this preamble. In addition to proposing adding forms to 8 CFR 264.1(a) and (b), DHS proposes to modify references to specific form names and numbers from various regulatory provisions that have been consolidated, discontinued or modified. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section V of this preamble. For the reasons addressed in section V of this preamble, DHS is not adding additional registration forms to 8 CFR 264.1(a) at this time.
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS notes that as soon as any alien who filed Form G-325R appears and provides biometrics at an USCIS ASC, DHS issues an electronic copy of proof of his or her registration to the alien's myUSCIS account. The electronic copy of the evidence of registration satisfies an alien's obligation to carry proof of registration on his or her person. Although DHS appreciates the suggestion regarding other solutions for proof of registration, DHS believes the electronic version of the proof of registration (USCIS Proof of Alien G-325R Registration) is an efficient solution for an alien to satisfy his or her obligations after providing biometrics.</P>
                    <P>Most aliens who have been issued one of the documents designated as evidence of registration under 8 CFR 264.1(b) have already registered and are not required to submit one of the prescribed registration forms in 8 CFR 264.1(a) if the alien has not already done so. However, an alien who reaches age 14 years old is required to apply for re-registration and to be fingerprinted.</P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, DHS disagrees that the information in the IFR concerning whether or not asylum applicants are considered registered was confusing. DHS clearly outlined that asylum, TPS, and DACA applicants who are issued a Form I-766 (EAD), are considered registered. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR at 11795, FN 5 (March 12, 2025). USCIS has provided guidance on its website, including an Alien Registration Requirement (ARR) Tool, that may help with an alien's determination whether he or she is registered or must register. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         USCIS/DHS, Alien Registration Requirement, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/alienregistration.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Submission Process</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Process Is Overly Complex</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Multiple commenters discussed the difficulties immigrants would face in submitting documentation through the myUSCIS account system. A couple of these commenters wrote that DHS had not considered barriers to understanding and complying with complex rules on documentation, particularly for those with limited English language comprehension. A different commenter described the IFR as imposing documentation challenges, while others described the rule as “extremely convoluted,” “lacks clarity and will be inaccessible,” and “will likely be impossible for many noncitizens to complete.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         With this IFR and final rule, as always, DHS strives to be fair and efficiently execute the immigration laws established by Congress. In addition to the rulemaking actions to publicize information on the alien registration requirement, USCIS established a dedicated website with information on the ARR and an ARR Tool that may help aliens determine whether they must register.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter raised concern about minors aged 14 being able to make appointments to comply with registration requirements. The commenter proposed using schools as registration sites to help both citizen and alien minors establish proper ID. Specifically, the commenter suggested incorporating alien registration and Green Card renewals into school ID picture days alongside passport card applications for citizens. The commenter reasoned that schools could use existing student information (with parental consent) to streamline the process. The commenter also wrote that this approach could assist minors with meeting registration or ID requirements. The commenter said that this approach would not single out students who lack legal status, as it would be available to both citizens and “noncitizens”. Furthermore, the commenter reasoned, schools would protect minors from being charged with illegal presence, thus reducing fear while ensuring compliance.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS declines the commenter's suggestion of using schools as registration sites. The Form G-325R 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39297"/>
                        application process is entirely electronic. Similar to other applications and petitions that require the collection of biometrics, USCIS will schedule the alien for a biometric services appointment if biometrics are required to complete the registration. DHS notes that USCIS ASCs are located throughout the United States with at least one center located in each State, as well as the District of Columbia, Guam, Puerto Rico, and the U.S. Virgin Islands. If an alien is unable to attend his or her scheduled biometric appointment for good cause, the alien should contact the USCIS Contact Center to reschedule the biometric appointment.
                        <SU>60</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>60</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             8 CFR 103.2(b)(9); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             USCIS Contact Center, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/contactcenter</E>
                             (last updated Oct. 24, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Technical Issues for Attorneys and Representatives</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few commenters expressed concerns about the lack of guidance in the rule on whether attorneys or accredited representatives would be able to assist clients in the submission process. A commenter noted that their attorneys have been unable to access Form G-325R through their myUSCIS accounts and stated that it is essential for lawyers to have the ability to register their clients. They added that ensuring lawyers can access myUSCIS on behalf of their clients would also benefit USCIS, as lawyers would be better equipped to file forms without errors and respond efficiently to any issues flagged by USCIS. The commenter recommended that the IFR be amended to clarify that lawyers would be able to use myUSCIS accounts to complete Form G-325R on behalf of their clients. Similarly, another commenter expressed concern that registrants would lack necessary legal guidance, increasing the risk of errors or omissions in registrations.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter wrote that their staff would need to ensure clients have completed submission through myUSCIS, adding significant logistical challenges and financial strain for both clients and the organization, and another commenter stated that the system is difficult to navigate and often has system maintenance and outages.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter described personal experience assisting clients with creating myUSCIS accounts to file applications such as the I-821, I-821D, I-765, and I-90 and reported that the system frequently crashes, permanently locks clients out of their accounts, delays for hours before allowing clients to pay for applications, and otherwise impedes clients from submitting required forms. The commenter stated that experience suggests most “noncitizens” would find the process prohibitively difficult and recommended that USCIS devote substantial resources to improving accessibility in ELIS system including hiring officials to improve the technical functioning of online systems, particularly with myUSCIS accounts.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Each alien who is registering with the Form G-325R must complete and submit his or her own Form G-325R from the alien's individual online account. The Form G-325R can only be submitted by the named owner of the USCIS online account. A parent or legal guardian of an alien under the age of 14 who needs to register creates a myUSCIS account for the alien, and then completes and submits the G-325R on behalf of the alien through the alien's myUSCIS online account. If an alien is represented by an attorney or accredited representative for the Form G-325R, the alien may upload the Form G-28, Notice of Entry of Appearance as Attorney or Accredited Representative, as additional evidence or documents.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS also notes that if an alien, or parent or legal guardian of an alien under the age of 14, needs technical support with an online account, he or she can send a secure message through the alien's USCIS online account or go to the website, 
                        <E T="03">my.uscis.gov/account/v1/needhelp.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Proof of Registration</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter expressed concerns about the “Proof of Alien Registration” document that “noncitizens” would be required to carry. The commenter said that unlike other USCIS forms, this document has no identifying number in its title and has not been submitted to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) through the PRA. The commenter questioned whether the government intends to issue such documents as proof of registration, or if the registration process is designed primarily to facilitate deportation. The commenter added that DHS provides no guidance on how this form would be recognized as compliant, or whether the “unique identifier” number would be an A number or a different number categorization. In light of these uncertainties, the commenter concluded that the IFR is arbitrary and capricious in violation of the APA, and they urged that the rule be rescinded immediately.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS disagrees with the commenter. DHS notes that an alien who registered using a Form G-325R and provided biometrics, if required, will be provided an electronic copy of proof of his or her registration (USCIS Proof of Alien G-325R Registration) to the alien's myUSCIS account. In the alien's account, he or she will be able to download and print a PDF version of the notice. The proof of registration contains the alien's name and alien registration number and the Form G-325R receipt number. DHS notes that documents USCIS issues as evidence of alien registration, including the USCIS Proof of Alien G-325R Registration, are not subject to the PRA. Unlike public forms published by USCIS for applicants to seek immigration benefits or submit other requests (such as the Form G-325R), evidence of alien registration do not contain an information collection. Therefore, these documents are not required to be approved by OMB. There is no statutory or regulatory requirement, including under the APA, that such documents have a particular form number to be effective.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter raised concerns that the IFR does not acknowledge or provide an exception for individuals who are stopped after completing the registration form but before it is processed, before they have been given a fingerprint appointment, or before proof of registration is received, which the commenter said could result in the wrongful arrest and prosecution of such individuals.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter, expressing general concerns about the carry requirement under the IFR, said that possession of a registration form is not an accurate indicator of one's status, reasoning that the form can be stolen, destroyed, lost, or even misplaced, therefore subjecting the individual to unfair criminal charges.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS defers to its partners at DOJ regarding the enforcement of criminal penalties. DHS notes that DHS agencies have access to DHS databases to confirm whether the alien satisfied the registration requirement. If evidence of registration issued by USCIS is lost, stolen, or damaged, the alien should refer to the applicable form and instruction to replace that evidence if it is a secure identity document, such as the Form I-551, Permanent Resident Card, and I-766, Employment Authorization Document.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter expressed concern about the potential for misuse of the new “Proof of Alien Registration” document. The commenter characterized the new document as a “de facto immigrant ID” that other government agencies, employers, or local authorities may use to demand proof of status.
                        <PRTPAGE P="39298"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The USCIS Proof of Alien G-325R Registration is used as evidence of registration and does not provide proof of an immigration status, establish employment authorization, or provide any other right or benefit under the INA or any other U.S. law.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter asked whether laminating proof of registration would void it. The commenter additionally asked whether the proof of registration could be used as an ID. Finally, the commenter asked whether the proof of registration would include information such as the alien registration number on it or the picture of the registrant, or whether it would need to be “matched” with another form of ID.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Aliens who are issued evidence of registration electronically by DHS, including Form I-94, and the USCIS Proof of Alien G-325R Registration, may laminate the printed copy; it does not void the copy. Certain evidence of registration does not include a picture of the alien but contains biographical information about the alien that DHS agencies can confirm through DHS databases to determine if the alien satisfied the registration requirement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Another commenter suggested that an optional “full” biometric services fee could be offered for a fraud-resistant, ID-worthy card that would serve as proof of registration. The commenter suggested such a card would be provided to those presenting a foreign passport or other proof of identity that could be linked for future consular reporting and other actions. The commenter reasoned that this could help match individuals in cases of supervised release and be included in the Systematic Alien Verification for Entitlements system, so it is clear whether an individual qualifies for any type of benefit. The commenter stated that with paper it is possible that people would share registration forms, and suggested future regulations “regarding capturing the alien registration number to an Employer Identification Number or other such forms.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS notes that registration is not an immigration status, and registration documentation does not create an immigration status, establish employment authorization, or provide any other right or benefit under the INA or any other U.S. law. Aliens who apply for registration using the Form G-325R receive only an electronic copy of proof of registration in their myUSCIS account. Regarding the suggestion that DHS create a separate ID card to serve as proof of registration after an “optional `full' biometric service fee”, is outside the scope of this rulemaking, but DHS may consider such an option at a future date.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter requested that DHS explain how those who previously registered but no longer have physical proof (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         those who lost their temporary visa) can obtain new proof.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         For evidence of registration issued by another Department, DHS defers to that Department's procedures for replacing lost or stolen documentation. However, if evidence of registration issued by USCIS is lost, stolen, or damaged, the alien should refer to the applicable form and instructions to replace that evidence if it is a secure identity document, such as the Form I-551, Permanent Resident Card, and I-766, Employment Authorization Document. If the alien was issued an electronic Form I-94, Arrival/Departure Record, by DHS, the alien may obtain a copy of it by visiting the U.S. CBP I-94 website: Travel Records for U.S. Visitors. An alien who cannot access his or her electronic Form I-94 records and needs a replacement may generally request one by filing Form I-102, Application for Replacement/Initial Nonimmigrant Arrival-Departure Document.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">4. Biometrics Process</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Burdens on Immigrants</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters stated that the requirement to appear in-person for biometrics collection would create an undue hardship on immigrants. Another couple of commenters wrote that requiring millions to register would impose significant burdens. A few other commenters specifically described unaffordable financial burdens from completing the biometric requirements. A couple of commenters wrote that immigrants would also be navigating ancillary costs and would find compliance with the requirement difficult or unattainable. A commenter wrote that many of the ASCs that process biometrics are geographically inconvenient, providing an example that no such centers exist within the city proper of Chicago, only in the Chicago suburbs. Another commenter remarked that the requirement forces immigrants to avoid criminality by keeping themselves updated on confusing and fast changing legislation.
                    </P>
                    <P>Other commenters described the burdens of biometric collection for specific groups of immigrants. Other commenters discussed concerns for survivors of abuse, writing that their abusers might keep them from biometrics appointments. In light of these concerns, they recommended flexibility in the requirement and its enforcement toward survivors. A few commenters expressed concern for the burden of biometric compliance on those lacking childcare or transportation. A commenter wrote that the biometric collection requirement would particularly burden those with disabilities. Commenters expressed concern for the time and distance burdens of traveling to ASCs, particularly for those in rural areas. Another commenter stated that the IFR creates a discriminatory impact on aliens who live in rural areas and cannot afford to travel to complete the registration requirements. The commenter stated that these individuals would be “criminalized” for being unable to afford to travel.</P>
                    <P>One commenter articulated that forcing biometric identification on immigrants encroaches on the rights to privacy, the right to free movement set out in the United Nations Universal Declaration of Human Rights, and that the criminal penalties violate the right to be presumed innocent until proven guilty. The commenter further stated that the requirement is a frightening precedent in that it criminalizes vulnerable people.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The statute established by Congress requires certain aliens applying for registration to provide fingerprints. If an alien is required to provide fingerprints after applying for registration, USCIS will schedule the alien for a biometric appointment. If an alien is unable to attend his or her scheduled biometric appointment for good cause, the alien should contact the USCIS Contact Center to reschedule the biometric appointment.
                        <SU>61</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>61</SU>
                             USCIS Contact Center, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/contactcenter,</E>
                             (last updated Oct 24, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>With this IFR and final rule, DHS strives to be fair and efficiently execute the immigration laws established by Congress. The goal is to ensure that aliens understand their duty under the law and have a path to satisfy that duty through the new general registration process and form. DHS notes that USCIS ASCs are located throughout the United States with at least one center located in each State, as well as the District of Columbia, Guam, Puerto Rico, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Burdens on USCIS and Legal Advocates</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few commenters questioned whether USCIS had adequately identified the administrative costs of processing biometrics. A commenter wrote that the current numbers of ASCs that can process 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39299"/>
                        biometrics are already insufficient and reasoned that the implementation of the biometrics requirement would lead to significant delays and inefficiencies, similar to past experiences attempting to implement biometrics requirements for populations more limited than the population the IFR would involve. The commenter also expressed concern that the biometrics requirement would cause delays in providing verification of registration and would likely not provide greater knowledge of criminal records as the IFR anticipates, describing similar alleged failures of the NSEERS program. One of the commenters questioned whether USCIS has the capacity to fingerprint large numbers of law-abiding, legally admitted aliens without delays that could unfairly criminalize them. Another commenter recommended expanding biometric processing locations and increasing staffing. Similarly, a commenter wrote that the enforcement of the biometric requirements would add significant logistical and financial strain to their organization in order to serve their immigration clients.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The statute requires an alien to provide fingerprints, unless waived, as part of the registration process. In general, USCIS has not seen any significant delays or inefficiencies in biometric collection services for registrants and immigration benefit requestors. Further, USCIS regularly monitors the capacity of Application Support Centers and assesses biometrics collection processes to identify areas to improve biometric operations and processing.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Concerns of Biometric Data Collection</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters raised concerns about data security and privacy surrounding sensitive biometric data, recommending DHS implement robust security measures to protect personal information. One of these commenters specified that centralizing personal information without safeguards or public awareness was concerning. Similarly, another commenter stated that no citizens should be required to give biometric information to the government. A different commenter warned that the requirement could set a dangerous precedent for U.S. citizens and residents. Another commenter urged strong child registration safeguards to prevent trafficking.
                    </P>
                    <P>Without providing further support, one commenter stated that the government already has access to data for everyone, including immigrants.</P>
                    <P>Commenters expressed concern that the logistics of the biometric appointment could be counterproductive and unlikely to encourage compliance with registration, undermining the original purpose of the IFR. Similarly, a commenter described how filing Form G-325R would trigger a biometric appointment with USCIS for fingerprinting and stated that many “undocumented” immigrants would decide not to register, concluding that the policy goal of the IFR would not be reached.</P>
                    <P>A commenter described the biometric requirement as part of a registration process that does not provide immigration status or any “forbearance or relief from deportation or removal.” One commenter stated that visiting foreign citizens already register and agree to the rules of their visit and concluded that requiring biometrics is unnecessary and intrusive. Similarly, a different commenter wrote that with no clear justification, little transparency, and only limited oversight, the requirement is not administrative compliance or public safety policy but surveillance infrastructure.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Similar to other applications and petitions that require the collection of biometrics by USCIS, the agency has a legal responsibility to safeguard biometric information collected, disseminated, used, or maintained as part of the G-325R process. DHS notes that DHS agencies may collect and store for present or future use, by electronic or other means, the biometric information submitted by an individual. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 103.2(b)(9), 103.16 &amp; 17. DHS may use this biometric information to conduct background and security checks, adjudicate immigration and naturalization benefits, and perform other functions related to administering and enforcing the immigration and naturalization laws. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 103.16(a).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        USCIS will schedule a biometric services appointment for an alien who files a Form G-325R if biometrics are required to issue evidence of registration. Registration is not an immigration status, and registration documentation does not create an immigration status, establish employment authorization, or provide any other right or benefit under the INA or any other U.S. law. An alien who was issued an immigrant or nonimmigrant visa and at his or her most recent arrival was admitted into the United States using that visa is registered. However, the regulation provides limited circumstances where an alien who was issued and admitted to the United States using a nonimmigrant visa may be required to provide biometrics. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 264.1(e)(2).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter criticized the rule for establishing a 30-day deadline for registration and fingerprinting and enforcing the deadline with criminal penalties when USCIS controls the scheduling of fingerprinting. Another commenter asked if scheduling an appointment within 30 days would be sufficient even if the appointment occurs later and suggested linking existing fingerprint records or IDs to streamline registration.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         If an alien filed Form G-325R and is required to provide biometrics, USCIS will schedule the alien for a biometric services appointment at a USCIS ASC. If an alien is encountered while waiting for the scheduling of a biometric services appointment, DHS agencies have access to DHS databases to confirm whether the alien is working toward satisfying the registration requirement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        With regard to the comment on linking existing fingerprint records with a registration, DHS has broad statutory authority to collect biometric information when such information is necessary or relevant to the administration of the INA, including for the alien registration requirement under section 264(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(a). 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         8 CFR 103.2(b)(9), 8 CFR 103.16 and 17. For the registration requirement, fingerprint collection is a requirement under section 262 of the INA, and generally, USCIS does not reuse biometrics that are associated with an application, petition, or other benefit request to satisfy the registration requirement. The alien must provide biometrics that are associated directly with the registration application unless DHS waives the requirement of fingerprinting. Title 8 CFR 264.1(e) provides a list of circumstances when fingerprints are waived for an alien applying for registration.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated that the IFR does not clearly state whether individuals need to provide only fingerprinting or a full set of biometrics for compliance, nor the rationale or authority for the requirement, concluding that the IFR should be withdrawn. The commenter added that requiring more than fingerprints would be inconsistent with other means of satisfying the registration requirement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         As explained in the IFR (90 FR 11793, 11796 (Mar. 12, 2025)), DHS has the broad statutory authority to collect biometric information, if such information is necessary or relevant to the administration of the INA, including under sections 103(a), 262, and 264(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1103(a), 1302, 1304(a). 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39300"/>
                        Additionally, pursuant to 8 CFR 103.2(b)(9), 103.16, and 17, DHS may collect, use, and store biometrics, including fingerprints, for purposes of conducting background and security checks, adjudicating benefits and performing other functions related to administering and enforcing immigration laws.
                        <SU>62</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The IFR, and the Form G-325R clearly address the biometric services collection and the need for biometrics, including fingerprinting and the biometric services appointment.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>62</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See,</E>
                             in particular, 8 CFR 103.16(a), which states that “[a]n individual may be required to submit biometric information by law, regulation, 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                             notice or the form instructions applicable to the request type or if required in accordance with 8 CFR 103.2(b)(9). DHS may collect and store for present or future use, by electronic or other means, the biometric information submitted by an individual. DHS may use this biometric information to conduct background and security checks, adjudicate immigration and naturalization benefits, and perform other functions related to administering and enforcing the immigration and naturalization laws.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Biometric Requirement Exceeds Statutory Authority</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter critiqued the statutory interpretation of the IFR, writing that the IFR refers to the collection of “fingerprints” in 8 U.S.C. 1302(a), while naming the statutory authority for the registration requirement itself, and referring to a “biometrics” appointment when discussing the application of the IFR. The commenter wrote that 8 U.S.C. 1302 has no language regarding “biometrics,” and reasoned that the difference in terminology was significant. The commenter stated that if the IFR is intended to collect additional forms of biometrics, the IFR exceeds DHS's statutory authority and fails to explain the basis for collecting additional biometrics.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         In recent years, DHS has adopted the practice of referring to fingerprints as “biometrics,” “biometric information,” or “biometric services,” and has amended some of its regulations replacing fingerprints with biometrics. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         8 CFR 103.2(a)(9) and (13), and 8 CFR 103.16 and 17. In this rulemaking, DHS generally uses the term biometric when discussing the collection and service appointment. As explained in responses throughout this section, DHS has broad statutory authority to collect biometric information when such information is relevant or necessary to the administration of the INA, including section 264(a), 8 U.S.C. 1304(a).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Filing Fee</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter expressed support for having aliens pay for registration. Many other commenters voiced opposition to the potential $30 fee. Some of these commenters, without providing additional rationale, stated that people should not be required to pay a $30 registration fee. Another commenter said the potential $30 fee was “egregious.” A different commenter, who objected to the potential costs of implementing the rule, called the $30 fee a “joke” and said that it would cost much more to properly file, store, and allow access to the database.
                    </P>
                    <P>Other commenters said that, in their experience, even a modest fee can be an insurmountable barrier for many low-income families and immigrants. A commenter stated that the fee would serve as a de facto tax on immigrant poverty, particularly for those who lack work authorization and are therefore more likely to be low-income. Commenters added that the proposal would create a barrier to complying with a legal requirement, as requiring a registration fee for those without the ability to work in the United States means that individuals are either forced to pay a fee they cannot afford or face additional penalties or imprisonment for not registering. Another commenter wrote that the proposed fee increase comes at a time when many are already facing economic hardships, and the fee would make it more difficult for low-income and vulnerable populations to afford necessary immigration services. A commenter said that the fee requirement adds an undue burden to people attempting to attain legal status.</P>
                    <P>Other commenters said that the $30 fee under consideration would further burden vulnerable populations such as UACs, asylum seekers, and victims of human trafficking and other serious crimes. Another commenter added that applicants for asylum are prohibited from being issued an EAD until the application has been pending for at least 180 days, a $30 fee would be prohibitive for many asylum seekers and many would miss the 30-day filing fee for lack of funds.</P>
                    <P>A commenter expressed concerns about the accessibility of the registration requirement, stating that the proposed $30 fee would create a financial barrier. Similarly, a commenter stated that some nonimmigrants may not have access to the financial services, such as a bank account, checks, or a credit card, needed to pay the fee, requiring them to pay by mail with a money order. The commenter said that this would create delays in paying the fee that would hinder USCIS operations and leave individuals susceptible to Federal criminal penalties. Another commenter said that unless DHS offers a paper registration form, the proposal creates a process of entrapping many individuals who do not have a bank account or credit card to be able to make a payment through an online account. Another commenter stated that the mechanism for collecting the fee is unclear, and individuals subject to the fee may not be able to make online payments if they do not have a credit card or access to the internet.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter stated that registrants who are unable to pay the $30 would have no option to apply for a fee waiver when registering online. Commenters further noted that if individuals need to separately file Form I-912, Request for Fee Waiver, USCIS would need a mechanism to connect that application to the $30 biometric fee, the creation of which would be an unnecessary expenditure of government resources.</P>
                    <P>A few commenters wrote that there is no justification for imposing a fee. A commenter wrote that USCIS acknowledges that the registration system can operate without a fee, showing that the fee serves no legitimate purpose other than to create an obstacle for immigrants who are required to register. Similarly, a commenter remarked that the rule claims that the costs for collecting, storing, and using the biometrics will be borne by DHS, the rule gives no assurance that the cost will not be passed down to the applicant in the form of a $30 registration fee. Another commenter cited the 2024 final fee rule in which USCIS stated that there “will be no separate biometric service fee for most applicants.” The commenter added that most forms related to immigration enforcement do not require a biometric services fee. Other commenters said that USCIS fees are generally for benefits requests or for services, such as to acquire or improve one's legal status, but “noncitizens” applying for registration do not receive any benefit or service.</P>
                    <P>A commenter expressed concern that, while the future $30 biometric fee is presented as a hypothetical, it signals an intent to “commodify compliance.” Another commenter, expressing concern with the registration requirement, wrote that a $30 fee would be costly and warned that registration would proliferate “notario fraud.”</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS has carefully considered the comments. DHS has determined that it will not impose a biometric services fee for registration 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39301"/>
                        applicants as part of this final rule. The approach does not diminish in any way the goals of the IFR, the registration process and outcome, and the implementation of the Administration's directive as articulated in E.O. 14159. This approach provides DHS with additional time to fully assess the effects of the registration implementation, including workload and operational effects. DHS may adopt, in a future rulemaking action, a biometric services fee or any other fee necessary to cover the implementation cost of the registration process. For example, DHS may implement a fee structure for purposes of the registration process in the future as part of USCIS' comprehensive fee review and fee schedule update.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS disagrees that there is no justification for imposing a biometric services fee or that the fee would create an obstacle for aliens who are required to register. As outlined in detail in the IFR (90 FR 11793, 11796 (Mar. 12, 2025)), DHS has broad statutory authority to collect biometric information when such information is necessary and relevant to the administration of the INA, including to conduct background and security checks. Collecting the information is warranted as a matter of national security and public safety of the United States.
                        <SU>63</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Under the existing statutory and regulatory regime, USCIS may require the payment of a biometric services fee. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 286(m), 8 U.S.C. 1356(m); 8 CFR 103.2(b)(9), 103.7, 103.17; 8 CFR part 106. Registration under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, is a statutory requirement and as such, the Executive is tasked with faithfully executing the immigration laws of the United States.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>63</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             E.O. 14159 sec. 1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter said that the IFR does not clarify whether the new process would involve additional fees, which they said further increases uncertainty for those affected. A different commenter remarked on increased administrative costs for DHS—citing costs of $66 to $96 million for biometric processing—and a lack of a fee structure to offset these costs. The commenter recommended that DHS secure funding or introduce phased implementation with fee waivers for low-income applicants. A commenter suggested that the illegal aliens already in the United States should pay the fees for people who have already gone through the process to enter the country legally.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         For the reasons stated in the previous responses, DHS has determined that it will not impose a biometric services fee or any other fee for registration applicants as part of this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter said that USCIS has a history of adding fees without justification, stating that H-1B petitioners must pay an asylum fee even though the beneficiaries of H-1B petitions are not seeking asylum. The commenter asked what checks and balances exist to ensure that current fees are justified before imposing new fees.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Consistent with section 286(m) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1356(m), DHS is authorized to charge fees for adjudication and naturalization services at a level to ensure recovery of the full costs of providing all such services, including similar costs of services provided without charge to asylum applicants or other immigrants. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA 286(m), 8 U.S.C. 1356(m). Furthermore, as explained in the IFR, DHS has broad statutory and regulatory authority to collect biometric information, including under sections 103 and 264(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1103, 1304(a), 8 CFR 103.2(b)(9) and 8 CFR 103.16 and 17. However, for the reasons stated previously, DHS and USCIS decided against implementing a biometric services fee for purposes of this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Registration Validity</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter said that the registration requirement for certain populations is redundant, such as those with F or J visas, because they would have been admitted to the country in nonimmigrant status as described on their Form I-94. However, the commenter said that the IFR seems to require re-registration if a person turns 14 while in the United States, even if they have previously been issued a nonimmigrant visa and have a valid I-94 showing their nonimmigrant status. The commenter asked DHS to clarify the necessity to re-register at age 14 for nonimmigrants with F or J visas. Finally, the commenter said that requiring certain people to re-register would create confusion and burden government adjudicators with unnecessary paperwork.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The IFR and final rule has not changed this statutory requirement but fills a gap in the regulation by adding an option for these aliens to now comply with the existing statutory registration requirements. Within 30 days of reaching his or her 14th birthday, all previously registered aliens must apply for re-registration and to be fingerprinted, including most aliens who were issued a nonimmigrant visa and were admitted into the United States using that visa. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 262(b), 8 U.S.C. 1302(b). Aliens who were admitted using an F or J visa and reached 14 years old after admission may use the new form to register if they have no other pathway to satisfy this requirement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Another commenter questioned the 30-day timeframe, noting that the United States typically permits 90-day stays for various purposes. The commenter suggested aligning implementation with this 90-day period, as opposed to a 30-day period.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS notes that the statute requires aliens in the United States for 30 days or longer to apply for registration and to be fingerprinted before the expiration of the 30 days. The IFR does not change this statutory requirement established by Congress but fills a gap in the regulation by adding an option for these aliens to comply with the existing statutory registration requirements.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Other Issues Relating to the Rule</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Confidentiality/Privacy of Registration and Fingerprinting</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. General Privacy Concerns</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few commenters expressed general data privacy and surveillance concerns. The commenters remarked on the risk of misuse of personal data and lack of clear restrictions, while one commenter expressed skepticism about the government's ability to manage such information responsibly, emphasizing the need for scrutiny by citizens and the international community.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Many commenters expressed privacy and data security concerns related to form submissions. Several commenters said the collection and storage of biometric data, and lack of protections stipulated in the IFR, raise concerns about data security and privacy and urged DHS to implement robust security measures and safeguards to protect this information from unauthorized access or misuse. A commenter said that the rule exacerbates concerns related to data privacy and engagement with government agencies. The commenter added that the rule does not specify how information would be used or whether information collected would be securely stored with the proper privacy and oversight. Another commenter expressed concern that the IFR would be used to “track, control, and subjugate an already disfavored group.” The commenter remarked that Form G-325R would require registrants to provide extensive personal information, including contact details, addresses for the past 5 years, biographic information, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39302"/>
                        and details about their family and activities. The commenter added that this level of detail is seen as “overly intrusive and designed to enhance government surveillance capabilities.” A commenter stated that past breaches of government databases make the centralization of personal information concerning without stronger protections or public awareness.
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters discussed the consequences of potential security breaches and data misuse, including identify theft, improper data sharing, and potential misuse by law enforcement agencies, including racial profiling and civil rights violations. A commenter expressed particular concern that the rule would require immigrants to turn over personal information to the government without due process or concern for privacy or confidentiality, while another expressed concern about a lack of due process before personal information would be shared with ICE.</P>
                    <P>A commenter said that, unlike programs such as DACA, in this registration process “the government makes no promises that the data collected through this process will not be used for enforcement purposes.” A commenter suggested that DHS include a provision in the IFR to restrict the use of registrants' information for immigration enforcement purposes. The commenter reasoned that reasonable policy governing the use of this information would mitigate fears that individuals required to register might face referral to removal proceedings and deportation. The commenter further suggested that DHS propose an information usage policy that protects registrants' information from disclosure to ICE for immigration enforcement, except in cases of fraud, national security, criminal offenses, and public safety.</P>
                    <P>Commenters noted that the Form G-325R cited systems of record notices and privacy impact assessments (PIAs) related to Computer Linked Application Information Management System 3, ELIS system, and the Benefit Request Intake Process. The commenter further noted that each PIA highlighted privacy risks due to over-collection of information, violating the Privacy Act's data minimization requirements. However, the commenter added that DHS claimed these risks were mitigated through negotiation and approval by OMB during PRA information collection reviews. Similarly, a commenter urged DHS to publish a PIA in order to specify data access limitations and guarantee that registrants' information would not be shared with ICE or law enforcement without due process.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter stated that Form G-325R solicited more information than what is outlined in section 264(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(a), raising privacy concerns. The commenter remarked that the Data Quality Act helps ensure the accuracy of information that the government disseminates but does not address privacy issues. The commenter further remarked that government surveillance based on ethnic classification and citizenship status raises constitutional issues, and the IFR lacks transparency and consent mechanisms for data use.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The information requested on Form G-325R includes the information required under section 264(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(a), including the date and place of entry of the alien into the United States, activities in which the alien has been and intends to be engaged, the length of time the alien expects to remain in the United States, the police and criminal record of the alien, if any, and any additional matter as may be prescribed by the Secretary. The questions on Form G-325R are also used for identity verification purposes, similar to other applications and petitions that require the collection of information by USCIS.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The submissions provided by alien registrants on a Form G-325R will be collected, protected, and stored through ELIS.
                        <SU>64</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The information provided is contained and safeguarded within established databases similarly to the other form types collected by USCIS. DHS notes that the information collected through Form G-325R is stored in ELIS, and that our partners at CBP and ICE have long had read-only access to USCIS systems, including but not limited to ELIS.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>64</SU>
                             USCIS' Electronic Immigration System (ELIS) serves as an internal case management system for electronically filed benefit request forms and certain paper forms, along with providing service and system interconnections. This rule also does not change procedures, practices or requirements of DHS agencies to protect against the unauthorized disclosure of personally identifiable information that it collects, disseminates, uses, or maintains in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974. See DHS Privacy Notice and documents cited therein on Form G-325R Instructions and in applicable system of records notices (SORNs) at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.dhs.gov/system-records-notices-sorns.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS declines the commenters' suggestions to add a provision to the IFR and publish a PIA to limit data access and restrict the use of alien registrants' information for immigration enforcement purposes. Under section 264(b) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(b), all registration and fingerprint records “shall be confidential, and shall be made available only”: (1) pursuant to section 287(f)(2) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1357(f)(2) (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the provision cited by the commenter); and (2) to such persons or agencies as may be designated by the Secretary.
                        <SU>65</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The statute does not direct USCIS alone to register aliens and prescribe registration forms, or to hold alien registration records confidential. The statute vests these authorities in the Secretary, in whom all authorities of USCIS, ICE, and other DHS components are vested.
                        <SU>66</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As mentioned previously in this preamble, it would make little sense to interpret the confidentiality provision to require the Secretary to hold alien registration information confidential as against ICE and CBP, particularly in light of the Secretary's plenary authority to make alien registration and fingerprint records available “to such persons or agencies” as he may designate. In any event, the IFR did not change DHS practices related to the maintenance, collection, and use of the information, including alien registration information; such information was available to ICE and CBP before the IFR under existing DHS information sharing policy,
                        <SU>67</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and many aliens who provide information to comply with the alien registration requirements are not covered by the Privacy Act of 1974, by law or policy.
                        <SU>68</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>65</SU>
                             As of March 1, 2023, in accordance with the HSA any reference to the Attorney General in a provision of the INA describing functions that were transferred from the Attorney or other DOJ official to DHS by the HSA, are deemed to refer to the Secretary of Homeland Security. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             6 U.S.C. 557; 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             6 U.S.C. 542 note; 8 U.S.C. 1551 note.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>66</SU>
                             6 U.S.C. 112(a)(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>67</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             DHS, ”DHS Policy for Internal Information Exchange and Sharing” (Feb. 1, 2007), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.hsdl.org/?view&amp;did=469772.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>68</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             DHS, ” Privacy Policy and Compliance,” Instruction Number 047-01-001, Revision 00.1 (Feb. 3, 2025), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.dhs.gov/sites/default/files/2025-02/25_0205_mgmt-047-01-001-Privacy-Policy-Compliance-Instruction.pdf.</E>
                             Alien registration has typically been covered by a DHS SORN published pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974, in particular the A-File SORN. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             82 FR 43556 (Sept. 18, 2017) (SORN for Department of Homeland Security/U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement, U.S. Customs and Border Protection—001 Alien File, Index, and National File Tracking System of Records). Alien registration information may also be covered by other DHS systems of records, as noted on the registration form used to collect such information.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Privacy Concerns Related to Survivors</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters expressed concern that the IFR would negatively impact survivors of domestic abuse and human trafficking because the rule fails to provide sufficient data security protections. A commenter remarked that DHS does not provide clear information regarding the privacy 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39303"/>
                        impact of the IFR, making it difficult for individuals to understand how their information would be used and shared in compliance with existing law. The commenter expressed concern that the lack of clarity affects those protected under 8 U.S.C. 1367, DACA recipients, and survivors of violence and abuse, who may now need to disclose personal information without assured confidentiality and privacy protections.
                    </P>
                    <P>Multiple other commenters expressed concern that the IFR does not outline how the registration process would comply with 8 U.S.C. 1367, in which Congress codified special privacy and confidentiality protections for survivors of domestic violence, human trafficking, and other serious crimes to prevent abusers and traffickers from weaponizing the immigration system against their victims. One of these commenters stated that privacy and confidentiality are crucial for the safety and healing of sexual assault survivors and survivors often face significant barriers to seeking help due to fears about their information being misused. The commenter urged DHS provide clear, trauma-informed guidance on how it would comply with all statutory privacy and confidentiality protections to ensure survivors' safety and trust. A couple of the other commenters similarly urged DHS to provide clear information on privacy impacts to ensure individuals understand how their data would be used and shared in compliance with existing laws.</P>
                    <P>Other commenters added that the rule's silence on confidentiality protections would deter survivors of crimes from coming forward to pursue visas and status. The commenters stated that the DHS Office for Civil Rights and Civil Liberties (CRCL) has the authority to provide guidance and oversight on DHS's implementation of 8 U.S.C. 1367 confidentiality provisions. However, with recent staff dismissals at CRCL, survivors have no recourse if their information is shared in violation of these protections.</P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that mandatory registration, including of current addresses, posed a threat to the right to privacy, and that the threat was “exacerbated by the IFR's imprecise placement of the new registration system including the Form G-325R within legal obligations imposed by the Privacy Act of 1974.” The commenter stated that “[i]nadequate proposed privacy protections for this information—particularly stringent residence registration requirements—is not only troublesome in the abstract but poses real potential considerations for the safety of both minors and survivors of domestic abuse.” The commenter stated that DHS must provide adequate privacy protections, including clear statutory restrictions on how information provided on the Form G-325R must be provided before the IFR can be safely implemented.</P>
                    <P>Other commenters stated leaving an abusive relationship is often the most dangerous time for survivors, and many rely on address confidentiality programs to stay safe. Another commenter also expressed concern that the IFR does not adequately explain how individuals can use safe addresses or ensure confidentiality of their physical location from abusers, and does not address confidentiality protections provided for at 8 U.S.C. 1367.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The IFR and this rule filled the gaps in the regulatory regime by prescribing an available registration form, in addition to other forms already available to individuals, that may be used to comply with the statutory registration requirement of section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. This rulemaking does not change the current DHS procedures or USCIS practice of the maintenance, collection and use of information, to include the statutory confidentiality protections, provided for in 8 U.S.C. 1367, affording protections pertaining to certain aliens who are eligible for and recipients of victim-based immigration relief (specifically, VAWA self-petitioners as well as applicants and petitioners for, and recipients of, T and U nonimmigrant status (protected person)).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        This rule also does not change procedures, practices or requirements of DHS agencies to protect against the unauthorized disclosure of personally identifiable information that it collects, disseminates, uses, or maintains in accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         DHS Privacy Notice and documents cited therein on Form G-325R Instructions and in applicable system of records notices (SORNs) at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.dhs.gov/system-records-notices-sorns.</E>
                         Moreover, CRCL continues to perform its statutory functions and to review complaints under 8 U.S.C. 1367.
                    </P>
                    <P>Form G-325R both requires the provision of a physical address and allows aliens to provide a safe address. As with all USCIS forms in which an alien may provide a safe address, if USCIS contacts the alien through the mail it will use the safe address that he or she provides. However, the G-325R process is entirely electronic at this time. All notices sent from USCIS to an alien are uploaded to the alien's USCIS online account. None of the notices correlating to a Form G-325R are issued via mail. Therefore, not only may aliens provide a safe address, consistent with longstanding USCIS practice, USCIS does not at this time send any documents through the mail in connection with Form G-325R.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Implementation Timeline</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter requested clarification regarding the registration period and whether the period would be long enough to allow for registration. A commenter stated that the IFR “does not provide a process for what to do but goes into effect in 3 days” from the date of their comment.
                    </P>
                    <P>Some commenters expressed similar concern that the IFR would not provide a clear and appropriate timeframe to facilitate compliance. One commenter stated that the registration form was first published to the USCIS website on February 25, 2025, where it directed the public to apply before the IFR was drafted.</P>
                    <P>Similarly, a commenter stated that because statutory alien registration requirements have not been enforced in decades, “many if not most affected individuals are already in violation of the statute.” The commenter further remarked that “even if they register on April 11, the day the requirements go into effect, noncitizens have no control over how soon fingerprinting will be completed. Essentially, there appears to be nothing to prevent DHS from initiating roundups of noncitizens on April 11 based on non-compliance, even though these individuals would not have had an opportunity to comply.” The commenter added that DHS has not provided sufficient notice to the affected public to facilitate compliance with the IFR.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS disagrees that the IFR “does not provide a process for what to do.” The IFR designated the G-325R and explained the registration process. 90 FR 11793, 11795-96 (Mar. 12, 2025). USCIS also established a dedicated website with information on the Alien Registration Requirement (ARR) and an ARR Tool that help aliens determine if they must register.
                        <SU>69</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The tool poses a series of questions to aliens and based on an alien's responses, may help an alien determine if they must register.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>69</SU>
                             See USCIS, “Alien Registration Requirement,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/alienregistration</E>
                             (last updated May 6, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Regarding public notice, the IFR had an effective date of April 11, 2025, and thus provided at least 30 days for aliens to register prior to the rule's effective date. The IFR also advised the public of the enforcement priority pursuant to E.O. 14159, which itself was published 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39304"/>
                        in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         in January 2025. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 11793 (Mar. 12, 2025); 90 FR 8443 (Jan. 29, 2025); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         DHS, Press Release, “Secretary Noem Reminds Foreign Nationals to Register under Longstanding Federal Law or Face Legal Penalties,” (Apr. 11, 2025), 
                        <E T="03">https://www.dhs.gov/news/2025/04/11/secretary-noem-reminds-foreign-nationals-register-or-face-legal-penalties</E>
                         (advising aliens present without registration evidence as of April 11, 2025 to register immediately via USCIS).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Other Issues Related to the Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter asked whether a new registration process for aliens who entered illegally could be considered an application for admission under the provisions of the IIRIRA. The commenter further questioned whether registrations should be linked to an application for admission, even if the registration occurs within the U.S. interior, rather than at a border or port of entry.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         With some exceptions, an alien who arrives at a port of entry and presents himself or herself for inspection is considered an applicant for admission.
                        <SU>70</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Through the inspection process, a CBP officer at a port of entry determines whether the alien is admissible and may enter the United States under all applicable provisions of immigration laws. The registration requirements are separate provisions that provide no immigration status, and the registration documentation does not create an immigration status, establish employment authorization, or provide any other right or benefit under the INA or any other U.S. law.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>70</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             INA sec. 235(a)(1), 8 U.S.C. 1225(a)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated that the IFR provides criminal penalties and fines for “willful failure or refusal” to comply with the requirements of registration, but provides no notice to affected noncitizens on what qualifies as “willful.” The commenter stated that “this is an essential term that should be defined in the regulation before it becomes final and is effective on individuals.” The commenter stated that this lack of definition resulted in a lack of adequate notice and understanding of the criminal liabilities and therefore violated due process because individuals could not “guide their behavior accordingly.” The commenter noted that DHS has previously defined and provided examples of “willful” in other contexts involving merely civil (vice criminal) consequences for non-compliance, such as in the policy manual for inadmissibility due to willful misrepresentation in section 212(a)(6)(C) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1182(a)(6)(C).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The rule does not implement the current statutory regime, including the scheme related to the consequences of an alien's failure to register and the failure to carry evidence of registration pursuant to sections 265 and 266 of the INA, U.S.C. 1305 and 1306. Defining the phrase “willful failure” contained in section 266(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1306(a) is outside the scope of this rulemaking. At any rate, the consequences for the failure to register also do not bear on an alien's duty to register in the first place. Therefore, DHS disagrees that “willful failure” is an essential phrase in the IFR, and that the lack of defining the phrase fails to give the individual adequate notice to guide his or her behavior accordingly, such that aliens cannot adequately understand or comply with the registration requirement. The alien has a statutory duty to register, irrespective of the consequences for the failure to register.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter urged DHS to recognize that “families with over 20 years of residence who have consistently demonstrated loyalty and commitment to the American dream deserve to be spared from the full weight of these new registration and fingerprinting requirements.” In connection with this proposal, the commenter recommended that DHS engage with community leaders and civil liberties advocates to improve the IFR, ” so that it secures our nation without compromising the fundamental rights set forth in the Declaration of Independence.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS acknowledges the commenter's suggestions for DHS to distinguish between classes of aliens when determining whether they are subject to the registration requirement; however, DHS is tasked with faithfully implementing the law passed by Congress. When creating the registration requirement in section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, Congress did not create a separate category for such aliens, as is suggested by the commenter, and DHS cannot add such criteria. Also, although not obligated to do so under the APA, DHS has been engaging with the public by seeking public comments to improve the IFR for the community to provide the necessary input to improve the rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter stated that from a public health and social services perspective, the rule would disrupt care, reduce service access, and deepen mistrust between immigrant communities and public institutions. The commenter urged DHS to delay implementation, provide a grace period, and fund multilingual outreach and legal assistance.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS is tasked with faithfully implementing the law passed by Congress. Congress has already instructed DHS to implement the statute, and the President has assigned a high priority to implementation. As such, DHS declines to further delay implementation and provide a further grace period. In addition to the rulemaking actions to publicize information on the alien registration requirement, USCIS established a dedicated website with information on the Alien Registration Requirement (ARR) and an ARR Tool that may help aliens determine whether they must register.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Statutory and Regulatory Requirements</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Administrative Procedure Act</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Procedural Concerns Regarding the Administrative Procedure Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Numerous commenters stated that the IFR violates the APA by bypassing the notice-and-comment rulemaking process and indicated that DHS should withdraw the rule and go through notice and comment rulemaking. Some commenters stated that the IFR violated the APA because DHS failed to show why it was in the public interest to implement this rule immediately. Others stated that because failure to comply would be treated as a civil and criminal enforcement priority, which—contrary to DHS's assertions—constitutes a substantive value judgment, the rule was not procedural in nature. Some wrote that the IFR was creating new registration obligations with criminal penalties and thus, should have been classified as a “legislative” or “substantive” rule requiring full APA compliance. Some commenters expressed general concerns for inadequate procedural protections through the rule's lack of prior notice and comment and said DHS should therefore engage in a full notice-and comment rulemaking process. A commenter said that DHS's failure to update outdated form names, such as Form I-590, “Registration for Classification as Refugee,” in the IFR demonstrates that DHS has failed to consider important aspects of the problems and has not articulated a reasoned explanation for the decision to issue the IFR as drafted.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Many commenters indicated that the IFR impacts millions of people, and for the first time in eight decades, DHS was imposing new registration requirements with potential criminal penalties, including imprisonment and fines. 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39305"/>
                        Therefore, they stated, DHS's claim that the IFR would merely add another compliance method without altering rights or interests was inaccurate, and proper notice and an appropriate opportunity for comment should have been provided. Several commenters stated that the imposition of a universal alien registration requirement fundamentally alters the individual rights and interests of a significant number of “noncitizens” and citizens.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter characterized the IFR as a “substantive rule in a procedural mask,” remarking that historical interpretations contradict DHS's claim that the IFR is procedural, as many of the registration requirements were previously contained in subpart A to 8 CFR part 264, which was titled “Substantive Provisions.” A commenter wrote that the IFR violates the APA because it “revives a comprehensive registration scheme that neither the Executive nor Congress has seen fit to implement in 75 years and affects the substantive rights of millions of people.”</P>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters referenced specific decisions by the D.C. Circuit Court of Appeals to support their position. Multiple commenters remarked that if a rule “affects the public to a degree sufficient to implicate the policy interests animating notice-and-comment rulemaking,” it is not procedural. Similarly, a commenter noted that courts have found that even when a Federal agency has deemed protocols to be “procedural,” if the change substantively affects the public to a degree sufficient to implicate the policy interests animating notice-and-comment rulemaking, the rule has “the hallmark of a substantive rule” and is not entitled to the APA's exception for procedural rules. Citing 
                        <E T="03">Mendoza</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Perez,</E>
                         this commenter also wrote that when agencies impose supplementary strict and specific obligations to implement a broad statutory command, rather than merely reminding parties of preexisting duties under a statute, courts have deemed these actions not to be interpretative rules.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter stated that the procedural rule exception is a “ `narrow procedural exemption'. . . [and that] [w]ith this IFR, USCIS cannot show that the `default assumptions of the APA [that a rule is substantive] have been properly displaced' because the IFR is directed at internal processes.” Another commenter stated that the IFR, while impacting DHS's operations, also has direct, substantive impacts on newly regulated parties, which they said dilute the IFR's procedural nature. A commenter stated that the IFR satisfies at least two elements used by courts to determine whether a rule is legislative: it provides the basis for enforcement actions and explicitly invokes rulemaking authority.
                        <SU>71</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>71</SU>
                             The commenter cited to D.C. Circuit's four-factor test used in 
                            <E T="03">Securities Industry and Financial Markets Association</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">United States Commodity Futures Trading Commission,</E>
                             67 F. Supp. 3d 373, 416 (D.D.C. 2014) (citing to 
                            <E T="03">Am. Mining Cong.</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Mine Safety &amp; Health Admin.,</E>
                             995 F.2d 1106, 1112 (D.C. Cir. 1993)). The test described in this case is sometimes utilized by courts to distinguish between interpretive rules—which are also exempt from notice-and-comment procedures pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(A)—and legislative rules that are subject to notice and comment. The IFR was a procedural rule—a different exception pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(A)—and as such, the four-factor test does not apply in this context.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>A commenter stated that the NSEERS went through the public notice-and-comment process under the APA before being finalized in August 2002. Commenters reasoned that, instead of an IFR, an NPRM would have enabled stakeholders and the public to weigh in and help DHS avoid arbitrary, capricious, and unduly burdensome questions from being implemented.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS disagrees with the commenters' characterization of the IFR as a rule subject to notice and public procedures under the APA as a substantive or legislative rule. DHS explains below why the IFR was a procedural rule. At the outset, however, DHS notes that it has now considered all comments received on the IFR and responded to them in this preamble, thereby providing the notice and comment that commenters sought.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The APA generally requires agencies to publish notice of a proposed rulemaking in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         and allow for a period of public comment. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         5 U.S.C. 553(b). However, the APA provides for specific exemptions from the notice and public procedure requirement, including an exemption for rules of agency organization, procedure, or practice (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         procedural rules), or when the agency for good cause finds that notice and public procedure are impracticable, unnecessary or contrary to the public interest. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         5 U.S.C. 553(b)(A), (B). Invoking any one of the exceptions is sufficient to bypass the advance notice and comment process. Thus, DHS was not required to show when invoking the procedural rule exemption that it was in the public interest to implement the rule immediately within the meaning of the APA, although DHS certainly believes that implementing the law faithfully for the protection of the public, as addressed in E.O. 14159, is always in public interest.
                    </P>
                    <P>The IFR is a procedural rule under the terms of the statute and under D.C. Circuit case law. First, under the terms of the statute, which applies to “rules of agency organization, procedure, or practice,” the IFR is plainly procedural: the IFR designates a procedure for aliens to fulfill their separate substantive obligation, under the statute, to apply to register and be fingerprinted.</P>
                    <P>
                        Second, in the D.C. Circuit, a procedural rule is one that is “primarily directed toward improving the efficient and effective operations of an agency.” 
                        <E T="03">AFL-CIO</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">NLRB,</E>
                         57 F.4th 1023, 1034 (D.C. Cir. 2023) (cleaned up). Under this case law, a critical feature of the procedural rule exception is that it covers agency action that does not alter the rights and interests of parties, although it may alter the manner in which the parties present themselves or their viewpoints to the agency. 
                        <E T="03">See id.; see also JEM Broad. Co., Inc.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">FCC,</E>
                         22 F.3d 320, 326 (D.C. Cir. 1994) (quoting 
                        <E T="03">Batterton</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Marshall,</E>
                         648 F.2d 694, 707 (D.C. Cir. 1980)). Additionally, although a procedural rule generally may not “encode[ ] a substantive value judgment or put[ ] a stamp of approval or disapproval on a given type of behavior,” 
                        <E T="03">Am. Hosp. Ass'n</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Bowen,</E>
                         834 F.2d 1037, 1047 (D.C. Cir. 1987), “the fact that the agency's decision was based on a value judgement about procedural efficiency does not convert the resulting rule into a substantive one,” 
                        <E T="03">James V. Hurson Assocs.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Glickman,</E>
                         229 F.3d 277, 282 (D.C. Cir. 2000).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As explained in the IFR, DHS merely filled the gaps in the regulatory regime by prescribing another available registration form, in addition to other forms already available to aliens, that may be used to comply with the statutory registration requirement of section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. By prescribing a form in regulation that satisfies the registration requirement under 8 CFR 264.1(a) and evidence of registration under 8 CFR 264.1(b), the agency neither altered any existing legal duty to register nor the legal consequences resulting from a failure to comply with the requirement—to the contrary, the legal duty and obligation was imposed by Congress and has existed for over 80 years. For years, DHS and the former INS have prescribed registration forms in the regulations at 8 CFR part 264.
                        <SU>72</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>72</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             90 FR 11793 (Mar. 12, 2025) (describing the historical background on the alien registration requirement under the INA).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Adding to the regulations another means for registration did not encode any value judgement about an individual's conduct—it merely provided a process for DHS to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39306"/>
                        efficiently register millions of unregistered aliens consistent with statutory requirements. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 11795 through 11797 (Mar. 12, 2025). Congress, not DHS, encoded the value judgement when prescribing registration obligations, as well as civil and criminal consequences for the failure to comply will result in civil and criminal enforcement. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 266(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1306(a).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Furthermore, how many individuals are affected, or how extensive the impact is, is not determinative when assessing whether a rule is a procedural rule. 
                        <E T="03">See Glickman,</E>
                         229 F.3d at 281 (“But even if the U.S. Department of Agriculture's elimination of face-to-face did impose a substantial burden on food processors, that burden would not convert the rule into a substantive one.”). Because the IFR merely improved existing agency processes by making available an additional method to register regardless of an alien's individual status, the IFR was primarily directed toward the manner by which the alien presents himself or herself to the agency and as such was a procedural rule. 
                        <E T="03">See Glickman,</E>
                         229 F.3d at 280; 
                        <E T="03">see also Elec. Priv. Info. Ctr. (EPIC)</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">U.S. Dep't of Homeland Sec.,</E>
                         653 F.3d 1, 5 (D.C. Cir. 2011) (even “a rule with a `substantial impact' upon the persons subject to it is not necessarily a substantive rule”); 
                        <E T="03">Lamoille Valley R. Co.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">ICC,</E>
                         711 F.2d 295, 328 (D.C. Cir. 1983) (holding that an order changing the schedule for an adjudication, including when parties were to submit briefing, was a procedural rule); 
                        <E T="03">Ranger</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">FCC,</E>
                         294 F.2d 240, 244 (D.C. Cir. 1961) (while holding that a rule was procedural, noting that “no substantive rights were actually involved by the regulation itself” even if “failure to observe it might cause the loss of substantive rights”).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Moreover, this is not a procedural rule in which notice and comment are needed to safeguard the policies underlying the APA's notice and comment requirements.
                        <SU>73</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, is clear—it unequivocally imposes a duty on aliens present in the United States of more than 30 days to register. It follows that, a rule prescribing a form that individuals may use to comply with the statutory obligations is not a substantive rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>73</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See JEM Broad. Co.,</E>
                             22 F.3d at 327; 
                            <E T="03">EPIC,</E>
                             653 F.3d at 6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        It is not the first time that DHS, or its predecessor, has invoked the procedural rule exception to bypass notice-and-comment procedure under the APA when amending 8 CFR 264.1 in a similar manner. For example, in 1960, DOJ added the Form I-590, Registration for Classification as a Refugee—Escapee to 8 CFR 264.1(a) without engaging in notice-and-comment procedures.
                        <SU>74</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In 1970, DOJ added Form I-485A, Application by Cuban Refugee for Permanent Residence.
                        <SU>75</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Adding Form G-325R is not materially different from these past efforts, and the use of the procedural rule exception is well documented. DHS acknowledges that for purposes of NSEERS, the agency went through the public notice and comment process before finalizing the rule. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         67 FR 40581 (June 13, 2002) (NPRM); 67 FR 52584 (Aug. 12, 2002) (final rule). Unlike NSEERS, which established criteria for the special population being addressed, the IFR and this final rule merely identify a new registration form and evidence of registration. Even if the rules were similar, DHS notes as a general matter that a previous decision on how to approach a rulemaking does not obligate DHS to proceed in the same manner in a future rulemaking; prior approaches do not attach any weight to an agency's varied approaches in similar rules.
                        <SU>76</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         At any rate, DHS has provided an opportunity to comment on the IFR and has considered and responded to those comments.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>74</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             25 FR 10495 (Nov. 2, 1960) (“This order shall become effective on the date of its publication in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                            . Compliance with the provision of section 4 of the Administrative Procedure Act (60 Stat. 238; 5 U.S.C. 1003) as to notice of proposed rule making and delayed effective date is unnecessary in this instance because the rules prescribed by the order relate to the agency procedure and management.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>75</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             35 FR 12268, 12268-69 (July 31, 1970) (invoking the procedural rule exception under the APA). Other rules that modified 8 CFR 264.1 by invoking the procedural rule exception under the APA include78 FR 18457 (Mar. 27, 2013) (adding online I-94 based on exception for “rules of agency organization, procedure, or practice”); 30 FR 13862, 13863 (Nov. 2, 1965) (amending listing of Forms I-90 (Application by Lawful Permanent Resident Alien for Alien Register Receipt) and I-102 (Application by Nonimmigration alien for Replacement of Arrival Document or for Alien Registration) under 8 CFR 264.1(b) without notice and comment as “relat[ing] to agency procedure”); 25 FR 10495 (Nov. 2, 1960) (added the Form I-590 (Registration for Classification as Refugee-Escapee) to 8 CFR 264.1 without notice and comment as “relat[ing] to agency procedure and management.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>76</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g., Hoctor</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">U.S. Dep't of Agric.,</E>
                             82 F.3d 165, 171-72 (7th Cir. 1996) (observing that there is nothing in the APA to forbid an agency to use notice-and-comment procedures even if not required under the APA and that courts should attach no weight to an agency's varied approaches involving similar rules); 
                            <E T="03">see also Indep. Living Res.v. Oregon Arena Cor</E>
                            p., 982 F. Supp. 698, 744 n.62 (D. Or. 1997) (observing that agencies may voluntarily elect notice-and-comment procedures for a variety of reasons even though not required); 
                            <E T="03">cf. Perez</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Mortg. Bankers Ass'n,</E>
                             575 U.S. 92, 101-02 (2015) (noting that agencies may grant additional procedural rights in the exercise of their discretion, including notice and an opportunity to comment when not otherwise required by the APA, but also noting that “reviewing courts are generally not free to impose [additional procedural rights] if the agencies have not chosen to grant them”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. The Good Cause and Foreign Affairs Exceptions to the Administrative Procedure Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter expressed concern that the IFR violated the APA by failing to provide adequate notice and comment, noting that DHS's “good cause” claim was unjustified as no emergency existed to bypass public input. Two commenters stated that DHS failed to demonstrate “good cause” for bypassing notice-and-comment procedures, and therefore, the IFR must be subjected to pre-enforcement notice-and-comment to be valid.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        While remarking on the foreign affairs exception, the commenter noted that on March 14, 2025, Secretary of State Marco Rubio issued a determination published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         asserting that immigration policies constitute foreign affairs functions of the United States and are therefore exempt from the APA's notice-and-comment requirements. The commenter further noted section 553(a) of the APA that exempts certain rulemaking from notice-and-comment requirements when the rule involves a foreign affairs function of the United States. However, the commenter reasoned that the foreign affairs exception is not justified for an immigration rule because the government was not able to show that adhering to notice-and-comment procedures “will provoke definitely undesirable international consequences.” The commenter remarked that the IFR would impact millions of individuals residing within U.S. borders and would have had little impact, if any, on foreign relations. As such, the rule could not be insulated from judicial review or public accountability on the basis of the foreign affairs exception.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS issued the IFR without prior notice and an opportunity to comment under the procedural rule exception under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(A). Although DHS believes that the rule could meet the foreign affairs exemption pursuant to State's determination, DHS did not invoke the foreign affairs exemption under 5 U.S.C. 553(a). DHS did also not invoke the good cause exception under 5 U.S.C. 553(b). Therefore, these comments are out of scope.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Assertions That the Rule Is Arbitrary and Capricious</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Multiple commenters expressed concern that the IFR is arbitrary and capricious under the APA. 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39307"/>
                        A commenter wrote that “the rule is so vague, contradictory, inconsistent, irrational, and poorly drafted that it is arbitrary and capricious.” Another commenter said DHS failed to provide a reasoned explanation for its decision or consider reasonable alternatives. Another commenter stated that when an agency changes course, it “must be cognizant that longstanding policies may have engendered serious reliance interests that must be taken into account,” and failure to do so is arbitrary and capricious. The commenter added that DHS failed to consider several important aspects of the problems inherent in forced immigrant registries, including the dark history associated with forcing disfavored minority groups to register with the government, the prevalence of racial profiling, the impact on U.S. citizens of color, Fifth Amendment concerns about self-incrimination, and the true administrative burdens of a coercive immigrant registry.
                    </P>
                    <P>Similarly, a union added that the IFR is arbitrary and capricious because it lacked a credible explanation for departing from longstanding agency practice and failed to consider its constitutional implications, impact on freedom of association, labor rights enforcement, workplace standards, DHS resources; and other ramifications for “noncitizens”. A commenter wrote that the IFR is “arbitrary, capricious, [or] an abuse of discretion” and thus prohibited under the APA, 5 U.S.C. 706(2)(A). The commenter added that this is because DHS departed from longstanding policy without articulating a reasoned explanation for doing so, did not take central aspects of the problems created into account, and failed to consider reasonable alternatives. They also wrote that the rule is not in response to wartime threat nor national security, and thus also “arbitrary.” A commenter said that the IFR is arbitrary and capricious due to DHS's failure to account for the difficulties and risks faced by survivors and applicants of humanitarian relief in complying with this rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS disagrees that the rulemaking lacked explanation or is arbitrary and capricious. The IFR was promulgated to provide an additional registration pathway for aliens required to register under the existing statutory framework prescribed in sections 261 through 266 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1301 through 1306. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 11793, 11795. Section 7 of E.O. 14159 directs the Secretary of Homeland Security, among other things, to ensure that all previously unregistered aliens in the United States comply with the registration requirement. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 11793, 11795. In the IFR, DHS clearly outlined why it is appropriate to designate Form G-325R as a general registration form to improve the registration outcome for certain groups of aliens, consistent with the E.O. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 11793,11795 (Mar. 12, 2025). The rule is reasonably related to its stated objectives and is not arbitrary and capricious.
                        <SU>77</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>77</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See Motor Vehicle Mfrs. Ass'n of U.S., Inc.</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">State Farm Mut. Auto. Ins. Co,</E>
                             463 U.S. 29, 43 (1983) (“The scope of review under the `arbitrary and capricious' standard is narrow and a court is not to substitute its judgment for that of the agency. Nevertheless, the agency must examine the relevant data and articulate a satisfactory explanation for its action including a `rational connection between the facts found and the choice made.' ”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Reliance Interests</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Some commenters addressed the issue of reliance interests, expressing concern that the IFR would disrupt the expectations and dependencies that individuals have developed based on existing immigration policies. For example, a commenter stated that by forgoing notice-and-comment rulemaking, DHS ignored the reliance interests of the public. The commenter added that the affected community is not accustomed to registering, as it has never been required before, and now millions would need to comply with a new registration requirement. The commenter stated that when a prior policy has engendered serious reliance interests, a government agency must provide a detailed explanation for changes. Sudden shifts, especially with criminal penalty implications, require sustained outreach to all stakeholders, not a surprise announcement. Similarly, a commenter stated that, in issuing the IFR, DHS has ignored the settled expectations and reliance interests of millions of people who have not had an obligation to register with the Federal Government.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS disagrees that DHS failed to consider reliance interests of applicants and that the obligation to register comes as a surprise announcement. The existing statutory registration requirement is over 80 years old and since 1952, has been incorporated by Congress into the INA, as amended. The longstanding statutory requirements appear, it is current form, at sections 261 through 266 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1301 through 1306. Over time, administrations prescribed the forms through which aliens could comply with the statutory requirement at 8 CFR 264.1. DHS did not change the scope of the statutory requirement; DHS merely provided aliens with another means to efficiently comply with the registration requirement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Even if the government failed to capture the group of aliens in the past, whose registration outcome is improved through this rule by adding an additional means to register, DHS does not believe that these aliens have a significant and legitimate reliance interest in the government's failure to enforce the law. It is the duty of the Executive, under Article II of the U.S. Constitution, to faithfully execute the law.
                        <SU>78</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Nevertheless, the agency considered the affected population, as well as the costs and time burden to the affected population. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 11793,11797 (Mar. 12, 2025). DHS currently provides the registration service free of charge and it will not, at this time, charge a biometric services fee.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>78</SU>
                             A historical practice itself does not inform what the law requires. The government cannot be estopped from fulfilling the duty to protect the public interest in accordance with the law and by enforcing the law. 
                            <E T="03">See Moran Mar. Assocs.</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">U.S. Coast Guard,</E>
                             526 F. Supp. 335, 342 (D.D.C. 1981), 
                            <E T="03">aff'd sub nom. Moran Mar. Assocs. Am. Waterways Operators, Inc.</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">U.S. Coast Guard,</E>
                             679 F.2d 261 (D.C. Cir. 1982) (“The Court agrees that prior inaction by the Coast Guard does not now bar the agency from implementing the clear mandate of the regulation and its authorizing statute.”); 
                            <E T="03">Warshauer</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Chao,</E>
                             No. 4:06-CV-0103, 2008 WL 2622799 at *31 (N.D. Ga. 2008), 
                            <E T="03">aff'd,</E>
                             577 F.3d 1330 (11th Cir. 2009) (“Courts repeatedly have held that the government cannot be estopped from enforcing the law even if the Government did not enforce the law in the past.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS also carefully considered the benefits of the registration rule, including the improved DHS law enforcement efficacy and the significant public safety aspects (such as that an increase in compliance with the fingerprinting requirement would provide DHS with additional information about an alien's criminal record). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 11793, 11797 through 11798 (Mar. 12, 2025). While the obligation to register is outside of this rule's purview as it is set by law, DHS clearly provided reasonable explanations for prescribing an additional form and the continued implementation of this important congressional mandate, as recognized by the President in E.O. 14159, clearly outweighed the interests of aliens required to register. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR, 11793, 11797 through 11798 (Mar. 12, 2025).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Length of Comment Period</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Numerous commenters remarked that the 30-day comment period is not long enough to “meaningfully comment” on such a significant policy change. A commenter referenced a decision of the U.S. Court 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39308"/>
                        of Appeals for the D.C. Circuit, which established that Government agencies must afford “interested persons a reasonable and meaningful opportunity to participate in the rulemaking process.” A commenter expressed concern that 30 days is insufficient time for the public to comment on a significant change to immigration law. A commenter stated that the truncated 30-day comment period was particularly problematic since they had to dedicate resources to educating the immigrant community about the IFR. Other commenters remarked that the due date for comments on the IFR was April 11, 2025, the same day the rule becomes operational, creating the perception that public comments would not be meaningfully considered. Another commenter recommended that DHS not “fast-track” the IFR and instead consider every public comment thoughtfully and carefully.
                    </P>
                    <P>Numerous commenters recommended that the Department either rescind the IFR, reissue it with a longer comment period, or both, and suggested the new comment period be at least 60 days. A commenter stated that E.O. 12866 specifies that rulemaking “in most cases should include a comment period of not less than 60 days,” and E.O. 13563 states that agencies should provide “a comment period that should generally be at least 60 days.” A commenter requested that the comment period be extended to 60 days as provided by previous E.O.s. A commenter urged DHS to withdraw the IFR and instead publish a proposed rule that fully complies with the requirements of the APA, including a 60-day period for public comments.</P>
                    <P>The same commenter remarked that if DHS had given the proper notice and published the rule as an NPRM, they would have been able to submit a more comprehensive comment to the rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS disagrees that the public was not provided with a reasonable and sufficient comment period. Adding Form G-325R to the regulation as an additional means to register is a procedural rule, not subject to the notice-and-comment requirement under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) and (c). Therefore, DHS was under no obligation to provide a notice-and-comment period. Nevertheless, DHS provided a 30-day period for post-promulgation comment and public input. The APA does not specify a minimum comment period. On January 20, 2025, the President issued E.O. 14159, which put the public on notice that alien registration requirements would be a priority of the current Administration. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 8443 (Jan. 29, 2025). In addition, the IFR itself was posted for public inspection on March 7, 2025. 90 FR 11793, 11800 (Mar. 12, 2025). Commenters therefore had 47 days from the date of the E.O. until they first had access to the IFR in order to familiarize themselves with the existing statute and regulations, and 36 days from the date of public inspection until the comment deadline to submit their comments on the NPRM. And the secondary comment period for purposes of the information collection closed on May 12, 2025, 67 days after the IFR was posted for public inspection. DHS believes that this was a reasonable time period given the clarity of the statute and straightforward purpose of the IFR.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Other Comments Related to the Administrative Procedure Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter remarked that anonymous comments should not be considered valid, questioning the right of individuals to demand others' personal information if they are unwilling to provide their own. On the other hand, a commenter expressed concern about submitting their comment with their name attached due to potential retaliatory actions by the Administration against opponents. A commenter urged DHS to ignore comments from United We Dream.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         As outlined in the IFR, DHS welcomes and considers any and all comments submitted in accordance with the instructions provided in the IFR.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">2. Regulatory Impact Analysis, Costs, and Benefits (E.O. 12866 and E.O. 13563)</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Underestimated and Insufficiently Assessed Costs to Federal Government</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Underestimated or Insufficiently Addressed Costs</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters objected that DHS has underestimated and insufficiently assessed the costs of processing Form G-325R and associated biometrics. A few commenters specifically voiced concern that processing millions of new registrations and biometrics would require a substantial allocation of DHS resources and that the estimated $30 cost per applicant for biometric services, while seemingly small, would amount to a significant expense when multiplied by millions of individuals. Several commenters acknowledged that, while the IFR provides a limited assessment of biometrics processing costs, it makes no mention of the cost implications of adding an entirely new form to be used by potentially millions of “noncitizens”. A few commenters, wrote that the Department did not adequately identify and assess administrative costs, writing that the cost discussion of biometrics processing was insufficient and there was no discussion of needed personnel, materials, and overhead costs. A commenter described the estimated $10 million annual financial cost of the NSEERS program in the first years of its use as an instructive example due to wastefulness. One commenter expressed concern that DHS did not provide clarity around how it would manage the “massive” influx of registrations. A commenter stated that the rule would cost approximately $72 million to advance what they characterized as an “unnecessary scheme.” One commenter stated that the IFR “omits any reference” to the OMB Supporting Statement for Form G-325R and its estimated $71,960,000 in government costs related to the form.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The analysis provided in the IFR addressed the direct effects of increased compliance as a result of the rule, including the PRA estimates on the opportunity cost of the collection of information, recognizing the rule did not impose any new obligations for registration, insofar as such obligations have long been contained in the INA. The unit costs are discussed in this final rule related to submitting forms and the burden to the Agency related to biometrics as well as the opportunity cost of time for aliens to complete Form G-325R.
                    </P>
                    <P>As mentioned previously in this preamble, DHS has determined that it will not impose a biometric services fee for registration applicants as part of this final rule. DHS also notes that USCIS has not generally seen any significant delays or inefficiencies in biometric collection services. As part of the upcoming USCIS fee schedule rulemaking, USCIS will reassess its needs and determine whether more resources are necessary to address processing Form G-325R and whether that justifies a change in the related fee.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Assessment of Enforcement Costs</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Many commenters stated that DHS failed to adequately assess the costs of enforcing the rule. Several of the commenters critiqued the statement in the IFR that any anticipated compliance-related costs are due to the statute rather than the rule itself. These commenters noted that implementation and enforcement of the rule would require civil and criminal law enforcement efforts, which contemplates significant costs, including personnel, training, and materials. A commenter similarly remarked that the IFR simply states that the costs are “inherent to compliance 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39309"/>
                        with the statute and are not a result of this rule,” which they characterized as intentionally vague and not explaining the true economic costs. A commenter wrote that the “amorphous nature of `self-deportation' contemplated in the IFR” would incur costs and resource needs not considered within the IFR. A commenter criticized the lack of discussion of the burden of “prioritized” registration violation cases.
                    </P>
                    <P>Similarly, a commenter stated that the IFR fails to provide any calculation or comparison of the claimed “improved DHS law enforcement efficacy,” with the inherently increased costs of Federal immigration enforcement and local law enforcement in enforcing this new scheme and its criminal penalties across the country.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The rule does not require DHS to undertake additional enforcement of the existing statute. The purpose is to improve the registration outcomes for certain groups of aliens to ensure that all previously unregistered aliens in the United States comply with the statutory requirements in sections 261 through 266 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1301 through 1306. The rule allows those aliens that have not registered through other pathways to register using Form G-325R. E.O. 14159 directs DHS, in coordination with DOJ and State, to ensure that failure to comply with the alien registration requirements of the INA is treated as a civil and criminal enforcement priority.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unconsidered Costs to DOJ</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few commenters criticized the IFR for not addressing associated costs to DOJ, which would be tasked with enforcing the Federal criminal statutory penalties and adjudicating removal processes for “noncitizens” charged with such through information discovered in the registration process.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The enforcement of related statutory provisions and the costs associated with them for DOJ are separate from this rulemaking. DHS has considered the possibility that this rule, perhaps in combination with other policies, could have some of the indirect effects as raised by commenters, however, we do not have sufficient information to quantify these effects. DHS believes that DOJ costs are outside the scope of this rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Assessment of Affected Population and Costs</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters remarked on the rule's discussion of the affected population and costs to those who would use the general registration form designated under the rule. The commenters stated that the IFR's analysis of the affected population appears to significantly underestimate the associated costs. A couple of other commenters wrote that the estimated impact of the IFR to 2.2 million to 3.2 million individuals would place a significant logistical burden both on individuals and DHS. The commenters added that, while the G-325R form is currently free, the time needed to complete the form, the travel time, and the time spent at an ASC are all costs that would be borne by the affected population. Commenters stated that the confusion created by the IFR generates an increase in demand for immigration legal consultations from individuals seeking legal advice on how this IFR impacts them, whether they need to register, or whether they already have, with a commenter writing that legal consultations and legal research by attorneys can cost significant amounts of money. Another commenter noted that between legal aid, biometric filing fees, and re-filings to correct errors or report relocation, the IFR might impose direct and indirect costs upon the “noncitizen” population exceeding tens of millions of dollars. Similarly, a commenter wrote that the IFR does not mention or analyze “easily foreseeable costs” to individuals, “pretending” that the cost of the IFR and corollary criminal statutes would be limited to increased biometric procedures.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter, citing requirements under E.O.s 12866 and 13563 and providing detailed remarks on the rule, said DHS did not fully assess the costs of the rule, while overestimating its benefits. The commenter stated that DHS estimates the rule would impact between 2.2 million and 3.2 million people, most of whom are living in the United States without lawful status but are otherwise law-abiding and contributing members of their communities that do not pose a public safety threat. Specifically, the commenter cited Office of Homeland Security Statistics (OHSS), which found that, in April 2024, 79 percent of unauthorized aliens in the United States had lived in the country for more than 15 years, reasoning that these individuals are long-term, contributing residents who are not criminals or public safety threats. While critiquing DHS's cost estimates, the commenter discussed practical challenges for registrants, including the time required to complete forms and travel to ASCs for biometric collection, reasoning that some individuals would need to travel significant distances to reach the closest ASC, as some States have only one center. The commenter mentioned, for example, Georgia, Kentucky, and New Mexico as states with only one ASC, which the commenter said would require hours of travel for many registrants. The commenter also noted that in Hawaii, which has only one ASC in Honolulu, registrants from other islands would need to purchase flights to attend appointments, potentially facing complications due to REAL ID requirements. Furthermore, the commenter stated that DHS failed to acknowledge additional costs incurred as part of traveling to an ASC, including taking time off work, finding childcare, purchasing meals, and other burdens that may arise in the process. They concluded that these costs were not adequately considered in DHS's assessment.</P>
                    <P>A commenter expressed a need to consider costs to “noncitizens” with language barriers such as limited English proficiency, writing that the additional time, effort, and translation needed to successfully support these individuals to compliance with the registration requirement were not considered in the IFR. The commenter stated that the IFR does not account for translation of Form G-325R, biographical information, or the rule itself. A commenter noted without further explanation that the IFR would make “undocumented” persons choose between registering, being searched for and removed, or not registering, being fined and imprisoned, and then being removed.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The requirement to register is not new; such costs have long been inherent in the alien registration requirements of the INA. The IFR did acknowledge there is a burden associated with registration, and the burden was estimated in the supporting statement of the PRA. The analysis also includes a discussion of the paperwork burden such as, the burden to submit forms, and to submit biometrics, which includes average travel costs to an ASC. This methodology is used across multiple USCIS rules and accounts for those individuals that would travel long distances and those who would make a short trip. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         78 FR 535 (Jan. 3, 2013). These burdens also include the opportunity cost of time the registrant incurs during this period. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section VI.B.3 of this preamble. DHS has considered the possibility that this rule, perhaps in combination with other policies, could have some of the indirect effects as raised by commenters, however, we do not have sufficient information to quantify these effects.
                        <PRTPAGE P="39310"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Unconsidered Costs to State and Local Governments</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters stated that the rule fails to assess costs to U.S. communities, including State and local governments, for implementation and enforcement of civil and criminal penalties. A few commenters wrote that State and local governments would likely incur increased costs from defending against litigation as people sue State and local police for unlawful discrimination arising from the racial profiling inherent in the enforcement of the carry requirement. A commenter wrote that if DHS shifts the priority of USCIS to register millions of people, it would create further backlogs and would financially impact states like New York, where many migrants have made a home and are seeking asylum and work authorization. Another commenter expressed concern that the IFR does not consider costs to State and local governments impacted by economies diminished by less participation from frightened immigrants.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         This rule implements a process for statutorily required registration of aliens in the United States who are not registered via other means. The rule is not intended to impose a burden on other governmental entities, and any such burden would be, at most, based on external factors not linked to this rule, or a consequence of other policies or activities that states have voluntarily pursued. Lawsuits arising from the hypothetical behavior of law enforcement or registrants would be a result of that behavior and not a direct result of complying with statutorily required registration. Other governmental and non-governmental entities are not required to reprioritize their behavior or distribution of their limited resources as a result of this rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Costs to the Economy</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters wrote that the IFR would cause harm to the national economy. Other commenters wrote that there would be impacts to local economies. Commenters raised concerns that the IFR would cause economic harm and wrote that the rule would cause economic loss for small businesses.
                    </P>
                    <P>A couple of commenters wrote that immigrants contribute to the economy and pay taxes without receiving any benefits, with a different commenter saying that the vast majority of aliens are peaceful, upstanding, and hard workers who pay hundreds of billions of dollars in taxes annually. Another commenter warned that aliens may be discouraged from paying taxes if the Internal Revenue Service data could be used to investigate registration noncompliance; the commenter stated that aliens contributed over $50 billion in Federal taxes in 2023. Providing an additional example by a non-governmental organization, a commenter wrote that the National Academy of Sciences estimates that immigrants contribute more in tax revenue than they receive in Federal benefits, and that net benefits over a 75-year horizon exceed $326,000 for each immigrant and their descendants. Speaking to personal experience, a commenter described themself as a hardworking taxpayer and called for policies that recognize the contributions of millions who make the United States great. Other commenters agreed, writing that immigrants make America great.</P>
                    <P>A commenter wrote that the “policy” creates uncertainty among immigrant communities and negatively impacts U.S. citizens who are trying to hire competent workers. Employers may struggle to find qualified candidates if individuals lack work authorization documents or the necessary status for employment. A commenter stated that the economic implications of removing millions of people from the workforce would create a further strain on resources. Multiple commenters wrote that immigrants carry out many jobs that U.S. citizens will not. Another commenter wrote that the IFR fails to account for devastating social and economic costs to U.S. communities.</P>
                    <P>Different commenters were opposed to the government penalizing immigrants who contribute to the economy. A few commenters remarked that the rule would increase the chilling effect on immigrant workers and students afraid to go to work and school for fear of exposing themselves and their families to separation, detention, deportation, or criminalization. Commenters stated that this lack of participation would impact employers, businesses, and schools by shrinking local economies and making communities less stable. Citing research, the commenter described the chilling effect as “well documented” and likely to make the nation less stable. The commenter further wrote that the reduction in workforce engagement would stall vital infrastructural projects while simultaneously increasing labor costs.</P>
                    <P>Many commenters expressed concern that the IFR would lead to negative impacts to State economies, with one commenter writing that this administration “imperils” the economic benefits immigration has brought to the United States. Echoing concerns about impacts to State economies, a couple of commenters urged DHS to protect the United States from financial harm by not implementing the rule. More specifically, commenters emphasized economic disruptions to essential jobs, efforts to close labor shortages, and critical industries that depend on labor, such as construction, education, healthcare, childcare, households, agriculture, hospitality, mutual aid, infrastructure, labor unions, long term care, community organizers, and food processing, which could lead to higher business costs, difficulty for businesses to grow, reduced tax contributions, slow economic growth, economic instability, decrease in entrepreneurs, and reduced tourism. A commenter wrote that a lack of participation of alien communities would be followed by a decrease in the availability of businesses and services, with another commenter saying the significant new workload demands of this rule would harm workers, businesses, and the overall economy. Another commenter expressed that aliens contribute to States' population growth and tax revenue.</P>
                    <P>With specific regard to tourism, a commenter expressed concern about Canadian travelers who may be deterred from traveling to the United States, with another adding that the U.S. Travel Association estimates that even a 10 percent reduction in Canadian visitation could mean 2 million fewer visits, $2.1 billion lost in spending, and 14,000 job losses. With regard to annual spending, the commenter said that Canada is the largest international tourism market in the United States, with spending in excess of $20 billion, and in Florida, Canadians represent almost 40 percent of all foreign visitors to the State. According to a commenter, the Canadian government has updated its travel advisory for Canadians visiting the United States, and Canadian media has raised concerns about the “show-your-papers” impacts, which they said may lead to increased scrutiny and penalties for noncompliance and heavily impact tourism. Further, the commenter wrote that immigration, especially by Latinos, has driven all U.S. population growth from 2022 to 2023, and that immigrants are essential in key sectors and start more small businesses than U.S.-born citizens, aiding economic resilience. Restrictions on interstate movement could worsen economic impacts, and removing millions of immigrant workers would have significant economic consequences.</P>
                    <P>
                        Emphasizing the deep integration of alien families into their own 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39311"/>
                        community, a commenter wrote that their local economy depended on tourism and hospitality. They noted that many Latino immigrants contributed significantly to the local economy through employment in restaurants and hotels. A commenter said that asking for additional, mandatory registration documents from “noncitizens” would have a chilling effect on the U.S. tourist economy.
                    </P>
                    <P>A couple of commenters discussed the economic impact of similar policies in the past. Specifically, they cited Arizona's SB 1070, with one of the commenters adding that between 2007 and 2016, the “undocumented” population dropped from 500,000 to 275,000, contributing to an annual 2-percent decline in the State's Gross Domestic Product between 2008 and 2015 and a 2.5-percent drop in its workforce. Commenters said that the requirement would harshly punish aliens who are contributing to and enriching communities.</P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that other countries do not implement similar registration policies and warned that maintaining this policy could damage the United States' relationship with allies. Expressing opposition, a commenter stated that “good” Americans would be alienated more than they already are by the resources spent “hunting down immigrants.”</P>
                    <P>While remarking on the cost analysis, a commenter expressed additional concern about broader potential cost impacts on employers, institutions, the economy, and communities throughout the United States. The commenter stated that the rule would lead to compliance costs for businesses whose employees or customers are required to register and submit biometrics. The commenter said that registrants would likely need to request time off work, including potential delays for key business functions and the diversion of resources to hire temporary replacements. The commenter also wrote that businesses whose customer base is impacted might suffer costs due to reduced spending power among registrants. The commenter additionally remarked that educational institutions, churches, and other organizations could be burdened with tracking updates to the registration requirement and providing advice to affected individuals. They suggested that costs could ripple throughout the U.S. economy and communities, particularly if registration information is used for immigration enforcement purposes.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         This rule does not directly regulate or impact businesses or other organizations, but rather it directly regulates individual aliens. As explained in the IFR,
                        <SU>79</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS recognizes that there are costs to aliens to comply with the INA's alien registration provision. But, because this rule does not impose any new alien registration or biometrics obligation separate from those already contained in the INA, these costs are inherent to compliance with the statute by an alien and are not a direct result of this rule. Correspondingly, any broader potential indirect or secondary cost impacts on employers, businesses, institutions, the economy, communities, and persons throughout the United States would be a result of the policy choice made by Congress when requiring aliens who are in the United States to register. However, DHS has considered the possibility that this rule, perhaps in combination with other policies, could have some of the indirect effects described above. We do not have sufficient information to quantify these effects. The IFR's analysis assessed the impact associated with the implementation of a process for statutorily required registration by aliens in the United States who were not registered via other means, including the burden of travel and time to fill out the form.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>79</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             90 FR 11793, 11796-11798.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Benefits Assessment</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         While responding to DHS's assessment of benefits of the IFR, a commenter expressed strong disagreement with DHS's statement that “access to more comprehensive registration data” for immigration enforcement purposes would constitute a benefit. The commenter said that removing hundreds of thousands or millions of “undocumented” individuals who are otherwise law-abiding and contributing members of communities would be disruptive to families, the economy, and society. The commenter added that this would create a chilling effect across immigrant communities and discourage immigrants without legal status—who they said pay almost $100 billion in Federal and State taxes annually—from interacting with any government agencies. The commenter concluded that DHS's assessment of the benefits from the registration obligation is “misguided” and, at best, “incomplete,” stating that DHS failed to acknowledge the disruption that would result from a significant increase in arrests and deportations as a result of using the registration data for immigration enforcement purposes.
                    </P>
                    <P>Similarly, a commenter critiqued the IFR as providing “no analysis” to illustrate that additional registration is needed or that expanded requirements would improve public safety. A separate commenter further discussed how it is “highly questionable” that the IFR would achieve its stated objectives, through its purported benefits.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The rule does not obligate additional enforcement of the existing statute. The rule establishes that those aliens that have not registered through other means should register using Form G-325R. The rule is expected to improve DHS law enforcement efficacy to (1) provide more comprehensive information about the location of aliens in the United States to make it easier and safer for DHS to enforce the law and (2) increase compliance with statutory fingerprinting requirements to provide DHS with additional information about an alien's criminal record, including whether the alien is a known or suspected terrorist.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Compliance With E.O. 14192</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Commenters raised concerns about the IFR's compliance with President Trump's E.O. 14192, “Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation.” The commenter wrote that this E.O. requires that whenever a Federal agency promulgates a new regulation, the agency “shall identify at least 10 existing regulations to be repealed,” which the commenter stated DHS has failed to do in this case. The commenter also remarked that DHS failed to fulfill the second requirement of the E.O., to offset “any new incremental costs associated with new regulations” with “the elimination of existing costs associated with at least 10 prior regulations.” The commenter reasoned that the IFR meets the E.O.'s definition of “regulation” or “rule,” adding that the IFR states that it “amends DHS regulations,” and that the E.O. applies to all Federal agencies and all regulatory actions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The commenter reasoned that while the IFR is exempted from APA notice-and-comment procedures on the grounds that the IFR is only “a rule of agency organization, procedure, or practice,” this does not “encode a substantive value judgement or put a stamp of approval or disapproval on a given type of behavior.” The commenter concluded that if the rule is a purely procedural one, as DHS claims, rather than a rule issued with respect to the immigration-related function of the United States, the E.O. should apply. Concluding that the E.O.'s requirements do apply to the IFR, the commenter remarked that this represents either a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39312"/>
                        lack of attention to the administration's regulatory policies or a deliberate attempt to circumvent the requirements of E.O. 14192.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Pursuant to the definitional section 5(a) of E.O. 14192, a regulation or rule issued with respect to a military, national security, homeland security, foreign affairs, or the immigration-related function of the United States is not considered a regulation or rule for E.O. 14192 purposes.
                        <SU>80</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The IFR's primary direct purpose, and this rule's primary direct purpose, is to implement or interpret the immigration laws of the United States (as described in section 101(a)(17) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(17)) or any other function performed by the U.S. Federal Government with respect to aliens. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         OMB Memorandum M-25-20, “Guidance Implementing Section 3 of Executive Order 14192, titled `Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation'” (Mar. 26, 2025). For this reason, and additionally because the IFR and this final rule are also issued with respect to national security, homeland security, and foreign affairs functions of the United States, the requirements of E.O. 14192 do not apply.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>80</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             E.O. 14192, sec. 5 (“Definition. For purposes of this order, the term “regulation” or “rule” means an agency statement of general or particular applicability and future effect designed to implement, interpret, or prescribe law or policy or to describe the procedure or practice requirements of an agency, including, without limitation, regulations, rules, memoranda, administrative orders, guidance documents, policy statements, and interagency agreements, regardless of whether the same were enacted through the processes in the Administrative Procedure Act, but does not include: (a) regulations issued with respect to a military, national security, homeland security, foreign affairs, or immigration-related function of the United States . . . .”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Other Statutory and Regulatory Requirements</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Family Assessment</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A couple of commenters remarked that the Family Assessment inaccurately states that there would be no impact to family unity, reasoning that law enforcement actions taken against aliens would separate families. The commenters urged DHS to provide further analysis and explanations for the reasons why aliens, including those with mixed-status families, would be required to report themselves with such a consequence. Another commenter said that the cost of increased surveillance and requirement for juveniles to register would adversely affect individuals and families due to the travel required for biometrics submission and monetary hurdles.
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters said that the rule violates section 654 of the Treasury General Appropriations Act of 1999 as the family separations that would ensue as a result of detentions and deportations would impact the stability or safety of the family, impacts the authority of parents in the education, nurture, and supervision of their children, and fails to help the family perform its functions. Several commenters wrote that the rule violates this statute in that it would impact family well-being, autonomy, and integrity through the requirement for children to independently register upon turning 14 years of age and the requirement for parents and legal guardians to register their children under the age of 14. A commenter remarked that DHS provided no information on the analysis it conducted to reach the conclusion that the rule would not impact family well-being or the autonomy and integrity of the family as an institution. A commenter said that USCIS must conduct a proper family assessment of this rule or face litigation.</P>
                    <P>A commenter presented data specific to Massachusetts, noting that approximately 26 percent of the “undocumented” population in the State have at least one minor U.S. citizen child, and 13 percent are married to U.S. citizens. The commenter stated that registration would effectively mean volunteering to separate families. The commenter challenged the IFR's analysis regarding the Treasury General Appropriations Act of 1999, specifically disputing the claim that the regulation “will not negatively affect family well-being and will not have any impact on the autonomy and integrity of the family as an institution.” The commenter wrote that the forced separation of families through deportation has well-documented negative impacts on family well-being. Furthermore, the commenter criticized the government for failing to provide information on how they “systematically reviewed the criteria” or justification for their conclusion that the IFR would not negatively impact family well-being, autonomy, or integrity.</P>
                    <P>Commenters stated that imposing registration requirements on adolescent children would impact the safety and stability of families and interfere with parents' autonomy in the education and supervision of their children. The commenters stated that the rule fails to examine the relationship between parental responsibility under the law for children under 18 and the requirement assigning independent responsibility to children between 14 and 18 years old. Regarding the requirement for parents and legal guardians to complete registration for children under 14, the commenters remarked that this would impact family safety and stability. The commenters stated that the rule requires parents to provide information about their children that could expose them to civil immigration enforcement, including detention and deportation. The commenters concluded that these measures clearly impact family well-being, safety, stability, and the authority of parents to direct the education, nurture, and supervision of their children.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The IFR amended DHS regulations to designate a new registration form, Form G-325R, as an additional option for aliens to comply with statutory alien registration and fingerprinting provisions. The obligation is a longstanding obligation that has existed for over 80 years. DHS disagrees with the commenters that the IFR adversely affects families. The registration is free of charge and a significant number of aliens are already registered through the visa process, or through other encounters with the government. Congress imposed the requirement, and DHS is faithfully executing the law.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As stated in the IFR, DHS has determined that the implementation of this regulation will not negatively affect family well-being in accordance with section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 1999 
                        <SU>81</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and will not have any impact on the autonomy and integrity of the family as an institution. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 11793, 11799 (Mar. 12, 2025). The means of registration or prescribing the additional form in DHS regulation neither impact the stability or the safety of the family, particularly in terms of the marital commitment, nor the well -being of a family overall. To the contrary, as outlined in President Trump's E.O., enforcing the Nation's immigration laws is critically important to the national security and public safety of the United States and individuals present within the United States. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         E.O. 14159, sec. 1.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>81</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Public Law 105-277, 112 Stat. 2681 (1998).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Regulatory Flexibility Act Analysis</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter wrote that this rule requires an NPRM and, therefore, a regulatory flexibility analysis under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) before the rule can move forward. The commenter added that, due to the rule's impacts on small entities, it affects the general public in addition to individuals, opening the door to a regulatory flexibility analysis.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Multiple commenters discussed the impacts of the IFR on small entities and commented that USCIS wrongly ignored these economic impacts. A couple of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39313"/>
                        commenters said that the omission of any translation of Form G-325R obscures the impact on small entities and organizations that serve limited English proficiency and low-income communities, as well as people with disabilities, and implicates Federal government obligations under sections 504 and 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 and title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Commenters said that there has already been a significant drop in international arrivals compared to last year, especially Canadian visitors, hurting the tourism industry in many States both near and far from the border. A commenter added that businesses in Michigan have suffered revenue loss due to immigrant workers and students being afraid to go to work or school for fear of detention and deportation, a situation that it said would only be exacerbated by this IFR. Another commenter said that this effect would be seen across the United States. A commenter stated that many small businesses would be impacted due to registrants needing to take time off to attend their biometrics appointment at an ASC, which they said could be several hours away.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The IFR was published as an interim final rule, based on the procedural rule exception under the APA, 5 U.S.C. 553, and DHS was not required to publish a general notice of proposed rulemaking under the APA or under any other law. As such, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis, was not required, in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 604(a), and is also not required for this final rule. Nonetheless, DHS, as part of the IFR and this final rule, has determined that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         small businesses, small organizations and small governmental jurisdictions). As DHS noted in the IFR, this rule directly regulates individual aliens. However, the RFA's regulatory flexibility analysis requirements apply only to small entities subject to the requirements of the rule.
                        <SU>82</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The individual aliens subject to the alien registration requirements of the INA are not small entities as defined in 5 U.S.C. 601(6).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>82</SU>
                             Small Business Administration, A Guide for Government Agencies: How to Comply with the Regulatory Flexibility Act at 22 (Aug. 2017), 
                            <E T="03">https://advocacy.sba.gov/wp-content/uploads/2019/07/How-to-Comply-with-the-RFA-WEB.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>All USCIS forms are in the English language and must be submitted in English, with the exception of Form I-9 for employers in Puerto Rico. As explained throughout this preamble, USCIS complies with all statutory obligations for purposes of access and accommodations. DHS understands that there may be an impact on previously unregistered aliens, such as on those who visit the United States and that certain aliens may no longer opt to visit the United States. However, Congress considered the registration of aliens necessary; DHS is faithfully executing the law and, with this rule, is neither imposing new registration nor fingerprinting obligations in addition to those required by Congress.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter said that the IFR would impose an unfunded mandate on USCIS, which they said is already facing backlogs in its attempt to meet its core functions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) is intended, among other things, to curb the practice of imposing unfunded Federal Mandates on State, local and Tribal governments. USCIS is not a State, local or Tribal government—it is part of the Executive branch.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. E.O. 13175, Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter said that the IFR would have Tribal implications under E.O. 13175, stating that the implementation and enforcement of the IFR would require law enforcement to request proof of compliance with registration from anyone who may appear to be a “noncitizen”. The commenter said that many Tribal members already experience this type of enforcement and this IFR would only increase the number of those encounters.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS is sensitive to enforcement issues. The registration requirement applies to aliens only. Additionally, consistent with 8 U.S.C. 1359, DHS interprets the registration and fingerprinting requirements of 8 U.S.C. 1302 to exclude American Indians born in Canada who possess at least 50 per centum of blood of the American Indian race who are present in the United States under the authority of 8 U.S.C. 1359. This interpretation is based on construing 8 U.S.C. 1302 and other provisions of subchapter II of chapter 12, title 8 of the U.S. Code as consistent with the right of such American Indians to pass the borders of the United States. Similarly, members of the Texas Band of Kickapoo Indians are not required to register. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Texas Band of Kickapoo Act, Public Law 97-429, sec. 4(d).
                    </P>
                    <P>Therefore, the IFR and this final rule do not have Tribal implications, as addressed in E.O. 13175, because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian Tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Out of Scope</HD>
                    <P>This section summarizes some of the many comments that were outside the IFR's scope. Although, in an abundance of caution, DHS has summarized and responded to some of the below comments earlier in this preamble, DHS notes that it views the below comments (among others) as generally falling outside the scope of the IFR, as they tend to communicate objections to (for instance) clear statutory requirements that the IFR did not create or change or enforcement activities that are generally unrelated to this rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Registration Requirements Under Pre-Existing Statute and Regulations</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Legal/Statutory Concerns and DHS Compliance With Statute</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter suggested that USCIS and the Attorney General implement a waiver policy for the statutory registration requirements. Others indicated that registration requirements have been viewed as contrary to American values and that the former INS had begun dismantling its registration apparatus by 1947, eliminating the registration requirements for Canadians and subsequently transitioning registration into regularized immigration applications and enforcement, thus marking an intentional departure from the sweeping process the IFR was seeking to implement.
                    </P>
                    <P>Several commenters opposed the Alien Registration Act, with some commenters indicating it did little to address national security, and instead it became a tool to stifle and target political dissent and specific ethnic groups. Commenters discussed the historical context of the Act, with one commenter stating that the Alien Registration Act's original purpose was to monitor foreign nationals for national security concerns during wartime, not as an immigration enforcement tool. Some commenters called for the withdrawal of the Alien Registration Act.</P>
                    <P>
                        Comments also addressed the registration of free Black people in pre-Civil War southern States and Chinese immigrants during the Chinese 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39314"/>
                        Exclusion Era. Commenters stated that this type of immigration policy is grounded in a troubled history of white supremacy; that it is another step taken toward fascism by this Administration; and that it mirrors other shameful historical efforts, such as Nazi Germany's documentation requirements that were used to discriminate against individuals of Jewish ancestry.
                    </P>
                    <P>Another commenter said that the “sweeping generalization” of whom E.O. 14159 affects is unfair and unconstitutional, because immigrants who have entered the country legally and have complied with the law should not be targeted by the law. Another commenter added that constitutional protections should apply to all people within the United States' jurisdiction, not just citizens or those “in favor with the administration.” Another commenter suggested that the government might eventually require registration for residents with green cards, for naturalized citizens, or “for anyone who doesn't pledge undying, uncritical loyalty to this administration. Without additional context, a commenter stated that even U.S.-born citizens are not safe from the impacts of this law, as according to the commenter ICE has already detained people in defiance of federal judges.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The overall purpose of the statutory scheme established by Congress falls outside the scope of the rule. DHS has the obligation to faithfully execute the laws established by Congress, including the alien registration requirement. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 103(a), 8 U.S.C. 1103(a). DHS has continued over the decades to ensure that aliens generally are registered by providing pathways to do so. The new general registration form added by the IFR is specifically designed to address a gap in the existing regulatory regime relating to registration and allow all aliens, regardless of their status, to fulfill their duty to register under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. Regarding the comment about E.O. 14159, DHS did not issue the E.O. The IFR did not propose to change the terms of E.O. 14159 and could not have done so.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A U.S. citizen is not considered an alien under the INA. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 101(a)(3), 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(3). The alien registration requirements of the INA require aliens, not U.S. citizens, to register.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Evidence of Registration</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Another commenter asked what would happen to those with a previously issued employment authorization, but who are currently ineligible to obtain or renew it. Similarly, the commenter asked about those who were previously in removal proceedings, but whose proceedings were terminated, and they remain here “essentially undocumented.” A commenter stated that it is unclear whether immigrants who have already registered would be required to re-register, and added that criminal charges for failing to register would only increase the stress for those communities. Commenters wrote that the list of documents that serve as evidence of registration, regardless of expiration, is confusing. The commenter said that some of the documents on the list include a statement to say that they count as registration even if they are expired, but the website does not repeat this for all of the documents so it is unclear whether any of the remaining documents can be used if they are expired. A commenter said that the website describes Green Card holders as “lawful permanent residents” rather than following the regulation and listing “I-551 Permanent Resident Card,” so there is no opportunity to address whether expired Green Cards would be considered “registration.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         In DHS's view, aliens who are 14 years of age or older and are issued evidence of registration have complied with their duty under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, including expired forms that constitute evidence of registration. Similarly, an alien who is placed in removal proceedings via Form I-862, Notice to Appear, has complied with the registration requirement, regardless if the removal proceedings were administratively closed, terminated, or withdrawn. However, DHS notes that compliance with the registration requirement does not create an immigration status, establish employment authorization, or provide any other right or benefit under the INA or any other U.S. law.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter requested clarification about whether immigrants who applied for Form I-131F, Application for Parole in Place for Certain Noncitizen Spouses and Stepchildren of U.S. Citizens, and were specifically eligible under its provisions, would be considered “registered” under the IFR.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The Form I-131F, Application for Parole in Place for Certain Noncitizen Spouses and Stepchildren of U.S. Citizens, is not a prescribed registration form designated at 8 CFR 264.1(a). DHS notes on November 7, 2024, USCIS ceased the adjudication and intake of the Form I-131F, Application for Parole in Place for Certain Noncitizen Spouses and Stepchildren of U.S. Citizens. This program was vacated and cancelled in compliance with a court order.
                        <SU>83</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For aliens who have no other pathway to register, they may submit a Form G-325R to satisfy their obligation under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>83</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See State of Texas</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Department of Homeland Security,</E>
                             24-cv-306 (E.D. Tx Nov. 7, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         While expressing general support for the rule, another commenter suggested a modification to require all aliens, including those with visas and Green Cards, to register every year. The commenter suggested that those who fail to register or renew “without a reasonable cause” could be charged with a crime of moral turpitude for immigration purposes, which the commenter said would make it easier for those who do not register to be removed.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The comment is beyond the scope of the IFR, which filled a gap in the regulation by adding an option for these aliens to comply with the existing statutory registration requirements.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Carry Requirement</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter expressed support for the “carry” requirement, stating that it would provide equal treatment similar to how citizens can be looked up through their ID. The commenter suggested that registered immigrants should have a similar process for identity verification with reasonable time to retrieve documentation if needed.
                    </P>
                    <P>Opposing the carry requirement, a few commenters stated that no person in the United States should be required to carry proof of registration, others stated it was an “unnecessary burden” and comes with a “huge and unfair cost.” Another commenter stated that requiring all aliens to register and carry proof of registration is inconsistent with human dignity, makes aliens vulnerable to human trafficking by those who steal their proof of registration, and will result in racial profiling by law enforcement personnel and “vigilantes” demanding to see proof of registration. The commenter demanded a justification for the IFR “[o]ther than someone with a desire to have more power over others, and terrorize.”</P>
                    <P>
                        Other commenters expressed concern that the requirement to carry proof of registration would become a pretext for arbitrary stops, detentions, and law enforcement encounters, which could disproportionately impact those who law enforcement perceive as foreign. Similarly, some commenters wrote that the implementation of the proposed enforcement of criminal penalties for 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39315"/>
                        failing to carry proof of registration could lead to wrongful arrests affecting both citizens and “noncitizens.”
                    </P>
                    <P>Many commenters stated that this carry requirement would risk misidentification of U.S. citizens as immigrants; lead toward establishing a totalitarian government; raise concerns about fairness, due process, and respect for human rights; harm individuals with disabilities; and have a chilling effect on First Amendment-protected speech, particularly for those challenging potentially discriminatory policies, and would disproportionately impact Black and Brown people regardless of citizenship. Another commenter wrote that the IFR does not account for the burden placed on U.S. citizens, as according to the commenter every person in the United States would have to carry proof of their immigration status. The commenter said that if an alien must carry proof of registration to avoid arrest by DHS officers or to pass through increasingly common DHS checkpoints, then U.S. citizens would likewise have to prove that they are exempt from DHS registration requirements by carrying their own proof of status. Further, they stated that as DHS has “engaged in aggressive enforcement measures,” even before this rule came into effect, there are increasing numbers of U.S. citizens being erroneously and unlawfully arrested.</P>
                    <P>Commenters also raised concerns that the carry requirement could have on individuals with mental health, developmental, and cognitive disabilities, stating the IFR does not consider “reasonable accommodations” for individuals with disabilities whom this provision would affect. Multiple commenters also raised concerns that the requirement to carry proof of registration at all times would disproportionately harm survivors of violence—including child survivors—or place them at risk of criminalization. A commenter wrote that sexual assault survivors, especially those working in seasonal agriculture and janitorial industries, often lack access to safe, stable housing, reliable transportation, or secure places to store important documents. Another commenter, echoing the previous concerns about the inability of survivors to carry proof of registration at all times as required under the IFR, encouraged DHS to consider factors such as emergencies, victimization, and health conditions, among others, in its criminal, civil, and immigration enforcement actions of 8 U.S.C. 1304(e).</P>
                    <P>One commenter stated that since registration information is electronically available, it would be more efficient to provide alternatives to physical documentation, reasoning that officers can easily access the required information electronically through myUSCIS accounts or the CBP I-94/I-94W URL address, which could encourage more compliance.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         These comments are outside the scope of this rulemaking. DHS notes that the law requires aliens who are issued evidence of registration and over the age of 18 to carry such evidence on their person at all times. The regulation at 8 CFR 264.1(b) provides a list of evidence of registration, which includes the Form I-551, Permanent Resident Card. The comments regarding the enforcement of section 264(e) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(e) are outside the scope of this rulemaking. Comments regarding racial profiling and effects on vulnerable populations are addressed in section III.D.3.e. of this preamble. DHS also notes that it considers an electronic copy of the evidence of registration to satisfy an alien's obligation to carry proof of registration on his or her person.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS is aware that there are areas of the existing regulations that could be improved, including amending the list of forms prescribed as registration forms in 8 CFR 264.1(a) and the list of forms constituted as evidence of registration in 8 CFR 264.1(b). As part of this final rule, DHS is requesting comments on various ways to amend the DHS regulation to improve implementation of the registration requirement under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section V, Request for Comments, of this preamble.
                    </P>
                    <P>Finally, DHS reiterates that the alien registration requirements of the INA require aliens—not U.S. citizens—to register.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Address Change Requirement</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter expressed concern that the expectation for people with disabilities to comply with address change requirements imposes a significant burden, and the absence of a safe address option exposes these clients to potential adverse outcomes. A commenter noted that it is particularly difficult for victims of domestic violence to update their address as they may flee their homes to escape violence, often moving frequently to stay safe, and that the requirement to update change of address penalizes every victim of human trafficking and domestic or sexual violence, including those with lawful immigration status. Another commenter stated that the requirement to document every place an individual would visit is unfair and onerous, and would burden potential visitors, reasoning that people enjoy freedom of movement both in Canada and the United States. A commenter remarked that while the existing change-of-address requirements allow individuals to demonstrate that noncompliance was not willful or was reasonably excusable, the IFR requirement provides no such flexibility. Another commenter noted that change-of-address update requirements could impede immigrants' ability to navigate the court system, while bureaucratic backlogs might incorrectly label mobile immigrants as noncompliant with registration requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS notes that the law established by Congress requires that aliens who are required to register update their address with the government within 10 days of moving.
                    </P>
                    <P>Aliens filing a Form G-325R do not qualify as protected alien under 8 U.S.C. 1367 by virtue of such filing, however, if an alien designated as a protected alien on another basis, USCIS would maintain the same protection for the safe address included on the G-325R. On the Form G-325R, an alien may provide a safe address. As with all USCIS forms in which an alien may provide a safe address, if USCIS contacts the alien through the mail it will use the safe address that they provide. However, the Form G-325R process is entirely electronic at this time. All notices sent from USCIS to an alien are uploaded to the alien's USCIS online account and none of the notices associated with the Form G-325R are issued via mail. Therefore, not only may aliens provide a safe address, consistent with longstanding USCIS practice, USCIS does not send any documents through the mail in connection with Form G-325R.</P>
                    <P>While DHS defers to its partners at DOJ regarding the enforcement of criminal laws, DHS agencies enforcing the carry and change of address requirements may access DHS databases that contain information about whether DHS has issued evidence of registration and whether an alien has complied with the change of address requirements.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Enforcement of Criminal Provisions</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Without specifically mentioning the IFR, multiple commenters criticized the current approach to immigration in the United States and the enforcement of criminal and immigration provisions, including ICE referrals to DOJ. Another commenter remarked that people that the government is reasonably interested in tracking—those involved in criminal 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39316"/>
                        activities—would not register, while innocent people who do register would be caught in a system of “administrative errors.” Another commenter stated that the government is instilling fear in “undocumented” immigrants by presenting them with two options: either not registering and facing criminal charges, fines, and deportation, or registering and still getting deported. A commenter stated that the enforcement mechanisms are unnecessarily harsh, with threatened fines that could further marginalize already vulnerable populations and others indicated, opposing the E.O., that it was “absurd to prioritize enforcement for aliens who fail to register.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DHS defers to its partners at the DOJ regarding the enforcement of the criminal provisions under the registration requirements. DHS notes that the IFR merely added another method for compliance with the existing statutory registration requirements to improve registration outcomes for certain groups of aliens.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter asked how soon after registration individuals would be required to depart, and whether the time period would be similar to the 160-day period for voluntary departure orders. The commenter additionally asked whether failure to register would be an inadmissibility for adjustment or consular process.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The law requiring most aliens present in the United States who remain for 30 days or longer to register and, with some exceptions based on age or nonimmigrant status, be fingerprinted, does not have a departure requirement. In regard to the comment on failure to register and inadmissibility for adjustment of status, DHS notes that registration itself is not an immigration benefit and has no direct impact on an alien's eligibility for other immigration benefits that they may seek.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         While agreeing with what the commenter characterized as the prior Administration's targeted and discretionary use of enforcement resources rather than a blanket approach, a commenter suggested that ICE prioritize enforcement and removal efforts on individuals who pose significant threats, rather than detaining “foreign nationals” without criminal records.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter expressed opposition for “labeling what should be a civil offense as a criminal offense, in order to criminalize and demonize immigrants.” Another commenter requested justification for the “proposed measures” making noncompliance a criminal offense, rather than a civil one, and imposing penalties such as a $5,000 fine and 1 month of imprisonment. Commenters also stated that the expense of enforcing penalties and the economic implications of removing millions of people from the workforce would create a further strain on U.S. resources.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         While Congress has established civil and criminal penalties for a variety of offenses relating to immigration, the comments are outside the scope of this rule. This rule does not establish any such enforcement of the statute, consequences, or offenses. The criminal penalties for a failure to register or meet the other associated requirements under sections 262 to 265 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302 through 1305, were established by Congress and also fall outside the scope of this very limited rule. DHS notes that the information collected by USCIS through Form G-325R is stored in ELIS, and that USCIS' partners at CBP and ICE have long had read-only access to USCIS systems, including but not limited to ELIS. Regarding comments related to costs of enforcement, DHS notes it has an obligation to faithfully execute laws established by Congress. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 103(a); 8 U.S.C. 1103(a).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Other Out of Scope (Not Related to Registration Requirements)</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Several commenters made remarks not related to registration requirements including criticizing the United States for allowing illegal immigration to escalate, asking for meaningful immigration reform, requesting the immediate abolishment of ICE, suggesting taxing billionaires, “and bring[ing] back the hope that made this country promising at one point.”
                    </P>
                    <P>Some commenters offered alternative approaches to immigration policy, such as advocating for clear legal pathways to citizenship for refugees and DACA recipients, and calling for targeted deportation of violent offenders and a path to legal status for long-term contributing immigrants. A commenter said because “undocumented” immigrants contribute billions of dollars in taxes each year, jails are overcrowded, and it is expensive to deport people, there should be immigration reform or a pathway to citizenship. Without discussing registration requirements, multiple commenters discussed their support for the fair treatment of immigrants, the benefits immigrants have on communities, and the U.S. economy.</P>
                    <P>Other commenters recommended that DHS correct other regulatory provisions, such as 8 CFR 235.1(h) to make land-, sea-, and air-issued Forms I-94 valid for multiple entries by default. The commenters noted that currently only a Form I-94 issued at land borders is a multiple-entry document by default. The commenters also stated that the regulatory language does not account for the electronic I-94 system and still contemplates physical surrender of the Form I-94 for compliance.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         As previously discussed, the purpose of the IFR and this final rule is to improve the registration outcomes for certain groups of aliens to better ensure that all previously unregistered aliens in the United States comply with the statutory requirements in sections 261 through 266 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), 8 U.S.C. 1301 through 1306. Comments that do not relate to the registration requirements are outside the scope of the IFR and this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A commenter asked whether children of nonimmigrants attending public schools would be considered a visa violation under the INA and requested more details about the relief for voluntary departure mentioned in the E.O. to avoid mandatory bars.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         This comment about children of nonimmigrants attending public school, and visa violations, is outside the scope of the IFR.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Additional Changes in the Final Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        The IFR was limited in scope, amending 8 CFR 264.1 to designate a new general registration form and a new form of evidence of registration. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 264.1(a); 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         8 CFR 264.1(b). In this Final Rule, the Department is making additional changes that are outside the scope of the IFR, but are technical and procedural in nature and thus are not subject to the notice-and-comment rulemaking requirements of the APA at 5 U.S.C. 553. DHS is not seeking comments on these changes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As part of this final rule, and after carefully considering the comments received, DHS realized that aspects of the 8 CFR part 264, including 8 CFR 264.1, are outdated and would benefit from improvement. DHS is making these technical amendments in 8 CFR 264.1 to reduce confusion, improve the usability of the regulations, enhancing readability of the regulations, and more accurately describe the current procedures. These modifications are not intended to be substantive and do not change eligibility criteria or evidentiary standards or confer new rights or obligations upon any party. Additionally, any modifications in this rulemaking that remove outdated prescribed registration forms or evidence of registration will not affect any alien who has satisfied his 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39317"/>
                        or her obligation to register using these forms or who has been issued such evidence.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Changes to the Prescribed Registration Forms in 8 CFR 264.1(a)</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Removing Prescribed Registration Forms</HD>
                    <P>DHS is eliminating the following outdated forms from the list of prescribed registration forms found in 8 CFR 264.1(a):</P>
                    <P>• I-67, Inspection Record—Hungarian Refugees;</P>
                    <P>• I-691, Notice of Approval for Status as a Temporary Resident; and</P>
                    <P>• I-700, Application for Status as a Temporary Resident.</P>
                    <P>
                        In 1958, Congress authorized permanent residence status to certain Hungarian refugees who were paroled into the United States after October 23, 1956, under section 212(d)(5) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1182. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Public Law 85-559, 72 Stat. 419 (1958). The former INS used Form I-67, Inspection Record, to examine and inspect these refugees for admission as lawful permanent residents. Once admitted as an LPR, the former INS issued a Form I-151, Alien Registration Receipt Card, as proof of registration and evidence of LPR status. In 1960, the former INS added Form I-67 as a prescribed registration form in 8 CFR 264.1(a) and for immigration benefits in 8 CFR 299.1. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         25 FR 7180 (Jul. 29, 1960). In 1988, the former INS removed I-67 in 8 CFR 299.1 as a form that was no longer accepted and used by the Service. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         53 FR 33443 (Aug. 31, 1998).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The former INS prescribed Forms I-691 and I-700 as registration forms as part of the implementation of section 201 and 302 of the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986 (IRCA) 
                        <SU>84</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         that provided certain aliens who entered the United States before January 1, 1982, and Special Agricultural Workers (SAWs) LPR status after obtaining temporary resident status. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         52 FR 16190 (May 1, 1987). Upon the filing of a nonfrivolous Form I-687, Application for Status as a Temporary Resident, or I-700 and after having interviewed the applicant, the former INS granted to the applicant employment authorization on Form I-688A or Form I-688B. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA secs. 210(d)(2) and 245A(e)(2), 8 U.S.C. 1160 and 1255a; 8 CFR 210.4(b)(2) and 245.2(n)(2)(ii). Upon the grant of temporary resident status, the alien was issued Form I-688, Temporary Resident Card. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 210.4(b)(3) and 245a.2(n)(3). Forms I-688 and I-688A/B also constituted evidence of registration in 8 CFR 264.1(b). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         52 FR 16190, 16194 (May 1, 1987) and 61 FR 46534 (Sept. 4, 1996). Eventually, because Form I-688, and Forms I-688A and I-688B were no longer issued, and USCIS issued Forms I-766 to those who formerly received Forms I-688, I-688A and I-688B, references to these forms removed from different parts of the regulations and other documents, including 8 CFR 264.1(b).
                        <SU>85</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The former INS used Forms I-687, I-691 and I-700 for aliens to apply for temporary resident status under the Legalization programs. The former INS in turn used the Form I-691 to notify an applicant that his or her Form I-687 or I-700 was approved,
                        <SU>86</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and once these aliens satisfied the eligibility requirements as a temporary resident, they would adjust status to a permanent resident either under section 210 or 245A of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1160 or 1255a and received a permanent resident card, now the Form I-551.
                        <SU>87</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>84</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Public Law 99-603, 100 Stat. 3359 (1986).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>85</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             73 FR 76505, 76508 (Dec. 17, 2008) (“DHS notes that Form I-688, “Temporary Resident Card,” and Forms I-688A and I-688B, “Employment Authorization Cards,” are no longer issued and has determined that any such documents that were previously issued have expired. Therefore, this rule removes these documents from List A and any references to the documents in the receipt provision at 8 CFR 274a.2(B)(1)(vi)(C). USCIS now issues Forms I-766 to those who formerly received Forms I-688, I-688A, or I-688B. The Form I-766 remains on List A. 8 CFR 274a.2(b)(1)(v)(A)(4).”); 
                            <E T="03">see also, e.g.,</E>
                             76 FR 53764 (Aug. 29, 2011) (removing the entries “I-688”, “I-688A” and “I-688B” from the table in 8 CFR 264.1(b)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>86</SU>
                             86 In 1994, the former INS no longer used Form I-691 and removed it as a prescribed form in 8 CFR 299.1. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             “Immigration and Nationality Forms,” 59 FR 25555 (May 17, 1994). Form I-700 was accepted between June 1, 1987, and November 30, 1988 for aliens who were eligible under the SAW legalization program, before the sunset date of the application period for temporary resident status on December 1, 1988. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Pub. L 99-603, 100 Stat. 3359, 3417 (1986).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>87</SU>
                             87 Form I-551, as the exclusive alien registration card for the use of permanent resident aliens replaced Form I-151 and prior registration documents, such as Forms AR-3 and AR-103. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Establishment of Form I-551, Alien Registration Receipt Card, as the Executive Form of Registration for Lawful Permanent Resident, 58 FR 48775 (Sept. 20, 1993). The rule invalidated these documents and bearers of Form I-151 or a prior registration document were directed to replace that document with the current Form I-551. 
                            <E T="03">See id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Since DHS no longer uses or accepts or issues Form I-67, I-691, and I-700, eliminating these forms and modifying 8 CFR 264.1(a) reduces confusion and improves usability of the regulations. These regulatory changes are effective prospectively, such that if an alien properly submitted one of these forms while the form was designated as a registration form under 8 CFR 264.1(a), the alien will have satisfied their obligation to register.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Updating Prescribed Registration Form Names, Numbers, and Related Classes</HD>
                    <P>In response to comments indicating that the regulation is outdated and confusing, DHS is updating the following form names and numbers from the list of prescribed registration forms found in 8 CFR 264.1(a) with the intention to reduce confusion and improve the usability of the regulations:</P>
                    <P>• I-94, Arrival-Departure Record;</P>
                    <P>• I-485, Application for Status as Permanent Resident;</P>
                    <P>• I-590, Registration for Classification as Refugee—Escapee; and</P>
                    <P>• I-817, Application for Voluntary Departure under the Family Unity Program.</P>
                    <P>
                        DHS is adding Form I-94A/94W to the Form I-94 entry to reduce confusion about the effect of Form I-94A, Departure Record and Form I-94W, Nonimmigrant Visa Waiver Arrival/Departure Record. Form I-94A is the paper version of the electronic Form I-94 and used by aliens to report their arrival/departure and admission and parole information to DHS. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 1.4. Form I-94W relates to aliens who are admitted to the United States under the Visa Waiver Program. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 217.2(c)(2). While these forms are, and always have been, subcategories of Form I-94, DHS is adding Forms I-94A and I-94W to clarify that these forms are also prescribed registration forms.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Furthermore, DHS is revising the form title for Form I-485 to “Application to Register Permanent Residence or Adjust Status, or its predecessor or successor form.” The form name in the registration regulations has not been updated since the reference was first added to 8 CFR 264.1(a) in 1965. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         30 FR 13862 (Nov. 2, 1965).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Similarly, DHS is updating the form title of Form I-590 to “Registration for Classification as Refugee.” Form I-590 was added to 8 CFR 264.1(a) in 1960 as “Registration for Classification as Refugee-Escapee.” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         25 FR 10495 (Nov. 2, 1960). The entry has not been updated since although refugee processing has changed, as explained later in this section. DHS is also updating the form title of Form I-817 to “Application for Family Unity Benefits or its successor form, or its predecessor form.” The form title in the registration regulations has not been updated since the reference was first added to 8 CFR 264.1(a) during the implementation of Form I-817 in 1992 (57 FR 6457 (Feb. 25, 1992)) and was not updated when the former INS renamed the form in 2001. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         66 FR 29661 (June 1, 2001). DHS's modification of these form titles 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39318"/>
                        ensures that form names are accurately reflected, which reduces confusion and improves usability of the regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition to the changes to the above form numbers and names, DHS is updating the following class of aliens related to the list of prescribed registration forms found in 8 CFR 264.1(a):</P>
                    <P>• I-94, Arrival and Departure Record;</P>
                    <P>• I-181, Memorandum of Creation of Record of Lawful Permanent Residence; and</P>
                    <P>• I-590, Registration for Classification as Refugee—Escapee.</P>
                    <P>DHS is removing the entry referring to the class of “aliens whose claimed entry prior to July 1, 1924 cannot be verified, they having satisfactorily established residence in the United States since prior to July 1, 1924” from the Form I-94 entry. DHS is removing this class from the regulation since this population would at this point be over 100 years old, making this entry obsolete.</P>
                    <P>DHS is also revising the class entry in Form I-181, which currently reads “Aliens presumed to be lawfully admitted to the United States under 8 CFR 101.1” to “Aliens born to an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence during a temporary visit abroad admitted without a visa under 8 CFR 211.1(b).” The existing class description is no longer an accurate representation of which aliens use Form I-181 to receive evidence of registration, Form I-551, Permanent Resident Card. The DHS revision reduces confusion and improves usability of the regulations.</P>
                    <P>
                        The current class of aliens of Form I-590, “Refugee-escapees paroled pursuant to section 1 of the INA of July 14, 1960,” is no longer an accurate description of the Form I-590, as it was added in 1960 and has not been updated since. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         25 FR 10495 (Nov. 2, 1960). The Refugee Act of 1980 established a uniform procedure for the admission of qualifying aliens as refugees under section 207 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1157. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Public Law 96-212, 94 Stat. 102 (Mar. 17, 1980). Under section 207 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1157, aliens who are admitted to the United States as refugees through an approved Form I-590 are granted refugee status on the date they are admitted. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 207(c), 8 U.S.C. 1157(c). Aliens qualifying as refugees often were paroled into the United States prior to the Refugee Act, and aliens generally are no longer paroled as refugees. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 212(d)(5)(B), 8 U.S.C. 1182(d)(5)(B). DHS thus revises the class description for the entire entry to read “I-590, Registration for Classification as Refugee or its successor form, or its predecessor form—Applicants under section 207 of the INA and Refugee-escapees paroled pursuant to section 1 of the Act of July 14, 1960.” This modification reduces confusion and improves the usability of the regulations. Other than the modifications described in this section, DHS is not making additional changes and is republishing any entry in 8 CFR 264.1(a) not described in this section without changes.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Changes to Forms Constituting Evidence of Registration in 8 CFR 264.1(b)</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS and former INS have periodically updated the list of forms which constitute evidence of registration, found in 8 CFR 264.1(b). Prior to the publication of the IFR, the most recent amendments to the list were the addition of a note in 2013, and addition and deletion of some forms in 2011.
                        <SU>88</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Other than the modifications described in this section, DHS is not making additional changes and is republishing any entry in 8 CFR 264.1(b) not described in this section without changes.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>88</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Definition of Form I-94 To Include Electronic Format, 78 FR 18457 (Mar. 27, 2013), and Immigration Benefits Business Transformation, Increment I, 76 FR 53764 (Aug. 29, 2011).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Updating Form I-94 as Evidence of Registration</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS is making the same updates to the entry relating to Form I-94 in 8 CFR 264.1(b) as those that were made in 8 CFR 264.1(a). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section IV.A. 2 of this preamble. DHS is adding Form I-94A/94W to the Form I-94 entry to reduce confusion about the effect of Form I-94A and Form I-94W, and is removing the entry referring to the class of “aliens whose claimed entry prior to July 1, 1924 cannot be verified, they having satisfactorily established residence in the United States since prior to July 1, 1924.” DHS is removing this class from the regulation since this population would at this point be over 100 years old, making this entry obsolete.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Updating Form Names and Numbers Related to Border Crossing Cards</HD>
                    <P>DHS is removing the form numbers and titles of the Form I-185, Nonresident Alien Canadian Border Crossing Card (BCC) and Form I-186, Nonresident Alien Mexican (BCC) and adding “DSP-150, B-1/B-2 Visa and Border Crossing Card or its successor form, or its predecessor form.” DHS is retaining the class description for the Form I-186 entry, as it is still accurate. DHS is not retaining the class description for the Form I-185 entry, because it no longer applies.</P>
                    <P>
                        In 2002, the former INS eliminated Form I-185, Nonresident Alien Canadian Border Crossing Card, and Form I-186, Nonresident Alien Mexican Border Crossing Card (67 FR 71443 (Dec. 2, 2002)) in order to meet the biometric requirements in the Illegal Immigration Reform and Immigrant Responsibility Act (IIRIRA) of 1996.
                        <SU>89</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The former INS determined that these BCCs did not meet the biometric requirements and as a result prohibited the use of those two cards and stated that they would no longer be accepted for admission into the United States on or after October 1, 2002. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 212.6(c); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         67 FR 71443, 71443-71444 (Dec. 2, 2002).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>89</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Public Law 104-828, sec. 104 (Sept. 24, 1996).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The issuance of Form I-185 ceased on April 1, 1998, and the government did not replace the Canadian BCC. The former INS highlighted the longstanding regulation that aliens who are Canadian citizens are permitted to travel temporarily to the United States without a visa. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 212.1(a); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         67 FR 71443, 71445.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Prior to the elimination of the Form I-186, State published regulations on application procedures and criteria for border crossing cards, including the creation of a new card, Form DSP-150, B-1/B-2 Visa and Border Crossing Card, to satisfy the biometric requirements in IIRIRA and replace the Form I-186. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         64 FR 45163 (Aug. 19, 1999). Generally, an alien who is a citizen and resident of Mexico files an electronic nonimmigrant visa application on a Form DS-160, Online Nonimmigrant Visa Application to request a Form DSP-150, B-1/B-2 Visa and Border Crossing Card. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 212.6 and 22 CFR 41.32. Once duly executed, the alien satisfies the registration requirements 
                        <SU>90</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and may use the Form DSP-150 as evidence of registration. DHS's technical update of replacing Form I-186 with Form DSP-150 in 8 CFR 264.1(b) accurately describes the current procedures on border crossing cards, reduces confusion, and improves usability of the regulation. The update does not substantively impact who is considered duly registered. Additionally, this update is similar to technical updates made in this section when the former INS replaced Form I-151 as evidence of registration with Form I-551, Permanent Resident Card, to reflect the current practice and procedures. 45 FR 52143 (Aug. 6, 1980). The elimination of references to outdated and expired 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39319"/>
                        forms, particularly when those forms were replaced with successors, is common in former INS and DHS procedural rules updating 8 CFR 264.1 over many years.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>90</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             INA sec. 221(b); 22 CFR 41.32.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Adding Forms That Constitute Evidence of Registration</HD>
                    <P>DHS is adding the following forms and class of aliens that constitute evidence of registration to the table in 8 CFR 264.1(b):</P>
                    <P>• I-860, Notice and Order of Expedited Removal—Aliens who have been determined to be inadmissible under section 212(a)(6)(C) or (7) of the Act and ordered removed under section 235(b)(1) of the Act;</P>
                    <P>• I-871, Notice of Intent/Decision to Reinstate Order—Aliens who reentered the United States illegally and whose prior order of removal has been reinstated under section 241(a)(5) of the Act; and</P>
                    <P>• CBP-approved document or electronic equivalent for the Trusted Travel Programs NEXUS, SENTRI, FAST, and Global Entry—Aliens who were last admitted to the United States through NEXUS, SENTRI, FAST, or Global Entry facilitated processing.</P>
                    <P>First, DHS is adding “I-860, Notice and Order of Expedited Removal” with the class of aliens who are subject to the expedited removal provisions, and “I-871, Notice of Intent/Decision to Reinstate Prior Order” with the class of aliens who are subject to reinstatement of a prior expedited, deportation, or removal order, as evidence of registration in 8 CFR 264.1(b). Similar to the Form I-862, Notice to Appear, and Form I-863, Notice of Referral to Immigration Judge, the forms relate to various types of removal proceedings under the INA. Both of these additional forms reflect a level of direct interaction with DHS officers engaged in immigration enforcement, including the collection of biometrics, that is similar to the already prescribed Forms I-862 and I-863. These forms constitute evidence of registration as of June 29, 2026 whether these forms were issued to the alien before, on, or after June 29, 2026.</P>
                    <P>This technical update reduces confusion and improves usability of the regulation.</P>
                    <P>
                        Second, DHS is also adding to 8 CFR 264.1(b), “CBP-approved document or its electronic equivalent for the Trusted Traveler Programs NEXUS, SENTRI, FAST, and Global Entry—Aliens who were last admitted to the United States through NEXUS, SENTRI, FAST, or Global Entry facilitated processing.” An alien who is accepted as a member into one of these Trusted Travel Programs (TTP) 
                        <SU>91</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         after completing an electronic application,
                        <SU>92</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         providing fingerprints, and undergoing vetting by CBP is either issued a CBP-approved document or may view membership details on his or her TTP online account. When an alien seeks admission into the United States either by air, land, or sea as a member under one of the TTPs, he or she is processed for admission using the facilitated processing designated for that program. The CBP-approved document for these TTPs or electronic membership information from an alien's TTP online account will serve as evidence of registration for aliens who were last admitted to the United States using facilitated TTP processing. As an alien cannot satisfy the registration requirement of section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, by applying for one of these programs after entering the United States, it would not make sense to add the related application forms to 8 CFR 264.1(a). Similar to aliens who register through the nonimmigrant or immigrant visa process with State, to be registered through a TTP, an alien must apply for and receive that evidence, either the CBP-approved card or its electronic equivalent, before using it to apply for admission in order for it to serve as evidence of registration. This update reduces confusion and improves the usability of the regulation.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>91</SU>
                             NEXUS, SENTRI, and FAST are cross-border Trusted Travel Programs that facilitate land border crossing of prescreened low-risk travelers and commercial truck drivers through exclusive dedicated lanes. Members in these voluntary programs must meet certain eligibility requirements and pay a 5-year membership fee. NEXUS (the northern border program) and SENTRI (the southern border program) are for drivers and passengers; FAST (Free and Secure Trade for the northern and southern borders) is the commercial equivalent for truck drivers. Global Entry is an international trusted program to expedite clearance of pre-approved, low-risk air travelers into the United States. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             DHS, “Trusted Traveler Programs,” 
                            <E T="03">https://ttp.dhs.gov/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>92</SU>
                             The TTP electronic applications collect basic biographic information and information required by section 264(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Remove the Word “Form” in 8 CFR 264.1(b)</HD>
                    <P>DHS is removing the word “Form” for the I-862, Notice to Appear, and for the I-863, Notice of Referral to Immigration Judge to improve the readability and make it consistent with the other entries related to the form that constitute evidence of registration in 8 CFR 264.1(b).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Changes to Fingerprint Waiver in 8 CFR 264.1(e)(1)</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS is removing the language waiving the fingerprinting requirements for “nonimmigrant aliens admitted as foreign government officials and employees; international organization representatives, officers and employees” from 8 CFR 264.1(e)(1) because the statute exempts the registration requirement completely for these aliens, “until the alien ceases to be entitled to such a nonimmigrant status.” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA secs. 101(a)(A), (G), 263(b), 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(A), (G), 1303(b). DHS is retaining the existing fingerprint waiver for holders of diplomatic visas 
                        <SU>93</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         while they maintain such status, 8 CFR 264.1(e)(1). Other than A and G nonimmigrant visas (which are exempt from fingerprinting under the INA, see section 263, 8 U.S.C. 1303), diplomatic visas include visas issued in the B, F, J, or other nonimmigrant categories to those classes of aliens eligible to receive diplomatic visas. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 101(a)(11), 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(11), and 22 CFR 41.26, 9 FAM 402.3. Consistent with 8 CFR 264.1(e)(1) and new 8 CFR 264.1(e)(2), USCIS will continue to waive fingerprinting for such diplomatic visa holders if such an alien would complete Form G-325R to register. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         new 8 CFR 264.1(e)(2). DHS reminds the public that this rule is limited to making non-substantive and clarifying modifications to DHS's regulation at 8 CFR 264.1(e) as part of the alien registration requirement under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302 while the alien is in the United States. The DHS exemption from the fingerprinting requirement is independent of exemptions or waivers of fingerprinting requirements by State pursuant to section 221 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1201.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>93</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             22 CFR 41.26(a)(2). “Diplomatic visa means any nonimmigrant visa, regardless of classification, which bears that title and is issued in accordance with the regulations of this section.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, DHS is adding language to clarify that the attendants, servants, or personal employees of North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) representatives, officers, and employees (NATO-7 nonimmigrants) are not themselves eligible for the waiver because they are not and have never been classified as NATO representatives, officers, or employees or their immediate family members. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 214.2(s)(1)(i). DHS is amending this part of the regulation to reduce confusion.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        All NATO nonimmigrants, those who are NATO representatives, officers, and employees, their immediate family members as well as the attendants, servants, or personal employees of those NATO representatives, officers, and employees, are subject to the alien registration requirement. The existing language of 8 CFR 264.1(e) clearly states 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39320"/>
                        that nonimmigrant aliens who are the representatives, officers, and employees of NATO have a waiver of the fingerprinting requirement of section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. These aliens fall into the NATO-1 through NATO-6 nonimmigrant visa categories.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The language does not directly address the attendants, servants, or personal employees of such aliens, who fall into the NATO-7 nonimmigrant category. However, since those NATO-7 nonimmigrants are not themselves representatives, officers, or employees of NATO, DHS finds that the existing regulatory language excludes these NATO-7 nonimmigrants from the fingerprinting waiver. In order to clarify this for the public, DHS is adding a parenthetical making the exclusion explicit. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         8 CFR 264.1(e)(1). This approach is consistent with State policy concerning biometrics collection for NATO nonimmigrant visa applications. State waives biometric requirements for aliens applying for nonimmigrant visas in the NATO-1-6 categories. State requires aliens applying for nonimmigrant visas as attendants, servants, or personal employees of NATO representatives, officers, and employees in the NATO-7 category to provide biometrics.
                        <SU>94</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>94</SU>
                             U.S. Department of State, Foreign Affairs Manual, “Waiver of Personal Appearance/Interviews,” 9 FAM 402.3-4(E) (Mar. 26, 2025), 
                            <E T="03">https://fam.state.gov/FAM/09FAM/09FAM040203.html#M402_3_4_E.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In addition to the previously noted procedural rule changes, DHS is restructuring paragraph (e)(1) of 8 CFR 264.1 to separate the three fingerprint waivers addressed in that paragraph into three paragraphs and adding “she” or “her” where appropriate. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         new 8 CFR 264.1(e)(1) through (5). DHS is redesignating current paragraphs (e)(2) and (3) as paragraphs (e)(4) and (5). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         new 8 CFR 264.1(e)(1) through (5). Correspondingly, the reference to current paragraph (e)(1) contained in current paragraph (e)(2) is updated in the newly designated paragraph (e)(4) to reflect that paragraph (e)(4) is exclusive of the aliens described in new paragraphs (e)(1) through (e)(3). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         new 8 CFR 264.1(e)(4). DHS is also making minor editorial changes by adding “she” and “her” where appropriate, throughout the entire paragraph (e). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         new 8 CFR 264.1(e). The restructuring and adding “she” or “her” will add clarity to the provisions and simplify the regulatory text. These changes are technical in nature and nonsubstantive, and they are designed to make it easier for the public to identify and understand the requirements by enhancing the readability of the regulation.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Updates to 8 CFR 264.1(g) and (g)(1)</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS is amending regulations at 8 CFR 264.1(g) to reduce confusion, to enhance readability, and to more accurately describe the current procedures. DHS is adding “or by law” after “under the Act.” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         new 8 CFR 264.1(g). The modification accounts for any further exemptions to registration by any law in the future that does not amend the INA.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, DHS is eliminating the language in 8 CFR 264.1(g)(1) that suggests a permanent resident alien who reaches the age of 14 while temporarily absent from the United States must submit a photograph when applying for registration after turning 14. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         current 8 CFR 264.1(g)(1) and new 8 CFR 264.1(g)(1). Such aliens are applying for registration under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, by replacing their permanent resident cards under 8 CFR 264.5. Because of technological advances, a physical photograph is no longer needed in association with his or her request for a new permanent resident card under 8 CFR 264.5.
                        <SU>95</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>95</SU>
                             Physical photos are not required evidence when filing to replace a permanent resident card. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS, Form I-90, “Instruction for Application to Replace Permanent Resident Card,” OMB No. 1615-0082 (expires Feb. 28, 2027) and USCIS Policy Manual Volume 11, “Travel and Identity Documents,” Part B, “Permanent Resident Cards,” Chapter 2, “Replacement of Permanent Resident Card,” Section D, “Documentation and Evidence,” Subsection 4, “Required Evidence” 11 USCIS-PM B.2(D)(4), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/policy-manual/volume-11-part-b-chapter-2</E>
                             (last updated Dec. 22, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>DHS is also adding clarification in 8 CFR 264.1(g)(1) that an LPR must apply for registration within 30 days of his or her return to the United States in accordance with applicable form instructions and with the fee specified in 8 CFR 106.2 to replace a permanent resident card. This is consistent with current 8 CFR 264.5(a), which requires that aliens seeking to replace a permanent resident card must file the request in accordance with the appropriate form instructions and with the fee specified in 8 CFR 106.2. This amendment to 8 CFR 264.1(g)(1) makes it clear that these LPRs must also submit the applicable form to replace a permanent resident card for registration purposes, consistent with 8 CFR 264.5.</P>
                    <P>DHS is eliminating “if a lawful permanent resident of the United States” in the second sentence of paragraph (g)(1) and after “the alien.” This language is duplicative, and other text in paragraph (g)(1) already limits the applicability of the provisions to LPRs. DHS is adding “she” or “her” where appropriate in paragraph (g)(1).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Changes to Temporary Evidence of Permanent Resident Status in 8 CFR 264.5(h)</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS is amending 8 CFR 264.5(h) to state that USCIS may issue temporary evidence of registration and LPR status to a “lawful permanent resident or conditional permanent resident alien who has properly filed an application for a replacement permanent resident card or for naturalization, petitioned for the removal of the conditions on his or her residence using the form prescribed by USCIS, or as otherwise determined by USCIS in accordance with the form instructions.” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         new 8 CFR 264.5(h).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The existing regulation in 8 CFR 264.5(h) is no longer consistent with USCIS' approach to the issuance of temporary evidence of lawful or conditional permanent resident status. If an alien needs temporary evidence of permanent resident status (and, by extension, registration), a USCIS field office may issue a temporary I-551 stamp 
                        <SU>96</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         in his or her passport or issue Form I-94 with a temporary I-551 stamp. The current language in 8 CFR 264.5(h) is very narrow and only mentions providing temporary evidence of permanent residence and registration when: (a) an alien has a pending application for a replacement permanent resident card and (b) the alien is departing temporarily from the United States and USCIS cannot issue the replacement card before the alien's departure.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>96</SU>
                             Also known as an ADIT Stamp. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS Policy Manual, Volume 11, “Travel and Identity Documents,” Part B, “Permanent Resident Cards,” Chapter 2, “Replacement of Permanent Resident Card,” Section F, “Temporary Evidence of Permanent Resident Status,” 11 USCIS-PM B.2(F), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/policy-manual/volume-11-part-b-chapter-2</E>
                             (last updated June 13, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        It does not account for circumstances in which an alien requires temporary evidence of permanent residence but does not have a pending application to replace a permanent resident card, or situations in which the alien needs temporary evidence of permanent residence and registration for purposes unrelated to foreign travel, such as evidence of status for employment or business purposes. In practice, USCIS may issue temporary evidence of registration when the alien has a pending naturalization application or petition to remove conditions on his or her residence.
                        <SU>97</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         USCIS also does not 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39321"/>
                        limit issuance of temporary evidence of permanent residence and registration to situations involving the need for travel outside of the United States. DHS is also clarifying that the temporary evidence of registration placed by USCIS in the alien's passport does not need to be surrendered to USCIS by the alien when the alien is issued a new Form. These amendments in 8 CFR 264.5(h) reduce confusion and are consistent with current practice of DHS.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>97</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS Policy Manual, Volume 6 “Immigrants,” Part I, “Family-Based Conditional Permanent Residents,” Chapter 2, “Terms and Conditions of CPR Status,” “Evidence of CPR Status,” 6 USCIS-PM I.2(C), 
                            <E T="03">
                                https://www.uscis.gov/
                                <PRTPAGE/>
                                policy-manual/volume-6-part-i-chapter-2
                            </E>
                             (last updated June 13, 2025); USCIS Policy Manual, Volume 12 “Citizenship and Naturalization,” Part D, “General Naturalization Requirements,” Chapter 2, “Lawful Permanent Resident Admission for Naturalization,” “Evidence of LPR Status,” 12 USCIS-PM D.2(A)(4), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/policy-manual/volume-12-part-d-chapter-2</E>
                             (last updated June 13, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Change Related to the Application for a Nonimmigrant Arrival-Departure Record in 8 CFR 264.6</HD>
                    <P>DHS is amending regulations in 8 CFR 264.6 by making technical editorial updates. The update is in 8 CFR 264.6(a)(3) to remove an obsolete regulatory reference to paragraph 8 CFR 235.1(h)(1)(vi) in 8 CFR 264.6(a)(3). This change reduces confusion and enhance readability.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Request for Comments</HD>
                    <P>As part of this rulemaking, and after carefully considering the comments received, DHS realized that aspects of the 8 CFR part 264, including 8 CFR 264.1 are outdated and would benefit from improvement. Thus, in this section, DHS requests comments on the proposals described in this section that could be finalized through a future rulemaking. These proposed amendments would improve usability and reduce the need for conforming changes in the future, if finalized in a future rulemaking. The modifications would not change the alien registration requirements under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. DHS invites comments on these changes during the public comment period.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Prescribe Additional Registration Forms To Align With DHS Information Collections and Ensure Screening and Vetting to a Uniform Baseline</HD>
                    <P>
                        While 8 CFR 264.1(a) has been periodically updated by USCIS and former INS over the years to eliminate references to outdated forms that can no longer be submitted by an alien to fulfill their duty under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, and to prescribe additional registration forms, DHS has not completed a general update to the regulation since at least 2011. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         76 FR 53764 (Aug. 29, 2011). Many commenters noted that there are existing DHS forms that may be suitable for registration purposes that are not listed in 8 CFR 264.1(a). Prescribing certain existing forms with information collection and thorough biometric-based screening and vetting for use by aliens to fulfill their duty to register under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, would improve registration outcomes for certain populations of aliens while increasing efficiency and reducing burden for the public and the government. However, many of the forms suggested by commenters or otherwise considered by DHS for inclusion do not currently collect all of the information required by section 264(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(a). In addition, some of the forms considered currently do not collect biometrics from aliens as required by section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, for the purposes of registration. Therefore, to prescribe these additional registration forms, DHS would have to take additional actions, including amending information collections in accordance with the PRA. For these reasons, DHS is not prescribing those additional forms for registration in 8 CFR 264.1(a) in this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>However, DHS may prescribe additional registration forms in the future, accompanied by appropriate action under the PRA and updates to those forms and processes to ensure that they collect the required information, include biometrics collection, and meet the uniform baseline for screening and vetting standards and procedures. DHS may prescribe additional forms without prior notice and comment under the APA because doing so would be a rule of agency organization, procedure, or practice under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(A). As DHS considers prescribing additional registration forms, it welcomes input from the public on the topic to help guide its deliberations. For this reason, DHS requests comments on its proposal to add additional forms to the list of prescribed registration forms found in 8 CFR 264.1(a). DHS also requests comments from the public relating to the potential addition of other forms to the list. These other forms and conforming changes would be as follows:</P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        • Form I-90, Application to Replace Permanent Resident Card 
                        <SU>98</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </FP>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>98</SU>
                             Form I-90 is already used as a registration form for aliens who are LPRs over the age of 14 in accordance with the instructions of the Form I-90. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS, Form I-90, “Instruction for Application to Replace Permanent Resident Card,” OMB No. 1615-0082 (expires Feb. 28, 2027), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/sites/default/files/document/forms/i-90instr.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Form I-102, Application for Replacement/Initial Nonimmigrant Arrival Departure Document—Aliens admitted as nonimmigrants and not issued Form I-94/94A/94W at the time of admission</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Form I-539, Application to Extend/Change Nonimmigrant Status</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Form I-589, Application for Asylum and Withholding of Removal</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Form I-730, Refugee/Asylee Relative Petition—Alien beneficiary in the United States</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Form I-751, Petition to Remove Conditions on Residence—Conditional permanent residents who reached age 14 and are requesting to remove conditions on residence.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Form I-821, Application for Temporary Protected Status</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Form I-829, Petition to Remove Conditions on Residence -Conditional permanent residents who reached age 14 and are requesting to remove conditions on residence.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Form I-854A, Inter-Agency Alien Witness and Informant Record</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Form I-881, Application for Suspension of Deportation or Special Rule Cancellation of Removal</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Form I-914, Application for T Nonimmigrant Status</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Form I-918, Petition for U Nonimmigrant Status</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Ensuring That Evidence of Registration Is Provided to Aliens Who Have Registered and Been Screened and Vetted to a Uniform Baseline</HD>
                    <P>As with the list of prescribed registration forms, DHS and former INS have periodically updated the list of forms that constitute evidence of registration, found in 8 CFR 264.1(b). Prior to the publication of the IFR, the most recent amendments to the list were the addition of a note in 2013, and addition and deletion of some forms in 2011. 78 FR 18457 (Mar. 27, 2013) and 76 FR 53764 (Aug. 29, 2011).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Eliminate Certain Prescribed Evidence of Alien Registration Forms From 8 CFR 264.1(b)</HD>
                    <P>DHS is considering removing Form I-766, Employment Authorization Document, from the list of evidence of registration.</P>
                    <P>
                        The use of Form I-766, Employment Authorization Document, as evidence of registration is problematic for certain categories of aliens. The former INS first prescribed a registration form related to employment authorization in 1987, after the enactment of the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39322"/>
                        (IRCA).
                        <SU>99</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In that rule, former INS amended 8 CFR 264.1(a) and (b) “to include documents relating to the Legalization and Special Agricultural Worker (SAW) programs as registration forms and evidence of registration.” 
                        <SU>100</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Notably, former INS added Form I-688A, Employment Authorization Card, to 8 CFR 264.1(b). The former INS also added the legalization and SAW application forms to 8 CFR 264.1(a), prescribing them as registration forms.
                        <SU>101</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>99</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Applicant Processing for Special Agricultural Worker and Legalization Programs; Conforming Amendments, etc., 52 FR 16190 (May 1, 1987).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>100</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>101</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Form I-688A was a card issued to applicants for legalization or SAW legalization after they had submitted their application, completed an initial interview, and provided their biometrics. It served as evidence of employment authorization under section 245A(e)(2) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1255a(e)(2), during the period between the presentation of a prima facie application for lawful temporary resident status and the final determination on that application. It served a similar purpose for applicants for SAW legalization for an alien who presented a nonfrivolous application for legalization until a final determination on the application was made, under section 210(d)(2) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1160(d)(2). Again, Form I-688A was only issued after submission of a form prescribed in 8 CFR 264.1(a) with significant information collection, initial review of the form and interview of the alien by former INS, and the provision of biometrics.</P>
                    <P>
                        The former INS made further updates to 8 CFR 264.1(b) relating to employment authorization documents in 1996. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         61 FR 46534 (Sept. 4, 1996). These updates were related to the introduction of a new, more secure form (the Form I-766, or EAD) and the phasing out of the old Form I-688A (issued to legalization and SAW legalization applicants) and the Form I-688B (produced locally at former INS field offices and issued to aliens as evidence of employment authorization under certain provisions of 8 CFR 274a.12). The former INS explained in the rule that because Form I-766 would eventually replace Form I-688A, it was amending 8 CFR 264.1(b) to include Form I-766. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         61 FR 46534, 46535. The former INS also added Form I-688B, which had never previously been considered evidence of registration, to 8 CFR 264.1(b). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         61 FR 46534, 46535. It did so writing that “because an employment authorization document is considered an alien registration document for purposes of identity and employment eligibility (List A) of the Form I-9, the Service is amending part 264 to add Forms I-688B and I-766.” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         61 FR 46534, 46535.
                    </P>
                    <P>However, upon reviewing the information that USCIS collects to issue Form I-766 and the related fingerprint collection requirements, certain paths that aliens can take to obtain Form I-766 may not meet the statutory requirements for alien registration. By contrast, the Form I-688A was evidence of registration issued under section 264(d) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(d), after an alien had appeared in person and filed a registration form prepared as directed in section 264(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(a) and designated under 8 CFR 264.1(a), and the alien had been fingerprinted.</P>
                    <P>
                        This issue does not call into question the validity of current Form I-766 as evidence of identity and employment authorization as a List A document under section 274A(b)(1)(B)(ii) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1324a(b)(1)(B)(ii). Form I-766 falls within the category of some “other document designated by the Attorney General” that meets the three statutory requirements.
                        <SU>102</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Form I-766 does not have to be prescribed as evidence of registration for it to serve, as it historically has, as evidence of employment authorization, identity, and immigration status for any purpose.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>102</SU>
                             The relevant statutory text states that among the documents establishing both employment authorization and identity is a “resident alien card, alien registration card, or 
                            <E T="03">other document designated by the Attorney General,</E>
                             if the document” (emphasis added) contains “a photograph of the individual and such other personal identifying information relating to the individual as the Attorney General finds, by regulation, sufficient for purposes of this subsection,” is “evidence of authorization of employment in the United States,” and “contains security features to make it resistant to tampering, counterfeiting, and fraudulent use.” INA sec. 274A(b)(1)(B)(ii), 8 U.S.C. 1324a(b)(1)(B)(ii).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Since Form I-766 was added to the list of forms constituting evidence of registration in 1997, former INS and then DHS expanded the categories of aliens to whom they issue Form I-766. Form I-766 is issued to many aliens who have not submitted a form prescribed in 8 CFR 264.1(a) or even a form that meets the requirements of section 264(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(a), without being prescribed. As a result, Form I-766 is issued to many aliens who have not provided the basic information mandated by Congress for registration. Form I-766 is also issued to many aliens who are not fingerprinted as a part of that process (and may not have provided fingerprints during previous encounters with immigration agencies), whereas the statute requires fingerprinting before being issued evidence of alien registration. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         INA sec. 264(d), 8 U.S.C. 1304(d) (“Every alien in the United States who has been registered 
                        <E T="03">and fingerprinted</E>
                         . . . under the provisions of this chapter shall be issued” (emphasis added) evidence of registration.). In addition, the different paths that an alien may take to request a Form I-766 have widely varying background checks associated with them. This means that aliens issued Form I-766 may have undergone different screening and vetting standards and procedures (including, as noted, potentially not providing fingerprints at all), rather than the uniform baseline of screening and vetting that logically should be applied to all aliens registering under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302.
                    </P>
                    <P>If DHS were to remove Form I-766 from the list of evidence of registration in 8 CFR 264.1(b), the effect would be that those aliens who have not already registered in some way and obtain a Form I-766 for purposes of employment and identity verification would still separately need to apply for registration and provided fingerprints (unless waived) as required under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. However, DHS notes that many aliens who seek a Form I-766 are already registered in some way, and that prescribing the additional forms as proposed in Section V.A. would result in the registration of most such aliens.</P>
                    <P>For these reasons, DHS proposes removing Form I-766 from the list of forms prescribed as evidence of registration in 8 CFR 264.1(b).</P>
                    <P>Any changes to the ability of Form I-766 to serve as evidence of registration would be forward-looking. That is to say, whether Form I-766 is removed from 8 CFR 264.1(b) or the classes of aliens who may use the form as evidence of registration are limited, it would not affect the ability of Form I-766s issued before the effective date of that future rulemaking to serve as evidence of registration.</P>
                    <P>This proposal is meant to be implemented in concert with the addition of other registration forms to 8 CFR 264.1(a) as discussed in section V.A.1 of this preamble, and the issuance of evidence of registration prescribed in 8 CFR 264.1(b) as described in section V.B. of this preamble.</P>
                    <P>
                        DHS also considered alternatives to the proposal to remove Form I-766 from the list of evidence of registration. For example, in the alternative, DHS could limit the classes of aliens for whom Form I-766 can serve as evidence of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39323"/>
                        registration to those aliens who have submitted a registration form prescribed in 8 CFR 264.1(a) and provided their biometrics (unless waived), or who were registered and fingerprinted under section 221(b) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1201(b).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Another alternative, DHS could prescribe any and all forms that can result in the issuance of a Form I-766 as registration forms under 8 CFR 264.1(a), including Form I-765, Application for Employment Authorization. DHS notes that this update would require significant additions to DHS forms, and a significant increase in the number of aliens required to provide biometrics. Millions of aliens who are already registered or not required to register submit those forms annually to USCIS and would face the burden of the expanded information collection and biometrics requirements.
                        <SU>103</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>103</SU>
                             For example, in FY 2024 USCIS received approximately 600,000 Form I-765s filed by applicants for adjustment of status. More than 700,000 were filed by aliens paroled into the United States. More than 280,000 were filed by nonimmigrant students. More than 65,000 were filed by H-4 nonimmigrant spouses. More than 60,000 were filed by aliens granted asylum. More than 20,000 were filed by aliens with a final order of deportation or removal. More than 1.6 million Form I-765s were filed by aliens with pending asylum applications, many of whom are already registered because they are in removal proceedings, or because they were admitted or paroled into the United States. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USCIS, “Form I-765, Application for Employment Authorization, Eligibility Category and Filing Type FY 2024,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/sites/default/files/document/data/i765_application_for_employment_fy24.xlsx</E>
                             (last updated Dec. 16, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>DHS welcomes public comments on these proposals, or other comments from the public about how it should address the inadequacy of Form I-766 as evidence of registration under the existing regulations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Updates to the Classes of Aliens for Whom Form I-94 Constitutes Evidence of Registration Under 8 CFR 264.1(b)</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS also proposes to add those classes of aliens issued Form I-94 upon the approval of those newly prescribed registration forms to the classes of aliens from whom Form I-94 serves as evidence of registration in 8 CFR 264.1(b). While Form I-94 is prescribed as a registration form, the classes of aliens for whom it serves as evidence of registration are limited. Only aliens admitted as nonimmigrants, aliens paroled into the United States under section 212(d)(5) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1182(d)(5), and aliens granted permission to depart without the institution of deportation proceedings 
                        <SU>104</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         are listed as classes for whom the Form I-94 serves as evidence of registration. However, there are other aliens to whom DHS issues Form I-94, sometimes after those aliens submit forms: (1) that collect most, if not all, of the information required under section 264(a) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1304(a); (2) that have a biometrics requirement; and (3) whose processes include screening and vetting that meet a high uniform baseline. DHS requests public comment on its proposal to add the following classes of aliens to those for whom Form I-94 serves as evidence of registration:
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>104</SU>
                             The existing regulation also includes “aliens whose claimed entry prior to July 1, 1924, cannot be verified, they having satisfactorily established residence in the United States since prior to July 1, 1924,” but in light of the passage of time, this is now outdated, and DHS is removing it in this final rule.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>• Aliens granted asylum under section 208 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1158.</P>
                    <P>• Aliens granted extension of stay or change of status by USCIS pursuant to 8 CFR 214.1 and section 248 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1258, and 8 CFR part 248.</P>
                    <P>• Aliens granted nonimmigrant status under section 101(a)(15)(T) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(15)(T).</P>
                    <P>• Aliens granted nonimmigrant status under section 101(a)(15)(U) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(15)(U).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Issuance of Evidence of Registration Prior to Adjudication of Related Benefit Request</HD>
                    <P>DHS requests comment on potential ways in which it can provide evidence of registration that is not tied to the final adjudication of a separate immigration benefit request in a timely manner to those aliens who have fulfilled their duty under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, by submitting a benefit request to USCIS and providing their biometrics (unless waived).</P>
                    <P>The Form G-325R process is a registration-only form. There is no immigration benefit associated with registration under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, or this new form. An alien fulfills his or her duty to register under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302, by submitting the application for registration, and providing biometrics (unless waived). USCIS sends evidence of registration to the alien through the alien's myUSCIS account as soon as the alien provides their biometrics. If the alien is not required to provide biometrics, USCIS sends evidence of registration immediately after assessing whether the alien must register.</P>
                    <P>The same may not be true for other pathways to registration that existed prior to publication of the IFR. For example, Form I-485, Application to Register Permanent Residence or Adjust Status, is prescribed as a registration form in 8 CFR 264.1(a) but is also used by aliens to apply for lawful permanent residence. If an alien submits Form I-485, and provides biometrics (if required), they have complied with their duty to register under section 262 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302. However, they are not immediately (or sometimes ever) provided with evidence of registration. While DHS would issue an alien granted adjustment of status a Form I-551, Permanent Resident Card, an alien whose adjustment application was administratively closed, withdrawn, or denied, would not receive evidence of registration based on filing that prescribed form.</P>
                    <P>Using immigration benefit requests forms as registration forms saves aliens the time and burden of submitting multiple forms that may be duplicative of information collected, while DHS only processed and adjudicates the one form. However, as described above, it may present challenges for aliens who have registered and yet were not issued evidence of registration, as well as for law enforcement agencies verifying whether an alien has registered. Furthermore, since certain pending immigration benefit requests can serve as temporary evidence of registration under 8 CFR 264.6(c), aliens would likely not have evidence of a pending request and a law enforcement officer would need to validate that claim in DHS systems.</P>
                    <P>For these reasons, DHS requests comment on potential ways in which it can provide evidence of registration unrelated to immigration benefit requests. Among the options that DHS is considering and on which it would appreciate public comments are the following:</P>
                    <P>
                        • Creating a new, general form that would serve as evidence of registration and that would be delivered either electronically or through the mail 
                        <SU>105</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         whenever an alien submits an immigration benefit request prescribed as a registration form under 8 CFR 264.1(a) and has provided their biometrics (unless waived).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>105</SU>
                             Electronic delivery of the evidence would be preferred, though if the alien lacked a myUSCIS account then issuance of a physical document may be required.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • Renaming and slightly modifying the current “USCIS Proof of Alien G-325R Registration” and issuing it not only to those who have fulfilled their duty to register through the Form G-325R process, but also to those who have submitted other prescribed 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39324"/>
                        registration forms and providing their biometrics (unless waived).
                    </P>
                    <P>• Designating certain notices that USCIS issues prior to the final adjudication of various benefit requests as evidence of registration. For example, such evidence of registration could include an appointment notice for a biometric services appointment associated with a particular benefit request that has been endorsed by USCIS to show that the alien had provided the required biometrics.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Updating Outdated Waivers of Biometrics Requirement for Certain Nonimmigrants</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Eliminate or Replace the Fingerprinting Waiver for Certain Nonimmigrant Aliens</HD>
                    <P>DHS requests public comment on its proposal to eliminate or potentially replace the fingerprinting waiver for certain nonimmigrant aliens. The final sentence of existing 8 CFR 264.1(e)(1) currently waives fingerprinting for “other nonimmigrant aliens, while they maintain nonimmigrant status, who are nationals of countries which do not require fingerprinting of United States citizens temporarily residing therein.” 8 CFR 264.1(e). This language has been in the regulations for decades. However, DHS had not previously needed identify these countries or define what “temporarily residing therein” means for purposes of the waiver.</P>
                    <P>Until DHS added the Form G-325R to 8 CFR 264.1(a), there were no prescribed registration forms to which it applied the nonimmigrant biometric waivers found in 8 CFR 264.1(e), including this one. All of the other prescribed registration forms have biometrics collection requirements unique to each benefit request.</P>
                    <P>As a potential replacement, DHS proposes that fingerprinting for purposes of registration be waived for nonimmigrant aliens, while they maintain nonimmigrant status, who are nationals of Canada or nationals of a Visa Waiver Program designated country as described in 8 CFR 217.2(a).</P>
                    <P>DHS notes that any changes to 8 CFR 264.1(e) would not affect the biometrics requirements associated with those prescribed registration forms or processes that are not within DHS authority or are also immigration benefit requests with their own biometrics requirements. Amendments to 8 CFR 264.1(e) have no effect on biometrics requirements for nonimmigrant and immigrant visa applicants with State, or on prescribed registration forms that are also immigration benefit requests.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Clarify “Not Previously Fingerprinted” in 8 CFR 264.1(e)(2) and (3)</HD>
                    <P>Certain nonimmigrant aliens benefit from waivers of the fingerprinting requirement associated with registration under 8 CFR 264.1(e), but must provide their biometrics when certain triggering events occur. The requirement to provide fingerprints upon a triggering event applies to nonimmigrant aliens “not previously fingerprinted.” However, the current regulation does not explain or define which aliens are considered not previously fingerprinted and would have to be fingerprinted under 8 CFR 264.1(e)(2) or (3) due to a triggering event.</P>
                    <P>DHS requests public comment on a proposal that would clarify that aliens are considered “not previously fingerprinted” for purposes of 8 CFR 264.1(e) when a registered alien had not been fingerprinted by either by DHS or State. Specifically, a registered alien who was not fingerprinted by DHS in association with the submission of a prescribed registration form listed in 8 CFR 264.1(a) or when issued evidence of registration listed in 8 CFR 264.1(b) is considered “not previously fingerprinted” by DHS. A registered alien who was not fingerprinted by State in association with their application for a nonimmigrant visa under section 221(b) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1201(b), which served as the basis for their most recent admission to the United States as a nonimmigrant, is considered “not previously fingerprinted” by State. Under this proposal, an alien that is registered but “not previously fingerprinted” by DHS or State, would be required to provide fingerprints for purposes of 8 CFR 264.1(e)(1) or (2) based on a triggering event. The lack of an explanation could leave aliens confused as to whether or not they have been previously fingerprinted, and as a result uncertain as to their duty to apply for fingerprinting upon a triggering event.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Updates to 8 CFR 264.1(g)(2)</HD>
                    <P>DHS requests comment on amending paragraph (g)(2) of 8 CFR 264.1(g) to state that aliens who reach 14 years old and who must apply for registration must surrender any prior evidence of alien registration that is invalid or expired, unless such evidence was issued in a digital format, or such evidence of alien registration is associated with exclusion, deportation, or removal proceedings and that USCIS will issue the alien new evidence of alien registration.</P>
                    <P>Under the proposal, an alien's evidence of registration may also serve as identification, proof of immigration status, or eligibility for employment authorization in the United States. Under the proposal, 8 CFR 264.1(g)(2) would read as follows:</P>
                    <P>
                        • “
                        <E T="03">Others.</E>
                         In the case of an alien who is not a lawful permanent resident, the alien must surrender any prior evidence of alien registration. USCIS will issue the alien new evidence of alien registration.” USCIS no longer annotates an alien's previously issued registration document as evidence that they fulfilled their obligation under the second sentence of section 262(b) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1302(b). This amendment will make the regulatory text consistent with USCIS practice.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Requirement To Apply for Replacement Permanent Resident Card When Alien Reaches 14 Years Old</HD>
                    <P>DHS proposes to amend 8 CFR 264.5(b)(8) to require any permanent resident who reaches the age of 14 to apply for the replacement of his or her Permanent Resident Card.</P>
                    <P>
                        Pursuant to 8 CFR 264.5(b)(8), a permanent resident must apply for the replacement of the Permanent Resident Card “[w]hen the bearer of the card reaches the age of 14 years, unless the existing card will expire prior to the bearer's 16th birthday.” DHS believes the phrase “unless the existing card will expire prior to the bearer's 16th birthday” was included in the regulation in 1993 so that the fee waiver provision in the regulation could cite to this paragraph (along with paragraphs (b)(7) and (9)).
                        <SU>106</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Since the fee waiver provision is now codified at 8 CFR 106.2(a)(1)(iii), DHS believes this language is no longer necessary.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>106</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Establishment of Form I-551, Alien Registration Receipt Card, as the Executive Form of Registration for Lawful Permanent Residence, 58 FR 48775 (Sept. 20, 1993).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Statutory and Regulatory Requirements</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Administrative Procedure Act</HD>
                    <P>With this final rule, DHS is finalizing the IFR with additional procedural and technical changes to the regulatory text at 8 CFR 264.1, 264.5 and 264.6. Many of these changes are informed and supported by comments.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Procedural Rule Exception and Good Cause Under 5 U.S.C. 553</HD>
                    <P>
                        This rule's primary function is to consider and respond to comments on the IFR. DHS issued the IFR without prior notice and comment as a rule of agency organization, procedure, or 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39325"/>
                        practice (“procedural rule”) under the APA, 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(A). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 11793, 11796 (Mar. 12, 2025). As explained in the IFR, the procedural rule exception covers agency actions that do not alter the rights or interests of parties, although it may alter the manner in which the parties present themselves or their viewpoint to the agency. 
                        <E T="03">See JEM Broad. Co., Inc</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">FCC,</E>
                         22 F.3d 320, 326 (D.C. Cir. 1994); 
                        <E T="03">see also Mendoza</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Perez,</E>
                         754 F.3d 1002, 1023-24 (D.C. Cir. 2014); 
                        <E T="03">Am. Hosp. Ass'n</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Bowen,</E>
                         834 F.2d 1037, 1047 (D.C. Cir. 1987). Following review of the public comments received on this IFR, DHS is now finalizing the IFR in this final rule and permanently adopting the provisions of the IFR without changes to those provisions. In addition, after thorough and careful consideration of the comments, DHS is adding additional forms to the registration table in 8 CFR 264.1(b). These forms relate to removal proceedings, similar to Form I-862, Notice to Appear, and reflect a level of direct interaction with DHS officers engaged in immigration enforcement including the collection of biometrics. DHS is also designating the CBP-approved documents or its electronic equivalent for the Trusted Traveler Programs NEXUS, SENTRI, FAST, and Global Entry as evidence of registration because these document holders undergo a complete application process and robust vetting by CBP. Finally, DHS is updating the existing regulation at 8 CFR 264.5(h) as the language is outdated and inconsistent with current USCIS approach of issuing temporary evidence of lawful or conditional permanent resident status, to avoid confusion. These changes are procedural only and do not change eligibility criteria or evidentiary standards, nor do those additions alter the rights and interests of parties or encode a substantive value judgment on a given type of private behavior.
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition, after careful consideration of the comments, DHS also decided to make additional minor technical changes to 8 CFR 264.1, by updating the names of the registration forms listed at 8 CFR 264.1(a) and (b), and by making technical updates to 8 CFR 264.1(e) and 8 CFR 264.6. In addition, DHS is making editorial and procedural updates in 8 CFR 264.1(g) by removing redundant text, adding clarifying text, and addressing the outdated procedures specified in 8 CFR 264.1(g) related to photographs and the annotation of registration documents. These changes are also procedural in nature for the reasons described above. Moreover, DHS has good cause to make the changes without notice and comment.</P>
                    <P>
                        An agency may forgo notice-and-comment rulemaking and a delayed effective date when the agency “for good cause finds . . . that notice and public procedure thereon are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B). In particular, notice-and-comment procedures are unnecessary if the matter addressed by the agency is minor and technical in nature so that it is not of particular interest to the public. 
                        <E T="03">See Mack Trucks, Inc.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                         682 F.3d 87, 94 (D.C. Cir. 2012) (“This prong of the good cause inquiry is `confined to those situations in which the administrative rule is a routine determination, insignificant in nature and impact, and inconsequential to the industry and to the public'”) (citing to 
                        <E T="03">Util. Solid Waste Activities Grp.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                         236 F.3d 749, 755 (D.C. Cir. 2001)).
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS has for good cause found that notice-and-comment procedures are unnecessary here. Commenters indicated that the regulation is confusing because of outdated form names, such as Form I-590. Thus, USCIS is updating 8 CFR 264.1(a) and (b) by updating the listed form numbers and names to reflect the forms' correct number and current names. Some forms listed in 8 CFR 264.1 also no longer exist and can no longer be submitted to USCIS or DHS components, such as Form I-67, Inspection Record—Hungarian Refuges. DHS is therefore removing them to reduce confusion. Additionally, DHS is removing regulatory text that was superseded by legislative changes or is confusing, and DHS is also making grammatical or restructuring changes without changing the substantive nature of the provisions, such as in 8 CFR 264.1(e) related to fingerprint waivers, and 8 CFR 264.6.</P>
                    <P>These changes and updates are minor, procedural, and technical in nature and do not substantively impact the regulated public or change whether aliens are considered registered. The changes provide clarity about the applicability of the registration requirement, enhance the readability of the regulations, and are responsive to commenters' concerns. DHS is not required to engage in notice and comment under 5 U.S.C. 553 for these types of changes as they are covered by both the procedural rule exception under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(A) and the good cause exemption of the APA at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Delayed Effective Date</HD>
                    <P>
                        This final rule is also exempt from the APA's delayed effective date requirement under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3) because DHS has for good cause found that it is unnecessary to delay implementation of this final rule.
                        <SU>107</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>107</SU>
                             DHS also notes that the changes made by this rule do not render it a “substantive rule” within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 553(d). The changes are not considered substantive for the same reasons that the rule qualifies as “procedural” with respect to notice-and-comment requirements. The rule adopts as final the IFR—which was itself a procedural rule—and makes technical changes to the names of forms.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Although the good cause exception for the 30-day effective date in 5 U.S.C. 553(d) mirrors the “good cause” language of 5 U.S.C. 553(b), the good cause exception from the 30-day effective date requirement is easier to meet because these provisions have different purposes. 
                        <E T="03">See Riverbend Farms, Inc.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Madigan,</E>
                         958 F.2d 1479, 1485 (9th Cir. 1992); 
                        <E T="03">see also U.S. Steel Corp.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                         605 F.2d 283, 289-90 (7th Cir. 1979) (good cause more easily found as to 30-day waiting period). Unlike the notice-and-comment requirement, which is designed to ensure public participation in rulemaking, the 30-day waiting period is intended to give affected parties time to adjust their behavior before the final rule takes effect. 
                        <E T="03">See Riverbend Farms,</E>
                         958 F.2d at 1485. Additionally, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(1), the delay in effective date does not apply if the rule “grants or recognizes an exemption or relieves a restriction.” 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(1).
                    </P>
                    <P>It is unnecessary to delay this final rule's effective date for multiple reasons. First and foremost, a delayed effective date is unnecessary because the IFR has been in effect since April 11, 2025. Additionally, the changes, such as prescribing additional forms that serve as evidence of registration in 8 CFR 264.1(b) alleviate the need for certain aliens to register by submitting Form G-325R and thus relieve a restriction. There is no need to give affected parties additional time to adjust their behavior before this final rule takes effect. Thus, a delayed effective date serves no purpose.</P>
                    <P>
                        For the previously stated reasons, this final rule is effective immediately.
                        <SU>108</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>108</SU>
                             On February 21, 2025, the Secretary of State determined that all efforts, conducted by any agency of the Federal Government, to control the status, entry, and exit of people and the transfer of goods, services, data, technology, and any other items across the borders of the United States, constitutes a foreign affairs function of the United States under the APA, 5 U.S.C. 553. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             90 FR 49 (Mar. 14, 2025). The registration of aliens under section 262 of the INA thus relates to the foreign affairs function of the United States pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(a)(1) as outlined in the Secretary of States' determination and therefore, the APA's notice and public procedures, as well as any delayed effective date does not apply.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="39326"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Executive Orders 12866, 13563 and 14192</HD>
                    <P>Executive Order (E.O.) 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review) and E.O. 13563 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review) direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if a regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. E.O. 14192 (Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation) directs agencies to significantly reduce the private expenditures required to comply with Federal regulations and provides that “any new incremental costs associated with new regulations shall, to the extent permitted by law, be offset by the elimination of existing costs associated with at least 10 prior regulations.”</P>
                    <P>This rule has been designated a “significant regulatory action” under section 3(f) of E.O. 12866. Accordingly, the rule has been reviewed by OMB.</P>
                    <P>
                        This rule is not an E.O. 14192 regulatory action because it is being issued with respect to an immigration-related function of the United States. The rule's primary direct purpose is to implement or interpret the immigration laws of the United States (as described in section 101(a)(17) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(17)) or any other function performed by the U.S. Federal Government with respect to aliens. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         OMB Memorandum M-25-20, “Guidance Implementing Section 3 of E.O. 14192, titled `Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation' ” (Mar. 26, 2025).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Summary</HD>
                    <P>DHS is amending existing regulations to make available another method for aliens to comply with the alien registration requirements of the INA. The rule does not impose any new registration or fingerprinting obligations separate from the obligations already contained in the INA.</P>
                    <P>
                        DHS has assessed the compliance costs and benefits of this rule as required by E.O.s 12866 and 13563. The direct costs of the rule include the opportunity cost of time to complete and file a registration form as well as the opportunity cost of time to submit biometrics. DHS and new registrants will incur compliance costs due to the activities from submitting forms and the collection of biometrics. DHS estimates current registration and biometrics submissions under this rule have cost aliens approximately $21.3 million.
                        <SU>109</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The estimated burden to USCIS is $0.6 million from collecting and processing biometrics.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>109</SU>
                             As of May 7, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Table 2 provides a summary of the regulatory changes and the estimated costs and benefits associated with the expected impacts.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,r130">
                        <TTITLE>Table 2—Summary of Estimated Impacts of the Rule, FY 2025</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Summary of the change to provision</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Expected impact of the rule</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Amend existing regulations to make available another method for aliens to comply with the alien registration requirements of the INA</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Quantitative:</E>
                                <LI>
                                    <E T="03">Benefits</E>
                                </LI>
                                <LI O="oi3">• None.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Costs</E>
                                <LI O="oi3">• $21.3 million to aliens in registration costs. </LI>
                                <LI O="oi3">• $0.6 million to USCIS in biometric costs.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Qualitative:</E>
                                <LI>
                                    <E T="03">Benefits</E>
                                </LI>
                                <LI O="oi3">• The rule is expected to result in increased alien registrations that are consistent with provisions of the INA</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Costs</E>
                                <LI O="oi3">
                                    • Technical changes are expected to have a 
                                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                                     effect on costs
                                </LI>
                                <LI O="oi3">• Indirect costs of the rule may include increased legal costs for those who choose to seek legal assistance and potential workforce impacts. Public comments identified these and other potential indirect effects, which are difficult to quantify.</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>Source: USCIS analysis.</TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,p1,7/8,i1" CDEF="s100,12C,12C,15C,16C,19C">
                        <TTITLE>Table 3—OMB A-4 Accounting Statement</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[$ millions, 2025]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">Period of analysis: FY 2025</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25">Category</ENT>
                            <ENT A="01">Primary estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>Minimum estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>Maximum estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Source citation
                                <LI>(RIA, preamble, etc.)</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">BENEFITS</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="n,s,s,s,s,n">
                            <ENT I="01">Monetized Benefits</ENT>
                            <ENT A="03">N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>RIA</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s,s,s,s,n">
                            <ENT I="01">Annualized quantified, but unmonetized, benefits</ENT>
                            <ENT A="01">N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>RIA</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Unquantified Benefits</ENT>
                            <ENT A="L03">The rule is expected to result in increased alien registrations that are consistent with provisions of the INA.</ENT>
                            <ENT>RIA</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">COSTS</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Annualized monetized costs (discount rate in parenthesis)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(7%)</ENT>
                            <ENT>$21.9</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>RIA</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(3%)</ENT>
                            <ENT> 21.9</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>RIA</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <PRTPAGE P="39327"/>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,p1,7/8,i1" CDEF="s100,12C,12C,15C,16C,19C">
                        <TTITLE>Table 3—OMB A-4 Accounting Statement—Continued</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[$ millions, 2025]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">Period of analysis: FY 2025</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25">Category</ENT>
                            <ENT A="01">Primary estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>Minimum estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>Maximum estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Source citation
                                <LI>(RIA, preamble, etc.)</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s,s,s,s,n">
                            <ENT I="01">Annualized quantified, but un-monetized, costs</ENT>
                            <ENT A="03">N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>RIA</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Qualitative (unquantified) costs</ENT>
                            <ENT A="L03">
                                Technical changes are expected to have a 
                                <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                                 effect on costs.
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>RIA</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT A="L03">Indirect costs of the rule may include increased legal costs for those who choose to seek legal assistance and potential workforce impacts. Public comments identified these and other potential indirect effects, which are difficult to quantify.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="05" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">TRANSFERS</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="n,s,s,s,s,n">
                            <ENT I="01">Annualized monetized transfers: “on budget”</ENT>
                            <ENT A="01">N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>RIA</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s,s,s,s,n">
                            <ENT I="01">From whom to whom?</ENT>
                            <ENT A="03"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>RIA</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s,s,s,s,n">
                            <ENT I="01">Annualized monetized transfers: “off-budget”</ENT>
                            <ENT A="01">N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>RIA</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">From whom to whom?</ENT>
                            <ENT A="03"> </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25">Miscellaneous analyses/category</ENT>
                            <ENT A="03">Effects</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                Source citation
                                <LI>(RIA, preamble, etc.)</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Effects on State, local, and/or Tribal governments</ENT>
                            <ENT A="03">None.</ENT>
                            <ENT>RIA</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Effects on small businesses</ENT>
                            <ENT A="03">None.</ENT>
                            <ENT>RFA</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Effects on wages</ENT>
                            <ENT A="03">None.</ENT>
                            <ENT>RIA</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Effects on growth</ENT>
                            <ENT A="03">None.</ENT>
                            <ENT>RIA</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Affected Population</HD>
                    <P>As previously discussed, this rule provides another method for aliens to comply with the alien registration requirements of the INA. Affected aliens may have other options to comply in addition to this rule. The following estimate present a maximum potential population. In addition, the estimate does not consider the effect on the status of unregistered aliens from other DHS activities; such activities may have resulted in additional aliens being registered by other means (such as the issuance of Form I-862, Notice to Appear, and the I-863, Notice of Referral to Immigration Judge), or self-deporting from the United States.</P>
                    <P>
                        In the IFR, DHS explained that the potential population impacted by the IFR included those who are currently unregistered and who may use the general registration form designated under this rule. DHS estimated the potential affected population to be between 2.9 million and 3.5 million,
                        <SU>111</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         after accounting for groups who have engaged with DHS and have previously filed one of the designated registration forms discussed in the preamble (requirements under 8 CFR 264.1(a) or 8 CFR 264.1(b)).
                        <FTREF/>
                        <SU>112</SU>
                          
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 11797 (Mar. 12, 2025). DHS explained that the affected population of those who remain in the United States for 30 days or longer includes, for instance:
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>111</SU>
                             The 2.9 million to 3.5 million is the corrected estimate that is updated from the 2.2 million to 3.2 million in the IFR as the latter figures were an earlier estimate and did not include the estimated 500,000 Canadian visitors. DHS also notes that the estimate of annual filing volume of 1,400,000 respondents for purposes of the PRA and Form G-325R (and 779,600 for purposes of biometric services associated with Form G-325R) is different from the average of the estimated population discussed in this section. See 30-day 
                            <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                             Notice for Form G-325R at 90 FR 38655. DHS uses a different method for estimating the average annual number of respondents for the information collection over the 3-year OMB approval of the control number, generally assuming more registrations may be expected to occur in year one than in later years. When the information collection request is nearing expiration, USCIS will update the estimates of annual respondents based on actual results in the submission to OMB. The PRA burden estimates are generally updated at least every 3 years. Thus, the PRA estimated annual respondents would be updated to reflect the actual effects of this rule within a relatively short period after this final rule takes effect.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>112</SU>
                             Estimate calculated by OHSS. This estimate does not include aliens who have already met one or more conditions for registration, and accounts for changes to the alien population from 2022 through 2024 as well as emigration and mortality rates. Other groups already considered registered for purposes of this analysis and not part of the affected population include those who have been issued an I-94 form, were paroled into the United States, were issued an EAD, or were issued an NTA in section 240 removal proceedings.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • Aliens who are present in the United States without inspection and admission or inspection and parole and have not yet registered (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         have not yet filed a registration form designated under 8 CFR 264.1(a), and do not have evidence of registration under 8 CFR 264.1(b)).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • Canadian visitors who entered the United States at land ports of entry and were not issued evidence of registration (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Form I-94).
                    </P>
                    <P>• An alien, whether previously registered or not, who turns 14 years old in the United States and therefore must register within 30 days after their 14th birthday.</P>
                    <P>
                        DHS also recognized there could be additional aliens subject to this rule in the future, and that relying on this estimate may somewhat overstate those who need to fully comply as aliens under 14 years of age are required to be registered but do not need to provide fingerprints. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         90 FR 11797 (Mar. 12, 2025).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As noted in the previous paragraph, this rule applies to Canadian visitors who entered the United States at land ports of entry and were not issued evidence of registration (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Form I-94).
                        <SU>113</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This population is generally 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39328"/>
                        exempt from having to submit biometrics. DHS believes approximately 500,000 Canadians who arrive by land visit the United States for 30 days or longer each year.
                        <SU>114</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These visitors may request Form I-94 from CBP during the admission process at the port of entry or apply for a provisional I-94 before entering the country to comply with the provisions of this rule.
                        <SU>115</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, if these aliens are in the country already, they will need to file Form G-325R but are not required to provide biometrics as a part of that process. Canadian visitors that are Trusted Traveler Program participants that enter as nonimmigrants at land POEs using Trusted Traveler Program processing (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         lanes) to gain admission without I-94 issuance would not need to submit a Form G-325R under this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>113</SU>
                             Other populations would also likely choose to register using with the Form I-94 rather than the Form G-325R.  These groups would need to enter at a land Port of Entry: bearers of a Mexican diplomatic or official passport who are military or civilian officials of the Federal Government of Mexico entering the United States for 6 months or less for a purpose other than on assignment as a permanent employee to an office of the Mexican Federal Government in the United States, and the official's spouse or any of the official's dependent family members under 19 years of age, bearing diplomatic or official passports, who are in the actual company of such official at the time of admission into the United States; nonimmigrant alien residing in the British Virgin Islands who is admitted solely to the U.S. Virgin Islands as a visitor for business or pleasure; and citizens of Bermuda entering the United States as B1/B2 visitors.  DHS believes are relatively small 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            populations and thus would little impact on the scale of the cost of this rule.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>114</SU>
                             OHSS Estimate of Population.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>115</SU>
                             Most Canadian citizens visiting or in transit through the United States do not need a Form I-94 but for those seeking to register upon entry, they may seek one. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             U.S. Customs and Border Protection, "I-94/I-95 Website Travel Record for U.S. Visitors," OMB No. 1651-0111, 
                            <E T="03">https://i94.cbp.dhs.gov/home</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As of May 7, 2026, USCIS has accepted over 142,982 Form G-325R receipts in the ARR electronic form submission process through myUSCIS for individuals subject to this requirement.
                        <SU>116</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         78,944 receipts were submitted by Canadians, approximately 55.2 percent.
                        <SU>117</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         There have been over 34,742 aliens scheduled for ASC appointments to collect biometrics and over 20,302 ASC appointments have been completed.
                        <SU>118</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Approximately 93,318 registrations have been processed, and completed ASC appointments.
                        <SU>119</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS uses the number of actual registrants to monetize the compliance costs for aliens who have registered and completed biometrics appointments under this rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>116</SU>
                             Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Office of Performance and Quality, ELIS, queried 05/2026, PAER0021329.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>117</SU>
                             Calculation: 78,944 Canadian receipts/142,982 total receipts = 0.552 (rounded) or approximately 55.2 percent.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>118</SU>
                             ibid.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>119</SU>
                             ibid.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Changes in the Final Rule</HD>
                    <P>In this Final Rule, DHS has made technical and procedural changes after considering the comments received, most of these changes are not substantive and will enhance readability of the regulations by more accurately describing the current procedures.</P>
                    <P>A notable change in the Final Rule to 8 CFR 264.1(b) Evidence of registration, is the addition of CBP-approved documents or its electronic equivalent for the Trusted Traveler Programs NEXUS, SENTRI, FAST, and Global Entry. It's unknown how the addition of these CBP approved documents would impact the population estimate, but this could reduce the number of aliens who have to incur costs related to registration by submitting a form and biometrics.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Costs</HD>
                    <P>DHS recognizes that there are costs to aliens to comply with registration requirements in the E.O. and the INA's alien registration provisions. The enforcement of related statutory provisions by Federal, State, and local governments, such as activities related to the prosecution for the willful failure of an alien to register under section 266 of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1306, are separate from this rulemaking. Correspondingly, any broader potential indirect or secondary cost impacts on employers, businesses, institutions, the economy, communities, and persons throughout the United States would be a direct result of the policy choice made by Congress when requiring aliens who are in the United States to register. However, DHS has considered the possibility that this rule, perhaps in combination with other policies, could have some of the indirect effects described above. We do not have sufficient information to quantify these effects.</P>
                    <P>DHS also recognizes the agency will incur costs related to processing forms and biometrics; these costs are considered later in this section. DHS similarly assesses the benefits in the following section.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(a) Registration Burden</HD>
                    <P>
                        Compliance costs to aliens may include the time to complete and file a registration form, as well as time spent traveling to an ASC, submitting fingerprints, and record retention. There is currently no fee for applicants to file the prescribed form or to submit biometrics, but applicants take on the burden of time to complete both, if biometrics are required.
                        <SU>120</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We use the estimated mean travel time and distance to an ASC that is frequently used in USCIS rules. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         78 FR 535 (Jan. 3, 2013). This will result in an overestimate of the burden for some registrants and an underestimate for others. The total filing burden for new registrations will include the cost of time to submit biometrics and the time burden of registration using Form G-325R.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>120</SU>
                             The respondent burden to file Form G-325R is discussed in the IFR at 90 FR 11793 (Mar. 12, 2025) and Paperwork Reduction Act Notice at 90 FR 38655 (August 11, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Additional compliance with registration obligations will also result in more aliens needing to maintain evidence of registration. Aliens may also spend some marginal amount of time to become familiar with the process and specific steps they should take to be compliant.</P>
                    <P>This final rule has the potential impact of increasing the biometric activities for DHS, such as additional FBI Name checks, fingerprinting, and support from ASC locations. The biometrics activities are estimated to cost approximately $30 per applicant. This is a cost to the agency and will be discussed later in this section.</P>
                    <P>
                        Many of the costs associated with the IFR are opportunity costs of time. We measure an alien's opportunity cost of time by estimating their expected hourly total compensation. For the affected population, we use the mean hourly wage of all occupations ($32.66).
                        <SU>121</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To estimate total compensation we multiply the expected wage by the compensation to wage ratio for civilian employees (1.46).
                        <SU>122</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This results in an estimated mean hourly total compensation of $47.68.
                        <SU>123</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>121</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Bureau of Labor Statistics, U.S. Department of Labor (DOL), “Occupational Employment and Wages News Release—Occupational Employment and Wages—May 2024” Table 1. National employment and wage data from the Occupation employment and Wage Statistics survey by occupation, May 2024. All Occupations—Mean Hourly Wage, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/news.release/archives/ocwage_04022025.htm</E>
                             (last updated Apr. 2, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>122</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Bureau of Labor Statistics, DOL, Economic News Release, “Employer Costs for Employee Compensation for civilian workers by occupation and industry group,” Table 2 (last updated Sept. 12, 2025), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/news.release/archives/ecec_09122025.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Calculation:</E>
                             $48.05 total compensation for civilian workers/$33.02 wages and salaries for civilian workers = 1.46 (rounded) compensation-to-wage ratio.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>123</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Calculation:</E>
                             $32.66 mean hourly wage for all occupations * 1.46 compensation-to-wage ratio = $47.68 (rounded) estimated mean total compensation.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Compliance costs to aliens include the time to complete and file a registration form, as well as time spent traveling to an ASC, submitting fingerprints, and record retention. To estimate the costs to complete and file Form G-325R, we include time burden of 2.5 hours to complete and submit the form.
                        <SU>124</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The opportunity cost of time to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39329"/>
                        complete the form is $119.20 at the total compensation rate.
                        <SU>125</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>124</SU>
                             Since publication of the IFR, USCIS made non-rule related changes to Form G-325R that are unrelated to the final rule, in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.12, as this information collection is already covered in existing regulation under the INA and 8 CFR part 264. The non-rule related changes resulted in an increase to the estimated time burden to submit Form G-325R from 0.67 hours to 2.5 hours. This is an increase of 1.83 hours 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            per alien registrant. The estimated time burden to file Form G-325R can be found in Supporting Statement A submitted with the revision package to OMB on August 22, 2025 at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAViewDocument?ref_nbr=202508-1615-002.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>125</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Calculation:</E>
                             2.5 hours to file Form G-325R * $47.68 mean hourly post-transfer compensation for all occupations = $119.20 (rounded) opportunity cost of time to file Form G-325R.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        To estimate the costs of submitting biometrics, we consider the time burden to submit biometrics, the time burden to travel to and from an ASC, and the vehicle costs of traveling to and from an ASC. The estimated time burden to submit biometrics is 1.17 hours.
                        <SU>126</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The estimated opportunity cost of time to submit biometrics is $55.79.
                        <SU>127</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The estimated average travel distance to and from an ASC is 50 miles; the expected total travel time is 2.5 hours.
                        <SU>128</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The estimated opportunity cost of time to travel to and from an ASC is $119.20.
                        <SU>129</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The vehicle costs of traveling to and from an ASC are based on the General Service Administration's per mile reimbursement rate for traveling in a privately owned vehicle—currently $0.70 per mile.
                        <SU>130</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The estimated vehicle costs of traveling to and from an ASC are $35.00.
                        <SU>131</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The estimated cost to submit biometrics at an ASC is $209.99.
                        <SU>132</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Table 4 provides a breakdown of these costs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>126</SU>
                             The estimated time burden to file Form G-325R can be found in Supporting Statement A submitted with the revision package to OMB on August 22, 2025 at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAViewDocument?ref_nbr=202508-1615-002.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>127</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Calculation:</E>
                             1.17 hours to submit biometrics * $47.68 mean hourly post-transfer compensation = $55.79 (rounded) opportunity cost of time to submit biometrics.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>128</SU>
                             These are the same parameters used in other USCIS rules. 
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             “Provisional Unlawful Presence Waivers of Inadmissibility for Certain Immediate Relatives,” 78 FR 536, 578 (Jan. 3, 2013).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>129</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Calculation:</E>
                             2.5 hours to travel to and from an ASC * $47.68 mean hourly post-transfer compensation = $119.20 (rounded) opportunity cost of time to travel to and from an ASC.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>130</SU>
                             For use of a privately owned automobile, see General Services Administration, “Privately Owned Vehicle (POV) Mileage Reimbursement Rate,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.gsa.gov/travel/plan-book/transportation-airfare-pov-etc/privately-owned-vehicle-pov-mileage-reimbursement-rates</E>
                             (last updated Dec. 30, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>131</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Calculation:</E>
                             $0.70 cost per vehicle mile * 50 miles to and from an ASC = $35.00 vehicle costs to travel to and from an ASC.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>132</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Calculation:</E>
                             $35 vehicle costs to travel to and from an ASC + $119.20 opportunity cost of time to travel to and from an ASC + $55.79 opportunity cost of time to submit biometrics = $209.99 to submit biometrics at an ASC.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,8">
                        <TTITLE>Table 4—Costs to Unauthorized Aliens To Submit Biometrics</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Type of cost</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Monetary
                                <LI>value</LI>
                                <LI>of cost</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Opportunity cost of time to travel to an ASC</ENT>
                            <ENT>$119.20</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Opportunity cost of time to submit biometrics</ENT>
                            <ENT>55.79</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">Vehicle costs of traveling to an ASC</ENT>
                            <ENT>35.00</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="02">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>209.99</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>Source: USCIS analysis.</TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        The estimated total per person compliance cost to register and submit biometrics is $329.19.
                        <SU>133</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To monetize the compliance costs for those who have registered and completed biometrics appointments we apply the unit costs to the number of actual registrants, this includes the population of ARR electronic form submissions, and completed ASC appointments as of May 2026.
                        <SU>134</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Registrants' opportunity cost of time is estimated at $17.0 million while the opportunity cost of time for those who submitted biometrics is estimated at $4.3 million.
                        <SU>135</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The estimated total cost to aliens is approximately $21.3 million as of May 2026.
                        <SU>136</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>133</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Calculation:</E>
                             $119.20 to file Form G-325R + $209.99 to submit biometrics at an ASC = $329.19 to register and submit biometrics.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>134</SU>
                             Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Office of Performance and Quality, ELIS, queried 05/2026, PAER0021329..
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>135</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Calculations:</E>
                             $119.20 to file Form G-325R * 142,982 receipts = $17,043,454 (rounded) or $17.0 million opportunity cost of time to register.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Calculation:</E>
                             $209.99 to submit biometrics at an ASC * 20,302 completed ASC appointments = $4,263,217 (rounded) or $4.3 million costs to submit biometrics at an ASC.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>136</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Calculation:</E>
                             $17.0 million opportunity cost of time + $4.3 million cost to submit biometrics = $21.3 million.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The IFR increased biometric activities for DHS, including additional FBI Name checks, fingerprinting, and support from ASC locations. The biometrics activities are estimated to cost approximately $30 per applicant.
                        <SU>137</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         USCIS is not currently charging a filing fee to file Form G-325R to cover these costs. The decision not to assign a registration fee or require payment to for biometrics collection could be reconsidered during a future fee review process or in another future regulatory action by DHS. For the 20,302 ASC appointments that have been completed, the estimated burden to the Agency is $0.6 million.
                        <SU>138</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The total estimated cost of the rule is approximately $21.9 million.
                        <SU>139</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>137</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             90 FR 11793, 11796 (Mar. 12, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>138</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Calculation:</E>
                             $30 to process biometrics for Form G-325R * 20,302 completed ASC appointments = $609,060 or $0.6 million to process biometrics for Form G-325R.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>139</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Calculation:</E>
                             $21.3 million costs to submit Form G-325R and biometrics + $0.6 million to process biometrics = $21.9 million.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(b) Final Rule Impacts Relative to IFR</HD>
                    <P>This final rule does not change any of the impacts relative to the IFR.</P>
                    <P>
                        The final rule implements technical changes relative to the IFR. These technical changes are expected to have 
                        <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                         effects. These changes clarify existing regulatory language or codify current practice.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The other regulatory changes made in this rule may reduce, to some extent, the population of aliens that may register via the Form G-325R under the IFR.
                        <SU>140</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Due to factors contributing to a high degree of uncertainty, DHS cannot estimate the number of applicants who will be affected by this rule. These factors include, but are not limited to, increased immigration enforcement, reduced border crossings, and changing international travel behavior.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>140</SU>
                             USCIS made 5 CFR 1320.12 non-rule form related changes to Form G-325R that are unrelated to the changes made to the rule between the IFR and the final rule, in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.12, as this information collection is already covered in existing regulation under the INA and 8 CFR part 264. This increased the estimated time burden to submit Form G-325R from 0.67 hours to 2.5 hours. This is an increase of 1.83 hours per alien registrant.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As noted previously, we do not have an estimate of these visitors who are currently in the country and, therefore, would need to submit Form G-325R instead of Form I-94 to register. Our estimate of an upper bound on the additional burden assumes each of the 500,000 Canadian visitors submits a Form G-325R but would not need to submit biometrics. Therefore, the upper bound estimate for these visitors is $59.6 million.
                        <SU>141</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The changes to Form G-325R will not affect Canadian visitors who file a Form I-94 prior to entering the United States.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>141</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Calculation:</E>
                             500,000 Canadian visitors * $119.20 opportunity cost of time of 2.5 hours to submit Form G-325R = $59.60 million (rounded) additional burden to submit Form I-94 for Canadian visitors.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Benefits</HD>
                    <P>The benefit of this rule is the designation of a general registration form option that will improve registration outcomes for aliens, consistent with the requirements of the alien registration provisions of the INA. This final rule provides a registration form available to all unregistered aliens regardless of their status.</P>
                    <P>
                        The final rule is also expected to improve DHS law enforcement efficacy because law enforcement personnel 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39330"/>
                        would have access to more comprehensive registration data. In addition, increased compliance with fingerprinting requirements would provide DHS with additional information about an alien's criminal record, including whether the alien is a known or suspected terrorist. When DHS has more information about potential targets of law enforcement, it can make more efficient use of law enforcement resources and better protect public safety and officer safety.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        The RFA (5 U.S.C. 601 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ), as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (SBREFA), requires an agency to prepare and make available to the public a regulatory flexibility analysis that describes the effect of the rule on small entities (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         small businesses, small organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions). The RFA's regulatory flexibility analysis requirements apply only to those rules for which an agency is required to publish a general NPRM pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553 or any other law. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         5 U.S.C. 604(a). DHS did not issue an NPRM for this action. Therefore, a regulatory flexibility analysis is not required for this rule. Nonetheless, DHS has determined that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This rule directly regulates individual aliens. However, the RFA's regulatory flexibility analysis requirements apply only to small entities subject to the requirements of the rule.
                        <SU>142</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The individual aliens subject to the requirements of this rule are not small entities as defined in 5 U.S.C. 601(6). Accordingly, DHS certifies that this rule does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>142</SU>
                             142 U.S. Small Business Administration, “A Guide for Government Agencies: How to Comply with the Regulatory Flexibility Act” at 22 (Aug. 2017), 
                            <E T="03">https://advocacy.sba.gov/wp-content/uploads/2019/07/How-to-Comply-with-the-RFA-WEB.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995</HD>
                    <P>
                        UMRA is intended, among other things, to curb the practice of imposing unfunded Federal mandates on State, local, and Tribal governments. Title II of UMRA requires each Federal agency to prepare a written statement assessing the effects of any Federal mandate in a proposed rule, or final rule for which the agency published a general NPRM, that includes any Federal mandate that may result in a $100 million or more expenditure (adjusted annually for inflation) in any one year by State, local, and Tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector.
                        <SU>143</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The inflation adjusted value of $100 million in 1995 was approximately $206 million in 2024 based on the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (CPI-U).
                        <SU>144</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         No written statement is required here, because DHS did not issue a general NPRM in connection with this rule. In addition, this final rule does not contain a Federal mandate as the term is defined under UMRA.
                        <SU>145</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The requirements of title II of UMRA, therefore, do not apply, and DHS has not prepared a statement under UMRA.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>143</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             2 U.S.C. 1532(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>144</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             BLS, “Historical Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (CPI-U): U.S. city average, all items, by month,” 
                            <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/cpi/tables/supplemental-files/historical-cpi-u-202412.pdf</E>
                             (last visited June 23, 2025). Calculation of inflation: (1) Calculate the average monthly CPI-U for the reference year (1995) and the current year (2024); (2) Subtract reference year CPI-U from current year CPI-U; (3) Divide the difference of the reference year CPI-U and current year CPI-U by the reference year CPI-U; (4) Multiply by 100 = [(Average monthly CPI-U for 2024-Average monthly CPI-U for 1995) ÷ (Average monthly CPI-U for 1995)] × 100 = [(313.689 −152.383) ÷ 152.383] = (161.306/152.383) = 1.0586 × 100 = 105.86 percent = 106 percent (rounded). Calculation of inflation-adjusted value: $100 million in 1995 dollars × 2.06 = $206 million in 2024 dollars.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>145</SU>
                             The term “Federal mandate” means a Federal intergovernmental mandate or a Federal private sector mandate. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             2 U.S.C. 1502(1), 658(6).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Congressional Review Act)</HD>
                    <P>
                        This final rule is not a “rule” as defined by the Congressional Review Act, enacted as part of the SBREFA, Public Law 104-121. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         5 U.S.C. 804(3)(C) (defining the term “rule” to exclude “any rule of agency organization, procedure, or practice that does not substantially affect the rights or obligations of non-agency parties”). DHS will nonetheless submit this final rule to both houses of Congress and the Comptroller General before the rule takes effect.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Executive Order 13132 (Federalism)</HD>
                    <P>This rule does not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, in accordance with section 6 of E.O. 13132, Federalism, 64 FR 43255 (Aug. 4, 1999), this rule does not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a federalism summary impact statement.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Executive Order 12988 (Civil Justice Reform)</HD>
                    <P>This final rule was drafted and reviewed in accordance with E.O. 12988, Civil Justice Reform. This final rule was written to provide a clear legal standard for affected conduct and was reviewed carefully to eliminate drafting errors and ambiguities, so as to minimize litigation and undue burden on the Federal court system. DHS has determined that this final rule meets the applicable standards set forth in section 3 of E.O. 12988.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Executive Order 13175 (Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments)</HD>
                    <P>This final rule does not have Tribal implications under E.O. 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian Tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Family Assessment</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS has assessed this final action in line with section 654 of the Treasury General Appropriations Act, 1999.
                        <SU>146</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Accordingly, DHS has systematically reviewed the criteria specified by section 654(c)(1), by evaluating whether this regulatory action: (1) impacts the stability or safety of the family, particularly in terms of marital commitment; (2) impacts the authority of parents in the education, nurture, and supervision of their children; (3) helps the family perform its functions; (4) affects disposable income or poverty of families and children; (5) only financially impacts families, if at all, to the extent such impacts are justified; (6) may be carried out by State or local government or by the family; or (7) establishes a policy concerning the relationship between the behavior and personal responsibility of youth and the norms of society. If the agency determines that regulation may negatively affect family well-being, then the agency must provide an adequate rationale for its implementation.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>146</SU>
                             Public Law 105-277, 112 Stat. 2681 (Oct. 21, 1998).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As articulated in the IFR, DHS has determined that the implementation of this regulation will not negatively affect family well-being and will not have any impact on the autonomy and integrity of the family as an institution.
                        <PRTPAGE P="39331"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">J. National Environment Policy Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS and its components analyze final actions to determine whether the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), 42 U.S.C. 4321 
                        <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                         applies and, if so, what degree of analysis is required. DHS Directive 023-01, Rev. 01 “Implementing the National Environmental Policy Act” (Directive 023-01) and “Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01 Revision 01, Implementation of the National Environmental Policy Act” (Instruction Manual) 
                        <SU>147</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         established the policies and procedures that DHS and its components use to comply with NEPA and the Council on Environmental Quality regulations for implementing NEPA.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>147</SU>
                             The Instruction Manual contains DHS's procedures for implementing NEPA and was issued on November 6, 2014, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.dhs.gov/ocrso/eed/epb/nepa</E>
                             (last updated July 29, 2025).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        NEPA allows Federal agencies to establish, in their NEPA implementing procedures, categories of actions (“categorical exclusions”) that experience has shown do not, individually or cumulatively, have a significant effect on the human environment and, therefore, do not require an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement.
                        <SU>148</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Instruction Manual, Appendix A lists the DHS Categorical Exclusions.
                        <SU>149</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>148</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             42 U.S.C. 4336(a)(2), 4336e(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>149</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Instruction Manual, Appendix A, Table 1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Under DHS NEPA implementing procedures, for an action to be categorically excluded, it must satisfy each of the following three conditions: (1) the entire action clearly fits within one or more of the categorical exclusions; (2) the action is not a piece of a larger action; and (3) no extraordinary circumstances exist that create the potential for a significant environmental effect.
                        <SU>150</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>150</SU>
                             Instruction Manual 023-01 at V.B(2)(a) through (c).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>This final rule responds to public comments provided in response to the IFR, adopts the IFR as final, amends the regulations to adjust the lists of forms and processes that may serve as registration forms and evidence of alien registration under 8 CFR 264.1(a) and (b) and seeks comments on other potential changes to the regulations relating to alien registration and fingerprinting under 8 CFR 264.1(e) that may be completed in a future regulatory action. This final rule also makes minor and technical changes to 8 CFR 264.1(e), 264.5, and 264.6. This final rule is strictly administrative and procedural. DHS has reviewed this final rule and finds that no significant impact on the environment, or any change in environmental effect will result from the amendments being promulgated in this final rule.</P>
                    <P>Accordingly, DHS finds that the promulgation of this final rule's amendments to current regulations clearly fits within categorical exclusion A3 established in DHS's NEPA implementing procedures as an administrative change with no change in environmental effect, is not part of a larger Federal action, and does not present extraordinary circumstances that create the potential for a significant environmental effect. Therefore, the regulatory amendments are categorically excluded from further NEPA review.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">K. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                    <P>Under the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3512, DHS must submit to OMB for review and approval, any reporting requirements inherent in a rule, unless they are exempt. This rule does not impose any new reporting or recordkeeping requirements under the PRA.</P>
                    <P>
                        However, this rule requires the use of USCIS Form G-325R, Biographic Information (Registration). This form has previously been approved by OMB under the PRA. The OMB control number for this information collection is 1615-0166. DHS requested comments on the OMB-approved Form G-325R for the purposes of the 60-day 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice under the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501 
                        <E T="03">et seq. See</E>
                         90 FR 11793, 11799 (Mar. 12, 2025). The comment period for purposes of the PRA ended on May 12, 2025. Any public comment received on Form G-325R in response to the 60-day 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice has been responded to in the 30-day 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice published for purposes of obtaining OMB approval of USCIS' request for extension and revision of Form G-325R 
                        <SU>151</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         on August 11, 2025, at 90 FR 38655.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>151</SU>
                             DHS had requested, and OMB approved Form G-325R on an emergency review basis pursuant to 44 U.S.C. 3507(j) and 5 CFR 1320.13, on March 5, 2025. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Notice of Action for OMB Control Number 1615-0166 (Mar. 5, 2025), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov.</E>
                             The information collection was submitted to OMB on August 22, 2025 and is pending OMB approval.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 8 CFR Part 264</HD>
                        <P>Aliens, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <P/>
                    <P>Accordingly, for the reasons set forth in the preamble, DHS amends 8 CFR part 264 as follows:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 264—REGISTRATION AND FINGERPRINTING OF ALIENS IN THE UNITED STATES</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="8" PART="264">
                        <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 264 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                            <P> 8 U.S.C. 1103, 1201, 1302-1305; 8 CFR part 2.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <P/>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="8" PART="264">
                        <AMDPAR>2. Section 264.1 is amended by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Revising and republishing paragraphs (a) and (b);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Revising paragraph (e);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. Revising and republishing the heading and the introductory text of paragraph (g); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>d. Revising paragraph (g)(1).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revisions read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 264.1</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Registration and fingerprinting.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a)
                                <E T="03"> Prescribed registration forms.</E>
                                 The following forms are prescribed as registration forms:
                            </P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Form No. and Class</HD>
                            <P>G-325R, Biographic Information (Registration), or its successor form.</P>
                            <P>I-94/94A/94W, Arrival-Departure Record—Aliens admitted as nonimmigrants; aliens paroled into the United States under section 212(d)(5) of the Immigration and Nationality Act; aliens lawfully admitted to the United States for permanent residence who have not been registered previously; aliens who are granted permission to depart without the institution of deportation or removal proceedings or against whom deportation or removal proceedings are being instituted.</P>
                            <P>I-95, Crewmen's Landing Permit—Crewmen arriving by vessel or aircraft.</P>
                            <P>I-181, Memorandum of Creation of Record of Lawful Permanent Residence—Aliens born to an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence during a temporary visit abroad admitted without a visa under 8 CFR 211.1(b).</P>
                            <P>I-485, Application to Register Permanent Residence or Adjust Status, or its predecessor or successor form—Applicants under sections 245 and 249 of the Immigration and Nationality Act as amended, and section 13 of the Act of September 11, 1957.</P>
                            <P>I-590, Registration for Classification as Refugee or its successor form, or its predecessor form—Applicants under section 207 of the INA and Refugee-escapees paroled pursuant to section 1 of the Act of July 14, 1960.</P>
                            <P>I-687, Application for Status as a Temporary Resident—Applicants under section 245A of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended.</P>
                            <P>
                                I-698, Application to Adjust Status from Temporary to Permanent 
                                <PRTPAGE P="39332"/>
                                Resident—Applicants under section 245A of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended.
                            </P>
                            <P>I-817, Application for Family Unity Benefits or its successor form, or its predecessor form.</P>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Evidence of registration.</E>
                                 The following forms constitute evidence of registration:
                            </P>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Form No. and Class</HD>
                            <P>I-94/94A/94W, Arrival-Departure Record—Aliens admitted as nonimmigrants; aliens paroled into the United States under section 212(d)(5) of the Immigration and Nationality Act; and aliens granted permission to depart without the institution of deportation or removal proceedings.</P>
                            <P>I-95, Crewmen's Landing Permit—Crewmen arriving by vessel or aircraft.</P>
                            <P>I-184, Alien Crewman Landing Permit and Identification Card—Crewmen arriving by vessel.</P>
                            <P>DSP-150, B-1/B-2 Visa and Border Crossing Card or its successor form, or its predecessor form—Citizens of Mexico residing in Mexico.</P>
                            <P>I-221, Order to Show Cause and Notice of Hearing—Aliens against whom deportation proceedings are being instituted.</P>
                            <P>I-221S, Order to Show Cause, Notice of Hearing, and Warrant for Arrest of Alien—Aliens against whom deportation proceedings are being instituted.</P>
                            <P>I-551, Permanent Resident Card—Lawful permanent resident of the United States.</P>
                            <P>I-766, Employment Authorization Document.</P>
                            <P>I-860, Notice and Order of Expedited Removal—Aliens who have been determined to be inadmissible under section 212(a)(6)(C) or (7) of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended, and ordered removed under section 235(b)(1) of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended.</P>
                            <P>I-862, Notice to Appear—Aliens against whom removal proceedings are being instituted.</P>
                            <P>I-863, Notice of Referral to Immigration Judge—Aliens against whom removal proceedings are being instituted.</P>
                            <P>I-871, Notice of Intent/Decision to Reinstate Prior Order—Aliens who reentered the United States illegally and whose prior order of removal has been reinstated under section 241(a)(5) of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended.</P>
                            <P>USCIS Proof of Alien G-325R Registration, or its successor form.</P>
                            <P>CBP-approved document or its electronic equivalent for the Trusted Traveler Programs NEXUS, SENTRI, FAST, and Global Entry—Aliens who were last admitted to the United States through NEXUS, SENTRI, FAST, or Global Entry facilitated processing.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (e) 
                                <E T="03">Fingerprinting waiver.</E>
                                 (1) Fingerprinting is waived for nonimmigrant aliens admitted as NATO representatives, officers, and employees pursuant to 8 CFR 214.2(s)(1)(i)(A) and (B) (excluding the attendants, servants, or personal employees of such nonimmigrants under 8 CFR 214.2(s)(1)(i)(C)) while they maintain such nonimmigrant status.
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) Fingerprinting is waived for aliens who are holders of diplomatic visas as defined in section 101(a)(11) of the Act and 22 CFR 41.26(a)(2) (other than those issued under section 101(a)(15)(A) and (G) of the Act who are exempt from the registration and fingerprinting requirements under section 263(b) of the Act) admitted on the basis of such visas while they maintain such nonimmigrant status.</P>
                            <P>(3) Fingerprinting is waived for nonimmigrant aliens, while they maintain nonimmigrant status, who are nationals of countries which do not require fingerprinting of United States citizens temporarily residing therein.</P>
                            <P>(4) Fingerprinting is waived for every nonimmigrant alien not included in paragraphs (e)(1) through (3) of this section who departs from the United States within one year of his or her admission, provided he or she maintains his or her nonimmigrant status during that time; each such alien not previously fingerprinted shall apply therefor at once if he or she remains in the United States in excess of 1 year.</P>
                            <P>(5) Every nonimmigrant alien not previously fingerprinted shall apply therefor at once upon his or her failure to maintain his or her nonimmigrant status.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (g) 
                                <E T="03">Registration and fingerprinting of children who reach age 14.</E>
                                 Within 30 days after reaching the age of 14, any alien in the United States not exempt from alien registration under the Act and this chapter, or otherwise by law, must apply for registration and fingerprinting, unless fingerprinting is waived under paragraph (e) of this section, in accordance with applicable form instructions.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (1) 
                                <E T="03">Permanent residents.</E>
                                 If such alien is a lawful permanent resident of the United States and is temporarily absent from the United States when he or she reaches the age of 14, he or she must apply for registration within 30 days of his or her return to the United States in accordance with applicable form instructions and with the fee specified in 8 CFR 106.2 to replace a permanent resident card The alien must surrender any prior evidence of alien registration, and USCIS will issue the alien new evidence of alien registration.
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="8" PART="264">
                        <AMDPAR>3. Section 264.5 is amended by revising paragraph (h) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 264.5</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Application for a replacement Permanent Resident Card.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (h) 
                                <E T="03">Temporary evidence of registration.</E>
                                 USCIS may issue temporary evidence of registration and lawful permanent resident status to a lawful permanent resident or conditional permanent resident alien who has properly filed an application for a replacement permanent resident card or for naturalization, petitioned for the removal of the conditions on his or her residence using the form prescribed by USCIS, or as otherwise determined by USCIS in accordance with the form instructions. The alien must surrender such temporary evidence upon receipt of his or her permanent resident card, unless that temporary evidence was placed by USCIS into the alien's passport.
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="8" PART="264">
                        <AMDPAR>4. Section 264.6 is amended by revising paragraphs (a) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 264.6</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Application for a nonimmigrant arrival-departure record.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Eligibility.</E>
                                 USCIS may issue a new or replacement arrival-departure record to a nonimmigrant who:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Seeks to replace a lost or stolen record;</P>
                            <P>(2) Seeks to replace a mutilated record; or</P>
                            <P>(3) Was not issued an arrival-departure record pursuant to 8 CFR 235.1(h)(1)(i), (iii), (iv), or (v) when last admitted as a nonimmigrant, and has not since been issued such record but now requires one.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <SIG>
                        <NAME>Markwayne Mullin,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Secretary, U.S. Department of Homeland Security.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13057 Filed 6-25-26; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-97-P</BILCOD>
            </RULE>
        </RULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>91</VOL>
    <NO>123</NO>
    <DATE>Monday, June 29, 2026</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="39333"/>
            <PARTNO>Part V</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Department of Agriculture</AGENCY>
            <SUBAGY>Office of Energy and Environmental Policy</SUBAGY>
            <HRULE/>
            <CFR>7 CFR Part 2100</CFR>
            <TITLE>Technical Guidelines for the Production of Regenerative Agricultural Biofuel Feedstocks; Final Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <RULES>
            <RULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="39334"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                    <SUBAGY>Office of Energy and Environmental Policy</SUBAGY>
                    <CFR>7 CFR Part 2100</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USDA-2024-0003]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 0503-AA82</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Technical Guidelines for the Production of Regenerative Agricultural Biofuel Feedstocks</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Office of Energy and Environmental Policy (OEEP), Office of the Chief Economist (OCE), U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA).</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Final rule.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>This final rule revises technical guidelines for quantifying, reporting, and verifying the carbon intensity of agricultural commodity crops used in the production of biofuels relative to an estimated national average that were established by a prior January 2025 interim rule. Specifically, the January 2025 interim rule established guidelines for the implementation, reporting, verification, and quantification of carbon intensity (CI) of certain agricultural commodities at the field-scale. This final rule makes revisions to the January 2025 interim rule that were requested by commenters or that are otherwise necessary because of intervening Executive action. The revised guidelines articulate an approach for farm producers to quantify the change in net emissions associated with crops produced using one or more authorized practices. The revised guidelines also articulate a framework for how information regarding emissions, resulting from the production of biofuel feedstock commodity crops, could be reported and tracked throughout the supply chain.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Effective date:</E>
                             July 29, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>
                            Kathryn Zook, Acting Director of the Office of Energy and Environmental Policy (OEEP), (202) 288-6725, 
                            <E T="03">kathryn.zook@usda.gov.</E>
                             Individuals who require alternative means for communication should contact the USDA TARGET Center at (202) 720-2600 (voice and text telephone (TTY)) or dial 711 for Telecommunications Relay Service (both voice and text telephone users can initiate this call from any telephone).
                        </P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                    <P>The Food, Conservation, and Energy Act of 2008 (2008 Farm Bill (Pub. L. 110-246)), § 2709, (16 U.S.C. 3845) authorizes the Secretary of Agriculture to establish technical guidelines that outline science-based methods to measure the environmental services benefits from conservation and land management activities to facilitate the participation of farm producers, ranchers, and forest landowners in emerging environmental services markets and to give priority to the establishment of guidelines related to farmer, rancher, and forest landowner participation in carbon markets. It further directs the Secretary to establish verification guidelines, including the role of third parties in conducting independent verification of farming practices used for environmental services markets and other functions. Regulations to implement the programs of Chapter 58 of Title 16 of the U.S. Code, as specified in 16 U.S.C. 3846, and the administration of those programs are to be made as an interim rule effective on publication, with an opportunity for notice and comment.</P>
                    <P>Pursuant to the authority, USDA is issuing this final rule to revise guidelines established by a prior interim rule (90 FR 5497-5519, Docket No. USDA-2024-0003, referred to below as the January 2025 interim rule) for the quantification, reporting, and verification of greenhouse gas (GHG) reduction benefits resulting from implementation of low-carbon practices in the production of commodities that are used as biofuel feedstocks in the context of environmental services markets. Low-carbon practices are agricultural management practices, systems, and technologies that have been demonstrated to generally reduce GHG emissions or increase soil carbon sequestration. Greater adoption of low-carbon practices could lower overall GHG emissions associated with biofuel production and provide other environmental benefits, such as improved water quality and soil health.</P>
                    <P>These technical guidelines are intended to support reduced-CI biofuels production. USDA's authority allows for the establishment of guidelines related to emerging environmental services markets. At this time, the biofuel market represents a clear market opportunity for agricultural commodities produced with a reduced CI. Producing a carbon offset is a different policy context that would require a different set of standards. These guidelines do not constitute a carbon offset protocol.</P>
                    <P>The net GHG emissions associated with a defined set of low-carbon practices and nutrient application rates are quantified as explained below in the Methodology for Calculating Carbon Intensities used in USDA Feedstock Carbon Intensity Calculator (USDA FD-CIC) section.</P>
                    <P>In order to assess emissions associated with crop feedstocks, Argonne National Laboratory (ANL) developed the original version of the Feedstock Carbon Intensity Calculator (FD-CIC) as a research and development tool. For the purposes of this rule, USDA developed USDA FD-CIC, which builds on and updates ANL's FD-CIC according to the methodology below.</P>
                    <P>
                        Crop production generates GHG emissions, including nitrous oxide (N
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        O) emissions resulting from fertilizer use and potentially changes in soil carbon flux as a result of tillage, as well as emissions from on-farm fuel use for field operations. When these crops are used as feedstocks to produce biofuels, the GHG emissions associated with their production contribute a significant percentage of the overall GHG emissions associated with crop-based biofuel production. For instance, feedstock crop production emissions account for over 50 percent of the direct emissions (not including land use change or other market-mediated effects) from producing corn ethanol and approximately half of the direct emissions from producing soybean biodiesel. The GHG emissions associated with feedstock crop production can be reduced through low-carbon practices and nutrient management, in turn reducing the lifecycle GHG emissions associated with biofuel production. To date, most existing programs have relied on assumptions about average or typical farming practices to estimate emissions associated with biofuel feedstock production. To capture the effects of low-carbon agriculture practices on net GHG emissions, and to quantify net GHG emissions reductions specifically attributed to those feedstocks grown with low-carbon agriculture practices, USDA developed the January 2025 interim rule to establish technical guidelines for reduced-CI crops used as biofuel feedstocks. This final rule allows for the differentiation and quantification of CIs associated with the production of reduced-CI crops used as biofuel feedstocks, through the use of USDA FD-CIC.
                    </P>
                    <P>USDA took public comment on the January 2025 interim rule for 60 days, ending March 18, 2025. USDA received 114 comments by the close of the comment period. The top sources of comments were from farmers/farms (19), fuels industry groups (19), crop commodity/farm groups (18), agricultural industry (12), </P>
                    <PRTPAGE P="39335"/>
                    <FP>environmental groups (12), and private citizens (10). Other groups submitting comments included academia, private companies, advocacy organizations, organizations involved in carbon markets, one international government, and anonymous commenters. The comments received are categorized and summarized by topic below.</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Methodology for Calculating Carbon Intensities Used in USDA FD-CIC</HD>
                    <P>This section explains the methodology that is used to calculate values included in USDA FD-CIC. Over the past year, USDA has worked with academic institutions and experts to develop USDA FD-CIC, which provides users with a crop-specific, per-bushel CI associated with biofuel feedstock crops using one or more low-carbon practices.</P>
                    <P>
                        In general, USDA FD-CIC quantifies the CI (in CO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        e emissions per bushel) of four domestic feedstock crops (field corn, soybeans, sorghum, and spring canola) based on user-supplied nutrient management data and user-supplied checklists of low-carbon practices. The calculated CI does not include impacts of land use change or other market-mediated effects. USDA FD-CIC is separate and distinct from methodologies specific to other programs or incentives and the values calculated by USDA FD-CIC may not be representative of values generated by or applicable to other program- or incentive-specific methodologies. The USDA FD-CIC feedstock CI estimates reflect nutrient management practices as well as the adoption of specified low-carbon practices. Nutrient management and low-carbon practices may lead to changes in:
                    </P>
                    <P>• soil organic carbon (SOC) storage,</P>
                    <P>
                        • direct and indirect N
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        O emissions,
                    </P>
                    <P>• upstream emissions from fertilizer production, and</P>
                    <P>
                        • carbon dioxide (CO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        ) and upstream GHG emissions from on-farm energy consumption.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The effectiveness of nutrient management and low-carbon practices in reducing the CI of feedstocks varies by region. The underlying analysis was conducted using the USDA Natural Resource Conservation Service's (NRCS) Major Land Resource Areas (MLRAs). The U.S. has 278 MLRAs, each with its own unique soil and growing conditions. MLRAs generally do not follow state or county lines. USDA FD-CIC estimates feedstock CIs based on user location, user supplied nutrient management information, and, if applicable, the impact of one or more low-carbon practices. Impacts of low-carbon practices on SOC and N
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        O represent MLRA averages mapped to U.S. counties.
                    </P>
                    <P>The impacts of soil health practices on soil organic carbon are quantified based on a 30-year modeling timeframe, where rotations of practices are modeled over 30 years on individual fields. Rotations of practices are modeled on a 30-year timeframe in order to adequately capture weather variability. To reflect the potential for reversals in adoption of no-till, the no-till practice is simulated using four years of no-till and one year of tillage, repeated for 30 years. Impacts are then divided by 30 to provide a one-year estimate of SOC change under that practice. These estimates may over or under estimate SOC change in any given year of participation in a program. While the simulation modeling reflects the potential for short-term reversion to more intensive tillage and the resulting SOC impacts, the estimate does not attempt to estimate the SOC impacts that could arise from long-term changes in land-use or disadoption of the practice over time.</P>
                    <P>
                        DayCent, the model used to generate values in USDA FD-CIC, is one of the world's most well-known and rigorously peer reviewed biogeochemical models, extensively vetted across several decades for use in scientific research and policy applications. Further, the methods used by DayCent to estimate changes in soil carbon and nitrous oxide emissions were also published in USDA's Quantifying Greenhouse Gas Fluxes in Agriculture and Forestry: Methods for Entity-Scale Inventory.
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The second edition of the USDA entity-scale methods report, published in 2024, went through an extensive public, scientific, and interagency peer-review process which adhered to the U.S. Office of Management and Budget (OMB) guidelines “Final Information Quality bulletin for Peer Review,” which was published on January 14, 2005 (70 FR 2664-2677), and this document has been designated by OMB as a highly influential scientific assessment. The methods for quantifying changes in soil carbon stocks and N
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        O emissions from agricultural soils are described in USDA FD-CIC documentation.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             See 
                            <E T="03">https://www.usda.gov/about-usda/general-information/staff-offices/office-chief-economist/office-energy-and-environmental-policy/climate-change/greenhouse-gas-inventory-and-assessment-program/quantifying-greenhouse-gas-fluxes-methods-entity-scale-inventory.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>USDA provided the public with early access to the beta version of USDA FD-CIC in January 2025 as part of the interim final rule comment process, allowing the public to evaluate the methodology and provide feedback that USDA could use to inform improvements to the final, operative version of USDA FD-CIC. In response to public feedback, USDA has made several changes to the methodology, which include expanding the number of feedstocks and management practices, and developing a new functionality that allows users to directly input field-specific nitrogen application and yield information as part of the CI calculation.</P>
                    <P>
                        USDA will shortly publish USDA FD-CIC on its website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.usda.gov/usda-fdcic</E>
                         for public use along with a user guide, full methodology documents, and peer review report.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Comments and Changes</HD>
                    <P>This final rule responds to the comments received by the public comment deadline and makes clarifying and related changes.</P>
                    <P>A high-level summary of changes made to each subpart of the rule are below followed by a more detailed summary of comments and responses by topics.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Changes to Subpart A: General Provisions</HD>
                    <P>The final rule makes changes to the stated purpose to clarify that the rule is intended to support the quantification, reporting, and verification of carbon intensity.</P>
                    <P>This final rule updates the definitions in 7 CFR 2100.002 to remove the terms “climate smart agriculture (CSA) crop,” and “climate smart agriculture (CSA) practices.” Instead, the rule now defines “low-carbon agriculture (low-carbon) practices” and modifies the definition of “reduced-carbon intensity (reduced-CI) crop” to reflect updated terminology and to be more precise in specifying the CI of biofuel feedstock crops. Additionally, this final rule removes the term “Soil Tillage Intensity Rating (STIR)” and defines “Tillage Disturbance Index for Soil Carbon (T-DISC)” to reflect a change from using STIR as a measure of tillage focused on soil erosion to T-DISC as a measure of disturbance and potential for soil carbon loss to better align with what was modeled to develop USDA FD-CIC.</P>
                    <P>In addition, this final rule adds several definitions in response to public comment. These definitions include “spring canola,” as spring canola was added as an eligible feedstock in response to comments. This final rule now defines “manure,” which is included as a source of nitrogen that is accounted for in USDA FD-CIC.</P>
                    <P>
                        This final rule also modifies several definitions to clarify and align with the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39336"/>
                        updated requirements as requested by commenters. For example, the updated definition of “Agricultural Expert” now clarifies that Agricultural Experts must be approved by the Federal Crop Insurance Corporation. In addition, the definition of “conventional crop” was updated to reflect the change in terminology from “climate-smart” to “low-carbon.” The definition of “crop interval” was updated to clarify that the covered time period includes the production of a cover crop. The definition of “management unit” was updated to clarify that fields in a management unit must include the same management. The definition of “reduced-carbon intensity (reduced-CI) processed product” was updated to clarify that it refers to products derived from reduced-CI crops between the farm and first biofuel refiner used for the production of biofuel. The definition of “intensive tillage,” “no-till,” and “reduced till” were updated to reflect a change from using STIR as a measure of tillage focused on soil erosion to T-DISC as a measure of disturbance and potential for soil carbon loss.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Changes to Subpart B: Applicability</HD>
                    <P>In response to public comment, this final rule includes spring canola as defined in subpart B in § 2100.011 for which a reduced-CI could be quantified using USDA FD-CIC. Spring canola is a prominent biofuel feedstock and is designated by the USDA National Agricultural Statistics Service (NASS) as a principal crop with millions of acres of annual production in the United States. In addition, USDA was able to model the impact of low-carbon agriculture practices on spring canola production, given sufficient data available.</P>
                    <P>This final rule updates terminology, replacing “climate smart agriculture (CSA),” with “low-carbon” and “reduced carbon-intensity” to define practices which reduce GHG emissions relative to a business-as-usual baseline, and crops produced using those practices. Crops produced using certain low-carbon practices are referred to as reduced-CI crops and are defined in § 2100.011. Crops produced without the use of low-carbon practices are referred to as conventional crops. Reduced-CI crops generally have a reduced CI compared to a conventional crop of the same type and produced in the same location. Depending on the specific crop being produced, reduced-CI crops defined in this rule are grown using either nutrient management or nutrient management with one or more of the following practices: no-till, reduced till, and cover crops.</P>
                    <P>In response to public comment, this final rule alters the approach to nutrient management, moving to a nitrogen use efficiency (NUE) approach. Previously, specific nutrient management practices were included in USDA FD-CIC (for example, split-application of nitrogen, and shifting from fall to spring application of nitrogen), and assumptions were made about the implications of those practices for nitrogen application and the resulting GHG changes. Instead, this final rule requires USDA FD-CIC users to input their actual nitrogen applied per year, in addition to their actual and expected yield, in order to more precisely capture the impacts of nitrogen management on nitrogen application, without specifying particular practices, and on the resulting GHG emissions estimates. Commenters requested this change to allow for both a more accurate estimate of the GHG emissions resulting from nutrient management, and to allow flexibility in which nutrient management practices were applied. In addition, where the nutrient management practices were optional in the interim rule, all participants are now required to enter their nitrogen applied, actual, and expected yield, in order for these factors to contribute to the final CI score associated with a given field or management unit. Since this calculation is implicit in every CI score awarded to a participating field or management unit, implementation requirements, recordkeeping requirements, and verification requirements associated with nutrient management apply to every farm producer utilizing this rule.</P>
                    <P>In addition to the revised nitrogen approach, this final rule also allows for the application of nitrification inhibitors and manure as nutrient management practices in response to public comment. Commenters requested the addition of these practices, as they are commonly used in nutrient management strategies. Accounting for these impacts in USDA FD-CIC allows for a more location and practice-specific estimate of biofuel feedstock CI, while also providing additional implementation flexibility for farm producers. USDA FD-CIC users now specify the fraction of nitrogen applied using nitrification inhibitors, allowing for flexibility in how inhibitors are applied. USDA FD-CIC users also specify the source and type of manure applied (if applicable). Each of these nutrient management practices contribute to biofuel feedstock crops' CI score.</P>
                    <P>This final rule also maintains the ability for farm producers to implement low-carbon agriculture practices toward the CI score of biofuel feedstock crops, including no-till, reduced tillage, and cover crops. These practices were chosen because they can be used in the production of field corn, soybeans, sorghum, and spring canola and because scientific evidence demonstrates their effectiveness at reducing GHG emissions or sequestering additional carbon. This rule only includes practices which are used on-field and excludes those practices that occur on field edges or farm borders, in order to associate emissions reductions with the production of commodities on a per acre or per output (for example, bushels) basis.</P>
                    <P>In response to public comments, this final rule accounts for reduced-CI crops at the field scale rather than the farm scale. This allows for more specific accounting of reduced-CI crops, where farm producers may wish to produce reduced-CI crops on specific fields or management units rather than creating one average CI for the entire farm.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Changes to Subpart C: Quantification of Field-Level Crop-Specific Carbon Intensity</HD>
                    <P>This rule establishes voluntary technical guidelines for quantifying CIs of biofuel feedstocks. CIs are quantified for a specific crop at the field or management unit level on an annual basis.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Example 1: A Farm (Farm A) With One Relevant Biofuel Feedstock Crop and Multiple Fields</HD>
                    <P>Consider a farm that grows only corn harvested in 2025 and has 5 fields. Field 1 does not implement any low-carbon practices. Field 2 and 5 both implement no-till, cover crops, and apply the same nutrient management practices (same amount and type of N applied per acre). Field 3 and 4 both implement no-till and cover crops, but Field 3 adds a nitrification inhibitor and Field 4 does not. Farm A would calculate 4 CIs: one CI for Field 1, one CI for Field 2 and 5, one CI for Field 3, and one CI for Field 4. Fields 2 and 5 would be able to calculate one CI score because it falls under the definition of a management unit and would input into USDA FD-CIC the average yield per acre across both fields.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Example 2: A Farm (Farm B) With Multiple Biofuel Feedstock Crops and Uniform Management Practices</HD>
                    <P>
                        Consider a farm that grows corn and soybeans harvested in 2025. All fields growing corn utilize the same management practices and all fields growing soybeans utilize the same 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39337"/>
                        management practices. All fields growing corn would be considered one management unit and could be entered into USDA FD-CIC as one management unit and all fields growing soybeans would also be considered one management unit. Farm B would have 2 CIs: one CI for all soybeans and one CI for all corn.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Example 3: A Farm (Farm C) With a Double Crop of a Biofuel Feedstock Crop and a Non-Feedstock Crop and Varied Management Practices</HD>
                    <P>Consider a farm that plants sorghum following winter wheat, with all fields using the same rotation but with different management practices. The sorghum crop is an eligible feedstock in USDA FD-CIC while wheat is not an eligible feedstock, nor a cover crop as it was harvested. All fields growing sorghum would be considered one management unit and could be entered into USDA FD-CIC as one management unit. Farm C would have one CI for all its sorghum. Farm C must enter all forms of applied synthetic nitrogen and manure nitrogen applied across the entire sorghum crop interval when calculating the CI of its sorghum. Further, Farm C must select the tillage scenario that is associated with the highest T-DISC value across the crop interval. The emissions effects of the double-cropped system will be reflected in the yield and nitrogen application rates for the sorghum crop. The estimates of soil organic carbon stock changes for biofuel crops were developed assuming that some acres were double-cropped.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Example 4: A Farm (Farm D) With a Double Crop of Biofuel Feedstock Crops and Uniform Management Practices</HD>
                    <P>
                        Consider a farm that plants soy after corn in the same growing season, with all fields using the same rotation and management practices, including the same tillage intensity on both corn and soy crop intervals. Both corn and soy are eligible feedstocks in USDA FD-CIC. All double-cropped acres would include two crop intervals in a year, one for corn and another for soy, that extend from the harvest of the prior crop through harvest of the subsequent crop. Farm D would have one CI for all its corn and another CI for all its soybeans. The emissions effects of the double-cropped system will be reflected in the yield and nitrogen application rates for both the corn and soybean crops. All nitrogen applied during cultivation of an individual feedstock crop (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         corn) should be attributed to that feedstock crop. Nitrogen applied during the crop interval of the subsequent feedstock crop, including nitrogen applied after harvest of the previous feedstock crop and before planting of the subsequent feedstock crop, should be attributed to the subsequent crop that is planted. If a cover crop is grown during the winter preceding the spring planting year, the benefits of the cover crop would be accounted for by the first crop in the spring season—in this case, corn. The following soy crop does not have a cover crop in its crop interval and can not claim the benefits of a cover crop. In general, double-cropped corn-soy would be expected to yield less of each crop than a single-crop system but would be expected to yield more biomass per acre than the single-crop system.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Example 5: A Farm (Farm E) With a Double Crop of Biofuel Feedstock Crops and Varied Tillage Practices Across Crops</HD>
                    <P>Consider a farm that plants soy after corn in the same growing season, with all fields using the same rotation and management practices but with reduced till on corn and no-till on soy. Similar to Farm D, Farm E would have one CI for all its corn and another CI for all its soybeans. However, if a feedstock crop claims a no-till practice, the rule requires that the entire rotation use a no-till practice. Therefore, Farm D may not claim no-till for its corn or soy production but would claim reduced till on production of each.</P>
                    <P>
                        This rule outlines the steps to quantify a field-level crop-specific CI. CIs for feedstocks eligible in this rule are quantified using USDA FD-CIC. To quantify CIs for eligible crops under this rule, a farm producer must input field-level management information into USDA FD-CIC. This rule updates inputs required for USDA FD-CIC based on the revised approach described above. Necessary input information includes farm location (county and state); crop type produced; total field or management unit acres; nitrogen application (including synthetic fertilizer, use of a nitrification inhibitor, and application of manure; yield information; nitrification inhibitor usage; the use of low-carbon practices, such as no-till or reduced till; and use of a cover crop. USDA also updated language in the final rule to require that the actual yield be adjusted to standard moisture contents (15.5% for field corn, 13% for soybeans, 14% for sorghum, and 8.5% for spring canola). USDA FD-CIC output is a field-level CI for the crop produced using the specified practices at the farm location. When assigning multiple CIs for eligible biofuel feedstock crops grown on different management units or fields with different management scenarios, this step must be repeated for each field or management unit. Further information on USDA FD-CIC, information requirements and how it is used can be found here: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.usda.gov/usda-fdcic.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Changes to Subpart D: Chain of Custody Standards</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">General Recordkeeping and Reporting Standards</HD>
                    <P>In response to public comment, and to clarify recordkeeping associated with participation in markets for reduced-CI biofuels in addition to other sustainability programs, this final rule modifies recordkeeping and reporting standards.</P>
                    <P>
                        The final rule requires that entities participating in multiple sustainability certification programs must now provide a third-party verifier with documentation related to their participation in those programs, in addition to programs associated with reduced-CI feedstocks, in order to ensure that environmental benefits (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         GHG emissions reductions) are not accounted for in multiple programs. This provides certainty that the environmental benefits associated with the practices are transferred with the crop and cannot be sold into other markets. This update ensures the integrity of the market for reduced-CI feedstock, where the CI benefits must remain associated with the feedstock.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Farm Recordkeeping and Reporting Standards</HD>
                    <P>
                        This final rule updates farm-level recordkeeping and reporting standards to reflect changes in how USDA FD-CIC calculates a feedstock's CI using applied nitrogen and yield. In particular, these changes necessitate additional farm-level recordkeeping requirements documenting expected yield and requiring an attestation under penalty of perjury in the Biofuel Feedstock Report. For farm producers who purchase crop insurance covering the reduced-CI feedstock crop during the current crop interval, farm producers must maintain records demonstrating the expected yield used as part of their crop insurance policy. For farm producers who do not purchase crop insurance, farm producers must maintain records demonstrating the appropriate transitional yield 
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         as published by 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39338"/>
                        USDA Risk Management Agency (RMA) (for example, screenshots or printouts from the RMA tool utilized to determine the transitional yield) or the appropriate Agriculture Risk Coverage (ARC)-County Benchmark yield 
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         published by the USDA Farm Services Agency (FSA).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             USDA RMA Insurance Offer Transitional Yields/Revenues, 
                            <E T="03">https://webapp.rma.usda.gov/apps/RIRS/InsuranceOfferTransitionalYieldsRevenues.aspx.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             USDA FSA Agriculture Risk Coverage (ARC) &amp; Price Loss Coverage (PLC) Data, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fsa.usda.gov/resources/programs/arc-plc/program-data.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In addition, this rule updates recordkeeping requirements for farm producers to ensure that nutrient management practices are implemented in accordance with subpart G, related to the application of nitrogen and manure. The final rule also requires farm producers to provide records on moisture content of the reduced-CI crop and be able to provide records demonstrating that the actual yield input into USDA FD-CIC is adjusted to the moisture content stated in the rule.</P>
                    <P>This final rule updates requirements to chain of custody and verification standards for first points of aggregation and intermediary entities; entities that process, sell, or purchase processed products derived from reduced-CI crops; mass balance recordkeeping standards; and biofuel refiner recordkeeping standards. For example, this final rule requires that the moisture content of low-CI crops be documented to ensure that low-CI crop yields are properly adjusted to standard moisture content. It also requires the Biofuel Feedstock Report to be passed through the entire supply chain, ending at the biofuel refiner, to assist in recordkeeping for low-CI crops. In addition, the attestation required by the first point of aggregation and intermediary entities must now be signed under penalty of perjury. Finally, this rule specifies that mass balance equations must be completed using dry weights.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Changes to Subpart E: Audits and Verification</HD>
                    <P>This final rule updates requirements in § 2100.040 to direct verifiers to verify that the actual yield and expected yield used for the quantification of CI is accurate to reflect changes to this rule related to the move to field-level CI scores and updated inputs required for USDA FD-CIC based on public comments. A more comprehensive summary of public comments related to this are in the Summary of Comments below. Additionally, this rule updates audit standards to add language about entities participating in multiple sustainability markets in response to comments asking to clarify how this rule interacts with other sustainability markets. Any entity that participates in multiple sustainability markets must comply with additional audit standards to ensure that the amount of reduced-CI feedstock or reduced-CI processed product is not double counted and that sustainability characteristics have not been claimed in multiple markets. A more comprehensive summary of public comments related to this are in the Summary of Comments below. Additionally, language on how the third-party verifier selects farms as part of a sample was updated for clarity.</P>
                    <P>
                        The final rule updates third-party verifier requirements in § 2100.041 to include that a third-party verifier should not have conflicts of interest and also requires that the verification team include an Agricultural Expert. USDA defines Agricultural Expert to align with RMA's crop insurance program requirements for Approved Agricultural Experts as defined in the Good Farming Practice Determination Standards Handbook.
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             See USDA RMA, 
                            <E T="03">Good Farming Practice Determination Standards Handbook,</E>
                             November 2023, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.rma.usda.gov/sites/default/files/topics/2024-14060-Good-Farming-Practice-Determination-Standards.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Changes to Subpart F: Low-Carbon Agriculture Practice Standards</HD>
                    <P>The final rule removes nutrient management from this subpart and moves these requirements into a separate subpart to reflect changes to this rule related to changing from a nutrient management practice-based approach to a revised approach that allows farm producers to specify their nitrogen use based on public comment.</P>
                    <P>In addition to specifying the implementation standards for each low-carbon practice, this rule also establishes recordkeeping standards for each low-carbon practice. Required records are necessary to provide evidence that farm producers implemented low-carbon practices according to the rule. Records must be retained for five years and made available to third-party verifiers to conduct audits. The rule, in some cases, does not specify the type or origin of required records; instead, the rule lists examples of record types such as physical documentation (for example, paper forms, invoices, receipts, seed tags), digital files (including from farm management software), data generated by farm equipment (for example, precision agriculture equipment), remote sensing data, georeferenced and timestamped photographs, and data and records used for participation in USDA programs. The range of allowable record options is designed to increase flexibility and minimize the transaction costs for farm producers, who may already maintain various types of records depending on their preferences, participation in government or private programs, or previous low-carbon practice implementation. However, the records must be sufficient for the third-party verifier to verify compliance with the relevant practice standard for the specified time period.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Low-Carbon Agriculture Practice Standards: Tillage Management</HD>
                    <P>
                        The practice of reduced till manages the amount, orientation, and distribution of crop and other plant residue on the soil surface year-round while reducing the frequency and intensity of soil disturbing activities used to grow and harvest crops in systems where the field surface is tilled prior to planting. The final rule changes the requirements for reduced till and no-till to reflect a T-DISC rating rather than a STIR rating. This change was made to better align the practice requirements for reduced till and no-till with the quantification of tillage impact used in the DayCent model used to develop USDA FD-CIC. The T-DISC rating may be obtained by using USDA's T-DISC calculator or a similar tool using USDA's T-DISC methodology and underlying parameters which produces results equivalent to those produced by USDA's T-DISC calculator. USDA will publish on its website 
                        <E T="03">https://www.usda.gov/t-disc</E>
                         the T-DISC calculator for public use with a user guide.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The practice of reduced till increases SOC as a result of decreased soil disturbance and can impact N
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        O emissions due to changes in the soil environment, when compared to intensive till.
                        <SU>5</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To qualify as reduced tillage under this rule, field(s) or management unit(s) are permitted to use tillage methods where the entire soil surface is disturbed by tillage operations such as chisel plowing, field cultivating, tandem disking, vertical tillage, or ridge tillage, provided that the T-DISC value of the tillage system is no greater than 0.252.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             See USDA NRCS, 
                            <E T="03">Conservation Practice Standard Residue and Tillage Management, Reduced Till,</E>
                             September 2016, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.nrcs.usda.gov/sites/default/files/2022-09/Residue_And_Tillage_Management_Reduced_Till_345_CPS.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            See also: NRCS, 
                            <E T="03">Conservation Practices and Greenhouse Gas Mitigation Information dashboard, https://publicdashboards.dl.usda.gov/t/FPAC_PUB/views/NRCSConservationPracticesandGreenhouseGasMitigation/MitigationSummaries?%3Aembed=y&amp;%3AisGuestRedirectFromVizportal=y#3.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="39339"/>
                    <P>
                        The residue and tillage management practice of no-till limits soil disturbance to manage the amount, orientation and distribution of crop and plant residue on the soil surface year-round. The practice of no-till increases SOC as a result of decreased soil disturbance and decreases N
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        O emissions due to changes in the soil environment when compared to both reduced till and conventional till.
                        <SU>6</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             See USDA NRCS, 
                            <E T="03">Conservation Practice Standard Residue and Tillage Management, No Till,</E>
                             September 2016, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.nrcs.usda.gov/sites/default/files/2022-09/Residue_And_Tillage_Management_No_Till_329_CPS_0.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            See also 
                            <E T="03">NRCS Conservation Practices and Greenhouse Gas Mitigation Information dashboard. https://publicdashboards.dl.usda.gov/t/FPAC_PUB/views/NRCSConservationPracticesandGreenhouseGasMitigation/MitigationSummaries?%3Aembed=y&amp;%3AisGuestRedirectFromVizportal=y#3.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>To be considered as no-till under this rule, full-width soil disturbance must not be performed, from the time immediately following harvest or termination of one cash crop through harvest or termination of the next cash crop in the rotation, regardless of the depth of the tillage operation. Strip tillage and fertilizer injection are permitted, provided that the T-DISC value of the tillage system is no greater than 0.075.</P>
                    <P>This final rule updates language in § 2100.051 to clarify that residue must not be harvested and clarify language related to removing residue from the crop planting row based on public comment requesting clarification. Additionally, language is updated to clarify that records must be kept for five years. A requirement to indicate the total bushels produced was removed. This is because this requirement was related to the farm-level weighted average CI that was proposed in the interim final rule, which is updated to a field-level CI in the final rule based on public comment.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Low-Carbon Agriculture Practice Standards: Cover Crop Management</HD>
                    <P>This final rule updates requirements to allow for grazing of cover crops and to remove the requirement that cover crops may not be fertilized based on public comment. Additionally, language was edited to clarify that records must be kept for five years and to add a record requirement if grazing cover crops. Additionally, remote video conferencing was removed as a way to verify establishment of cover crops.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Addition of Subpart G: Nutrient Management Standards</HD>
                    <P>As described in the Summary of Changes to Subpart B: Applicability, the final rule alters the approach to nutrient management and moves from a practice-based nutrient management approach to a revised approach that allows farm producers to specify nutrient applications. As a result, this final rule removes the section in subpart F on nutrient management standards and creates subpart G to contain the updated standards. This subpart outlines: general nutrient management standards that must be followed for all fields or management units producing reduced-CI crop; the requirements for any fields or management units using nitrification inhibitors or applying manure; recordkeeping requirements; and verification requirements.</P>
                    <P>
                        Every field or management unit that participates in this program and quantifies a CI score using USDA FD-CIC must follow the nutrient management standards in subpart G. For each field or management unit, the farm producer must develop and document a planned nutrient budget, yield goal, and applications of nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium (N-P-K) in pounds per acre prior to implementation. The nutrient budget must account for all known measurable sources and removals of N-P-K. The farm producer must base the nutrient budget on current soil test results or the professional opinion of an Agricultural Expert who is employed by the Cooperative Extension System or the agricultural departments of universities, or other persons approved by the Federal Crop Insurance Corporation (FCIC),
                        <SU>7</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         whose research or occupation is related to the specific crop or practice for which such expertise is sought. If employing an Agricultural Expert, the Agricultural Expert must not have conflicts of interest or relationship with the farm producer seeking the Agricultural Expert's services.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             See USDA RMA, 
                            <E T="03">Good Farming Practice Determination Standards Handbook, https://www.rma.usda.gov/sites/default/files/2024-12/2025-14060-Good-Farming-Practice-Determination-Standards.pdf</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Nitrification Inhibitor Standards</HD>
                    <P>
                        A nitrification inhibitor is a chemical compound that slows down the conversion of ammonia to nitrate in soil, a process called nitrification. Nitrification inhibitors are added to fertilizers and can help reduce N
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        O emissions.
                        <SU>8</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To include the use of nitrification inhibitors in the calculation of the carbon-intensity of the reduced-CI crop, nitrification inhibitors must be defined by the Association of American Plant Food Control Officers (AAPFCO) and be accepted for use by the State fertilizer control official, or similar authority, with responsibility for verification of product guarantees, ingredients (by AAPFCO definition) and label claims.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>8</SU>
                             See Li T, Zhang W et al., 
                            <E T="03">Enhanced-efficiency fertilizers are not a panacea for resolving the nitrogen problem,</E>
                             Glob Chang Biol, Feb 2018 Feb, 24(2):e511-e521, doi: 10.1111/gcb.13918. Epub 2017 Nov 2. PMID: 28973790. See also: ICF International. 
                            <E T="03">Greenhouse Gas Mitigation Options and Costs for Agricultural Land and Animal Production within the United States.</E>
                             Prepared for USDA Climate Change Program Office, February 2013. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.usda.gov/sites/default/files/documents/GHG_Mitigation_Options.pdf</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Manure Application Standards</HD>
                    <P>Farm producers applying solid or liquid manure may not exceed application rates stated in their nutrient budget and also must get a manure test for each type of manure applied. The manure test must be collected during the current crop interval and provide information on nitrogen and phosphorus content of the manure.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Nutrient Management Recordkeeping Standards</HD>
                    <P>The following records must be maintained related to nutrient management:</P>
                    <P>• details on the source and type of nutrients applied;</P>
                    <P>• date, method, and location of nutrient applications;</P>
                    <P>• planting-seeding date for each field or management unit where reduced-CI crop was produced; and</P>
                    <P>• the total acreage within each field or management unit where the reduced-CI crop was produced.</P>
                    <P>Additionally, the producer must provide a nutrient budget that demonstrates all crop nutrient needs for N-P-K, which may include a soil test dated within 2 years of the development of the nutrient budget or professional opinion of an Agricultural Expert who is employed by the Cooperative Extension System or the agricultural departments of universities, or other persons approved by the FCIC, whose research or occupation is related to the specific crop or practice for which such expertise is sought. Given that nutrient needs vary greatly across crops, fields, and management units, a tailored nutrient budget is necessary to assess the nutrient needs of each crop grown on each field. Evaluation of the nutrient budget can inform the crop-specific and geography-specific rates and types of nutrient management that may result in a GHG benefit.</P>
                    <P>For farm producers applying manure, they must maintain records for each type of manure applied including:</P>
                    <P>
                        • the date of the sample taken for the manure test, the animal waste type, and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39340"/>
                        the location of the sample taken (for example, waste storage pond, collected during irrigation or application, separated solids stack, barn compost at cleanout, etc.);
                    </P>
                    <P>• results of the manure test; and</P>
                    <P>• records demonstrating the amount of manure applied.</P>
                    <P>The records required to be kept for manure are to help a verifier verify that the amount of manure applied and input for quantification purposes is aligned with how much manure is either acquired or produced on farm. For manure originating from outside the farm, receipts demonstrating either the sale of manure or payment to take manure that document the date, quantity, type, and location of the manure source are required. For manure produced on the same operation, records must demonstrate the number of animals producing the manure. For farms that participate in a livestock insurance program, insurance records with the number of head or flock size are required. These livestock insurance programs can include, but are not limited to, the Livestock Risk Program (LRP), Livestock Gross Margin (LGM), or Dairy Revenue Protection (DRP). For farms that do not participate in a livestock insurance program, records must demonstrate the number of livestock head on the operation that year. These include records such as receipts of livestock or livestock products sold, permits demonstrating the number of livestock on the operation, or program enrollment documents.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Nutrient Management Verification</HD>
                    <P>When auditing nutrient management implementation, a verifier must verify that the development of a nutrient budget accounts for all known nutrient sources, that the nutrient budget was developed based on soil test or professional opinion of an Agricultural Expert, and that nutrient application and yield matches the Biofuel Feedstock Report. A verifier must also verify that any additional nitrification inhibitor or manure requirements were followed when relevant.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Comments</HD>
                    <P>The interim rule 60-day comment period ended March 18, 2025. USDA received 114 comments in response to the rule. USDA reviewed these 114 comments and categorized and summarized them according to the topics identified below. The topics that generated the greatest response were on qualifying practices, qualifying feedstocks, quantification, soil carbon and baseline, verifier qualification, and general comments. The comments have been organized in alphabetic order within each topic. The topics include:</P>
                    <P>• Qualifying Practices—Conservation Crop Rotation, Conservation Land Management, Consideration of Non-GHG Benefits, Cover Crop Implementation, Enhanced Efficiency Fertilizer and Biofertilizer, Manure, No-Till Implementation, Practice Clarification, Process for Adding More Practices, Reduced Nitrogen Rate, Soil Amendments, Split and Fall Fertilizer Application Implementation;</P>
                    <P>• Qualifying Feedstocks—Additional Feedstocks, Intermediate Oilseeds, Millet, Process for Adding More Feedstocks, Spring Canola;</P>
                    <P>• Quantification—Data Gaps, Model Selection and Evaluation, Regional Variability, Scale, USDA FD-CIC, USDA Programs;</P>
                    <P>• Soil Carbon and Baseline—Baseline, Soil Carbon Time Scale, Permanence, and Quantification;</P>
                    <P>• Verification and Recordkeeping—Align Standards with Existing Programs, Book and Claim/Mass Balance, Data Privacy and Transparency, Recordkeeping Clarification, Reduce Recordkeeping Burdens on Producers, Verification of Nitrogen Rate Reduction; Verifier Qualifications/Accreditation Requirements—Third Party Verifications/Accreditation Requirements, Verification Capacity, and;</P>
                    <P>• General Comments—Cost to Producers, Environmental Tradeoffs and Impacts on GHGs, Equitable Access for Producers, Regulatory Impact Analysis (RIA) and Costs and Benefits, Scientific Basis/Rigor, Supportive Comments.</P>
                    <P>This final rule responds to the comments received by the public comment deadline and makes clarifying and related changes. In addition to the general summary of changes and comments above, a detailed summary of comments and responses is included below.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Comments on Qualifying Practices</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Conservation Crop Rotation</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment in support of adding conservation crop rotations (CCR) as a qualifying practice in the rule. Comments highlighted a wide range of conservation benefits associated with CCR including expanding eligibility to new crops. Comments also referenced either utilizing or modifying NRCS 238 as a model for designing a CCR practice for the use of this rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates comments and feedback regarding the addition of the conservation crop rotation practice and acknowledges that there are conservation benefits resulting from this practice. USDA may consider adding the conservation crop rotation practice in the future. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment stating that additional research is still needed to determine the benefits of CCR, should CCR be included in the future. The commenter stated that limited replicated field studies with sufficient statistical power exist to determine the lifecycle GHG emissions associated with these practices and recommended USDA consider emerging research on how CCR can impact yields.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA agrees that additional research and data are needed to quantify the potential CI benefits associated with the adoption of conservation crop rotation. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Conservation Land Management</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment advocating for the inclusion of various conservation land management practices in the final rule including: agroforestry, buffers, grassland and wetland management, prairie strips, integrated grazing perennials, polyculture, and permaculture. Commenters noted the environmental and carbon impact of each practice.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates comments regarding conservation land management and acknowledges that the practices listed above have conservation benefits. At present, USDA has limited the eligible agricultural management practices to on-field practices which apply to the production of the feedstocks currently included in the tool. USDA may consider adding these practices in the future. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Consideration of Non-GHG Benefits</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment stating that the practices included in this rule can have multiple environmental benefits including soil health benefits (increased SOC, soil fertility, reduced soil erosion, improved water quality and increased biodiversity), and ecosystem services.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA agrees that many of the agricultural management practices included have additional benefits beyond CI reductions. This rule is designed specifically to quantify and incentivize CI reductions associated with biofuel feedstock production. Additional requirements and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39341"/>
                        quantification methodology would be required to assess environmental benefits and costs beyond CI, which USDA may consider in the future. No changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Cover Crop Implementation</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment recommending USDA allow cover crops to be mechanically harvested and/or grazed as the method of cover crop termination to enhance net revenue as well as significantly advance soil health noting that any such limitation in cover crop management may reduce the incentive for many farm producers to adopt this beneficial practice.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates the comments and feedback regarding cover crop implementation. In response to public comment, USDA has allowed for the grazing of cover crops for additional implementation flexibility. The regulatory text has been modified at §§ 2100.052(a)(8) and 2100.052(b)(8) to address these concerns. No other changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment requesting USDA allow fertilizer application to cover cropped fields.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA understands and appreciates comments requesting fertilizer application of cover crops. The interim final rule took a practice-based approach to nitrogen management. The final rule shifts to a user-defined NUE approach which allows for the application of fertilizer on cover crops. This approach allows producers to include fertilizer application to cover crops in their total nutrient use efficiency calculation. The regulatory text has been modified at § 2100.052, in subpart C, and a subpart G has been added to address these concerns. No other changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Enhanced Efficiency Fertilizer and Biofertilizer</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment recommending the inclusion of urease inhibitors, control/slow-release fertilizers, and biostimulants in addition to nitrification inhibitors which are already included in the interim rule. Commenters also provided feedback on broadening the definition of enhanced efficiency fertilizer to include of a range of biostimulants including as seed/soil/plant inoculants, additions to liquid manure, beneficial bacteria, and fertilizers.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates comments regarding urease inhibitors, control/slow-release fertilizers, and biostimulants. USDA has taken a NUE approach for calculating the resulting CI score for nutrient management. The NUE approach allows producers to manage their own nutrient application in the way that is best for their individual operation or field regardless of practice. The tool requires users to input synthetic nitrogen applied per acre, fraction of nitrogen receiving nitrification inhibitors, nitrogen applied from manure, and yield per acre for each field, and calculates the NUE and associated N
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        O emissions based on these inputs. This approach provides flexibility for producers to use a variety of products to maximize their NUE. The regulatory text has been modified at subpart C and subpart G has been added to address these concerns. No other changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>The tool does not include variables for fraction of nitrogen receiving urease inhibitors, control/slow-release fertilizers, or biostimulants because of data and modeling constraints. Available scientific research and current modeling of non-irrigated systems does not support sufficient CI reductions to merit the inclusion of control/slow-release fertilizers in the final rule. USDA was not able to model and include urease inhibitors in the final rule. These technologies may be implemented by producers to improve NUE by facilitating the reduction of nitrogen application. No other changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment expressing concern about limited replicated field studies with sufficient statistical power to determine the GHG emissions associated with enhanced efficiency fertilizers.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         After a thorough review of current scientific research conducted of both field and lab studies and in both domestic and international settings, USDA is confident in the efficacy and GHG emissions reductions of nitrification inhibitors. Current modeling also supports GHG emissions reductions with the use of nitrification inhibitors. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment recommending the requirement of inhibitor use for fall nitrogen application while leaving in-season nitrogen application optional for inhibitor use.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates this feedback and has implemented a NUE approach. Producers can apply nitrogen at any point during the crop interval and utilize USDA FD-CIC to calculate NUE. The regulatory text has been modified at subpart C and subpart G has been added to address these concerns. No other changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Manure</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment requesting the inclusion of manure application as a qualifying practice in the final rule. Commenters mentioned the benefit of manure to both increase soil organic carbon while also avoiding emissions from synthetic fertilizer. One commenter also highlighted manure as the primary pathway for livestock producers to benefit from environmental markets for biofuel production.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates this feedback, USDA has included manure as an eligible form of nitrogen in the final version of the rule, but has not included potential soil organic carbon impacts of manure. The regulatory text has been modified to add a subpart G to address these concerns. No other changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">No-Till Implementation</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment recommending either removing the required commitment to reduce till or no-till for four out of five years, or change the required commitment to reduce till or no-till four out of five crops in a rotation. Comment stated that the requirement to commit to reduced till or no-till four out of five years is unnecessary and can result in lower adoption of no-till. The commenter also wrote that it is unclear as to how a project developer is expected to verify that the criteria are met and what potential consequences are if this requirement is not met.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates the comments and feedback regarding no-till implementation. USDA's quantification approach regarding tillage assumes reversals as a way to account for the potential loss of necessary management changes. USDA's assumptions are based on adoption rates of the majority of farm producers historically utilizing no-till or reduced till, which do reflect some level of reversals. This approach also satisfies the need to sustain the benefits of soil carbon while accounting for permanence and reversals, and is reflective of the quantification of CI. As part of maintaining a Biofuel Feedstock Report, producers are required to provide a Farm Producer Attestation that includes a declaration that when implementing no-till, the producer will continue no-till for a minimum of four out of every five years. This rule does not include any specific incentives or consequences; any such incentives or 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39342"/>
                        consequences would be determined by any policies that adopt this rule. No changes to this regulation are being made in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Practice Clarification</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment asking USDA to clarify implications of unintentional/accidental burning and urged USDA to not penalize farm producers for accidental burning that consumes residue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates this feedback and has shifted to a field-level CI quantification approach for the final rule. In the event of unintentional/accidental burning, the impact for that field will not impact the CI of other fields. The regulatory text has been modified at been modified at subpart C and §§ 2100.031 and 2100.040 to address these concerns. No other changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment requesting clarification in the final rule whether cash crop residues can be grazed.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA understands the request to graze cash crop residues; however, USDA has not modeled these impacts therefore the rule does not explicitly allow or disallow grazing of cash crop residues. No change to the regulation has been made in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment requesting clarification in the final rule whether residues may be harvested for silage or hay.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA understands the request to harvest residues for silage or hay; however, the removal of biomass is likely to have a negative impact on the CI of these practices and would need additional modeling time to determine the impacts of this practice. USDA may consider the addition of this practice in the future. No change to the regulation has been made in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment requesting USDA clarify whether the period of practice is from the harvest of the previous crop to the harvest of the low-carbon biofuel crop.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates the request for clarification; the crop interval is defined as the time immediately following harvest or termination of one cash crop through harvest or termination of the next cash crop in the rotation, including fallow periods. USDA believes that this existing definition sufficiently defines the period of practice eligibility. No change to the regulation has been made in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment requesting clarification on whether soil tests are required for the nutrient budget.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates the request for clarification. The regulatory text has been modified in subpart C and clarified in the addition of subpart G to address these concerns. No other changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment requesting greater clarity around the nutrient budget requirements, as well as how to account for legume cover crops in their nutrient budgets.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA understands the need for producers to account for legume cover crops in their nutrient budgets. Producers should consult the professional opinion of an Agricultural Expert who is employed by the Cooperative Extension System or the agricultural departments of universities, or other persons approved by the Federal Crop Insurance Corporation (FCIC), whose research or occupation is related to the specific crop or practice for which such expertise is sought. No changes are being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment asking for both clarity on practice standards and recommended USDA align practice standards with NRCS guidelines and definitions. Commenters noted that the interim rule has several sections on practice standards, some of which include NRCS recognized practices and others that do not.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates the request for clarity. This rule defines some terms based on existing USDA definitions, relying heavily on NRCS practice definitions used in existing conservation programs. These definitions provide the necessary context for subpart F of 7 CFR part 2100, which lays out the parameters for low-carbon practices that farm producers can implement to produce low-carbon crops. However, this rule only includes practices that are relevant to the production of the identified biofuel crops and have appropriate data and quantification methodologies needed to estimate the associated net emissions. Additionally, some NRCS practices were excluded because they only generate net emissions benefits on land that is not growing crops, such as field edges or borders. Emissions benefits from such off-field practices cannot directly be tied to the production of a biofuel feedstock, making it difficult to assign emissions benefits to the biofuel feedstock crop and subsequently produced biofuels. No changes are being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment requesting clarification on the amount of time that is acceptable for residue removal prior to or as part of the planting operation. Additionally, comment requests clarification as to if “the planting operation” is referring to the next cash crop or if removing residue prior to planting the cover crop is allowed.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates this comment. USDA has modified the rule to clarify that removing residue from the crop planting row area prior to or as part of the cash crop or cover crop planting or seeding operation is allowed. The regulatory text has been modified at §§ 2100.051(a)(4) and 2100.051(b)(3) to address these concerns. No other changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received multiple comments about the use of STIR values to classify tillage systems. Some commenters agreed that STIR provided a scientific basis for defining tillage and some commenters expressed concern that the use of STIR to define tillage systems did not provide adequate flexibility. USDA received one comment asking for clarification of whether the STIR value needs to be calculated based on the “recommended” or “actual” operating speed and tillage depth, commenter recommend changing “recommended” to “actual”. One commenter recommended the use of a more streamlined tillage intensity calculation, specifically the soil carbon disturbance index used in the COMET-Farm tool.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates these comments and requests for clarification. COMET-Farm uses the DayCent model and employs the soil carbon disturbance index described in USDA's 
                        <E T="03">Quantifying Greenhouse Gas Fluxes in Agriculture and Forestry: Methods for Entity-Scale Inventory</E>
                         report (USDA Methods report). Based on comments, and further evaluation, USDA has changed the method used to classify and verify tillage practices in the final rule. USDA evaluated both STIR and the soil carbon disturbance index that is used by the DayCent model. The STIR rating was developed to quantify the effect of tillage on erosion and emphasizes surface cover removal and burial over the crop or rotation interval, while the soil carbon disturbance index used in DayCent is focused on assessing disturbance within the soil column (from 0-30 cm) during discrete tillage windows to determine impacts on decomposition and soil carbon. While these two systems mostly align, there are instances where they do not. DayCent, the underlying model used to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39343"/>
                        evaluate tillage impacts in the USDA FD-CIC tool, employs the soil carbon disturbance index to classify tillage systems. Given this, USDA chose to align the classification of tillage in the final rule with this method. USDA has developed a new user-friendly tool using this method, called the Tillage Disturbance Index for Soil Carbon (T-DISC), which will allow users to classify their tillage system in alignment with the USDA FD-CIC tool, DayCent, and the USDA Methods report. USDA will publish on its website 
                        <E T="03">https://www.usda.gov/t-disc</E>
                         the T-DISC calculator for public use with a user guide. The regulatory text has been modified at §§ 2100.001, 2100.051(a)(1), 2100.051(b)(1), and 2100.051(d) to address these concerns. No other changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Process for Adding More Practices</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment that urged the agency to establish a process for consistent and timely updates to eligible feedstocks and practices. Some commenters suggested the incorporation of yearly planned updates to eligible feedstocks and practices.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         With additional time, resources, and data, USDA may consider the addition of practices and feedstocks to this rule and may undergo a rulemaking process to update 7 CFR part 2100. No changes are being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Soil Amendments</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment requesting USDA to consider a range of soil amendments for inclusion in the final rule including: biochar, enhanced rock weathering, soil conditioners, and microbial inoculants. Commenters assert that such soil amendments can reduce CI scores while also enhancing the long-term carbon sequestration potential of agricultural lands.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         Some soil amendments listed above may increase soil carbon sequestration; however, USDA has not modeled associated benefits for the purposes of this rule due to time and resource constraints. USDA may consider the addition of soil amendments in the future, and USDA will commit to further exploration of the issue in consultation with DOE. No changes are being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Reduced Nitrogen Rate</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment expressing broad support for the use of NUE as a calculation of nitrogen applied divided by yield to calculate a reduced nitrogen application rate practice. Commenters suggested USDA calculate and implement NUE through a final rule through the establishment of a baseline NUE and measuring a farm producer's NUE against the baseline.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates suggestions regarding the use of NUE to calculate a reduced nitrogen application rate. USDA has updated the USDA FD-CIC tool to allow for users to indicate nitrogen inputs and yield such that the calculated feedstock CI accounts for NUE as defined by the user. The regulatory text has been modified at subpart C and subpart G has been added to update implementation and verification requirements related to this change. No other changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Split and Fall Fertilizer Application Implementation</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment regarding spring and fall fertilizer application including:
                    </P>
                    <P>• Some commenters request that USDA remove the requirement that the no fall application standard prohibits the application of phosphorus fertilizers that contain nitrogen in the fall.</P>
                    <P>• Other commenters urged USDA to extend the 30-day window for Spring Nitrogen application if weather delays planting dates and recommended either expanding the 30-day window to a 60-day window or amending the language to include language to allow for weather-related planting delays.</P>
                    <P>• Commenters also urge USDA to revise the in-season, post-emergence split definition, commenters write that 75% of Nitrogen application is too restrictive, instead recommending a 50% post-emergence split Nitrogen application rate.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA understands and appreciates comments related to fertilizer timing. The interim final rule took a practice-based approach to nitrogen management. The final rule shifts to a user-identified NUE scoring approach which allows producers to manage fertilizer application timing and amount on their operation by calculating the associated NUE and resulting CI score. The regulatory text has been modified at subpart C and subpart G has been added to address these concerns. No other changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Comments on Qualifying Feedstocks</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Additional Feedstocks</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received many comments requesting USDA consider over 30 different types of additional feedstocks including, but not limited to: wheat straw, crop residues, animal manures, processing residuals, cellulosic crops, pennycress, and prairie biomass.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA understands and appreciates the feedback regarding the additional feedstocks. For feedstocks suggested, but not included in the final rule, USDA may consider this feedback in the future. No changes are being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Intermediate Oilseeds</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received many comments requesting the inclusion of intermediate oilseeds such as winter canola, carinata, pennycress, and camelina as eligible feedstocks.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA agrees that these are important biofuel feedstocks. More data and research are needed to identify low-carbon agricultural management practices and associated benefits which are applicable to intermediate crops. Given additional time, data, and resources, USDA may consider adding intermediate crops in the future. No changes are being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Millet</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment requesting USDA to include millet, notably proso millet, as an eligible feedstock.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA understands and appreciates this feedback. USDA considered including millet in the final rule; however, due to time and resource constraints, in addition to the limited current acreage in production, USDA was not able to incorporate millet at this time. USDA may consider adding millet in the future. No changes are being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Process for Adding More Feedstocks</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comments urging USDA to establish a process for consistent and timely updates to eligible feedstocks. Some commenters suggested the incorporation of annual planned updates to eligible feedstocks and practices.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         With additional time, resources, and data, USDA may consider the addition of practices and feedstocks to this rule and may undergo a rulemaking process to update 7 CFR 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39344"/>
                        part 2100. No changes are being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Spring Canola</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment regarding the inclusion of spring canola as a biofuel feedstock in the final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates the comments recommending the addition of canola as a biofuel feedstock. USDA agrees spring canola is a prominent biofuel feedstock with millions of acres of annual production in the United States, and has accordingly added spring canola as an eligible feedstock. The regulatory text has been modified at § 2100.011 to address these concerns. No other changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Comments on Quantification</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Data Gaps</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment urging USDA account for other emissions factors including land-use change, ecosystem services, methane, emissions associated with the production and application of herbicides used to terminate cover crops, changes to on-farm energy use, and yield reductions to create a true lifecycle assessment (LCA) of biofuel production.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA FD-CIC does or does not account for these emission sources in the following ways:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Land-use change:</E>
                         Land-use change emissions are not included within USDA FD-CIC because they are already accounted for in a separate Greenhouse gases, Regulated Emissions, and Energy use in Technologies (GREET) module, the Carbon Calculator for Land-Use and Land Management Change from Biofuels Production (CCLUB).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Ecosystem services:</E>
                         GHG emissions are the only environmental attribute that is measured and accounted for in USDA FD-CIC. While non-GHG ecosystem services are important, they are outside of the scope of this rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Methane:</E>
                         While methane is a GHG, USDA FD-CIC does not include methane emissions since they are de minimis in feedstock production.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Production and application of herbicides:</E>
                         These GHG emissions are included in USDA FD-CIC, although they do not vary depending on the farming practice employed so they do not consider increase GHG emissions associated with cover crop use. We could consider making such adjustments in future iterations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">On-farm energy use:</E>
                         These GHG emissions are included in USDA FD-CIC and vary depending on the farming practice adopted (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         conventional till vs. no-till).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Yield reductions:</E>
                         USDA FD-CIC has incorporated yield reductions in the N
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        O emission calculations in this updated version due to the new NUE approach. We could consider the effects of yield reductions on SOC in future iterations of USDA FD-CIC.
                    </P>
                    <P>No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Model Selection and Evaluation</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment suggesting a multi-model approach should be used to underpin the USDA FD-CIC tool and urged USDA to use a multi-model ensemble (MME) approach in its final rule. Commenters noted that as compared to the use of individual models alone, an MME approach to modeling using the lower bound of the 95th confidence interval would give better predictions and improve certainty of results.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA acknowledges that a multi-model approach could reduce estimate bias. The model used to generate parameter values in USDA FD-CIC is DayCent. USDA's 2024 edition of 
                        <E T="03">Quantifying Greenhouse Gas Fluxes in Agriculture and Forestry: Methods for Entity-Scale Inventory</E>
                         recommends that DayCent be used for performing Tier 3 calculations. In addition, as discussed below, the methodology addresses bias and uncertainty associated with differences between modeled and measured data. USDA may consider a multi-model approach in the future. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment expressing concern about the USDA FD-CIC tool's ability to account for uncertainty and that estimates generated by USDA FD-CIC should be conservative to account for uncertainty.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DayCent's methodology for generating the parameters employed by USDA FD-CIC to represent the impacts of nitrogen management and conservation practices uses a number of methods to account for uncertainty in model formulation and parameterization and to correct for model bias identified through comparison of measured and modeled data (Ogle et al. 2010; Del Grosso et al. 2010; Ogle et al. 2007).
                        <SU>9</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         See the Environmental Protection Agency's Inventory of U.S. Greenhouse Gas Emissions and Sinks (EPA) for more information about the DayCent modeling framework. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                        <SU>10</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             Ogle, S.M., F.J. Breidt, M. Easter, S. Williams, K. Killian, and K. Paustian, “Scale and uncertainty in modeled soil organic carbon stock changes for U.S. croplands using a process-based model.” Global Change Biology 16:810-822, 2010, 
                            <E T="03">http://dx.doi.org/10.1111/j.1365-2486.2009.01951.x.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            Del Grosso, S.J., S.M. Ogle, W.J. Parton, and F.J. Breidt, “Estimating Uncertainty in N
                            <E T="52">2</E>
                            O Emissions from U.S. Cropland Soils.” Global Biogeochemical Cycles, 24, GB1009, 2010, 
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1029/2009GB003544.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            Ogle, S.M., F.J. Breidt, M. Easter, S. Williams and K. Paustian, “Empirically-Based Uncertainty Associated with Modeling Carbon Sequestration Rates in Soils.”, Ecological Modeling 205:453-463, 2007, 
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1111/j.1365-2486.2009.01951.x.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>10</SU>
                             EPA, Inventory of U.S. Greenhouse Gas Emissions and Sinks: 1990-2022 U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 2024, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/ghgemissions/inventory-us-greenhouse-gas-emissions-and-sinks-1990-2022.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment urging USDA to continue to refine models and tools by incorporating data from published studies and collect direct measurements on an ongoing basis. Commenters also encouraged USDA to guide future data collection efforts to reduce existing uncertainties and emphasized the need for increased data collection and standardization to improve existing models.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA agrees that the models and tools utilized should be updated as needed to align with the evolution of the best available science. USDA plans to make improvements and updates to the models and tools as appropriate. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment suggesting USDA verify the modeling results in the USDA FD-CIC tool that result in negative biofuel CI scores without carbon capture and permanent storage.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA FD-CIC has undergone additional sensitivity and robustness checks of large negative CI values since the beta version published in January 2025. USDA took additional steps to adjust outliers that appeared anomalous, as we document in the updated methodology document. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment suggesting that USDA should work with the Department of Energy (DOE) and/or Argonne National Laboratory (ANL) on aspects of 45ZCF-GREET.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The technical issues raised in this comment are outside of the scope of what is included in USDA FD-CIC. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regional Variability</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment sharing concerns that the regional variability involved in quantifying GHG 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39345"/>
                        benefits/CI scores creates “winners and losers”. Commenters note that not all crops/practices are available or suitable for all regions. Commenters also express concern over geographic “fairness”, that CI gains are not equal between locations/practices and represent a “penalty” for some producers.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA understands and values the concerns around regional differences in CI scores based on regional conditions including soil and climactic differences. USDA's rule is intended to provide technical guidance for estimating the carbon intensity of biofuel feedstocks. To do this, USDA FD-CIC calculates carbon intensities associated with the implementation of conservation practice on a regional basis as accurately as possible. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Scale</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment expressing concern that because CI scores are calculated at farm level and not field level, CI scores may be lower for farms that cannot adopt these practices on large parts of the operation, thus preventing their participation and disincentivizing adoption of low-carbon practices. Comment states that this would also impact first points of aggregation and intermediary entities negatively.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates the comments and feedback regarding the calculation of CI scores at the farm versus field level. USDA agrees that a field level CI score is more beneficial for increased accuracy and participation and, in response to public comment, has integrated this change in the final rule. The regulatory text has been modified at subpart C and §§ 2100.031 and 2100.040 to address these concerns. No other changes are being made to the rule in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">USDA FD-CIC</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment expressing concern about the accuracy and rigor of the tool. Some commenters noted outlier values that seem to reflect a significant reduction in CI scores for some location/crop/management scenarios that commenters state are not supported by science. Another comment expressed concern over the soil carbon benefits associated with transitioning from baseline to conservation tillage. Another comment expressed concern over increased N
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        O emissions rising from implementation of agricultural management practices.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA agrees with the need for data accuracy and rigor. The approach employed by USDA is consistent with the methodology used in the 
                        <E T="03">Inventory of U.S. Greenhouse Gas Emissions and Sinks.</E>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         The agriculture methodology consistent with this analysis is available in the 
                        <E T="03">Quantifying Greenhouse Gas Fluxes in Agriculture and Forestry: Methods for Entity-Scale Inventory.</E>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         These methods have been peer-reviewed and are considered the best available science for estimating GHG emissions associated with agricultural production. Since publication of the interim final rule, USDA FD-CIC has undergone additional peer review, revisions, and updates since the beta version published in January 2025. USDA took additional steps to adjust outliers that appeared anomalous. USDA plans to make improvements and updates to the models and tools as appropriate. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment stating that the tool lacks transparency including the underlying datasets which are not publicly accessible leading to concerns over the accuracy and rigor of the tool.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA understands and agrees with the importance of transparency and providing the public with a description of the methodology used for USDA FD-CIC. USDA has published a methodology document of USDA FD-CIC that describes all of the data sources and methods that were employed to develop USDA FD-CIC. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment expressing concerns that appear to apply to separate tools with different methodologies and assumptions compared to the USDA FD-CIC.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The technical issues raised in this comment are outside of the scope of what is included in USDA FD-CIC. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment expressing concern that the USDA FD-CIC tool is not as rigorous nor consistent or similar to the Carbon Offsetting and Reduction Scheme for International Aviation (CORSIA) as required by 45Z.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA agrees that USDA FD-CIC should be established with the best available science. The underlying models used to generate values in USDA FD-CIC have undergone extensive peer review. Further, under USDA's authorities in 16 U.S.C. 3845, in April 2024, USDA published 
                        <E T="03">Quantifying Greenhouse Gas Fluxes in Agriculture and Forestry: Methods for Entity Scale Inventory.</E>
                         The publication of these methods adhered to the OMB guidelines “Final Information Quality bulletin for Peer Review” 70 FR 2664-2677, and this document has been designated by OMB as a highly influential scientific assessment. The method recommended for quantifying changes in soil carbon stocks and (N
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        O) emissions from agricultural soils refers to the DayCent ecosystem model, which is used as described in this rule to generate the CI estimates in USDA FD-CIC. No specific comments were provided about aspects of CORSIA's methodologies that might be applicable to USDA FD-CIC. No change is being made to the rule in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment on tools that allow the user to enter in more details about fertilizer applications and provides what they believe to be greater accuracy, transparency, and credibility. Suggestions include allowing producers to input actual nitrogen application rates and yield, considering green and blue ammonia, inclusion of manure applications, and allowing for a five-year average to consider weather damages to crops.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates these suggestions.
                    </P>
                    <P>Regarding nitrogen application and accounting for yield losses, USDA is implementing a revised approach which will allow producers to input yield as well as actual nitrogen application rates from synthetic fertilizer and manure. The yield used to calculate users' per-bushel impact will fall within 20% (plus or minus) of an expected yield defined by either the yield used to establish coverage on their crop insurance policy or a county average yield for the county published by USDA. Actual yield will be used if it falls within that range, but it will be replaced by the relevant range boundary if actual yield falls outside the expected yield range in order to account for significant yield impacts due to weather events. The regulatory text has been modified at been modified at subpart C, §§ 2100.031 and 2100.040, and subpart G has been added to address these concerns. No other changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.</P>
                    <P>Regarding green and blue ammonia, USDA currently does not have the time or resources to model the benefits of blue and green ammonia. USDA may consider the inclusion of these practices in the future. No change is being made to the rule in response to this issue.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding manure application, USDA appreciates this feedback. As a result of public comment, USDA has included manure as a form of nitrogen in the final version of the rule. The regulatory text has been modified at subpart C and subpart G has been added to address 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39346"/>
                        these concerns. No other changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment suggesting user friendliness and useability improvements. Comments suggested changes to the tool such as color-coding input cells, providing error trapping, and making model calculations available for digital service providers to replicate and automate CI calculations within their own digital platforms.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA agrees with the need to make the tool accessible and easy to use. USDA conducted user testing and made interface changes to the tool to improve the user friendliness and useability improvements in line with user recommendations. In addition, the public is welcome to use the data tables and formulas to develop their own digital platforms to further improve useability. No change is being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment suggesting improvements to USDA FD-CIC outputs including reporting N
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        O and CO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                         separately and reporting CI scores per unit of fuel as well as per bushel to enable farm producers to estimate value of practices to biofuel producers.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates feedback on improvements to USDA FD-CIC outputs. Users of USDA FD-CIC can view the CO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        e emissions of each subcategory in the excel workbook (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         direct N
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        O emissions, indirect N
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        O emissions, and soil organic carbon changes). USDA FD-CIC does not report CI values in CO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        e emissions per unit of fuel because the feedstocks can be inputs for multiple types of fuel. No change is being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">USDA Programs</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment regarding the need to align with crop insurance standards. Commenters stressed the importance of producers being able to manage risk through crop insurance while participating in the production of biofuel feedstocks under this rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA understands and appreciates the need for aligning with crop insurance standards. USDA cannot perfectly align this rule with crop insurance practices. In most cases, USDA's requirements in this rule are less strict than crop insurance requirements so both sets of rules can be followed. Producers participating in crop insurance should pay special attention to ensure that they follow both crop insurance requirements and the requirements in this regulation, as these requirements may not be consistent:
                    </P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• When interseeding into cover crop/planting green</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Terminating a cover crop via grazing</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• When using cover crops as hay, grazing, or forage</FP>
                    <FP>No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.</FP>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment recommending that USDA staff and resources be made available to small and mid sized farm producers looking to follow the practice requirements in the interim rule. Commenters also highlighted the Environmental Quality Incentives Program (EQIP), the Conservation Stewardship Program (CSP), and Inflation Reduction Act (IRA) conservation funding as existing programs that incentivize adoption of similar practices, suggesting that these programs may be more effective than the life-cycle-accounting based approach detailed in the interim rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates comments highlighting available resources and programs. NRCS resources for technical assistance are still available and can be utilized by producers wishing to reduce their CI scores. While this rule will not involve current USDA programs such as EQIP and CSP, producers who do not wish to participate in policies that reference this rule can still participate in these programs. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment regarding increased data entry barriers as a consideration for program alignment. One commenter recommended aligning guidelines in the interim rule with FSA programs so that farm producers can report low-carbon practice data in tandem with their other FSA reporting. Another commenter suggested that program data entry requirements should be aligned such that programs can function like nesting dolls, where participation in one program paves the way for participation in others.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA understands the need to decrease reporting producer reporting burdens; however, USDA must maintain a strong commitment to producer data privacy. Because these data are to be kept by the producer and made available to a third-party verifier, USDA records and data cannot be shared due to privacy concerns. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Comments on Soil Carbon and Baseline</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Baseline</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment urging against using a national average baseline as the basis for assessing CI scores, and urged USDA to use a more granular (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         county level of farm level) baseline.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA harmonized the CI calculation with a national average baseline, as policies who may use the rule may wish to align CI values estimated through USDA FD-CIC with a national default. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Soil Carbon Time Scale, Permanence, and Quantification</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received significant comment and input from the public related to soil carbon flux quantification, permanence, and time scale. While these are separate issues, it is helpful to address them within relation to each other.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Length of time:</E>
                         USDA received comment acknowledge that practices have beneficial effects on soil organic carbon, but some commenters expressed concern about the length of time through which this occurs. Commenters note that the effects of these practices on soil organic carbon stocks typically take many years to occur, making empirical measurements to verify changes in soil organic carbon stocks difficult.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Permanence:</E>
                         USDA received comment regarding concerns that practices that increase soil organic carbon or enhance soil organic carbon stocks are reversible, or lacking in permanence. Additionally, these commenters wrote that increasing sequestration of soil organic carbon has a long time scale which risks being upended by extreme weather events or land conversion in the future. USDA received comments both in support and in opposition of long-term contracts to address permanence.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Soil Carbon Quantification:</E>
                         USDA received comment expressing concern that there is a high degree of quantification uncertainty of practice benefits due to a variety of factors including: spaciotemporal heterogeneity, irrigation, warming weather, soil disturbance, especially at harvest, and fertilizer applications. One commenter suggested that USDA should select a random sample of farms implementing reduced CI agriculture practices and perform soil sampling each year for verification of benefits and model improvement.
                        <PRTPAGE P="39347"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA acknowledges that SOC storage is subject to reversal due to changes in agricultural management and this is why USDA assumed that one year of tillage would occur every five years when utilizing the no-till scenario to account for the possibility of reversals. The 30-year modeling timeframe exists to capture a range of weather variability in order to assign CI impacts to one year of production. This rule does not address longer-term issues with disadoption related to land use change or other impacts.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In response to early feedback received prior to the release of the interim final rule regarding the length of time to sequester and permanence of soil organic carbon, USDA produced a white paper that provides the rationale and evidence that changes in SOC stocks due to the implementation of low-carbon practices help address the buildup of GHGs in the atmosphere and that the reductions in net CO
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                         emissions are persistent over time. For more information, see the Documentation of Literature and Modeling Analysis to Support the Treatment of CSA Practices that Reduce Agricultural Soil Carbon Dioxide Emissions and Increase Carbon Storage White Paper.
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         While the practice benefits underlying the tool are largely averaged to regional levels, DayCent is run over thousands of National Resources Inventory (NRI) points which mitigates a great deal of variability, including: spatiotemporal heterogeneity in soils and weather, irrigation, climate/warming weather, management differences, and fertilizer applications. The regional averages cannot represent all potential variability, but they are derived based on weighted averages of multiple NRI points that reflect and capture that variability.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             See USDA Documentation of Literature and Modeling Analysis to Support the Treatment of CSA Practices that Reduce Agricultural Soil Carbon Dioxide Emissions and Increase Carbon Storage White Paper, January 2025. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.usda.gov/sites/default/files/documents/USDA_Durability_WhitePaper_01_14.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        On the suggestion to include on-farm measurements, we note that USDA has considered requirements for in-field farm-scale soil carbon monitoring. We have determined that in-field soil carbon monitoring is not appropriate for this rule. The costs of such approaches are prohibitive. Measuring soil carbon poses challenges given the variability of carbon storage within fields, the cost of sampling, and the varying temporal accrual of carbon stocks in soil (Smith et al., 2020).
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, differences in soil moisture, texture, and slope across a field create challenges in capturing representative samples that can be extrapolated across a field. Grid sampling can help control for some of these variability challenges but introduces significant extra costs. For these reasons, sampling has increasingly been used to help parameterize and calibrate models, rather than serving as a stand-alone quantification approach. For the reasons noted above, soil carbon sampling systems do not necessarily reduce uncertainty and can introduce bias from factors like soil handling, bulk density measurements, and lab analysis that are out of the control of a producer.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             Smith et al. 2020, How to measure, report and verify soil carbon change to realize the potential of soil carbon sequestration for atmospheric greenhouse gas removal. Global Change Biology 26: 219-241. DOI: 10.1111/gcb.14815.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>No changes are being made to the regulation in response to these issues.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Comments on Verification and Recordkeeping</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Align Standards With Existing Programs</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received many comments recommending alignment with the California Low Carbon Fuel Standard (LCFS), CSP, EQIP, FSA programs, Roundtable on Sustainable Biomaterials (RSB), International Sustainability and Carbon Certification (ISCC), and other clean fuel production programs. Key reasoning for aligning with existing programs include reducing confusion, allowing for easier in-tandem reporting, and relying on examples that have already been proven effective.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA understands the desire to align this rule with existing programs; however, USDA created this rule because there are no existing programs that satisfy the reporting requirements for quantifying the change in CI score for biofuel feedstocks relative to an estimated national average with changes in agricultural management. USDA attempted to utilize records and verification requirements that would also be maintained for similar programs such as the programs outlined by commenters. No changes are being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Book and Claim/Mass Balance</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received an overwhelming response to questions posed about utilizing a book and claim versus mass balance system. In total, over 60 comments were received regarding book and claim and mass balance systems.
                    </P>
                    <P>Overwhelmingly, commenters, and especially farm producers, were supportive of a book and claim traceability standard. USDA received over 45 comments, including 11 farm producers, in support of a book and claim traceability standard. The majority of commenters support a book and claim traceability standard due to the ability to incentivize reduced CI practices in all feedstock crop production areas, not just those near biofuel facilities ensuring broader farm producer participation. Additionally, commenters noted that a book and claim system decouples CI certificates from physical bushels, allowing farm producers to market their grain as they choose while separately selling CI certificates on transparent trading platforms. Commenters also wrote about the ability to reduce compliance cost, reduce emissions by eliminating the need for physical movement of feedstocks, and increase reduced CI crop uptake.</P>
                    <P>USDA received a number of comments in support of a mass balance traceability standard, including two comments from farm producers. Commenters recognized that the infrastructure does not currently exist for a book and claim system. One commenter wrote that the use of a book-and-claim traceability standard, in separating the sustainability token from the physical product, removes any incentive for participation from the commercial grain sector because the sustainability token trading would likely occur through a separate third party so there is no additional value associated with the grain flowing through the elevator. By separating the sustainability token from the physical grain, the commenter notes, farm producers will lose price transparency from the biofuel producer, with the price they are receiving for the physical grain potentially suffering from a basis reduction to offset the purchase of sustainability credits depending on the entity they sell the physical grain to. Commenters were also concerned that a book and claim traceability standard will lead to a loss of value for the emissions reduction, as biofuel refiners continually pursue the lowest priced credit, ignoring the cost of production realities for feedstocks produced in their own geographic footprint.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates the feedback outlined by commenters in support of a book and claim traceability standard; however, at this time, USDA does not have the existing infrastructure required to implement adequately a book and claim traceability standard. USDA also appreciates the comments in support of a mass balance traceability standard, at this time, this is the traceability standard utilized under the rule. USDA chose to utilize a mass 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39348"/>
                        balance traceability standard because it allows for more flexibility than an identity preserved system, while still putting measures into place to protect against fraud. USDA may consider a transition from mass balance to book and claim traceability standard in the future and will take these comments into consideration. No changes are being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA also received comment in support of a transition from mass balance to book and claim with recommendations on strategies to effectively execute a transition.
                    </P>
                    <P>• Several commenters wrote in support of using existing verification programs like ISCC as a framework to transition to a book and claim traceability standard.</P>
                    <P>• One commenter wrote that transition to book-and-claim should be considered in a second phase of the rule once verification systems through local FSA offices are well established, ensuring a smooth and practical implementation.</P>
                    <P>• Another commenter noted that establishing a regulated registry where the certificates can be registered, traded, and claimed may help facilitate the transition between Mass Balance and Book and Claim.</P>
                    <P>• One commenter recommended USDA define “chain of custody” criteria and the necessary documentation, provide a means to distinguish between certified sustainable feedstock and non-certified feedstocks, develop a third-party registry system to manage the credits, and provide verification criteria and requirements of verifiers such as certification under International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 14065.</P>
                    <P>• Other commenters urge USDA to make book and claim an alternate option while maintaining mass balance rules in place.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates these comments, and USDA may consider a transition from mass balance to book and claim in the future and will take these comments into consideration. No changes are being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Data Privacy and Transparency</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received several comments with regards to both data privacy and transparency. Commenters urged USDA to ensure that sensitive information including documents and data retained through verification are protected. Other commenters urged USDA to ensure transparency around program participation and enforcement and practice adoption.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates the need to balance both data privacy and transparency. USDA's rule specifies that farm producers maintain their own records to be verified through an independent third-party verifier. USDA will not collect any data through this rule and only outlines requirements of records that must be maintained by the farm producer and records that must be transmitted through the supply chain in order to track the CI of reduced-CI feedstock being sold. The burden of data privacy is on the third-party verifiers and other entities in the supply chain participating in this program, including farm producers themselves. Through this rule, producers must include a Farm Producer Attestation as part of the Biofuels Feedstock Report that states that they will not double sell CI information, attributes, or low-carbon benefits associated with the reduced CI crop into more than one market. Additionally, the verifier must also verify that reduced CI feedstock has not been sold into multiple sustainability markets. The regulatory text has been modified at §§ 2100.030 and 2100.040(g) to address these concerns. No other changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Recordkeeping Clarification</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment requesting clarification on the definition of farm for the weighted average recordkeeping requirements. In particular, commenters wanted clarification on whether the entire farm needed to enroll in the program or just the fields growing biofuel feedstocks. Other commenters requested clarification on how the weighted average was calculated and which fields should be included. One commenter asked for clarification on whether the first point of aggregation would need to score and audit fields whose crop was purchased by different buyers.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA has addressed these comments and concerns regarding clarification of the definition of farm as it relates to the weighted average by shifting to a field-level CI quantification system. In this system, producers can choose which fields they would like to calculate a CI for. Fields with the same management practices that meet the definition of a “management unit” as defined in the rule may aggregate those fields together for the purpose of plugging inputs in to USDA FD-CIC and calculating a common CI score for the feedstock produced across those fields. With regards to the comment addressing the first point of aggregation, the producer must maintain records demonstrating all sales from the farm of corn, soybeans, sorghum, and spring canola so that the verifier can ensure no reduced-CI crop is double-counted. The regulatory text has been modified at subpart C and §§ 2100.031 and 2100.040 to address these concerns. No other changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment requesting that USDA clarify recordkeeping requirements, specifically for no-till.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The rule currently requires specific recordkeeping requirements outlined in Section 2100.051. A farm producer attestation is required to verify that the producer implemented no-till for four out of five years. Under the rule, a farm producer attestation alone would not suffice for record keeping requirements specific to no-till. No changes are being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment recommending USDA specify whether the exact practices used by the farm producer to contribute to the reduced-CI score need to be reported in the Biofuel Feedstock Report.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates this recommendation; in paragraph (c) of § 2100.031, USDA currently requires the exact practices used by the farm producer that contribute to the reduced-CI score be reported in the Biofuel Feedstock Report. No changes are being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment requesting clarification of the intention of § 2100.033 of the interim rule (recordkeeping standards for entities that process, sell, or purchase processed product derived from reduced-CI crops) and limit its scope to those intermediate reduced-CI processed products created after the farm producer/aggregator and before the final biofuel refiner.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA has updated the definition of reduced-CI processed products in response to public comment. To clarify, soybean oil and canola oil would be considered reduced-CI processed products since they are derived from reduced-CI crops and are used in the production of biofuel. However, distiller's corn oil coproduced with ethanol is not a reduced-CI processed product, since GHG emissions from crop production are not attributed to biofuel coproducts. Additionally, soybean meal or canola meal would not be considered a reduced-CI processed product since it is not used in the production of biofuel. The regulatory text has been modified at § 2100.031 (c) to address these concerns. No other changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                        <PRTPAGE P="39349"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Reduce Recordkeeping Burdens on Producers</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment with both general and specific recommendations on verification, recordkeeping, and Measurement, Monitoring, Reporting, and Verification (MMRV). Additionally, commenters asked USDA to more generally adjust the recordkeeping requirements to reduce producer burden.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates the sentiments to keep recordkeeping practical and not overburdensome; however, it is important to balance this with protecting against fraud. The rule outlines requirements that strive to be as flexible as possible, as well as providing multiple methods of verification in an attempt to reduce the burden of farm producers as much as possible. No changes are being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment stating that the verification burden of cover crops is higher than the other practices and suggested USDA to allow alternatives to georeferenced and timestamped photographic evidence. Conversely, another commenter wrote that all practices should be held to the same high standard of evidence, incorporating external verification methods like those used for cover cropping.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates the feedback on cover crop requirements. The rule does not require all farm producers implementing cover crops to use georeferenced and timestamped photographs; instead, georeferenced photographs are one of several options available to document cover crop establishment. No changes are being made to the rule in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment recommending USDA standardize the Biofuel Feedstock Report.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA understands the need for a standardized Biofuel Feedstock Report and has provided a list of all elements required in the Biofuel Feedstock Report included in 2100.031(e). In order to maintain flexibility in how farm producers create, maintain, and transmit this report, USDA does not specify a specific form or format to allow for a range of ways to meet this requirement including using paper records, farm management software, and digital files. No other changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment urging USDA to include yield records because field-level yields impact total incentives, especially with varied tillage, cover cropping, and nutrient management practices. The commenter wrote that specific guidance for field-level grain yield should include machine-generated data, defined recordkeeping methodologies for yield monitor outputs, or grain load weights and moisture contents.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA's rule specifies that a sale of receipt for reduced-CI crops is required to demonstrate yield of all crops during the crop interval (that is, from the time immediately following harvest or termination of one cash crop through harvest or termination of the next cash crop in the rotation, including fallow periods). This is because USDA is crediting the volume of reduced-CI crops that enter the supply chain, and receipts are official records of sale of crops entering the supply chain. The regulatory text has been modified at § 2100.031(b) to address these concerns. No other changes are being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment requesting the removal of requirements not directly associated with low-carbon practices including yield goals, nutrient plans, and evidence of soil samples.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates comments requesting streamlined recordkeeping requirements. Records demonstrating yield goals, nutrient plans and soil sampling are all relevant to ensuring that claimed CI is accurate and that appropriate incentives exist which limit over-application of nutrients, for example. No changes are being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment recommending that USDA create a lower tier of third-party verification requirements for small programs, for example less than 5 million gallons.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates comments recommending that low-volume sales would benefit from fewer verification requirements. However, any reduction in verification requirements may lead to increased risk of fraud or inaccurate CI accounting. Given that participation in USDA's rule is voluntary, one standard is applied to all participating famers. Additionally, third-party audits are only conducted on a sample of farms for any given first point of aggregation, reducing verification burden on farm producers of all sizes. No changes are being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment recommending USDA use a data management platform for recordkeeping that requires shapefiles, full crop plans that include fertilizer rates, tillage practices, crop protection use, cover crop details, and yield in a data management system.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates the comments on data management platforms as a means to facilitate recordkeeping. USDA's rule does not prohibit farm producers from utilizing such platforms, however, requiring farm producers to submit records to such a platform raises data privacy concerns. USDA's rule specifies that farm producers maintain their own records to be verified through an independent third-party verifier. No changes are being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Verification of Nitrogen Rate Reduction</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment providing a number of recommendations to verify nitrogen rate reduction. These strategies included: using as-applied maps or fertilizer prescriptions from the retailer; farm records such as soil tests and nutrient management plans, receipts, location and timing of nitrogen application, historic and current organic and synthetic nitrogen application rates, historic and current yield records, and attestations from crop advisors.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates suggestions to verify nitrogen rate reduction. USDA currently lists a wide variety of records that can be used for nitrogen management including, but not limited to, physical documentation (for example, paper forms, invoices, receipts, seed tags), digital files (including from farm management software), data generated by farm equipment (for example, precision agriculture equipment, as applied maps), remotely sensed data, georeferenced and timestamped photographs, or data and records used for participation in USDA programs. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Comments on Verifier Qualifications/Accreditation Requirements</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Third Party Verifier Qualifications/Accreditation Requirements</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment regarding the use of ISO 14065 as an accreditation standard. Several commenters wrote in support of the use of ISO 14065, including comment suggesting a phased approach for the use of ISO 14065.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates comments in support of ISO 14065. The rule currently states that third-party verifiers that conduct audits in accordance with this part must be accredited to ISO 14065: General 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39350"/>
                        principles and requirements for bodies validating and verifying environmental information by a member of the International Accreditation Forum. No changes are being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comments expressing concerns about third-party verifier qualifications including concern for potential conflicts of interest, regional expertise of verifiers, and minimum requirements for verifier certification.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates the need to have highly qualified third-party verifiers. USDA has identified ISO 14065 accreditation as the industry standard for third-party verifiers in this space. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Verification Capacity</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment highlighting the need to increase verification capacity. Some commenters wrote that the application of the interim rule in 45Z could put a strain on verifiers and introduce a new level of recordkeeping complexity that to date has not been experienced in the agriculture industry. Other comments suggested allowing specific sources of third-party verifiers, including private sector companies; agronomists with a Certified Crop Advisor (CCA) or a Certified Professional Crop Consultant (CPCC) certification; and USDA experts in FSA and NRCS.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA is establishing requirements for verification that will ensure that entities follow the applicable standards in this rule. Participation in the production of low-carbon biofuel feedstocks is voluntary. Given this, USDA anticipates that the capacity to provide verification services will grow to meet demand. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this comment.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of General Comments</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Cost to Producers</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment asserting that this policy fails to provide adequate incentives for producers to adopt low-carbon practices. One commenter wrote that the credit value for soybean practices is insufficient to offset productivity or cost concerns associated with practices.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates comments regarding incentives to participate. However, incentives are not driven by USDA's rule and are instead driven by policies that incorporate the rule into the policy. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Environmental Tradeoffs and Impacts on GHGs</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment asserting that scientific evidence suggests that biofuel production leads to a net increase in GHG emissions and other environmental harms. Commenters identified environmental concerns resulting from biofuel production including: losses of soil carbon due to land conversion; direct emissions of GHGs including those resulting from nutrient application; increases in fuel/food prices; carbon opportunity cost of not growing native vegetation; air, water, and soil pollution; habitat destruction; and adverse impacts to biodiversity.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         This rule is structured to reduce GHG emissions from agricultural commodity production. In addition, practices included in the rule, like no-till and cover crops, are known to provide other important ecosystem services including reducing air and water pollution, soil erosion, and improved biodiversity. Improving nutrient use efficiency, included in the rule, can also reduce surface and groundwater pollution. Furthermore, estimating the environmental impacts of land conversion are addressed in indirect GHG emission lifecycle methodologies outside of USDA FD-CIC. USDA FD-CIC does not model the effects of biofuel production on food prices, as there are other economic models that already examine these effects. No changes are being made to the regulation in response to these issues.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment citing literature which indicates that biofuel production can lead to the emissions of harmful compounds, even compared to pollution from oil refineries. Specifically, one commenter noted the following compounds: nitrogen oxides (NOx), sulfur oxides (SOx), carbon monoxide (CO), volatile organic compounds (VOCs), ammonia (NH
                        <E T="52">3</E>
                        ), and particulate matter (PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA understands concerns about biofuel production; however, these issues are outside of the scope of this rule. This rule is focused on low-carbon agriculture practices that reduce GHG emissions from on-farm production of biofuel crops. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment regarding the impacts of land use change. Commenters urged USDA to consider how this rule may incentivize forest and wetland conversion to biofuel production and made recommendations to impose restrictions on eligible land for biofuel production. Some commenters also noted that it is important to take into account indirect land use change when evaluating the CI of biofuel feedstocks stating that land use conversion can cause harmful impacts like biodiversity loss and soil degradation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The attribution and estimation of land-use emissions from the crop-based biofuels are determined using separate methodologies than USDA FD-CIC. In addition, participating farm producers must attest that they did not convert the land used to produce low-carbon biofuel feedstock crops into crop production after the date of rule publishing. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment stating that land use change impacts associated with biofuels are often overestimated. Commenters wrote that many studies on the land-use change impacts of the renewable fuel standard have been discredited or outdated, and USDA should instead focus on scientific consensus on the GHG emissions benefits of biofuels. Commenters conclude that USDA should not consider indirect land use change as a factor in CI and doing so would penalize U.S. producers for the implied activities of foreign competitors.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The attribution and estimation of land-use emissions from crop-based biofuels are determined using separate methodologies than USDA FD-CIC. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Equitable Access for Producers</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment asserting that this rule does not treat all producers equally. Commenters wrote that this rule will disproportionally benefit large producers and is unfair to producers who cannot sell their feedstocks to biofuel producers because there is no refinery in their area. Commenters also noted that this rule is unfair to livestock and other producers who cannot participate.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         This rule specifically applies to the production of low-carbon biofuel feedstocks for liquid transportation fuels, which presents a clear environmental services market. Although USDA intends to include additional feedstocks and practices in the future, this will require time, resources, and data in order to quantify the carbon benefits of relevant agricultural management practices. USDA offers a number of other programs to support farm producers of all sizes and commodities in 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39351"/>
                        implementing agricultural management practices. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">RIA and Costs and Benefits</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment regarding the costs and benefits estimates. While some commenters agree with USDA's assessment of costs and benefits and finds cost estimates reasonable and well-calculated, other commenters urged USDA to take other factors and strategies into account. One commenter urged USDA to take both environmental and economic factors into account in determining practice eligibility and quantification.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA thanks commenters for this feedback, and agrees that capturing the environmental and economic factors is good practice in regulatory analysis. OMB's Circular A-4 
                        <SU>13</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         directs agencies conducting regulatory impact analysis to capture the marginal impacts of the rule over the status quo. USDA's rule develops a voluntary framework providing a more standardized set of guidelines for the quantification, reporting, and verification of reduced-CI biofuel feedstocks grown with low-carbon practices. USDA anticipates this framework can be broadly implemented in clean fuel programs and policies, but the rule does not generate emissions reductions or incentivize the use of low-carbon practices on its own. As such, USDA's regulatory analysis monetizes the economic burden from recordkeeping, reporting, verification, and audits attributable to the rule, but does not attempt to monetize the potential costs or benefits of the framework implemented alongside other government programs and policies. These impacts would be estimated in future rulemakings. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>13</SU>
                             Office of Management and Budget's Circular A-4, Regulatory Analysis (2003). 
                            <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2025/08/CircularA-4.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment suggesting that farm producers should be able to test the program on a single field to ensure that the financial return justifies the transition. Another commenter wrote that farm producers must be adequately compensated for adopting practices.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates the need for this program to compensate farm producers adequately to justify transition to these practices; however, this is a voluntary program and farm producers will not adopt the practices unless the compensation is adequate. Additionally, specific incentives and consequences would be implemented by other entities which adopt this rule as part of their biofuel program. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Scientific Basis/Rigor</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment stating that the rule lacked adequate scientific basis/rigor in its estimates of the CI scores for various feedstocks. Additionally, some commenters wrote that the USDA FD-CIC tool estimates GHG reductions with a degree of precision that is not supported by the underlying science.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The underlying models used to generate values in USDA FD-CIC have undergone extensive peer review. Further, under USDA's authorities in 16 U.S.C. 3845, in April 2024, USDA published 
                        <E T="03">Quantifying Greenhouse Gas Fluxes in Agriculture and Forestry: Methods for Entity Scale Inventory.</E>
                         The publication of these methods adhered to the OMB guidelines “Final Information Quality bulletin for Peer Review” 70 FR 2664-2677, and this document has been designated by OMB as a highly influential scientific assessment. The method recommended for quantifying changes in soil carbon stocks and N
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        O emissions from agricultural soils refers to the DayCent ecosystem model, which is used as described in this rule to generate the CI estimates in USDA FD-CIC. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment stating that there is insufficient scientific evidence to claim that any crop-based biofuel meets the requirement to reduce GHG emissions by 50% to qualify for the 45Z biofuel tax credits created in the 2022 IRA.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA appreciates the commitment to scientific integrity. This rule makes no claims as to whether crop-based biofuels are or are not eligible for 45Z biofuel tax credits. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Supportive Comments</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment in support of the increased potential to scale the production capacity of low-carbon, renewable fuels produced in the U.S. One commenter wrote that the rule would encourage feedstocks that would help expand the competitiveness of U.S. biofuels both domestic and abroad.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA thanks the public for these comments and feedback. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received overwhelming comment emphasizing the importance of integrating the rule into the 45Z tax credits for biofuels to empower farm producers to play a leading role in the future of domestic biofuel development. Commenters also recommended extending the 45Z tax credits beyond 2027.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA thanks the public for these comments and feedback. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment in support of aligning land conservation efforts with economic viability as well as aligning agricultural practices with GHG emissions reductions goals and market incentives. Commenters also supported USDA compensating farm producers for practices that build soil health, reduce erosion, and other environmental benefits, while meeting the broader fuel, food, and fiber needs of the country, safeguard our food system, and de-risking farm producers' management decisions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA thanks the public for these comments and feedback. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment in support of the importance of establishing standardized procedures and voluntary standards for quantifying, reporting, and verifying GHG emissions associated with biofuels as put in place with the rule. Commenters also wrote in appreciation of the science-based methodologies and leveraging process-based biogeochemical models included in the rule. Overall, commenters support efforts to enhance the accuracy, transparency, and verification of GHG emissions within the agricultural sector.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA thanks the public for these comments and feedback. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         USDA received comment describing the guidelines as clear and actionable. Respondents were also pleased that the rule unbundled and expanded available practices producers can use to lower CI.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         USDA thanks the public for these comments and feedback. No change is being made to the regulation in response to this issue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice and Comment, Effective Date, and Exemptions</HD>
                    <P>
                        The promulgation of regulations to implement the programs of Chapter 58 of Title 16 of the U.S. Code, as specified in 16 U.S.C. 3846, and the administration of those programs, are:
                        <PRTPAGE P="39352"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>• Exempt from the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35), and</P>
                    <P>• To use the authority in 5 U.S.C. 808 related to Congressional review and any potential delay in the effective date.</P>
                    <P>Per Subtitle E of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, also known as the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801-808), the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has determined that this rule does not meet the criteria specified in 5 U.S.C. 804(2), so the Congressional Review Act's 60-day effective date delay requirement for rules does not apply. Even if this rule did meet the criteria specified in 5 U.S.C. 804(2), the 2018 Farm Bill directs the Secretary to use the authority in 5 U.S.C. 808 to specify this rule's effective date.</P>
                    <P>This rule is exempt from the regulatory analysis requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612), as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996. The Regulatory Flexibility Act generally requires an agency to prepare a regulatory analysis of any rule whenever an agency is required by the Administrative Procedure Act or any other law to publish a proposed rule, unless the agency certifies that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This rule is not subject to the Regulatory Flexibility Act because the Office of Energy and Environmental Policy (OEEP) is not required by the Administrative Procedure Act or any law to publish this rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 14192</HD>
                    <P>
                        Executive Order 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review,” and Executive Order 13563, “Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review,” direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasized the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. Executive Order 14192, “Unleashing Prosperity Through Deregulation,” announced the Administration policy to significantly reduce the private expenditures required to comply with Federal regulations to secure America's economic prosperity and national security and the highest possible quality of life for each citizen and to alleviate unnecessary regulatory burdens placed on the American people. In line the Executive Order requirements, the Agency chose this regulatory approach, which is voluntary yet provides clear guidelines to quantify, report, and verify production of reduced-CI crops, to maximize benefits and minimize burden on American farm producers. Relative to the preceding interim final rule, this final rule generates no more than 
                        <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                         costs, and is therefore neither an E.O. 14192 regulatory action nor an E.O. 14192 deregulatory action.
                    </P>
                    <P>OMB designated this rule as significant under Executive Order 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review,” and therefore, OMB has reviewed this rule. The analysis of costs and benefits of this rule is summarized below.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Impact Analysis Summary</HD>
                    <P>16 U.S.C. 3845 directs the Secretary to establish technical guidelines that outline science-based methods to measure the environmental services benefits from conservation and land management activities to facilitate the participation of farm producers, ranchers, and forest landowners in emerging environmental services markets. It also directs the Secretary to give priority to the establishment of guidelines related to farm producer, rancher, and forest landowner participation in carbon markets. It further directs the Secretary to establish verification guidelines, including the role of third parties in conducting independent verification of benefits produced for environmental services markets and other functions.</P>
                    <P>Under these authorities, this rule facilitates recognition of crops grown with low carbon practices in biofuel markets and provides farm producers with opportunities to market biofuel crops based on their lower net GHG emissions. It also provides standardized guidelines for entities in the biofuel supply chain (including first point aggregators, intermediary entities, and biofuel refiners) to quantify, verify, and trace reduced-CI feedstocks (that is, those crops grown with low carbon practices) through the biofuel supply chain, from farm to biofuel refiner. The rule achieves these outcomes by providing quantification, recordkeeping, chain of custody, and verification standards that:</P>
                    <P>(1) decrease information asymmetries between biofuel supply chain entities with respect to the carbon intensity of biofuel feedstocks, and</P>
                    <P>(2) reduce transaction costs and increase efficiencies in existing systems that quantify, trace, and verify emissions benefits associated with biofuel feedstocks produced with low carbon practices.</P>
                    <P>The Regulatory Impact Analysis estimates the expected costs of this rule quantitatively and discusses the expected benefits qualitatively.</P>
                    <P>To estimate the expected costs of the rule, USDA created a model that quantifies the total per entity annual costs (in hours and dollars) of quantification, recordkeeping, and verification processes conforming to the rule standards for each entity type in the biofuel supply chain including farm producers, first point aggregators, intermediary entities, and biofuel refiners.</P>
                    <P>Model inputs were derived from multiple sources, including:</P>
                    <P>• USDA program office data on the hours required of producers to record and verify information about the adoption of conservation practices (including low carbon practices in this rule) for existing USDA programs, such as the Environmental Quality Incentives Program;</P>
                    <P>• internal USDA data on the time costs (hours) associated with third party verification of reduced-CI feedstocks;</P>
                    <P>• Bureau of Labor Statistics wage rates applicable to labor used by each entity type to conduct quantification, recordkeeping or verification;</P>
                    <P>• latest USDA data on estimated acres and bushels of biofuel feedstock production with low carbon practices; and</P>
                    <P>• annual volume throughput of biofuel feedstocks for each entity type in the biofuel supply chain calculated using internal USDA data and data from the U.S. Energy Information Agency.</P>
                    <P>Aggregate costs of the rule for all entities in the biofuel supply chain are not estimated in the RIA because they depend on the level of participation among biofuel supply entities in policies or programs that adopt the rule's standards. Additional details about the RIA assumptions, model inputs, methodology, and limitations are described in the RIA.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Costs and Benefits</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Costs</HD>
                    <P>
                        The costs of this rule include costs associated with collection of information, the maintenance of such information in records, and the exchange of these records between entities in the biofuel supply chain. Under this rule's standards, information collection and the maintenance and exchange of records occurs between private entities. The federal government 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39353"/>
                        does not collect, maintain, or exchange any information or records as part of the rule standards. The regulatory impact analysis calculates the costs of this rule in burden hours and dollars on a per entity basis (for each entity type including farm producers, first point aggregators, intermediary entities, and biofuel refiners) and on a per bushel basis for each entity type.
                    </P>
                    <P>USDA estimates of the per entity level of effort (LOE) per entity type (farm producers, first point aggregators, intermediary entities, and biofuel refiners) are summarized in Tables 1 and 2 below.</P>
                    <P>LOEs for farm producers are estimated to be between 5 to 7 hours per year and were scaled based on the number of low carbon practices adopted which assumes that additional practices require additional recordkeeping time. The LOE estimates for producers are inclusive of quantification of carbon intensity of the crop and recordkeeping time costs. LOE for farm producer audits is estimated separately (9 hours) because not all farm producers in a given year will be selected for auditing by a third-party verifier. LOE for farm producers using manure was also estimated separately (2 hours) because not all farm producers will utilize this nutrient management option.</P>
                    <P>LOE for first point aggregators are estimated to be between 56 and 335 hours per entity per year, depending on the size (measured in throughout of biofuel feedstock) of the entity. The LOE estimates for First Point Aggregator verification does not include verification fees; these fees however are included in the per entity costs estimated, as summarized in Table 2.</P>
                    <P>LOE for intermediary entities is estimated to be 168 hours per entity per year. These LOE estimates also do not include any verification fees (see Table 2).</P>
                    <P>LOE for biofuel refiners is estimated to be 796 hours per entity per year. These LOE estimates also do not include any verification fees (those are included in Table 2).</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,16">
                        <TTITLE>Table 1—Estimated Level of Effort (LOE) per Entity per Year</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                LOE
                                <LI>(hours per year)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Producer (Nitrogen Management) </ENT>
                            <ENT>5.7</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Producer (Nitrogen Management plus Tillage OR Cover Cropping)</ENT>
                            <ENT>6.3</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Producer (Nitrogen Management plus Tillage AND Cover Cropping)</ENT>
                            <ENT>6.8</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Additional Producer burden if audited*</ENT>
                            <ENT>9.0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Additional if Applying Manure ** </ENT>
                            <ENT>2.0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">First Point Aggregators (small) ** </ENT>
                            <ENT>48</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">First Point Aggregators (medium) ** </ENT>
                            <ENT>143</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">First Point Aggregators (large) ** </ENT>
                            <ENT>286</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Intermediary Entities **</ENT>
                            <ENT>143</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Biofuel Refiners **</ENT>
                            <ENT>673</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Notes:</E>
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>* Some producers will have approximately 9 hours of additional LOE to comply with audits.</TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>** Producers applying manure have additional recordkeeping requirements and fees associated with verification.</TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>Table 2 summarizes the annual per entity costs (in 2024 dollars) per entity type. For farm producers, depending on the number of low carbon practices adopted, the annual costs range from $340 to $410, which include costs associated with quantification of the carbon intensity of the crop and recordkeeping time costs and a lawyer fee for completing the farm attestation, with an addition $540 annually per entity in the event that a farm producer is audited, and an additional $150 if using manure. The verification and recordkeeping costs for First Point Aggregators are estimated to be between $4,000 to $22,700 per year per entity, depending on the size of the aggregator. These costs include any verification fees incurred for their audits and the audits of the farm producers. The verification and recordkeeping cost for intermediary entities are estimated to be $11,000 per entity per year. Finally, recordkeeping and verification costs for biofuel refiners are estimated to be $83,500 per entity per year.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s150,16">
                        <TTITLE>Table 2—Estimated Cost per Entity Type per Year </TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[In 2024 dollars]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Cost</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Producer (Nitrogen Management) </ENT>
                            <ENT>$340</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Producer (Nitrogen Management plus Tillage OR Cover Cropping)</ENT>
                            <ENT>380</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Producer (Nitrogen Management plus Tillage AND Cover Cropping)</ENT>
                            <ENT>410</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Additional Producer burden if audited *</ENT>
                            <ENT>540</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Additional if Applying Manure ** </ENT>
                            <ENT>150</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">First Point Aggregators (small) ** </ENT>
                            <ENT>4,000</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">First Point Aggregators (medium) ** </ENT>
                            <ENT>11,500</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">First Point Aggregators (large) ** </ENT>
                            <ENT>22,700</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Intermediary Entities **</ENT>
                            <ENT>11,000</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Biofuel Refiners **</ENT>
                            <ENT>83,500</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Notes:</E>
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>* Some producers will have approximately 9 hours of additional LOE to comply with audits.</TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>** Producers applying manure have additional recordkeeping requirements and fee associated with verification.</TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>Additional details about these estimates are described in the RIA.</P>
                    <P>
                        While this RIA quantifies the paperwork burden associated with the rule, this rule's information collection requirements and associated burden 
                        <PRTPAGE P="39354"/>
                        hours (that is, level of effort estimates) are exempt from Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 review and approval by the Office of Information Affairs within the Office of Management and Budget, as indicated by 16 U.S.C. 3846, as noted above.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Benefits</HD>
                    <P>The benefits of this rule include the reduction in transaction costs and efficiency gains associated with the rule's framework for the quantification, reporting, and verification of reduced-CI biofuel feedstocks grown with low carbon practices. USDA believes the framework specified in this rule provides a more standardized set of guidelines for the quantification, reporting, and verification of reduced-CI biofuel feedstocks grown with low carbon practices. With this more standardized framework, USDA expects that the transaction costs incurred by entities for the quantification, reporting, and verification of reduced-CI feedstocks will be reduced. This standardization is expected to improve the efficiency of quantifying, reporting, tracing, and verifying reduced-CI feedstocks. USDA expects these improvements could facilitate participation in clean fuels policies and programs, should these policies and programs incorporate a reduced-CI for crops produced using low carbon practices. Increased adoption of low carbon practices in the production of biofuel feedstock crops will also generate environmental benefits such as improved water and air quality. Because insufficient data is available to quantify these benefits, the cost benefit analysis only qualitatively discusses them.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Review</HD>
                    <P>This rule qualifies as an activity under USDA categorical exclusion 7 CFR 1b.3(a)(6): “Activities which are advisory and consultative to other agencies and public and private entities, such as legal counselling and representation.” As such, it is excluded from the requirements of an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement under the National Environmental Policy Act (42 U.S.C. 4321-4347) and its implementing procedures. The rule contains voluntary technical guidance in the form of quantification, reporting, and verification standards that may or may not be adopted in future policies at various levels of government to incentivize the adoption of CSA practices for biofuel feedstock production, or may or may not be adopted by proponents of potential future actions that require measurement of GHG emissions. Making voluntary technical guidance available to a variety of users is advisory and consultative in nature. The rule also qualifies as “Educational and informational programs and activities” under 7 CFR 1b.3(a)(4) because technical guidance is educational and informative in nature. The rule does not authorize or fund any policy or action. If the standard is used in any future federal actions, a project specific analysis may be warranted at that time.</P>
                    <P>OEEP has found that there are no extraordinary circumstances indicating that further NEPA analysis would be necessary or informative in promulgating this technical assistance; nor has it found any extraordinary circumstances indicating that providing this voluntary technical guidance may have significant effects on the quality of the human environment, individually or cumulatively. OEEP has determined, therefore, that the rule does not constitute a major Federal action that would significantly affect the quality of the human environment. Therefore, OEEP will not prepare an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement for this regulatory action, and this notice serves as the documentation of the programmatic environmental compliance decision for this federal action.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 12372</HD>
                    <P>Executive Order 12372, “Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs,” requires consultation with State and local officials that would be directly affected by proposed Federal financial assistance. The objectives of the Executive Order are to foster an intergovernmental partnership and a strengthened Federalism, by relying on State and local processes for State and local government coordination and review of proposed Federal Financial assistance and direct Federal development. This rule does not provide Federal financial assistance to State and local governments. Therefore, consultation is not required.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 12988</HD>
                    <P>This rule has been reviewed in accordance with Executive Order 12988, “Civil Justice Reform.” This rule will not preempt State or local laws, regulations, or policies unless they represent an irreconcilable conflict with this rule. Before any judicial actions may be brought regarding the provisions of this rule the administrative appeal provisions of 7 CFR part 11 and 2100 are to be exhausted.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 13132</HD>
                    <P>This rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 13132, “Federalism.” The policies contained in this final rule do not have any substantial direct effect on States, on the relationship between the Federal government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, except as required by law. Nor does this rule impose substantial direct compliance costs on state and local governments. Therefore, consultation with the States is not required.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 13175</HD>
                    <P>Executive Order 13175 requires Federal agencies to consult and coordinate with Tribes on a government-to-government basis on policies that have Tribal implications, including regulations, legislative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or actions that have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian Tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes.</P>
                    <P>This rule has potential Tribal implications. USDA consulted on the rule on September 3, 2025, and received no substantive comments or concerns. If a Tribe requests consultation in the future, OEEP will work with the Office of Tribal Relations to ensure meaningful consultation is provided.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995</HD>
                    <P>
                        Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA), Public Law 104-4, requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their regulatory actions on State, local, and Tribal governments or the private sector. Agencies generally must prepare a written statement, including a cost benefit analysis, for proposed and final rules with Federal mandates that may result in expenditures of $100 million or more in any 1 year for State, local, or Tribal governments, in the aggregate, or to the private sector. UMRA generally requires agencies to consider alternatives and adopt the more cost effective or least burdensome alternative that achieves the objectives of the rule. This rule contains no Federal mandates, as defined in Title II of UMRA for State, local, or Tribal governments, or the private sector. Therefore, this rule is not subject to the requirements of sections 202 and 205 of UMRA.
                        <PRTPAGE P="39355"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">E-Government Act Compliance</HD>
                    <P>OCE is committed to complying with the E-Government Act of 2002, to promote the use of the internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Civil Rights Impact Analysis</HD>
                    <P>OCE has reviewed this final rule in accordance with USDA Regulation 4300-4, Civil Rights Impact Analysis, to identify any major civil rights impacts the final rule might have on program participants on the basis of age, race, color, national origin, sex, disability, marital, or familial status. Based on the review and analysis of the final rule and all available data, issuance of this final rule is not likely to negatively impact low and moderate-income populations, minority populations, women, Indian tribes, or persons with disability, by virtue of their age, race, color, national origin, sex, disability, or martial or familial status. No major civil rights impact is likely to result from this final rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">USDA Non-Discrimination Statement</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with Federal civil rights law and USDA civil rights regulations and policies, USDA, its Agencies, offices, and employees, and institutions participating in or administering USDA programs are prohibited from discriminating based on race, color, national origin, religion, sex, disability, age, marital status, family/parental status, income derived from a public assistance program, political beliefs, or reprisal or retaliation for prior civil rights activity, in any program or activity conducted or funded by USDA (not all bases apply to all programs). Remedies and complaint filing deadlines vary by program or incident.</P>
                    <P>Individuals who require alternative means of communication for program information (for example, braille, large print, audiotape, American Sign Language, etc.) should contact the responsible Agency or the USDA TARGET Center at (202) 720-2600 (voice and text telephone (TTY)) or dial 711 for Telecommunications Relay Service (both voice and text telephone users can initiate this call from any telephone). Additionally, program information may be made available in languages other than English.</P>
                    <P>
                        To file a program discrimination complaint, complete the USDA Program Discrimination Complaint Form, AD-3027, found online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.usda.gov/oascr/how-to-file-a-program-discrimination-complaint</E>
                         and at any USDA office or write a letter addressed to USDA and provide in the letter all the information requested in the form. To request a copy of the complaint form, call (866) 632-9992. Submit your completed form or letter to USDA by: (1) mail to: U.S. Department of Agriculture, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Civil Rights, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20250-9410; (2) fax: (202) 690-7442; or (3) email: 
                        <E T="03">program.intake@usda.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>USDA is an equal opportunity provider, employer, and lender.</P>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 7 CFR Part 2100</HD>
                        <P>Alternative fuels, Agriculture, Environmental protection, Fuel economy, Greenhouse gases, Natural resources, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <P>For the reasons set out in the preamble, the Department amends 7 CFR part 2100 as follows:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 2100—TECHNICAL GUIDELINES FOR THE PRODUCTION OF REGENERATIVE AGRICULTURAL BIOFUEL FEEDSTOCKS</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="2100">
                        <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 2100 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                            <P> 16 U.S.C. 3845-3846.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="2100">
                          
                        <AMDPAR>2. The heading for part 2100 is revised to read as set forth above.</AMDPAR>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="2100">
                        <AMDPAR>3. Revise § 2100.001 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 2100.001</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Purpose.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>The purpose of this part is to establish technical guidelines for quantifying, reporting, and verifying the carbon intensity of agricultural biofuel feedstock commodity crops grown in the United States.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="2100">
                        <AMDPAR>4. Amend § 2100.002 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. In the definition for “Agricultural expert,” removing the words “other persons” and adding the words “other Agricultural Experts” in its place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. In the definition for “Biofuel,” removing the word “a” before the word “liquid”;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. Revising the definition for “Carbon intensity (CI)”;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>d. Removing the definitions for “Climate smart agriculture (CSA) crop” and “Climate smart agriculture (CSA) practices”;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>e. In the definition for “Conventional crop,” removing the word “CSA” and add the word “low-carbon” in its place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>f. In the definition for “Crop interval,” adding the words “and cover crops” after the words “fallow periods”;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>g. Revising the definition for “Intensive tillage”;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>h. In the definition for “Leguminous cover crop,” removing the word “are” and adding the word “is” in its place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. Adding a definition for “Low-carbon agriculture (low-carbon) practices” in alphabetical order;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>j. In the definition for “Management unit,” removing the words “similar treatment needs and planned” and adding the words “the same” in their place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>k. Adding a definition for “Manure” in alphabetical order;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>l. Revising the definitions for “No-till” and “Reduced-carbon intensity (reduced-CI) crop”;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>m. Removing the definition of “Reduced-carbon intensity processed product (Reduced-CI processed product” and adding the definition of “Reduced-carbon intensity (reduced-CI) processed product” in its place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>n. Revising the definition for “Reduced till”;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>o. Removing the definition for “Soil Tillage Intensity Rating (STIR)”; and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>p. Adding definitions for “Spring canola” and “Tillage Disturbance Index for Soil Carbon (T-DISC)” in alphabetical order.</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revisions and additions read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 2100.002 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Carbon intensity (CI)</E>
                                 means a measure of greenhouse gas (GHG) performance reflecting the estimated quantity of GHG emissions associated with one unit of production. For biofuel feedstock crops, carbon intensity is expressed as grams of carbon dioxide equivalent (CO
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                e) per bushel of produced crop (g CO
                                <E T="52">2</E>
                                e/bushel).
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Intensive tillage</E>
                                 means the implementation of a tillage system that involves extensive inversion or mixing of the soil with implements such as a moldboard, disk, or chisel plow. Intensive tillage does not meet the standards of reduced till or no-till in this part.
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Low-carbon agriculture (low-carbon) practices</E>
                                 means agricultural management, practices, systems, and technologies that have been demonstrated to generally reduce GHG emissions or increase soil carbon sequestration.
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Manure</E>
                                 means feces, urine, other excrement, and bedding produced by livestock including dairy, swine, beef and poultry.
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">No-till</E>
                                 means the implementation of a tillage system that limits the amount of 
                                <PRTPAGE P="39356"/>
                                disturbance to soil from mixing or inversion, creating only minor disturbances to the upper layers of soil throughout the crop interval.
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Reduced-carbon intensity (reduced-CI) crop</E>
                                 means a crop that is produced according to this part.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Reduced-carbon intensity (reduced-CI) processed product</E>
                                 means a product derived from reduced-CI crops, between the farm and first biofuel refiner, used for the production of biofuel.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Reduced till</E>
                                 means the implementation of a tillage system that limits disturbance to soil from mixing or inversion throughout the crop interval but allows minimal tillage and soil disturbance.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Spring canola</E>
                                 means a canola crop that is planted during or between the months of January and June.
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Tillage Disturbance Index for Soil Carbon (T-DISC)</E>
                                 means a numerical value between 0-1 that estimates the intensity of soil disturbance caused by a tillage system. The higher the value, the more soil disturbance and higher potential for soil carbon loss. The T-DISC value applies to the entire tillage system used in producing a crop. The components of the rating include tillage type, mixing efficiency, and tillage depth. 
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="2100">
                        <AMDPAR>5. Revise and republish §§ 2100.011 and 2100.012 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 2100.011 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Biofuel feedstock crops.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>Crops produced in accordance with subparts F and G of this part, where a CI is quantified in accordance with subpart C of this part, are referred to as reduced-CI crops. Crops produced not in accordance with this part are referred to as conventional crops. A farm producer may produce both reduced-CI crops and conventional crops. Reduced-CI crops and conventional crops can be physically mixed. Crops for which a reduced-CI may be quantified include:</P>
                            <P>(a) Field corn;</P>
                            <P>(b) Soybeans;</P>
                            <P>(c) Sorghum; and</P>
                            <P>(d) Spring canola.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 2100.012 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Low-carbon practices to produce reduced-CI crops.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>Reduced-CI crops must be produced using nutrient management or nutrient management and one or more low-carbon practice(s):</P>
                            <P>(a) No-till or reduced till; and/or</P>
                            <P>(b) Cover crops.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="2100">
                        <AMDPAR>6. Revise and republish subpart C to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Quantification of Field-level Crop-specific Carbon Intensity</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 2100.020 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Quantification of CI.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>Any farm producing and selling reduced-CI crops must calculate a field-level CI for each field or management unit employing nutrient management or a unique combination of nutrient management and low-carbon practices for each crop type (field corn, soybeans, sorghum, or spring canola). The field-level crop-specific CI represents the net GHG emissions resulting from production of one bushel of that crop on a specified field or management unit. The field-level crop-specific CI applies to the year in which the crop was harvested and the total amount of a crop harvested from that field or management unit in a given year must be included in the calculation. Once a field-level CI is calculated for a specific crop, the total amount of that crop from that field is assigned the field-level crop-specific CI and may be sold as reduced-CI crop. To calculate the field-level CI for each crop:</P>
                                <P>(a) Farm producers must calculate the CI for each field or management unit on which nutrient management and low-carbon practice(s) were implemented, in accordance with subparts F and G of this part, using the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) Feedstock Carbon Intensity Calculator (FD-CIC). This step must be repeated for every field or management unit producing reduced-CI crops. To calculate a field or management unit-level CI in USDA FD-CIC, farm producers must input data on:</P>
                                <P>(1) Farm location (county and state).</P>
                                <P>(2) Crop type produced.</P>
                                <P>(3) Field or management unit acres.</P>
                                <P>(4) Actual yield adjusted to the following moisture content.</P>
                                <P>(i) For field corn, 15.5%;</P>
                                <P>(ii) For soybeans, 13%;</P>
                                <P>(iii) For sorghum, 14%; and</P>
                                <P>(iv) For spring canola, 8.5%.</P>
                                <P>(5) Expected yield.</P>
                                <P>(i) For farm producers holding a crop insurance policy covering the reduced-CI crop for the current crop interval, farm producers must input the expected yield as the USDA Risk Management Agency (RMA) applicable approved yield(s) used to establish coverage on their crop insurance policy; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) For farm producers that do not hold a crop insurance policy, a farm producer must input the expected yield as the RMA applicable transitional yield(s) or Agriculture Risk Coverage (ARC) County Benchmark yield for their county published by the Farm Service Agency (FSA).</P>
                                <P>(6) Total synthetic nitrogen applied per acre.</P>
                                <P>(7) Fraction of synthetic nitrogen receiving nitrification inhibitors.</P>
                                <P>(8) Amount, type, and nitrogen content of manure applied.</P>
                                <P>(9) Use of no-till or reduced till.</P>
                                <P>(10) Use of a cover crop or grazed cover crop.</P>
                                <P>(b) USDA FD-CIC will use the farm producer inputs from paragraph (a) of this section to calculate a CI for each field or management unit.</P>
                                <P>(c) Farm producers must repeat paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section for each field or management unit for each crop type that is sold as reduced-CI crop.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="2100">
                        <AMDPAR>7. Amend § 2100.030 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Removing the words “from when” and adding the words “beginning at the date in which” in their place in paragraph (d); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Adding paragraph (e).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The addition reads as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 2100.030</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>General recordkeeping and reporting standards.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (e) Any entity specified in § 2100.010 that participates in or has recently participated in more than one sustainability certification system must provide a third-party verifier with relevant documentation (
                                <E T="03">e.g.</E>
                                 mass balance, auditing reports) of all relevant certification systems to assess compliance with § 2100.031(e)(4)(v).
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="2100">
                        <AMDPAR>8. Revise and republish § 2100.031 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 2100.031 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Farm recordkeeping and reporting standards.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) Farm producers must keep records demonstrating implementation of the nutrient management and low-carbon practices used in calculation of a CI.</P>
                            <P>(1) For reduced till or no-till, see § 2100.051(c).</P>
                            <P>(2) For cover crops, see § 2100.052(b).</P>
                            <P>(3) For nutrient management, see § 2100.064.</P>
                            <P>(b) Farm producers must keep records demonstrating all sales from the farm of corn, soybeans, sorghum, and spring canola for the duration of the crop interval. These records must indicate the total amount sold, moisture content, the purchasing entity, and the date of the transaction. For sales of reduced-CI crop, records must also include the CI.</P>
                            <P>(c) Farm producers must provide records demonstrating the expected yield input in USDA FD-CIC which must include:</P>
                            <P>(1) For farm producers holding a crop insurance policy covering the reduced-CI crop for the current crop interval, records demonstrating the crop insurance policy documenting the expected yield used in the CI calculation; or</P>
                            <P>
                                (2) For farm producers that do not hold a crop insurance policy, records 
                                <PRTPAGE P="39357"/>
                                demonstrating the appropriate transitional yield published by USDA RMA (for example, screenshots or printouts from the RMA web pages or RMA documents where transitional yields for the appropriate county and crop are published) or the appropriate ARC-County Benchmark yield published by USDA FSA.
                            </P>
                            <P>(d) Farm producers must provide records demonstrating that the actual yield input in USDA FD-CIC is adjusted to the applicable moisture content according to § 2100.020(a)(4).</P>
                            <P>(e) For each crop that is sold as a reduced-CI crop, farm producers must prepare and maintain a Biofuel Feedstock Report. Farm producers must provide the Biofuel Feedstock Report to any entity purchasing reduced-CI crop. The Biofuel Feedstock Report must:</P>
                            <P>(1) Begin with a statement that the undersigned farm producer certifies the following under penalties of perjury.</P>
                            <P>(2) State the farm name, farm producer name, and farm location (county and state).</P>
                            <P>(3) Demonstrate the quantification of each field or management unit with reduced-CI crop through:</P>
                            <P>(i) Documentation of USDA FD-CIC calculation for each field or management unit (for example, screenshots or printouts from the USDA FD-CIC tool, or similar documentation showing USDA FD-CIC inputs and outputs including CI for each field or management unit) including a unique identifier for each field or management unit.</P>
                            <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                            <P>(4) Include a Farm Producer Attestation declaring that the farm producer:</P>
                            <P>(i) Has operational control over all fields using low-carbon practices and has decision-making authority to manage fields as specified for practice standards in subpart F of this part and nutrient management standards in subpart G of this part;</P>
                            <P>(ii) Implemented low-carbon practice(s) that were used in calculation of the CI according to the implementation standards in subpart F of this part, implemented nutrient management according to the implementation standards in subpart G of this part, inputted nitrogen applied and yield accurately into the calculation of the CI, and if applicable, applied manure according to § 2100.062;</P>
                            <P>(iii) Calculated each field-level CI as specified in subpart C of this part;</P>
                            <P>(iv) Will retain required records for five years and make records available upon request to accredited third-party verifier;</P>
                            <P>(v) Will not double sell CI information, attributes, or GHG benefits associated with the reduced-CI crop into more than one market;</P>
                            <P>(vi) When implementing no-till, will continue no-till on all crops in the rotation for a minimum of four out of every five years; and</P>
                            <P>(vii) Did not convert the land used to produce reduced-CI biofuel feedstock crops into crop production after January 17th, 2025.</P>
                            <P>(5) Include a statement that the farm producer understands that the fraudulent use of this Biofuel Feedstock Report may subject the farm producer, or any other party making fraudulent use of this Biofuel Feedstock Report, to a fine or imprisonment, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.</P>
                            <P>(6) Be signed by the farm producer.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="2100">
                        <AMDPAR>9. Amend § 2100.032 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. In paragraph (a) introductory text:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. Removing the word “reporting” and adding “recordkeeping” in its place; and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>ii. Adding the words “ensure accuracy and” after the words “place to”;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. In paragraph (a)(1)(i), adding the words “and moisture content” after the word “amount”;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. In paragraph (b) introductory text:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. Removing the word “chapter” and adding “section” in its place; and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>ii. Removing the word “some” and adding “the following” in its place; and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>d. Revising and republishing paragraph (c).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revision reads as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 2100.032 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>First point of aggregation and intermediary entity recordkeeping and reporting standards.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(c) When a first point of aggregation or intermediary entity sells reduced-CI crops or reduced-CI processed products, the entity must provide the following documentation to the purchasing entity:</P>
                            <P>(1) Documentation that the first point of aggregation or intermediary entity received third-party verification in accordance with this part;</P>
                            <P>(2) The Biofuel Feedstock Report associated with the reduced-CI crop or the reduced-CI crop used as an input in the reduced-CI processed product being sold; and</P>
                            <P>(3) An attestation including the following information signed under penalties of perjury:</P>
                            <P>(i) Total amount of reduced-CI crop or reduced-CI processed product sold;</P>
                            <P>(ii) CI(s) associated with the amount of reduced-CI crop or reduced-CI processed product sold; and</P>
                            <P>(iii) A statement that the first point of aggregation or intermediary entity understands that the fraudulent use of this attestation may subject the entity and all parties making any fraudulent use of this attestation to a fine or imprisonment, or both, together with the cost of prosecution.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="2100">
                        <AMDPAR>10. Amend § 2100.033 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Revising the section heading;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Adding the words “or spring canola” after the word “soybeans” in paragraph (a) introductory text;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. Revising paragraphs (a)(1) and (b)(3); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>d. Adding paragraph (b)(4).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revisions and addition read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 2100.033 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Additional recordkeeping standards for entities that process, sell, or purchase processed product derived from reduced-CI crops.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) * * *</P>
                            <P>(1) Keep records on processing of reduced-CI crops, including the entity's crushing yield, the amount of reduced-CI crop used in processing, the Biofuel Feedstock Report associated with all reduced-CI crop being processed into reduced-CI processed product, and the corresponding amount of reduced-CI processed product; and</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(b) * * *</P>
                            <P>(3) The Biofuel Feedstock Report associated with reduced-CI crop used as an input for reduced-CI processed product sold or purchased; and</P>
                            <P>(4) The amount of reduced-CI processed product sold or purchased.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="2100">
                        <AMDPAR>11. Amend § 2100.034 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>
                            a. Adding the words “measured at their dry weight (0% moisture content) and are” after the words “entity 
                            <E T="03">i</E>
                             are” in paragraph (d)(1) introductory text; and
                        </AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Adding paragraph (e).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The addition reads as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 2100.034 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Mass balance recordkeeping standards.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(e) Entities must provide documentation of amounts in dry weight of incoming and outgoing conventional crop for each time period to the third-party verifier during audits.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="2100">
                        <AMDPAR>12. Amend § 2100.035 by revising and republishing paragraph (b) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 2100.035 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Biofuel refiner recordkeeping standards.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(b) For reduced-CI crops and reduced-CI processed products that are sourced from a first point of aggregation or intermediary entity, a biofuel refiner must keep:</P>
                            <P>
                                (1) Records of incoming reduced-CI crops or reduced-CI processed products, 
                                <PRTPAGE P="39358"/>
                                which, at a minimum this includes records of incoming reduced-CI crop or reduced-CI processed products, including the total amount of reduced-CI crop or reduced-CI processed product purchased, the moisture content of reduced-CI crop, the entity from which the crop or processed product was purchased, the associated CI, and the date of the transaction;
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) The Biofuel Feedstock Report associated with the reduced-CI crop or the reduced-CI crop used as an input in the reduced-CI processed product purchased; and</P>
                            <P>(3) Documentation that the entity supplying reduced-CI crop or reduced-CI processed product has undergone third-party verification by an accredited third-party verifier and met the standards of this part, including any attestations made by the entity as required under §§ 2100.031 and 2100.032.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="2100">
                        <AMDPAR>13. Amend § 2100.040 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Revising the first sentence in paragraph (a)(3) introductory text and paragraph (a)(3)(iii);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Revising and republishing paragraph (b)(3); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. Adding paragraph (g).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revisions and addition read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 2100.040 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Third-party audits.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(a) * * *</P>
                            <P>(3) The first point of aggregation must include all farms supplying reduced-CI crops in its audit scope. * * *</P>
                            <P>(iii) The third-party verifier must select the individual farms to be included in the sample for verification. The third-party verifier should select the sample in a way that is representative of supplying farms' characteristics including types of supplied reduced-CI crop, size of farm, geographic location, and risk of non-conformity or fraud and include an element of randomization in the selection.</P>
                            <P>(b) * * *</P>
                            <P>(3) For farms that are audited individually or included in an audit sample:</P>
                            <P>(i) The third-party verifier must verify that low-carbon practices, nutrient management, and recordkeeping is in accordance with the standards in subparts F and G of this part;</P>
                            <P>(ii) The third-party verifier must verify that the field-level CI for each crop is calculated correctly in accordance with subpart C of this part; and</P>
                            <P>(iii) The third-party verifier must verify that the actual yield is accurate and accounted for correctly in accordance with §§ 2100.020(a)(4) and 2100.031; and</P>
                            <P>(iv) The third-party verifier must verify that the expected yield is accurate in accordance with § 2100.020(a)(5); and</P>
                            <P>(v) Records from relevant sub-contractors or service providers must be made available during the farm audit at the request of the third-party verifier if necessary to audit practice standards.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (g) 
                                <E T="03">Audit standards for entities participating in multiple sustainability markets.</E>
                                 For each entity that that participates in or has recently participated in more than one sustainability certification system, an audit conducted by a third-party verifier must verify that multiple claiming (for example, double counting) of sustainability characteristics cannot and did not occur. The third-party verifier should assess relevant documentation (for example, mass balance accounting, auditing reports) of all relevant certification systems. The third-party verifier must verify the overall plausibility of incoming and outgoing sustainable material and ensure that the sustainable material sold is not greater than the sustainable material received.
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="2100">
                        <AMDPAR>14. Revise § 2100.041 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 2100.041 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Accreditation of third-party verifiers.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>Third-party verifiers that conduct audits in accordance with this part must:</P>
                            <P>(a) Be accredited to ISO 14065: General principles and requirements for bodies validating and verifying environmental information by a member of the Global Accreditation Cooperation Incorporated (Global ACI);</P>
                            <P>(b) Be unrelated to the entity seeking verification. To avoid any real or potential conflict of interest, a third-party verifier must not have a relationship with the entity based on one or more of the following factors (this is a non-exclusive list): familial or personal relationship, or shared ownership, governance, management, personnel, resources, finances, contracts, or marketing (including branding); and</P>
                            <P>(c) Assign at least one verifier to the verification team who is an Agricultural Expert.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="2100">
                        <AMDPAR>15. Revise the heading of subpart F to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart F—Low-Carbon Agriculture Practice Standards</HD>
                        </SUBPART>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 2100.050 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="2100">
                        <AMDPAR>16. Amend § 2100.050 by removing the word “CSA” and adding the words “Low-carbon” in its place. </AMDPAR>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="2100">
                        <AMDPAR>17. Amend § 2100.051 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Revising and republishing paragraph (a)(1);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Adding the words “or harvested” after the word “burned” in paragraph (a)(3);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. In paragraph (a)(4), removing the words “the planting operation is allowed” and adding the words “the cash crop or cover crop planting or seeding operation is allowed” in their place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>d. Revising and republishing paragraph (b)(1);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>e. Adding the words “or harvested” after the word “burned” in paragraph (b)(2);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>f. Revising and republishing paragraph (b)(3) and the introductory text of paragraph (c);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>g. In paragraph (c)(6), removing the second sentence; and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>h. In paragraph (d), removing the word “STIR” in the last sentence and adding the word “T-DISC” in its place.</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revisions read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 2100.051 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Tillage management.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(a) * * *</P>
                            <P>(1) The T-DISC value of the tillage system must be no greater than 0.252. Tillage methods where the entire soil surface is disturbed by tillage operations such as chisel plowing, field cultivating, tandem disking, vertical tillage, or ridge tillage are permitted. The T-DISC value must include all field operations that are performed during the crop interval (that is, from the time immediately following harvest or termination of one cash crop through harvest or termination of the next cash crop in the rotation, including fallow periods). The T-DISC value must be determined using USDA's T-DISC calculator or utilizing USDA's T-DISC methodology and underlying parameters to produce results equivalent to those produced by USDA's T-DISC calculator. Permitted methods are also commonly referred to as mulch tillage, conservation tillage, or ridge till;</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(b) * * *</P>
                            <P>
                                (1) The T-DISC value of the tillage system must be no greater than 0.075. Full-width soil disturbance must not be performed, from the time immediately following harvest or termination of one cash crop through harvest or 
                                <PRTPAGE P="39359"/>
                                termination of the next cash crop in the rotation, regardless of the depth of the tillage operation. Strip tillage and fertilizer injection are permitted. The T-DISC value must include all field operations that are performed during the crop interval (that is, from the time immediately following harvest or termination of one cash crop through harvest or termination of the next cash crop in the rotation, including fallow periods). The T-DISC value must be determined using USDA's T-DISC calculator or utilizing USDA's T-DISC methodology and underlying parameters to produce results equivalent to those produced by USDA's T-DISC calculator;
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(3) Removing residue from the crop planting row area prior to or as part of the cash crop or cover crop planting or seeding operation is allowed.</P>
                            <P>
                                (c) 
                                <E T="03">Tillage management recordkeeping standards.</E>
                                 Records must contain sufficient detail to be readily understood and auditable. Records may be of varying types and origins including, but not limited to, physical documentation (for example, paper forms, invoices, receipts, seed tags), digital files (including from farm management software), data generated by farm equipment (for example, precision agriculture equipment), remotely sensed data, georeferenced and timestamped photographs, or data and records used for participation in USDA programs. The records under this paragraph (c) for the year in which the practice is implemented must be kept for 5 years and demonstrate:
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="2100">
                        <AMDPAR>18. Revise and republish § 2100.052 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 2100.052 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Cover crop management.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Cover crop standards.</E>
                                 To qualify for the cover crop practice under this part, field(s) or management unit(s) must be managed according to the following standards:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Cover crop species selection, seedbed preparation, seeding rate(s), seeding date, seeding depth, and seeding method must be consistent with applicable soil and site conditions;</P>
                            <P>(2) When a leguminous cover crop is used individually or as part of a mix, the farm producer must develop a nutrient budget which demonstrates:</P>
                            <P>(i) The available nitrogen resulting from the cover crop; and</P>
                            <P>(ii) An adjustment in total planned nitrogen application to the harvested production crop following the cover crop;</P>
                            <P>(3) Cover crops must be seeded in the fall. Cover crop may be interseeded into an existing or established crop. Cover crop species and seeding dates should not adversely affect crop yield or interfere with the maintenance and harvest process;</P>
                            <P>(4) Cover crops should be seeded as early as possible and terminated as late as practical (late vegetative stage or later), with termination timing established to minimize the risk of yield loss and soil moisture depletion;</P>
                            <P>(5) Cover crops must be terminated via winter kill or using herbicide or non-soil disturbing mechanical methods (that is, roller crimper, mowing) in the spring;</P>
                            <P>(6) Planting green is permitted;</P>
                            <P>(7) Cover crop biomass must not be mechanically harvested. Residues must remain on the surface following termination and may not be burned; and</P>
                            <P>(8) If cover crops are grazed prior to termination, grazing should occur at later stages of maturity in order to maximize root biomass and to allow for at least 50% of the total above ground vegetation to remain with the majority to be flattened onto the soil surface.</P>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Cover crop recordkeeping standards.</E>
                                 Records must contain sufficient detail to be readily understood and auditable. Records may be of varying types and origins including, but not limited to, physical documentation (for example, paper forms, invoices, receipts, seed tags), digital files (including from farm management software), data generated by farm equipment (for example, precision agriculture equipment), remotely sensed data, georeferenced and timestamped photographs, or data and records used for participation in USDA programs. The records under this paragraph (b) for the year in which the practice is implemented must be kept for 5 years and demonstrate:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Purchase and receipt of cover crop seed in sufficient quantities to cover the area seeded;</P>
                            <P>(2) Field(s) or management unit(s) where cover crop practice is implemented, including location and acreage;</P>
                            <P>(3) Cover crop seeding date, method, and seeding rate;</P>
                            <P>(4) Total acreage seeded in cover crop across the operation;</P>
                            <P>(5) Photographic evidence of cover crop establishment;</P>
                            <P>(6) Cover crop termination date and method;</P>
                            <P>(7) Total bushels of the crop harvested from field(s) or management unit(s) where the cover crop practice was implemented immediately prior to seeding or planting the harvested production crop; and</P>
                            <P>(8) For grazed cover crops, georeferenced and timestamped photographs of cover crops being grazed.</P>
                            <P>
                                (c) 
                                <E T="03">Cover crop verification.</E>
                                 When auditing the cover crop practice, third-party verifiers must review documentation demonstrating cover crop species selection, seeding date, seeding method, seeding rate, total seeded acreage, termination date, and termination method. Through an on-site visit, remote sensing data, or georeferenced and timestamped photographs, third-party verifiers must verify the establishment of cover crops.
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 2100.053 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Removed]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="2100">
                        <AMDPAR>19. Remove § 2100.053.</AMDPAR>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="7" PART="2100">
                        <AMDPAR>20. Add subpart G, consisting of §§ 2100.060 through 2100.065, to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart G—Nutrient Management Standards</HD>
                        </SUBPART>
                        <CONTENTS>
                            <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                            <SECTNO>2100.060 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>General nutrient management.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>2100.061 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Nitrification inhibitor standards.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>2100.062 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Manure application standards.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>2100.063 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Nutrient management recordkeeping standards.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>2100.064 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Nutrient management verification.</SUBJECT>
                        </CONTENTS>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 2100.060 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> General nutrient management.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>Every field or management unit must be managed according to the following standards:</P>
                            <P>(a) Prior to application of nutrients, the farm producer must develop and document a planned nutrient budget, yield goal, and applications of at a minimum, nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium (N-P-K) in pounds per acre. The nutrient budget must account for all known measurable nutrient sources and removals. Sources of nitrogen may include, but are not limited to, commercial fertilizers (including starter and in-furrow starter or pop-up fertilizer), animal manures, legume crops, green manures, plant or crop residues, compost, organic by-products, digestate, municipal and industrial biosolids, wastewater, organic materials, estimated plant available soil nutrients, and irrigation water; and</P>
                            <P>
                                (b) The farm producer must base the nutrient budget on current soil test results or the professional opinion of an Agricultural Expert who is employed by the Cooperative Extension System or the agricultural departments of universities, or other Agricultural Experts approved by the Federal Crop Insurance Corporation (FCIC), whose research or occupation is related to the specific crop or practice for which such expertise is sought. If the nutrient budget is based on soil test results, soil test results must 
                                <PRTPAGE P="39360"/>
                                be no older than 2 years. Tissue testing may be used for monitoring or adjusting the nutrient budget in accordance with the state land grant university (LGU) guidance, or industry practice recognized by the state LGU. If the nutrient budget is based on the professional opinion of an Agricultural Expert, the Agricultural Expert must be unrelated to the farm producer. To avoid any real or potential conflict of interest, an Agricultural Expert must not have a relationship with the farm producer based on one or more of the following factors (this is a non-exclusive list): familial or personal relationship, or shared ownership, governance, management, personnel, resources, finances, contracts, or marketing (including branding).
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 2100.061 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Nitrification inhibitor standards.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>To include the use of nitrification inhibitors in the calculation of the carbon intensity of the reduced-CI crop under this part, field(s) or management unit(s) must be managed in accordance with § 2100.060. Nitrification inhibitors must be defined by the Association of American Plant Food Control Officers (AAPFCO) and be accepted for use by the State fertilizer control official, or similar authority, with responsibility for verification of product guarantees, ingredients (by AAPFCO definition), and label claims.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 2100.062 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Manure application standards.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>Farm producers applying solid or liquid manure must apply manure according to the following standards:</P>
                            <P>(a) Farm producers may not exceed application rates as stated in their nutrient budget developed in accordance with § 2100.060; and</P>
                            <P>(b) A manure test for each type of manure applied must be used for development of the nutrient budget required in § 2100.060. The manure test must be collected during the current crop interval. The manure test must at a minimum provide information on N-P-K content of the manure.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 2100.063 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Nutrient management recordkeeping standards.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>Records must contain sufficient detail to be readily understood and auditable. Records may be of varying types and origins, including, but not limited to, physical documentation (for example, paper forms, invoices, receipts, seed tags), digital files (including from farm management software), data generated by farm equipment (for example, precision agriculture equipment, as applied maps), remotely sensed data, georeferenced and timestamped photographs, or data and records used for participation in USDA programs. The records under this section for the year in which the reduced-CI crop is produced must be kept for 5 years and demonstrate:</P>
                            <P>(a) A nutrient budget that accounts for realistic yield goal and all known and measurable sources of N-P-K based on either soil test results or the professional opinion of an Agricultural Expert who is employed by the Cooperative Extension System or the agricultural departments of universities, or Agricultural Experts approved by the FCIC, whose research or occupation is related to the specific crop or practice for which such expertise is sought.</P>
                            <P>(1) If using soil test results, records must demonstrate soil test results, soil test methods, laboratory where soil test was conducted, and date of the soil test within 2 years of the development of the nutrient budget;</P>
                            <P>(2) If using the professional opinion of an Agricultural Expert, a statement by the Agricultural Expert documenting how they currently meet the requirements in § 2100.060(b) and if applicable, documentation of any professional certification including certification name, number, license name and number, agricultural retailer business name, or other brief written statement indicating how the requirements are met; and</P>
                            <P>(3) If used, in-season soil samples or tissue samples results for N analysis should be provided along with methods, laboratory, and date sampled.</P>
                            <P>(b) Date(s), method(s), location(s) of all nutrient applications in pounds per acre for N-P-K per field or management unit.</P>
                            <P>(c) Receipts identifying the source and type of nutrients supplied, including nutrient content.</P>
                            <P>(d) Planting or seeding date for each field or management unit where reduced-CI crop is produced.</P>
                            <P>(e) Total acreage for each field or management unit where reduced-CI crop is produced.</P>
                            <P>(f) Total bushels of the crop harvested from each field or management unit where reduced-CI crop is produced.</P>
                            <P>(g) Nitrification inhibitor recordkeeping. Farm producers applying nitrification inhibitors must maintain records of receipts identifying the amount and the type of nitrification inhibitors applied are in accordance with § 2100.061.</P>
                            <P>(h) Manure application recordkeeping. Farm producers applying manure must maintain records that demonstrate:</P>
                            <P>(1) Date of sample, description of where manure collection occurred, and animal source of the manure for each type of manure tested and applied;</P>
                            <P>(2) Results of manure test(s) for each type of manure applied; and</P>
                            <P>(3) Records demonstrating amount of manure applied:</P>
                            <P>(i) For manure originating outside the farm, receipts demonstrating the sale or exchange of manure including date, quantity, type, and location of manure source; or</P>
                            <P>(ii) For manure that is produced on farm:</P>
                            <P>(A) If the farm participates in a livestock insurance program, insurance records demonstrating number of head or flock size specific to the year in which the manure was produced; or</P>
                            <P>(B) If the farm does not participate in an insurance program, farm records demonstrating livestock inventory specific to the year in which the manure was produced such as receipts of livestock or livestock products sold, permits, program enrollment documents that demonstrate number of head or flock size.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 2100.064 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Nutrient management verification.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>When auditing nutrient management implementation, the third-party verifier must verify development of a nutrient management budget that accounts for all known and measurable sources of nutrients (that is, N-P-K). The third-party verifier must verify that the nutrient management budget was developed based on current soil test results or the professional opinion of an Agricultural Expert who is employed by the Cooperative Extension System or the agricultural departments of universities, or other Agricultural Experts approved by the FCIC, whose research or occupation is related to the specific crop or practice for which such expertise is sought. The third-party verifier must verify that the nitrogen application and yield in each field or management unit on the Biofuel Feedstock Report is aligned with records. For nitrification inhibitors, the third-party verifier must verify that inhibitors followed requirements in § 2100.061. For farms applying manure, the third-party verifier must verify that the manure recorded in the calculation of the CI is consistent with farm records required in § 2100.063(h).  </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <SIG>
                        <NAME>Kathryn Zook,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Acting Director, Office of Energy and Environmental Policy, Office of the Chief Economist.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2026-13092 Filed 6-26-26; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-GL-P</BILCOD>
            </RULE>
        </RULES>
    </NEWPART>
</FEDREG>
