In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 35), this notice announces the U.S. Department of Agriculture's (USDA) intention to request an extension for—and a revision to the Advisory Committee and Research and Promotion Background Information collection form and applicable supplemental questionnaires.

The revised form and supplemental information will allow applicants to answer questions in more detail of their foreign citizenship identification (passport number, passport expiration date, and issuing country). In addition, if an applicant is a foreign national, identify if this person resided in the United States (U.S.) for 3 years or more continuous years. The primary objective is to determine the qualifications, suitability, and availability of a candidate to serve on advisory committees, research and promotion and marketing order boards. The primary objective is to determine the qualifications, suitability, and availability of a candidate to serve on advisory committees, research and promotion, and marketing boards. Lastly, the AD-755 Form and supplemental questionnaire are being digitized for the receipt of applications to allow applicants to access and complete the form electronically and more securely safeguard data and information collection.

Title: Advisory Committee and Research and Promotion Background Information.

OMB Number: 0505-0001.

Expiration Date of Approval: October 31, 2027.

Type of Request: Revision of a currently approved information collection form document and with a revised research and promotion and marketing order board supplemental lists with digitization to the receipt of applications.

Abstract: The primary objective is to determine the qualifications, suitability and availability of a candidate to serve on advisory committees and/or research and promotion boards. The information will be used to both conduct background clearances on the candidates and to compile annual reports regarding membership.

Estimate of Burden: Public reporting burden for this collection of information is estimated to average 30 minutes per response.

Respondents: Individuals.

Estimated Number of Respondents: 5,500.

Estimated Number of Responses per Respondent: One (1).

Estimated Total Annual Burden on Respondents: 5,500.

Comments are invited on: (1) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

Comments may be sent to Ms. Cikena Reid, Committee Management Officer, the White House Liaison Office, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, the Whitten Building, Room 536-A, Washington, DC 20250; fax: 202-720-9286; or by email: cikena.reid@usda.gov. Comments must be postmarked 10 business days prior to the deadline to ensure timely receipt.

All comments received will be available for public inspection during regular business hours at the same address.

All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.

Commerce's procedures for the conduct of Sunset Reviews are set forth in its Procedures for Conducting Five-Year (Sunset) Reviews of Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Orders, 63 FR 13516 (March 20, 1998) and 70 FR 62061 (October 28, 2005). Guidance on methodological or analytical issues relevant to Commerce's conduct of Sunset Reviews is set forth in Antidumping Proceedings: Calculation of the Weighted-Average Dumping Margin and Assessment Rate in Certain Antidumping Duty Proceedings; Final Modification, 77 FR 8101 (February 14, 2012).

In accordance with section 751(c) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.218(c), we are initiating the Sunset Reviews of the following antidumping and countervailing duty order(s) and suspended investigation(s):

This preliminary determination is made in accordance with section 733(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Commerce published the notice of initiation of this investigation in the Federal Register on November 25, 2024. 1 On March 11, 2025, Commerce postponed the preliminary determination of this investigation, and the revised deadline is now May 27, 2025. 2

For a complete description of the events that followed the initiation of this investigation, see the Preliminary Decision Memorandum. 3 A list of topics included in the Preliminary Decision Memorandum is included as Appendix II to this notice. The Preliminary Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS). ACCESS is available to registered users at https://access.trade.gov. In addition, a complete version of the Preliminary Decision Memorandum can be accessed directly at https://access.trade.gov/public/FRNoticesListLayout.aspx.

The products covered by this investigation are overhead door springs from China. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation, see Appendix I.

In accordance with the Preamble to Commerce's regulations, 4 the Initiation Notice set aside a period of time for parties to raise issues regarding product coverage ( i.e., scope). 5 Certain interested parties commented on the scope of the investigation as it appeared in the Initiation Notice. For a summary of the product coverage comments and rebuttal responses submitted to the record for this investigation, and accompanying discussion and analysis of all comments timely received, see the Preliminary Scope Decision Memorandum. 6 Commerce is not preliminarily modifying the scope language as it appeared in the Initiation Notice. See the scope in Appendix I to this notice.

Commerce is conducting this investigation in accordance with section 731 of the Act. Pursuant to sections 776(a) and (b) of the Act, Commerce preliminarily has relied upon facts otherwise available, with adverse inferences, for the China-wide entity, including the companies selected for individual examination: Foshan Nanhai Xulong Spring Factory (Xulong Spring) and Tianjin Wangxia Spring Co Ltd. (Tianjin Wangxia). For a full description of the methodology underlying Commerce's preliminary determination, see the Preliminary Decision Memorandum.

In the Initiation Notice, 7 Commerce stated that it would calculate producer/exporter combination rates for the respondents that are eligible for a separate rate in this investigation. Policy Bulletin 05.1 describes this practice. 8

We preliminarily granted a separate rate to certain separate rate respondents that we did not select for individual examination. 9 In calculating the rate for non-individually examined separate rate respondents in a non-market economy LTFV investigation, Commerce normally looks to section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act, which pertains to the calculation of the all-others rate in a market economy LTFV investigation, for guidance. Pursuant to section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act, normally this rate shall be an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for those companies individually-examined, excluding any dumping margins that are zero, de minimis, or based entirely under section 776 of the Act.

The estimated weighted average dumping margins for the two companies individually-examined are based entirely under section 776 of the Act. In investigations where no estimated weighted-average dumping margins other than zero, de minimis, or those determined entirely under section 776 of the Act have been established for individually-examined entities, in accordance with section 735(c)(5)(B) of the Act, Commerce's practice is to calculate a simple average of the margins alleged in the petition and applies the results to the entities not individually examined but found eligible for a separate rate. 10 In this investigation, the simple average of the rates in the Petition is 734.33 percent. 11 See the table below in the “Preliminary Determination” section of this notice.

Commerce preliminarily determines that the following estimated weighted-average dumping margins exist:

In accordance with section 733(d)(2) of the Act, Commerce will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of subject merchandise as described in the scope of the investigation section entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of this notice in the Federal Register , as discussed below. Further, pursuant to section 733(d)(1)(B) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(d), Commerce will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit equal to the weighted average amount by which normal value exceeds U.S. price, as indicated in the chart above as follows: (1) for the producer/exporter combinations listed in the table above, the cash deposit rate is equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margin listed for that combination in the table; (2) for all combinations of Chinese producers/exporters of merchandise under consideration that have not established eligibility for their own separate rates, the cash deposit rate will be equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margin established for the China-wide entity; and (3) for all third-county exporters of merchandise under consideration not listed in the table above, the cash deposit rate is the cash deposit rate applicable to the Chinese producer/exporter combination (or China-wide entity) that supplied that third-country exporter.

Should provisional measures in the companion CVD investigation expire prior to the expiration of provisional measures in this LTFV investigation, Commerce will direct CBP to begin collecting cash deposits at a rate equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margins calculated in this preliminary determination unadjusted for the passed-through domestic subsidies or for export subsidies at the time the CVD provisional measures expire.

Commerce intends to disclose to interested parties the calculations performed in connection with this preliminary determination within five days of its public announcement or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).

Consistent with 19 CFR 351.224(e), Commerce will analyze and, if appropriate, correct any timely allegations of significant ministerial errors by amending the preliminary determination. However, consistent with 19 CFR 351.224(d), Commerce will not consider incomplete allegations that do not address the significance standard under 19 CFR 351.224(g) following the preliminary determination. Instead, Commerce will address such allegations in the final determination together with issues raised in the case briefs or other written comments.

Because the mandatory respondents in this investigation did not provide information requested by Commerce and Commerce preliminarily determines each of the mandatory respondents to have been uncooperative, we will not conduct verification.

Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than 30 days after the date of publication of the preliminary determination, unless the Secretary alters the time limit. 13 Rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in the case briefs, may be filed not later than five days after the date for filing case briefs. 14 Interested parties who submit case briefs or rebuttal briefs in this proceeding must submit: (1) a table of contents listing each issue; and (2) a table of authorities. 15

As provided under 19 CFR 351.309(c)(2) and (d)(2), in prior proceedings we have encouraged interested parties to provide an executive summary of their brief that should be limited to five pages total, including footnotes. In this investigation, we instead request that interested parties provide at the beginning of their briefs a public, executive summary for each issue raised in their briefs. 16 Further, we request that interested parties limit their executive summary of each issue to no more than 450 words, not including citations. We intend to use the executive summaries as the basis of the comment summaries included in the issues and decision memorandum that will accompany the final determination in this investigation. We request that interested parties include footnotes for relevant citations in the executive summary of each issue. Note that Commerce has amended certain of its requirements pertaining to the service of documents in 19 CFR 351.303(f). 17

This preliminary determination is made in accordance with section 733(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Commerce published the notice of initiation of this investigation on November 25, 2024. 1 On March 11, 2025, Commerce postponed the preliminary determination of this investigation and the revised deadline is now May 27, 2025. 2

For a complete description of the events that followed the initiation of this investigation, see the Preliminary Decision Memorandum. 3 A list of topics included in the Preliminary Decision Memorandum is included as Appendix II to this notice. The Preliminary Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS). ACCESS is available to registered users at https://access.trade.gov. In addition, a complete version of the Preliminary Decision Memorandum can be accessed directly at https://access.trade.gov/public/FRNoticesListLayout.aspx.

The products covered by this investigation are overhead door springs from India. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation, see Appendix I.

In accordance with the Preamble to Commerce's regulations, 4 the Initiation Notice set aside a period of time for parties to raise issues regarding product coverage ( i.e., scope). 5 Certain interested parties commented on the scope of the investigation as it appeared in the Initiation Notice. For a summary of the product coverage comments and rebuttal responses submitted to the record for this investigation, and accompanying discussion and analysis of all comments timely received, see the Preliminary Scope Decision Memorandum. 6 Commerce is not preliminarily modifying the scope language as it appeared in the Initiation Notice. See the scope in Appendix I to this notice.

Commerce is conducting this investigation in accordance with section 731 of the Act. Commerce has calculated export prices in accordance with section 772(a) of the Act. Constructed export prices have been calculated in accordance with section 772(b) of the Act. Normal value is calculated in accordance with section 773 of the Act. Furthermore, pursuant to sections 776(a) and (b) of the Act, Commerce has preliminarily relied upon facts otherwise available, with adverse inferences for Asha Spring and Engineering Company; Balaji Springs Pvt. Ltd.; Modern Engineering & Spring Company; and Reliable Springs Ltd. For a full description of the methodology underlying the preliminary determination, see the Preliminary Decision Memorandum.

Sections 733(d)(1)(ii) and 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act provide that in the preliminary determination Commerce shall determine an estimated all-others rate for all exporters and producers not individually examined. This rate shall be an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted-average dumping margins established for exporters and producers individually investigated, excluding any zero and de minimis margins, and any margins determined entirely under section 776 of the Act.

Commerce calculated an individual estimated weighted-average dumping margin for Alcomex Springs Pvt Ltd. (Alcomex), the only individually examined exporter/producer in this investigation. Because the only individually calculated dumping margin is not zero, de minimis, or based entirely on facts otherwise available, the estimated weighted-average dumping margin calculated for Alcomex is the margin assigned to all other producers and exporters, pursuant to section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act.

Commerce preliminarily determines that the following estimated weighted-average dumping margins exist:

In accordance with section 733(d)(2) of the Act, Commerce will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of entries of subject merchandise, as described in Appendix I, entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of this notice in the Federal Register . Further, pursuant to section 733(d)(1)(B) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(d), Commerce will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margin or the estimated all-others rate, as follows: (1) the cash deposit rate for the respondents listed above will be equal to the company-specific estimated weighted-average dumping margins determined in this preliminary determination; (2) if the exporter is not a respondent identified above, but the producer is, then the cash deposit rate will be equal to the company-specific estimated weighted-average dumping margin established for that producer of the subject merchandise; and (3) the cash deposit rate for all other producers and exporters will be equal to the all-others estimated weighted-average dumping margin. These suspension of liquidation instructions will remain in effect until further notice.

Commerce intends to disclose its calculations and analysis performed to interested parties in this preliminary determination within five days of any public announcement or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).

Consistent with 19 CFR 351.224(e), Commerce will analyze and, if appropriate, correct any timely allegations of significant ministerial errors by amending the preliminary determination. However, consistent with 19 CFR 351.224(d), Commerce will not consider incomplete allegations that do not address the significance standard under 19 CFR 351.224(g) following the preliminary determination. Instead, Commerce will address such allegations in the final determination together with issues raised in the case briefs or other written comments.

As provided in section 782(i)(1) of the Act, Commerce intends to verify the information relied upon in making its final determination.

Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than seven days after the date on which the last verification report is issued in this investigation. A timeline for the submission of case briefs and written comments will be notified to interested parties at a later date. Rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in the case briefs, may be filed not later than five days after the date for filing case briefs. 8 Interested parties who submit case briefs or rebuttal briefs in this proceeding must submit: (1) a table of contents listing each issue; and (2) a table of authorities. 9

As provided under 19 CFR 351.309(c)(2) and (d)(2), in prior proceedings we have encouraged interested parties to provide an executive summary of their brief that should be limited to five pages total, including footnotes. In this investigation, we instead request that interested parties provide at the beginning of their briefs a public, executive summary for each issue raised in their briefs. 10 Further, we request that interested parties limit their executive summary of each issue to no more than 450 words, not including citations. We intend to use the executive summaries as the basis of the comment summaries included in the issues and decision memorandum that will accompany the final determination in this investigation. We request that interested parties include footnotes for relevant citations in the executive summary of each issue. Note that Commerce has amended certain of its requirements pertaining to the service of documents in 19 CFR 351.303(f). 11

Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, limited to issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain: (1) the party's name, address, and telephone number; (2) the number of participants andwhether any participant is a foreign national; and (3) a list of the issues to be discussed. If a request for a hearing is made, Commerce intends to hold the hearing at a time and date to be determined. Parties should confirm by telephone the date, time, and location of the hearing two days before the scheduled date.

Section 735(a)(2) of the Act provides that a final determination may be postponed until not later than 135 days after the date of the publication of the preliminary determination if, in the event of an affirmative preliminary determination, a request for such postponement is made by exporters who account for a significant proportion of exports of the subject merchandise, or in the event of a negative preliminary determination, a request for such postponement is made by the petitioner. Section 351.210(e)(2) of Commerce's regulations requires that a request by exporters for postponement of the final determination be accompanied by a request for extension of provisional measures from a four-month period to a period not more than six months in duration.

On April 29, 2025, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.210(e), Alcomex requested that Commerce postpone the final determination and that provisional measures be extended to a period not to exceed six months. 12 In accordance with section 735(a)(2)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(b)(2)(ii), because: (1) the preliminary determination is affirmative; (2) the requesting exporter accounts for a significant proportion of exports of the subject merchandise; and (3) no compelling reasons for denial exist, Commerce is postponing the final determination and extending the provisional measures from a four-month period to a period not greater than six months. Accordingly, Commerce will make its final determination no later than 135 days after the date of publication of this preliminary determination.

In accordance with section 733(f) of the Act, Commerce will notify the U.S. International Trade Commission (ITC) of its preliminary determination. If the final determination is affirmative, the ITC will determine before the later of 120 days after the date of this preliminary determination or 45 days after the final determination whether these imports are materially injuring, or threaten material injury to, the U.S. industry.

This determination is issued and published in accordance with sections 733(f) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(c).

This preliminary determination is made in accordance with section 733(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Commerce published the notice of initiation of this investigation in the Federal Register on January 14, 2025. 1 On January 22, 2025, Commerce published a correction notice to correct an error contained in the scope of the investigation listed in the Initiation Notice. 2

For a complete description of the events that followed the initiation of this investigation, see the Preliminary Decision Memorandum. 3 A list of topics included in the Preliminary Decision Memorandum is included as Appendix II to this notice. The Preliminary Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS). ACCESS is available to registered users at https://access.trade.gov. In addition, a complete version of the Preliminary Decision Memorandum can be accessed directly at https://access.trade.gov/public/FRNoticesListLayout.aspx.

The products covered by this investigation are ceramic abrasive grains from China. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation, see Appendix I.

In accordance with the preamble to Commerce's regulations, 4 the Initiation Notice set aside a period of time for parties to raise issues regarding product coverage ( i.e., scope). 5 On January 27, 2025, Weiler Corporation (Weiler) commented on the scope of the investigation as it appeared in the Initiation Notice. 6 For a summary of the product coverage comments, and accompanying discussion and analysis of all comments timely received, see the Preliminary Scope Decision Memorandum. 7 Commerce is not preliminarily modifying the scope language as it appeared in the Initiation Notice and Correction Notice. See the scope in Appendix I to this notice.

Commerce is conducting this investigation in accordance with section 731 of the Act. Furthermore, pursuant to sections 776(a) and (b) of the Act, Commerce preliminarily has relied upon facts otherwise available, with adverse inferences (AFA), for the China-wide entity. For a full description of the methodology underlying Commerce's preliminary determination, see the Preliminary Decision Memorandum.

In the Initiation Notice, 8 Commerce stated that it would calculate producer/exporter combination rates for the respondents that are eligible for a separate rate in this investigation. Policy Bulletin 05.1 describes this practice. 9 In this case, because no respondent qualified for a separate rate, producer/exporter combination rates were not calculated.

Commerce preliminarily determines that the following estimated weighted-average dumping margin exists:

In accordance with section 733(d)(2) of the Act, Commerce will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of subject merchandise as described in the scope of the investigation section entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of this notice in the Federal Register , as discussed below. Further, pursuant to section 733(d)(1)(B) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(d), Commerce will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit equal to the weighted average amount by which normal value exceeds U.S. price, as indicated in the chart above.

To determine the cash deposit rate, Commerce normally adjusts the estimated weighted-average dumping margin by the amount of domestic subsidy pass-through and export subsidies determined in a companion countervailing duty (CVD) proceeding when CVD provisional measures are in effect. Accordingly, where Commerce has made a preliminary affirmative determination for domestic subsidy pass-through or export subsidies, Commerce has offset the calculated estimated weighted-average dumping margin by the appropriate rate(s). As discussed in the Preliminary Decision Memorandum, however, we have made no adjustment for domestic subsidy passthrough. As further explained in the Preliminary Decision Memorandum, the appropriate export subsidy adjustment is 16.10 percent.

Should provisional measures in the companion CVD investigation expire prior to the expiration of provisional measures in this LTFV investigation, Commerce will direct CBP to begin collecting cash deposits at a rate equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margin calculated in this preliminary determination unadjusted for the passed-through domestic subsidies or for export subsidies at the time the CVD provisional measures expire. These suspension of liquidation instructions will remain in effect until further notice.

Normally, Commerce discloses to interested parties the calculations performed in connection with a preliminary determination within five days of its public announcement or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of the notice of preliminary determination in the Federal Register , in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b). However, because Commerce preliminarily applied total AFA to the China-wide entity in this investigation, in accordance with section 776 of the Act, and the applied AFA rate is based solely on the petition, there are no calculations to disclose.

Because the mandatory respondents in this investigation did not provide information requested by Commerce and Commerce preliminarily determines each of the mandatory respondents to have been uncooperative, we will not conduct verification.

Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than 30 days after the date of publication of the preliminary determination. 10 Rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in the case briefs, may be filed not later than five days after the date for filing case briefs. 11 Interested parties who submit case briefs or rebuttal briefs in this proceeding must submit: (1) a table of contents listing each issue; and (2) a table of authorities. 12

As provided under 19 CFR 351.309(c)(2) and (d)(2), in prior proceedings we have encouraged interested parties to provide an executive summary of their brief that should be limited to five pages total, including footnotes. In this investigation, we instead request that interested parties provide at the beginning of their briefs a public, executive summary for each issue raised in their briefs. 13 Further, we request that interested parties limit their executive summary of each issue to no more than 450 words, not including citations. We intend to use the executive summaries as the basis of the comment summaries included in the issues and decision memorandum that will accompany the final determination in this investigation. We request that interested parties include footnotes for relevant citations in the executive summary of each issue. Note that Commerce has amended certain of its requirements pertaining to the service of documents in 19 CFR 351.303(f). 14

Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, limited to issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain: (1) the party's name, address, and telephone number; (2) the number of participants and whether any participant is a foreign national; and (3) a list of the issues to be discussed. If a request for a hearing is made, Commerce intends to hold the hearing at a date and time to be determined.

Section 735(a)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(b)(1) provide that Commerce will issue the final determination within 75 days after the date of its preliminary determination. Accordingly, Commerce will make its final determination no later than 75 days after the signature date of this preliminary determination.

In accordance with section 733(f) of the Act, Commerce will notify the U.S. International Trade Commission (ITC) of its preliminary determination of sales at LTFV. If the final determination is affirmative, the ITC will determine before the later of 120 days after the date of this preliminary determination or 45 days after the final determination whether imports of the subject merchandise are materially injuring, or threaten material injury to, the U.S. industry.

This determination is issued and published in accordance with sections 733(f) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(c).

The original notice published in the Federal Register on May 19, 2025 (90 FR 21289). This notice changes the agenda for the 203rd Council meeting. All other information previously published remains unchanged.

The 203rd Council meeting will be held between 1 p.m. and 5 p.m. HST on June 9, 2025, between 8:30 a.m. and 5 p.m. on June 10, 2025, and between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. on June 11, 2025. Public Comment on Non-Agenda Items will be held between 4:30 p.m. and 5 p.m. HST on June 9, 2025. The Fishers Forum will be held between 6 p.m. and 8:30 p.m. HST on June 9, 2025.

Agenda items noted as “Final Action” refer to actions that may result in Council transmittal of a proposed fishery management plan, proposed plan amendment, or proposed regulations to the U.S. Secretary of Commerce, under sections 304 or 305 of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act). In addition to the agenda items listed here, the Council and its advisory bodies will hear recommendations from Council advisors. An opportunity to submit public comment will be provided throughout the agendas. The order in which agenda items are addressed may change and will be announced in advance at the Council meeting. The meetings will run as late as necessary to complete scheduled business.

This meeting will be recorded (audio only) for the purposes of generating the minutes of the meeting. As public comments will be made publicly available, participants and public commenters are urged not to provide personally identifiable information (PII) at this meeting. Participation in the meeting by web conference, or by telephone, constitutes consent to the audio recording.

Non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before the Council for discussion during its 203rd meeting. However, Council action on regulatory issues will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this document and any regulatory issue arising after publication of this document that requires emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take action to address the emergency.

These meetings are accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Kitty M. Simonds, (808) 522-8220 (voice) or (808) 522-8226 (fax), at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.

Authority: 16 U.S.C. 1801 et seq.

Title of Collection: Electronic Fund Transfer Act (Regulation E).

OMB Control Number: 3170-0014.

Type of Review: Extension of a currently approved information collection.

Affected Public: Businesses and other for-profit institutions.

Estimated Number of Respondents: 600,000.

Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours: 3,361,056.

Abstract: The Electronic Fund Transfer Act (EFTA), 15 U.S.C. 1693 et seq., requires accurate disclosure of the costs, terms, and rights relating to electronic fund transfer (EFT) services and remittance transfer services to consumers. Entities offering EFT services must provide consumers with full and accurate information regarding consumers' rights and responsibilities in connection with EFT services. These disclosures are intended to protect the rights of consumers using EFT services, such as automated teller machine (ATM) transfers, telephone bill-payment services, point-of-sale transfers at retail establishments, electronic check conversion, payroll cards, and preauthorized transfers from or to a consumer's account. EFTA also establishes error resolution procedures and limits consumer liability for unauthorized transfers in connection with EFT services. EFTA and Regulation E impose disclosure and other requirements on issuers and sellers of gift cards, gift certificates, and general-use prepaid cards. Further, EFTA and Regulation E provide protections for consumers in the United States who send remittance transfers to persons in a foreign country. It also provides comprehensive protections for consumers who use “prepaid accounts.” Tailored provisions governing disclosures, limited liability, error resolution, and periodic statements added new requirements regarding the posting of account agreements. Additionally, Regulations E regulates overdraft credit features offered in connection with prepaid accounts.

Request for Comments: The CFPB published a 60-day Federal Register notice on March 10, 2025 (90 FR 11600) under Docket Number: CFPB-2025-0009. The CFPB is publishing this notice and soliciting comments on: (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the CFPB, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) The accuracy of the CFPB's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methods and the assumptions used; (c) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Comments submitted in response to this notice will be reviewed by OMB as part of its review of this request. All comments will become a matter of public record.

In the Federal Register of May 27, 2025, in FR Doc. 2025-09431, on page 22254, in the second column, correct footnote 5 to read:

This action provides information that is directed to the public in general.

This document lists the statements of findings made by EPA after review of submissions under TSCA section 5(a) that certain new chemical substances or significant new uses are not likely to present an unreasonable risk of injury to health or the environment. This document presents statements of findings made by EPA during the applicable period.

TSCA section 5(a)(3) requires EPA to review a submission under TSCA section 5(a) and make specific findings pertaining to whether the substance may present unreasonable risk of injury to health or the environment. Among those potential findings is that the chemical substance or significant new use is not likely to present an unreasonable risk of injury to health or the environment per TSCA Section 5(a)(3)(C).

TSCA section 5(g) requires EPA to publish in the Federal Register a statement of its findings after its review of a submission under TSCA section 5(a) when EPA makes a finding that a new chemical substance or significant new use is not likely to present an unreasonable risk of injury to health or the environment. Such statements apply to PMNs, MCANs, and SNUNs submitted to EPA under TSCA section 5.

Anyone who plans to manufacture (which includes import) a new chemical substance for a non-exempt commercial purpose and any manufacturer or processor wishing to engage in a use of a chemical substance designated by EPA as a significant new use must submit a notice to EPA at least 90 days before commencing manufacture of the new chemical substance or before engaging in the significant new use.

The submitter of a notice to EPA for which EPA has made a finding of “not likely to present an unreasonable risk of injury to health or the environment” may commence manufacture of the chemical substance or manufacture or processing for the significant new use notwithstanding any remaining portion of the applicable review period.

In this unit, EPA identifies the PMNs, MCANs and SNUNs for which EPA has made findings under TSCA section 5(a)(3)(C) that the new chemical substances or significant new uses are not likely to present an unreasonable risk of injury to health or the environment. For the findings made during this period, the following list provides the EPA case number assigned to the TSCA section 5(a) submission and the chemical identity (generic name if the specific name is claimed as confidential).

• J-25-0003, Strain of Escherichia coli modified with genetically-stable, plasmid-borne DNA for the production of an enzyme (Generic Name).

• P-21-0191, Fatty acids, C18-unsatd., dimers, hydrogenated, polymers with polyethylene glycol, dihexanoates, CASRN: 2641992-22-3.

• P-21-0192, Fatty acids, C18-unsatd., dimers, hydrogenated, polymers with polyethylene glycol, diesters with C8-10 fatty acids, CASRN: 2641992-26-7.

To access EPA's decision document describing the basis of the “not likely to present an unreasonable risk” finding made by EPA under TSCA section 5(a)(3)(C), lookup the specific case number at https://www.epa.gov/reviewing-new-chemicals-under-toxic-substances-control-act-tsca/determined-not-likely.

Authority: 15 U.S.C. 2601 et seq.

CDC is providing notice under 5 U.S.C. 1001-1014 of the renewal of the charter of the Advisory Committee to the Director, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, Department of Health and Human Services. This charter has been renewed for a two-year period through April 15, 2027.

The Director, Office of Strategic Business Initiatives, Office of the Chief Operating Officer, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, has been delegated the authority to sign Federal Register notices pertaining to announcements of meetings and other committee management activities, for both the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry.

Under the Medicare program, eligible beneficiaries may receive covered services in a hospice, provided certain requirements are met by the hospice. Section 1861(dd) of the Social Security Act (the Act) establishes distinct criteria for facilities seeking designation as a hospice. Regulations concerning provider agreements are at 42 CFR part 489, and those pertaining to activities relating to the survey and certification of facilities are at 42 CFR part 488. The regulations at 42 CFR part 418 specify the conditions that a hospice must meet in order to participate in the Medicare program, the scope of covered services, and the conditions for Medicare payment for hospices.

Generally, to enter into an agreement, a hospice must first be certified as complying with the conditions set forth in part 418 and recommended to the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid (CMS) for participation by a State survey agency. Thereafter, the hospice is subject to periodic surveys by a State survey agency to determine whether it continues to meet these conditions. However, there is an alternative to certification surveys by State agencies. Accreditation by a nationally recognized Medicare accreditation program approved by CMS may substitute for both initial and ongoing State review.

Section 1865(a)(1) of the Act provides that, if the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services (the Secretary) finds that accreditation of a provider entity by an approved national accrediting organization (AO) meets or exceeds all applicable Medicare conditions, CMS may treat the provider entity as having met those conditions; that is, we may “deem” the provider entity to be in compliance. Accreditation by an AO is voluntary and is not required for Medicare participation.

If an AO is recognized by the Secretary as having standards for accreditation that meet or exceed Medicare requirements, any provider entity accredited by the national AO's approved program may be deemed to meet the Medicare conditions. A national AO applying for CMS approval of its accreditation program under part 488, must provide CMS with reasonable assurance that the accrediting organization requires the accredited provider entities to meet requirements that are at least as stringent as the Medicare conditions of participation (CoPs). Our regulations concerning the approval of AOs are set forth at § 488.5. Section 488.5(e)(2)(i) requires an AO to reapply for continued approval of its Medicare accreditation program every 6 years or sooner as determined by CMS. The Joint Commission's (TJC's) term of approval as a recognized accreditation program for hospices expires June 18, 2025.

Section 1865(a)(3)(A) of the Act provides a statutory timetable to ensure that our review of applications for CMS approval of an accreditation program is conducted in a timely manner. The Act provides us 210 days after the date of receipt of a complete application, with any documentation necessary to make the determination, to complete our survey activities and application process. Within 60 days after receiving a complete application, we must publish a notice in the Federal Register that identifies the national accrediting body making the request, describes the request, and provides no less than a 30-day public comment period. At the end of the 210-day period, we must publish a notice in the Federal Register of our decision to approve or deny the application.

On January 13, 2025 we published a proposed notice in the Federal Register (90 FR 2706), announcing TJC's request for continued approval of its Medicare hospice accreditation program. In the January 13, 2025 proposed notice, we detailed our evaluation criteria. Under section 1865(a)(2) of the Act and in our regulations at § 488.5, we conducted a review of TJC's Medicare hospice accreditation program application in accordance with the criteria specified by our regulations, which include, but are not limited to, the following:

• A virtual administrative review of TJC's: (1) Corporate policies; (2) financial and human resources available to accomplish the proposed surveys; (3) procedures for training, monitoring, and evaluation of its hospice surveyors; (4) ability to investigate and respond appropriately to complaints against accredited hospices; and (5) survey review and decision-making process for accreditation.

• The comparison of TJC's Medicare hospice accreditation program standards to our current Medicare hospice CoPs.

• A documentation review of TJC's survey process to—

++ Determine the composition of the survey team, surveyor qualifications, and TJC's ability to provide continuing surveyor training.

++ Compare TJC's processes to those we require of State survey agencies, including periodic resurvey and the ability to investigate and respond appropriately to complaints against accredited hospices.

++ Evaluate TJC's procedures for monitoring hospices it has found to be out of compliance with TJC's program requirements. (This pertains only to monitoring procedures when TJC identifies noncompliance. If noncompliance is identified by a State survey agency through a validation survey, the State survey agency monitors corrections as specified at § 488.9(c)).

++ Assess TJC's ability to report deficiencies to the surveyed hospice and respond to the hospice's plan of correction in a timely manner.

++ Establish TJC's ability to provide CMS with electronic data and reports necessary for effective validation and assessment of the organization's survey process.

++ Determine the adequacy of TJC's staff and other resources.

++ Confirm TJC's ability to provide adequate funding for performing required surveys.

++ Confirm TJC's policies with respect to surveys being unannounced.

++ Confirm TJC's policies and procedures to avoid conflicts of interest, including the appearance of conflicts of interest, involving individuals who conduct surveys or participate in accreditation decisions.

++ Obtain TJC's agreement to provide CMS with a copy of the most current accreditation survey together with any other information related to the survey as we may require, including corrective action plans.

In accordance with section 1865(a)(3)(A) of the Act, the January 13, 2025 proposed notice also solicited public comments regarding whether TJC's requirements met or exceeded the Medicare CoPs for hospices. We received no comments in response to our proposed notice.

We compared TJC's hospice accreditation requirements and survey process with the Medicare CoPs of part 418, and the survey and certification process requirements of parts 488 and 489. Our review and evaluation of TJC's hospice application, which were conducted as described in section III of this notice, yielded the following areas where, as of the date of this notice, TJC has completed revising its standards and certification processes in order to meet the requirements at:

• Section 418.52(b)(4)(iii), to include reference to the State survey agency.

• Section 418.52(c)(5), to include reference to “45 CFR parts 160 and 164”.

• Section 418.52(c)(6), to address the right of a patient to be free of the misappropriation of the patient's property.

• Section 418.54(e), to address the hospice's quality assessment and performance improvement program.

• Section 418.58(c)(1)(ii), to address the program activity requirement to consider the incidence, prevalence, and severity of problems in those areas.

• Section 418.60(c), to address the requirement for contracted providers, patients, family members, and other caregivers.

• Section 418.66(a), to address the requirement that the hospice must provide evidence to CMS that it has made a good faith effort to hire a sufficient number of nurses to provide services.

• Section 418.76(b)(3)(xiii), to address the requirement the hospice is responsible for training hospice aids, as needed, for skills not covered in the basic checklist, as described in paragraph (b)(3)(ix) of this section.

• Section 418.100(f)(1), to address the Medicare approval requirement.

• Section 418.102(a)(1)(ii), to address the requirement that the contract must specify the physician who assumes the medical director's responsibilities and obligations.

• Section 418.104(e)(2), to address the requirement that if a patient revokes the election of hospice care or is discharged from hospice in accordance with § 418.26, the hospice must forward to the patient's attending physician a copy of the hospice discharge summary, and the patient's clinical record, if requested.

• Section 418.104(f), to address the requirement of making the clinical record available in hardcopy or electronic form.

• Section 418.110(c)(1), to address the hospice's requirement to address real or potential threats to the health and safety of patients, others, and property.

• Section 418.110(c)(2)(i) through (c)(2)(iv), to address the requirement for their associated procedures to control “reliability and quality.”

• Section 418.110(d)(3), to address that the provisions of the adopted edition of the Life Safety Code do not apply in a State if CMS finds that a fire and safety code imposed by State law adequately protects patients in hospices.

• Section 418.110(e)(2), to address the requirement for Health Care Facilities Code waiver/equivalency requests.

• Section 418.110(n), to address the requirement that restraint or seclusion must be discontinued at the earliest possible time.

• Section 418.110(q), to include the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA 99), Standards for Health Care Facilities Code requirements.

• Section 418.113(a), to address the requirement to update the emergency preparedness plan every 2 years.

• Section 418.113(c)(7), to address the requirement that the emergency preparedness communication plan must include a means of providing information about the hospice's inpatient occupancy, needs, and its ability to provide assistance, to the authority having jurisdiction, the Incident Command Center, or designee.

In addition to the standards review, we also reviewed TJC's comparable survey processes, which were conducted as described in section III. of this notice, and yielded the following areas where, as of the date of this notice, TJC has completed revising its survey processes to demonstrate that it uses survey processes that are comparable to State survey agency processes by:

• Revising TJC's surveyor guide to revise the current Life Safety Code Building Assessment document to address both the Life Safety Code and Health Care Facilities Code (HCFC) in accordance with §§ 418.110(d) and (e).

• Revising TJC's surveyor guidance to be comparable with Appendix I related to inpatient hospice care.

• Ensuring that all Hospice Life Safety Code surveyors have received instructions, procedures, or resources for conducting inpatient hospice Life Safety Code/Health Care Facilities Code certification surveys consistent with SOM Chapter 4, Section 4009C—Training, Education, and Experience.

Based on our review and observations described in section III. of this notice, we approve TJC as a national accreditation organization for hospices that request participation in the Medicare program, effective June 18, 2025 through June 18, 2030. Due to the temporary travel suspensions for non-critical or mission essential activities for the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) in early 2025, CMS was unable to observe a hospice survey completed by TJC surveyors as part of the application review process, which is typically one component of the comparability evaluation. Therefore, we are providing TJC with a shorter period of approval. Based on our discussions with TJC and the information provided in its application, we are confident that TJC will continue to ensure that its accredited hospices will continue to meet or exceed the required standards. While TJC has taken actions based on the findings noted in section IV. of this notice (Differences Between TJC's Standards and Requirements for Accreditation and Medicare Conditions and Survey Requirements), as authorized under § 488.8, we will continue ongoing review of TJC hospice survey processes and will conduct a survey observation on a modified schedule until further notice.

This document does not impose information collection requirements, that is, reporting, recordkeeping or third-party disclosure requirements. Consequently, there is no need for review by the Office of Management and Budget under the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. ).

The Administrator of the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), Mehmet Oz, having reviewed and approved this document, authorizes Vanessa Garcia, who is the Federal Register Liaison, to electronically sign this document for purposes of publication in the Federal Register .

FDA is announcing the availability of a draft guidance for industry entitled “M13B Bioequivalence for Immediate-Release Solid Oral Dosage Forms: Additional Strengths Biowaiver.” The draft guidance was prepared under the auspices of ICH. ICH seeks to achieve greater regulatory harmonization worldwide to ensure that safe, effective, high-quality medicines are developed, registered, and maintained in the most resource-efficient manner.

By harmonizing the regulatory requirements in regions around the world, ICH guidelines enhance global drug development, improve manufacturing standards, and increase the availability of medications. For example, ICH guidelines have substantially reduced duplicative clinical studies, prevented unnecessary animal studies, standardized the reporting of important safety information, and standardized marketing application submissions.

The six Founding Members of the ICH are the FDA; the Pharmaceutical Research and Manufacturers of America; the European Commission; the European Federation of Pharmaceutical Industries Associations; the Japanese Ministry of Health, Labour, and Welfare; and the Japanese Pharmaceutical Manufacturers Association. The Standing Members of the ICH Association include Health Canada and Swissmedic. ICH membership continues to expand to include other regulatory authorities and industry associations from around the world (refer to https://www.ich.org/ ).

ICH works by engaging global regulatory and industry experts in a detailed, science-based, and consensus-driven process that results in the development of ICH guidelines. The regulators around the world are committed to consistently adopting these consensus-based guidelines, realizing the benefits for patients and for industry.

As a Founding Regulatory Member of ICH, FDA plays a major role in the development of each of the ICH guidelines, which FDA then adopts and issues as guidance for industry. FDA's guidance documents do not establish legally enforceable responsibilities. Instead, they describe the Agency's current thinking on a topic and should be viewed only as recommendations, unless specific regulatory or statutory requirements are cited.

In February 2025, the ICH Assembly endorsed the draft guideline entitled “M13B Bioequivalence for Immediate-Release Solid Oral Dosage Forms: Additional Strengths Biowaiver” and agreed that the guideline should be made available for public comment. The draft guideline is the product of the M13 Multidisciplinary Expert Working Group of the ICH. Comments about this draft will be considered by FDA and the M13 Multidisciplinary Expert Working Group.

The draft guidance provides guidance on scientific and technical aspects of demonstrating BE for additional strengths of IR solid oral dosage forms, including internationally harmonized criteria for biowaivers. The draft guidance builds upon BE principles discussed in the final guidance “M13A Bioequivalence for Immediate-Release Solid Oral Dosage Forms” published in October 2024.

As we develop any final guidance on this topic, FDA will consider comments on the applicability of Executive Order 14192, per OMB guidance M-25-20, and in particular, on any costs or cost savings.

This draft guidance has been left in the original ICH format. The final guidance will be reformatted and edited to conform with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115) and style before publication. The draft guidance, when finalized, will represent the current thinking of FDA on “M13B Bioequivalence for Immediate-Release Solid Oral Dosage Forms: Additional Strengths Biowaiver.” It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.

While this guidance contains no collection of information, it does refer to previously approved FDA collections of information. The previously approved collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521). The collections of information for content and format for BE studies submitted under new and abbreviated new drug applications have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0001. The collections of information for the implementation of improved quality and integrity of the study data approaches pertaining to bioequivalence of additional strengths of immediate-release solid oral dosage forms have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0014.

Persons with access to the internet may obtain the draft guidance at https://www.regulations.gov , https://www.fda.gov/drugs/guidance-compliance-regulatory-information/guidances-drugs , https://www.fda.gov/vaccines-blood-biologics/guidance-compliance-regulatory-information-biologics/biologics-guidances , or https://www.fda.gov/regulatory-information/search-fda-guidance-documents.

Section 505(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 355(j)) allows the submission of an ANDA to market a generic version of a previously approved drug product. To obtain approval, the ANDA applicant must show, among other things, that the generic drug product: (1) has the same active ingredient(s), dosage form, route of administration, strength, conditions of use, and (with certain exceptions) labeling as the listed drug, which is a version of the drug that was previously approved and (2) is bioequivalent to the listed drug. ANDA applicants do not have to repeat the extensive clinical testing otherwise necessary to gain approval of a new drug application (NDA).

Section 505(j)(7) of the FD&C Act requires FDA to publish a list of all approved drugs. FDA publishes this list as part of the “Approved Drug Products With Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations,” which is known generally as the “Orange Book.” Under FDA regulations, drugs are removed from the list if the Agency withdraws or suspends approval of the drug's NDA or ANDA for reasons of safety or effectiveness or if FDA determines that the listed drug was withdrawn from sale for reasons of safety or effectiveness (21 CFR 314.162).

A person may petition the Agency to determine, or the Agency may determine on its own initiative, whether a listed drug was withdrawn from sale for reasons of safety or effectiveness. This determination may be made at any time after the drug has been withdrawn from sale but must be made prior to approving an ANDA that refers to the listed drug (21 CFR 314.161). FDA may not approve an ANDA that does not refer to a listed drug.

EPINEPHRINE (epinephrine) solution, 1 mg/mL, prefilled syringe for intravenous use, is the subject of NDA 205029, held by BPI Labs, LLC. The NDA was initially approved on July 29, 2014. EPINEPHRINE is indicated to increase mean arterial blood pressure in adult patients with hypotension associated with septic shock.

In a letter dated May 29, 2024, BPI Labs, LLC notified FDA that EPINEPHRINE (epinephrine) solution, 1 mg/mL, prefilled syringe for intravenous use, was being discontinued, and FDA moved the drug product to the “Discontinued Drug Product List” section of the Orange Book.

Alembic Pharmaceuticals Ltd. submitted a citizen petition dated March 29, 2025 (Docket No. FDA-2025-P-1021), under 21 CFR 10.30, requesting that the Agency determine whether EPINEPHRINE (epinephrine) solution, 1 mg/mL, prefilled syringe for intravenous use, was withdrawn from sale for reasons of safety or effectiveness.

After considering the citizen petition and reviewing Agency records and based on the information we have at this time, FDA has determined under § 314.161 that EPINEPHRINE (epinephrine) solution, 1 mg/mL, prefilled syringe for intravenous use, was not withdrawn for reasons of safety or effectiveness. The petitioner has identified no data or other information suggesting that EPINEPHRINE (epinephrine) solution, 1 mg/mL, prefilled syringe for intravenous use, was withdrawn for reasons of safety or effectiveness. We have carefully reviewed our files for records concerning the withdrawal of EPINEPHRINE (epinephrine) solution, 1 mg/mL, prefilled syringe for intravenous use, from sale. We have also independently evaluated relevant literature and data for possible postmarketing adverse events. We have found no information that would indicate that this drug product was withdrawn from sale for reasons of safety or effectiveness.

Accordingly, the Agency will continue to list EPINEPHRINE (epinephrine) solution, 1 mg/mL, prefilled syringe for intravenous use, in the “Discontinued Drug Product List” section of the Orange Book. The “Discontinued Drug Product List” delineates, among other items, drug products that have been discontinued from marketing for reasons other than safety or effectiveness. FDA will not begin procedures to withdraw approval of approved ANDAs that refer to this drug product. Additional ANDAs for this drug product may also be approved by the Agency as long as they meet all other legal and regulatory requirements for the approval of ANDAs. If FDA determines that labeling for this drug product should be revised to meet current standards, the Agency will advise ANDA applicants to submit such labeling.

“2,4-Diphenyl-3,4-Dihydroquinazoline Derivatives and Related Compounds as D2 Dopamine Receptor-Selective Antagonists”.

U.S. Patent Application No. 63/666,563, filed July 1, 2024 (HHS Reference E-119-2021-0-US-01).

The patent rights in this invention have been assigned to the government of the United States of America.

The prospective exclusive license territory may be worldwide, and the field of use may be limited to the following:

Researchers at NINDS and NCATS have developed a new class of therapeutic agents that may significantly advance the treatment of CNS disorders. These compounds are antagonists with high selectivity for the dopamine D2 receptor (D2R), showing over 1,000-fold selectivity compared to D3R and D4R. Promising in vitro ADME (Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, and Excretion) data and in vivo pharmacokinetics indicate effective brain penetration, positioning these molecules as potential treatments for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and depression. Designed to minimize off-target side effects, particularly extrapyramidal motor side effects (EPS), these compounds maintain therapeutic efficacy. These compounds exhibit atypical antipsychotic properties without typical off-target effects and are expected to have reduced overall side effects. These molecules can be administered in various pharmaceutical forms, either alone or in combination with other therapeutic agents.

This Notice is made in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404. The prospective exclusive license will be royalty bearing, and the prospective exclusive license may be granted unless within forty-five (45) days from the date of this published Notice, the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke receives written evidence and argument that establishes that the grant of the license would not be consistent with the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404.

In response to this Notice, the public may file comments or objections. Comments and objections, other than those in the form of a license application, will not be treated confidentially and may be made publicly available.

License applications submitted in response to this Notice will be presumed to contain business confidential information and any release of information from these license applications will be made only as required and upon a request under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552.

The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) publishes a notice listing all HHS-certified laboratories and Instrumented Initial Testing Facilities (IITFs) in the Federal Register during the first week of each month, in accordance with Section 9.19 of the Mandatory Guidelines for Federal Workplace Drug Testing Programs (Mandatory Guidelines) using Urine and Section 9.17 of the Mandatory Guidelines using Oral Fluid. If any laboratory or IITF certification is suspended or revoked, the laboratory or IITF will be omitted from subsequent lists until such time as it is restored to full certification under the Mandatory Guidelines.

If any laboratory or IITF has withdrawn from the HHS National Laboratory Certification Program (NLCP) during the past month, it will be listed at the end and will be omitted from the monthly listing thereafter.

This notice is also available on the internet at https://www.samhsa.gov/workplace/drug-testing-resources/certified-lab-list.

HHS separately notifies Federal agencies of the laboratories and IITFs currently certified to meet the standards of the Mandatory Guidelines using Urine and of the laboratories currently certified to meet the standards of the Mandatory Guidelines using Oral Fluid.

The Mandatory Guidelines using Urine were first published in the Federal Register on April 11, 1988 (53 FR 11970), and subsequently revised in the Federal Register on June 9, 1994 (59 FR 29908); September 30, 1997 (62 FR 51118); April 13, 2004 (69 FR 19644); November 25, 2008 (73 FR 71858); December 10, 2008 (73 FR 75122); April 30, 2010 (75 FR 22809); January 23, 2017 (82 FR 7920); and on October 12, 2023 (88 FR 70768).

The Mandatory Guidelines using Oral Fluid were first published in the Federal Register on October 25, 2019 (84 FR 57554) with an effective date of January 1, 2020, and subsequently revised in the Federal Register on October 12, 2023 (88 FR 70814).

The Mandatory Guidelines were initially developed in accordance with Executive Order 12564 and section 503 of Public Law 100-71 and allowed urine drug testing only. The Mandatory Guidelines using Urine have since been revised, and new Mandatory Guidelines allowing for oral fluid drug testing have been published. The Mandatory Guidelines require strict standards that laboratories and IITFs must meet in order to conduct drug and specimen validity tests on specimens for Federal agencies. HHS does not allow IITFs to conduct oral fluid testing.

To become certified, an applicant laboratory or IITF must undergo three rounds of performance testing plus an on-site inspection. To maintain that certification, a laboratory or IITF must participate in a quarterly performance testing program plus undergo periodic, on-site inspections.

Laboratories and IITFs in the applicant stage of certification are not to be considered as meeting the minimum requirements described in the HHS Mandatory Guidelines using Urine and/or Oral Fluid. An HHS-certified laboratory or IITF must have its letter of certification from HHS/SAMHSA (formerly: HHS/NIDA), which attests that the test facility has met minimum standards. HHS does not allow IITFs to conduct oral fluid testing.

In accordance with the Mandatory Guidelines using Oral Fluid effective October 10, 2023 (88 FR 70814), the following HHS-certified laboratories meet the minimum standards to conduct drug and specimen validity tests on oral fluid specimens:

At this time, there are no laboratories certified to conduct drug and specimen validity tests on oral fluid specimens.

In accordance with the Mandatory Guidelines using Urine effective February 1, 2024 (88 FR 70768), the following HHS-certified IITFs meet the minimum standards to conduct drug and specimen validity tests on urine specimens:

In accordance with the Mandatory Guidelines using Urine effective February 1, 2024 (88 FR 70768), the following HHS-certified laboratories meet the minimum standards to conduct drug and specimen validity tests on urine specimens:

The following laboratory is voluntarily withdrawing from the National Laboratory Certification Program effective January 10, 2025:

* The Standards Council of Canada (SCC) voted to end its Laboratory Accreditation Program for Substance Abuse (LAPSA) effective May 12, 1998. Laboratories certified through that program were accredited to conduct forensic urine drug testing as required by U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) regulations. As of that date, the certification of those accredited Canadian laboratories continued under DOT authority. The responsibility for conducting quarterly performance testing plus periodic on-site inspections of those LAPSA-accredited laboratories was transferred to the U.S. HHS, with the HHS' NLCP contractor continuing to have an active role in the performance testing and laboratory inspection processes. Other Canadian laboratories wishing to be considered for the NLCP may apply directly to the NLCP contractor just as U.S. laboratories do.

Upon finding a Canadian laboratory to be qualified, HHS will recommend that DOT certify the laboratory as meeting the minimum standards of the current Mandatory Guidelines published in the Federal Register . After receiving DOT certification, the laboratory will be included in the monthly list of HHS-certified laboratories and participate in the NLCP certification maintenance program. DOT established this process in July 1996 (61 FR 37015) to allow foreign laboratories to participate in the DOT drug testing program.

Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that Intertek USA, Inc., 2780 Highway 69 N., Nederland, TX 77627, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13.

Intertek USA, Inc. (Nederland, TX) is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):

Intertek USA, Inc. (Nederland, TX) is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):

Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to CBPGaugersLabs@cbp.dhs.gov. Please reference the website listed below for a complete listing of CBP approved gaugers and accredited laboratories. https://www.cbp.gov/about/labs-scientific/commercial-gaugers-and-laboratories.

Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that Intertek USA, Inc., 5060 Pacific Coast Highway, Suite 121, Ferndale, WA 98248, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13. Intertek USA, Inc. (Ferndale, WA) is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):

Intertek USA, Inc. (Ferndale, WA) is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):

Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to CBPGaugersLabs@cbp.dhs.gov. Please reference the website listed below for a complete listing of CBP approved gaugers and accredited laboratories. https://www.cbp.gov/about/labs-scientific/commercial-gaugers-and-laboratories

Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that Intertek USA, Inc., 4398 Highway 77 N, Marion, AR 72364, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13.

Intertek USA, Inc. (Marion, AR) is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):

Intertek USA, Inc. (Marion, AR) is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):

Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to CBPGaugersLabs@cbp.dhs.gov. Please reference the website listed below for a complete listing of CBP approved gaugers and accredited laboratories.

https://www.cbp.gov/about/labs-scientific/commercial-gaugers-and-laboratories

Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that NMK Resources, Inc., 1100 Walnut St., Roselle, NJ 94520, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13.

NMK Resources, Inc. (Roselle, NJ) is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):

NMK Resources, Inc. (Roselle, NJ) is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):

Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to CBPGaugersLabs@cbp.dhs.gov. Please reference the website listed below for a complete listing of CBP approved gaugers and accredited laboratories.

https://www.cbp.gov/about/labs-scientific/commercial-gaugers-and-laboratories

Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that Intertek USA, Inc., 149 Pintail Street, St. Rose, LA 70087, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13.

Intertek USA, Inc. (St. Rose, LA) is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):

Intertek USA, Inc. (St. Rose, LA) is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):

Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to CBPGaugersLabs@cbp.dhs.gov. Please reference the website listed below for a complete listing of CBP approved gaugers and accredited laboratories.

https://www.cbp.gov/about/labs-scientific/commercial-gaugers-and-laboratories

Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information should address one or more of the following four points:

(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;

(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;

(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submission of responses.

(1) Type of Information Collection: Extension, Without Change, of a Currently Approved Collection.

(2) Title of the Form/Collection: Training Plan for STEM OPT Students.

(3) Agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department of Homeland Security sponsoring the collection: Form I-983; U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement.

(4) Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as a brief abstract: Primary: Individuals or households. The Form I-983 serves as a planning document for STEM OPT students, the SEVP-certified school, and the employer. The Training Plan for STEM OPT Students also serves as an evidentiary document for SEVP, by tracking the STEM OPT student's progress, setting forth the terms and conditions of the practical training, and documenting the obligations of the three parties that are involved—the F student, the SEVP-certified school, and the employer.

The student and the employer must each complete and sign their part of the Form I-983. The SEVP-certified school will incorporate the completed and signed Form I-983 as part of the student's school file. The SEVP-certified school will make the student's Form I-983 available to DHS upon request.

Additionally, ICE is reformatting the Form I-983 to improve the collection of school officials' contact information and students' compensation while on STEM OPT.

(5) An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond:

(6) An estimate of the total public burden (in hours) associated with the collection: 1,352,879 annual burden hours.

Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information should address one or more of the following four points:

(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;

(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;

(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submission of responses.

(1) Type of Information Collection: Extension, Without Change, of a Currently Approved Collection.

(2) Title of the Form/Collection: Fee Remittance for Certain F, J and M Nonimmigrants.

(3) Agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department of Homeland Security sponsoring the collection: Form I-901; U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement.

(4) Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as a brief abstract: Primary: Individuals or households. This information collection is necessary to implement section 641 of IIRIRA, 8 U.S.C. section1372, which directs DHS to collect information relating to academic nonimmigrant students (F-1), vocational nonimmigrant students (M-1), and exchange visitors (J-1), as well as their dependents (F-2, M-2, or J-2), and provides for the collection of the required fee to defray the costs of this program. Section 641 of IIRIRA requires DHS to collect current information, on an ongoing basis, from schools and exchange visitor program sponsors relating to F, J, and M nonimmigrants during their stay in the United States, using electronic reporting technology to the fullest extent practicable. SEVP implemented the Student and Exchange Visitor Information System (SEVIS) to carry out this statutory requirement. SEVP used the Form I-901, Fee Remittance for Certain F, J and M Nonimmigrants, to provide a receipt to the F, J, or M nonimmigrant upon payment and to positively identify that a particular F, J, or M nonimmigrant has paid the fee.

(5) An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond: 902,586 responses at 13 minutes (0.216 hours) per response.

(6) An estimate of the total public burden (in hours) associated with the collection: 194,959 annual burden hours.

In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. ), an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid OMB control number. The ICR documentation will be available at https://www.reginfo.gov upon its submission to OMB. Therefore, in preparation for OMB review and approval of the following information collection, TSA is soliciting comments to—

(1) Evaluate whether the proposed information requirement is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;

(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden;

(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including using appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

OMB Control Number 1652-0013; Aviation Security Customer Satisfaction Performance Measurement Passenger Survey. TSA, with OMB's approval, has conducted surveys of passengers at airports nationwide and now seeks approval to continue this effort. The surveys are administered using an intercept methodology. The intercept methodology uses TSA personnel who are not in uniform to approach passengers immediately following their screening experience and offer, but not require, the opportunity to complete a survey. The surveyors will have their identification displayed, showing they are government employees or contractors. TSA uses the intercept methodology to randomly select passengers to complete the survey (such as by approaching one out of every 10 passengers in a given screening area) in an effort to gain survey data representative of the most relevant passenger demographics to capture data from a wide range of passengers, including passengers who—

• Travel on weekdays or weekends;

• Travel in the morning, mid-day, or evening;

• Pass through each of the different security screening locations in the airport;

• Are subject to more intensive screening of their baggage or person; and

• Experience different volume conditions and wait times as they proceed through the security checkpoints.

Each survey includes no more than 10 questions. All questions concern aspects of the passenger's security screening experience and are designed to help TSA identify areas in need of improvement. Participation is always voluntary.

Before each survey collection at an airport, TSA personnel determine whether to offer individuals a chance to participate using a printed card, an online portal accessed with a QR code link, or using a tablet or similar device. The method selected is usually based on the objective of a particular collection. For example, if internet access is limited, a paper-based survey would be more appropriate than using tablets displaying an online survey. Passengers may be given an opportunity to respond in writing to the survey questions on the customer satisfaction card and depositing the card in a drop-box at the airport. In other situations, passengers may be provided an opportunity to follow a QR code link to an online survey or following a link listed on a printed card to an online survey).

Section 3(c) of Executive Order 14168 of January 20, 2025 (Defending Women from Gender Ideology Extremism and Restoring Biological Truth to the Federal Government) requires Federal agencies to use the term “sex” and not “gender” in all applicable agency policies and documents. In compliance with this section of the Executive Order, TSA is revising the collection by removing the optional question which uses the term “gender.” TSA is requesting approval of the revision of the information collection.

TSA personnel have the capability to conduct this survey at approximately 25 airports each year. Based on prior survey data and research, TSA estimates 384 responses from the passengers at each airport. The average number of respondents is estimated to be 9,600 per year (384 passengers × 25 airports). TSA estimates that the time it takes to complete the survey either online or by writing on the form ranges from 3 to 7 minutes, with an average of 5 minutes (0.083 hours) per respondent. Therefore, the annual burden is 800 hours (9,600 responses × 0.083 hours).

TSA published a Federal Register notice, with a 60-day comment period soliciting comments, of the following collection of information on March 17, 2025 (90 FR 12333). TSA did not receive any comments on the notice.

In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. ), an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid OMB control number. The ICR documentation will be made available at  https://www.reginfo.gov upon its submission to OMB. Therefore, in preparation for OMB review and approval of the following information collection, TSA is soliciting comments to—

(1) Evaluate whether the proposed information requirement is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;

(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden;

(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including using appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

Title: TSA Customer Comment Tools.

Type of Request: Extension of a currently approved collection.

OMB Control Number: 1652-0030.

Forms(s): NA.

Affected Public: Travelling public.

Abstract: The TSA Contact Center continues to serve as the main portal of communication for the traveling public. TSA provides airport passengers with TSA Customer Comment Cards to provide feedback, complaints, or compliments. In addition, TSA provides passengers with six electronic methods of providing feedback to TSA regarding their experiences with TSA security procedures. The following online forms are available at www.tsa.gov/contact/contact-forms: Complaint, TSA PreCheck®, Compliment, TSA Cares, Request for Information, and Security Issues. The collection of information allows TSA to evaluate and address customer concerns about security procedures and policies. The TSA Contact Center provides a receipt to any person who submits an electronic form or email to TSA as required by 49 CFR 1503.3(a).

Estimated Annual Number of Respondents: 261,046.

Estimated Annual Burden Hours: 21,649.

TSA published a Federal Register notice, with a 60-day comment period soliciting comments, of the following collection of information on March 26, 2025, 90 FR 13772. TSA did not receive any comments on the notice.

In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. ), an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid OMB control number. The ICR documentation is available at https://www.reginfo.gov upon its submission to OMB. Therefore, in preparation for OMB review and approval of the following information collection, TSA is soliciting comments to—

(1) Evaluate whether the proposed information requirement is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;

(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden;

(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including using appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

Title: Aircraft Repair Station Security.

Type of Request: Extension of a currently approved collection.

OMB Control Number: 1652-0060.

Forms(s): NA.

Affected Public: Aircraft Repair Stations.

Abstract: In accordance with TSA's authority and responsibility over aviation security, TSA conducts reviews and audits of aircraft repair stations with a 145-certificate issued by the FAA, located within and outside of the United States to ensure compliance with the requirements of 49 CFR part 1554. This includes the collection of information relating to point of contact, recordkeeping of employment history records, compliance with the recordkeeping requirements of Security Directives and petitions for reconsideration.

Estimated Annual Number of Respondents: 4,899. 1

Estimated Annual Burden Hours: 330.

In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. ), an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid OMB control number. The ICR documentation will be available at https://www.reginfo.gov upon its submission to OMB. Therefore, in preparation for OMB review and approval of the following information collection, TSA is soliciting comments to—

(1) Evaluate whether the proposed information requirement is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;

(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden;

(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including using appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

OMB Control Number 1652-0033; TSA Airspace Waiver Program. TSA is seeking approval to extend this collection of information. The airspace waiver program allows U.S. and foreign general aviation aircraft operators to apply for approval to operate in U.S. restricted airspace, including flying over the United States and its territories. This program includes both processing of applications for airspace waivers and flight authorizations for flights operating under the Ronald Reagan Washington National Airport Access Standard Security Program ( see subpart B of 49 CFR part 1562), which requires name-based STAs for all passengers, flight crews and armed security officers operating manned aircraft and UAS. TSA uses the information to conduct STAs of persons on these flights to protect against and mitigate threats to transportation or national security.

TSA collects information from applicants applying for a waiver or flight authorization either online via https://waivers.faa.gov, or by completing a waiver or flight authorization form, which can be requested via facsimile. To ensure adequate time to process the information and obtain approval, TSA recommends that applicants submit the request electronically within, at a minimum, five business days before the start-date of the flight.

The type of information collected depends upon the purpose of the application; however, both waiver and flight authorization requests must include the purpose of the flight, the aircraft type and registration number, including aircraft operator's company name and address, and the proposed itinerary. To enable TSA to conduct STAs, the aircraft operator must provide the name, sex, date and place of birth, and Social Security or passport number for each individual onboard manned aircraft, including all pilots, passengers, crew and armed security officers, and on individuals who conduct UAS flight operations.

The estimated number of respondents is 9,687, and the annual reporting burden is 7,173 hours.

TSA published a Federal Register notice, with a 60-day comment solicitation period, of the following collection of information on November 15, 2024, 86 FR 90305. TSA did not receive any comments on the notice.

In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. ), an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid OMB control number. The ICR documentation will be available at https://www.reginfo.gov upon its submission to OMB. Therefore, in preparation for OMB review and approval of the following information collection, TSA is soliciting comments to—

(1) Evaluate whether the proposed information requirement is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;

(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden;

(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including using appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

Title: Pipeline Operator Security Information.

Type of Request: Extension of a currently approved collection.

OMB Control Number: 1652-0055.

Forms(s): CISA  1 Reporting System form.

Affected Public: Pipeline system operators.

Abstract: In addition to TSA's broad responsibility and authority for “security in all modes of transportation” under 49 U.S.C. 114(d), TSA is statutorily required to develop and transmit to pipeline operators security recommendations for natural gas and hazardous liquid pipelines and pipeline facilities. See sec. 1557 of the Implementing Recommendations of the 9/11 Commission Act of 2007, Public Law 110-53 (121 Stat. 266; August 3, 2007), codified at 6 U.S.C. 1207.

Voluntary Collection. Consistent with these requirements, TSA produced Pipeline Security Guidelines in December 2010, and April 2011, with an update published in April 2021. As the lead federal agency for pipeline security and consistent with its statutory authorities, TSA requests to be notified of all (1) incidents that may indicate a deliberate attempt to disrupt pipeline operations; and (2) activities that could be precursors to such an attempt.

Mandatory collection. In May 2021 in response to a ransomware attack on the Colonial Pipeline Company, TSA issued a security directive series with requirements for owner/operators of hazardous liquid and natural gas pipelines and liquefied natural gas facilities that TSA designated as critical. The security directive series included two mandatory information collections, reporting pipeline security incidents, and providing contact information for the cybersecurity coordinator(s) and alternate(s).

Estimated Annual Respondents: 100.

Estimated Annual Burden Hours: 726. 2

This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.

Title of Information Collection: Moving to Work Expansion, Asset Building Cohort Evaluation.

OMB Approval Number: 2528-0345.

Type of Request: Revision of a currently approved collection.

Form Number: N/A.

Description of the need for the information and proposed use: HUD contracted with Abt Global and its partner MEF Associates to evaluate the Moving to Work Asset Building Cohort (hereinafter “Asset Building Cohort”). This 60-day Notice informs the public of intent to collect data from HUD-assisted households at Public Housing Agencies (PHAs) participating in the Moving to Work, Asset Building Cohort.

Nine of the 17 PHAs in the Asset Building Cohort implemented an opt-out savings program. (See PIH Notice 2022-11 for information on the opt-out savings account program.)

OMB approved data collection for the first phase of the evaluation of the Moving to Work Asset Building Cohort on January 10, 2024, under OMB Control Number 2528-0345. This 60-Day Notice seeks approval for the second phase of data collection, which includes a new instrument—the Opt-Out Saving Account Household Survey.

The first phase of the Asset Building Cohort evaluation was guided by a few overarching questions: (1) What programs are PHAs implementing? What are the characteristics of the group of residents participating in the programs? (2) How do participants understand the programs? And what do the programs mean for them personally? The programs will run for up to two years. This information collection request covers the second phase, which is guided by the following questions: (1) What is the impact of the opt-out savings program on assisted households' ability to build and maintain an emergency savings fund that helps them avoid material hardships?” (2) What is the impact of the program on their ability to use traditional financial products and decrease reliance on high-cost alternative financial products?”

This information collection request seeks approval for data collection needed to answer second phase questions. Consequently, it requests approval to collect data from a random sample of HUD-assisted households at PHAs implementing the opt-out savings account program, including randomly selected program participants and randomly selected non-participants (the control group) (n = 1,100). The evaluator will contact selected residents and ask them to participate in a 30-minute survey about financial goals and aspirations, and experiences with banking, savings, and credit. Participants assigned to the treatment group will be asked a few additional questions about their experiences with the program. Prior to the survey, the participants will receive an advance letter notifying them of the upcoming data collection.

Respondents: Adults who are assisted by PHAs participating in the Asset Building Cohort.

Estimated Number of Respondents: Up to 1,100 respondents (555 respondents from the treatment group and 545 respondents from the control group).

Estimated Number of Responses: 1,100.

Frequency of Response: Once.

Average Hours per Response: The advance letter for the opt-out savings study survey will take .08 hours (less than 5 minutes) to read and consider. The survey will take about 0.5 hours (30 minutes) to complete. Average total response time per respondent will be 35 minutes.

Total Estimated Burdens:

This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:

(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;

(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;

(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submission of responses.

HUD encourages interested parties to submit comments in response to these questions.

Section 2 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3507.

This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.

Title of Information Collection: Rental Assistance Demonstration (RAD); Supporting Contracts and Processing Requirements.

OMB Approval Number: 2502-0612.

Type of Request: Revision of a currently approved collection.

Form Number(s): 52611, 52614, 52617, 52619, 52620A, 52620B, 52621A, 52621B, 52624, 52625, 5679, 5977, 5978, 5886, 5887, 5888, 5889, 5890, 5891, 5892, 5893, 5894, 5895, 5896, 5897, 5898, 5899, 5901, 5902, 5903, 5904.

Description of the need for the information and proposed use: RAD is authorized by the Consolidated and Further Continuing Appropriations Act of 2012 (Pub. L. 112-55, approved November 18, 2011), as amended by the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2014 (Pub. L. 113-76, approved January 17, 2014), the Consolidated and Further Continuing Appropriations Act, 2015 (Pub. L. 113-235, approved December 16, 2014), the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2016 (Pub. L. 114-113, approved December 18, 2015), the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2017 (Pub. L. 115-31, approved May 5, 2017), the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2018 (Pub. L. 115-141, approved March 23, 2018), the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2022 (Pub. L. 117-103, approved March 15, 2022), and the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2024 (Pub. L. 118-42, approved March 9, 2024) (collectively, the “RAD Statute”).

RAD allows Public Housing, Mod Rehab, Rent Supp, RAP, and 202 PRAC properties to convert to long-term project-based Section 8 rental assistance contracts. Participation in the demonstration is voluntary, and HUD approval is discretionary. Participating Public Housing Agencies (PHAs) and Multifamily Owners are required to submit documentation for processing and completing the conversion. Through these documents (collectively, the RAD documents), HUD evaluates whether the PHA or owner has met all of the requirements necessary to complete conversion as outlined in Housing Notice 2019-09/PIH Notice 2019-23 (HA) Rental Assistance Demonstration—Final Implementation Notice (RAD Notice) Revision 4 and Housing/PIH Notice 2016-17—Rental Assistance Demonstration (RAD) Notice Regarding Fair Housing and Civil Rights Requirements and Relocation Requirements Applicable to RAD First Component—Public Housing Conversions or successor notices. The RAD processing request is made through a Web-based portal. Overall, the RAD documents and information requested through such documents allow HUD to determine which applicants continue to meet the eligibility and conversion requirements. Finally, all applicants will be required to sign the appropriate contractual documents to complete conversion and bind both the applicant and HUD, as well as set forth the rights and duties of the applicant and HUD, with respect to the converted project and any payments under that project. This is a revision of a currently approved collection to include three documents that required edits per the President's Executive Order 14168 to remove references of Diversity, Equity, Inclusion and Accessibility (DEIA). The edit revises subpart (a) to remove equal access and adds a reference to regulation 24 CFR.5.105(a). Additionally, subpart (b) of Section 2.12 and 2.10 that references the Equal Access Rule is deleted in its entirety. Documents that include those subparts are:

• Form 52620B, Part II PBRA Housing Assistance Payments Contract Rental Assistance Demonstration (RAD) for Conversions of Public Housing to Project-Based Section 8 (Component 1).

• Form 52617, Second Component Housing Assistance Payments (HAP) Contract RAD for the Conversion of Moderate Rehabilitation to Project-Based Section 8 (PBRA) Part II.

• Form 5897, RAD Second Component Project Rental Assistance Contract (PRAC) Project-Based Section 8 (PBRA) Housing Assistance Payments (HAP) Contract Part II. In addition to the edits described above, the RAD/Section 18 Blend Rider to the RAD Use Agreement (Form 5900) is removed from the currently approved collection as the Rider is no longer applicable. The RAD Supplemental Notice 4C, published January 16, 2025, changed policy to streamline RAD/Section 18 blends by permitting both RAD units and PBV units resulting from a Section 18 action to be on a single RAD HAP contract.

Respondents: Public housing agencies and multifamily owners.

Estimated Number of Respondents: 370.

Estimated Number of Responses: 370.

Frequency of Response: Once per application.

Average Hours per Response: 15.

Total Estimated Burdens: 3,041.

This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:

(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;

(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;

(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submission of responses. HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.

Section 2 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3507.

This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.

Title of Information Collection: Statutorily-Mandated Collection of Information for Tenants in LIHTC Properties.

OMB Approval Number: 2528-0230.

Type of Request: Revision of a currently approved collection.

Form Number: HUD-52695 (HUD LIHTC Property Data Collection Form); HUD-52697 (HUD LIHTC Tenant Data Collection Form).

Description of the need for the information and proposed use: Section 2835(d) of the Housing and Economic Recovery Act, or HERA, (Pub. L. 110-289, approved July 30, 2008) amends Title I of the U.S. Housing Act of 1937 (42 U.S.C. 1437 et seq. ) (1937 Act) to add a new section 36 (codified as 42 U.S.C. 1437z-8) that requires each state agency administering tax credits under section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (low-income housing tax credits or LIHTC) to furnish HUD, not less than annually, information concerning the race, ethnicity, family composition, age, income, use of rental assistance under section 8(o) of the U.S. Housing Act of 1937 or other similar assistance, disability status, and monthly rental payments of households residing in each property receiving such credits through such agency.

New section 36 requires HUD to establish standards and definitions for the information to be collected by state agencies and to provide states with technical assistance in establishing systems to compile and submit such information and, in coordination with other Federal agencies administering housing programs, establish procedures to minimize duplicative reporting requirements for properties assisted under multiple housing programs. In 2010, OMB approved the first collection instrument used for the collection of LIHTC household information (expiration date 05/31/2013). The form was subsequently approved with expiration dates of June 30, 2016, May 31, 2019, August 31, 2022, and October 31, 2025. Renewal of this form is required for HUD to remain in compliance with the statute.

Respondents: State and local LIHTC administering agencies.

Estimated Number of Respondents: 61.

Estimated Number of Responses: 122.

Frequency of Response: Annual.

Average Hours per Response: 48.

Total Estimated Burdens: 2,928 hours.

This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:

(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;

(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;

(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submission of responses.

HUD encourages interested parties to submit comments in response to these questions.

Section 2 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3507.

The properties listed in this notice are being considered for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places. Nominations for their consideration were received by the National Park Service before May 17, 2025. Pursuant to Section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60, comments are being accepted concerning the significance of the nominated properties under the National Register criteria for evaluation.

Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.

Nominations submitted by State or Tribal Historic Preservation Officers

KEY: State, County, Property Name, Multiple Name(if applicable), Address/Boundary, City, Vicinity, Reference Number.

An owner objection received for the following resource(s):

A request for removal has been made for the following resource(s):

Additional documentation has been received for the following resource(s):

Authority: Section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60.

The properties listed in this notice are being considered for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places. Nominations for their consideration were received by the National Park Service before May 10, 2025. Pursuant to section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60, comments are being accepted concerning the significance of the nominated properties under the National Register criteria for evaluation.

Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.

Nominations submitted by State or Tribal Historic Preservation Officers

Key: State, County, Property Name, Multiple Name (if applicable), Address/Boundary, City, Vicinity, Reference Number.