This preliminary determination is made in accordance with section 703(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Commerce published the notice of initiation of this investigation on January 15, 2025. 1 On February 19, 2025, Commerce postponed the preliminary determination of this investigation until May 19, 2025. 2

For a complete description of the events that followed the initiation of this investigation, see the Preliminary Decision Memorandum. 3 A list of topics discussed in the Preliminary Decision Memorandum is included in Appendix II to this notice. The Preliminary Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS). ACCESS is available to registered users at https://access.trade.gov. In addition, a complete version of the Preliminary Decision Memorandum can be accessed directly at https://access.trade.gov/public/FRNoticesListLayout.aspx.

The product covered by this investigation is active anode material from China. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation, see Appendix I.

In accordance with the Preamble to Commerce's regulations, 4 in the Initiation Notice Commerce set aside a period of time for parties to raise issues regarding product coverage ( i.e., scope). 5 Certain interested parties commented on the scope of the less-than-fair-value (LTFV) and countervailing duty (CVD) investigations as it appeared in the Initiation Notice. Commerce intends to issue its preliminary decision regarding comments concerning the scope of the LTFV and CVD investigations on or before the preliminary determination of the companion AD investigation.

Commerce is conducting this investigation in accordance with section 701 of the Act. For each of the subsidy programs found countervailable, Commerce preliminarily determines that there is a subsidy, i.e., a financial contribution by an “authority” that gives rise to a benefit to the recipient, and that the subsidy is specific. 6 For a full description of the methodology underlying our preliminary determination, see the Preliminary Decision Memorandum.

Commerce notes that, in making these findings, it relied, in part, on facts available, and, because it finds that one or more respondents did not act to the best of their ability to respond to Commerce's requests for information, it drew an adverse inference where appropriate in selecting from among the facts otherwise available. 7 For further information, see the “Use of Facts Otherwise Available and Adverse Inferences” section in the Preliminary Decision Memorandum.

In accordance with section 705(a)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(b)(4), Commerce is aligning the final CVD determination in this investigation with the final determination in the concurrent LTFV investigation of active anode material from China based on a request made by American Active Anode Material Producers ( i.e., the petitioner). 8 Consequently, the final CVD determination will be issued on the same date as the final determination in the LTFV investigation, which is currently scheduled to be issued no later than September 29, 2025, unless postponed.

Sections 703(d) and 705(c)(5)(A) of the Act provide that in the preliminary determination, Commerce shall determine an estimated all-others rate for companies not individually examined. This rate shall be an amount equal to the weighted average of the estimated subsidy rates established for those companies individually examined, excluding any zero and de minimis rates and any rates based entirely under section 776 of the Act.

In this investigation, Commerce preliminarily assigned a rate based entirely on facts available to Shanghai Shaosheng Knitted Sweat (Shaosheng). Therefore, the only rate that is not zero, de minimis, or based entirely on facts otherwise available is the rate calculated for Panasonic Global Procurement China Co., Ltd. and Panasonic Corporation of China (collectively, Panasonic). Accordingly, we are assigning the rate calculated for Panasonic to all other producers and exporters, pursuant to section 705(c)(5)(A)(i) of the Act. On that basis, we are assigning 6.55 percent as the ad valorem all others rate.

Commerce preliminarily determines that the following estimated countervailable subsidy rates exist:

In accordance with section 703(d)(1)(B) and (d)(2) of the Act, Commerce will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of entries of subject merchandise as described in the scope of the investigation entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of this notice in the Federal Register . Further, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.205(d), Commerce will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit equal to the rates indicated above.

Commerce intends to disclose its calculations and analysis performed to interested parties in this preliminary determination within five days of its public announcement, or if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).

Consistent with 19 CFR 351.224(e), Commerce will analyze and, if appropriate, correct any timely-filed allegations of significant ministerial errors by amending the preliminary determination. However, consistent with 19 CFR 351.224(d), Commerce will not consider incomplete allegations that do not address the significance standard under 19 CFR 351.224(g) following the preliminary determination. Instead, Commerce will address such allegations in the final determination together with issues raised in the case briefs or other written comments.

As provided in section 782(i)(1) of the Act, Commerce intends to verify the information relied upon in making its final determination.

All interested parties will have the opportunity to submit scope case and rebuttal briefs on the preliminary decision regarding the scope of the LTFV and CVD investigations. The deadlines to submit scope case and rebuttal briefs will be provided in the preliminary scope decision memorandum accompanying the preliminary determination of the LTFV investigation. For all scope case and rebuttal briefs, parties must file identical documents simultaneously on the records of the ongoing LTFV and CVD investigations. No new factual information or business proprietary information may be included in either scope case or rebuttal briefs.

Case briefs or other written comments on non-scope issues may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than seven days after the date on which the last verification report is issued in this investigation. Rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in the case briefs, may be filed no later than five days after the date for filing case briefs. 11 Interested parties who submit case briefs or rebuttal briefs in this proceeding must submit: (1) a table of contents listing each issue; and (2) a table of authorities. 12

As provided under 19 CFR 351.309(c)(2) and (d)(2), in prior proceedings we have encouraged interested parties to provide an executive summary of their brief that should be limited to five pages total, including footnotes. In this investigation, we instead request that interested parties provide at the beginning of their briefs a public executive summary for each issue raised in their briefs. 13 Further, we request that interested parties limit their public executive summary of each issue to no more than 450 words, not including citations. We intend to use the public executive summaries as the basis of the comment summaries included in the issues and decision memorandum that will accompany the final determination in this investigation. We request that interested parties include footnotes for relevant citations in the executive summary of each issue. Note that Commerce has amended certain of its requirements pertaining to the service of documents in 19 CFR 351.303(f). 14

Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, limited to issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain (1) the party's name, address, and telephone number; (2) the number of participants and whether any participant is a foreign national; and (3) a list of the issues to be discussed. If a request for a hearing is made, Commerce intends to hold the hearing at a time and date to be determined. Parties should confirm by telephone the date, time, and location of the hearing two days before the scheduled date.

In accordance with section 703(f) of the Act, Commerce will notify the ITC of its determination. If the final determination is affirmative, the ITC will determine before the later of 120 days after the date of this preliminary determination or 45 days after the final determination whether imports of active anode material from China are materially injuring, or threaten material injury, to the U.S. industry.

This determination is issued and published pursuant to sections 703(f) and 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.205(c).

On July 21, 2014, Commerce published in the Federal Register the AD orders on WSSPP from Malaysia, Thailand, and Vietnam. 1 On November 1, 2024, the ITC instituted, 2 and on November 4, 2024, Commerce initiated, 3 the second sunset review of the Orders, pursuant to section 751(c) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). As a result of its reviews, Commerce determined that revocation of the Orders would likely lead to the continuation or recurrence of dumping, and therefore, notified the ITC of the magnitude of the margins of dumping likely to prevail should the Orders be revoked. 4

On May 21, 2025, the ITC published its determination, pursuant to sections 751(c) and 752(a) of the Act, that revocation of the Orders would likely lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury to an industry in the United States within a reasonably foreseeable time. 5

The products covered by these Orders are circular welded austenitic stainless pressure pipe not greater than 14 inches in outside diameter. For purposes of these Orders, references to size are in nominal inches and include all products within tolerances allowed by pipe specifications. This merchandise includes, but is not limited to, the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) A-312 or ASTM A-778 specifications, or comparable domestic or foreign specifications. ASTM A-358 products are only included when they are produced to meet ASTM A-312 or ASTM A-778 specifications, or comparable domestic or foreign specifications.

Excluded from the scope are: (1) Welded stainless mechanical tubing, meeting ASTM A-554 or comparable domestic or foreign specifications; (2) boiler, heat exchanger, superheater, refining furnace, feedwater heater, and condenser tubing, meeting ASTM A-249, ASTM A-688 or comparable domestic or foreign specifications; and (3) specialized tubing, meeting ASTM A269, ASTM A-270 or comparable domestic or foreign specifications.

The subject imports are normally classified in subheadings 7306.40.5005, 7306.40.5040, 7306.40.5062, 7306.40.5064, and 7306.40.5085 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). They may also enter under HTSUS subheadings 7306.40.1010, 7306.40.1015, 7306.40.5042, 7306.40.5044, 7306.40.5080, and 7306.40.5090. The HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes only; the written description of the scope of these Orders is dispositive.

As a result of the determinations by Commerce and the ITC that revocation of the Orders would likely lead to continuation or recurrence of dumping and material injury to an industry in the United States, pursuant to section 751(d)(2) of the Act, Commerce hereby orders the continuation of the Orders. U.S. Customs and Border Protection will continue to collect AD cash deposits at the rates in effect at the time of entry for all imports of subject merchandise.

The effective date of the continuation of the Order s will be May 21, 2025. 6 Pursuant to section 751(c)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.218(c)(2), Commerce intends to initiate the next five-year reviews of the Orders not later than 30 days prior to fifth anniversary of the date of the last determination by the ITC.

This notice also serves as a final reminder to parties subject to an APO of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3), which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials, or conversion to judicial protective order, is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.

These five-year (sunset) reviews and this notice are in accordance with sections 751(c) and 751(d)(2) of the Act and published in accordance with section 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.218(f)(4).

On March 17, 2009 and March 19, 2009, Commerce published in the Federal Register the AD order and CVD order, respectively, on WSPP from China. 1 On November 1, 2024, the ITC instituted, 2 and on November 4, 2024, respectively, Commerce initiated, 3 the third sunset review of the Orders, pursuant to section 751(c) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). As a result of its reviews, Commerce determined that revocation of the Orders would likely lead to the continuation or recurrence of dumping and countervailable subsidies, and therefore, notified the ITC of the magnitude of the margins of dumping and subsidy rates likely to prevail should the Orders be revoked. 4

On May 21, 2025, the ITC published its determination, pursuant to sections 751(c) and 752(a) of the Act, that revocation of the Orders would likely lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury to an industry in the United States within a reasonably foreseeable time. 5

The merchandise covered by the Orders is circular welded austenitic stainless pressure pipe not greater than 14 inches in outside diameter. This merchandise includes, but is not limited to, the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) A-312 or ASTM A-778 specifications, or comparable domestic or foreign specifications. ASTM A-358 products are only included when they are produced to meet ASTM A-312 or ASTM A-778 specifications, or comparable domestic or foreign specifications. Excluded from the scope are: (1) welded stainless mechanical tubing, meeting ASTM A-554 or comparable domestic or foreign specifications; (2) boiler, heat exchanger, superheater, refining furnace, feedwater heater, and condenser tubing, meeting ASTM A- 249, ASTM A-688 or comparable domestic or foreign specifications; and (3) specialized tubing, meeting ASTM A-269, ASTM A-270 or comparable domestic or foreign specifications.

The subject imports are normally classified in subheadings 7306.40.5005; 7306.40.5040, 7306.40.5062, 7306.40.5064, and 7306.40.5085 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). They may also enter under HTSUS subheadings 7306.40.1010; 7306.40.1015; 7306.40.5042, 7306.40.5044, 7306.40.5080, and 7306.40.5090. The HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes only, the written description of the scope of the Orders is dispositive.

As a result of the determinations by Commerce and the ITC that revocation of the Orders would likely lead to continuation or recurrence of dumping, countervailable subsidies, and material injury to an industry in the United States, pursuant to section 751(d)(2) of the Act, Commerce hereby orders the continuation of the Orders. U.S. Customs and Border Protection will continue to collect AD and CVD cash deposits at the rates in effect at the time of entry for all imports of subject merchandise.

The effective date of the continuation of the Orders will be May 21, 2025. 6 Pursuant to section 751(c)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.218(c)(2), Commerce intends to initiate the next five-year reviews of the Orders not later than 30 days prior to fifth anniversary of the date of the last determination by the ITC.

This notice also serves as a final reminder to parties subject to an APO of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3), which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials, or conversion to judicial protective order, is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.

These five-year (sunset) reviews and this notice are in accordance with sections 751(c) and 751(d)(2) of the Act and published in accordance with section 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.218(f)(4).

On December 16, 2019, Commerce published the AD order on mattresses from China in the Federal Register . 1 On November 1, 2024 and November 4, 2024, the ITC instituted, 2 and Commerce initiated, 3 respectively, the first sunset review of the Order, pursuant to 751(c) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). As a result of its review, Commerce determined that revocation of the Order would likely lead to the continuation or recurrence of dumping and, therefore, notified the ITC of the magnitude of the margins of dumping rates likely to prevail should the Order be revoked. 4

On May 20, 2025, the ITC published its determination, pursuant to sections 751(c) and 752(a) of the Act, that revocation of the Order would likely lead to a continuation or recurrence of material injury to an industry in the United States within a reasonably foreseeable time. 5

The products covered by this Order are all types of youth and adult mattresses. The term “mattress” denotes an assembly of materials that at a minimum includes a “core,” which provides the main support system of the mattress, and may consist of innersprings, foam, other resilient filling, or a combination of these materials. Mattresses may also contain (1) “upholstery,” the material between the core and the top panel of the ticking on a single-sided mattress, or between the core and the top and bottom panel of the ticking on a double-sided mattress; and/or (2) “ticking,” the outermost layer of fabric or other material ( e.g., vinyl) that encloses the core and any upholstery, also known as a cover.

The scope of this Order is restricted to only “adult mattresses” and “youth mattresses.” “Adult mattresses” have a width exceeding 35 inches, a length exceeding 72 inches, and a depth exceeding 3 inches on a nominal basis. Such mattresses are frequently described as “twin,” “extra-long twin,” “full,” “queen,” “king,” or “California king” mattresses. “Youth mattresses” have a width exceeding 27 inches, a length exceeding 51 inches, and a depth exceeding 1 inch (crib mattresses have a depth of 6 inches or less from edge to edge) on a nominal basis. Such mattresses are typically described as “crib,” “toddler,” or “youth” mattresses. All adult and youth mattresses are included regardless of actual size description.

The scope encompasses all types of “innerspring mattresses,” “non-innerspring mattresses,” and “hybrid mattresses.” “Innerspring mattresses” contain innersprings, a series of metal springs joined together in sizes that correspond to the dimensions of mattresses. Mattresses that contain innersprings are referred to as “innerspring mattresses” or “hybrid mattresses.” “Hybrid mattresses” contain two or more support systems as the core, such as layers of both memory foam and innerspring units.

“Non-innerspring mattresses” are those that do not contain any innerspring units. They are generally produced from foams ( e.g., polyurethane, memory (viscoelastic), latex foam, gel-infused viscoelastic (gel foam), thermobonded polyester, polyethylene) or other resilient filling.

Mattresses covered by the scope of this Order may be imported independently, as part of furniture or furniture mechanisms ( e.g., convertible sofa bed mattresses, sofa bed mattresses imported with sofa bed mechanisms, corner group mattresses, day-bed mattresses, roll-away bed mattresses, high risers, trundle bed mattresses, crib mattresses), or as part of a set in combination with a “mattress foundation.” “Mattress foundations” are any base or support for a mattress. Mattress foundations are commonly referred to as “foundations,” “boxsprings,” “platforms,” and/or “bases.” Bases can be static, foldable, or adjustable. Only the mattress is covered by the scope if imported as part of furniture, with furniture mechanisms, or as part of a set in combination with a mattress foundation.

Excluded from the scope of this Order are “futon” mattresses. A “futon” is a bi-fold frame made of wood, metal, or plastic material, or any combination thereof, that functions as both seating furniture (such as a couch, love seat, or sofa) and a bed. A “futon mattress” is a tufted mattress, where the top covering is secured to the bottom with thread that goes completely through the mattress from the top through to the bottom, and it does not contain innersprings or foam. A futon mattress is both the bed and seating surface for the futon.

Also excluded from the scope are airbeds (including inflatable mattresses) and waterbeds, which consist of air- or liquid-filled bladders as the core or main support system of the mattress.

Also excluded is certain multifunctional furniture that is convertible from seating to sleeping, regardless of filler material or components, where that filler material or components are integrated into the design and construction of, and inseparable from, the furniture framing. Such furniture may, and without limitation, be commonly referred to as “convertible sofas,” “sofa beds,” “sofa chaise sleepers,” “futons,” “ottoman sleepers” or a like description.

Further, also excluded from the scope of this Order are any products covered by the existing antidumping duty order on uncovered innerspring units. See Uncovered Innerspring Units from the People's Republic of China: Notice of Antidumping Duty Order, 74 FR 7661 (February 19, 2009).

The products subject to this Order are currently properly classifiable under Harmonized Tariff Schedule for the United States (HTSUS) subheadings: 9404.21.0010, 9404.21.0013, 9404.29.1005, 9404.29.1013, 9404.29.9085, and 9404.29.9087. Products subject to this Order may also enter under HTSUS subheadings: 9404.21.0095, 9404.29.1095, 9404.29.9095, 9401.40.0000, and 9401.90.5081. Although the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the merchandise subject to this Order is dispositive.

As a result of the determinations by Commerce and the ITC that revocation of the Order would likely lead to continuation or recurrence of dumping and material injury to an industry in the United States, pursuant to section 751(d)(2) of the Act, Commerce hereby orders the continuation of the Order. U.S. Customs and Border Protection will continue to collect AD cash deposits at the rates in effect at the time of entry for all imports of subject merchandise.

The effective date of the continuation of the Order will be May 20, 2025. 6 Pursuant to section 751(c)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.218(c)(2), Commerce intends to initiate the next five-year reviews of the Order not later than 30 days prior to the fifth anniversary of the date of the last determination by the ITC.

This notice also serves as the final reminder to parties subject to APO of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.

This five-year (sunset) review and this notice are in accordance with sections 751(c) and 751(d)(2) of the Act and published in accordance with section 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.218(f)(4).

The Groundfish Committee will meet to receive recommendations from the Recreational Advisory Panel, Groundfish Advisory Panel, and Groundfish Plan Development Team. The Committee will receive a report on Framework Adjustment 72/Specifications and Management Measures (to be in initiated) an action that may include status determination criteria, FY2026 specifications for Georges Bank (GB) cod and GB haddock, FY2026-FY2028 specifications for 12 stocks, FY2026-FY2027 U.S./Canada total allowable catches, and measures to address recreational management as part of Phase 1 of Atlantic cod management transition. The Committee will discuss the Redfish Sector Exemption Program Review and receive an update on the development of the review. They will also discuss Amendment 23 Monitoring Review Metrics and receive an update on development of monitoring review metrics and indicators, including refining the list of possible metrics and indicators. The Committee will make recommendations to the Council, as appropriate; and discuss other business, as necessary.

Although non-emergency issues not contained on the agenda may come before this Council for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Council action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency. The public also should be aware that the meeting will be recorded. Consistent with 16 U.S.C. 1852, a copy of the recording is available upon request.

This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Cate O'Keefe, Executive Director, (978) 465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.

Authority: 16 U.S.C. 1801 et seq.

The Scallop Committee will meet to review the outcomes of the Scallop Research Track Assessment and discuss implications for setting FY2026 scallop fishery specifications. They also plan to discuss the development of the Long-Term Scallop Strategic Plan. Other business will be discussed, if necessary.

Although non-emergency issues not contained on the agenda may come before this Council for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Council action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency. The public also should be aware that the meeting will be recorded. Consistent with 16 U.S.C. 1852, a copy of the recording is available upon request.

This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Cate O'Keefe, Executive Director, at (978) 465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.

Authority: 16 U.S.C. 1801 et seq.

The Groundfish and Recreational Advisory Panels will meet to discuss Industry Updates with an open discussion to share perspectives on fishery performance the past year and considerations for the current fishing year; overview of Quota Change Model performance for fishing years (FY) 2020-2024 and discussion on drivers that influence accuracy of prediction. They will discuss Essential Fish Habitat Framework and review and provide feedback on draft updated essential fish habitat maps and text for Atlantic cod. The panels will also discuss Framework Adjustment 72/Specifications and Management Measures (to be initiated) and receive a report on action that may include status determination criteria, FY2026 specifications for Georges Bank (GB) cod and GB haddock, FY2026-FY2028 specifications for 12 stocks, FY2026-FY2027 U.S./Canada total allowable catches, and measures to address recreational management as part of Phase 1 of Atlantic cod management transition. They will discuss the Redfish Sector Exemption Program Review and receive an update on the development of the review. The panels will also discuss Amendment 23 Monitoring Review Metrics and receive an update on development of monitoring review metrics and indicators, including refining the list of possible metrics and indicators. They will also make recommendations to the Groundfish Committee, as appropriate; and discuss other business, as necessary.

Although non-emergency issues not contained on the agenda may come before this Council for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Council action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency. The public also should be aware that the meeting will be recorded. Consistent with 16 U.S.C. 1852, a copy of the recording is available upon request.

This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Cate O'Keefe, Executive Director, at (978) 465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.

Authority: 16 U.S.C. 1801 et seq.

The Gulf, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils, in conjunction with NOAA Fisheries and the Atlantic and Gulf States Marine Fisheries Commissions have implemented the Southeast Data, Assessment and Review (SEDAR) process, a multi-step method for determining the status of fish stocks in the Southeast Region. SEDAR is a multi-step process including: (1) Data Workshop, (2) a series of assessment webinars, and (3) A Review Workshop. The product of the Data Workshop is a report that compiles and evaluates potential datasets and recommends which datasets are appropriate for assessment analyses. The assessment webinars produce a report that describes the fisheries, evaluates the status of the stock, estimates biological benchmarks, projects future population conditions, and recommends research and monitoring needs. The product of the Review Workshop is an Assessment Summary documenting panel opinions regarding the strengths and weaknesses of the stock assessment and input data. Participants for SEDAR Workshops are appointed by the Gulf, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils and NOAA Fisheries Southeast Regional Office, HMS Management Division, and Southeast Fisheries Science Center. Participants include data collectors and database managers; stock assessment scientists, biologists, and researchers; constituency representatives including fishermen, environmentalists, and NGO's; International experts; and staff of Councils, Commissions, and State and Federal agencies.

The items of discussion during the Pre-Data workshop webinar are as follows:

Participants will discuss what data may be available for use in the assessment and make recommendations for data analysis for the Data Workshop in July 2025.

Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.

These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to the Council office (see ADDRESSES ) at least (5) five business days prior to each workshop.

Authority: 16 U.S.C. 1801 et seq.

On January 9, 2023, the Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ) issued interim guidance to assist Federal agencies in their consideration of the effects of greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions and climate change when conducting environmental reviews pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA). 1 CEQ sought public comments but issued its recommendations as temporary guidance so that agencies could immediately make use of them. CEQ further advised that it may revise the guidance in response to public comments or finalize the interim guidance at a later date. CEQ did not take any further action on the Interim Guidance.

Executive Order 14154, Unleashing American Energy, establishes and advances the President's policies to, among other things, “protect the United States' economic and national security and military preparedness by ensuring that an abundant supply of reliable energy is readily accessible in every State and territory of the Nation;” “ensure that all regulatory requirements related to energy are grounded in clearly applicable law;” and “ensure that the global effects of a rule, regulation, or action shall, whenever evaluated, be reported separately from its domestic costs and benefits, in order to promote sound regulatory decision making and prioritize the interests of the American people.”  2 CEQ has concluded that the January 9, 2023, Interim Guidance is inconsistent with these policy objectives. Therefore, CEQ is withdrawing the Interim Guidance for further consideration.

Further support for CEQ's decision to withdraw the Interim Guidance is found in section 6(c) of E.O. 14154, which states that “[t]he calculation of the `social cost of carbon' is marked by logical deficiencies, a poor basis in empirical science, politicization, and the absence of a foundation in legislation. Its abuse arbitrarily slows regulatory decisions and, by rendering the United States economy internationally uncompetitive, encourages a greater human impact on the environment by affording less efficient foreign energy producers a greater share of the global energy and natural resource market.” Contrary to the policies expressed in E.O. 14154, the Interim Guidance recommended that agencies quantify and monetize GHG emissions using social cost of carbon estimates, 3 citing several social cost of carbon tools and analyses that E.O. 14154 withdrew. See E.O. 14154, section 6(b). The Interim Guidance also relied extensively on the environmental justice and climate policies expressed in E.O.s 12898, 13990, and 14008, to justify its recommendations. For example, the Interim Guidance encouraged agencies to bolster and emphasize environmental justice policies in a manner inconsistent with federal law and the interests of United States. See E.O. 14173, Ending Illegal Discrimination and Restoring Merit-Based Opportunity, 90 FR 8633 (Jan. 31, 2025).

President Trump rescinded E.O.s 12898, 13990, and 14008 and the misguided policies they espouse. See E.O. 14154 and 14173. Accordingly, CEQ is withdrawing the Interim Guidance implementing those policies and will consider issuing new or revised GHG guidance. CEQ will address in a separate notice any new or revised guidance that may be appropriate.

In addition, pursuant to section 6 of E.O. 14154, the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) issued guidance on May 5, 2025, advising agencies to “limit their analysis and consideration of [GHG] emissions only to that plainly required in their governing statutes subject to an exception” involving consultation with the U.S. Department of Justice. See Guidance Implementing Section 6 of E.O. 14154, Entitled “Unleashing American Energy” M-25-27 (May 5, 2025). Consistent with applicable law, agencies should consider OIRA's guidance when conducting environmental reviews pursuant to NEPA.

As CEQ explained in the Interim Guidance, that guidance was not a rule or regulation; may not have applied to particular situations based upon the individual facts and circumstances; did not change or substitute for any law, regulation, or other legally binding requirement; and was not legally enforceable. The withdrawal of the Interim Guidance likewise does not change any law, regulation, or other legally binding requirement.

Title; Associated Form; and OMB Number: Isolated Personnel Report and Personnel Recovery Mission Software Web Application; DD Form 1833; OMB Control Number 0701-0166.

Type of Request: Revision.

Number of Respondents: 2,892.

Responses per Respondent: 1.

Annual Responses: 2,892.

Average Burden per Response: 15 minutes.

Annual Burden Hours: 723.

Needs and Uses: Information collected using the DD Form 1833 is necessary to positively identify, authenticate, support and recover isolated or missing DoD persons of interest. The Isolated Personnel Report (ISOPREP) collects controlled unclassified information in the form of full name and associates the name with sensitive personal identifiable information including date of birth, Social Security number, DoD Identification number, pictures and fingerprints. The ISOPREP also collects confidential information in the form of personal authentication statements and codes known only to the individual who completes the ISOPREP. All personnel completing an initial ISOPREP are required to utilize the Personnel Recovery Mission Software (PRMS) web application. In rare instances where personnel do not have access to PRMS, a hardcopy DD Form 1833 can be completed. In the interest of protecting the force and returning personnel who support the DoD to their units, families and country, the information collected for the ISOPREP is a force requirement for DoD military and civilians serving overseas, as well as DoD Contractors authorized to accompany the force and Coalition military members supporting DoD operations within specified foreign countries.

Affected Public: Individuals or households.

Frequency: On occasion.

Respondent's Obligation: Voluntary.

DoD Clearance Officer: Mr. Reginald Lucas.

This notice will be of interest to entities regulated under 40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) parts 59, 60, 61, 63 and 65; State, local, and Tribal agencies; and the EPA Regional offices responsible for implementation and enforcement of regulations under 40 CFR parts 59, 60, 61, 63, and 65.

You may access copies of the broadly applicable alternative test method approval documents at https://www.epa.gov/emc/broadly-applicable-approved-alternative-test-methods.

This notice identifies broadly applicable alternative test methods that the EPA approved in 2024 under the NSPS, 40 CFR part 60 and the NESHAP, and 40 CFR part 63 programs. See table 1 of this notice for the summary of these test methods. Source owners and operators may voluntarily use these broadly applicable alternative test methods in lieu of otherwise required test methods or related testing procedures. Use of these broadly applicable alternative test methods are not intended to and should not change the applicable emission standards.

The Administrator has the authority to approve the use of alternative test methods for compliance with requirements under 40 CFR parts 59, 60, 61, 63, and 65. This authority is found in 40 CFR 60.8(b)(3), 61.13(h)(1)(ii), and 63.7(e)(2)(ii). Additional and similar authority can be found in 40 CFR 59.104(f) and 65.158(a)(2). The criteria for approval and procedures for submission and review of broadly applicable alternative test methods are explained in a previous Federal Register notice published at 72 FR 4257 (January 30, 2007) and located at https://www.epa.gov/emc/broadly-applicable-approved-alternative-test-methods. As explained in this notice, we will announce approvals for broadly applicable alternative test methods at https://www.epa.gov/emc/broadly-applicable-approved-alternative-test-methods as they are issued and publish an annual notice that summarizes approvals for broadly applicable alternative test methods during the preceding year.

As also explained in the January 30, 2007 notice, our approval decisions involve thorough technical reviews of numerous source-specific requests for alternatives and modifications to test methods and procedures. Based on these reviews, we have often found that these modifications or alternatives would be equally valid and appropriate to apply to other sources within a particular class, category, or subcategory. Consequently, we have concluded that where either a method modification or an alternative method is clearly broadly applicable to a class, category, or subcategory of sources, it is both equitable and efficient to simultaneously approve its use for all appropriate sources and situations.

Use of approved alternative test methods is not mandatory but rather permissive. Sources are not required to employ such a method but may choose to do so in appropriate circumstances. As specified in 40 CFR 63.7(f)(5), however, a source owner or operator electing to use an alternative method for 40 CFR part 63 standards must continue to use the alternative method until otherwise authorized. Source owners or operators should, therefore, review the specific broadly applicable alternative method approval decision at https://www.epa.gov/emc/broadly-applicable-approved-alternative-test-methods before electing to employ any alternative method. Source owners or operators choosing to use a broadly applicable alternative should also notify their regulatory agency prior to using the alternative.

This notice specifies three broadly applicable alternative test methods that the EPA approved between January 1, 2024, and December 31, 2024. The alternative method decision letter/memo designation numbers, test methods affected, sources allowed to use this alternative, and method modifications or alternative methods allowed are summarized in table 1 of this notice. A summary of approval documents was previously made available on our Technology Transfer Network between January 1, 2024, and December 31, 2024. For more detailed information, please refer to the complete copies of these approval documents available at https://www.epa.gov/emc/broadly-applicable-approved-alternative-test-methods.

As also explained in our January 30, 2007 notice, we will revisit approvals of alternative test methods in response to written requests or objections indicating that a particular approved alternative test method either should not be broadly applicable or that its use is not appropriate or should be limited in some way. Any objection to a broadly applicable alternative test method, as well as the resolution of that objection, will be announced at https://www.epa.gov/emc/broadly-applicable-approved-alternative-test-methods and in a subsequent Federal Register notice. If we decide to retract a broadly applicable test method, we will likely consider the need for an appropriate transition period for users either to request case-by-case approval or to transition to an approved method.

As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the FCC invited the general public and other Federal Agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimates; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198, see 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(4), the FCC seeks specific comment on how it might “further reduce the information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.”

OMB Control Number: 3060-0986.

Title: High-Cost Universal Service Support.

Form Number: FCC Form 481 and FCC Form 525.

Type of Review: Revision of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit, not-for-profit institutions and State, local or Tribal government.

Number of Respondents and Responses: 2,229 respondents; 14,172 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 0.1-15 hours.

Frequency of Response: On occasion, quarterly and annual reporting requirements, recordkeeping requirement and third-party disclosure requirement.

Obligation To Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. Statutory authority for this information collection is contained in 47 U.S.C. 151-154, 155, 201-206, 214, 218-220, 251, 252, 254, 256, 303(r), 332, 403, 405, 410, and 1302.

Total Annual Burden: 51,573 hours.

Total Annual Cost: No Cost.

Needs and Uses: The Commission is requesting the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for this revised information collection. On November 18, 2011, the Commission adopted an order reforming its high-cost universal service support mechanisms. Connect America Fund; A National Broadband Plan for Our Future; Establish Just and Reasonable Rates for Local Exchange Carriers; High-Cost Universal Service Support; Developing a Unified Intercarrier Compensation Regime; Federal-State Joint Board on Universal Service; Lifeline and Link-Up; Universal Service Reform—Mobility Fund, WC Docket Nos. 10-90, 07-135, 05-337, 03-109; GN Docket No. 09-51; CC Docket Nos. 01-92, 96-45; WT Docket No. 10-208, Order and Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, 26 FCC Rcd 17663 (2011) (USF/ICC Transformation Order). The Commission and Wireline Competition Bureau (WCB or the Bureau) have since adopted a number of orders that implement the USF/ICC Transformation Order; see also Connect America Fund et al., WC Docket No. 10-90 et al., Third Order on Reconsideration, 27 FCC Rcd 5622 (2012); Connect America Fund et al., WC Docket No. 10-90 et al., Order, 27 FCC Rcd 605 (WCB 2012); Connect America Fund et al., WC Docket No. 10-90 et al., Fifth Order on Reconsideration, 27 FCC Rcd 14549 (2012); Connect America Fund et al., WC Docket No. 10-90 et al., Order, 28 FCC Rcd 2051 (WCB 2013); Connect America Fund et al., WC Docket No. 10-90 et al., Order, 28 FCC Rcd 7227 (WCB 2013); Connect America Fund, WC Docket No. 10-90, Report and Order, 28 FCC Rcd 7766 (WCB 2013); Connect America Fund, WC Docket No. 10-90, Report and Order, 28 FCC Rcd 7211 (WCB 2013); Connect America Fund, WC Docket No. 10-90, Report and Order, 28 FCC Rcd 10488 (WCB 2013); Connect America Fund et al., WC Docket No. 10-90 et al., Report and Order and Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, 29 FCC Rcd 8769 (2014); Connect America Fund et al., WC Docket No. 10-90 et al., Report and Order, Order and Order on Reconsideration and Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, 31 FCC Rcd 3087 (2016); Connect America Fund, et al., WC Docket No. 10-90, et al., Report and Order and Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, 31 FCC Rcd 5949 (2016); Connect America Fund et al., WC Docket Nos. 10-90, 16-271; WT Docket No. 10-208, Report and Order and Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, 31 FCC Rcd 10139 (2016); Connect America Fund; ETC Annual Reports and Certifications, WC Docket Nos. 10-90, 14-58, Order, 32 FCC Rcd 968 (2017); Connect America Fund et al., WC Docket No. 10-90 et al., Report and Order, Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, and Order on Reconsideration, 33 FCC Rcd 11893 (2018); Connect America Fund; ETC Annual Reports and Certifications, WC Docket Nos. 10-90, 14-58, Report and Order, 32 FCC Rcd 5944 (2017).

In 2019, the Commission adopted an order establishing the Uniendo a Puerto Rico Fund (PR Fund) and the Connect USVI Fund, a separate, parallel high-cost program for the U.S. territories suffering extensive infrastructure damage due to Hurricanes Irma and Maria. The Uniendo a Puerto Rico Fund and the Connect USVI Fund, et al., WC Docket No. 18-143, et al., Report and Order and Order on Reconsideration, 34 FCC Rcd 9109 (2019) (Puerto Rico and USVI Stage 2 Order). Also, in the 2019 Supply Chain Order, the Commission adopted a rule prohibiting the use of Universal Service Fund (USF) support, including high-cost universal service support, to purchase or obtain any equipment or services produced or provided by a covered company posing a national security threat to the integrity of communications networks or the communications supply chain. Protecting Against National Security Threats to the Communications Supply Chain Through FCC Programs, WC Docket No. 18-89, Report and Order, Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, and Order, 34 FCC Rcd 11423, 11433, para. 26 (WCB 2019). See also 47 CFR 54.9.

On January 30, 2020, the Commission adopted an order establishing the framework for the RDOF, building on the successful CAF Phase II auction. Rural Digital Opportunity Fund; Connect America Fund, WC Docket Nos. 19-126 and 10-90, Report and Order, 35 FCC Rcd 686 (2020) (RDOF Order). Later that year, the Commission adopted two additional supply chain rules associated with newly required certifications. Protecting Against National Security Threats to the Communications Supply Chain Through FCC Programs, WC Docket No. 18-89, Second Report and Order, 35 FCC Rcd 14284 (2020) (2020 Supply Chain Order).

Through several orders, the Commission has reconfigured and extended certain high-cost programs, adding obligations applicable to these particular programs, and has changed, modified, and eliminated certain other obligations for high-cost support. These changes are outlined below:

In 2018, the Bureau announced that, as of March 1, 2018, and continuing with annual reports due March 1 in subsequent years, recipients of Rural Broadband Experiments (RBE) support would no longer submit location information and associated evidence with their annual FCC Form 481, as previously required, but would instead submit this information using the Universal Service Administrative Company (USAC or the Administrator)'s High-Cost Universal Broadband (HUBB) portal. See Wireline Competition Bureau Provides Guidance to Carriers Receiving Connect America Fund Support Regarding their Broadband Location Reporting Obligations, Public Notice, 31 FCC Rcd 12900, 12908 (WCB 2016). OMB approved the collection of this location information through the HUBB in OMB Control No. 3060-1228, Connect America Fund—High Cost Portal Filing. This collection now reflects that this obligation is being collected under OMB Control No. 3060-1228.

On July 23, 2023, the Commission established the Enhanced Alternative Connect America Cost Model (A-CAM) program, the next iteration of the A-CAM programs. See Connect America Fund: A National Broadband Plan for Our Future High-Cost Universal Service Support et al., WC Docket No. 10-90 et al., Report and Order, Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, and Notice of Inquiry, FCC 23-60 (rel. July 24, 2023) (Enhanced A-CAM Order). Under the Enhanced A-CAM program, carriers electing to receive Enhanced A-CAM support will receive such support for a term ending in 2038, for broadband deployment with speeds of at least 100 Mbps download and 20 Mbps upload, and will be subject to reporting and certification obligations associated with Enhanced A-CAM support. See Enhanced A-CAM Order at 24-27, paras. 52-59. On October 30, 2023, the Bureau announced that 368 carriers electing Enhanced A-CAM will receive $18.28 billion in total over the 15-year term. See Wireline Competition Bureau Authorizes 368 Companies in 44 States to Receive Enhanced Alternative Connect America Cost Model Support to Expand Rural Broadband, WC Docket No. 10-90, Public Notice, DA 23-1025 (WCB 2023).

On October 20, 2023, the Commission adopted an order, that among other things, modified and clarified certain requirements associated with FCC Form 481 and similar filings. See Connect America Fund et al., WC Docket No. 10-90 et al., Notice of Proposed Rulemaking and Report and Order, FCC 23-87 (rel. Oct. 20, 2023) (Administrative Order). The Administrative Order updated the rules to properly state that duplicate copies of the annual high-cost reports and certifications, i.e., the FCC Form 481, as described in §§ 54.313 and 54.314 of the Commission's rules, need not be filed with more than one entity; carriers must now only file the FCC Form 481 with USAC. See Administrative Order at 60-62, paras. 133-34; 47 CFR 54.313-14. See also Connect America Fund; ETC Annual Reports and Certifications, WC Docket Nos. 10-90, 14-58, Report and Order, 32 FCC Rcd 5944, 5948, para. 15 (2017) (ETC Reporting Streamlining Order) (“[C]ontingent upon USAC's completion of the rollout of an online portal for recipients of high cost services, we will no longer require ETCs to file duplicate copies of Form 481 with the FCC and with states, U.S. Territories, and/or Tribal governments beginning in 2018.”). The Administrative Order also made explicit that the required certification of compliance with voice and broadband benchmarks in FCC Form 481 covers the calendar year preceding the date that the FCC Form 481 is due, and is based on benchmarks released by the Commission before that calendar year (two years before the year that the FCC Form 481 is due to be submitted). See Administrative Order at 67, para. 150.

The Commission therefore proposes to revise this information collection, as well as the Form 481 and its accompanying instructions, to reflect these new and modified requirements.

As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the FCC invited the general public and other Federal Agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimates; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198, see 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(4), the FCC seeks specific comment on how it might “further reduce the information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.”

OMB Control Number: 3060-1271.

Title: Promoting Telehealth for Low-Income Consumers, COVID-19 Telehealth Program.

Form Numbers: FCC Forms 460, 461, 462, and 463.

Type of Review: Extension of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit; Not-for-profit institutions; Federal Government; and State, Local, or Tribal governments.

Number of Respondents and Responses: 7,210 respondents; 34,553 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 0.30-25 hours.

Frequency of Response: One-time, annual, and on occasion reporting requirements; recordkeeping requirement.

Obligation To Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. Statutory authority for this collection of information is contained in sections 1-4, 201-205, 214, 254, 303(r), and 403 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 151-154, 201-205, 214, 254, 303(r), and 403, and DIVISION B of the Coronavirus Aid, Relief, and Economic Security Act, Public Law No 116-136, 134 Stat. 281.

Total Annual Burden: 197,787 hours.

Total Annual Cost: No cost.

Needs and Uses: On March 31, 2020, the Commission adopted a Report and Order entitled Promoting Telehealth for Low-Income Consumers; COVID-19 Telehealth Program, WC Docket No. 18-213, WC Docket No. 20-89 (FCC 20-44), establishing two programs designed to assist health care providers in providing connected care services to consumers—the COVID-19 Telehealth Program and the Connected Care Pilot Program (collectively, Programs). June 2021, the Commission adopted a Second Report and Order, WC Docket No. 18-213 (FCC 21-74), that provided guidance on eligible services, competitive bidding, invoicing, and data reporting for Pilot Program participants. The information collected herein is necessary to meet the specific requirements for information that must be submitted as part of the annual and final reports to the Commission as outlined in the Second Connected Care Report and Order, and for the Commission to receive and evaluate data for the selected projects and ensure compliance with the Commission's rules and procedures applicable to the Connected Care Pilot Program. This submission extends the requirements for the Connected Care Pilot Program and the COVID-19 Telehealth Program.

OMB Control Number: 3060-1087.

Title: Section 15.615, General Administrative Requirements (Broadband Over Power Line (BPL).

Form Number: N/A.

Type of Review: Extension of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit; not-for-profit institutions; and State, local or Tribal government.

Number of Respondents and Responses: 100 respondents; 100 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 0.5 hours.

Frequency of Response: On occasion reporting requirement and third party disclosure requirement.

Obligation To Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. Statutory authority for this information collection is contained in 47 U.S.C. 151, 154(i), 157(a), 301, 302, 303(e), 303(f),303(g), 303(r), 307(e), 332, 622, and 0.31(g), 0.31(i), and 0.31(j).

Total Annual Burden: 2,600 hours.

Total Annual Cost: $60,000.

Needs and Uses: The Commission will submit this expiring information collection after this 60 day comment period to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to obtain the full three year clearance. Section 15.615 requires entities operating Access BPL systems shall supply to an industry-recognized entity, information on all existing Access BPL systems and all proposed Access BPL systems for inclusion into a publicly available database, within 30 days prior to installation of service. Such information should include the name of the Access BPL provider; the frequencies of the Access BPL operation; the postal ZIP codes served by the specific Access BPL operation; the manufacturer and type of Access BPL equipment and its associated FCC ID number, contact information; and proposed/or actual date of operation.

The Commission may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.

As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the FCC invited the general public and other Federal Agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimates; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198, see 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(4), the FCC seeks specific comment on how it might “further reduce the information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.”

OMB Control No.: 3060-0599.

Title: Section 90.187, Trunking in the Bands Between 150-512 MHz; and Sections 90.425 and 90.647, Station Identification.

Form No.: N/A.

Type of Review: Extension of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit, not-for-profit institutions, and State, local or Tribal government.

Number of Respondents and Responses: 24,271 respondents and 24,271 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 0.25-3 hours.

Frequency of Response: On occasion reporting requirement.

Obligation To Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. Statutory authority for this collection of information is contained in 47 U.S.C. 154(i), 309(j) and 332, as amended.

Total Annual Burden: 38,616 hours.

Annual Cost Burden: No cost.

Needs and Uses: The information contained in this collection sets forth frequency coordination requirements under § 90.187, and station identification requirements under §§ 90.647 and 90.425. The information requested in this collection is used by the Commission staff to enable the FCC to evaluate the accuracy of frequency coordination pursuant to its rule under 47 CFR 90.187, 90.425 and 90.647.

OMB Control Number: 3060-0718.

Title: Part 101 Rule Sections Governing the Terrestrial Microwave Fixed Radio Service.

Form Number: N/A.

Type of Review: Extension of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit entities, not-for-profit institutions, and state, local, or tribal government.

Number of Respondents: 9,000 respondents; 33,979 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 0.25-2.85 hours.

Frequency of Response: On occasion and every 10 year reporting requirements, third party disclosure requirement, and recordkeeping requirement.

Obligation To Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits or retain benefits. Statutory authority for this information collection is contained in 47 U.S.C. 151, 154(i), 301, 303(f), 303(g), 303(r), 307, 308, 309, 310, and 316.

Total Annual Burden: 37,901 hours.

Total Annual Cost: $1,526,663.

Needs and Uses: The Commission will submit this information collection to the Office of Management and Budget for a three-year extension of OMB Control Number 3060-0718. Part 101 rule sections require respondents to report or disclose information to the Commission or third parties, respectively, and to maintain records. These requirements are necessary for the Commission staff to carry out its duties to determine technical, legal and other qualifications of applicants to operate and remain licensed to operate a station(s) in the common carrier and/or private fixed microwave services. In addition, the information is used to determine whether the public interest, convenience, and necessity are being served as required by 47 U.S.C. 309 and to ensure that applicants and licenses comply with ownership and transfer restrictions imposed by 47 U.S.C. 310. Without this information, the Commission would not be able to carry out its statutory responsibilities.

OMB Control No.: 3060-0936.

Title: Sections 95.2593, 95.2595 and 95.2509, Medical Device Radiocommunications Service (MedRadio).

Form No.: N/A.

Type of Review: Extension of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit and not-for-profit institutions.

Number of Respondents: 627 respondents; 627 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 1-3 hours.

Frequency of Response: On occasion reporting requirement, third party disclosure requirement and recordkeeping requirement.

Obligation To Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. Statutory authority for this information collection is contained in 47 U.S.C. 151 and 303 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended.

Total Annual Burden: 1,851 hours.

Total Annual Cost: No cost.

Needs and Uses: The Federal Communications Commission is requesting that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approve for a period of three years an extension for the information collection requirements contained in this collection.

The information collection requirements that are approved under this information collection are contained in 95.2593, 95.2595 and 95.2509 which relate to the Medical Device Radiocommunication Service (MedRadio). The former rule sections for this collection were 95.1215, 95.1217, 95.1223 and 95.1225.

The information is necessary to allow the coordinator and parties using the database to contact other users to verify information and resolve potential conflicts. Each user is responsible for determining in advance whether new devices are likely to cause or be susceptible to interference from devices already registered in the coordination database.

The Lifeline program provides support for discounted broadband and voice services to low-income consumers. Lifeline is administered by the Universal Service Administrative Company (USAC) under FCC direction. Consumers qualify for Lifeline through proof of income or participation in a qualifying program, such as Medicaid, the Supplemental Nutritional Assistance Program (SNAP), Federal Public Housing Assistance, Supplemental Security Income (SSI), Veterans and Survivors Pension Benefit, or various Tribal-specific Federal assistance programs.

In the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021, Public Law 116-260, 134 Stat. 1182, 2129-36 (2020), Congress created the Emergency Broadband Benefit Program, and directed use of the National Verifier to determine eligibility based on various criteria, including the qualifications for Lifeline (Medicaid, SNAP, etc.). EBBP provided $3.2 billion in monthly consumer discounts for broadband service and one-time provider reimbursement for a connected device (laptop, desktop computer or tablet). In the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act, Public Law 117-58, 135 Stat. 429, 1238-44 (2021) (codified at 47 U.S.C. 1751-52), Congress modified and extended EBBP, provided an additional $14.2 billion, and renamed it the Affordable Connectivity Program (ACP). A household may qualify for the ACP benefit under various criteria, including an individual qualifying for the FCC's Lifeline program.

In a Report and Order adopted on March 31, 2016, (81 FR 33026, May 24, 2016) ( 2016 Lifeline Modernization Order ), the Commission ordered USAC to create a National Lifeline Eligibility Verifier (“National Verifier”), including the National Lifeline Eligibility Database (LED), that would match data about Lifeline applicants and subscribers with other data sources to verify the eligibility of an applicant or subscriber. The Commission found that the National Verifier would reduce compliance costs for Lifeline service providers, improve service for Lifeline subscribers, and reduce waste, fraud, and abuse in the program.

The Consolidated Appropriations Act of 2021 directs the FCC to leverage the National Verifier to verify applicants' eligibility for ACP. The purpose of this matching program is to verify the eligibility of Lifeline and ACP applicants and subscribers by determining whether they receive SNAP and Tribal TANF benefits administered by the Arizona Department of Economic Security.

Arizona Department of Economic Security (source agency); Federal Communications Commission (recipient agency) and Universal Service Administrative Company.

The authority to conduct the matching program for the FCC's ACP is 47 U.S.C. 1752(a)-(b). The authority to conduct the matching program for the FCC's Lifeline program is 47 U.S.C. 254(a)-(c), (j).

The purpose of this new matching agreement is to verify the eligibility of applicants and subscribers to Lifeline, as well as to ACP and other Federal programs that use qualification for Lifeline as an eligibility criterion. This new agreement will permit eligibility verification for the Lifeline program and ACP by checking an applicant's/subscriber's participation in SNAP and Tribal TANF in Arizona. Under FCC rules, consumers receiving these benefits qualify for Lifeline discounts and also for ACP benefits.

The categories of individuals whose information is involved in the matching program include, but are not limited to, those individuals who have applied for Lifeline and/or ACP benefits; are currently receiving Lifeline and/or ACP benefits; are individuals who enable another individual in their household to qualify for Lifeline and/or ACP benefits; are minors whose status qualifies a parent or guardian for Lifeline and/or ACP benefits; or are individuals who have received Lifeline and/or ACP benefits.

The categories of records involved in the matching program include the last four digits of the applicant's Social Security Number, date of birth, first and last name. The National Verifier will transfer these data elements to the Arizona Department of Economic Security which will respond either “yes” or “no” that the individual is enrolled in a qualifying assistance program: SNAP and Tribal TANF administered by the Arizona Department of Economic Security.

The records shared as part of this matching program reside in the Lifeline system of records, FCC/WCB-1, Lifeline, which was published in the Federal Register at 89 FR 28777 (Apr. 19, 2024).

The records shared as part of this matching program reside in the ACP system of records, FCC/WCB-3, Affordable Connectivity Program, which was published in the Federal Register at 89 FR 28780 (Apr. 19, 2024).

OMB Control Number: 3060-0398.

Title: Sections 15.117(g)(2), 15.201(a), 15.201(d), 15.211, 15.213 and 15.221(c)—Equipment Authorization Measurement Standards.

Form No.: N/A.

Type of Review: Extension of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit entities.

Number of Respondents and Responses: 250 respondents; 250 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 18 hours.

Frequency of Response: On occasion, and one time reporting requirements, recordkeeping requirement and third party disclosure requirement.

Obligation To Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. Statutory authority for this information collection is contained in 47 U.S.C. 4(i), 302, 303(c), 303(f), 303(g) and 303(r), and 309(a).

Total Annual Burden: 3,850 hours.

Total Annual Cost: $50,000.

Needs and Uses: The Commission will submit this information collection after this 60-day comment period to obtain the full three year clearance from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). There is no change in the Commission's estimated respondents/responses and/or total annual burden hours. To ensure that technical standards are applied uniformly, the Commission requires respondents to follow appropriate equipment authorization procedures specified in subpart J of part 2 of the Commission's rules. These requirements require manufacturers to comply with certain information collection requirements common to all equipment. 1 In addition to these general requirements, the responsible parties for certain types of equipment must maintain special records as specified by the requirements for those devices.

OMB Control Number: 3060-0331.

Title: Aeronautical Frequency Notification, FCC Form 321.

Form Number: FCC Form 321.

Type of Review: Extension of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Business and other for-profit entities; not-for-profit institutions.

Number of Respondents: 1,886 respondents, 1,886 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 0.67 hours.

Frequency of Response: One time and on occasion reporting requirements.

Obligation To Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. The statutory authority for this collection of information is contained in Sections 154(i), 301, 303, 308 and 309 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended.

Total Annual Burden: 1,264 hours.

Total Annual Cost: $188,600.

Needs and Uses: Multichannel Video Programming Distributors (MVPDs) provide their programming over a closed system and, thus, may use all frequencies to do so. They must, however, prevent leakage of those signals from the system and guard against and minimize any harm to aeronautical communications should leak occur. Part of the regime for protecting aeronautical frequencies from interference and resolving interference is notification of the Commission of use of those frequencies and that proper frequency offsets and other precautions are taken. Form 321 is used for this purpose.

The Commission seeks an extension of this currently approved collection. Under 47 CFR 76.1804, an MVPD shall notify the Commission before transmitting any digital signal with average power exceeding 10 − 5 watts across a 30 kHz bandwidth in a 2.5 millisecond time period, or for other signal types, any carrier of other signal component with an average power level across a 25 kHz bandwidth in any 160 microsecond time period equal to or greater than 10 − 4 watts at any point in the cable distribution system on any new frequency or frequencies in the aeronautical radio frequency bands (108-137 MHz, 225-400 MHz).

The notification shall be made on FCC Form 321, which must be filed electronically via the Commission's COALS database at https://www.fcc.gov/coals.

The Commission may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.

As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the FCC invited the general public and other Federal Agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimates; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198, see 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(4), the FCC seeks specific comment on how it might “further reduce the information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.”

OMB Control No.: 3060-0192.

Title: Section 87.103, Posting Station License.

Form No.: N/A.

Type of Review: Extension of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit, not-for-profit institutions, and State, local and Tribal government.

Number of Respondents and Responses: 33,622 respondents, 33,622 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: .25 hours.

Frequency of Response: Recordkeeping requirement.

Obligation To Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. The statutory authority for this collection is contained in 47 U.S.C. 303.

Total Annual Burden: 8,406 hours.

Annual Cost Burden: No cost.

Needs and Uses: Section 87.103 states the following: (a) Stations at fixed locations. The license or a photocopy must be posted or retained in the station's permanent records. (b) Aircraft radio stations. The license must be either posted in the aircraft or kept with the aircraft registration certificate. If a single authorization covers a fleet of aircraft, a copy of the license must be either posted in each aircraft or kept with each aircraft registration certificate. (c) Aeronautical mobile stations. The license must be retained as a permanent part of the station records. The recordkeeping requirement contained in Section 87.103 is necessary to demonstrate that all transmitters in the Aviation Service are properly licensed in accordance with the requirements of Section 301 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 301, No. 2020 of the International Radio Regulation, and Article 30 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation.

OMB Control No.: 3060-0262.

Title: Section 90.179, Shared Use of Radio Stations.

Form No.: N/A.

Type of Review: Extension of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit, non-for-profit institutions, and State, local and Tribal government.

Number of Respondents and Responses: 34,000 respondents, 34,000 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: .25 up to .75 hours.

Frequency of Response: Recordkeeping requirement and on occasion reporting requirement.

Obligation To Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. The statutory authority for this collection is contained in 47 U.S.C. 154(i), 161, 303(g), 303(r) and 332(c)(7).

Total Annual Burden: 34,000 hours.

Annual Cost Burden: No cost.

Needs and Uses: The Commission was directed by the United States Congress, in the Balanced Budget Act of 1997, to dedicate 2.4 MHz of electromagnetic spectrum in the 746-806 MHz band for public safety services. Section 90.179 requires that Part 90 licensees that share use of their private land mobile radio facility on non-profit, cost-sharing basis to prepare and keep a written sharing agreement as part of the station records. Regardless of the method of sharing, an up-to-date list of persons who are sharing the station and the basis of their eligibility under Part 90 must be maintained. The requirement is necessary to identify users of the system should interference problems develop. This information is used by the Commission to investigate interference complaints and resolve interference and operational complaints that may arise among the users.

OMB Control Number: 3060-0649.

Title: Section 76.1601, Deletion or Repositioning of Broadcast Signals; Section 76.1617, Initial Must-Carry Notice; Section 76.1607, Principal Headend.

Form Number: Not applicable.

Type of Review: Extension of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit entities; Not for profit institutions.

Number of Respondents/Responses: 3,300 respondents; 3,950 responses.

Estimated Hours per Response: 0.5 hours-1 hour.

Frequency of Response: On occasion reporting requirement, Third party disclosure requirement.

Total Annual Burden: 2,050 hours.

Total Annual Cost: No cost.

Obligation To Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. The statutory authority for this information collection is contained in section 4(i) of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended.

Needs and Uses: The information collection requirements listed below are covered under this information collection: Regulations at 47 CFR 76.1600 require that after July 31, 2020, the written notices mandated by 47 CFR 76.1601, 76,1607, and 76.1617 must be delivered to broadcast stations electronically.

Regulations at 47 CFR 76.1601 require that a cable operator shall provide written notice to any broadcast television station at least 30 days prior to either deleting from carriage or repositioning that station. Such notification shall also be provided to subscribers of the cable system.

Regulations at 47 CFR 76.1607 state that a cable operator shall provide written notice by certified mail to all stations carried on its system pursuant to the must-carry rules at least 60 days prior to any change in the designation of its principal headend.

Regulations at 47 CFR 76.1617(a) state within 60 days of activation of a cable system, a cable operator must notify all qualified Non-Commercial Education (NCE) stations of its designated principal headend by certified mail.

Regulations at 47 CFR 76.1617(b) state within 60 days of activation of a cable system, a cable operator must notify all local commercial and Non-Commercial Education (NCE) stations that may not be entitled to carriage because they either fail to meet the standards for delivery of a good quality signal to the cable system's principal headend, or may cause an increased copyright liability to the cable system.

Regulations at 47 CFR 76.1617(c) state within 60 days of activation of a cable system, a cable operator must send by certified mail a copy of a list of all broadcast television stations carried by its system and their channel positions to all local commercial and noncommercial television stations, including those not designated as must-carry stations and those not carried on the system.

The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.

OMB Control Number: 3060-0057.

Title: Application for Equipment Authorization, FCC Form 731.

Form Number: FCC Form 731.

Type of Review: Revision of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit.

Number of Respondents and Responses: 11,305 respondents; 24,893 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 40 hours.

Frequency of Response: On occasion and ongoing reporting requirements and third party disclosure requirements.

Obligation To Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. Statutory authority for this information collection is contained in 47 U.S.C. 1, 4, 4(i), 301, 302a, 303, 307, 309(j), 310, 312, and 316 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 151, 154, 154(i), 301, 302a, 303, 307, 309(j), 310, 312, 316, and the Secure Equipment Act of 2021, Public Law 117-55, 135 Stat. 423.

Total Annual Burden: 207,068 hours.

Total Annual Cost: $50,215,140.

Needs and Uses: The Commission will submit this revised information collection to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) after this 60 day comment period in order to obtain OMB's full three year clearance.

On August 29, 2024, the Commission released a Report and Order, WT Docket No. 22-323, Spectrum Rules and Policies for the Operation of Unmanned Aircraft Systems, FCC 24-91 (90 FR 1380, January 8, 2025). Among the adopted rules intended to enable uncrewed aircraft systems (UAS) operators to access dedicated, reliable spectrum in the 5030-5091 MHz band to support safety-of-flight, control-related communications, while also allowing flexibility for the industry to further develop, the Commission added new rules in 47 CFR part 88 and revised Form 731, the Application for Equipment Authority. These new rules provide a critical first step to promote access by UAS operators to dedicated spectrum, while also allowing a consensus to emerge on key issues for this industry.

These new rules resulting in revisions to the information collection are as follows:

Each transmitter utilized for operation under this part and each transmitter marketed as set forth in § 2.803 of this chapter must be certified by the Commission for use in part 88 services following the procedures set forth in part 2, subpart J of this chapter.

An applicant for certification of equipment intended for transmission in the 5030-5091 MHz band must notify the FAA of the filing of a certification application. The letter of notification must be mailed to: FAA, Spectrum Engineering Service Group, AJW-1900, 800 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20591 prior to the filing of the application with the Commission.

(a) The notification letter must describe the equipment, and give the manufacturer's identification, antenna characteristics, rated output power, emission type and characteristics, the frequency or frequencies of operation, and essential receiver characteristics if protection is required.

(b) The certification application must include a copy of the notification letter to the FAA. The Commission will not act until it receives the FAA's determination regarding whether it objects to the application for equipment authorization. The FAA should mail its determination to: Office of Engineering and Technology Laboratory Division, Equipment Authorization and Compliance Branch, 7435 Oakland Mills Rd., Columbia, MD 21046. The Commission will consider the FAA determination before taking final action on the application.

Licensees and manufacturers are subject to the radio frequency radiation exposure requirements specified in §§ 1.1307(b), 1.1310, 2.1091, and 2.1093 of this chapter, as appropriate. Applications for equipment authorization of mobile or portable devices operating under this section must contain a statement confirming compliance with these requirements for both fundamental emissions and unwanted emissions and technical information showing the basis for this statement must be submitted to the Commission upon request.

Title: Section 15.615, General Administrative Requirements (Broadband Over Power Line (BPL).

OMB Control Number: 3060-1087.

Form Number: N/A.

Type of Review: Extension of a currently approved collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit; not-for-profit institutions; and State, local or Tribal government.

Number of Respondents and Responses: 100 respondents; 100 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 0.5 hours.

Frequency of Response: On occasion reporting requirement and third party disclosure requirement.

Obligation To Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. Statutory authority for this information collection is contained in 47 U.S.C. 151, 154(i), 157(a), 301, 302, 303(e), 303(f),303(g), 303(r), 307(e), 332, 622, and 0.31(g), 0.31(i), and 0.31(j).

Total Annual Burden: 2,600 hours.

Total Annual Cost: $60,000.

Needs and Uses: The Commission will submit this expiring information collection after this 60 day comment period to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to obtain the full three year clearance. Section 15.615 requires entities operating Access BPL systems shall supply to an industry-recognized entity, information on all existing Access BPL systems and all proposed Access BPL systems for inclusion into a publicly available database, within 30 days prior to installation of service. Such information should include the name of the Access BPL provider; the frequencies of the Access BPL operation; the postal ZIP codes served by the specific Access BPL operation; the manufacturer and type of Access BPL equipment and its associated FCC ID number, contact information; and proposed/or actual date of operation.

The Commission may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.

As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the FCC invited the general public and other Federal Agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimates; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198, see 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(4), the FCC seeks specific comment on how it might “further reduce the information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.”

OMB Control No.: 3060-0678.

Title: Part 25 of the Federal Communications Commission's Rules Governing the Licensing of, and Spectrum Usage by, Commercial Earth Stations and Space Stations.

Form Nos.: FCC Form 312, FCC Form 312-EZ, FCC Form 312-R and Schedules A, B and S.

Type of Review: Revision of a currently approved information collection.

Respondents: Business or other for-profit entities and not-for-profit institutions.

Number of Respondents and Responses: 3,539 respondents; 3,591 responses.

Estimated Time per Response: 0.5-80 hours per response.

Frequency of Response: On occasion, one time, and annual reporting requirements; third-party disclosure requirements; recordkeeping requirement.

Obligation To Respond: Required to obtain or retain benefits. The Commission has statutory authority for the information collection requirements under 47 U.S.C. 154, 301, 302, 303, 307, 309, 310, 319, 332, 605, and 721.

Total Annual Burden: 27,748 hours.

Annual Cost Burden: $4,154,267.

Needs and Uses: On April 21, 2023, the Commission released a Report and Order, FCC 23-29, IB Docket No. 21-456, titled “Revising Spectrum Sharing Rules for Non-Geostationary Orbit, Fixed-Satellite Service Systems.” In this Report and Order, the Commission revised its rules governing spectrum sharing among a new generation of broadband satellite constellations to promote market entry, regulatory certainty, and spectrum efficiency through good-faith coordination. As relevant to this information collection, the Commission adopted rules clarifying protection obligations between non-geostationary satellite orbit, fixed-satellite service (NGSO FSS) systems authorized through different processing rounds by using a degraded throughput methodology. Specifically, the Commission required that, prior to commencing operations, an NGSO FSS licensee or market access recipient must either certify that it has completed a coordination agreement with any operational NGSO FSS system licensed or granted U.S. market access in an earlier processing round, or submit for Commission approval a compatibility showing which demonstrates by use of a degraded throughput methodology that it will not cause harmful interference to any such system with which coordination has not been completed. If an earlier-round system becomes operational after a later-round system has commenced operations, the later-round licensee or market access recipient must submit a certification of coordination or a compatibility showing with respect to the earlier-round system no later than 60 days after the earlier-round system commences operations.

Further, on November 15, 2024, the Commission released a Second Report and Order in the same rulemaking proceeding, FCC 24-117, IB Docket No. 21-456, titled “Revising Spectrum Sharing Rules for Non-Geostationary Orbit, Fixed-Satellite Service Systems.” In this Second Report and Order, the Commission revised the NGSO FSS sharing rules to clarify certain details of the degraded throughput methodology that, in the absence of a coordination agreement, must be used in compatibility analyses by NGSO FSS system grantees authorized through later processing rounds to show they can operate compatibly with, and protect, NGSO FSS systems authorized through earlier processing rounds. The Commission adopted a 3% time-weighted average throughput degradation as a long-term interference protection criterion and a 0.4% absolute increase in link unavailability as a short-term interference protection criterion.

The relevant rule for purposes of this revised information collection is 47 CFR 25.261(d).

The new information collection requirements in this collection are needed to determine the technical qualifications of licensees and market access grantees to operate an NGSO FSS space station and to determine whether operations under an NGSO FSS authorization serve the public interest, convenience and necessity. Without such information, the Commission could not determine whether to permit respondents to provide communications services in the United States because it could not assure that incumbent NGSO FSS licensees and market access grantees are adequately protected from radiofrequency interference that could be caused by NGSO FSS satellite systems authorized through a later processing round. Therefore, the Commission would not be able to fulfill its statutory responsibilities in accordance with the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, and the obligations imposed on parties to the World Trade Organization Basic Telecom Agreement.

Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal agencies to publish a 30-day notice in the Federal Register concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension or reinstatement of an existing collection of information, before submitting the collection to OMB for approval. To comply with this requirement, CMS is publishing this notice that summarizes the following proposed collection(s) of information for public comment:

1. Type of Information Collection Request: Reinstatement with change to a previously approved information collection; Title: Application for Part B Immunosuppressive Drug Coverage (Part B-ID); Use: Sections 226A, 1836(b) and 1837(n) of the Act provide the statutory authority for this new, limited Medicare entitlement program. It is stated in § 407.1(a)(6) that, sections 1836(b) and 1837(n) of the Act provide for coverage of immunosuppressive drugs as described in section 1861(s)(2)(J) of the Act under Part B beginning on or after January 1, 2023, for eligible individuals whose benefits under Medicare Part A and eligibility to enroll in Part B on the basis of ESRD would otherwise end with the 36th month after the month in which the individual receives a kidney transplant by reason of section 226A(b)(2) of the Act.

CMS-10798 provides the necessary information to determine eligibility and to process the beneficiary's request for enrollment for in Part B-ID coverage. This form is only used for enrollment by beneficiaries whose Medicare entitlement based on ESRD would otherwise end after a successful kidney transplant to continue enrollment under Medicare Part B only for the coverage of immunosuppressive drugs who already have Part A, but not Part B.

Form CMS-10798 is completed by the individual or is completed by an SSA representative using information provided by the Medicare enrollee during a telephone interview. The form is owned by CMS but not completed by CMS staff. SSA processes Medicare enrollments on behalf of CMS. Form Number: CMS-10798 (OMB control number: 0938-1428); Frequency: Once; Affected Public: Individuals and Households, State, Local, or Tribal Governments; Number of Respondents: 1,019; Total Annual Responses: 1,019; Total Annual Hours: 173. (For policy questions regarding this collection contact Tyrissa Woods at 410-786-0286 or Tyrissa.woods@cms.hhs.gov .)

2. Type of Information Collection Request: Revision of a currently approved collection; Title of Information Collection: Data Use Agreement (DUA) Limited Data Set (LDS) Forms Research Identifiable Files (FIF) Forms; Use: The Privacy Act of 1974, section 552a requires the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) to track all disclosures of the agency's Personally Identifiable Information (PII). CMS is also required by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 and the Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA) of 2002 to properly protect all Protected Health Information (PHI) data maintained by the agency and account for the disclosure of PHI. When entities, such as academic, Federal or State agency researchers or CMS contractors request CMS PII/PHI data, they enter into a Data Use Agreement (DUA) with CMS. The DUA stipulates that the recipient of CMS data must properly protect the data according to all applicable data security standards and provide for its appropriate destruction at the completion of the project/study or the expiration date of the DUA.

CMS is permitted to disclose data files for approved research purposes in compliance with 45 CFR 164.512(I). Researchers requesting limited data set files (LDS) must, as part of the request process, complete a research request packet that provides CMS with information pertaining to the research study, including describing how the research results/findings will be disseminated, as well as the data files being requested. Should CMS approve the research request, the data requestor enters into a Data Use Agreement (DUA). This data collection is necessary to ensure that disclosures of data for research purposes comply with Federal laws and regulations as well as CMS policy. Form Number: CMS-R-235 (OMB control number 0938-0734); Frequency: Occasionally; Affected Public: Private Sector—State, Local, or Tribal Governments; and Business or other for-profits, Not-for-profits institutions and Federal Government; Number of Respondents: 7,805; Total Annual Responses: 7,805; Total Annual Hours: 4,234. (For policy questions regarding this collection contact Rebecca Dorman at 410-786-2095 or rebecca.dorman@cms.hhs.gov. )

3. Type of Information Collection Request: Reinstatement with change of a previously approved information collection; Title of Information Collection: Comprehensive Outpatient Rehabilitation Facility (CORF) Certification and Survey Forms; Use: This information collection is for the reinstatement of the CMS-359 and CMS-360 forms. The purpose of these forms is described below. The form CMS-359 is an application for health care providers that seek to participate in the Medicare program as a Comprehensive Outpatient Rehabilitation Facility (CORF). The form initiates the process for facilities to become certified as a CORF and it provides the CMS Location and State Survey Agency (SA) staff identifying information regarding the applicant that is stored in the Automated Survey Processing Environment (ASPEN) system.

The form CMS-360 is a survey tool used by the SAs to record information in order to determine a provider's compliance with the CORF Conditions of Participation (COPs) and to report this information to the Federal Government. The form includes basic information on the COP requirements, check boxes to indicate the level of compliance, and a section for recording notes. CMS has the responsibility and authority for certification decisions which are based on provider compliance with the COPs and this form supports this process. Form Number: CMS-359/360 (OMB control number: 0938-0267); Frequency: Occasionally; Affected Public: Private Sector (Business or other for-profits); Number of Respondents: 179; Number of Responses: 31; Total Annual Hours: 241. (For questions regarding this collection contact Caroline Gallaher (410) 786-8705.)

4. Type of Information Collection Request: Reinstatement with change of a previously approved collection; Title of Information Collection: Rural Community Hospital Demonstration Program Application; Use: CMS is requesting the information collection request previously approved under OMB control number 0938-0880, the Medicare Waiver Demonstration/Model Application, be reinstated. The approval lapsed due to an administrative oversight.

The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) has operated the statutory Rural Community Hospital (RCH) Demonstration since 2004. The authorizing statute instructed CMS to test cost-based payment for Medicare inpatient services for rural hospitals with fewer than 51 beds that are not eligible to be Critical Access Hospitals (CAH).

The RCH Demonstration Program was initially authorized by section 410A of the Medicare Modernization Act (MMA) of 2003. Following the initial 5-year authorization, the demonstration has been extended 3 times, each time for an additional 5 years—first, by Sections 3123 and 10313 of the Affordable Care Act; then by section 15003 of the 21st Century Cures Act; and by section 128 of the Consolidated Appropriations Act of 2021. Currently, the demonstration has 20 participants out of a maximum of 30 hospitals, and it is scheduled to end in 2028.

For previous authorizations, CMS has issued a Request for Applications (RFA) to solicit applications for the demonstration program. For the last solicitation, in 2017, CMS received 51 applications for 13 open spaces. CMS is planning on a new RFA to fill the ten spaces that are currently open.

Per the RFA, applications are requested in identical format, regardless of the specific goals and projects of the individual applicants. The standardized application format is not controversial, and it will reduce burden on applicants and reviewers. Responses are strictly voluntary. The standard format will enable CMS to select proposals that meet CMS objectives and show the best potential for success.

The RFA will ask interested hospitals to provide a problem statement, strategies for ongoing financial viability, goals for participation in the demonstration, and plans for collaboration with other providers in the area. Applications will be submitted in the user-friendly format outlined in the Medicare Waiver Demonstration/Model Application.

A panel of evaluators will be assembled and utilize a standardized rubric to score the submitted proposals and identify hospitals with the highest scores. Results will be used to guide the future of the Medicare and Medicaid programs and to inform reform initiatives. Form Number: CMS-10069 (OMB control number: 0938-0880); Frequency: Once; Affected Public: Business or other for-profits and Not-for-profit institutions; Number of Respondents: 30; Total Annual Responses: 30; Total Annual Hours: 2,400. (For policy questions regarding this collection contact Alexis Lilly at 410-786-3501).

This notice sets out a summary of the use and burden associated with the following information collections. More detailed information can be found in each collection's supporting statement and associated materials (see ADDRESSES ).

Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA requires federal agencies to publish a 60-day notice in the Federal Register concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension or reinstatement of an existing collection of information, before submitting the collection to OMB for approval. To comply with this requirement, CMS is publishing this notice.

1. Type of Information Collection Request: Revision of a currently approved collection; Title of Information Collection: Medicare Part D Electronic Prescribing Tools (42 CFR 423.128(d)(4)-(5) and 423.160(b)(1)); Use: The NCPDP SCRIPT standard is utilized to electronically transmit prescriptions for Part D drugs for Part D eligible individuals, as required at 42 CFR 423.160(b)(1). This standard also includes a series of transactions which enable ePA to take place when the electronically prescribed drug requires PA. The ePA transactions within the NCPDP SCRIPT standard enable the secure exchange of information relevant to ePA between the prescriber's electronic health record (EHR) and the insurer, specifically providing standardized information fields that are relevant for medication use, mandatory questions, transaction messaging, and standardized ePA data elements exchanging the PA questions and answers between prescribers and payers.

Beneficiaries can access the real-time benefit tools (RTBTs) online or by phone from the plan's call center. Although a goal of requiring a beneficiary RTBT is to ensure beneficiaries can readily access their formulary and benefit information, we retained a requirement for Part D sponsors to provide the same information by phone for beneficiaries who are less comfortable with computer or mobile access to their plan information.; Form Number: CMS-10755 (OMB control number: 0938-1396); Frequency: Yearly; Affected Public: Private and Businesses or other for-profits; Number of Respondents: 1,001; Total Annual Responses: 700,865; Total Annual Hours: 11,880. (For policy questions regarding this collection contact Craig Miner at 410-786-7937 or craig.miner@cms.hhs.gov. )

Description: The CCWIS information collection includes two components:

• The Automated Function List update required pursuant to § 1355.52(i)(2);

• The Data Quality Plan update required pursuant to § 1355.52(d)(5).

The CCWIS regulations require updates of this information to confirm that the project meets CCWIS requirements and that project costs are appropriately allocated to benefiting programs.

Respondents: Title IV-E agencies under the Social Security Act.

Authority: 42 U.S.C. 621 et seq., 42 U.S.C. 670 et seq., 42 U.S.C. 1301 and 1302.

When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the information collection request title for reference.

Information Collection Request Title: Scholarships for Disadvantaged Students Program Specific Form, OMB No. 0906-0073—Revision.

Abstract: HRSA seeks to collect data on the Scholarships for Disadvantaged Students (SDS) Program Specific Form, which will assist the agency in making funding decisions for SDS program awards. The SDS Program Specific Form and another form, the Bureau of Health Workforce (BHW) Program Specific Data Form, are currently approved under OMB No. 0906-0073 with an expiration date of November 30, 2025. This clearance is for the approval of one form, the SDS Program Specific Form, and removal of the BHW Program Specific Data Form. For programmatic efficiency, HRSA will move the BHW Program Specific Data Form to another ICR that reports data outcomes post grant award. The information collection request has been renamed to the “Scholarships for Disadvantaged Students Program Specific Form” in accordance with these updates.

Need and Proposed Use of the Information: The SDS Program Specific Form seeks to assist HRSA in assessing applicants for the SDS Program, which is to make grant awards to eligible schools to provide scholarships to full-time, financially needy students from disadvantaged backgrounds enrolled in health professions programs. To qualify for participation in the SDS program, a school must carry out a program in accordance with section 737(d)(1)(B) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 293a(d)(1)(B)). To meet this requirement, a school must provide data via the SDS Program Specific Form that at least 20 percent of the school's full-time enrolled students and graduates are from a disadvantaged background. Additionally, to successfully make awards, the Secretary of Health and Human Services shall give priority to eligible entities based on proportions of students/graduates in accordance with section 737(c) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 293a(c)). This form will be used to collect 3 years of student and participant data from SDS program applicants and does not include substantive changes.

Likely Respondents: Institutions that apply for SDS program awards.

Burden Statement: Burden in this context means the time expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose or provide the information requested. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information; to search data sources; to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information. The total annual burden hours estimated for this ICR are summarized in the table below.

HRSA specifically requests comments on (1) the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.

When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the ICR title for reference.

Information Collection Request Title: The Teaching Health Center Graduate Medical Education Program Eligible Resident or Fellow Full-Time Equivalent Chart, OMB No. 0915-0367—Extension

Abstract: The Teaching Health Center Graduate Medical Education (THCGME) Program, section 340H of the Public Health Service Act, was established by section 5508 of Public Law 111-148. The Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021 (Pub. L. 116-260) and the American Rescue Plan Act of 2021 (Pub. L. 117-2) provided continued funding for the THCGME Program. The THCGME Program awards payment for both direct and indirect expenses to support training for primary care residents in community-based ambulatory patient care settings. The THCGME Program Eligible Resident or Fellow full-time equivalent (FTE) Chart, published in the THCGME Notice of Funding Opportunity (NOFO), is a means for determining the number of eligible resident or fellow FTEs in an applicant's primary care residency program. The FTE Chart revisions will continue to collect the number of resident or fellow FTEs from previous academic years and will continue to capture the number of resident or fellow FTEs requested within the NOFO application.

Need and Proposed Use of the Information: The THCGME Program Eligible Resident or Fellow FTE Chart requires applicants to provide (a) data related to the size and/or growth of the residency program over previous academic years, (b) the number of residents enrolled in the program during the baseline academic year, and (c) a projection of the program's proposed expansion over the next 5 academic years. It is imperative that applicants complete this chart to quantify the total supported residents. THCGME funding is used to support expanded numbers of residents in existing residency programs, to establish new residency training programs, or to maintain filled positions at existing residency training programs. Utilization of a chart to gather this important information has decreased the number of errors in the eligibility review process resulting in a more accurate review and funding process. This ICR comports with the regulatory requirement imposed by 45 CFR 75.206(a), “[s]tandard application requirements, including forms for applying for HHS financial assistance, and state plans.”

Likely Respondents: Teaching Health Centers applying for THCGME funding through a THCGME NOFO process, which may include new applicants and existing awardees.

Burden Statement: Burden in this context means the time expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose, or provide the information requested. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install, and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating, and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information; to search data sources; to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information. The total annual burden hours estimated for this ICR are summarized in the table below.

HRSA specifically requests comments on (1) the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.

When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the ICR title for reference.

Information Collection Request Title: Initial and Reconciliation Application Forms to Report Graduate Medical Education Data and FTE Residents Trained by Hospitals Participating in the CHGME Payment Program; and FTE Resident Assessment Forms to Report FTE Residents Trained by Organizations Participating in the CHGME Payment Program and the THCGME Program, OMB No. 0915-0247—Revision.

Abstract: The Healthcare Research and Quality Act of 1999 (Pub. L. 106-129) established the CHGME Payment Program, Section 340E of the Public Health Service Act, most recently amended by the Dr. Benjy Frances Brooks Children's Hospital Graduate Medical Education (GME) Support Reauthorization Act of 2018 (Pub. L. 115-241). In 2010, the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Pub. L. 111-148) established the THCGME Program, Section 340H of the Public Health Service Act. The CHGME Payment Program and the THCGME Program provide federal funding to support GME programs that train medical and dental residents and fellows. Specifically, the CHGME Payment Program supports residency programs at freestanding children's hospitals that train residents in pediatric, pediatric subspecialty, and non-pediatric care. The THCGME Program supports training for primary care residents/fellows (in family medicine, internal medicine, pediatrics, internal medicine-pediatrics, obstetrics and gynecology, psychiatry, general dentistry, pediatric dentistry, and geriatrics) in community-based ambulatory patient care settings.

Children's hospitals and teaching health centers funded by HRSA's CHGME and THCGME programs, respectively, are required to report the number of FTE residents trained during the federal fiscal year. HRSA contracts fiscal intermediaries to assess FTE resident counts reflected in participating children's hospitals and teaching health centers' applications to determine any changes to the resident FTE counts initially reported. Fiscal intermediaries audit the data reported by the children's hospitals and the teaching health centers and report the verified FTE resident counts to HRSA. Evaluating the data from children's hospital and teaching health center ensures compliance with Medicare regulations and HRSA program requirements when determining the number of FTE residents eligible for funding.

HRSA plans to submit an ICR because the current OMB clearance for the CHGME Payment Program application and the FTE resident assessment forms and exhibits used by both the CHGME Payment Program and the THCGME Program expired on January 31, 2025. All CHGME Payment Program application and the FTE resident assessment forms and exhibits used by both the CHGME Payment Program and THCGME Program are the same as currently approved.

Need and Proposed Use of the Information: Information collected will be used during the CHGME Payment Program initial application process and the reconciliation process for both the CHGME Payment Program and the THCGME Program to calculate the amount of graduate medical education payments that should be distributed to participating children's hospitals and teaching health centers. The CHGME Payment Program application forms and the FTE resident assessment forms for both the CHGME Payment Program and THCGME Program will also be used to confirm the eligibility of the applicant children's hospitals, determine the number of FTE residents trained by participants in the CHGME Payment Program and THCGME Program, and determine their compliance with the programs' requirements.

Likely Respondents: CHGME Payment Program applicants, CHGME Payment Program participants, and fiscal intermediaries auditing data submitted by the participating children's hospitals and teaching health centers.

Burden Statement: Burden in this context means the time expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose, or provide the information requested. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install, and utilize technology and systems to collect, validate, and verify information; process and maintain information, and disclose and provide information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information; to search data sources; to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information. The total annual burden hours estimated for this ICR are summarized in the table below.

CHGME participating children's hospitals report their FTE residents using forms and exhibits approved by OMB (#0915-0247). THCGME participating teaching health centers report their FTE residents using forms, tools, and exhibits approved by OMB (#0915-0342 and #0915-0367). The FTE resident assessment forms and exhibits currently approved for use by the CHGME Payment Program under OMB clearance #0915-0247 will be reviewed or completed by the fiscal intermediaries during the audit of the FTE residents reported by the teaching health centers participating in the THCGME Program. The FTE resident assessment forms and exhibits are submitted to HRSA for approval. The fiscal intermediaries currently reviewing or completing the forms and exhibits during the audit of children's hospitals will use the same forms and exhibits during the audit of teaching health centers.

HRSA specifically requests comments on (1) the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.

Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that Intertek USA, Inc., Carr. #28, KM 20, Industrial Park Luchetti, Bayamón, PR 00960, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13.

Intertek USA, Inc., (Bayamón, PR) is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):

Intertek USA, Inc., (Bayamón, PR) is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):

Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to CBPGaugersLabs@cbp.dhs.gov. Please reference the website listed below for a complete listing of CBP approved gaugers and accredited laboratories. https://www.cbp.gov/about/labs-scientific/commercial-gaugers-and-laboratories.

Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that AmSpec LLC, 1350 Slater Road, Suite 9, Ferndale, WA 98248, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13.

AmSpec LLC (Ferndale, WA) is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):

AmSpec LLC (Ferndale, WA) is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):

Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to CBPGaugersLabs@cbp.dhs.gov. Please reference the website listed below for a complete listing of CBP approved gaugers and accredited laboratories. https://www.cbp.gov/about/labs-scientific/commercial-gaugers-and-laboratories.

Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that AmSpec LLC, 4075 Sprig Drive, Suite A, Concord, CA 94520, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13.

AmSpec LLC (Concord, CA) is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):

AmSpec LLC (Concord, CA) is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):

Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to CBPGaugersLabs@cbp.dhs.gov. Please reference the website listed below for a complete listing of CBP approved gaugers and accredited laboratories. https://www.cbp.gov/about/labs-scientific/commercial-gaugers-and-laboratories.

Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12, that Intertek USA, Inc., Carr. 901, Km 2.7, Bo. Camino Nuevo, Yabucoa, PR 00767, has been accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12.

Intertek USA, Inc. (Yabucoa, PR) is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):

Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test this entity is accredited to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to CBPGaugersLabs@cbp.dhs.gov. Please reference the website listed below for a complete listing of CBP approved gaugers and accredited laboratories. https://www.cbp.gov/about/labs-scientific/commercial-gaugers-and-laboratories.

Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that Intertek USA, Inc., 1071 Coach Williams Dr., Sulphur, LA 70663, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13.

Intertek USA, Inc. (Sulphur, LA) is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):

Intertek USA, Inc. (Sulphur, LA) is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):

Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to CBPGaugersLabs@cbp.dhs.gov. Please reference the website listed below for a complete listing of CBP approved gaugers and accredited laboratories. https://www.cbp.gov/about/labs-scientific/commercial-gaugers-and-laboratories.

The Department of Homeland Security (DHS) collects information, when necessary, when inviting firms to submit bids, proposals, and offers for public contracts for supplies and service. Using solicitation methods such as Requests for Proposals (RFP), Requests for Information (RFI), and Broad Agency Announcements (BAA), the Government requests information from prospective offerors such as pricing information, delivery schedule compliance, and evidence that the offeror has the resources (both human and financial) to accomplish requirements. The information collection is necessary for compliance with the Homeland Security Acquisition Regulation (HSAR), 48 CFR Chapter 30, and the Small Business Innovative Research (SBIR) and Small Business Technology Transfer (STTR) programs, 15 U.S.C. 628.

The prior information collection request for OMB No. 1600-0005 was approved through November 30, 2021, and includes the following:

• 3052.209-70 Prohibition on Contracts with Corporate Expatriates (Required in all solicitations and contracts) The offeror must disclose whether it is a foreign incorporated entity that should be treated as an inverted domestic corporation.

• 3052.209-71 Reserve Officer Training Corps and Military Recruiting on Campus (Required in all solicitations and contracts with institutions of higher education) Requires that the Contractor represent that it does not now have, and agrees that during performance of the contract that it will not adopt, any policy or practice described in paragraph (b) of the clause.

• 3052.209-72 Organizational Conflict of Interest, paragraphs (c), (d) and (e), (Required in all solicitations and contracts where a potential organizational conflict of interest exists and mitigation may be possible) The offeror must disclose whether it is aware of any facts which create any actual or potential organizational conflicts of interest; and, provide information as required by the Government and a mitigation plan relating to the conflict, if applicable.

• 3052.209-74 Limitations on Contractors Acting as Lead System Integrators (Required in solicitations for the acquisition of a major system when the acquisition strategy envisions the use of a lead system integrator) The offeror must disclose whether it proposes to perform this contract as a lead system integrator with system responsibility, and whether it has a direct financial interest in the system that is the subject of the solicitation; and, provide evidence, as needed.

• 3052.209-76 Prohibition on Federal Protective Service (FPS) Guard Services Contracts with Business Concerns Owned, Controlled, or Operated by an Individual Convicted of a Felony, paragraphs (a) through (g), (Required in in all solicitations and contracts for FPS guard services) The offeror must disclose whether it is owned, operated or controlled by an individual convicted of any felony. A business concern owned, operated or controlled by an individual convicted of any felony may submit an award request to the Government. The request must include information that is considered personally identifiable information, and any additional information the Government deems necessary.

• 3052.215-70 Key Personnel and Facilities (Required in solicitations and contracts when the selection for award is substantially based on the offeror's possession of special capabilities regarding personnel or facilities) Before removing or replacing any of the specified individuals or facilities, the offeror must notify the Government, in writing, before the change becomes effective.

• 3052.219-72 Evaluation of Prime Contractor Participation in the DHS Mentor-Protégé Program (Required in all solicitations containing (HSAR) 48 CFR 3052.219-71, DHS Mentor-Protégé Program and (FAR) 48 CFR 52.219-9 Small Business Subcontracting Plan) The offeror must provide a signed letter of mentor-protégé agreement, if it wishes to receive credit under the source selection factor.

• 3052.247-70 F.o.b. Origin Information (Required in solicitations as appropriate) The offeror must provide information related to the offeror's shipping point.

The DHS Science and Technology (S&T) Directorate issues BAAs soliciting when white papers and proposals from the public. DHS S&T evaluates white papers and proposals received in response to a DHS S&T BAA using the evaluation criteria specified in the BAA through a peer or scientific review process in accordance with FAR 35.016(d). Unclassified white papers and proposals are typically collected via the DHS S&T BAA secure website, while classified white papers and proposals must be submitted via proper classified courier or proper classified mailing procedures as described in the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NSPOM).

Federal agencies with an annual extramural research and development (R&D) budget exceeding $100 million are required to participate in the SBIR Program. Similarly, Federal agencies with an extramural R&D budget exceeding $1 billion are required to participate in the STTR Program. Federal agencies who participate in the SBIR and STTR programs must collect information from the public to meet:

(1) Applicable reporting requirements under 15 U.S.C. 638 (b)(7), (g)(8), (i), (j)(1)(E), (j)(3)(C), (l), (o)(10), and (v);

(2) The requirement to maintain both a publicly accessible database of SBIR/STTR award information and a government database of SBIR/STTR award information for SBIR and STTR program evaluation under 15 U.S.C. 638 g(10, (k), (o) (9), and (o)(15); and

(3) Requirements for public outreach under 15 U.S.C. 638 (j)(2)(F), (o)(14), and (s).

DHS is seeking to renew this collection, and revise it to add, for purposes of entering into other transaction agreements pursuant to 6 U.S.C. 391, 6 U.S.C. 596(1), and 49 U.S.C. 106(l)(6), Form 700-24, Other Transaction Agreement Solicitation, and Form 700-25, Other Transaction Agreement Solicitation Amendment. On the forms, respondents submit an Employer Identification Number, as well as the business' name, address and title. Respondents must also identify the authorized business representative's personal name and must include a signature.

The information being collected is used by the Government's contracting officers and other acquisition personnel, including technical and legal staff to determine the adequacy of technical and management approach, experience, responsibility, responsiveness, and expertise of the firms submitting offers; the identification of members of the public ( i.e., small businesses) who qualify for and are interested in participating in the DHS SBIR Program; and, provide the DHS SBIR Program Office necessary and sufficient information to determine whether proposals submitted by the public to the DHS SBIR Program meet the criteria for consideration under the program.

Failure to collect this information would adversely affect the quality of products and services DHS receives from contractors. Potentially, contracts would be awarded to firms without sufficient experience and expertise, thereby placing the Department's operations in jeopardy. Defective and inadequate contractor deliverables would adversely affect DHS's fulfillment of the mission requirements in all areas. Additionally, the Department would be unsuccessful in identifying small businesses with research and development (R&D) capabilities, which would adversely affect the mission requirements in this area.

Many sources of the requested information use automated word processing systems, databases, and web portals to facilitate preparation of material to be submitted and to post and collect information. It is commonplace within many of DHS's Components for submissions to be electronic as a result of implementation of e-Government initiatives.

Information technology ( i.e., electronic web portal) is used in the collection of information to reduce the data gathering and records management burden. DHS uses a secure website the public can use to propose SBIR research topics and submit proposals in response to SBIR solicitations. In addition, DHS uses a web portal to review RFIs and register to submit a white paper or proposal in response to a specific BAA. The data collection forms standardize the collection of information that is necessary and sufficient for the DHS SBIR Program Office to meet its requirements under 15 U.S.C. 638.

This information collection required by the HSAR and the SBIR and STTR programs may or may not involve small business contractors, depending on the particular transaction. The burden applied to small businesses has been reduced to the least burdensome commensurate with the DHS need for the information. In certain cases, information collection is done via a secure website which is intended to minimize burden for businesses (including small businesses) and other for-profit entities, and not-for-profit institutions. Small businesses and other small entities will be able to enter identifying information and subsequently update rather than resubmit the information via the internet.

Less frequent incidence of collecting such information as offerors' technical approach, management approach, experience statements, and resumes indicating level of expertise would negatively affect the quality of products and services DHS received from contractors. Potentially, contracts would be awarded to firms without sufficient experience and expertise, thereby placing the Department's operations in jeopardy.

Additionally, DHS collects information that is both necessary and sufficient to comply with 15 U.S.C. 638 and receive white papers and proposals from the public in response to BAAs. Failure to allow the public to submit information would diminish the ability of the DHS SBIR Program Office to meet its obligation for outreach as required by 15 U.S.C. 638, evaluate white papers and proposals in accordance with the criteria in the BAA and provide the respondents with the results of the evaluation.

DHS/ALL/PIA-006 General Contact Lists dated June 15, 2007 covers the basic contact information that must be collected for DHS. Other information collected will typically pertain to the contract itself, and not individuals. All information for this information collection is submitted voluntarily. However, sensitive information ( e.g., felony conviction information) may also be collected through this information collection. Due to this sensitivity, and the sensitivities regarding the procurement process as a whole, a new PIA is required to document and identify any potential risks associated with collecting this information.

There is no assurance of confidentiality provided to the respondents.

The burden estimates are based upon definitive proposals reported by DHS and its Components to the Federal Procurement Data System (FPDS) for FY 2019, and, for the forms, data reported by contracting activities related to single source DHS other transaction awards and modifications issued in FY 2019. No program changes occurred and there have been no changes to the information being collected. However, the burden was adjusted to reflect an agency adjustment increase of 13,206 in the number of respondents within DHS for FY 2019, to include the number of respondents added as a result of the new forms, as well as an increase in the average hourly wage rate.

The Office of Management and Budget is particularly interested in comments which:

1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;

2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;

3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submissions of responses.

Agency: Department of Homeland Security (DHS).

Title: Solicitation of Proposal Information for Award of Public Contracts.

OMB Number: 1600-0005.

Frequency: On occasion.

Affected Public: Private Sector.

Number of Respondents: 130,418.

Estimated Time per Respondent: 1.8.

Total Burden Hours: 1,358,512.

The Department of Homeland Security (DHS) collects information, when necessary, in administering public contracts for supplies and services. The information is used to determine compliance with contract terms placed in the contract as authorized by the Federal Property and Administrative Services Act (41 U.S.C. 251 et seq. ), the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) (48 CFR chapter 1), and the Homeland Security Acquisition Regulation (HSAR) (48 CFR chapter 30). Respondents submit information based on the terms of the contract; the instructions in the contract deliverables mandatory reporting requirements; and correspondence from acquisition personnel requesting post-award contract information. The least active contracts and the simplest contracts will have little to no data to report. The most active and complex contracts, however, will contain more reporting requirements. DHS believes that some of this information is already readily available as part of a company's business processes and that the largest businesses use computers to compile the data. However, a significant amount of time is spent correlating information to specific contract actions and gathering information for more complex contract actions.

The prior information collection request for Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Control No. 1600-0003 was approved through May 31, 2025, by OMB, and it includes the following:

3052.204-70 Security requirements for unclassified information technology resources. (Required in all solicitations and contracts that require submission of an IT Security Plan.) This clause applies to all contractor systems connected to a DHS network and those contracts where the Contractor must have physical or electronic access to sensitive information contained in DHS unclassified systems. The contractor is asked to prepare, provide and maintain an IT Security Plan.

3052.204-71 Contractor employee access. (Required when contractor employees require recurring access to Government facilities or access to sensitive info.) Contractors may be subject to background investigations and will have to provide information as required by the DHS Security Office. The information requested is in addition to the information requested through Standard Form (SF) 86.

3052.205-70 Advertisements, Publicizing Awards, and Releases. (Required for all contracts exceeding Simplified Acquisition Threshold.) Contractors may have to provide copies of information related to advertisements and release statements to receive approval for publication.

3052.209-72 Organizational Conflict of Interest, paragraphs (f) and (g) (Included in solicitations and contracts where a potential organizational conflict of interest exists and mitigation may be possible.) Contractors will have to provide information related to actual or potential conflicts of interest and a mitigation plan.

3052.209-75 Prohibited Financial Interests for Lead System Integrators. (Required in solicitations and contracts for the acquisition of a major system when the acquisition strategy envisions the use of a lead system integrator or when the contractor will be the lead system integrator.) Contractors will have to provide information related to changes in financial interests.

3052.209-76 Prohibition on Federal Protective Service Guard Services Contracts with Business Concerns Owned, Controlled, or Operated by an Individual Convicted of a Felony, paragraph (h). (Section 2 of the Federal Protective Service Guard Contracting Reform Act of 2008, Pub. Law 110-356, generally prohibits DHS from entering into a contract for guard services under the Federal Protective Service (FPS) guard services program with any business concern owned, controlled, or operated by an individual convicted of a serious felony.) The notification required by paragraph (h) applies to any contractual instrument that may result in the issuance of task orders. Contractors will have to provide information on any felony conviction of personnel who own, control or operate a business during the performance a contract.

3052.215-70 Key personnel or facilities. (Required in solicitations and contracts when the selection for award is substantially based on the offeror's possession of special capabilities regarding personnel or facilities.) Contractors will have to provide notice of and documentation related to changes in key personnel for evaluation, including, resumes; description of the duties the replacement will assume; description of any change in duties and confirmation that such change will not negatively impact contract performance.

3052.216-71 Determination of Award Fee. (Required in solicitations and contracts that include an award fee.) Contractor may submit a performance self-evaluation for each evaluation period.

3052.217-91 Performance (USCG). (Required in sealed bid fixed-price solicitations and contracts for vessel repair, alteration, or conversion which are to be performed within the United States, its possessions, or Puerto Rico. Also required in negotiated solicitations and contracts to be performed outside the United States.) Contractor must request prior approval to conduct dock and sea trials.

3052.217-92 Inspection and Manner of Doing Work (USCG). (Required in sealed bid fixed-price solicitations and contracts for vessel repair, alteration, or conversion which are to be performed within the United States, its possessions, or Puerto Rico. Also required in negotiated solicitations and contracts to be performed outside the United States.) Contractor must maintain complete records of all inspection work and shall make them available to the Government during performance of the contract and for 90 days after the completion of all work required.

3052.217-95 Liability and Insurance (USCG). (Required in sealed bid fixed-price solicitations and contracts for vessel repair, alteration, or conversion which are to be performed within the United States, its possessions, or Puerto Rico. Also required in negotiated solicitations and contracts to be performed outside the United States.) Contractor shall provide evidence of the insurance and give the Contracting Officer written notice after the occurrence of a loss or damage for which the Government has assumed the risk. If any loss or damage will result in a claim against the Government, the contractor shall provide notice.

3052.219-70 Small Business subcontracting plan reporting. (Generally included in solicitations and contracts that offer subcontracting possibilities and are expected to exceed $700,000) Contractors must use Electronic Subcontracting Reporting System (eSRS) to submit subcontracting reporting data.

3052.219-71 DHS Mentor-Protégé Program. ( Included in solicitations where subcontracting plans are anticipated ) The amount of credit given to a contractor mentor firm for protégé developmental assistance costs must be calculated on a dollar-for-dollar basis and reported in the Summary Subcontract Report via the Electronic Subcontracting Reporting System (eSRS) at www.esrs.gov.

3052.222-70 Strikes or Picketing Affecting Timely Completion of the Contract Work. (Generally included in solicitations and contracts) Contractor must take all reasonable and appropriate action to end a strike or picketing. Delay caused by a strike or by picketing which constitutes an unfair labor practice is not excusable unless the Contractor takes all reasonable and appropriate action to end such a strike or picketing, such as the filing of a charge with the National Labor Relations Board, the use of other available Government procedures, and the use of private boards or organizations for the settlement of disputes. The contractor may be required to submit information to the contracting officer.

3052.222-71 Strikes or Picketing Affecting Access to a DHS Facility. (Generally included in solicitations and contracts) Contractor is responsible if strike or picketing is directed at the Contractor and impedes access by any person to a DHS facility. Contractor must take all reasonable and appropriate action to end a strike or picketing. The contractor may be required to submit information to the contracting officer.

3052.223-70 Removal or disposal of hazardous substances—applicable licenses and permits. (Required in solicitations and contracts involving the removal or disposal of hazardous waste material) Contractors will have to provide evidence of licenses and permits to perform hazardous substance removal.

3052.223-90 Accident and Fire Reporting (USCG). ( Included in solicitations and contracts involving the removal of hazardous waste material ) Contractor must report incidents involving fire or accidents at a worksite. Contractors may provide this information using a state, private insurance carrier, or Contractor accident report form.

3052.228-91 Loss of or Damage to Leased Aircraft (USCG). ( Included in any contract for the lease of an aircraft ) In the event of loss of or damage to an aircraft, the Government shall be subrogated to all rights of recovery by the Contractor against third parties for such loss or damage and the Contractor must promptly assign such rights in writing to the Government.

3052.228-93 Risk and Indemnities (USCG). ( Included in any contract for the lease of an aircraft ) Requires the contractor to provide the Government with evidence of insurance.

3052.235.70 Dissemination of Information-Educational Institutions. ( Included in contracts with educational institutions for research that are not sensitive or classified ) Contractors must provide advanced electronic copies of articles to the Government covering the results of research it plans to publish.

Form 700-26, Other Transaction Agreement (Required for the purposes of entering into other transaction agreements pursuant to 6 U.S.C. 391, 6 U.S.C. 596(1), and 49 U.S.C. 106(l)(6)) The offeror submit an Employer Identification Number, as well as the business' name, address and title. Offerors must also identify the authorized business representative's personal name and must include a signature.

Form 700-23, Other Transaction Agreement Modification (Required for the purposes of modifying other transaction agreements entered into pursuant to 6 U.S.C. 391, 6 U.S.C. 596(1), and 49 U.S.C. 106(l)(6)) The respondent must submit an Employer Identification Number, as well as the business' name, address and title. Respondents must also identify the authorized business representative's personal name and must include a signature.

DHS is seeking to renew this collection, and revise it to:

(1) Remove HSAR Clause 3052.204-70, Security requirements for unclassified information technology resources, from this OMB Control Number. The clause was made obsolete by final rule, Homeland Security Acquisition Regulation; Safeguarding of Controlled Unclassified Information, issued on June 21, 2023.

(2) Add the provisions and contract clauses under previously approved OMB Control Number 1601-0023, Safeguarding of Controlled Unclassified Information and Notification and Credit Monitoring Requirements for Personally Identifiable Information Incidents, to this OMB Control Number, in order to consolidate the collections. The clauses that will be transferred to this OMB Control Number are as follows:

3052.204-72 Safeguarding of Controlled Unclassified Information. (Included in solicitations and contracts where contractor and/or subcontractor employees will have access to controlled unclassified information (CUI) or CUI will be collected or maintained on behalf of the agency. The basic clause with its alternate is included in solicitations and contracts when Federal information systems, which include contractor information systems operated on behalf of the agency, are used to collect, process, store, or transmit CUI.) Under the basic clause, contractors and subcontractors are required to:

Provide adequate security to protect CUI from unauthorized access and disclosure;

Report all known or suspected incidents to the Component Security Operations Center (SOC), or the DHS Enterprise SOC if the Component SOC is not available, in accordance with 4300A Sensitive Systems Handbook Attachment F Incident Response ( i.e., incidents involving personally identifiable information (PII) or sensitive PII (SPII) must be reported within 1 hour of discovery; all other incidents shall be reported within 8 hours of discovery).

Provide full access and cooperation for all activities determined by the Government to be required to ensure an effective incident response, including providing all requested images, log files, and event information to facilitate rapid resolution of incidents;

Certify and confirm the sanitization of Government and Government-Activity related files and information, and submit the certification to the Contracting Officer's Representative (COR) and Contracting Officer in accordance with the template provided in NIST Special Publication 800-88, Guidelines for Media Sanitization, Appendix G; and

Insert this clause in all subcontracts and require subcontractors to include this clause in all lower tier subcontracts when subcontractor employees will have access to CUI; CUI will be collected or maintained on behalf of the agency by a subcontractor; or a subcontractor information system(s) will be used to process, store, or transmit CUI.

Under the alternate, contractors and subcontractors are prohibited from collecting, processing, storing, or transmitting CUI within a Federal information system until an Authority to Operate (ATO) has been accepted and signed by the Component or Headquarters CIO, or designee. Additionally, contractors and subcontractors are required to:

Complete and submit security authorization (SA) documentation in accordance with DHS Policy Directive 4300A Information Technology System Security Program, Sensitive Systems (Version 13.3, February 13, 2023), or any successor publication; and the Security Authorization Process Guide, including templates;

Have an independent third party validate the security and privacy controls in place for the information system;

Renew the ATO every three (3) years unless otherwise specified in the ATO letter;

Support random, periodic reviews by the Department to ensure that the security requirements contained in the contract are being implemented and enforced; and

Comply with Federal reporting and information system continuous monitoring requirements as defined in the Fiscal Year (FY) 2021 DHS Information Security Performance Plan, or successor publication.

3052.204-73 Notification and Credit Monitoring Requirements for Personally Identifiable Information Incidents. (Included in solicitations and contracts where contractor and/or subcontractor employees have access to personally identifiable information (PII)) Contractors must have in place procedures and the capability to notify any individual whose PII and/or sensitive PII (SPII) was under the control of the contractor or resided in the contractor information system at the time of the incident not later than 5 business days after being directed to notify individuals, unless otherwise approved by the Contracting Officer. Additionally, contractors are required to provide credit monitoring services to individuals whose PII or SPII was under the control of the contractor or resided in the information system at the time of the incident for a period beginning the date of the incident and extending not less than 18 months from the date the individual is notified.

The information requested is used by the Government's contracting officers and other acquisition personnel, including technical and legal staff, for various reasons such as (1) determining the suitability of contractor personnel accessing DHS facilities; (2) to ensure no organizational conflicts of interest exist during the performance of contracts; (3) to ensure the contractor maintains applicable licenses and permits for the removal and disposal of hazardous materials; (4) to implement adequate security measures to safeguard CUI and to facilitate improved incident reporting to DHS; (5) to provide DHS with an understanding of the contractor's plan to recruit, train, and develop a diverse, high-performing workforce from underserved communities; and (6) to otherwise ensure firms are performing in the Government's best interest. Failure to collect this information would adversely affect the quality of products and services DHS receives from contractors.

Many sources of the requested information use automated word processing systems, databases, spreadsheets, project management and other commercial software to facilitate preparation of material to be submitted. With Government-wide implementation of e-Government initiatives, it is commonplace within many of DHS's Components for submissions to be electronic.

As the information collection is governed by FAR, HSAR and certain procurement statutes, usability testing is limited to ensuring the use of plain language, no duplicate/superfluous collection and electronic submission. DHS found the following:

Plain language is used in the applicable clauses and the forms. DHS encourages DHS Components to require only the minimum post-award contract information essential to proper protection of the Government's interests and compliance with regulation, e.g., contractor performance evaluation. The information collected from the public under this request complements but does not duplicate vendor information available to the Government-wide acquisition community through Integrated Award Environment (IAE) systems, including the System for Award Management (SAM). The SAM is the official U.S. Government system that consolidated the capabilities of the Central Contractor Registration (CCR), the Online Representations and Certifications Application (ORCA), the Excluded Parties List System (EPLS) and the Past Performance Information Retrieval System (PPIRS). To ensure the information collected under this collection isn't duplicative, DHS Office of the Chief Procurement Officer: (1) monitors the acquisition processes and procedures of the various DHS Components; (2) reviews proposed and published changes to the FAR; and (3) provides one location for the final review and approval of all proposed acquisition regulations for DHS. Respondents may submit requested information electronically, through email or facsimile to the specified Government point of contact. Contractors will utilize their own computers to provide the required information to the Government point of contact.

Information collection may or may not involve small business contractors, depending on the particular transaction. The burden applied to small businesses is the minimum consistent with the objective of ensuring contract compliance and protecting the interest of the Government.

Less frequent incidence of collecting such information as resumes indicating the level of contractor expertise, permits and licenses, and inspection reports will negatively affect the quality of products and services DHS receives from contractors. Potentially, contractors could perform on contracts without sufficient experience and expertise and could perform contracts with outdated licenses and negative inspection reports, placing the Department's operations in jeopardy. Additionally, less frequent collection of information related to organizational conflicts of interest inhibit DHS from determining the existence of true conflicts of interest during the performance of contracts.

Failure to collect this information would adversely affect the quality of products and services DHS receives from contractors. For example, potentially, contractors who are lead system integrators could acquire direct financial interests in major systems the contractors are contracted to procure, which would compromise the integrity of acquisitions for the Department. In addition, contractors who own, control or operate a business providing protective guard services could possess felony convictions during the performance of contracts, putting the Department at risk. Furthermore, contractors could change key personnel during the performance of contracts and use less experienced or less qualified personnel to reduce costs, which would adversely affect DHS's fulfillment of its mission requirements. Additionally, having an HSAR clause to address the safeguarding of CUI will greatly reduce the proliferation of Department, Component, or buying office-level requirements that offerors now respond to in a variety of different and non-standard ways. Failure to collect this information may result in the compromise of CUI hampering the Department's ability to carry out its mission.

Executive Order 13985, titled “Advancing Racial Equity and Support for Underserved Communities Through the Federal Government” requires federal agencies to assess equity throughout their organizations, including equity through procurements. As part of its assessment and action planning, DHS identified that equity in procurements could be enhanced by ensuring that DHS's contractors have in place DEIA Plans which demonstrates the contractor's commitment to fairness regarding DEIA. Failure to collect a DEIA Plan would prohibit DHS from understanding the contractor's plan to recruit, train, and develop a diverse, high-performing workforce from underserved communities.

Disclosure/non-disclosure of information is handled in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act, other disclosure statutes, and Federal and agency acquisition regulations.

The burden estimates provided in response to Item 12 above are based upon definitive contract award data reported by DHS and its Components, as well as DHS FPDS data for FY 2022. No program changes occurred; however, the burden was adjusted to reflect an increase in the number of respondents within DHS for FY 2022 in the amount of 11,075, as well as an increase in the average hourly wage rate. The burden hours also decreased by a total of 14 hours with the removal of HSAR Clause 3052.204-70, “Security requirements for unclassified information technology resources”, that was made obsolete by the DHS rulemaking, “Homeland Security Acquisition Regulation; Safeguarding of Controlled Unclassified Information, issued on June 21, 2023”.

Finally, the burden has increased as a result of consolidating OMB Control Number 1601-0023 under this OMB Control Number, 1600-0003. The average burden per response for the clauses increased by 7.8 hours, from 6.2 hours to 14 hours; thereby increasing the total annual burden hours by 970,549 hours.

The Office of Management and Budget is particularly interested in comments which:

1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;

2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;

3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submissions of responses.

Agency: Department of Homeland Security (DHS).

Title: Post-Contract Award Information.

OMB Number: 1600-0003.

Frequency: Annually.

Affected Public: Contractor.

Number of Respondents: 26,726.

Estimated Time per Respondent: 77,196.

Total Burden Hours: 1,061361.

As required by 43 CFR 2650.7(d), notice is hereby given that the BLM will issue an appealable decision to NANA Regional Corporation, Inc. The decision approves conveyance of the surface and subsurface estates in certain lands pursuant to ANCSA (43 U.S.C. 1601, et seq. ). The lands are located in the vicinity of Kobuk and Kiana, Alaska, and are described as:

The decision addresses public access easements, if any, to be reserved to the United States pursuant to Sec. 17(b) of ANCSA (43 U.S.C. 1616(b)), in the lands described above.

The BLM will also publish notice of the decision once a week for four consecutive weeks in the “Fairbanks Daily-News Miner” newspaper.

Any party claiming a property interest in the lands affected by the decision may appeal the decision in accordance with the requirements of 43 CFR part 4 within the following time limits:

1. Unknown parties, parties unable to be located after reasonable efforts have been expended to locate, parties who fail or refuse to sign their return receipt, and parties who receive a copy of the decision by regular mail, which is not certified, return receipt requested, shall have until June 27, 2025 to file an appeal.

2. Parties receiving service of the decision by certified mail shall have 30 days from the date of receipt to file an appeal.

Parties who do not file an appeal in accordance with the requirements of 43 CFR part 4 shall be deemed to have waived their rights. Notices of appeal transmitted by facsimile will not be accepted as timely filed.

This notice announces the start of a 30-day BLM protest period of the proposed RMP amendment and the start of a 45-day Forest Service, pre-decisional administrative review process, also known as an objection process, upon a legal notice being published in the Reno-Gazette Journal, the newspaper of record for the Humboldt-Toiyabe National Forest (36 CFR part 218, subparts A and B).

This document provides notice that the BLM Nevada State Director has prepared a proposed RMP amendment/final EIS for the Greenlink North Transmission Line Project. The RMP amendment would amend the existing 2001 Consolidated Resource Management Plan in Carson City District, 1986 Shoshone-Eureka Resource Management Plan/Record of Decision in Battle Mountain District, and 2008 Record of Decision/Resource Management Plan in Ely District. The proposed RMP amendment is being considered to allow the BLM to evaluate the establishment of a 198-mile-long utility corridor that is up to 3,500-feet wide within greater sage-grouse habitat management areas and in proximity to lek buffers on BLM-administered lands. The originally proposed utility corridor width (3 miles) and length (235 miles) was reduced after scoping to be consistent with other national utility corridor widths, and to clarify the corridor would apply to BLM-administered lands only.

The planning area is in White Pine, Eureka, Lander, Churchill, and Lyon counties, Nevada and encompasses approximately 83,400 acres of BLM-administered lands.

A NOA for the draft EIS/proposed RMP amendment was published in the Federal Register on September 10, 2024 (89 FR 73429), providing the public with a 90-day comment period. The public comment period closed on December 11, 2024. The BLM received 28 public comment emails and letters containing a total of 355 substantive comments. The public comments focused on: biological resources; alternatives development; visual resources; cultural resources; impacts to general and special-status wildlife species and their habitats; social and economic conditions; vegetation/riparian/noxious and invasive weeds/special status plant species; water resources; recreation; socioeconomic concerns; and Native American cultural/sacred sites.

The BLM's purpose and need for this Federal action is to respond to the right-of-way (ROW) application submitted by NV Energy under Title V of FLPMA (43 U.S.C. 1761) on July 20, 2020 to construct, operate, maintain, and decommission a proposed system of new 525-kV, 345-kV, 230-kV, and 120-kV electric transmission facilities on BLM-administered lands in White Pine, Eureka, Lander, Churchill, and Lyon counties, in compliance with FLPMA, BLM ROW regulations, NEPA, the BLM NEPA Handbook (BLM 2008), Department of the Interior NEPA regulations, and other applicable Federal laws and policies. In accordance with FLPMA, the BLM is authorized to grant ROWs on public lands for systems of generation, transmission, and distribution of electrical energy (43 U.S.C. 1761(a)(4)). If approved, the ROW for the proposed project would implement support the direction in Executive Orders 14154, Unleashing American Energy, and 14156, Declaring a National Energy Emergency, and Secretary's Orders 3417, Addressing the National Energy Emergency, and 3418, Unleashing American Energy.

The Greenlink North Transmission Project as proposed would not conform to the RMPs in the BLM Carson City, Battle Mountain, and Ely District Offices as required by 43 CFR 1610.5-3(a). The BLM would need to amend these RMPs to bring the Greenlink North Transmission Project into conformance. In particular, the Proponent's proposed transmission line does not conform to the management objectives of the planning area for transmission lines greater than 100-kV. The purpose of the RMP amendment is to ensure that development of the Greenlink North Transmission Project conforms to the RMPs' provisions, as provided for in 43 CFR 1610.5-3(c), by providing for the designation of a utility corridor and modifying restrictions in greater sage-grouse habitat management areas and in proximity to leks.

The Forest Service, Humboldt-Toiyabe National Forest also received an application from NV Energy for an approximately 10-mile segment of the project. The Forest Service's purpose and need is to respond to NV Energy's application for a Special Use Permit to construct, operate, maintain, and decommission the proposed 500-kV transmission line on National Forest System land in Lander County in compliance with FLPMA, the National Forest Management Act (16 U.S.C. 1601-1614), and the Toiyabe National Forest Land and Resource Management Plan (Forest Service 1986, as amended), which provides standards and guidelines for managing the National Forest.

The BLM has analyzed three action alternatives in detail, plus the no action alternative. The State Director and Forest Supervisor have identified NV Energy's proposed action with three modified segments crossing BLM and National Forest System land as the preferred alternative. The first modified segment realigns the proposed action south of the public purpose conveyance parcels that will be transferred to Churchill County resulting from the National Defense Authorization Act of 2023. This alternative segment would be approximately 8 miles long and slightly reduce the disturbance footprint of the 525-kV transmission line on BLM-administered lands. The second modified segment would realign the proposed action further away from the recently established Desatoya Wilderness Area. The third modified segment is the Forest Service preferred northern alternative route from the Lander Substation that would cross approximately 10 miles of the Humboldt-Toiyabe National Forest and approximately 9 miles of adjacent BLM-administered lands to the east. The route would parallel an existing 230-kV transmission line within the forest's existing utility corridor until reconnecting with the proposed action route. The reconnection with the proposed action route 9 miles east of the Humboldt-Toiyabe National Forest provides the most technical feasibility to reduce the cost, line angles, and disturbances from the proposed 525-kV transmission line. The BLM further considered 18 additional transmission alternatives but dismissed these alternatives from detailed analysis as explained in the proposed RMP amendment/final EIS.

The preferred alternative was found to best meet the BLM's and Forest Service's purpose and need while addressing impacts to greater sage-grouse habitats primarily through co-location, which limits new disturbance to areas already impacted by two existing transmission lines, a 230-kV and 345-kV line. The Greenlink North Transmission Project would be co-located for approximately 198 miles of the 235-mile-long transmission line.

The preferred alternative for the portions of the project within and adjacent to greater sage-grouse habitats includes the requirement for NV Energy to install anti-perching/nesting deterrents on transmission poles to minimize potential predation by ravens.

The U.S. Forest Service's decision will be subject to the pre-decisional administrative review process at 36 CFR part 218, subparts A and B, also known as the objection process. The objection process provides an opportunity for members of the public who have participated in the planning process for the action to have any unresolved concerns reviewed by the U.S. Forest Service prior to a final decision by the Responsible Official. The legal notice announcing the opportunity to object will be published in the Reno-Gazette Journal, the newspaper of record for the Humboldt-Toiyabe National Forest. The opportunity to object ends 45-days following the publication of the legal notice in the newspaper of record. It is the objector's responsibility to ensure timely filing of a written objection. Only individuals and organizations who have submitted timely and specific written comments about this proposal during designated opportunities for public comment are eligible to file an objection in accordance with 36 CFR 218.5. Issues raised in objections must be based on previously submitted timely, specific written comments regarding the proposed project, unless the issue is based on new information arising after designated comment opportunities. The objection must contain the minimum content requirement specified in 36 CFR 218.8(d).

The BLM planning regulations state that any person who participated in the preparation of the RMP amendment and has an interest which will or might be adversely affected by approval of the proposed RMP amendment may protest its approval to the BLM Director. Protest on the proposed RMP amendment constitutes the final opportunity for administrative review of the proposed land use planning decisions prior to the BLM adopting an approved RMP amendment. Instructions for filing a protest regarding the proposed RMP amendment with the BLM Director may be found online at https://www.blm.gov/programs/planning-and-nepa/public-participation/filing-a-plan-protest and at 43 CFR 1610.5-2. All protests must be in writing and mailed to the appropriate address, as set forth in the ADDRESSES section earlier or submitted electronically through the BLM ePlanning project website as described previously. Protests submitted electronically by any means other than the ePlanning project website will be invalid unless a protest is also submitted as a hard copy. The BLM Director will render a written decision on each protest. The Director's decision is the final decision of the Department of the Interior. Responses to valid protest issues will be compiled and documented in a protest resolution report made available following the protest resolution online at: https://www.blm.gov/programs/planning-and-nepa/public-participation/protest-resolution-reports. Upon resolution of protests, the BLM will issue a record of decision and approved RMP amendment.

Before including your phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your protest, you should be aware that your entire protest—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your protest to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.

In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA; 44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. ) and 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1), we provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.

A Federal Register notice with a 60-day public comment period soliciting comments on this collection of information was published on October 30, 2024 (89 FR 86368). No comments were received.

As part of our continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burdens, we are again soliciting comments from the public and other Federal agencies on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following:

(1) Whether or not the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;

(2) The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;

(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

(4) How might the agency minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submission of response.

Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.

Abstract: Section 523 of the Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (SMCRA) requires that a Federal lands program be established to govern surface coal mining and reclamation operations on Federal lands. The information is needed to assist the regulatory authority to determine the eligibility of an applicant to conduct coal mining on Federal lands.

Title of Collection: General Requirements for Surface Coal Mining and Reclamation Operations on Federal Lands.

OMB Control Number: 1029-0027.

Form Number: None.

Type of Review: Extension of a currently approved collection.

Respondents/Affected Public: Businesses and State governments.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Respondents: 10.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses: 10.

Estimated Completion Time per Response: Varies from 1 hour to 275 hours, depending on activity.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours: 2,143.

Respondent's Obligation: Required to obtain or retain a benefit.

Frequency of Collection: One time.

Total Estimated Annual Nonhour Burden Cost: $0.

An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.

The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. ).

The Religious Liberty Commission is a federal advisory committee established by the President through Executive Order 14291. The Commission is composed of a chair, a vice chair, and 11 members appointed by the President, including representatives from the private sector, employers, educational institutions, religious communities and States. The Commission will advise the Domestic Policy Council and the White House Faith Office on religious liberty policies of the United States, and will produce a comprehensive report to the President on the foundations of religious liberty in America, the impact of religious liberty on American society, current threats to domestic religious liberty, strategies to preserve and enhance religious liberty protections for future generations, and programs to increase awareness of and celebrate America's peaceful religious pluralism.

Agenda: During its first meeting on June 16, 2025, the Commission will discuss the history of religious liberty in America, from the founding to the present day. The meeting will provide historical context of the founders' intent to protect religious liberty in the First Amendment, and how the Supreme Court has interpreted those rights, particularly since the mid-twentieth century. The Commission will also discuss the meaning of separation of church and state.

Public Comment: Written public comments will be provided to Commission members in advance of the meeting if received by 5 p.m. on June 15, 2025. Written comments may be sent by email to RLC@usdoj.gov or by mail to U.S. Department of Justice, Office of the Associate Attorney General 950 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Room 5706, Washington, DC 20530.

Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. 1001 et seq. ).

Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:

Abstract: The United States Marshals Service is responsible for ensuring the security of federal courthouses, courtrooms, and federal jurist. This information assists Marshals Service personnel in the planning of, and response to, potential security needs of the court and jurors during the course of proceedings.

1. Type of Information Collection: Extension without change of a currently approved collection.

2. The Title of the Form/Collection: Sequestered Juror Information Form.

3. The agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department sponsoring the collection: Form USM-523A.

4. Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as the obligation to respond: Individuals or Households.

5. An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond: An estimated 14 respondents will utilize the form, and it will take each respondent approximately 4 minutes to complete the form.

6. An estimate of the total annual burden (in hours) associated with the collection: The estimated annual public burden associated with this collection is 1 hour, which is equal to (14 (total # of annual responses) * 4 minutes = 56 minutes or 1 hour).

7. An estimate of the total annual cost burden associated with the collection, if applicable:

If additional information is required contact: Darwin Arceo, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 4W-218, Washington, DC.

Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:

Abstract: This form is required for acquiring and utilizing contract flight personnel (pilots, cabin crew, mechanics, etc.) for leased/charter aircraft needed to complete short-notice JPATS (Justice Prisoner & Alien Transportation) air mission schedules. It requests information necessary to complete expedited background checks on flight personnel who will be transporting USMS and Bureau of Prisons prisoners.

1. Type of Information Collection: Extension without change of a currently approved collection.

2. The Title of the Form/Collection: Leased/Charter/Contract Personnel Expedited Clearance Request.

3. The agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department sponsoring the collection: Form USM-271.

4. Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as the obligation to respond: Individuals or Households.

5. An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond: An estimated 180 respondents will utilize the form, and it will take each respondent approximately 5 minutes to complete the form.

6. An estimate of the total annual burden (in hours) associated with the collection: The estimated public burden associated with this collection is 15 hours. It is estimated that applicants will take 5 minutes to complete a Form USM-271. In order to calculate the public burden for Form USM-271, USMS multiplied 5 by 180 and divided by 60 (the number of minutes in an hour), which equals 15 total annual burden hours.

7. An estimate of the total annual cost burden associated with the collection, if applicable:

If additional information is required contact: Darwin Arceo, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 4W-218, Washington, DC.

Section 101(k)(1) of ERISA requires multiemployer plan administrators to furnish certain documents to any plan participant, beneficiary, employee representative, or any employer that has an obligation to contribute to the plan upon written request. The Department issued a final rule that implements the disclosure requirements of ERISA section 101(k) on March 2, 2010 (75 FR 9334). The documents that may be requested are: (1) A copy of any periodic actuarial report (including sensitivity testing) received by the plan for any plan year which has been in the plan's possession for at least 30 days; (2) a copy of any quarterly, semi-annual, or annual financial report prepared for the plan by any plan investment manager or advisor or other fiduciary that has been in the plan's possession for at least 30 days; and (3) a copy of any application filed with the Secretary of the Treasury requesting an extension under section 304 of ERISA (or section 431(d) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986) and the determination of such Secretary pursuant to such application.

The information collection provisions of this final regulation are found in 29 CFR 2520.101-6(a), which requires multiemployer defined benefit and defined contribution pension plan administrators to furnish copies of certain actuarial and financial documents to plan participants, beneficiaries, employee representatives, and contributing employers upon request.

This information constitutes a third-party disclosure from the administrator to participants, beneficiaries, employee representatives, and contributing employers for purposes of the PRA. Pursuant to § 2520.101-6(d)(5), the documents required to be disclosed shall not contain any information that the plan administrator reasonably determines to be either: (i) Individually identifiable information regarding any plan participant, beneficiary, employee, fiduciary, or contributing employer, except that such limitation shall not apply to an investment manager or adviser, or with respect to any other person (other than an employee of the plan) preparing a financial report described in paragraph § 2520.101-6(c)(2); or (ii) proprietary information regarding the plan, any contributing employer, or entity providing services to the plan. The plan administrator must inform the requester if any such information is withheld. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the Federal Register on January 6, 2025 (90 FR 671).

Comments are invited on: (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimates of the burden and cost of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless the OMB approves it and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid OMB Control Number. See 5 CFR 1320.5(a) and 1320.6.

DOL seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOL notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.

Agency: DOL-EBSA.

Title of Collection: Access to Multiemployer Plan Information.

OMB Control Number: 1210-0131.

Affected Public: Private sector.

Total Estimated Number of Respondents: 2,405.

Total Estimated Number of Responses: 27,071.

Total Estimated Annual Time Burden: 20,875 hours.

Total Estimated Annual Other Costs Burden: $82,593.

Section 2520.104-22 provides an exemption to the reporting and provision of part 1 of title I of ERISA for employee welfare benefit plans that provide exclusively apprenticeship and training benefits if the plan administrator meets the following requirements: (1) Files a notice with the Secretary that provides the name of the plan, the plan sponsor's Employer Identification Number, the plan administrator's name, and the name and location of an office or person from whom interested individuals can obtain certain info about courses offered by the plan; and (2) takes steps reasonably designed to ensure that the information required to be contained in the notice is disclosed to employees of employers contribution to the plan who may be eligible to enroll in any course of study sponsored or establish by the plan; (3) and makes the notice available to employees upon request.

Under 2520.14-23, the Department provides an alternative method of compliance with the reporting and disclosure of Title I of ERISA for unfunded or insured plan established for a select group of management of highly compensated employees ( i.e., top hat plans). In order to satisfy the alternative method of compliance, the plan administrator must file a statement with the Secretary of Labor that includes the name and address of the employer, the employer EIN, a declaration that the employer maintains a plan or plans primarily for the purpose of providing deferred compensation for a select group of management or highly compensated employees, and a statement of the number of such plans and the employees covered by each. Plan documents must be made available to the Secretary upon request, and only one statement needs to be filed for each employer maintaining one or more of the plans. The 2019 final rule requires electronic filing with the Secretary through EBSA's website in accordance with instructions published by the Department. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the Federal Register on January 6, 2025 (90 FR 671).

Comments are invited on: (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimates of the burden and cost of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless the OMB approves it and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid OMB Control Number. See 5 CFR 1320.5(a) and 1320.6.

DOL seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOL notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.

Agency: DOL-EBSA.

Title of Collection: Alternative Reporting Methods for Apprenticeship and Training Plans and Top Hat Plans.

OMB Control Number: 1210-0153.

Affected Public: Private sector.

Total Estimated Number of Respondents: 86.

Total Estimated Number of Responses: 86.

Total Estimated Annual Time Burden: 14 hours.

Total Estimated Annual Other Costs Burden: $0.

For Applicants' representations, legal analysis, and conditions, please refer to Applicants' application, dated April 15, 2025, which may be obtained via the Commission's website by searching for the file number at the top of this document, or for an Applicant using the Company name search field on the SEC's EDGAR system. The SEC's EDGAR system may be searched at https://www.sec.gov/edgar/searchedgar/legacy/companysearch.html. You may also call the SEC's Public Reference Room at (202) 551-8090.

For Applicants' representations, legal analysis, and conditions, please refer to Applicants' application, dated April 29, 2025, which may be obtained via the Commission's website by searching for the file number at the top of this document, or for an Applicant using the Company name search field, on the SEC's EDGAR system. The SEC's EDGAR system may be searched at https://www.sec.gov/edgar/searchedgar/companysearch.html. You may also call the SEC's Office of Investor Education and Advocacy at (202) 551-8090.

For Applicants' representations, legal analysis, and conditions, please refer to Applicants' application, filed April 30, 2025, which may be obtained via the Commission's website by searching for the file number at the top of this document, or for an Applicant using the Company name search field, on the SEC's EDGAR system. The SEC's EDGAR system may be searched at https://www.sec.gov/edgar/searchedgar/companysearch.html. You may also call the SEC's Office of Investor Education and Advocacy at (202) 551-8090.

For Applicants' representations, legal analysis, and conditions, please refer to Applicants' application, dated April 3, 2025, which may be obtained via the Commission's website by searching for the file number at the top of this document, or for an Applicant using the Company name search field on the SEC's EDGAR system. The SEC's EDGAR system may be searched at https://www.sec.gov/edgar/searchedgar/companysearch. You may also call the SEC's Office of Investor Education and Advocacy at (202) 551-8090.