Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
Food Safety and Inspection Service
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
International Trade Administration
National Institute of Standards and Technology
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Patent and Trademark Office
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Fish and Wildlife Service
Geological Survey
Land Management Bureau
National Park Service
Federal Bureau of Investigation
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Highway Administration
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This action modifies the Class D surface area airspace, Class E airspace area designated as surface area, Class E airspace area designated as an extension to a Class D or Class E surface area, and the Class E airspace area extending upward from 700 feet above the surface of the earth at Bozeman Yellowstone International Airport, Bozeman, MT. These actions support the safety and management of visual flight rules (VFR) and instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at the airport.
Effective date 0901 UTC, August 7, 2025. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under 1 CFR part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order JO 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
A copy of the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM), all comments received, this final rule, and all background material may be viewed online at
FAA Order JO 7400.11J, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
Nathan A. Chaffman, Federal Aviation Administration, Western Service Center, Operations Support Group, 2200 S 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone (206) 231-3460.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of the airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it modifies Class D and Class E airspace to support VFR and IFR operations at Bozeman Yellowstone International Airport, Bozeman, MT.
The FAA published a notice of proposed rulemaking for Docket No. FAA-2023-2423 in the
Subsequent to the publication of the NPRM and effective February 10, 2025, the FAA's definition of the acronym “NOTAM” changed from “Notice to Air Missions” to “Notice to Airmen.” As such, the part-time language within the Class D and Class E surface area airspace legal descriptions should read “This Class D/E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen.” Additionally, the legal description of the Class E airspace area designated as an extension to a Class D or Class E airspace area within the NPRM now contains part-time language to better align with FAA regulations.
Class D, E2, E4, and E5 airspace designations are published in paragraphs 5000, 6002, 6004, and 6005, respectively, of FAA Order JO 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1 on an annual basis. This document amends the current version of that order, FAA Order JO 7400.11J, dated July 31, 2024, and effective September 15, 2024. These amendments will be published in the next update to FAA Order JO 7400.11. FAA Order JO 7400.11J is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is amending 14 CFR part 71 by modifying the Class D surface area airspace, the Class E airspace area designated as surface area, the Class E airspace areas designated as an extension to a Class D or Class E surface area, and the Class E airspace area extending upward from 700 feet above the surface of the earth at Bozeman Yellowstone International Airport, Bozeman, MT.
The radius of the Class D surface area and Class E airspace area designated as surface area is expanded to 5.1 miles to appropriately contain departures until reaching the next adjacent airspace. The southeast extension of the Class D surface area and Class E airspace area designated as surface area is removed as it is no longer needed.
In addition, the Class E airspace designated as an extension to a Class D or Class E surface area northwest of the airport is lengthened by .8 miles and widened by one mile to better contain arriving IFR aircraft on the very high frequency omnidirectional range (VOR) Runway (RWY) 12 approach while below 1,000 feet above the surface.
Finally, the central radius of the Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface is expanded to 7.2 miles to better contain IFR aircraft
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5.a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 7,000 feet MSL within a 5.1-mile radius of the airport. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface within a 5.1-mile radius of the airport. This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface within 4.1 miles southwest and 3.7 miles northeast of the airport's 316° bearing extending from its 5.1-mile radius to 14.5 miles northwest of the airport. This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7.2-mile radius from the airport, and within 2 miles northeast and 1.3 miles southwest of the airport's 136° bearing extending from its 7.2-mile radius to 14.8 miles southeast of the airport, and within 4.3 miles east and 2 miles west of the airport's 165° bearing extending from its 7.2-mile radius to 10.5 miles south of the airport, and within 4.2 miles either side of the airport's 316° bearing extending from its 7.2-mile radius to 14.7 miles northwest of the airport.
Commodity Futures Trading Commission and Securities and Exchange Commission.
Joint final rule.
The Commodity Futures Trading Commission (“CFTC”) and the Securities and Exchange Commission (“SEC”) (collectively, “we” or
The amendments to Form PF are effective April 11, 2025.
The Commissions are adopting amendments to Form PF (17 CFR 279.9) under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (“Advisers Act”).
The Commissions are adopting amendments to Form PF, the confidential reporting form for certain SEC-registered investment advisers to private funds (including those that also are registered with the CFTC as CPOs or CTAs) to correct certain errors and incorrect cross references. Additionally, these amendments incorporate certain of the amendments that the SEC adopted on July 12, 2023, to Section 3 of Form PF that were erroneously excluded from the version of Form PF that was published in the
We are amending Instruction 6 to correct an erroneous omission of the words “do not” before the instruction to “report information for any private fund advised by any of your related persons unless you have identified that related person in Question 1(b) as a related person for which you are filing Form PF.” A nearly identical instruction is contained in Instruction 5 of the Current Form PF, which states that filers “should
We are amending Question 47 to remove stray column headings for reporting market factors that are “Not relevant” and “Relevant/not formally tested” because they are no longer applicable. A nearly identical question in Current Form PF (Question 42 therein)
The definitions of the terms “collateral posted entries” and “collateral received entries” included certain errors and incorrect cross references that we are correcting. The definitions for the two terms use similar wording and we are making certain similar changes in both definitions as a result.
First, we are replacing erroneous references in both definitions to a “counterparty credit exposure and collateral table” (which does not exist in the Final Form PF) with the correct references to the “consolidated counterparty exposure table.”
Second, in the definition of “collateral posted entries,” we are correcting erroneous cross references to Questions 26 and 41 by changing them to Questions 27 and 28 and Questions 42 and 43, respectively. These new cross references contain the only uses of the term “collateral posted entries” in the Final Form PF. For similar reasons, we are correcting erroneous cross
Third, in the second paragraph of the “collateral posted entries” definition (beginning “For Question 41” in Final Form PF), we are correcting clauses “(c)(ii)” and “(d)(ii)” to become “(c)(ii) and (iii)” and “(d)(ii) and (iii),” respectively, to align the reference to “government securities and other securities” in the definition with the corresponding rows in the consolidated counterparty exposure table in Question 41. We are also fixing a minor typographical error in this paragraph (correcting the reference “(b)iii),” to “(b)(iii)”).
Finally, in the first paragraph of the “collateral posted entries” definition (beginning “For Question 26” in Final Form PF), we are adding the parenthetical “(other than cash and cash equivalents)” after the words “other securities” in each of clauses “(c)(ii)” and “(d)(ii).” Similarly, in the second paragraph of the same “collateral posted entries” definition (beginning “For Question 41” in Final Form PF), we are adding the same parenthetical “(other than cash and cash equivalents)” following the words “other securities” in clauses “(b)iii), and (iv),”
On July 12, 2023, the SEC adopted amendments to certain rules that govern money market funds under the Investment Company Act of 1940 and modified Section 3 of Form PF with respect to reporting obligations related to liquidity funds (“MMF Amendments”). The MMF Amendments revised Section 3 of Form PF, in part, with respect to how advisers report operational information about their liquidity funds and how advisers report assets and portfolio information. Certain of such modifications were mistakenly excluded from the version of Form PF that was attached as Appendix A to the 2024 Adopting Release published in the
The Commissions are amending Final Form PF to correct certain other errors and incorrect cross references in the instructions, glossary, and questions.
•
•
•
•
•
•
The Administrative Procedure Act (“APA”) generally requires an agency to publish notice of a rulemaking in the
The amendments do not impose any new substantive regulatory requirements on any person.
The APA generally requires publication of a rule at least 30 days before its effective date. This requirement does not apply, however, if the agency finds good cause for making
As discussed above, the amendments to Form PF correct certain errors and incorrect cross references. The SEC is mindful of the economic effects, including the benefits and costs, of the adopted amendments to Form PF. The following analysis considers the likely economic effects of the form amendments against a baseline that consists of the current regulatory framework and current market practices.
The amendments will add certain modifications back to the version of Form PF that is published in the
Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, title 17, chapter II of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows.
The Investment Advisers Act of 1940, 15 U.S.C. 80b-1,
“(A)
“(B)
“(C) Other U.S. creditors
“(D) Other non-U.S. creditors”
and adding, in their place, the following categories:
“(A)
“(B) U.S. creditors that are not
“(C) Non-U.S. creditors”;
“(c)(ii)—
“(d)(ii)—
“(c)(ii)—
“(d)(ii)—
“(b)iii), and (iv)
“(c)(ii)—
“(d)(ii)—
“(b)(iii) and (iv)—
“(c)(ii) and (iii)—
“(d)(ii) and (iii)—
“(c)(ii)—
“(d)(ii)—
“(c)(ii)—
“(d)(ii)—
“(b)(iii) and (iv)—
“(c)(ii) and (iii)—
“(d)(ii) and (iii)—
“(b)(iii) and (iv)—
“(c)(ii) and (iii)—
“(d)(ii) and (iii)—
The revisions read as follows:
The text of Form PF does not, and these amendments will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
6. * * *
• Do not report information for any
7. (a) Is the
Question 65 * * *
(f) The category of investment that most closely identifies the instrument . . . . .
(
By the Commissions.
The following Commodity Futures Trading Commission (CFTC) appendix will not appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
On this matter, Acting Chairman Pham and Commissioners Johnson, Goldsmith Romero, and Mersinger voted in the affirmative. No Commissioner voted in the negative.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Final rule.
This document amends the U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) regulations to extend import restrictions on certain material from the Republic of El Salvador. The Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary for Educational and Cultural Affairs, U.S. Department of State, has made the requisite determinations for extending the import restrictions, originally imposed on certain archaeological material by Treasury Decision 95-20, and amended by CBP Decision 20-04 to cover certain ecclesiastical ethnological material. These import restrictions are being extended pursuant to an exchange of diplomatic notes. The CBP regulations are being amended to reflect this further extension through March 2, 2030.
Effective on April 11, 2025.
For legal aspects, W. Richmond Beevers, Chief, Cargo Security, Carriers and Restricted Merchandise Branch, Regulations and Rulings, Office of Trade, (202) 325-0084,
The Convention on Cultural Property Implementation Act (Pub. L. 97-446, 19 U.S.C. 2601
On March 8, 1995, the United States entered into a bilateral agreement (the 1995 Agreement) with the Republic of El Salvador (El Salvador) to impose import restrictions on certain categories of archaeological material from El Salvador's Pre-Hispanic cultures and ranging in date from approximately 8000 B.C. to 1550 A.D. On March 10, 1995, the former U.S. Customs Service (now CBP) published a final rule, Treasury Decision (T.D.) 95-20, in the
Since the initial final rule was published on March 10, 1995, the import restrictions were subsequently extended four times. First, on March 9, 2000, following the exchange of diplomatic notes, the former U.S. Customs Service published T.D. 00-16 in the
On March 2, 2020, the United States and El Salvador entered into a new Memorandum of Understanding (2020 MOU), that entered into force on March 2, 2020, and superseded the existing agreement that first became effective on March 8, 1995. Pursuant to the 2020 MOU, the import restrictions for archaeological material remain in effect for an additional five-year period until March 2, 2025, and the 2020 MOU also covers import restrictions for ecclesiastical ethnological material until March 2, 2025.
Thereafter, on March 18, 2020, CBP published CBP Dec. 20-04 in the
On August 15, 2024, the United States Department of State proposed in the
Accordingly, CBP is amending 19 CFR 12.104g(a) to reflect the extension and reinstate enforcement of these import restrictions. The restrictions on the importation of archaeological and ecclesiastical ethnological material from El Salvador will continue in effect through March 2, 2030. Importation of such material from El Salvador continues to be restricted through that date unless the conditions set forth in 19 U.S.C. 2606 and 19 CFR 12.104c are met.
The Designated List and additional information may also be found at the following website address:
This amendment involves a foreign affairs function of the United States and is, therefore, being made without notice or public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(a)(1). For the same reason, a delayed effective date is not required under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3).
Executive Order 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review) directs agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). CBP has determined that this document is not a regulation or rule subject to the provisions of Executive Order 12866 because it pertains to a foreign affairs function of the United States, as described above, and therefore is specifically exempted by section 3(d)(2) of Executive Order 12866.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
In accordance with Treasury Order 100-20, the Secretary of the Treasury has delegated to the Secretary of Homeland Security the authority related to the customs revenue functions vested in the Secretary of the Treasury as set forth in 6 U.S.C. 212 and 215, subject to certain exceptions. This regulation is being issued in accordance with DHS Directive 07010.3, Revision 03.2, which delegates to the Commissioner of CBP the authority to prescribe and approve regulations related to cultural property import restrictions.
Pete Flores, Acting Commissioner, having reviewed and approved this document, has delegated the authority to electronically sign this document to the Director (or Acting Director, if applicable) of the Regulations and
Cultural property, Customs duties and inspection, Imports, Prohibited merchandise, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth above, part 12 of title 19 of the Code of Federal Regulations (19 CFR part 12) is amended as set forth below:
5 U.S.C. 301; 19 U.S.C. 66, 1202 (General Note 3(i), Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS)), 1624.
Sections 12.104 through 12.104i also issued under 19 U.S.C. 2612;
(a) * * *
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notification of enforcement of regulation.
The Coast Guard will enforce the special local regulation for the Conch Republic Navy Parade and Battle, in Key West, Florida. Our regulation for recurring Marine Events in Captain of the Port Key West Zone identifies the regulated area for this event. During the enforcement period, no person or vessel may enter, transit through, anchor in, or remain within the regulated area without approval from the Captain of the Port Key West or a designated representative.
The regulation in 33 CFR 100.701 will be enforced for the Conch Republic Navy Parade and Battle regulated area listed in table 1 to § 100.701, section (B), item no. 1 from 7 p.m. until 8 p.m. on April 25, 2025.
If you have questions about this notice, call or email Chief Marine Science Technician Mathew Mason, Sector Key West Waterways Management Department, Coast Guard; telephone (305) 292-8823, email
The Coast Guard will enforce the special local regulation in 33 CFR 100.701 for the Conch Republic Navy Parade and Battle regulated area listed in paragraph (b), item no. 1 in table 1 to § 100.701, from 7:00 p.m. until 8:00 p.m. on April 25, 2025.
This action is being taken to provide for the safety of life on the navigable waters of the Key West Harbor during the simulated battle event. Sector Key West Zone, § 100.701, table 1, paragraph (b), item no. 1, specifies the location of the regulated area for Conch Republic Navy Parade and Battle. During the enforcement period, as reflected in § 100.701(c), if you are the operator of a vessel in the regulated area you must comply with directions from the COTP Key West or designated representative.
In addition to this notice of enforcement in the
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing 55 temporary safety zones around the construction of individual wind energy facilities during the development of the Empire Wind 1 Wind Farm project area. The area lies within Federal waters on the Outer Continental Shelf, specifically in the Bureau of Ocean Energy Management Renewable Energy Lease Area OCS-A 0512, approximately 12 nautical miles south of Long Island, NY. This action protects life, property, and the environment during construction of each facility. When being enforced, only attending vessels and vessels with
This rule is effective without actual notice from April 11, 2025 through 11:59 p.m. on February 29, 2028. For the purposes of enforcement, actual notice will be used from 12:01 a.m. on March 10, 2025, until April 11, 2025.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions about this rulemaking, call or email Mr. Craig Lapiejko, Waterways Management, at Coast Guard First District, telephone (571) 607-6314, email
The Energy Policy Act of 2005, Public Law 109-58, amended the Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act, 43 U.S.C. 1331
Empire Offshore Wind LLC, an offshore wind farm developer, proposed to develop two clusters of offshore wind energy facilities, known as Empire Wind 1 (EW1) and Empire Wind 2, just outside of the Port of New York and New Jersey. On February 22, 2024, BOEM announced its approval of Empire Wind's COP, which authorizes the offshore construction and operation of the wind energy project, consisting of both clusters of facilities. That was the project's final approval from BOEM, following the agency's Record of Decision (ROD) approving the project.
Empire Offshore Wind notified the Coast Guard that they plan to begin construction of the facilities in the EW1 Wind Farm project area, which lies within Federal waters on the OCS. The construction, which may begin as early as March 2025, will occur in a portion of the BOEM Renewable Energy Lease Area OCS-A 0512. That lease area lies approximately 12 nautical miles (NM) offshore, south of Long Island, New York (NY), and 17 NM offshore east of Long Branch, New Jersey (NJ).
On October 22, 2024, after determining that the establishment of safety zones was necessary to provide for the safety of life, property, and the environment during the anticipated construction of the structures, the Coast Guard published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) titled “Safety Zone; Empire Wind 1 Wind Farm Project Area, Outer Continental Shelf, Lease OCS-A 0512, Offshore New York and New Jersey, Atlantic Ocean” (89 FR 84316). There, we explained the basis for the NPRM and invited comments on our proposed regulatory action related to the establishment of safety zones around the construction of 54 Wind Turbine Generators (WTG) and one Offshore Sub Station (OSS) located in the EW1 project area. We received 42 written submissions during the comment period that ended November 21, 2024.
Under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under the authority provided in 14 U.S.C. 544, 43 U.S.C. 1333, and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4. Our regulations in 33 CFR part 147, which implement these authorities, permit the establishment of safety zones for non-mineral energy resource, permanent or temporary structures located on the OCS. As explained in 33 CFR 147.1, safety zones under part 147 may be established around OCS facilities being constructed, maintained, or operated on the OCS. Such safety zones may be established to promote the safety of life and property on the facilities, their appurtenances, and attending vessels, and on the adjacent waters within the safety zones. They may include provisions to protect the environment, such as measures to protect the living resources of the sea from harmful agents.
As noted above, the Coast Guard received 42 written submissions to our NPRM published October 22, 2024. The comments in these submissions were thoroughly considered and the First Coast Guard District Commander has determined that establishment of 55 temporary safety zones through rulemaking is warranted to ensure the safety of life, property, and the environment within a 500-meter radius of each of the 55 facilities during their construction.
Two of the 42 submissions were supportive of the 55 temporary 500-meter safety zones. One submission pointed out a technical error in the proposed rule, and the remaining 39 were opposed to the rule as proposed. One of the two supportive submission stated the reasoning for their support to our proposed rule was to “reduce the risk for onsite workers.” The other supporter of our proposed rule stated their support was to ensure the safe execution of the project.
The remaining 39 submissions opposed the proposed rule. These submissions communicated their opposition to wind farm construction in general and not necessarily to the creation of safety zones around this construction. As explained in the Background section, however, the Coast Guard does not have approval authority over the wind farm project, and this rule is not proposing to approve of the construction or operation of the project
One commenter specifically disagreed with the Environmental Planning and Historic Preservation program Decision Support System document finding that our rule is not a piece of or connected to the larger action of offshore wind development generally and requested a more comprehensive assessment of how the U.S. Coast Guard will meet our regulatory obligations. The Coast Guard is not, however, the decision-maker responsible for approval of the project. If the commenter believes that BOEM did not adequately consider environmental impacts flowing from the need to address navigational concerns during construction as part of BOEM's approval of the project, the commenter should direct those concerns to BOEM. The Coast Guard's role in this project is simply to consider and mitigate potential hazards to navigation as construction of the project proceeds. A failure to mitigate those hazards to navigation sufficiently may result in loss of life, damage to property, and environmental harm resulting from mishaps, but it has no bearing on whether or not the project will proceed, or on how the wind farm facilities will be regulated in the present or future.
A second commenter criticizing the safety zone rule stated that our proposed rule failed to provide clear enforcement strategies and implementation. As an implementing regulation of this authority, 33 CFR part 147 permits the establishment of safety zones for non-mineral energy resource permanent or temporary structures located on the OCS for the purpose of protecting life and property on the facilities, appurtenances and attending vessels, and on the adjacent waters within the safety zone (see 33 CFR 147.10). Accordingly, a safety zone established under 33 CFR part 147 may also include provisions to restrict, prevent, or control certain activities, including access by vessels or persons to maintain safety of life, property, and the environment. Coast Guard authorities direct us to assess the potential safety risks associated with such complex and unusually hazardous construction projects and require establishment of the safety zones to ensure the safety of life, property, and the environment. Violations of our rule may be processed in accordance with 33 CFR 140.40 on civil and criminal penalty proceedings.
Another commenter felt that a 500-meter safety zone was too small to protect marine life from sound and other pressure disturbances caused by offshore wind construction activities and recommended that we increase the size of the safety zones to protect marine life. In response, we point to 33 CFR 147.15, which limits our OCS safety zones to a maximum distance of 500 meters around an OCS facility.
Another commenter, who anticipates transiting the area as a recreational fisherman, had three objections to our proposed rule to create 55 temporary 500-meter safety zones during construction of these OCS facilities to protect life, property, and the environment, and offered some thoughts for the Coast Guard to consider.
First, the commenter expressed their concern that all 55 locations could be enforced at the same time, effectively closing the entire area all at once, and suggested the proposed regulation should define how many zones can be enforced at any one time. The Coast Guard does not control the schedule for construction, so we cannot set the number of safety zones that can be enforced at one time. But, as explained in the next paragraph, we do not anticipate that all 55 safety zones will be enforced at the same time.
As we stated in the proposed rule, each safety zone would only be enforced during active major construction, which could occur at several locations, sometimes simultaneously. We anticipate the “active major construction” will take place when there is a concentration of large stationary vessels and barges operating in close proximity to the facilities and to each other during hydraulic pile driving hammer operations and heavy lift operations. However, due to the limited number of specialized vessels available to complete this type of major offshore construction, enforcement of all of the 55 safety zones simultaneously, as the commenter suggests, is highly improbable.
Second, the commenter expressed a concern that a 500-meter safety zone was more than sufficient for smaller more maneuverable vessels and recommended we reduce the safety zones 500-meters to a lesser distance. When considering the total number of construction vessels and the concentration of these large stationary vessels and barges operating in close proximity to the facilities and each other during active major construction we believe that enforcement of the 500-meter zone is most appropriate for this offshore construction project while ensuring there is a balance between safety and reducing impact on vessel transit.
Finally, the commenter asked how mariners will be alerted to which zones are being enforced. As stated in the proposed rule, the Coast Guard will make notice of each enforcement period via the First Coast Guard District Local Notice to Mariners (LNM). The LNM has historically been the primary means for disseminating information concerning aids to navigation, hazards to navigation, and other marine information of interest to mariners on the waters of the United States. The First Coast Guard District LNM is available online and can be found at its dedicated website
The rule states that the Coast Guard will issue a Broadcast Notice to Mariners (BNM) via marine channel 16 (VHF-FM) as soon as practicable in response to an emergency or hazardous condition. The Coast Guard now offers an online subscription service in addition to the standard VHF BNM broadcasts which, traditionally, was the only method to receive this vital navigational information. Mariners may now use a subscription service to plan for underway periods and can receive updates to navigational hazards in near-real-time without waiting on scheduled VHF broadcasts. Sign up to receive BNMs via email for your waterway at
The Coast Guard will also issue Safety Marine Information Broadcasts (SMIB) via marine channel 16 (VHF-FM) for each Safety Zone starting an hour before and broadcasting four times per day for the duration of the safety zone and Marine Safety Information Bulletins (MSIB) are distributed via email. MSIBs will also be posted on Coast Guard Sector New York's Homeport at
Additionally, Empire Wind will provide dedicated safety and scout vessels on scene to provide up-to-date advisory information.
A comment submitted by a cartographer from the Office of Coast Survey of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), pointed out a technical error. The horizontal datum being used, “NAD 83,” was mentioned in the discussion of our proposed rule, but it is not included with the regulatory text for the center point positions given in table 1 to
The remaining opposing comments expressed concerns about wind farm construction projects, and stated their general opposition to all similar construction projects in the region. The Coast Guard acknowledges these comments and concerns, but notes, as stated above, that these are outside the scope of this rulemaking. Coast Guard authorities direct us to assess the potential safety risks associated with complex and unusually hazardous construction projects such as these, and to allows for the mitigation of such risks through the establishment of the safety zones to ensure the safety of life, property, and the environment.
The First Coast Guard District has factored applicable statutes and regulations into the subject rule. Applicable Authorities are cited in Section III.
After considering the comments discussed above, the Coast Guard determined that no additional changes besides adding the datum being used as suggested by NOAA should be made to the regulatory text. As written, the Coast Guard believes that the rule ensures consistency, sufficient notice, and improved safety while minimizing impact on vessel transit.
The District Commander is establishing 55 temporary 500-meter safety zones around the construction of 54 wind turbine generators (WTGs) and one offshore substation (OSS) on the OCS from March 10, 2025, through 11:59 p.m. on February 29, 2028.
The construction of these facilities is expected to repeatedly include the installation of the foundations followed by the installation of the upper structures for all 55 facilities. Major construction activity could take place for a period lasting approximately 96 hours or more at several locations, sometimes simultaneously, in the lease area for these 55 facilities. The Coast Guard will provide notice of each enforcement period via the Local Notice to Mariners and issue a Broadcast Notice to Mariners via marine channel 16 (VHF-FM) as soon as practicable in response to an emergency or hazardous condition. The Coast Guard is publishing this rulemaking to be effective, and enforceable, through February 29, 2028, to encompass any construction delays due to weather or other unforeseen circumstances. If, as currently scheduled, the project is completed before February 29, 2028, enforcement of the safety zones would be suspended, and notice given via Local Notice to Mariners.
Additional information about the construction process of the EW1 can be found at
The 55 temporary 500-meter safety zones around the construction of 54 WTGs and one OSS are in the EW1 project area, specifically in a portion of the BOEM Renewable Energy Lease Area OCS-A 0512, approximately 12 NM offshore south of Long Island, NY, and 17 NM offshore east of Long Branch, NJ.
The positions of each individual safety zone are referred to using a unique alpha-numeric naming convention as shown in table 1 below.
Aligning with authorities under 33 CFR 147.15, the safety zones include the area within 500-meters of the center point of the positions provided in the table below expressed in Degrees (°) Minutes (′) Seconds (″) (DMS) based on North American Datum 1983 (NAD 83).
The positions of the 55 safety zones are shown on the chartlets in figures 1-3 below. For scaling purposes, there is approximately 0.65 NM spacing between each position in the figure 1-3.
Navigation in the vicinity of the safety zones consists of large commercial shipping vessels, fishing vessels, cruise ships, tugs with tows, and recreational vessels.
When enforced, no unauthorized vessel or person would be permitted to enter the safety zone without obtaining
The regulatory text, which appears at the end of this document, is unchanged from the text proposed in the NPRM except with the addition of the datum being used.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive Orders related to rulemaking. A summary of our analyses based on these statutes and Executive Orders follows.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. This NPRM has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the NPRM has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
Aligning with 33 CFR 147.15, the safety zones established would extend to a maximum distance of 500-meters around the OCS facility measured from its center point. Vessel traffic would be able to safely transit around the safety zones, which would impact a small, designated area in the Atlantic Ocean, without significant impediment to their voyage. This safety zone would provide for the safety of life, property, and the environment during the construction of each structure, in accordance with Coast Guard maritime safety missions.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
This rule may affect owners or operators of vessels intending to transit or anchor in the EW1 project area, some of which might be small entities. However, these safety zones would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of these entities because they will be temporarily enforced, allow for deviation requests, and do not impact vessel transit significantly. Regarding the enforcement period, although these safety zones would be in effect from March 10, 2025, through February 29, 2028, vessels would only be prohibited from the regulated zone during periods of actual construction activity in correspondence to the period of enforcement. We expect the enforcement period at each location to last for only a short period. Additionally, vessel traffic could pass safely around each safety zone using an alternate route. Use of an alternate route likely will cause minimal delay for the vessel in reaching their destination depending on other traffic in the area and vessel speed. Lastly, vessels would also be able to request deviation from this rule to transit through a safety zone. Such requests would be considered on a case by-case basis and may be authorized by the First Coast Guard District Commander or a designated representative. For these reasons, the Coast Guard expects any impact of this rulemaking establishing a temporary safety zone around these OCS facilities to be minimal and have no significant economic impact on small entities.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this proposed rule. If the proposed rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please call or email the person listed in the
This rule would not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132 (Federalism), if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have Tribal implications under Executive Order 13175 (Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments) because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please call or email the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or Tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule would not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the potential effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves the establishment of a safety zones around an OCS facility to protect life, property, and the marine environment. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of
Protesters are asked to call or email the person listed in the
Continental shelf, Marine safety, Navigation (waters).
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard is amending 33 CFR part 147 as follows:
14 U.S.C. 544; 43 U.S.C. 1333; 33 CFR 1.05-1; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.4.
(a)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(c)
(1) An attending vessel as defined in 33 CFR 147.20;
(2) A vessel authorized by the First Coast Guard District Commander or a designated representative.
(d)
(e)
(f)
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary interim rule and request for comments.
The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary security zone on the waters of the Atlantic Ocean near the Mar-A-Lago Club and the Southern Boulevard Bridge in Palm Beach, Florida FL. This rule is substantially like the “east zone” security zone in Coast Guard regulations. The Coast Guard will only enforce this rule when the President of the United States, members of the First Family, or other persons under the protection of the Secret Service are present or expected to be present. This action is necessary to protect the official party, public, and surrounding waterways from terrorist acts, sabotage or other subversive acts, accidents, or other events of a similar nature.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email Lieutenant Guerschom Etienne, Waterways Management Division, Sector Miami, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 786-295-9051, email
The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary interim rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment pursuant to the authority in 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B). This statutory provision authorizes an agency to issue a rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment when the agency for good cause finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” The Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because it is impracticable. It is necessary to immediately implement enhanced security protections of presidential and VIP personnel in and around this portion of the waterway. It is impracticable to publish an NPRM because we must establish this security zone by March 19, 2025.
Also, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the
Although this regulation is published as an interim rule without prior notice,
The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary interim rule under the authority in 46 U.S.C. 70051 and 70124. The COTP Miami has determined the security zone is necessary to protect the official party, public, and surrounding waterways from terrorist acts, sabotage or other subversive acts, accidents, or other events of a similar nature. This temporary interim rule is needed to ensure the security of vessels and navigable waters during visits to the Mar-a-Lago Club by the President, the First Family, and other persons under the protection of the Secret Service.
This temporary interim rule establishes a security zone from March 19, 2025, through July 17, 2025. The security zone will overlap with the already existing “east zone” in 33 CFR 165.785. All persons and vessels are prohibited from entering, transiting, anchoring in, or remaining within the security zone unless authorized by the COTP Miami or a designated representative. This section will be enforced when the President of the United States, members of the First Family, or other persons under the protection of the Secret Service are present or expected to be present at the Mar-a-Lago Club in Palm Beach, Florida until July 17, 2025. The duration of the zone is intended to ensure the safety of the President of the United States, members of the First Family, or other persons under the protection of the Secret Service.
The Coast Guard will notify the public and local mariners of this safety zone through appropriate means, which may include, but are not limited to, Broadcast Notice to Mariners via marine Channel 16 (VHF-FM). Coast Guard patrol assets will also be on-scene with flashing energized blue lights the security zone is in effect.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, this rule has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, and duration of the temporary safety zone. This security zone impacts only a small area of the Atlantic Ocean near the Mar-A-Lago Club and the Southern Boulevard Bridge in Palm Beach, FL. The security zone will be enforced only President of the United States, members of the First Family, or other persons under the protection of the Secret Service are present or expected to be present at the Mar-a-Lago Club in Palm Beach, Florida from March 19, 2024 through July 17, 2025. Vessel traffic will be permitted to transit the area at other times. Moreover, the rule allows vessels to seek permission from the COTP to transit the zone.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please call or email the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Directive 023-01, Rev. 1, associated implementing instructions, and Environmental Planning COMDTINST 5090.1 (series), which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves a security zone impacts only a small area of the Atlantic Ocean near the Mar-A-Lago Club and the Southern Boulevard Bridge in Palm Beach, Florida FL, and will be enforced only President of the United States, members of the First Family, or other persons under the protection of the Secret Service are present or expected to be present. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph L60(a) of Appendix A, Table 1 of DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 1. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket. For instructions on locating the docket, see the
We view public participation as essential to effective rulemaking and will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Your comment can help shape the outcome of this rulemaking. If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation.
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard is amending 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
46 U.S.C. 70034, 70051, 70124; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 00170.1, Revision No. 01.3.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) All persons and vessels are prohibited from entering, transiting, anchoring in, or remaining within the security zone unless authorized by the COTP Miami or a designated representative.
(2) To seek permission to enter, contact the COTP or the COTP's representative by telephone at (305) 535-4472 or may contact a designated representative via VHF radio on channel 16. Those in the security zone must comply with all lawful orders or directions given to them by the COTP or the COTP's designated representative.
(d)
(e)
U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.
Clarification.
The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS or the Department) is issuing this document to clarify the non-enforceability of certain language that was included in the preamble to—but not the regulatory text of—the May 9, 2024, final rule titled “Nondiscrimination on the Basis of Disability in Programs or Activities Receiving Federal Financial Assistance.” Language in the preamble concerning gender dysphoria, which language is not included in the regulatory text, does not have the force or effect of law. Therefore, it cannot be enforced.
April 11, 2025.
Sean R. Keveney, Acting General Counsel, 202-690-7741.
On May 9, 2024, HHS issued a final rule entitled “Nondiscrimination on the Basis of Disability in Programs or Activities Receiving Federal Financial Assistance,” 89 FR 40066 (“2024 Section 504 Rule”). A portion of the preamble of that rule addresses whether “gender dysphoria can be a disability under section 504 [of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973] and the [American with Disabilities Act].”
The regulatory text in the final rule does not say that gender dysphoria is a disability,
The Department is nonetheless concerned there has been significant confusion about the preamble language referencing gender dysphoria in the 2024 Section 504 Rule. It is well-established that where, as here, the language included in the regulatory text itself is clear, statements made in the preamble to a final rule published in the
Office of the Secretary, Department of Commerce.
Final rule.
The Department of Commerce (Commerce) is issuing this final rule to remove the internal procedures of Form CD-570, small business review form, the Commerce Acquisition Regulation (CAR). The purpose of the administrative rulemaking is to transition internal policies from the public facing regulation to the internal Commerce Acquisition Manual (CAM).
Effective May 12, 2025.
For clarification of content, contact Mr. Edward Williams, Senior Procurement Analyst, at 240-482-5242, or by email at
Commerce is issuing this final rule to transition the internal procedures of completing the CD-570, small business review form, from the public. The purpose of the administrative rulemaking is to align the current and correct practices of the Department of Commerce with the documented process and procedures outlined in regulation and policy. The CD-570 remains a requirement, however, instruction for administration will reside within the CAM. This change allows faster transition of evolving policies and practices within Commerce without bringing disruption to external entities. Contracting Officers will be required to comply with the content requirements set forth in CAM 1319.70 when documenting their small business form for vetting.
This final rule contains no information collection requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
This final rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
This final rule is being issued in compliance with Executive Order 14192.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(A), the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act requiring notice of proposed rulemaking and the opportunity for public participation are inapplicable to rulemakings that are rules of agency organization, procedure, or practice. This rule only removes the instruction for completing Form CD-570 from the CAR but the instruction will remain in the CAM which will remain publicly available. This final rule is a routine organizational rule. Therefore, this rule qualifies for exemption and no public notice and comment period is required.
Additionally, Commerce finds good cause to waive the notice and public comment period for this rule because the effect of the rule does not place any burden on the public or require the public to undertake or cease any particular action. Therefore, a public notice and comment period would be unnecessary and qualifies for waiver under the APA (see 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B)).
Government procurement, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, the Department of Commerce amends 48 CFR part 1353 as follows:
41 U.S.C. 414; 48 CFR 1.301-1.304.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Final rule; correcting amendment.
NMFS is correcting the 2025-2026 harvest specifications and management measures for groundfish caught in the U.S. exclusive economic zone seaward of Washington, Oregon, and California published on December 16, 2024. These corrections are necessary to accurately implement the 2025-2026 specifications. This correcting amendment revises regulations to fully implement the recombination of shortspine thornyheads north and south of 34°27′ N lat., by clarifying the coastwide quota share (QS) and quota pound (QP) accumulation limits are the same as the area-specific limits but are now managed coastwide. This correction also revises the limited entry trip limits for shortspine thornyheads and sablefish, which were mis-specified in table 2b (South). Finally, this correction also fixes an amendatory instruction intended to correct instances of “Nontrawl” to “Non-trawl”.
This rule is effective April 11, 2025.
This rule is accessible at the Office of the Federal Register website at
Keeley Kent, Supervisory Fishery Management Specialist, at 206-526-4655 or
The Pacific Coast Groundfish Fishery Management Plan (PCGFMP) and its implementing regulations at title 50 in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), part 660, subparts C through G, regulate fishing for over 90 species of groundfish seaward of Washington, Oregon, and California. Based on recommendations from the Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council), NMFS develops groundfish harvest specifications and management measures for 2-year periods (
The final rule inadvertently omitted changes to the quota share (QS) and quota pound (QP) accumulation limits that result from the combination of the shortspine thornyhead annual catch limits and Shorebased Individual Fishing Quota privileges that was implemented via the final rule. Prior to the recombination, the QS accumulation limit for shortspine thornyheads north of 34°27′ N lat. was 6 percent and for shortspine thornyheads south of 34°27′ N lat. was 6 percent. This correction clarifies in 50 CFR 660.140(d)(4)(i)(C) that the QS accumulation limit is now 6 percent for coastwide shortspine thornyheads. Similarly, prior to the recombination, the QP accumulation limit for shortspine thornyheads north of 34°27′ N lat. was 9 percent and for shortspine thornyheads south of 34°27′ N lat. was 9 percent. This correction clarifies in 50 CFR 660.140(e)(4)(i) that the QP accumulation limit is now 9 percent for coastwide shortspine thornyheads.
Consistent with revisions to the regulations in 50 CFR part 660 accomplished via the final rule, this correction also fixes six instances of “Nontrawl” to read “Non-trawl”. This correction also fixes an incorrect citation in 50 CFR 660.13(d)(4)(iv), by replacing it with 50 CFR 660.11, the correct citation for the definition of the directed open access fishery.
This correcting amendment also fixes three errors in table 2b (South) to part 660, subpart E. The final rule incorrectly left out the cumulative trip limit for shortspine thornyhead south of 34°27′ N lat. for limited entry fixed gear (LEFG) participants. This correcting amendment revises table 2b (South) to part 660, subpart E, to set the trip limit for shortspine thornyhead south of 34°27′ N lat. at 4,000 lb (1,814 kg) per 2 months. Additionally, this correcting amendment revises the incorrectly set LEFG limit for sablefish south of 36° N lat. The limit will now read “2,500 lb (1,134 kg) per week” rather than the current incorrect “2,500 lb (1,134 kg) per 2 months”. Finally, this correcting amendment revises the area specification for the longspine thornyhead LEFG limit so that it is set for the entire area south of 40°10′ N lat. rather than just south of 34°27′ N lat.
This correcting amendment also clarifies the formatting of the “Other flatfish” trip limits for the open access sector in table 3b (South) to part 660, subpart F.
NMFS is issuing this rule pursuant to 304(b) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (MSA). The NMFS Assistant Administrator for Fisheries (AA) has determined that this final rule is consistent with the MSA, the PCGFMP, and other applicable law.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the AA finds there is good cause to waive prior notice and an opportunity for public comment on this action, as notice and comment would be unnecessary and contrary to public interest in clear and accurate regulations. This action corrects inadvertent errors and makes necessary clarifications to the final rule. Expeditious correction of the errors and
Similarly, the AA has determined good cause exists to waive the 30-day delay in effectiveness pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d). The changes in this action should be effective immediately to prevent further confusion among participants in the fishery. This final rule makes only minor corrections to the final rule which was effective January 1, 2025. Delaying effectiveness of these corrections would result in conflicts in the regulations and confusion among fishery participants.
Because prior notice and an opportunity for public comment are not required to be provided for this rule by 5 U.S.C. 553, or any other law, the analytical requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601
This final rule is not significant under Executive Order 12866.
This final rule contains no information collection requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Fisheries, Fishing, Indian fisheries.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR part 660 is corrected by making the following correcting amendments:
16 U.S.C. 1801
The revision reads as follows:
(8)
(d) * * *
(4) * * *
(iv) Declaration reports will include: The vessel name and/or identification number, gear type, and monitoring type where applicable, (as defined in paragraph (d)(4)(iv)(A) of this section). Upon receipt of a declaration report, NMFS will provide a confirmation code or receipt to confirm that a valid declaration report was received for the vessel. Retention of the confirmation code or receipt to verify that a valid declaration report was filed and the declaration requirement was met is the responsibility of the vessel owner or operator. Vessels using non-trawl gear may declare more than one gear type, with the exception of vessels participating in the Shorebased IFQ Program (
(c) * * *
(1) * * *
(ii)
(d) * * *
(4) * * *
(i) * * *
(C) * * *
(e) * * *
(4) * * *
(i) * * *
(b) * * *
(6) Gear for use in the Non-trawl RCA. * * *
(d) * * *
(14)
The additions and revision read as follows:
(d) * * *
(15)
The additions read as follows:
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; modification of a closure; request for comments.
NMFS is opening directed fishing for Pacific cod by American Fisheries Act (AFA) trawl catcher/processors (CPs) in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (BSAI). This action is necessary to fully use the 2025 total allowable catch (TAC) of Pacific cod allocated to AFA trawl CPs in the BSAI.
Effective 1200 hours, Alaska local time (A.l.t.), April 9, 2025, through 1200 hours, A.l.t., November 1, 2025. Comments must be received at the following address no later than April 28, 2025.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by docket number NOAA-NMFS-2024-0116, by any of the following methods:
Steve Whitney, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the BSAI exclusive economic zone according to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (FMP) prepared and recommended by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act). Regulations governing fishing by U.S. vessels in accordance with the FMP appear at subpart H of 50 CFR part 600 and 50 CFR part 679.
NMFS closed directed fishing for Pacific cod by AFA trawl CPs in the BSAI under § 679.20(d)(1) on February 12, 2025 (90 FR 9693, February 18, 2025).
NMFS has determined that as of March 27, 2025, approximately 2,200 metric tons of Pacific cod remain of the 2025 Pacific cod TAC allocated to the AFA trawl CPs in the BSAI. Therefore, in accordance with § 679.25(a)(1)(i), (a)(2)(i)(C), and (a)(2)(iii)(D), and to facilitate fully harvesting the 2025 TAC of Pacific cod in the BSAI, NMFS is terminating the previous closure and is opening directed fishing for Pacific cod by AFA trawl CPs in the BSAI. The Administrator, Alaska Region, NMFS, considered the following factors in reaching this decision: (1) the current catch of Pacific cod by AFA trawl CPs in the BSAI; and (2) the harvest capacity and stated intent on future harvesting patterns of vessels in participating in this fishery.
NMFS issues this action pursuant to section 305(d) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act. This action is issued pursuant to 50 CFR part 679, which was issued pursuant to section 304(b) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), there is good cause to waive prior notice and an opportunity for public comment on this action, as notice and comment would be impracticable and contrary to the public interest, as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion, and would delay the opening of directed fishing for Pacific cod by AFA trawl CPs in the BSAI. NMFS was unable to publish a notice providing time for public comment because the most recent, relevant data on Pacific cod catch only became available as of March 27, 2025.
The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of prior notice.
Without this inseason adjustment, NMFS could not allow the fishery for Pacific cod by AFA trawl CPs in the BSAI to be harvested in an expedient manner. Under § 679.25(c)(2), interested persons are invited to submit written comments on this action to the above address until April 28, 2025.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
The FAA proposes to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 737-700, 737-800, 737-900, 737-900ER, 737-8, and 737-9 series airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by a report of a passenger being unable to exit the lavatory during flight due to a broken latch that prevented toggling of the lock. This proposed AD would require replacing lavatory bifold door latches with latches having an improved design. This proposed AD would also prohibit the installation of affected parts. The FAA is proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
The FAA must receive comments on this proposed AD by May 27, 2025.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Nicole Tsang, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3959; email:
The FAA invites you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to
CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this NPRM contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this NPRM, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this NPRM. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Nicole Tsang, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3959; email:
The FAA has received a report indicating that during flight, a passenger was unable to exit the lavatory due to a broken latch that prevented toggling of the lock. Flight attendants were unable to open the bifold door, leading the flightcrew to accomplish an unscheduled landing. It was determined that bifold door latches failed in service, preventing the bifold door from opening without mechanic assistance. The root cause was material fatigue of the plastic structure of the bifold door latch. The material fatigue was caused primarily by excessive stress combined with weld-line and machining marks from drilling holes for inserts into the plastic structure. In an otherwise survivable emergency event (
The FAA is issuing this NPRM after determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require replacing the lavatory bifold door latch having part number (P/N) SC1L500031-3/20218-3, SC1L500031-4/20218-4, SC1L500031-5/20218-5/20218-7, or SC1L500031-6/20218-6/20218-8 with lavatory bifold door latch having P/N SC1L500031-9/20218-9 or SC1L500031-10/20218-10. This proposed AD would also prohibit the installation of the affected part.
The FAA estimates that this AD, if adopted as proposed, would affect 2,612 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
The FAA has included all known costs in its cost estimate. According to the manufacturer, however, some or all of the costs of this proposed AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected operators.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
The FAA determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Would not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(3) Would not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, 44701.
The FAA must receive comments on this airworthiness directive (AD) by May 27, 2025.
None.
This AD applies to certain The Boeing Company Model 737-700, 737-800, 737-900, 737-900ER, 737-8, and 737-9 series airplanes, certificated in any category, with lavatory bifold door latch part number (P/N) SC1L500031-3/20218-3, SC1L500031-4/20218-4, SC1L500031-5/20218-5/20218-7, or SC1L500031-6/20218-6/20218-8.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 25; Equipment/Furnishings.
This AD was prompted by a report that a passenger was unable to exit the lavatory during flight due to a broken latch that prevented toggling of the lock. The FAA is issuing this AD to address bifold door latch failure during service preventing the bifold door from opening without mechanic assistance. In an otherwise survivable emergency event (
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 4 months after the effective date of this AD. Replace lavatory bifold door latch having part number SC1L500031-3/20218-3, SC1L500031-4/20218-4, SC1L500031-5/20218-5/20218-7, or SC1L500031-6/20218-6/20218-8 with lavatory bifold door latch having part number SC1L500031-9/20218-9 or SC1L500031-10/20218-10.
As of the effective date of this AD, no person may install, on any airplane, a lavatory bifold door latch having part number SC1L500031-3/20218-3, SC1L500031-4/20218-4, SC1L500031-5/20218-5/20218-7, or SC1L500031-6/20218-6/20218-8.
(1) The Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the certification office, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by The Boeing Company Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Nicole Tsang, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3959; email:
(2) For B/E Aerospace material identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference, contact Collins Aerospace, Interiors—B/E Aerospace—ALCI, 11404 Commando Road, Suite B, Everett, WA 98204, United States; telephone +1-888-232-2594; email
None.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
The FAA proposes to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Bombardier, Inc., Model CL-600-1A11 (600) and CL-600-2A12 (601) airplanes, and certain Model CL-600-2B16 (601-3A, 601-3R, and 604 Variants) airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by a determination that new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations are necessary. This proposed AD would require revising the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations. The FAA is proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
The FAA must receive comments on this proposed AD by May 27, 2025.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
• For Bombardier material identified in this proposed AD, contact Bombardier Business Aircraft Customer Response Center, 400 Côte-Vertu Road West, Dorval, Québec H4S 1Y9, Canada; telephone 514-855-2999; email
• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.
Brenda L. Buitrago, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: 516-228-7300; email:
The FAA invites you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to
CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this NPRM contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this NPRM, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this NPRM. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Brenda L. Buitrago, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: 516-228-7300; email:
Transport Canada, which is the aviation authority for Canada, has issued Transport Canada AD CF-2024-16, dated May 23, 2024 (Transport Canada AD CF-2024-16) (also referred to after this as the MCAI), to correct an unsafe condition for all Bombardier, Inc., Model CL-600-1A11 (600), CL-600-2A12 (601), and CL-600-2B16 (601-3A, 601-3R, and 604 Variants) airplanes. The MCAI states that new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations have been developed.
Model CL-600-2B16 (604 Variant) airplanes having serial numbers 6193 and subsequent must comply with the airworthiness limitations specified as part of the approved type design. Therefore, this proposed AD does not include those airplanes in the applicability.
The FAA is proposing this AD to address new and more restrictive limitations. The new and more restrictive limitations include tasks and limitations for which a threshold or repeat interval was reduced, an inspection method was changed, or a discard time was reduced. Failure to comply with these new and more restrictive limitations and inspection thresholds and intervals could adversely affect the continued airworthiness of the airplane. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at
The FAA reviewed the following Bombardier material:
• Section 5-10-00, “Airworthiness Limitations,” Section 5-20-00, “Scheduled Maintenance Instructions,” Section 5-30-20, “Corrosion Prevention and Controlled Program (CPCP),” and Section 5-70-00, “Custom Installations,” of Bombardier Challenger 600 Time Limits/Maintenance Checks (TLMC), Publication No. PSP 605, Revision 39, dated January 8, 2018. (For obtaining these sections of Bombardier Challenger 600 TLMC, Publication No. PSP 605, use Document Identification No. CH 600 TLMC.)
• Section 5-10-00, “Airworthiness Limitations,” Section 5-20-00, “Scheduled Maintenance Instructions,” Section 5-30-20, “Corrosion Prevention and Controlled Program (CPCP),” and Section 5-70-00, “Custom Installations,” of Bombardier Challenger 601 TLMC, Publication No. PSP 601-5, Revision 46, dated January 8, 2018. (For obtaining these sections of Bombardier Challenger 601 TLMC, Publication No. PSP 601-5, use Document Identification No. CH 601 TLMC.)
• Section 5-10-00, “Airworthiness Limitations,” Section 5-20-00, “Scheduled Maintenance Instructions,” Section 5-30-20, “Corrosion Prevention and Controlled Program (CPCP),” and Section 5-70-00, “Custom Installations,” of Bombardier Challenger 601 TLMC, Publication No. PSP 601A-5, Revision 42, dated January 8, 2018. (For obtaining these sections of Bombardier Challenger 601 TLMC, Publication No. PSP 601A-5, use Document Identification No. CH 601 TLMC-1.)
• Part 2, “Airworthiness Limitations,” of Bombardier Challenger 604 TLMC, Publication No. CH 604 TLMC, Revision 33, dated November 22, 2022. (The document identification number for ordering Bombardier Challenger 604 TLMC, Publication No. CH 604 TLMC is incorrectly identified as “CH 600 TLMC” on page 2 of the TLMC. For obtaining Part 2 of Bombardier Challenger 604 TLMC, Publication No. CH 604 TLMC, use Document Identification No. CH 604 TLMC.)
• Part 2, “Airworthiness Limitations,” of Bombardier Challenger 605 TLMC, Publication No. CH 605 TLMC, Revision 22, dated November 22, 2022.
• Part 2, “Airworthiness Limitations,” of Bombardier Challenger 650 TLMC, Publication No. CH 650 TLMC, Revision 9, dated November 22, 2022.
This material specifies new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations for certain certification maintenance requirements for airplane structures and safe life limits. These documents are distinct since they apply to different airplane configurations.
The FAA also reviewed the following Bombardier material:
• Temporary Revision No. 5-2-5, dated October 16, 2023, which includes new Task 32-51-04-101 *, “Discard of the Nosewheel-Steering Control Potentiometer Coupling Setscrews, Part No. B0201102-2-220 (A/C 6194 and Subs or Post SB 650-32-007).”
• Temporary Revision No. 5-2-29, dated October 25, 2023, which includes new Task 32-51-04-101 *, “Discard of the Nosewheel-Steering Control Potentiometer Coupling Setscrews, Part No. B0201102-2-220 (Post SB 605-32-010).”
• Temporary Revision No. 5-2-73, dated October 25, 2023, which includes new Task 32-51-04-101 *, “Discard of the Nosewheel-Steering Control Potentiometer Coupling Setscrews, Part No. B0201102-2-220 (Post SB 604-32-033).”
• Temporary Revision No. TR 5-164, dated December 23, 2022, which includes new Task 53-10-01-102 *, “Forward Pressure Bulkhead Cap Angle—Aft Side.”
• Temporary Revision No. TR 5-165, dated October 25, 2023.
• Temporary Revision No. TR 5-268, dated December 23, 2022, which includes new Task 53-10-01-103 *, “Forward Pressure Bulkhead Cap Angle—Aft Side.”
• Temporary Revision No. TR 5-269, dated October 25, 2023.
• Temporary Revision No. TR 5-282, dated December 23, 2022, which includes new Task 53-10-01-103 *, “Forward Pressure Bulkhead Cap Angle—Aft Side.”
• Temporary Revision No. TR 5-283, dated October 25, 2023.
(The asterisk (or “one star”) with the last three digits of the task numbers listed above indicates that the task is an airworthiness limitation task.).
Temporary Revision No. 5-2-5, 5-2-29, 5-2-73, TR 5-165, TR 5-269, and TR 5-283 introduce a life limit for potentiometer coupling setscrews, P/N B0201102-2-220, for the nosewheel-steering control or rudder pedal, as applicable. Temporary Revision Nos. TR 5-164, TR 5-268, and TR 5-282 introduce a visual check of the forward pressure bulkhead cap angle on the aft side. These documents are distinct since they apply to different airplane configurations.
This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, the FAA has been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and material referenced above. The FAA is proposing this AD because the FAA evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require revising the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations.
This proposed AD would require revisions to certain operator maintenance documents to include new actions (
Note 2 of Transport Canada AD CF-2024-16 provides an initial compliance time (“phase-in”) for task 27-42-01-110, “Special Detailed Inspection of the Horizontal Stabilizer Trim Actuator (HSTA), P/N 604-92305-7 and Subs (Vendor P/N 8454-3 and Subs),” of
The FAA estimates that this AD, if adopted as proposed, would affect 427 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
The FAA has determined that revising the maintenance or inspection program takes an average of 90 work-hours per operator, although the agency recognizes that this number may vary from operator to operator. Since operators incorporate maintenance or inspection program changes for their affected fleet(s), the FAA has determined that a per-operator estimate is more accurate than a per-airplane estimate. Therefore, the agency estimates the average total cost per operator to be $7,650 (90 work-hours × $85 per work-hour).
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
The FAA determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Would not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(3) Would not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
The FAA must receive comments on this airworthiness directive (AD) by May 27, 2025.
None.
This AD applies to the Bombardier, Inc., airplanes identified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this AD, certificated in any category.
(1) All Model CL-600-1A11 (600), CL-600-2A12 (601), and CL-600-2B16 (601-3A and 601-3R Variants) airplanes.
(2) Model CL-600-2B16 (604 Variant) serial numbers 6050 through 6192 inclusive.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 05, Time Limits/Maintenance Checks.
This AD was prompted by a determination that new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations are necessary. The FAA is issuing this AD to address new and more restrictive limitations. Failure to comply with these new and more restrictive limitations could adversely affect the continued airworthiness of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) Within 90 days after the effective date of this AD, revise the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate the information specified in the applicable time limits/maintenance checks (TLMC) document identified in table 1 to paragraph (g)(1) of this AD. The initial compliance time for doing the tasks is at the time specified in the applicable TLMC document identified in table 1 to paragraph (g)(1) of this AD, or within 90 days after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later, except as provided by paragraph (h) of this AD.
(2) Within 90 days after the effective date of this AD, revise the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate the information specified in the applicable temporary revisions (TRs) identified in table 2 to paragraph (g)(2) of this AD. The initial compliance time for doing the tasks is at the time specified in the applicable TR identified in table 2 to paragraph (g)(2) of this AD, or within 90 days after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later.
For Bombardier, Inc., Model CL-600-2B16 (604 Variant) airplanes, S/Ns 5301 through 5665 inclusive and S/Ns 5701 through 6049 inclusive: The initial compliance time for task 27-42-01-110, “Special Detailed Inspection of the Horizontal Stabilizer Trim Actuator (HSTA), P/N 604-92305-7 and Subs (Vendor P/N 8454-3 and Subs),” of section 5-10-40, “Certification Maintenance Requirements,” of Part 2, “Airworthiness Limitations,” of Bombardier Challenger 604 TLMC, Publication No. CH 604, Revision 33, dated November 22, 2022; or Bombardier Challenger 605 TLMC, Publication No. CH 605 TLMC, Revision 22, dated November 22, 2022; as applicable, is at the applicable compliance time specified in paragraph (h)(1) or (2) of this AD, or within 90 days after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later.
(1) For HSTA having P/N 604-92305-3 (vendor P/N 8454-1) or P/N 604-92305-5 (vendor P/N 8454-2) that were replaced with P/N 604-92305-7 (vendor P/N 8454-3) in accordance with paragraph (j) of AD 2015-05-07, Amendment 39-18117 (80 FR 13483, March 16, 2015): Within 12 years after accomplishing the replacement.
(2) For HSTA having P/N 604-92305-7 (vendor P/N 8454-3) manufactured before November 1, 2015: Within 12 years from the part entry into service.
After the existing maintenance or inspection program has been revised as required by paragraph (g) of this AD, no alternative actions (
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
For more information about this AD, contact Brenda L. Buitrago, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: 516-228 7300; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Section 5-10-00, “Airworthiness Limitations,” Section 5-20-00, “Scheduled Maintenance Instructions,” Section 5-30-20, “Corrosion Prevention and Controlled Program (CPCP),” and Section 5-70-00, “Custom Installations,” of Bombardier Challenger 600 Time Limits/Maintenance Checks (TLMC), Publication No. PSP 605, Revision 39, dated January 8, 2018.
(ii) Section 5-10-00, “Airworthiness Limitations,” Section 5-20-00, “Scheduled Maintenance Instructions,” Section 5-30-20, “Corrosion Prevention and Controlled Program (CPCP),” and Section 5-70-00, “Custom Installations,” of Bombardier Challenger 601 TLMC, Publication No. PSP 601-5, Revision 46, dated January 8, 2018.
(iii) Section 5-10-00, “Airworthiness Limitations,” Section 5-20-00, “Scheduled Maintenance Instructions,” Section 5-30-20, “Corrosion Prevention and Controlled Program (CPCP),” and Section 5-70-00, “Custom Installations,” of Bombardier Challenger 601 TLMC, Publication No. PSP 601A-5, Revision 42, dated January 8, 2018.
(iv) Part 2, “Airworthiness Limitations,” of Bombardier Challenger 604 TLMC, Publication No. CH 604 TLMC, Revision 33, dated November 22, 2022.
(v) Part 2, “Airworthiness Limitations,” of Bombardier Challenger 605 Time Limits/Maintenance Checks, Publication No. CH 605 TLMC, Revision 22, dated November 22, 2022.
(vi) Part 2, “Airworthiness Limitations,” of Bombardier Challenger 650 Time Limits/Maintenance Checks, Publication No. CH 650 TLMC, Revision 9, dated November 22, 2022.
(vii) Bombardier Temporary Revision No. 5-2-5, dated October 16, 2023.
(viii) Bombardier Temporary Revision No. 5-2-29, dated October 25, 2023.
(ix) Bombardier Temporary Revision No. 5-2-73, dated October 25, 2023.
(x) Bombardier Temporary Revision No. TR 5-164, dated December 23, 2022.
(xi) Bombardier Temporary Revision No. TR 5-165, dated October 25, 2023.
(xii) Bombardier Temporary Revision No. TR 5-268, dated December 23, 2022.
(xiii) Bombardier Temporary Revision No. TR 5-269, dated October 25, 2023.
(xiv) Bombardier Temporary Revision No. TR 5-282, dated December 23, 2022.
(xv) Bombardier Temporary Revision No. TR 5-283, dated October 25, 2023.
(3) For Bombardier material identified in this AD, contact Bombardier Business Aircraft Customer Response Center, 400 Côte-Vertu Road West, Dorval, Québec H4S 1Y9, Canada; telephone 514-855-2999; email
(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.
(5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
The FAA proposes to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2021-22-12, which applies to certain Honda Aircraft Company LLC (Honda) Model HA-420 airplanes. AD 2021-22-12 requires removing and cleaning the inner diameter of the flap control pushrods and repetitively applying corrosion inhibiting compound (CIC) to this area. Since the FAA issued AD 2021-22-12, new flap control pushrods have been approved that are more corrosion resistant and do not require repetitive CIC applications. This proposed AD would retain all actions of AD 2021-22-12 and would require replacing the flap control pushrods with improved design pushrods for all airplanes affected by AD 2021-22-12, as well as for other airplanes not affected by AD 2021-22-12. The FAA is proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
The FAA must receive comments on this proposed AD by May 27, 2025.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
• For Honda Aircraft Company material identified in this proposed AD, contact Honda, 6430 Ballinger Road, Greensboro, NC 27410; phone: (336) 662-0246; website:
• You may view this material at the FAA, FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 901 Locust, Kansas City, MO 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.
Kelly Fichter, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; phone: (404) 474-5544; email:
The FAA invites you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to
CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this NPRM contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this NPRM, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this NPRM. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Kelly Fichter, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337. Any commentary that the FAA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.
The FAA issued AD 2021-22-12, Amendment 39-21785 (86 FR 60753, November 4, 2021) (AD 2021-22-12), for certain serial-numbered Honda Model H-420 airplanes. AD 2021-22-12 was prompted by a report that the flap pushrod assemblies are susceptible to corrosion. AD 2021-22-12 requires removing and cleaning the inner diameter of the flap control pushrods and repetitively applying CIC to this area. The agency issued AD 2021-22-12 to prevent failure of a flap control pushrod, which could result in uncontrolled and un-annunciated flap asymmetry with consequent loss of control of the airplane.
Since the FAA issued AD 2021-22-12, new flap control pushrods have been approved that are more corrosion resistant and do not require repetitive CIC applications. AD 2021-22-12 was issued as an interim action until a design fix was developed, approved, and available. These new flap control pushrods are the design fix. Installing new corrosion resistant flap control rods eliminates the CIC applications required by AD 2021-22-12.
This proposed AD would expand the applicability to include airplanes with serial number 42000211, 42000212, and 42000215 through 42000287, as these airplanes also have an affected flap pushrod assembly installed. These airplanes were not included in AD 2021-22-12 because operators were required to repetitively apply CIC as specified in the version of the instructions for continued airworthiness that was delivered with the airplane.
The FAA is issuing this NPRM after determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
The FAA reviewed Honda Aircraft Company Alert Service Bulletin No. SB-420-27-009, dated October 1, 2024, which specifies procedures for replacing the flap control pushrod assemblies with improved design pushrod assemblies.
This proposed AD would also require Honda Aircraft Company Service Bulletin No. SB-420-27-008, dated August 31, 2021, which the Director of the Federal Register approved for incorporation by reference as of November 19, 2021 (86 FR 60753, November 4, 2021).
This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This proposed AD would retain all of the requirements of AD 2021-22-12. This proposed AD would also expand the applicability to include additional airplanes and require replacing the flap control pushrod assemblies with new corrosion-resistant pushrod assemblies as terminating action for the repetitive CIC applications required by AD 2021-22-12.
The FAA estimates that this AD, if adopted as proposed, would affect 107 airplanes of U.S. registry.
The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
The FAA determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that the proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Would not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(3) Would not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
The FAA must receive comments on this airworthiness directive (AD) by May 27, 2025.
This AD replaces AD 2021-22-12, Amendment 39-21785 (86 FR 60753, November 4, 2021) (AD 2021-22-12).
This AD applies to the following Honda Aircraft Company LLC Model HA-420 airplanes, certificated in any category:
(1) Group 1 airplanes: Serial numbers 42000153 through 42000158 inclusive and 42000160 through 42000206 inclusive; and
(2) Group 2 airplanes: Serial numbers 42000211, 42000212, and 42000215 through 42000287 inclusive.
Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC) Code 2752, Trailing Edge Flap Actuator.
This AD was prompted by a report that the flap pushrod assemblies are susceptible to corrosion. The FAA is issuing this AD to prevent failure of the flap control pushrod. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in uncontrolled and un-annunciated flap asymmetry with consequent loss of control of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) Within 90 days after November 19, 2021 (the effective date of AD 2021-22-12), or 18 months after issuance of the first standard certificate of airworthiness, whichever occurs later: Remove, clean, apply corrosion inhibiting compound (CIC) to, and reinstall the left and right inboard and outboard flap pushrod assemblies by following steps 3.0(3) through 3.0(6) of the Accomplishment Instructions in Honda Aircraft Company Service Bulletin No. SB-420-27-008, dated August 31, 2021.
(2) Within 90 days or 300 hours time-in-service (TIS), whichever occurs first after accomplishing the actions required by paragraph (g)(1) of this AD, and thereafter at intervals not to exceed 90 days or 300 hours TIS, whichever occurs first: Reapply CIC by following step 3.0(5)(a) through (c) of the Accomplishment Instructions in Honda Aircraft Company Service Bulletin No. SB-420-27-008, dated August 31, 2021.
Within 2 years after the effective date of this AD, replace the flap control pushrod assemblies with new (zero hours TIS) flap control pushrod assemblies in accordance with Steps (1) through (3) of the Accomplishment Instructions in Honda Aircraft Company Alert Service Bulletin No. SB-420-27-009, dated October 1, 2024. For Group 1 airplanes, this replacement terminates the requirements in paragraphs (g)(1) and (2) of this AD.
As of the effective date of this AD, do not install flap control pushrod assembly part number HJ1-12754-875-001, HJ1-12754-875-003, HJ1-12754-885-001, or HJ1-12754-885-003 on any airplane.
Although Honda Aircraft Company Service Bulletin No. SB-420-27-008, dated August 31, 2021, and Alert Service Bulletin No. SB-420-27-009, dated October 1, 2024, specify to submit certain information to the manufacturer, this AD does not include those requirements.
(1) The Manager, East Certification Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the East Certification Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (l) of this AD and email to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Kelly Fichter, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; phone: (404) 474-5544; email:
(2) Material identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the address specified in paragraph (m)(5) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(3) The following material was approved for IBR on [DATE 35 DAYS AFTER PUBLICATION OF THE FINAL RULE].
(i) Honda Aircraft Company Alert Service Bulletin No. SB-420-27-009, dated October 1, 2024.
(ii) [Reserved]
(4) The following material was approved for IBR on November 19, 2021 (86 FR 60753, November 4, 2021).
(i) Honda Aircraft Company Service Bulletin No. SB-420-27-008, dated August 31, 2021.
(ii) [Reserved]
(5) For Honda Aircraft Company material identified in this AD, contact Honda Aircraft Company LLC, 6430 Ballinger Road, Greensboro, NC 27410; phone: (336) 662-0246; website:
(6) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 901 Locust, Kansas City, MO 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.
(7) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA).
Notice of availability.
We are advising the public that we have prepared a pest risk analysis that evaluates the risks associated with the importation of fresh leaves and stems of glasswort (
We will consider all comments that we receive on or before June 10, 2025.
You may submit comments by either of the following methods:
•
•
Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at
Ms. Gina Stiltner, Senior Regulatory Policy Specialist, Regulatory Coordination and Compliance, PPQ, APHIS, 500 New Karner Road, Suite 2, Albany, NY 12055; (518) 760-2468;
Under the regulations in “Subpart L—Fruits and Vegetables” (7 CFR 319.56-1 through 319.56-12, referred to below as the regulations), the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) prohibits or restricts the importation of fruits and vegetables into the United States from certain parts of the world to prevent plant pests from being introduced into or disseminated within the United States.
Section 319.56-4 contains a performance-based process for approving the importation of fruits and vegetables that, based on the findings of a pest risk analysis, can be safely imported subject to one or more of the five designated phytosanitary measures listed in paragraph (b) of that section.
APHIS received a request from the national plant protection organization of Israel to allow the importation of fresh leaves and stems of glasswort (
Therefore, in accordance with § 319.56-4(c), we are announcing the availability of our pest risk assessment and RMD for public review and comment. Those documents, as well as a description of the economic considerations associated with the importation of fresh leaves and stems of glasswort for consumption from Israel into the United States, may be viewed on the
After reviewing any comments we receive, we will announce our decision regarding the import status of fresh leaves and stems of glasswort for consumption from Israel into the United States in a subsequent notice. If the overall conclusions of our analysis and the Administrator's determination of risk remain unchanged following our consideration of the comments, then we will authorize the importation of fresh leaves and stems of glasswort for consumption from Israel into the United States subject to the requirements specified in the RMD.
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture.
Notice of a modified system of records.
Pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974 and Office of Management and Budget Circular No. A-108, the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) gives notice that an agency component, the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS), proposes to modify an existing system of records notice titled, APHIS Veterinary Services User Fee System, USDA/APHIS-18. The system will be renamed the APHIS User Fee System, USDA/APHIS-18. This system, among other things, helps APHIS track, collect, and process fees associated with services APHIS provides.
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4) and (11), this system of records notice will become applicable upon publication, subject to a 30-day notice and comment period in which to comment on the routine uses described in the “ROUTINE USES OF RECORDS MAINTAINED IN THE SYSTEM” section of this system of records notice. Please submit any comments by May 12, 2025.
You may submit comments by either of the following methods:
•
•
Any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at
For Agency Privacy Act questions concerning this system of records notice, please contact Ms. Tonya Woods, Director of the Freedom of Information Act/Privacy Act Coordinator, 5601 Sunnyside Avenue, Beltsville, MD 20705; phone: (301) 851-4076; email:
The Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) of the Department of Agriculture (USDA) is modifying an existing system of records notice for the Veterinary Services User Fee System USDA/APHIS-18, which was last published on March 14, 2012, in its entirety in the
To ensure importers, exporters, and means of conveyances (airplanes, vessels, trucks, and railroad cars) do not introduce pests or diseases when they move plants, plant products, plant byproducts, animals, birds, poultry, animal products, animal byproducts, germplasm, organisms, and vectors, APHIS performs services related to movement of these items. APHIS incurs costs associated with plant and animal inspections and other services, such as the costs of maintaining import centers and quarantine facilities, diagnostic testing, inspectors' salaries, supplies, and other miscellaneous expenses. Any person requesting service or person for whom a service is provided related to the importation, entry, or exportation of a regulated article or means of conveyance is required to pay for the expenses of such services.
Among other things, this system tracks, collects, and processes user fees for services that APHIS provides at field offices, service centers, port offices, and the National Veterinary Services Laboratories in Ames, IA. Customers incurring user fees must remit payment when APHIS provides the service. The user fee system generates documents for customers that serve as reports or invoices for the fees. Users may also request approval for an APHIS credit account, which requires the submission of an application that includes the person's social security and/or tax identification numbers. Information obtained in the credit account application is entered into the Financial Management Modernization Initiative, the official APHIS financial system. Expansion of this system will allow for APHIS to track, collect, and process fees associated with services APHIS provides.
In addition to the above, APHIS is making the following changes to the system of records:
• Updating the system location and system manager;
• Updating the authority to add the appropriate U.S. Code citation;
• Revising the purpose of the system to encompass programs under APHIS' purview that may require user fees and collection of those user fees;
• Expanding the categories of individuals and categories of records to include programs under APHIS' purview for which user fees are collected;
• Revising the record source categories to more accurately identify the sources of information maintained in the system;
• Updating the policies and practices for storage, retrievability, and retention and disposal of records in the system;
• Updating the system safeguards;
• Updating the notification, record access, and contesting record procedures; and
• Providing an updated full list of routine uses in the routine uses section of the document published with this notice.
APHIS User Fee System, USDA/APHIS-18.
Unclassified.
The Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) located at 5601 Sunnyside Avenue, Beltsville, MD 20705, is responsible for the system of records notice. Certain records are maintained in a government-approved cloud server accessed through secure data centers in the continental United States. Paper files are held at various APHIS national, district, and field offices in locked file cabinets with secure keys. The applications/systems are housed within Microsoft Azure
APHIS, VS Budget Director, 5601 Sunnyside Avenue, Beltsville, MD 20705; and APHIS PPQ Director, Cost and Fee Analysis, Pest Exclusion and Import Programs; 5601 Sunnyside Avenue, Beltsville, MD 20705.
The Debt Collection Act of 1982 (31 U.S.C. 3701
The APHIS User Fee System (UFS) is a billing and collections system that maintains information about the individuals, organizations, and companies required to pay user fees. Information maintained in the UFS includes customer identification, application, and service request information; program service records and factors used to calculate charges; customer-supplied reports on activities or arrivals and fees remitted; and payment compliance records. Additionally, the APHIS UFS stores billing details, adjustments to invoices, and payment receipt information including dates, methods of payment, and payment amounts.
APHIS collects user fees and reimbursable overtime fees for import-, export-, and entry-related services as well as any other fees associated with agricultural quarantine and inspection.
Categories of individuals covered in this system, include, but are not limited to, those required to submit user fee and reimbursable overtime payments to APHIS. This includes those billed through the system, as well as those submitting applications for review or otherwise assessed fees under various fee programs.
Depending on the user fees applied to a customer, business, or organization, the system contains information such as the customer/user's name, address (including city, county, State, and postal code), telephone and fax numbers, email address; the name of the user's business or organization and its telephone and fax numbers; email address and/or Dun & Bradstreet number. For customers requesting a credit account, a social security and/or tax identification number is required. The system also contains transactions against the user's credit account, including charges and payments made, dates and types of services, and APHIS credit account numbers. The system also stores application information collected when the fee remitter (submitter) submits an application in order to pay user fees, which also includes the type of application. The system also stores fee processing information that includes billing details, adjustments to invoices including credit and debit memos, and receipt information including date, mode, and amount of payment. A record of APHIS services provided is also stored and includes service requested, service location, type of service activity, date of service, outcome of service, and factors (hours, counts, fee types and rates) used to calculate service charges and record of the payment method at time of service. Also stored are customer-supplied reports on activities or arrivals and fees remitted and payment compliance records including audits and debt collection.
Information in this system is obtained from several sources, including directly from individuals, companies, or organizations required to submit user fees to APHIS; from materials supplied by submitters or individuals acting on their behalf; and from other relevant sources.
In addition to those disclosures generally permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b) of the Privacy Act, records contained in the system may be disclosed outside the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) as a routine use under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(3), to the extent that such uses are compatible with the purposes for which the information was collected. Such permitted routine uses include the following:
(1) To certain Federal agencies, including the Department of the Treasury, to obtain assistance in identifying and locating individuals who are delinquent in their payments of debt owed to the Federal Government while receiving Federal salary, tax refunds, or benefit payments, for the purpose of collecting debts;
(2) To a debt collection agency when the USDA determines that such referral is appropriate for collecting the debtor's account as provided for in 31 U.S.C. 3718;
(3) To contractors and their agents, grantees, experts, consultants, and others performing or working on a contract, service, grant, cooperative agreement, or other assignment for the USDA, when necessary to accomplish an agency function related to this system of records;
(4) To consumer reporting agencies when USDA determines that such referral is appropriate in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(f);
(5) When a record on its face, or in conjunction with other records indicates a violation or potential violation of law, whether civil, criminal, or regulatory in nature, and whether arising by general statute or particular program, statute, or by regulation, rule, or order issued pursuant thereto, USDA may disclose the record to the appropriate agency, whether Federal, foreign, State, Tribal, local, or other public authority responsible for enforcing, investigating, or prosecuting such violation or charged with enforcing or implementing the statute, rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant thereto, if the information disclosed is relevant to any enforcement, regulatory, investigative, or prosecutive responsibility of the receiving entity;
(6) To the Department of Justice when: (a) USDA or any component thereof; or (b) any employee of USDA in his or her individual capacity where the Department of Justice has agreed to represent the employee; or (c) the United States Government, is a party to litigation or has an interest in such litigation, and by careful review, USDA determines that the records are both relevant and necessary to the litigation and the use of such records by the Department of Justice is deemed by USDA to be for a purpose for which USDA collected the records;
(7) In an appropriate proceeding before a court, grand jury, or administrative or adjudicative body or official, when the USDA or other agency representing the USDA determines that the records are both relevant and necessary to the proceeding; or in an appropriate proceeding before an administrative or adjudicative body when the adjudicator determines the records to be relevant to the proceeding;
(8) To appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when: (a) USDA suspects or has confirmed that the security or confidentiality of information in the system of records has been compromised; (b) USDA has determined that as a result of the suspected or confirmed breach there is a risk of harm to individuals, USDA (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or
(9) To another Federal agency or Federal entity, when information from this system of records is reasonably necessary to assist the recipient agency or entity in (a) responding to a suspected or confirmed breach or (b) preventing, minimizing, or remedying the risk of harm to individuals, the agency (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security;
(10) To a Congressional office in response to an inquiry from that Congressional office made at the written request of the individual about whom the records pertain;
(11) To USDA contractors, partner agency employee or contractors, or private industry employed to identify patterns, trends, or anomalies indicative of fraud, waste, or abuse; and
(12) To the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) or other Federal Government agencies pursuant to records management inspections being conducted under the authority of 44 U.S.C. 2904 and 2906.
APHIS maintains paper and electronic records. In the case of electronic records, APHIS secures them in the Azure GovCloud, which is considered to be a secure IT environment. Electronic data is protected against loss or corruption with backups stored in Azure Storage and Backup Vaults. This allows for recovery at an alternate site in event of a failure at the primary site. Paper records are maintained in APHIS offices (see SYSTEM LOCATION above) in locked cabinets with secured keys.
Records in the system are retrieved by customer names; current addresses and locations for the previous 7 years; telephone and fax numbers; email addresses; taxpayer identification numbers; claim numbers; dates of service; types of services provided; payments made; and APHIS credit account numbers.
In accordance with the General Records Schedule (GRS) for Financial Management and Reporting Records (GRS 1.1 item 010), records are destroyed through shredding or deletion 6 years after final payment or cancellation, but longer retention is authorized if required for business use.
Electronic records are stored on secure file servers. User access is restricted within the system to relevant data to ensure the integrity of the data collected and thereby the accuracy is preserved. The primary implementation is through assignment of roles to user accounts. Each role is mapped to a collection of permissions to access system data and functionality. Administrative roles have the broadest access to system data. All users are restricted to the information only pertaining to their particular role while others may have access to multiple sets of data depending on the assigned user roles.
Access to certain portions of the system requires certain levels of authorization through USDA eAuthentication, which is a system that enables individuals to obtain user-identification accounts with password-protected access to certain USDA Web-based applications and services through the internet. Users are trained and are required to formally confirm that they understand value and sensitivity of data in the system, and users receive formal system training and are required to pass a proficiency test before being given access to the system. Persons who are not USDA employees have a lower level eAuthentication account and will only have access to their own records to input certain information.
The system is continuously monitored to ensure changes to the data are logged and reviewed. Auditing is performed to also alert the database administrators to privileged action taken against the database objects. The logs are correlated and saved at an Enterprise level to aid forensic investigation if the need arises. Access control technical measures are in place and operating to ensure only users with approval are able to access the data, and the concept of least privileged is enforced to ensure only minimum access and privileges are granted to enable users to perform job functions.
Paper files are kept in a safeguarded environment with controlled access only by authorized personnel. All APHIS users are required to complete appropriate training to learn requirements for safeguarding records maintained under the Privacy Act.
All requests for access to records must be in writing and should be submitted to the APHIS Privacy Act Officer, 5601 Sunnyside Avenue, Beltsville, MD 20705; or by facsimile (301) 734-5941; or by email
Individuals seeking to contest or amend records maintained in this system of records must direct their request to the address indicated in the “RECORD ACCESS PROCEDURES” paragraph, above and must follow the procedures set forth in 7 CFR 1.116 (Request for correction or amendment to record). All requests must state clearly and concisely what record is being contested, the reasons for contesting it, and the proposed amendment to the record.
Individuals may be notified if a record in this system of records pertains to them when the individuals request information using the same procedures as those identified in the “RECORD ACCESS PROCEDURES” paragraph above.
None.
77 FR 15033 (March 14, 2012): First publication.
APHIS sent a report on the modified system of records, required by 5 U.S.C. 552a(r), as implemented by Office of Management and Budget Circular A-108, to the Chairman of the Senate Committee on Homeland Security and Governmental Affairs; the Ranking Member of the Senate Committee on Homeland Security and Governmental Affairs; the Chairman on the House Committee on Oversight and Reform, House of Representatives; the Ranking Member of the House Committee on Oversight and Reform, House of
Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS), U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA).
Notice.
FSIS is announcing that it is delaying the date it will begin sampling not ready-to-eat (NRTE) breaded stuffed chicken products for
FSIS will begin sampling NRTE breaded stuffed chicken on November 3, 2025. Establishments will have until November 3, 2025, to reassess their HACCP plans for this product.
Rachel Edelstein, Assistant Administrator, Office of Policy and Program Development by telephone at (202) 205-0495.
FSIS is the public health agency within the USDA responsible for ensuring that meat, poultry, and egg products are safe, wholesome, and properly labeled. In support of this mission, FSIS published a final determination in the
FSIS is now announcing a delay in the start date for its sampling program for NRTE breaded stuffed chicken products. Initially set to begin on May 1, 2025, the sampling program will now start on November 3, 2025.
FSIS is announcing this delay in finalizing its sampling program and attendant guidance because it was unable to complete this process due to competing priorities at the end of the last administration. This delay will provide additional time for FSIS and industry to prepare for implementation of the sampling program. As noted in FSIS Notice 15-24,
The delay will also allow FSIS to help establishments comply with the final determination by providing new recommendations on lotting and holding product (88 FR 35033, 35051). FSIS may issue a guidance document or hold webinars to provide guidance. This additional time will allow industry to ask questions and provide feedback on the Agency guidance.
Finally, this delay will provide time for new leadership appointed after January 20, 2025, to review and provide policy input on the Agency's sampling program and guidance documents for this product.
Public awareness of all segments of rulemaking and policy development is important. Consequently, FSIS will announce this
FSIS will also announce and provide a link to this
In accordance with Federal civil rights law and USDA civil rights regulations and policies, the USDA, its Agencies, offices, and employees, and institutions participating in or administering USDA programs are prohibited from discriminating based on race, color, national origin, religion, sex, disability, age, marital status, family/parental status, income derived from a public assistance program, political beliefs, or reprisal or retaliation for prior civil rights activity, in any program or activity conducted or funded by USDA (not all bases apply to all programs). Remedies and complaint filing deadlines vary by program or incident.
Persons with disabilities who require alternative means of communication for program information (
To file a program discrimination complaint, complete the USDA Program Discrimination Complaint Form, AD-3027, found online at “How to File a Program Discrimination Complaint” and at any USDA office or write a letter addressed to USDA and provide in the letter all of the information requested in the form. To request a copy of the complaint form, call (866) 632-9992. Submit your completed form or letter to USDA by: (1) mail: U.S. Department of Agriculture, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Civil Rights, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20250-9410; (2) fax: (202) 690-7442; or (3) email:
USDA is an equal opportunity provider, employer, and lender.
Pursuant to its authority under the Foreign-Trade Zones Act of June 18, 1934, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), the Foreign-Trade Zones Board (the Board) adopts the following Order:
RECARO Aircraft Seating Americas, LLC submitted a notification of proposed production activity to the FTZ Board (the Board) for its facilities in Fort Worth, Texas, within FTZ 196. The notification conforming to the requirements of the Board's regulations (15 CFR 400.22) was received on April 7, 2025.
Pursuant to 15 CFR 400.14(b), FTZ production activity would be limited to the specific foreign-status materials/components described in the submitted notification (summarized below) and subsequently authorized by the Board. The benefits that may stem from conducting production activity under FTZ procedures are explained in the background section of the Board's website—accessible via
The proposed foreign-status materials/components include gas generators for airbag belt systems, electric storage batteries, electric light emitting diode (LED) light indicators, DC electric power units, and cable wiring harnesses (duty rate ranges from duty-free to 3.4%). The request indicates that certain materials/components are subject to duties under section 1702(a)(1)(B) of the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (section 1702), or section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974 (section 301), depending on the country of origin. The applicable section 1702 and section 301 decisions require subject merchandise to be admitted to FTZs in privileged foreign status (19 CFR 146.41).
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the Board's Executive Secretary and sent to:
A copy of the notification will be available for public inspection in the “Online FTZ Information System” section of the Board's website.
For further information, contact Juanita Chen at
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) selected two respondents for individual examination, Azucarera San Jose De Abajo S.A. (San Jose) and Santa Rosalia de la Chontalpa, SA de CV, and its affiliates (Santa Rosalia; collectively, Grupo BSM). Commerce preliminarily determines there are no attributable sales to serve as a basis for review of whether San Jose complied with the certain terms of the Agreement Suspending the Antidumping Duty Investigation on Sugar from Mexico, as amended (AD Agreement) during the period of review (POR) from December 1, 2022, through November 30, 2023. We preliminarily determine that Grupo BSM, did not comply with the requirement to eliminate at least 85 percent of the dumping found in the investigation during the POR. Furthermore, we
Applicable April 11, 2025.
Jill Buckles or Samantha Fino, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-6230 or (202) 482-2861, respectively.
Commerce and Mexican producers/exporters accounting for substantially all imports of sugar from Mexico signed the AD Agreement under section 734(c) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), which suspended the underlying antidumping duty investigation, on December 19, 2014, and which was subsequently amended on January 15, 2020.
On December 26, 2023, the American Sugar Coalition and its members (petitioners)
The product covered by this AD Agreement is raw and refined sugar of all polarimeter readings derived from sugar cane or sugar beets. Merchandise covered by this AD Agreement is typically imported under the following headings of the HTSUS: 1701.12.1000, 1701.12.5000, 1701.13.1000, 1701.13.5000, 1701.14.1020, 1701.14.1040, 1701.14.5000, 1701.91.1000, 1701.91.3000, 1701.99.1015, 1701.99.1017, 1701.99.1025, 1701.99.1050, 1701.99.5015, 1701.99.5017, 1701.99.5025, 1701.99.5050, and 1702.90.4000.
Commerce has conducted this review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(C) of the Act, which specifies that Commerce shall “review the current status of, and compliance with, any agreement by reason of which an investigation was suspended.” Pursuant to the AD Agreement, each signatory producer/exporter individually agrees that it will not sell subject merchandise at prices less than the reference prices established in Appendix I to the AD Agreement.
After reviewing the information received from the respondent companies in their questionnaire and supplemental questionnaire responses, we preliminarily determine that except for as explained below the respondents were generally in compliance with the AD Agreement during the POR, that the AD Agreement is functioning as intended, and that the AD Agreement met the statutory requirements under sections 734(c) and (d) of the Act during the POR. However, we preliminarily find that there are no attributable sales to serve as a basis for review of whether San Jose complied with certain terms of the AD Agreement,
We intend to address what we have found to be serious noncompliance by Grupo BSM with an “action plan” outlined in the Preliminary Decision Memorandum. Commerce's next steps will include: verification of Grupo BSM's questionnaire responses; formal consultations with the Signatories to the AD Agreement under Section VII.E.2 (Operations Consultations); additional monitoring of Grupo BSM; and consideration of the selection of Grupo BSM in a future administrative review. These measures are necessary to ensure compliance with the AD Agreement and that any potential administrative challenges to effective monitoring are diminished.
For a full description of the methodology underlying our conclusions,
As provided in section 782(i)(3) of the Act, Commerce intends to verify the information from Grupo BSM relied upon in making its final determination.
Interested parties may submit case briefs not later than seven days after the date on which the verification report is issued in this administrative review.
As provided under 19 CFR 351.309(c)(2) and (d)(2), in prior proceedings we have encouraged interested parties to provide an executive summary of their brief that should be limited to five pages total, including footnotes. In this review, we instead request that interested parties provide at the beginning of their briefs a public, executive summary for each issue raised in their briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, limited to issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, filed electronically via ACCESS. Requests should contain: (1) the party's name, address, and telephone number; (2) the number of participants and whether any participant is a foreign national; and (3) a list of issues to be discussed. An electronically filed hearing request must be received successfully in its entirety by Commerce's electronic records system, ACCESS, by 5 p.m. Eastern Time within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice.
Commerce intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, including the results of its analysis of the issues raised in any written briefs, not later than 120 days after the date of publication of this notice, pursuant to section 751(a)(3)(A) of the Act, unless extended.
We are issuing and publishing these results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Applicable April 11, 2025.
Katherine Smith or Gorden Struck, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; (202) 482-0557 or (202) 482-8151, respectively.
On April 1, 2025, the U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) erroneously published a duplicate
This notice is issued and published pursuant to section 703(f) and 777(i) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, and 19 CFR 351.205(c).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) preliminarily determines that the signatory, the Government of Mexico (GOM), and the respondent companies selected for individual examination, respectively, Azucarera San Jose De Abajo S.A. and Santa Rosalia de la Chontalpa, SA de CV, were in compliance with the Agreement Suspending the Countervailing Duty Investigation on Sugar from Mexico, as amended (CVD Agreement) during the period of review (POR) January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023. Commerce also preliminarily determines that the CVD Agreement met the applicable statutory requirements during the POR.
Applicable April 11, 2025.
Jill Buckles or Samantha Fino, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230, telephone: (202) 482-6230 or (202) 482-2861, respectively.
Commerce and the GOM signed the CVD Agreement under section 704(c) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), which suspended the underlying countervailing duty investigation on sugar from Mexico, on December 19, 2014, and which was subsequently amended on January 15, 2020.
On December 26, 2023, the American Sugar Coalition and its members (the petitioners)
On April 4, 2024, Commerce selected two companies as mandatory respondents, listed in alphabetic order: Azucarera San Jose De Abajo S.A. and Santa Rosalia de la Chontalpa, SA de CV.
The product covered by this CVD Agreement is raw and refined sugar of all polarimeter readings derived from sugar cane or sugar beets. Merchandise covered by this CVD Agreement is typically imported under the following headings of the HTSUS: 1701.12.1000, 1701.12.5000, 1701.13.1000, 1701.13.5000, 1701.14.1020, 1701.14.1040, 1701.14.5000, 1701.91.1000, 1701.91.3000, 1701.99.1015, 1701.99.1017, 1701.99.1025, 1701.99.1050, 1701.99.5015, 1701.99.5017, 1701.99.5025, 1701.99.5050, and 1702.90.4000.
Commerce has conducted this review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(C) of the Act, which specifies that Commerce shall “review the current status of, and compliance with, any agreement by reason of which an investigation was suspended.” Pursuant to the CVD Agreement, the GOM agrees that subject merchandise is subject to export limits.
After reviewing the information received from the GOM and respondent companies in their questionnaire and supplemental questionnaire responses, we preliminarily determine that the GOM and respondent companies adhered to the terms of the CVD Agreement during the POR and that the CVD Agreement is functioning as intended. Further, we preliminarily determine that the CVD Agreement continued to meet the statutory requirements under sections 704(c) and (d) of the Act during the POR.
For a full description of the methodology underlying our conclusions,
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.309(c), interested parties may submit case briefs to Commerce no later than 21 days from the publication of these preliminary results in the
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to
Commerce intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, including the results of its analysis of the issues raised in any written briefs, not later than 120 days after the date of publication of this notice, pursuant to section 751(a)(3)(A) of the Act, unless extended.
We are issuing and publishing these results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
Pursuant to Section 6(c) of the Educational, Scientific and Cultural Materials Importation Act of 1966 (Pub. L. 89-651, as amended by Pub. L. 106-36; 80 Stat. 897; 15 CFR part 301), we invite comments on the question of whether instruments of equivalent scientific value, for the purposes for which the instruments shown below are intended to be used, are being manufactured in the United States.
Comments must comply with 15 CFR 301.5(a)(3) and (4) of the regulations and be postmarked on or before May 1, 2025. Address written comments to Statutory Import Programs Staff, Room 41006, U.S. Department of Commerce, Washington, DC 20230. Please also email a copy of those comments to
Docket Number: 25-001. Applicant: Harvard University, 17 Oxford Street. Jefferson 158, Cambridge, MA 02138. Instrument: 1847 nm Narrow Linewidth single frequency fiber laser. Manufacturer: Shanghai Precilaser Technology Co., Ltd., China. Intended Use: The instrument is intended to be used to explore quantum physics experiments at Harvard in the research laboratory in the Department of Physics. This research work is part of the training of graduate students, undergraduate students, and postdoctoral research fellows. Justification for Duty-Free Entry: According to the applicant, there are no instruments of the same general category manufactured in the United States. Application accepted by Commissioner of Customs: December 6, 2024.
Docket Number: 25-002. Applicant: University of Colorado JILA Department, Campus Box 440 UCB, JILA Building, Room S/175, Boulder, CO 80309. Instrument: Fiber Laser @1038.7 nm. Manufacturer: Shanghai Precilasers Technology Co., Ltd., China. Intended Use: The instrument will be intended to be used to lock our comb closely to the comb line corresponding to the 148.7nm thorium nuclear transition that is essential to our experiment. This will allow us to observe narrower linewidths in the experiment. The experiment is performing high-resolution spectroscopy on the nuclear clock transition in thorium-229 doped into a CaF2 crystal. Justification for Duty-Free Entry: According to the applicant, there are no instruments of the same general category manufactured in the United States. Application accepted by Commissioner of Customs: January 8, 2025.
Docket Number: 25-003. Applicant: California Institute of Technology, 1200 E California Boulevard, Pasadena, CA 91125. Instrument: Narrow-Linewidth Laser. Manufacturer: Shanghai Precilasers Technology Co., Ltd., China. Intended Use: The instrument is intended to be used for cooling of ytterbium atoms on the intercombination line to reach temperatures lower than 50 micro-Kelvin using frequency doubling of the high-power narrow-linewidth 1112 nm laser source. In addition, the narrow-linewidth laser will be used for fluorescence imaging as well as state preparation of the ytterbium atoms in one of two desired spin states. For all of these applications, the narrow linewidth as well as output power is crucial in terms of meeting the experimental objectives. Justification for Duty-Free Entry: According to the applicant, there are no instruments of the same general category manufactured in the United States. Application accepted by Commissioner of Customs: January 21, 2025.
Docket Number: 25-004. Applicant: University of Colorado JILA Department, Campus Box 440 UCB, JILA Building, Room S/175, Boulder, CO 80309. Instrument: High-power, narrow linewidth fiber laser. Manufacturer: Shanghai Precilasers Technology Co., Ltd, China. Intended Use: The instrument is intended to be used for two applications: (1) We want to use it as a laser source that we will double to the wavelength of 517nm, which will act as a novel transport system of ytterbium atoms between ultra high vacuum chambers. (2) We want to use the laser itself as a light source to trap ytterbium atoms—a novel alternative to our current trapping lasers in the visible range of light. To meet the needs of both, use cases, we require a narrow fiber laser combined with a high power CW fiber laser amplifier. Justification for Duty-Free Entry: According to the applicant, there are no instruments of the same general category manufactured in the United States. Application accepted by Commissioner of Customs: January 28, 2025.
Docket Number: 25-005. Applicant: University of Washington, 4300 Roosevelt Way NE, Roosevelt Commons West, Seattle, WA 98105-4718. Instrument: Femtosecond lasers with ultrahigh power. Manufacturer: ULTRONPHOTONICS CO., LTD., China. Intended Use: The instrument is intended to be used to study very thin materials, just one atom thick, called two-dimensional materials. These materials behave in very special ways that are different from the everyday bulk materials. The laser will also be used to study semiconductors to better understand how they process information and energy. The ultimate goal is to advance chip development and realize quantum computers, which can drive breakthroughs in many areas, particularly, in artificial intelligence (AI), that can also improve energy conversion efficiency and make electric vehicle batteries safer. Justification for Duty-Free Entry: According to the applicant, there are no instruments of the same general category manufactured in the United States. Application accepted by Commissioner of Customs: February 4, 2025.
Docket Number: 25-006. Applicant: Rice University, 6100 Main Street, MS-61, Houston, TX 77005. Instrument: Narrow linewidth laser. Manufacturer: Shanghai Precilasers Technology, Co., Ltd., China. Intended Use: The instrument is intended to be used for the 3.4um laser from Precilasers to drive an electronic transition across two metastable energy levels in the singly ionized Ytterbium ion (Yb
Docket Number: 25-007. Applicant: University of Colorado JILA Department, 1900 Colorado Avenue, Campus Box, 440 UCB, Boulder, CO 80309. Instrument: Integrated laser and amplification system. Manufacturer: Shanghai Precilasers Technology Co., Ltd., China. Intended Use: The instrument is intended to be used for a high-power, narrow linewidth laser to operate at 1111.6nm. The laser will be used as a seed, and fed to a doubler to get ~3W of 556nm light which we will use for the trapping and cooling of Yb atoms. Justification for Duty-Free Entry: According to the applicant, there are no instruments of the same general category manufactured in the United States. Application accepted by Commissioner of Customs: February 4, 2025.
Docket Number: 25-008. Applicant: Columbia University, Department of Physics, Pupin Hall, 538 W 120 Street, New York, NY 10027. Instrument: Difference Frequency Generation Fiber Laser, 2923 nm single pass (FL-SF-2923-0.1-CW). Manufacturer: PreciLasers, China. Intended Use: The instrument is intended to be used for driving the mid-infrared optical transition in Strontium-88 atom arrays in optical tweezer experiments. This mid-infrared transition in arrays will be used to excite the 3P2-3D3 transition, enabling the study of quantum simulation on the super-subradiance.
The objectives are to observe the evidence of super-subradiance in the strontium-88 arrays, which are required to observe the lifetime longer or shorter than spontaneous decay of single strontium-88 atom (57 kHz). The mid-infrared transition will excite 2923 nm laser and observe the lifetime of excited state via a state-detection method. Justification for Duty-Free Entry: According to the applicant, there are no instruments of the same general category manufactured in the United States. Application accepted by Commissioner of Customs: February 10, 2025.
Docket Number: 25-009. Applicant: Duke University, 324 Blackwell Street, Chesterfield Building, 701 W Main Street, Durham, NC 27701. Instrument: Narrow linewidth, 435nm laser. Manufacturer: Shanghai Precilasers Technology, Co., Ltd., China. Intended Use: The instrument is intended to be used to investigate quantum simulations using trapped Ytterbium ions, and the reduction of readout errors using this laser over current readout procedures and the use of this laser for the optical-metastable-ground qudit architecture. To employ the laser in achieving these objectives, it will be Pound-Drever-Hall locked to an optical cavity to stabilize its phase and then will be passed through an optical system to deliver light to the Ytterbium ions to drive Rabi flopping and/or induce AC Stark shifts. Justification for Duty-Free Entry: According to the applicant, there are no instruments of the same general category manufactured in the United States. Application accepted by Commissioner of Customs: March 3, 2025.
Docket Number: 25-010. Applicant: Salk Institute for Biological Studies, 10010 N Torrey Pines Road, La Jolla, CA 92037. Instrument: Supernova-3000 miniature three-photon microscope. Manufacturer: Nanjing Transcend Vivoscoper Bio-Technology Co., Ltd., China. Intended Use: The instrument is intended to be used for Biological studies and its Biophotonics Center which aims to uncover the cellular and molecular mechanisms underlying physiology and pathology, including Alzheimer's disease, neuropathic pain, multiple sclerosis, and spinal cord injury. The goal is to develop new or improved treatments for these diseases. All studies will be conducted using animal models for human diseases, especially mice. Justification for Duty-Free Entry: According to the applicant, there are no instruments of the same general category manufactured in the United States. Application accepted by Commissioner of Customs: January 21, 2025.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) preliminarily determines that the companies which Commerce granted a separate rate sold subject merchandise at prices below normal value (NV) during the period of review (POR) December 1, 2022, through November 30, 2023. Commerce also preliminarily determines that one company does not qualify for a separate rate, certain companies had no shipments of subject merchandise during the POR, and that it is appropriate to rescind this review with respect to certain companies. Commerce invites interested parties to comment on these preliminary results of review.
Applicable April 11, 2025.
Howard Smith, AD/CVD Operations, Office IV, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-5193.
In response to review requests from multiple parties, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.221(c)(1)(i), on February 8, 2024, Commerce initiated an administrative review of the antidumping duty (AD) order on crystalline silicon photovoltaic cells, whether or not assembled into modules (solar cells), from the People's Republic of China (China) with respect to 60 companies/company groupings covering the POR December 1, 2022, through
For details regarding the above events and other events that occurred subsequent to the initiation of the review,
The products covered by the
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(3), it is Commerce's practice to rescind an administrative review of an AD order where it concludes that there were no suspended entries of subject merchandise during the POR.
Commerce intends to rescind this review with respect to Red Sun Energy Long An Company Limited.
BYD (Shangluo) Industrial Co., Ltd. (BYD Shangluo), Jinko Solar,
However, subsequent to its no shipments claim, BYD Shangluo provided information that CBP is now suspending certain POR entries of BYD Shangluo's merchandise as subject merchandise.
Commerce is conducting this administrative review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(B) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Pursuant to section 776(a) and (b) of the Act, Commerce has preliminarily assigned a weighted average dumping margin to Sungold based upon total facts otherwise available with adverse inferences. For a full description of the methodology underlying the preliminary results of this review,
In all proceedings involving a non-market economy (NME) country, Commerce maintains a rebuttable presumption that all companies are subject to government control and, thus, should be assessed a single weighted-average dumping margin unless the company can affirmatively demonstrate an absence of government control, both in law (
However, Anji DaSol Solar Energy Science & Technology Co., Ltd. (Anji DaSol), which was selected as a mandatory respondent, failed to
The statute and Commerce's regulations do not address what dumping margin to apply to respondents that are not selected for individual examination in an administrative review pursuant to section 777A(c)(2) of the Act. Generally, Commerce looks to section 735(c)(5) of the Act, which provides instructions for calculating the all-others rate in an investigation, for guidance when calculating the dumping margin for respondents that are not individually examined in an administrative review. Under section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act, the all-others rate is normally “equal to the weighted average of the estimated weighted average dumping margins established for exporters and producers individually investigated, excluding any zero and
Commerce's policy regarding conditional review of the China-wide entity applies to this administrative review.
We preliminarily determine that the following estimated weighted-average dumping margins exist for the period December 1, 2022, through November 30, 2023:
Normally, Commerce discloses to parties to the proceeding the calculations performed in connection with a preliminary results of review within five days of any public announcement of the preliminary results or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of the notice of preliminary results of review in the
Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance. Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.309(c)(1)(ii), we have modified the deadline for interested parties to submit case briefs to Commerce to no later than 21 days after the date of publication of this notice.
As provided under 19 CFR 351.309(c)(2) and (d)(2), in prior proceedings we have encouraged interested parties to provide an executive summary of their brief that should be limited to five pages total, including footnotes. In this review, we instead request that interested parties provide at the beginning of their briefs a public, executive summary for each issue raised in their briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, filed electronically via ACCESS. Requests should contain: (1) the requesting party's name, address, and telephone number; (2) the number of individuals associated with the requesting party that will attend the hearing and whether any of those individuals is a foreign national; and (3) a list of the issues the party intends to discuss at the hearing. Issues raised in the hearing will be limited to those raised in the respective case briefs. An electronically filed hearing request must be received successfully in its entirety by Commerce's electronic records system, ACCESS, by 5 p.m. Eastern Time within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice in the
Upon issuance of the final results of this review, Commerce will determine, and CBP shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review.
If Commerce continues to base Sungold's weighted-average dumping margin upon total facts otherwise available, with adverse inferences, in the final results of this review, then Commerce will instruct CBP to assess antidumping duties at a rate equal to 238.95 percent to all the entries of subject merchandise produced and/or exported by Sungold.
However, if Sungold's final weighted-average dumping margin is not based on total facts otherwise available, with adverse inferences, Commerce intends to calculate importer/customer-specific assessment rates
Commerce will base the assessment rate of any company not selected for individual examination that qualifies for a separate rate on the weighted-average dumping margin that it calculates for Sungold in the final results of this review.
Pursuant to a refinement of its practice, Commerce will instruct CBP to liquidate entries of Sungold's subject merchandise for which sales were not reported in the U.S. sales database at the dumping margin assigned to the China-wide entity.
We intend to instruct CBP to liquidate entries of subject merchandise during the POR that were recorded under the company-specific case numbers of Jinko Solar, Longi Solar, and Zhejiang Aiko at the China-wide rate.
For the companies listed in Appendix II for which Commerce is rescinding this review, Commerce will instruct CBP to assess antidumping duties on all appropriate entries at a rate equal to the cash deposit of estimated antidumping duties required at the time of entry, or withdrawal from warehouse, for consumption, during the period December 1, 2022, through November 30, 2023. Commerce intends to issue assessment instructions to CBP regarding the companies listed in Appendix II no earlier than 35 days after the date of publication of this notice in the
The following cash deposit requirements will be in effect for all shipments of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on, or after, the date of publication of the notice of the final results of this administrative review in the
Commerce intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, including the results of its analysis of all issues raised in any written briefs, not later than 120 days after the publication of these preliminary results of review in the
This notice serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties and/or countervailing duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this POR. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in Commerce's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties and/or countervailing duties has occurred, and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties, and/or an increase in the amount of antidumping duties by the amount of the countervailing duties.
We are issuing and publishing these preliminary results of review in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.213 and 351.221(b)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) preliminarily finds that countervailable subsidies were provided to Zhejiang Dingli Machinery Co., Ltd. (Dingli), and its cross-owned affiliates, a producer and exporter of mobile access equipment and subassemblies thereof (mobile access equipment) from the People's Republic of China (China). The period of review (POR) is January 1, 2022, through December 31, 2022. In addition, Commerce is rescinding this review, in part, with respect to 31 companies. Interested parties are invited to comment on these preliminary results.
Applicable April 11, 2025.
Paul Senoyuit, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-6106.
On February 8, 2024, based on timely requests for review, Commerce published a notice of initiation of an administrative review of the countervailing duty order
For a complete description of the events that followed the initiation of this review,
The products covered by the
In accordance with 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), Commerce will rescind an administrative review, in whole or in part, if all parties that requested the review withdraw their requests within 90 days of the date of publication of the notice of initiation of the requested review. Commerce received a timely-filed withdrawal request with respect to 31 companies, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1). Because the withdrawal request was timely filed, and no other parties requested a review of these companies, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), Commerce is rescinding this review of the
Commerce is conducting this review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(A) of the Act. For each of the subsidy programs found countervailable, we preliminarily find that there is a subsidy,
As a result of this review, we preliminarily find that the following net subsidy rate exists for the POR, January 1, 2022, through December 31, 2022:
Commerce intends to disclose its calculations and analysis performed to interested parties for these preliminary results within five days of any public announcement or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance. Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.309(c)(1)(ii), we have modified the deadline for interested parties to submit case briefs to Commerce to no later than 21 days after the date of the publication of this notice.
As provided under 19 CFR 351.309(c)(2) and (d)(2), in prior proceedings we have encouraged interested parties to provide an executive summary of their briefs that should be limited to five pages total, including footnotes. In this review, we instead request that interested parties provide at the beginning of their briefs a public, executive summary for each issue raised in their briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain: (1) the party's name, address, and telephone number; (2) the number of participants; and (3) a list of issues to be discussed. Oral presentations at the hearing will be limited to issues raised in the briefs. If a request for a hearing is made, Commerce will inform parties of the scheduled date for the hearing.
Consistent with section 751(a)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.212(b)(2), upon issuance of the final results, Commerce shall determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, countervailing duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review.
For the companies listed in Appendix II for which the review is being rescinded, Commerce will instruct CBP to assess countervailing duties on all appropriate entries at a rate equal to the cash deposit of estimated countervailing duties required at the time of entry, or withdrawal from warehouse, for consumption, during the period January 1, 2022, through December 31, 2022, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(c)(1)(i). Commerce intends to issue rescission instructions to CBP no earlier than 35 days after the date of publication of this notice of rescission, in part, in the
Commerce intends to issue assessment instructions to CBP regarding Dingli, no earlier than 35 days after the date of publication of the final results of this review in the
Pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act, Commerce intends to instruct CBP to collect cash deposits of estimated countervailing duties in the amounts shown for the company listed above on shipments of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of the final results of this review. These cash deposit instructions, when imposed, shall remain in effect until further notice.
Unless the deadline is extended, we intend to issue the final results of this administrative review, which will include the results of our analysis of the issues raised in the case briefs, within 120 days of publication of these preliminary results in the
We are issuing and publishing these preliminary results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.221(b)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) preliminarily determines that countervailable subsidies were provided to Gujarat Fluorochemicals Limited (GFCL), a producer and exporter of granular polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) resin from India. The period of review (POR) is January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023. Interested parties are invited to comment on these preliminary results.
Applicable April 11, 2025.
Rachel Accorsi or Shane Subler, AD/CVD Operations, Office VIII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-3149 or (202) 482-6241, respectively.
On May 8, 2024, based on timely requests for review, Commerce initiated this administrative review of the countervailing duty order on PTFE resin from India.
For a complete description of the events that followed the initiation of this review,
The product covered by the
Commerce is conducting this administrative review in accordance with 751(a)(1)(A) of the Act. For each of the subsidy programs found countervailable, Commerce preliminarily determines that there is a subsidy,
As a result of this review, we preliminarily determine the following net countervailable subsidy rate exists for the POR, January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023:
Commerce
Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance. Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.309(c)(1)(ii), we have modified the deadline for interested parties to submit case briefs to Commerce to no later than 21 days after the date of the publication of this notice. Rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in the case briefs, may be filed not later than five days after the date for filing case briefs.
As provided under 19 CFR 351.309(c)(2) and (d)(2), in prior proceedings we have encouraged interested parties to provide an executive summary of their briefs that should be limited to five pages total, including footnotes. In this review, we instead request that interested parties provide at the beginning of their briefs a public, executive summary for each issue raised in their briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, filed electronically via ACCESS. Requests should contain: (1) the requesting party's name, address, and telephone number; (2) the number of individuals from the requesting party that will attend the hearing and whether any of those individuals is a foreign national; and (3) a list of the issues the party intends to discuss at the hearing. Issues raised in the hearing by a party will be limited to those raised in the party's case and rebuttal briefs. An electronically filed hearing request must be received successfully in its entirety by Commerce's electronic records system, ACCESS, by 5 p.m. Eastern Time within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice in the
Consistent with section 751(a)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.212(b)(2), upon issuance of the final results, Commerce shall determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, countervailing duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review.
Commerce intends to issue assessment instructions to CBP regarding GFCL no earlier than 35 days after the date of publication of the final results of this review in the
Pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act, Commerce intends to instruct CBP to collect cash deposits of estimated countervailing duties in the amount indicated above with regard to shipments of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of the final results of this review. For all non-reviewed firms, we will instruct CBP to continue to collect cash deposits of estimated countervailing duties at the most recent company-specific or all-others rate applicable to the company, as appropriate. These cash deposit instructions, when imposed, shall remain in effect until further notice.
We are issuing and publishing these preliminary results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.221(b)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Notice; correction.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) published notice in the
Zachary Shaykin, AD/CVD Operations, Office IV, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-2638.
On April 3, 2025, Commerce published in the
In the
Asha Spring and Engineering Company
This notice is issued and published in accordance with sections 703(f) and 777(i) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, and 19 CFR 351.205(c).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) preliminarily determines that Nippon Steel Corporation (NSC) sold non-oriented electrical steel (NOES) from Japan in the United States at prices below normal value (NV) during the period December 1, 2022, through November 30, 2023, (the POR). Commerce invites interested parties to comment on these preliminary results of review.
Applicable April 11, 2025.
Krisha Hill, AD/CVD Operations, Office IV, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-4037.
On December 3, 2014, Commerce published in the
On July 22, 2024, Commerce tolled certain deadlines in this administrative proceeding by seven days.
For a complete description of the events that followed the initiation of this administrative review,
The product covered by the
Commerce is conducting this administrative review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(B) of the Act. Pursuant to sections 776(a) and (b) of the Act, Commerce preliminarily assigned a weighted average dumping margin to NSC based on facts available with adverse inferences (AFA). For a full description of the methodology underlying the preliminary results of this review,
Commerce preliminarily determines that the following weighted-average dumping margin exists:
Normally, Commerce discloses to parties to the proceeding the calculations performed in connection with a preliminary results of review within five days of any public announcement of the preliminary results or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of the notice of preliminary results of review in the
Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance. Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.309(c)(1)(ii), we have modified the deadline for interested parties to submit case briefs to Commerce to no later than 21 days after the date of the publication of this notice.
As provided under 19 CFR 351.309(c)(2) and (d)(2), in prior proceedings we have encouraged interested parties to provide an executive summary of their brief that should be limited to five pages total, including footnotes. In this review, we instead request that interested parties provide, at the beginning of their briefs, a public executive summary for each issue raised in their briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, filed electronically via ACCESS. Requests should contain: (1) the requesting party's name, address, and telephone number; (2) the number of individuals from the requesting party that will attend the hearing and whether any of those individuals is a foreign national; and (3) a list of the issues the party intends to discuss at the hearing. Issues raised in the hearing by a party will be limited to those raised in the party's case and rebuttal briefs. An electronically filed hearing request must be received successfully in its entirety by Commerce's electronic records system, ACCESS, by 5 p.m. Eastern Time within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice in the
Upon issuance of the final results of this review, Commerce will determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review.
Commerce intends to issue assessment instructions to CBP no earlier than 35 days after the date of publication of the final results of this review in the
The following cash deposit requirements for estimated antidumping duties will be effective for all shipments of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on, or after, the date of publication of the notice of the final results of this administrative review in the
These cash deposit requirements, when imposed, shall remain in effect until further notice.
This notice serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this period of review. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in Commerce's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
We are issuing and publishing these preliminary results of administrative review in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.213(h) and 351.221(b)(4).
National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), Commerce.
Notice of information collection, request for comment.
The Department of Commerce, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on proposed, and continuing information collections, which helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment preceding submission of the collection to OMB.
To ensure consideration, comments regarding this proposed information collection must be received on or before June 10, 2025.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments by mail to Maureen O'Reilly, Management Analyst, NIST, 100 Bureau Drive, MS 1710, Gaithersburg, MD 20899 or by email to
Requests for additional information or specific questions related to collection activities should be directed to Jennifer Helgeson, Research Economist, NIST, 100 Bureau Drive, MS 8603, Gaithersburg, MD 20899, telephone 240-672-2575, or
Through acts such as the National Construction Safety Team (NCST) Act,
These data collection efforts may be either qualitative or quantitative in nature or may consist of mixed methods. Additionally, data may be collected via a variety of means, including but not limited to electronic or social media, direct or indirect observation (
This notice pertains to an extension of a previously approved submission. The NIST Engineering Laboratory utilizes this clearance to conduct research in support of topic areas of disaster and failure studies and community resilience (including studies of specific disaster events such as wildfire, urban fire, structure collapse, hurricane, earthquake, tornado, and flood events).
NIST requests maintaining the ICR Annual Response allotment at 25,000 Responses; and the ICR Annual Hours allotment at 18,000. NIST assures that no changes will be made to any of the individual information collection requests that have been approved for use.
NIST will collect this information by electronic means, when possible, as well as by mail, fax, telephone, technical discussions, and in-person interviews. NIST may also utilize observational techniques to collect this information.
We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department/Bureau to: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Evaluate ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you may ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notification of standard prices and fee percentage.
NMFS publishes the standard ex-vessel prices and fee percentage for cost recovery under the Central Gulf of Alaska (GOA) Rockfish Program (Rockfish Program). This action is intended to provide participants in a rockfish cooperative with the standard prices and fee percentage for the 2024 fishing year, which was authorized from May 1 through November 15. The fee percentage is 3.00 percent. The fee payments were due from each rockfish cooperative on or before February 15, 2025.
Valid on April 11, 2025.
Dana Whitely, 907-586-7231.
The rockfish fisheries are conducted in Federal waters near Kodiak, Alaska by trawl and longline vessels. Regulations implementing the Rockfish Program are set forth at 50 CFR part 679. Exclusive harvesting privileges are allocated as quota share under the Rockfish Program for rockfish primary and secondary species. Each year, NMFS issues rockfish primary and secondary species cooperative quota (CQ) to rockfish quota share holders to authorize harvest of these species. The rockfish primary species are northern rockfish, Pacific ocean perch, and dusky rockfish. The rockfish secondary species include Pacific cod, rougheye rockfish, shortraker rockfish, sablefish, and thornyhead rockfish. Rockfish
The Rockfish Program is a limited access privilege program established under the provisions of section 303A of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act). Sections 303A and 304(d) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act require NMFS to collect fees to recover the actual costs directly related to the management, data collection and analysis, and enforcement of any limited access privilege program. Therefore, NMFS is required to collect fees for the Rockfish Program under sections 303A and 304(d)(2) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act. Section 304(d)(2) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act also limits the cost recovery fee so that it may not exceed 3.00 percent of the ex-vessel value of the fish harvested under the Rockfish Program.
NMFS calculates cost recovery fees based on standard ex-vessel value prices, rather than actual price data provided by each rockfish CQ holder. Use of standard ex-vessel prices is allowed under sections 303A and 304(d)(2) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act. NMFS generates a standard ex-vessel price for each rockfish primary and secondary species on a monthly basis to determine the average price paid per pound for all shoreside processors receiving rockfish primary and secondary species CQ. Rockfish processors that receive and purchase landings of rockfish CQ groundfish must submit, on an annual basis, a volume and value report for the period May 1 to November 15 (50 CFR 679.5(r)(10)(ii)).
Regulations at 50 CFR 679.85(b)(2) require the Regional Administrator to publish rockfish standard ex-vessel values during the first quarter of each calendar year. The standard prices are described in U.S. dollars per pound for rockfish primary and secondary species CQ landings made during the previous year.
NMFS assesses a fee on the standard ex-vessel value of rockfish primary species and rockfish secondary species CQ harvested by rockfish cooperatives in the Central GOA and waters adjacent to the Central GOA when rockfish primary species caught by a cooperative are deducted from the Federal total allowable catch. The rockfish entry level longline fishery and trawl vessels that opt out of joining a cooperative are not subject to cost recovery fees because those participants do not receive rockfish CQ. Specific details on the Rockfish Program's cost recovery provision may be found in the implementing regulations set forth at 50 CFR 679.85.
NMFS informs, by letter, each rockfish cooperative of the fee percentage applied to the previous year's landings and the total amount due. Fees are due on or before February 15 of each year. Failure to pay on time would result in the permit holder's rockfish quota share becoming non-transferable, and the person would be ineligible to receive any additional rockfish quota share by transfer. In addition, cooperative members will not receive any rockfish CQ the following year until full payment of the fee is received by NMFS.
NMFS calculates and publishes in the
Using the fee percentage formula described above, the estimated percentage of program costs to value for the 2024 calendar year is 7.51 percent of the standard ex-vessel value; since this is higher than the statutory cap, the fee percentage is capped at 3.00 percent. Program costs for 2024 increased by 25.8 percent compared to 2023 costs and, the fishery value decreased approximately 39.9 percent resulting in a higher estimated fee percentage. Similar to 2023, the majority of 2024 costs were a result of direct personnel and contract costs.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; request for comments.
The Assistant Regional Administrator for Sustainable Fisheries, Greater Atlantic Region, NMFS, has made a preliminary determination that an Exempted Fishing Permit (EFP) application contains all of the required information and warrants further consideration. The EFP would allow federally permitted fishing vessels to fish outside fishery regulations in support of exempted fishing activities proposed by the Northeast Seafood Coalition, in partnership with the Massachusetts Division of Marine Fisheries (MA DMF). Regulations under the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act require publication of this notification to provide interested parties the opportunity to comment on applications for proposed EFPs.
Comments must be received on or before April 28, 2025.
You may submit written comments by email at
Christine Ford, Fishery Management Specialist,
The applicant submitted a complete application for an EFP to conduct commercial fishing activities that the regulations would otherwise restrict. This EFP would exempt the participating vessels from the following Federal regulations:
The purpose of this project is to evaluate the utility of seasonal cod protection closure areas, collect biological samples of cod, and support industry access to healthy groundfish stocks. Despite ongoing mortality and spawning closures, WGOM cod and other cod stocks remain in a depleted state. The applicant states that the closures are poorly aligned with the seasonal availability of non-cod stocks, which restricts opportunities to utilize available sector Annual Catch Entitlement (ACE) to target underutilized groundfish stocks.
Under this EFP, participating fishermen would conduct tows in targeted areas within spring GOM Cod Protection Closures I and II, where industry-based groundfish surveys previously demonstrated low spawning cod density compared to other portions of the closure. Vessels would submit trip notification to the Pre-Trip Notification System as usual. Vessels would only be allowed in targeted areas if they have a Northeast Fisheries Observer or At-Sea Monitor aboard, or participate in an approved electronic monitoring program for the trip. Tows conducted within the targeted areas would be restricted to remain inside the area for the entire tow; however, vessels could make tows both inside and outside the target area on the same trip. Upon departure for a trip, vessels would notify a MA DMF project coordinator about intent to fish in the target areas.
During all trips under this EFP, cod of all sizes caught in each tow conducted within the target areas would be kept round (not gutted), and isolated in separate totes with sealed and zip-tied lids. Cod caught in tows conducted outside the target areas would be handled consistent with standard fishing practices. Upon returning from a trip, vessels would contact MA DMF to meet them to sample target area-caught cod for sex and maturity. Additional sampling would be conducted to support the Northeast Fisheries Science Center conversion factor study. All catch would be accounted for consistent with standard fishing activities and applicable ACE, and legal size catch would be sold.
If MA DMF detects spawning cod caught in tows within the target areas to be at or above proposed thresholds, participating vessels would no longer be able to fish under the EFP. MA DMF defines spawning cod as females with clear eggs or males with running milt. The proposed thresholds are more than five spawning cod in one tow or more than 18 percent of tows within a 7-day consecutive fishing period contain spawning cod. MA DMF would immediately notify participating sector managers and National Marine Fisheries Service if a cod spawning threshold has been reached.
If approved, the applicant may request minor modifications and extensions to the EFP throughout the year. EFP modifications and extensions may be granted without further notice if they are deemed essential to facilitate completion of the proposed research and have minimal impacts that do not change the scope or impact of the initially approved EFP request. Any fishing activity conducted outside the scope of the exempted fishing activity would be prohibited.
United States Patent and Trademark Office, Department of Commerce.
Notice of information collection; request for comments.
The United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice. The USPTO invites comments on the information collection renewal of 0651-0066 (Patents for Humanity Program and Trademarks for Humanity Program), which helps the USPTO assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the reporting burden on the public. Public comments were previously requested via the
To ensure consideration, you must submit comments regarding this information collection on or before May 12, 2025.
Written comments and recommendations for this information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website,
This information collection request may be viewed at
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The Patents for Humanity Program provides winners with recognition and an acceleration certificate for one future patent matter. The applications that are chosen for an award will receive a certificate redeemable to accelerate select matters before the USPTO. The certificates can be redeemed to accelerate one of the following matters:
• an
• a patent application, including one appeal to the PTAB from that application;
• or an appeal to the PTAB of a claim twice rejected in a patent application or reissue application or finally rejected in an
The Patents for Humanity Act of 2022 codified the Patents for Humanity program to be a permanent program at the USPTO that will run biennially. Finally, due to the January 2021 passage of the Patents for Humanity Program Improvement Act, winners of the Patents for Humanity Program are now able to transfer their certificates to third parties, including by sale.
In 2023, the USPTO added the Trademarks for Humanity Program
Applications may be submitted via an online portal, accessible from the Patents for Humanity and Trademarks for Humanity main web pages. Applicants for both programs must provide contact information for the USPTO to notify them regarding their award status. A panel of independent judges evaluate the applications and send the top-scoring ones to reviewers from participating federal agencies to recommend award recipients. Awards are public and recipients receive recognition for their humanitarian efforts from the USPTO and executive branch leadership. Winners of both the Patents for Humanity Program and the Trademarks for Humanity Program are invited to participate in an awards ceremony.
This information collection covers the two application forms for the Patents for Humanity Program and the single application form for the Trademarks for Humanity Program. This information collection also covers the information gathered in the Patents for Humanity certification and request to redeem an acceleration certificate, the petition to extend an acceleration certificate redemption beyond 12 months, as well as the transfer of an award certificate.
To account for the recent addition of the Trademarks for Humanity Program, the name of this information collection has been changed from “Patents for Humanity Program” to “Patents for Humanity Program and Trademarks for Humanity Program.” Also, the frequency of the Trademarks for Humanity program has been adjusted from biennially to `on occasion.' Additionally, the form PTO/SB/431, “Petition to Extend the Redemption Period of a Patents for Humanity Program Acceleration Certificate,” was
Per 45 CFR chapter XXI, § 2102.3, the next meeting of the U.S. Commission of Fine Arts is scheduled for April 17, 2025 at 9 a.m. and will be held via online videoconference. Items of discussion may include buildings, infrastructure, parks, memorials, and public art.
Draft agendas, the link to register for the online public meeting, and additional information regarding the Commission are available on our website:
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.
Deletions from the Procurement List.
This action delete product(s) and service(s) from the Procurement List that were furnished by nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 355 E Street SW, Suite 325, Washington, DC 20024.
Michael R. Jurkowski, Telephone: (703) 489-1322 or email
On March 7, 2025 (90 FR 11521), the Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled published notice of proposed deletions from the Procurement List. This notice is published pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 8503 (a)(2) and 41 CFR 51-2.3.
After consideration of the relevant matter presented, the Committee has determined that the product(s) and service(s) listed below are no longer suitable for procurement by the Federal Government under 41 U.S.C. 8501-8506 and 41 CFR 51-2.4.
I certify that the following action will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. The major factors considered for this certification were:
1. The action will not result in additional reporting, recordkeeping or other compliance requirements for small entities.
2. The action may result in authorizing small entities to furnish the product(s) and service(s) to the Government.
3. There are no known regulatory alternatives which would accomplish the objectives of the Javits-Wagner-O'Day Act (41 U.S.C. 8501-8506) in connection with the product(s) and service(s) deleted from the Procurement List.
Accordingly, the following product(s) and service(s) are deleted from the Procurement List:
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.
Proposed deletions from the Procurement List.
The Committee is proposing to delete product(s) and service(s) from the Procurement List that were furnished by nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities.
Comments must be received on or before: May 11, 2025.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 355 E Street SW, Suite 325, Washington, DC 20024.
For further information or to submit comments contact: Michael R. Jurkowski, telephone: (703) 489-1322, or email
This notice is published pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 8503(a)(2) and 41 CFR 51-2.3. Its purpose is to provide interested persons an opportunity to submit comments on the proposed actions.
The following product(s) and service(s) are proposed for deletion from the Procurement List:
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission.
Notice of information collection and request for comments.
In compliance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) is soliciting public comment on a renewal of currently approved information collection, FERC-725D (Facilities Design, Connections and Maintenance Reliability Standards). This notice for the transfer of FAC-003-5 (725M) and FAC-008-5 (725A) to 725D.
Comments on the collection of information are due May 12, 2025.
Send written comments on FERC-725D to OMB through
Please submit copies of your comments to the Commission. You may submit copies of your comments (identified by Docket No. IC25-8-000) by one of the following methods: Electronic filing through
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• For those unable to file electronically, comments may be filed by USPS mail or by other delivery methods:
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Kayla Williams may be reached by email at
The information collected by FERC-725D is required to implement the statutory provisions of section 215 of the Federal Power Act (FPA) (16 U.S.C. 824c). Pursuant to section 215 of the Federal Power Act (FPA),
“Identified by the Planning Coordinator or Transmission Planner, per its Planning Assessment of the Near‐Term Transmission Planning Horizon as a Facility that if lost or degraded are expected to result in instances of instability, Cascading, or uncontrolled separation that adversely impacts the reliability of the Bulk Electric System for a planning event.”
Reliability Standard FAC-008-5 ensures that Facility Ratings used in the reliable planning and operation of the Bulk Electric System (BES) are determined based on technically sound principles. A Facility Rating is essential for the determination of System Operating Limits.
Take notice that the commission received the following accounting Request filings:
Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organizations, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and
Take notice that on April 2, 2025, Stingray Pipeline Company, L.L.C. (Stingray) requested that the Commission grant an extension of time, until September 30, 2027, to complete abandonment activities for its West Cameron 509 System and Mainline Facilities Abandonment (Abandonments) located in federal waters offshore, Louisiana and in Cameron Parish, Louisiana, as authorized in the Order Authorizing Abandonments and Determining Jurisdictional Status of Facilities (Order).
Stingray states that there have been delays in completing the Abandonments due to a number of factors, including litigation. Occidental Petroleum Corporation informed Stingray that it intends to abandon its production but has not yet provided its consent so that Stingray can abandon certain of its facilities. Further, limited availability of the necessary vessels and crew to undertake the abandonment work for the West Cameron 509 System, as well as the time limitation under which the work can be completed due to weather conditions, have impacted the schedule. Moreover, the abandonment and conversion of the Mainline Facilities to crude oil to supply the Blue Marlin Offshore Port LLC (BMOP) will not take place until BMOP's receipt of the requisite license from the Maritime Administration of the U.S. Department of Transportation and making its final investment decisions, both anticipated in 2026.
This notice establishes a 15-calendar day intervention and comment period deadline. Any person wishing to comment on Stingray's request for an extension of time may do so. No reply comments or answers will be considered. If you wish to obtain legal status by becoming a party to the proceedings for this request, you should, on or before the comment date stated below, file a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.214 or 385.211) and the Regulations under the Natural Gas Act (NGA) (18 CFR 157.10).
As a matter of practice, the Commission itself generally acts on requests for extensions of time to complete construction for NGA facilities when such requests are contested before order issuance. For those extension requests that are contested,
In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's website during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments in lieu of paper using the “eFile” link at
The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organizations, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission.
Notice of information collection and request for comments.
In compliance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) is soliciting public comment on proposed revisions of the currently approved information collection, FERC-725R, (Mandatory Reliability Standards: BAL Reliability Standards) and FERC-725A, Mandatory Reliability Standards for the Bulk-Power System: TOP and INT Standards.
Comments on the collection of information are due June 10, 2025.
You may submit copies of your comments (identified by Docket No. RD25-5-000) by one of the following methods:
Electronic filing through
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• For those unable to file electronically, comments may be filed by USPS mail or by hand (including courier) delivery:
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Kayla Williams may be reached by email at
The Commission bases its paperwork burden estimates on the additional paperwork burden presented by the proposed the Commission's regulations,
NERC explains “the purpose of proposed Reliability Standard BAL-007-1 is to identify and minimize the risks of forecasted Energy Emergencies in the operations planning time horizon by analyzing the expected resource mix availability.”
The annual
The annual cost burden is $164,519.76 for proposed Reliability Standard BAL-007-1, and $27,419.96 for proposed Reliability Standard TOP-003-7.
Interested persons may obtain information on the reporting requirements by contacting the following: Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426; Attention: Kayla Williams, Office of the Executive Director, email:
For submitting comments concerning the collection(s) of information and the associated burden estimate(s), please send your comments to the Commission, and to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Washington, DC 20503 [Attention: Desk Officer for the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, phone: (202) 395-4638, fax: (202) 395-7285]. For security reasons, comments to OMB should be submitted by email to:
In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
From the Commission's Home Page on the internet, this information is available on eLibrary. The full text of this document is available on eLibrary in PDF and Microsoft Word format for viewing, printing, and/or downloading. To access this document in eLibrary, type the docket number excluding the last three digits of this document in the docket number field.
User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's website during normal business hours from the Commission's Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at
All submissions must be formatted and filed in accordance with submission guidelines at:
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organizations, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or
2 p.m., Tuesday, May 6, 2025.
The Richard V. Backley Hearing Room, Room 511, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite 504 North, Washington, DC 20004 (enter from F Street entrance).
Open.
The Commission will consider and act upon the following in open session:
Any person attending this meeting who requires special accessibility features and/or auxiliary aids, such as sign language interpreters, must inform the Commission in advance of those needs. Subject to 29 CFR 2706.150(a)(3) and 2706.160(d).
Emogene Johnson (202) 434-9935/(202) 708-9300 for TDD Relay/1-800-877-8339 for toll free.
1-(866) 236-7472. Passcode: 678-100.
10 a.m., Tuesday, May 6, 2025.
The Richard V. Backley Hearing Room, Room 511, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Suite 504 North, Washington, DC 20004 (enter from F Street entrance).
Open.
The Commission will hear oral argument in the matter
Any person attending this meeting who requires special accessibility features and/or auxiliary aids, such as sign language interpreters, must inform the Commission in advance of those needs. Subject to 29 CFR 2706.150(a)(3) and 2706.160(d).
Emogene Johnson (202) 434-9935/(202) 708-9300 for TDD Relay/1-800-877-8339 for toll free.
1-(866) 236-7472. Passcode: 678-100.
Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, and the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) regulations, DoD, GSA, and NASA invite the public to comment on an extension concerning change order accounting and notification of changes. DoD, GSA, and NASA invite comments on: whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of Federal Government acquisitions, including whether the information will have practical utility; the accuracy of the estimate of the burden of the proposed information collection; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways to minimize the burden of the information collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. OMB has approved this information collection for use through August 31, 2025. DoD, GSA, and NASA propose that OMB extend its approval for use for three additional years beyond the current expiration date.
DoD, GSA, and NASA will consider all comments received by June 10, 2025.
DoD, GSA, and NASA invite interested persons to submit comments on this collection through
9000-0026, Change Order Accounting and Notification of Changes.
This clearance covers the information that contractors must submit to comply with the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) part 43 requirements as stated in the following clauses:
(1) The date, nature, and circumstances of the conduct regarded as a change;
(2) The name, function, and activity of each Government individual and Contractor official or employee involved in or knowledgeable about such conduct;
(3) The identification of any documents and the substance of any oral communication involved in such conduct;
(4) In the instance of alleged acceleration of scheduled performance or delivery, the basis upon which it arose;
(5) The particular elements of contract performance for which the Contractor may seek an equitable adjustment under this clause, including—
(i) What line items have been or may be affected by the alleged change;
(ii) What labor or materials or both have been or may be added, deleted, or wasted by the alleged change;
(iii) To the extent practicable, what delay and disruption in the manner and sequence of performance and effect on continued performance have been or may be caused by the alleged change;
(iv) What adjustments to contract price, delivery schedule, and other provisions affected by the alleged change are estimated; and
(6) The Contractor's estimate of the time by which the Government must respond to the Contractor's notice to minimize cost, delay or disruption of performance.
Contracting officers use the notices and information provided by contractors in response to a change notice to negotiate an equitable adjustment under the contract that may result from the change order.
Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, and the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) regulations, DoD, GSA, and NASA invite the public to comment on an extension concerning extraordinary contractual action requests. DoD, GSA, and NASA invite comments on: whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of Federal Government acquisitions, including whether the information will have practical utility; the accuracy of the estimate of the burden of the proposed information collection; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways to minimize the burden of the information collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. OMB has approved this information collection for use through August 31, 2025. DoD, GSA, and NASA propose that OMB extend its approval for use for three additional years beyond the current expiration date.
DoD, GSA, and NASA will consider all comments received by June 10, 2025.
DoD, GSA, and NASA invite interested persons to submit comments on this collection through
9000-0029, Extraordinary Contractual Action Requests.
This clearance covers the information that contractors must submit to comply with the following Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) requirements:
(1) The precise adjustment requested;
(2) The essential facts, summarized chronologically in narrative form;
(3) The contractor's conclusions based on these facts, showing, in terms of the considerations set forth in FAR 50.103-1 and 50.103-2, when the contractor considers itself entitled to the adjustment; and
(4) Whether or not—
(i) All obligations under the contracts involved have been discharged;
(ii) Final payment under the contracts involved has been made;
(iii) Any proceeds from the request will be subject to assignment or other transfer, and to whom; and
(iv) The contractor has sought the same, or a similar or related, adjustment from the Government Accountability Office or any other part of the Government, or anticipates doing so.
If the request exceeds the simplified acquisition threshold, the contractor must certify that the request is made in good faith and the data are accurate and complete.
The Government uses this information to determine if relief can be granted to the contractor and to determine the appropriate type and amount of relief.
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Latarsha J. Carithers, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Office of Scientific Review, National Institute of General Medical Sciences, National Institutes of Health, 45 Center Drive, Room 3AN12C, Bethesda, Maryland 20892, 301-594-4859,
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the National Advisory Council on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism, April 17, 11:00 a.m. to April 17, 2025, 12:30 p.m., National Institutes of Health, National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism, 6700B Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20817 which was published in the
This notice is being amended to change the start time from 11:00 a.m. to 12:30 p.m. and the end time from 12:30 p.m. to 2:00 p.m. The meeting will now be held from 12:30 p.m. to 2:00 p.m. The meeting is closed to the public.
Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Notice is hereby given of the cancellation of the Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel RFA-OD-22-028, May 01, 2025, 9:30 a.m. to May 02, 2025, 6:30 p.m., National
This notice is being amended to announce that the meeting is cancelled.
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel Special Topics in Brain and Neural Injury, May 06, 2025, 9 a.m. to May 6, 2025, 7 p.m., National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD, 20892 which was published in the
This meeting is being amended to change the contact person from Sulagna Banerjee to Maurizio Grimaldi, Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892,
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of receipt of permit applications; request for comments.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, have received applications for permits to conduct scientific research to promote conservation or other activities intended to enhance the propagation or survival of endangered or threatened species under the Endangered Species Act. We invite local, State and Federal agencies, Tribes, and the public to comment on these applications. Before issuing the requested permits, we will take into consideration any information that we receive during the public comment period.
We must receive any written comments on or before May 12, 2025.
Use one of the following methods to request documents or submit comments. Requests and comments should specify the applicant's name and application number (
•
•
Abby Goldstein, 413-253-8212 (phone), or
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, invite local, State and Federal agencies, Tribes, and the public to review and comment on applications we have received for permits under section 10(a)(1)(A) of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (ESA; 16 U.S.C. 1531
With some exceptions, the ESA prohibits activities that constitute take of listed species, unless a Federal permit is issued that allows such activity. The ESA's definition of “take” includes such activities as pursuing, harassing, trapping, capturing, or collecting, in addition to hunting, shooting, harming, wounding, or killing.
A recovery permit issued by us under section 10(a)(1)(A) of the ESA authorizes the permittee to conduct activities constituting or resulting in take of endangered or threatened species for scientific purposes that promote recovery or for enhancement of propagation or survival of the species. Our regulations implementing section 10(a)(1)(A) for these permits are found at 50 CFR 17.22 for endangered wildlife species, 50 CFR 17.32 for threatened wildlife species, 50 CFR 17.62 for endangered plant species, and 50 CFR 17.72 for threatened plant species.
In accordance with the ESA, we invite local, State, and Federal agencies; Tribes; and the public to submit written data, views, or arguments with respect to the applications in table 1.
Written comments we receive become part of the administrative record associated with this action. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can request in your comment that we withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so. Moreover, all submissions from organizations or businesses, and from individuals identifying themselves as representatives or officials of organizations or businesses, will be made available for public disclosure in their entirety.
If we decide to issue permits to the applicants listed in this notice, we will publish a notice in the
Section 10(c) of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
U.S. Geological Survey, Department of the Interior.
Notice of Information Collection; request for comment.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the U.S. Geological Survey (USGS) is proposing to renew an information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before May 12, 2025.
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection request (ICR) should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
You may submit comments by one of the following methods:
David Ziolkowski by email at
In accordance with the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501
A
As part of our continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burdens, we are again soliciting comments from the public and other federal agencies on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following:
(1) Whether or not the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) How the agency might minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personally identifiable information (PII) in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your PII—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your PII from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, not is a person is required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The authority for this action is the PRA of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Public land order.
This Public Land Order (PLO) extends the duration of the withdrawal created by PLO No. 6591, Parcel “B,” as extended by PLO No. 7630, for an additional 20-year period. These public lands were withdrawn from settlement, sale, location, or entry under the general land laws, including the United States mining laws, but not from leasing under the mineral leasing laws, and reserved for use by the United States Air Force to protect a communication site and support facilities used for the safe and secure operation of national defense activities. This extension is necessary to continue the protection of a communications site and support facilities used for the safe and secure operation of national defense activities on the Nevada Test and Training Range (NTTR).
This PLO takes effect on April 11, 2025.
Edison Garcia, Land Law Examiner, Nevada State Office, at (775) 861-6530, email:
The purpose for which the withdrawal was first made requires this extension to protect a communication site and support facilities used for the safe and secure operation of national defense activities on the NTTR. The land withdrawn by PLO No. 6591, Parcel “B,” on March 19, 1985 (50 FR 10965-10966), and serialized as N-35951 (NVNV106083139) are located on Halligan Mesa in central Nye County, 77 miles east of Tonopah, Nevada. In 2005, PLO No. 7630 (70 FR 18424) extended the withdrawal for an additional 20-year period. Public access to the land has been restricted since the 1960s.
By virtue of the authority vested in the Secretary of the Interior by section 204(f) of the Federal Land Policy and Management Act of 1976, 43 U.S.C. 1714 (f), it is ordered as follows:
1. Subject to valid existing rights, PLO No. 6591 (50 FR 10965-10966 (1985)),
2. This withdrawal will expire 20 years from the effective date of this Order, unless, as a result of a review conducted before the expiration date pursuant to section 204(f) of the Federal Land Policy and Management Act of 1976, 43 U.S.C. 1714(f), the Secretary determines that the withdrawal shall be further extended.
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice of rescission.
The Bureau of Land Management (BLM) is rescinding its notice to prepare an environmental impact statement (EIS) for the oil and gas leasing decisions in seven States from February 2015 to December 2020. The BLM announced its intent to prepare the EIS in a notice that published in the
Janna Simonsen, Project Lead, or John Ajak, Division Chief, via email at bllm_hq_litigated
Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services for contacting the BLM. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.
The notice of intent to prepare an EIS published in the
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University (PMAE) intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects, sacred objects, and/or objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after May 12, 2025.
Deanna Byrd, Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University, 11 Divinity Avenue, Cambridge, MA 02138, telephone (617) 384-0672, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the PMAE, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A total of 119 cultural items have been requested for repatriation. One cultural item is both an unassociated funerary object and a sacred object.
The one unassociated funerary object is one lot of hair ornaments collected by William Radcliff Morris between 1878 and 1893 from an unspecified location within the United States. Morris's widow sold the cultural items to William H. Claflin, Jr., in 1930, and Claflin bequeathed them to the PMAE in 1985.
The one cultural item determined to be an unassociated funerary object and a sacred object is one lot of shirts collected by an unknown person at an unknown date from an unspecified location within the United States. William H. Claflin, Jr., acquired the cultural items at an unknown date and bequeathed them to the PMAE in 1985.
The 56 sacred objects are described as follows:
The one sacred object is one lot of pipes collected by Anson H. Currier from an unknown location in MT between 1882 and 1901 and sold by Currier to the PMAE in 1901.
The five sacred objects are one lot of women's bags, one lot of neck ornaments, one lot of hair ornaments, one lot of carved horn spoons, and one lot of beaded war shirts donated by Lewis Hobart Farlow to the PMAE between 1903 and 1913. Farlow acquired the cultural items from unknown collectors, William Radcliff Morris, Grace A. Nicholson, and Sam B. Dickens at various times between 1891 and 1913.
The one sacred object is one lot of hair ornaments collected by an unknown person at an unknown date from Miles City, Custer County, MT, and sold to the PMAE by an unknown person in 1903.
The one sacred object is one lot of horn spoons collected by an unknown person at an unknown date from an unknown location within the United States and donated to the PMAE by Mrs. Charles Fairchild in 1914.
The one sacred object is one lot of rattles collected by an unknown person at an unknown date from an unknown location in North America and sold to the PMAE by an unknown person in 1928.
The one sacred object is one lot of clubs collected by Beatrice Barrington at an unknown date from an unknown
The two sacred objects are one lot of horn spoons and one lot of beaded umbilical cord containers collected by Charles Alexander Eastman at an unknown date from the “Central Plains” or “Dakota” and sold to the PMAE by Dora W. Eastman in 1933.
The one sacred object is one lot of saddle blankets collected by Amelia Elizabeth White at an unknown date from an unknown location in North America and donated to PMAE by White in 1937.
The two sacred objects are one chief's shirt trimmed with locks of human hair and one lot of coats or dresses trimmed with dentalium and bells from the “Plains” collected by Theodore Jewett Eastman and Col. S.J. Lockwood between 1888 and 1916 and donated to the PMAE by Mrs. Henry H. Richardson in 1938.
The two sacred objects are one lot of painted cases and one lot of pipe cleaners or tampers collected by Henry M. Wheelwright in 1901 from unknown locations in North America and donated to the PMAE by Mrs. Ruth E. Wheelwright through Henry Wheelwright's wife in 1939.
The six sacred objects are one lot of bags, one lot of club sticks, one lot of beaded female amulets, one lot of rattles, one lot of pipe bowls, and one lot of ladles collected by Ernest T. Jackson between 1872 and 1902 and donated to the PMAE by Jackson and Patrick T. Jackson in 1940 and 1946.
The one sacred object is one lot of saddle bags collected by David I. Bushnell, Jr., between 1899 and 1939 from the “Plains” and donated to the PMAE by Bushnell's estate in 1941.
The one sacred object is one lot of medicine bags collected by Daniel Dorchester between 1889 and 1894 from an unknown location in North America and donated to the PMAE by Cleora Hatch in 1944.
The three sacred objects are one lot of horn spoons, one lot of women's bags, and one lot of pipe bowls collected by William E. Jones before 1909 from the “Plains” and donated to the PMAE by Caroline W. Andrus in 1947. Jones acquired the horn spoons from H.W. Ludlow about 1880.
The one sacred object is one lot of pipe bags collected by H.E. Burnham at an unknown date from the “Plains” and donated to the PMAE by Mrs. Arthur O. Robers in 1949.
The one sacred object is one lot of knives in beaded sheaths collected by Rosamund Lamb in the early 1900s from the “Plains” and donated by Lamb to the PMAE in 1955.
The three sacred objects are one lot of pouches, one lot of beaded whips, and one lot of drumsticks collected by Amelia Elizabeth White at an unknown date from the “Plains” and donated to the PMAE by William White Howells in 1961.
The two sacred objects are one lot of medicine drums and rattles and one lot of pipes collected by A.B. Campbell and E. Woodruff of the United States Army at unknown dates from unknown locations in North America and donated to the PMAE by the United States Surgeon General's Office in 1874.
The one sacred object is one bison robe collected by General H.A. Morrow at an unknown date from the upper Missouri River in the United States or Canada and donated to the PMAE by Morrow in 1874.
The two sacred objects are one lot of rattles and one lot of bows and arrows collected from either the United States or Canada by an unknown person and James P. Kimball at unknown dates and donated to the PMAE by the Army Medical Museum in 1876.
The two sacred objects are one lot of bags and one lot of stone-headed clubs collected by an unknown person in the 1920s from the “Plains” and donated to the PMAE by Douglas S. Dillman in 1970.
The one sacred object is one lot of beaded awl cases collected by William H. Best between 1885 and 1895 from the “Plains,” likely North Dakota, and donated to the PMAE in 1971 by Mrs. William M. Milton and Mrs. W.S. MacDonald.
The 12 sacred objects are one lot of horn spoons, one lot of dolls, one lot of pouches and bags (including strike-a-light pouches, saddle bags, parfleche, and medicine bags), one lot of umbilical amulets, one lot of clothing and ornaments (including bonnets, shirts, shirt bands, leggings, hairpipe breastplates, and hair ornaments), one lot of whipsticks, one lot of knife sheaths, one lot of decorative silverware, one lot of eagle wing fans, one lot of archery items (quivers, bows, bow cases, and arrows), one lot of blanket strips and saddle blankets, and one lot of needlecases collected by William Radcliff Morris between 1878 and 1893 from unspecified locations within the United States. Morris's widow sold the cultural items to William H. Claflin, Jr., in 1930, and Claflin bequeathed the cultural items to the PMAE in 1985. Morris identified one horn spoon as previously owned by a woman identified as “Comes-Back-at-Night,” wife of Broken Arm. Morris identified two dolls, one quilled pouch, one parfleche bag, and one beaded lizard-shaped umbilical amulet as being from Chief Spotted Tail and his family. Morris identified one eagle wing fan as previously owned by a man variously identified as “Broken Arm” and “Broken Arrow.” Morris identified one quilled blanket strip as previously owned by a man identified as “Shot-in-the-Eye.”
The one sacred object is one lot of beaded belts collected by William R. Wright between 1950 and 1993 from an unknown location in the United States and donated to the PMAE by Wright in 1995.
The one sacred object is one lot of beaded ornaments collected by an unknown person at an unknown date from an unknown location in North America and donated to the PMAE by an unknown person at an unknown date.
The one sacred object is one lot of hairpipe breastplates and breastplate elements collected by William Henry Bisbee at an unknown date from the “Central Plains;” Bisbee gave the cultural items to Latimer Willis Ballou at an unknown date, who gave them to Putnam Ballou McDowell in the late 1950s, who finally donated them to the PMAE in 2004.
The 49 objects of cultural patrimony are described as follows:
The one object of cultural patrimony is one lot of women's garments collected by an unknown person at an unknown date from an unknown location in North America and donated to the PMAE by Mary Farlow Linder in 1902.
The four objects of cultural patrimony are one lot of breast and hairpipe plates, one lot of beaded cradles and cradle hoods, one lot of bags (including pipe and tobacco bags), and one lot of necklaces collected by unknown people, Reverend J.W. Millar, Mr. Raymond, and Grace A. Nicholson at between 1897 and 1908 from mostly unspecified locations within North America and donated to the PMAE by Lewis Hobart Farlow between 1902 and 1909.
The one object of cultural patrimony is one lot of moccasins collected by an unknown person at an unknown date from an unknown location in North America and donated to the PMAE by Sarah Hammond Palfrey in 1914.
The one object of cultural patrimony is one lot of pipes and pipe bowls collected by an unknown person at an unknown date from an unknown location in North America and donated to the PMAE by Emma Abbot Atwood in 1916.
The one object of cultural patrimony is one lot of leggings collected by an
The one object of cultural patrimony is one lot of moccasins collected by an unknown person at an unknown date from the “Plains” and donated to the PMAE by Lombard C. Jones in 1926.
The one object of cultural patrimony is one lot of miniature beaded baby carriers collected by Charles Alexander Eastman at an unknown date from the “Central Plains” or “Dakota” and sold to the PMAE by Dora W. Eastman in 1933.
The one object of cultural patrimony is one lot of beaded cradles collected by Amelia Elizabeth White from the “Plains” at an unknown date and donated to the PMAE by White in 1937.
The two objects of cultural patrimony are one lot of tobacco pouches and one lot of miniature moccasins collected by the brothers of Mrs. Joseph M. Robinson between 1883 and 1925 from unknown locations in North America and donated to the PMAE by Robinson in 1939.
The seven objects of cultural patrimony are one lot of pouches, one lot of quilled bridle cheek straps, one lot of cradles, one lot of headdresses, one lot of dolls in cradles, one lot of moccasins, and one lot of clubs or dance sticks collected by Ernest T. Jackson from locations in North America between 1872 and 1902 and donated to the PMAE by Jackson and Patrick T. Jackson in 1940 and 1946.
The one object of cultural patrimony is one lot of moccasins collected by David I. Bushnell, Jr., between 1899 and 1939 from the “Plains” and donated to the PMAE by Bushnell's estate in 1941.
The one object of cultural patrimony is one lot of painted parfleche collected by an unknown person at an unknown date from an unknown location in the United States and donated to the PMAE by an unknown person in 1942.
The one object of cultural patrimony is one lot of dolls collected by Alexander S. Porter in 1912 from the “Plains” and donated to the PMAE by Frances R. Porter and Mrs. William Stanley Parker in 1942.
The one object of cultural patrimony is one lot of beaded knife cases collected by Daniel Dorchester between 1889 and 1894 from an unknown location in North America and donated to the PMAE by Cleora Hatch in 1944.
The one object of cultural patrimony is one lot of bags and pouches collected by William E. Jones before 1909 from the “Central Plains” and donated to the PMAE by Caroline W. Andrus in 1947.
The three objects of cultural patrimony are one lot of gloves, one lot of lariats, and one lot of beaded cradles collected by H.E. Burnham at an unknown date from the “Plains” and donated to the PMAE by Mrs. Arthur O. Roberts in 1949.
The one object of cultural patrimony is one lot of women's dresses with dentalium shells collected by an unknown person at an unknown date from the “Central Plains” and donated to the Denver Art Museum at an unknown date; the PMAE acquired the cultural items through an exchange with the Denver Art Museum, via Frederic H. Douglas, in 1952.
The one object of cultural patrimony is one lot of saddles collected by Robert W. Foster from the “Plains” prior to 1952 or 1953 and donated to the PMAE by Foster in 1955.
The one object of cultural patrimony is one lot of bags collected by an unknown person prior to summer 1957 from the “Plains” and donated to the PMAE by an unknown person in 1958.
The one object of cultural patrimony is one lot of women's dresses with dentalium shells collected by Amelia Elizabeth White at an unknown date from the “Plains” and donated to the PMAE by William White Howells in 1961.
The one object of cultural patrimony is one lot of drums collected by General H.A. Morrow at an unknown date from the United States or Canada and donated to the PMAE by Morrow in 1874.
The one object of cultural patrimony is one lot of moccasins collected by Copley Amory in 1887 from an unknown location in the United States and donated to the PMAE by Amory in 1888.
The one object of cultural patrimony is one lot of dentalium necklaces collected by an unknown person at an unknown date from an unknown location in North America and donated to the PMAE by the American Antiquarian Society in 1890.
The two objects of cultural patrimony are one lot of moccasins and one lot of beaded cradles collected by an unknown person at an unknown date from the “Plains” and donated to the PMAE by Mary I. Decker in 1969 through the Radcliffe College President Mary Bunting.
The 12 objects of cultural patrimony are one lot of pouches and bags, one lot of blanket strips, one lot of necklaces and pendants, one lot of moccasins, one lot of roaches, one lot of mashers, clubs, and mauls, one lot of leggings, one lot of belts, one lot of beaded cradles and cradle hoods, one lot of a shield and its fragments, one eagle bustle, and one lot of beaded bottles collected by William Radcliff Morris between 1878 and 1893 from unspecified locations within the United States. Morris's widow sold the cultural items to William H. Claflin, Jr., in 1930, and Claflin bequeathed the cultural items to the PMAE in 1985. Morris identified one necklace as previously owned by a woman identified as “Comes-Back-at-Night,” wife of Broken Arm. Morris identified one set of dentalium ear pendants as previously owned by a woman identified as Red Cloud's wife. Morris identified one club as belonging to Chief Rain in the Face and the eagle bustle as belonging to Chief Sitting Bull.
The 12 sacred objects/objects of cultural patrimony are described as follows:
The one sacred object/object of cultural patrimony is one lot of pipe and tobacco bags collected by an unknown person at an unknown date from an unknown location in Canada and donated to the PMAE by John Galt in 1916.
The one sacred object/object of cultural patrimony is one lot of umbilical amulets collected by Ernest T. Jackson between 1872 and 1902 from an unknown location in North America and donated to the PMAE by Jackson and Patrick T. Jackson in 1940.
The one sacred object/object of cultural patrimony is one lot of moccasins collected by Amelia Elizabeth White at an unknown date from the “Plains” and donated to the PMAE by William White Howells in 1961.
The two sacred objects/objects of cultural patrimony are one lot of pipe stems and one pictographic bison robe and its fragments which had been part of the Boston Museum's collection. The Boston Museum (which existed between 1841 and 1895) was co-owned by brothers David and Moses Kimball. It included collections from the former Peale Museum and the former New England Museum. The heirs of David Kimball (David P. Kimball, Augusta K. Horton, and Lemuel Cushing Kimball) donated the cultural items to the PMAE in 1899. The cultural items are associated historically with the expedition of Meriwether Lewis and William Clark. The pipes may have been acquired by Lewis and Clark in 1804, by Lt. George Christian Hutter in 1825, or by Charles Willson Peale in 1826; alternatively, the pipes may have been carried by the delegation that Lewis sent to visit Thomas Jefferson in Washington in 1805-1806 or by representatives of Tribes under the jurisdiction of Lewis and Clark in St Louis. The bison robe was once the symbol of the Lewis and Clark Expedition, though it may not
The six sacred objects/objects of cultural patrimony are one lot of pipes, one lot of eagle bone whistles, one lot of pouches, one eagle feather horned headdress, one lot of drums, and one lot of pipe tampers collected by William Radcliff Morris between 1878 and 1893 from unspecified locations within the United States. Morris's widow sold the cultural items to William H. Claflin, Jr., in 1930, and Claflin bequeathed them to the PMAE in 1985. Morris identified one pipe as previously owned by a man identified as “Man-Who-Pocks-The-Eagle.” Morris identified one eagle bone whistle as previously owned by a man identified as “Goes-To-War.” Morris identified the eagle feather horned headdress as belonging to Chief Crazy Horse, who sent it by his brother, Chief Red Cloud, to General George Crook as a token of his surrender, several months after the Battle of Greasy Grass (Little Bighorn).
The one sacred object/object of cultural patrimony is one lot of pipe bags collected by William R. Wright between 1950 and 1993 from an unknown location within the United States and donated to the PMAE by Wright in 1995.
The PMAE has determined that:
• The two unassociated funerary objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near human remains, and are connected, either at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony of a Native American culture according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization. The unassociated funerary objects have been identified by a preponderance of the evidence as related to human remains, specific individuals, or families, or removed from a specific burial site or burial area of an individual or individuals with cultural affiliation to an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
• The 57 sacred objects described in this notice are specific ceremonial objects needed by a traditional Native American religious leader for present-day adherents to practice traditional Native American religion, according to the Native American traditional knowledge of a lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization.
• The 49 objects of cultural patrimony described in this notice have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
• The 12 sacred objects/objects of cultural patrimony described in this notice are, according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization, specific ceremonial objects needed by a traditional Native American religious leader for present-day adherents to practice traditional Native American religion, and have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision).
• There is a reasonable connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the Assiniboine and Sioux Tribes of the Fort Peck Indian Reservation, Montana.
Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under
Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 12, 2025. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the PMAE must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The PMAE is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the U.S. Department of Agriculture, Forest Service, Angeles National Forest (USFS—Angeles National Forest) intends to carry out the disposition of human remains, associated funerary objects, unassociated funerary objects, sacred objects, or objects of cultural patrimony removed from Federal or Tribal lands to the lineal descendants, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization with priority for disposition in this notice.
Disposition of the human remains or cultural items in this notice may occur on or after May 12, 2025. If no claim for disposition is received by April 13, 2026, the human remains or cultural items in this notice will become unclaimed human remains or cultural items.
Roman Luis Torres, Forest Supervisor, USFS—Angeles National Forest, 701 N Santa Anita Avenue, Arcadia, CA 91006, telephone (626) 574-5216, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the USFS—Angeles National Forest, and additional information on the human remains or cultural items in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the identifications in this notice.
Based on the information available, human remains representing at least two individuals have been reasonably
The inadvertent discovery included two incisors with shovel-shaped morphology, a cranial fragment, and two phalanges (finger/toe bones), as well as numerous indeterminate bone fragments. Formal written notification was mailed on July 7, 2010, to federally recognized Tribes, non-federally recognized Tribes, and interested members of the Native American community. A Plan of Action (POA) was sent out July 26, 2010, for review, comment, and edits, with the request that the closest Federally Recognized Tribe, the Yuhaaviatam of San Manuel Nation (YSMN) take lead on any coordination with the community members participating. The Forest and YSMN representatives have met onsite (2021-2024) and discussed by email and at meetings about repatriating the ancestral remains to the tribal and identifying an appropriate location for a potential reburial near the discovery location. During these discussions, the YSMN representative verbally indicated the Tribe, considering the discovery occurred within an area they ascribed cultural affinity, would make a formal claim in this case. Additional written information and records were provided on July 22, 2024.
Another inadvertent discovery occurred in 2000, during the inventory of a proposed trail project located south of the city of Acton, California. Five skeletal fragments were observed on the surface in an area that is directly associated with a Native American archaeological site (FS #05-01-55-137). A physical anthropologist, using a non-intrusive examination, confirmed that three of the fragments were cranial and can be definitively identified as human. These fragments were collected following the coroner's determination that they were Native American in origin. During a monitoring visit in 2007, additional skeletal material, comprising three cranial fragments were observed on the surface near those collected in 2000. In addition, a phalange bone (probable fingertip), and a molar tooth were collected from a different location within the site, along with several indeterminate bone fragments and non-local lithic material. An artifact collected, a drilled pendent with parallel sides, was located and collected some distance from the skeletal material and is likely to have funerary associations. Additional written information and records were provided on July 22, 2024.
Due to the location of the discovery, and prior and recent consultation with Tribes and the Native American community, it was determined the Yuhaaviatam of San Manuel Nation would have priority for disposition for Native American human remains or cultural items eligible for NAGPRA for these two inadvertent discoveries.
The Forest has received a formal written claim from the Yuhaaviatam of San Manuel Nation on October 11, 2024, for the remains and items associated with CA-LAN-1977 and FS #05-01-55-137.
The USFS—Angeles National Forest has determined that:
• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of at least two individuals of Native American ancestry.
• The one object described in this notice is reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• The Yuhaaviatam of San Manuel Nation (previously listed as San Manuel Band of Mission Indians, California) has priority for disposition of the human remains or cultural item described in this notice.
Written claims for disposition of the human remains or cultural items in this notice must be sent to the appropriate official identified in this notice under
1. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization identified in this notice.
2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that they have priority for disposition.
Disposition of the human remains or cultural items in this notice may occur on or after May 12, 2025. If competing claims for disposition are received, the USFS—Angeles National Forest must determine the most appropriate claimant prior to disposition. Requests for joint disposition of the human remains or cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The USFS—Angeles National Forest is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the lineal descendants, Indian Tribes, and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the University of California, Berkeley has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after May 12, 2025.
Alexandra Lucas, University of California, Berkeley, 200 California Hall, Berkeley, CA 94720, telephone (510) 570-0964, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the University of California, Berkeley, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
Between 1898 and 1960, and potentially later, numerous individuals removed, at minimum, 112 individuals,
Collections and collection spaces at the Phoebe A Hearst Museum of Anthropology were treated with substances for preservation and pest control, some potentially hazardous. No records have been found to date at the Museum to indicate whether or not chemicals or natural substances were used prior to 1960.
Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice.
The University of California, Berkeley has determined that:
• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 112 individuals of Native American ancestry.
• The 3,018 lots of objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• There is a connection between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Buena Vista Rancheria of Me-Wuk Indians of California; Ione Band of Miwok Indians of California; Jackson Band of Miwuk Indians; Shingle Springs Band of Miwok Indians, Shingle Springs Rancheria (Verona Tract), California; United Auburn Indian Community of the Auburn Rancheria of California; and the Wilton Rancheria, California.
Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under
1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.
2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.
Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 12, 2025. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the University of California, Berkeley must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The University of California, Berkeley is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Santa Barbara Museum of Natural History has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after May 12, 2025.
Luke Swetland, Santa Barbara Museum of Natural History, 2559 Puesta del Sol, Santa Barbara, CA 93105, telephone (805) 682-4711, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Santa Barbara Museum of Natural History, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
Human remains representing, at least, one individual has been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. A cranium, missing the right zygomatic, teeth, and mandible, was removed from an unprovenienced location in Santa Barbara County, CA. It was collected by Howard Taylor, who owned properties in Montecito, CA and a ranch near Arroyo Grande, CA. The human remains were donated to the Museum by Chuck Carter in 2021.
Human remains representing, at least, two individuals have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. The human remains include two human skulls and their associated mandibles. The human remains were collected or excavated from the Goleta and/or Santa Barbara regions between 1932 and 1935 by Jack Knight Green. They were donated to the Museum by Frances Green in 2015.
Human remains representing, at least, one individual has been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. The human remains are a human cranium missing the mandible. The skull was collected by a family and purported to have been “used as a teaching tool for a California history unit.” The skull was donated to the Museum by Dr. Carolyn Maguire in 2017 and had been in the possession of her late husband's family who “had a long history in Santa Barbara,” and according to the donor, “the skull is 100 years old, at least.”
Human remains representing, at least, two individuals have been identified. No associated funerary objects are present. The human remains include two partial crania lacking their mandibles. The crania were “ploughed out near an oak tree in field in San Roque tract” in the City of Santa Barbara, CA. They were donated to the Museum by Miss Josephine Ciampi in 1935.
Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the human remains described in this notice.
The Santa Barbara Museum of Natural History has determined that:
• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of six individuals of Native American ancestry.
• There is a connection between the human remains in this notice and the Santa Ynez Band of Chumash Mission Indians of the Santa Ynez Reservation, California.
Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under
1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.
2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.
Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 12, 2025. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Santa Barbara Museum of Natural History must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Santa Barbara Museum of Natural History is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Arizona State Museum, University of Arizona, intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of objects of cultural patrimony and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after May 12, 2025.
Cristin Lucas, Repatriation Coordinator, Arizona State Museum, 1013 East University Boulevard, Tucson, AZ 85721-0026, telephone (520) 626-0320, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Arizona State Museum, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
A total of one lot of cultural items has been requested for repatriation. The one lot of objects of cultural patrimony is modified bone. In 1934, the Gila Pueblo Foundation acquired one lot of modified bone (GP-41951-X; SJC No. 11236) from the Sacramento Junior College in Sacramento, CA as part of an exchange. The cultural item was recorded as having been removed from the Lincoln Mound site (CA-PLA-4), Placer County, on an unknown date. The Arizona State Museum acquired the lot in 1951 after the Gila Pueblo Foundation closed. There is no noted presence of any potentially hazardous substances used to treat the cultural items.
The Arizona State Museum has determined that:
• The one lot of objects of cultural patrimony described in this notice have ongoing historical, traditional, or cultural importance central to the Native American group, including any constituent sub-group (such as a band, clan, lineage, ceremonial society, or other subdivision), according to the Native American traditional knowledge of an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
• There is a reasonable connection between the cultural items described in this notice and the United Auburn Indian Community of the Auburn Rancheria of California.
Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under
Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 12, 2025. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Arizona State Museum must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Arizona State Museum is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice and to any other consulting parties.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after May 12, 2025.
Livia Taylor, U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District, ATTN: CENWO-PMA-D, 1616 Capitol Avenue, Omaha, NE 68102, telephone (402) 995-2434, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
Human remains representing, at least, one individual were removed from the shoreline of Prairie Dog Bay within the North Point Recreation Area in Charles Mix County, SD. No associated funerary objects are present. In April 1983, a recreator initially collected the remains which were later turned over to the Omaha District. The Ancestor was first transported to the University of North Dakota and then in 2012 was transferred by the Omaha District to the South Dakota State Historical Society Archaeological Research Center in Rapid City, SD where the Ancestor remains today. No known individuals were identified.
No information is available that would indicate that any of the human remains in this notice have been treated with potentially hazardous substances.
Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location and acquisition history of the human remains described in this notice.
The U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District has determined that:
• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.
• There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the Yankton Sioux Tribe of South Dakota.
Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under
1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.
2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.
Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 12, 2025. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Bruce Museum has completed an inventory of associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
Repatriation of the associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after May 12, 2025.
Kirsten J. Reinhardt, Bruce Museum, Inc., 1 Museum Drive, Greenwich, CT 06830, telephone (203) 413-6770, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Bruce Museum, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
The two associated funerary objects are two nodules of natural, unground, red/orange ochre. The two associated funerary objects were removed by an unknown person from Native American graves at Fort Ticonderoga, Essex County, NY before 1940 and donated to the Bruce in 1940 by Mr. Stirling Martin. Cultural Affiliation has been determined to be with the Mohican and/or Lenape-Munsee people as per the Stockbridge Munsee Community, Wisconsin. The location and temporal period of the graves is unknown. It is known that in 1757, approximately 8,000 French, Canadian, and Native Americans, including members of the Mohican Stockbridge Militia and Lenape soldiers, combined to fight the British at Fort Ticonderoga during the French and Indian War. According to THPO Bonney Hartley of the Stockbridge-Munsee Community, the
Based on the information available and the result of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the associated funerary objects described in this notice.
The Bruce Museum has determined that:
• The two objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• There is a connection between the associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Stockbridge Munsee Community, Wisconsin.
Written requests for repatriation of the associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under
1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.
2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.
Repatriation of the associated funerary objects described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 12, 2025. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Bruce Museum must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Bruce Museum is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University (PMAE) has completed an inventory of associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the associated funerary object and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
Repatriation of the associated funerary object in this notice may occur on or after May 12, 2025.
Deanna Byrd, Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University, 11 Divinity Avenue, Cambridge, MA 02138, telephone (617) 384-0672, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the PMAE, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
The one associated funerary object is one lot of beaded child's moccasins identified as “Sioux.” The moccasins were collected by William Radcliff Morris between 1878 and 1893 from an unspecified location within the United States. Morris's widow sold the moccasins to William H. Claflin, Jr., in 1930, and Claflin bequeathed the moccasins to the PMAE in 1985.
Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is reasonably identified by the geographical location or acquisition history of the associated funerary object described in this notice.
The PMAE has determined that:
• The one object described in this notice is reasonably believed to have been placed intentionally with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.
• There is a connection between the associated funerary object described in this notice and the Assiniboine and Sioux Tribes of the Fort Peck Indian Reservation, Montana.
Written requests for repatriation of the associated funerary object in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under
1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.
2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
Repatriation of the associated funerary object in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 12, 2025. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the PMAE must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the associated funerary object are considered a single request and not competing requests. The PMAE is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after May 12, 2025.
Livia Taylor, U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District, ATTN: CENWO-PMA-D, 1616 Capitol Avenue, Omaha, NE 68102, telephone (402) 995-2434, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in its inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
Human remains representing, at least, one individual were removed from the area of the LeCompte Catholic Church Cemetery in Corson County, SD. No associated funerary objects are present. In June 1986, the Mobridge Police Department notified an Omaha District park ranger of exposed human remains near LeCompte Creek. The remains were recovered and turned over to the Omaha District and a district archaeologist subsequently inspected the area, but did not recover additional remains. The Ancestor was first transported to the University of North Dakota and then in 2012 was transferred by the Omaha District to the South Dakota State Historical Society Archaeological Research Center in Rapid City, SD where the Ancestor remains today. No known individuals were identified.
No information is available that would indicate that any of the human remains in this notice have been treated with potentially hazardous substances.
Based on the information available and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the human remains described in this notice.
The U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District has determined that:
• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of one individual of Native American ancestry.
• There is a connection between the human remains described in this notice and the Cheyenne River Sioux Tribe of the Cheyenne River Reservation, South Dakota and the Standing Rock Sioux Tribe of North & South Dakota.
Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the authorized representative identified in this notice under
1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.
2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or an Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization with cultural affiliation.
Repatriation of the human remains described in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 12, 2025. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Omaha District is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University (PMAE) has completed an inventory of human remains and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice.
Repatriation of the human remains in this notice may occur on or after May 12, 2025.
Jane Pickering, Peabody Museum of Archaeology and Ethnology, Harvard University, 11 Divinity Avenue, Cambridge, MA 02138, telephone (617) 496-2374, email
This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the PMAE, and additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the inventory or related records. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice.
Based on the information available, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were collected at the Rosebud Indian Reservation, SD. The human remains are hair clippings collected from one individual who was recorded as being 73 years old and one individual who was recorded as being 29 years old and identified as “Oglala.” William O. Roberts took the hair clippings at the Rosebud Indian Reservation between 1930 and 1933. Roberts sent the hair clippings to George Woodbury, who donated the hair clippings to the PMAE in 1935. No associated funerary objects are present.
Based on the information available, human remains representing, at minimum, 13 individuals was collected
Based on the information available, human remains representing, at minimum, three individuals were collected at the Pierre Indian School, Hughes County, SD. The human remains are hair clippings collected from two individuals who were recorded as being 19 years old and one individual who was recorded as being 16 years old and identified as “Sioux.” C.B. Dickinson took the hair clippings at the Pierre Indian School between 1930 and 1933. Dickinson sent the hair clippings to George Woodbury, who donated the hair clippings to the PMAE in 1935. No associated funerary objects are present.
Based on the information available, human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were collected at the Genoa Indian School, Nance County, NB. The human remains are hair clippings collected from one individual who was recorded as being 18 years old and one individual who was recorded as being 17 years old and identified as “Sioux.” S.B. Davis took the hair clippings at the Genoa Indian School between 1930 and 1933. Davis sent the hair clippings to George Woodbury, who donated the hair clippings to the PMAE in 1935. No associated funerary objects are present.
Based on the information available, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual was collected at the Rosebud Indian Reservation, SD. The human remains are hair clippings collected from one individual who was recorded as being 41 years old and identified as “Sioux.” William O. Roberts took the hair clippings at the Rosebud Indian Reservation between 1930 and 1933. Roberts sent the hair clippings to George Woodbury, who donated the hair clippings to the PMAE in 1935. No associated funerary objects are present.
Based on the information available, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual was collected at the Carson Indian School, Carson City County, NV. The human remains are hair clippings collected from one individual who was recorded as being 17 years old and identified as “Sioux.” Frederic Snyder took the hair clippings at the Carson Indian School between 1930 and 1933. Snyder sent the hair clippings to George Woodbury, who donated the hair clippings to the PMAE in 1935. No associated funerary objects are present.
Based on the information available, human remains representing, at minimum, one individual was collected at the Chilocco Indian Agricultural School, Kay County, OK. The human remains are hair clippings collected from one individual who was recorded as being 16 years old and identified as “Sioux.” Lawrence E. Correll took the hair clippings at the Chilocco Indian Agricultural School between 1930 and 1933. Correll sent the hair clippings to George Woodbury, who donated the hair clippings to the PMAE in 1935. No associated funerary objects are present.
Based on the available information and the results of consultation, cultural affiliation is clearly identified by the information available about the human remains described in this notice.
The PMAE has determined that:
• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of 23 individuals of Native American ancestry.
• There is a reasonable connection between the human remains described in this notice and the Oglala Sioux Tribe.
Written requests for repatriation of the human remains in this notice must be sent to the Responsible Official identified in
1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.
2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
Repatriation of the human remains in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after May 12, 2025. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the PMAE must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains are considered a single request and not competing requests. The PMAE is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribe identified in this notice.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The National Park Service is soliciting electronic comments on the significance of properties nominated before March 29, 2025, for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places.
Comments should be submitted electronically by April 28, 2025.
Comments are encouraged to be submitted electronically to
Sherry A. Frear, Chief, National Register of Historic Places/National Historic Landmarks Program, 1849 C Street NW, MS 2013, Washington, DC 20240,
The properties listed in this notice are being considered for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places. Nominations for their consideration were received by the National Park Service before March 29, 2025. Pursuant to Section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60, comments are being accepted concerning the significance of the nominated properties under the National Register criteria for evaluation.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Nominations submitted by State or Tribal Historic Preservation Officers:
Additional documentation has been received for the following resource(s):
Nomination(s) submitted by Federal Preservation Officers:
The State Historic Preservation Officer reviewed the following nomination(s) and responded to the Federal Preservation Officer within 45 days of receipt of the nomination(s) and supports listing the properties in the National Register of Historic Places.
In accordance with the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, title 5, United States Code, section 10, and title 41, Code of Federal Regulations, § 102-3.65, the FBI Director has determined that the reestablishment of the Criminal Justice Information Services (CJIS) Advisory Policy Board (APB) is in the public interest. In connection with the performance of duties imposed upon the FBI by law, I hereby give notice of the reestablishment of the APB Charter.
The APB provides the FBI Director with general policy recommendations with respect to the philosophy, concept, and operational principles of the various criminal justice information systems managed by the FBI's CJIS Division.
The APB includes representatives from State and local criminal justice agencies; Tribal law enforcement representatives; members of the judicial, prosecutorial, and correctional sectors of the criminal justice community, as well as one individual representing a national security agency; a representative of the National Crime Prevention and Privacy Compact Council; a representative of Federal agencies participating in the CJIS Division Systems; and representatives of criminal justice professional associations (
The APB functions solely as an advisory body in compliance with the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act. The Charter has been filed in accordance with the provisions of the Act.
Executive Office of the President, Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
Notice of request for information (RFI).
OMB solicits ideas for deregulation from across the country. Commenters should identify rules to be rescinded and provide detailed reasons for their rescission. OMB invites comments about any and all regulations currently in effect.
Consideration will be given to written comments received by May 12, 2025.
Please submit comments via
Submission of comments in response to this RFI is voluntary. Comments may be used to inform deregulation efforts. Please note that submissions received in response to this notice may be posted on
Kelsi Feltz, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503, Mailbox:
Americans are the most inventive, hardworking, and industrious people in the world. For too long, American dynamism and creativity have been stunted by onerous and unnecessary regulations. With this document, OMB seeks proposals to rescind or replace regulations that stifle American businesses and American ingenuity. We seek comment from the public on regulations that are unnecessary, unlawful, unduly burdensome, or unsound. Comments should address the background of the rule and the reasons for the proposed rescission, with particular attention to regulations that are inconsistent with statutory text or the Constitution, where costs exceed benefits, where the regulation is outdated or unnecessary, or where regulation is burdening American businesses in unforeseen ways.
National Science Foundation.
Submission for OMB review; comment request.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) has submitted the following information collection requirement to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This is the second notice for public comment; the first was published in the
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice.
Send comments and recommendations to
Suzanne H. Plimpton, Reports Clearance Officer, National Science Foundation, 2415 Eisenhower Avenue, Alexandria, VA 22314, or send email to
NSF may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number, and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
STCs enable and foster excellent education, integrate research and education, and create bonds between learning and inquiry so that discovery and creativity more fully support the learning process. STCs capitalize on diversity through participation in center activities and demonstrate leadership in the involvement of groups underrepresented in science and engineering.
Centers selected will be required to submit annual reports on progress and plans, which will be used as a basis for performance review and determining the level of continued funding. To support this review and the management of a Center, STCs will be required to develop a set of management and performance indicators for submission annually to NSF via an NSF evaluation technical assistance contractor. These indicators are both quantitative and descriptive and may include, for example, the characteristics of center personnel and students; sources of financial support and in-kind support; expenditures by operational component; characteristics of industrial and/or other sector participation; research activities; education activities; knowledge transfer activities; patents, licenses; publications; degrees granted to students involved in Center activities; descriptions of significant advances and other outcomes of the STC effort. Part of this reporting will take the form of a database which will be owned by the institution and eventually made available to an evaluation contractor. This database will capture specific
Each Center's annual report will address the following categories of activities: (1) research, (2) education, (3) knowledge transfer, (4) partnerships, (5) diversity, (6) management and (7) budget issues.
For each of the categories the report will describe overall objectives for the year, problems the Center has encountered in making progress towards goals, anticipated problems in the following year, and specific outputs and outcomes.
In accordance with the purposes of Sections 29 and 182b of the Atomic Energy Act (42 U.S.C. 2039, 2232(b)), the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS) will hold meetings on May 6-9, 2025. The Committee will be conducting meetings that will include some Members being physically present at the headquarters of the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) while other Members participate remotely. Interested members of the public are encouraged to participate remotely in any open sessions via Microsoft (MS) Teams or via phone at 301-576-2978, passcode 257672354#. A more detailed agenda, including the MSTeams link, may be found at the ACRS public website at
[
[
Procedures for the conduct of and participation in ACRS meetings were published in the
An electronic copy of each presentation should be emailed to the cognizant ACRS staff at least three days before the meeting.
In accordance with Subsection 10(d) of Public Law 92-463 and 5 U.S.C. 552b(c), certain portions of this meeting may be closed, as specifically noted above. Use of still, motion picture, and television cameras during the meeting may be limited to selected portions of the meeting as determined by the Chair. Electronic recordings will be permitted only during the open portions of the meeting.
ACRS meeting agendas, meeting transcripts, and letter reports are available through the NRC Public Document Room (PDR) at
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
Weeks of April 14, 21, 28, and May 5, 12, 19, 2025. The schedule for Commission meetings is subject to change on short notice. The NRC Commission Meeting Schedule can be found on the internet at:
The NRC provides reasonable accommodation to individuals with disabilities where appropriate. If you need a reasonable accommodation to participate in these public meetings or need this meeting notice or the transcript or other information from the public meetings in another format (
Public.
Members of the public may request to receive the information in these notices electronically. If you would like to be added to the distribution, please contact the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Office of the Secretary, Washington, DC 20555, at 301-415-1969, or by email at
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of April 14, 2025.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of April 21, 2025.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of April 28, 2025.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of May 5, 2025.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of May 19, 2025.
For more information or to verify the status of meetings, contact Chris Markley at 301-415-6293 or via email at
The NRC is holding the meetings under the authority of the Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Tuesday, April 15, 2025, at 10:30 a.m. EST.
Washington, DC, at U.S. Postal Service Headquarters, 475 L'Enfant Plaza SW.
Closed.
Operations Committee of the Board of Governors of the United States Postal Service.
The Committee will consider the below matters.
1. Administrative Matters.
2. Operational Matters.
Lucy C. Trout, Acting Secretary of the Board of Governors, U.S. Postal Service, 475 L'Enfant Plaza SW, Washington, DC 20260-1000. Telephone: (202) 268-4800.
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International & First-Class Package International Service contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Competitive Product List in the Mail Classification Schedule.
Date of notice: April 11, 2025.
Christopher C. Meyerson, (202) 268-7820.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C.
Wednesday, April 16, 2025, at 11:00 a.m. EST.
Washington, DC, at U.S. Postal Service Headquarters, 475 L'Enfant Plaza SW.
Closed.
Compensation and Governance Committee of the Board of Governors of the United States Postal Service.
The Committee will consider the below matters.
1. Administrative Matters.
2. Executive Session.
3. Personnel Matters.
Lucy C. Trout, Acting Secretary of the Board of Governors, U.S. Postal Service, 475 L'Enfant Plaza SW, Washington, DC 20260-1000. Telephone: (202) 268-4800.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The Commission's Office of the Advocate for Small Business Capital Formation (“Office” or “OASB”) seeks to collect feedback from small businesses and their investors to understand better the population that it is serving and their role in the small business ecosystem. The proposed collection of information will help ensure that the Office's outreach efforts and communication materials and other program initiatives are effective and responsive to customer needs. More specifically, the Office will seek the following four categories of information: (i) Demographic information about program participants, (ii) feedback on the Office's outreach and educational materials, (iii) capital formation-related questions, and (iv) issues and challenges faced by small businesses and their investors. This feedback will allow the Office to tailor its outreach efforts and communication materials to serve its customers more effectively. Collecting feedback will also allow the Office to understand better its target audience and improve outreach events and educational materials by optimizing their content and delivery, while strategizing how best to deploy the Office's resources to address issues and challenges faced by its customers.
Feedback collected under this generic clearance will provide useful information, but it will not yield data that can be generalized to the overall population. This type of generic clearance for information will not be used for quantitative information collections that are designed to yield reliably actionable results, such as monitoring trends over time or documenting program performance.
These are the estimates for the next three years for the expected annual number of (i) activities: 30; (ii) respondents: 10,000; (iii) responses: 10,000; (iv) frequency of response: once per request; (v) average minutes per response: 5; and (vi) burden hours: 833.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The public may view and comment on this information collection request at:
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
FINRA is proposing to adopt FINRA Rule 6152 (Disclosure of Order Execution Information for NMS Stocks) to require members to submit their order execution reports for NMS stocks to
The text of the proposed rule change is available on FINRA's website at
In its filing with the Commission, FINRA included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. FINRA has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Rule 605 of Regulation NMS
On March 6, 2024, the Commission adopted amendments to SEC Rule 605 that, among other things, expand the scope of reporting entities subject to SEC Rule 605 to include, in addition to market centers,
Reporting entities must make their Rule 605 Reports available to the public in a uniform, readily accessible, and usable electronic format,
To make Rule 605 Reports more accessible for regulators, investors, and others seeking to analyze and compare the data, FINRA is proposing to require that members provide their Rule 605 Reports to FINRA for central publication on the FINRA website. Specifically, new Rule 6152, entitled “Disclosure of Order Execution Information for NMS Stocks,” would require each member that is required to publish reports pursuant to SEC Rule 605 to provide the reports to FINRA, in the manner prescribed by FINRA, within the same time and in the
As stated above, FINRA will announce the effective date of the proposed rule change in a
FINRA would publish the Rule 605 Reports it receives in a centralized location on the FINRA website, free of charge and with no restrictions on use of the data.
If the Commission approves the proposed rule change, FINRA will announce the effective date of the proposed rule change in a
FINRA believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 15A(b)(6) of the Act, which requires, among other things, that FINRA rules must be designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest, and not designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers or dealers.
FINRA believes that the proposed requirement for members to send their Rule 605 Reports to FINRA for centralized publication on the FINRA website will make this important order execution quality information more readily accessible for regulators, investors, academics, and others seeking to analyze and compare the data, particularly across firms, and would facilitate the ability of FINRA and the SEC to review the data for regulatory purposes. Further, FINRA believes the proposed rule change is not unfairly discriminatory as it would apply uniformly to all similarly situated FINRA members that are already subject to the disclosure requirements under SEC Rule 605.
FINRA does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
FINRA has undertaken an economic impact assessment, as set forth below, to analyze the potential economic impacts of the proposed rule change, including potential costs, benefits, and distributional and competitive effects, relative to the current baseline.
FINRA believes that requiring members to provide their Rule 605 Reports to FINRA for centralized publication on the FINRA website would promote transparency and enhance accessibility of the Rule 605 Reports by better enabling market participants to locate and download the Rule 605 Reports from a single, central location. Investors and other relevant stakeholders seeking to analyze and compare Rule 605 Reports from different reporting entities must first visit the website of a reporting entity, a third-party vendor that is contracted to host a link to the market center's Rule 605 Report, or FINRA's website, which provides URL links to reports for those member firms that have selected FINRA as their Designated Participant. After navigating to such websites, public users can download the Rule 605 Report data files. The proposed rule change would allow public users to more readily locate, download, and aggregate the reports at a central location.
FINRA estimates that 74 FINRA member firms currently operate 86 “market centers,” as that term is defined in Rule 600(b)(55) of Regulation NMS. Some of these members operate more than one market center each. Firms are required to provide a Designated Participant, such as FINRA, with URL links to their required Rule 605 Reports and, currently, 64 members provide their URL links to FINRA (corresponding to 76 market centers).
FINRA believes that centralized access through FINRA's website to members' Rule 605 Reports will make it more efficient for users (whether retail and institutional investors, academic researchers, the press, regulators, other market participants, or other interested parties) to access and collect the Rule 605 Reports and therefore more easily analyze and compare execution quality statistics across market centers and, following implementation of the Rule 605 Amendments Release, larger broker-dealers. To the extent that centralization enables more efficient use of Rule 605 Reports, it could encourage comparison of the data in the reports, including firms' analysis of their execution quality as compared to competitors, in furtherance of the goals of SEC Rule 605.
Members may incur initial fixed costs, such as programming, to create a system to send the Rule 605 Report to FINRA each month. Furthermore, members that use third-party vendors to create the Rule 605 Reports would need to arrange for reports to be submitted directly to FINRA. In addition, once the system to provide the Rule 605 Reports to FINRA is built, there would be variable costs for maintaining the system and ongoing compliance costs.
For members that currently send, or will send the links to their Rule 605 Reports to FINRA pursuant to the Rule 605 NMS Plan, these costs may be lower than building an entirely new system, depending on the degree to which any technology or processes can be leveraged.
No other alternatives were considered.
The proposed rule change was published for comment in
Virtu, Larry Tabb, and Healthy Markets all supported the centralization of Rule 605 Reports, with Virtu noting that centralized publication would make this information more accessible and useful to investors and market participants, streamlining the process for analyzing execution quality across market centers.
As Virtu noted,
Some commenters raised issues relating to the content of Rule 605 Reports, which is outside the scope of FINRA's proposal and authority.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) by order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend certain transaction fees and credits in the NYSE American Equities Price List and Fee Schedule (“Price List”) pertaining to its optional monthly credits applicable to Electronic Designated Market Makers (“eDMM”) in assigned securities. The Exchange proposes to implement the fee changes effective April 1, 2025. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend certain transaction fees and credits in the NYSE American Equities Price List and Fee Schedule (“Price List”) pertaining to its optional monthly credits applicable to Electronic Designated Market Makers (“eDMM”) in assigned securities.
The proposed changes respond to the current competitive environment where order flow providers have a choice of where to direct liquidity-providing orders by offering further incentives for ETP Holders to send additional adding and removing liquidity to the Exchange.
The Exchange proposes to implement the fee changes effective April 1, 2025.
The Exchange operates in a highly competitive market. The Commission has repeatedly expressed its preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities
While Regulation NMS has enhanced competition, it has also fostered a “fragmented” market structure where trading in a single stock can occur across multiple trading centers. When multiple trading centers compete for order flow in the same stock, the Commission has recognized that “such competition can lead to the fragmentation of order flow in that stock.”
The Exchange believes that the ever-shifting market share among the exchanges from month to month demonstrates that market participants can move order flow, or discontinue or reduce use of certain categories of products. While it is not possible to know a firm's reason for shifting order flow, the Exchange believes that one such reason is because of fee changes at any of the registered exchanges or non-exchange venues to which the firm routes order flow. Accordingly, competitive forces compel the Exchange to use exchange transaction fees and credits because market participants can readily trade on competing venues if they deem pricing levels at those other venues to be more favorable.
Currently, the Exchange offers eDMMs an optional monthly credit per security (“Credit Per Security”) up to a maximum credit of $1,000 per month per assigned security, provided that eDMMs agree to a credit of $0.0020 per share for orders adding displayed liquidity instead of the otherwise-applicable credit of $0.0045 per share. Specifically, for eDMMs agreeing to a $0.0020 credit per share for orders adding displayed liquidity, the Exchange currently offers a Credit Per Security of $100 for an eDMM quoting at the National Best Bid or Offer (“NBBO”) for a minimum average of 25% of the time; a Credit Per Security of $350 for an eDMM quoting at the NBBO for a minimum average of 40% of the time; a Credit Per Security of $850 for an eDMM quoting at the NBBO for a minimum average of 50% of the time; and a Credit Per Security of $1,000 for an eDMM quoting at the NBBO for a minimum average of 70% of the time.
The Exchange proposes to add a new Credit Per Security level, offering a Credit Per Security of $1,250 for an eDMM quoting at the NBBO for a minimum average of 80% of the time.
The proposed change responds to the current competitive environment where order flow providers have a choice of where to direct liquidity-providing orders by offering further incentives for eDMMs to increase quoting on, and send additional displayed liquidity to, the Exchange. The Exchange believes that offering Exchange eDMMs the option to receive a new higher monthly rebate across all eDMM securities would foster liquidity provision, increased quoting, and stability in the marketplace and lessen eDMM reliance on transaction fees, to the benefit of the marketplace and all market participants.
The Exchange does not propose any other changes to its rates to eDMMs on transactions in assigned securities.
The proposed changes are not otherwise intended to address any other issues, and the Exchange is not aware of any significant problems that market participants would have in complying with the proposed changes.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
As discussed above, the Exchange operates in a highly fragmented and competitive market. The Commission has repeatedly expressed its preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. Specifically, in Regulation NMS, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and SRO revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.”
The Exchange believes that the ever-shifting market share among the exchanges from month to month demonstrates that market participants can shift order flow, or discontinue to reduce use of certain categories of products, in response to fee changes. ETP Holders can choose from any one of the 16 currently operating registered exchanges, and numerous off-exchange venues, to route such order flow. Accordingly, competitive forces constrain exchange transaction fees that relate to orders on an exchange. Stated otherwise, changes to exchange transaction fees can have a direct effect on the ability of an exchange to compete for order flow.
Given this competitive environment, the proposal represents a reasonable attempt to attract additional order flow to the Exchange. Providing eDMMs with the option to receive a lower per share transaction credit for adding displayed liquidity in exchange for higher monthly rebates per assigned liquidity for higher quoting levels, up to a maximum credit of $1,250 per month across all eDMM assigned securities, is reasonable because it would foster liquidity provision, improved quoting, and stability in the marketplace and
The Exchange believes its proposal equitably allocates its fees among its market participants by fostering liquidity provision and stability in the marketplace. The Exchange believes that it is equitable to offer eDMMs the option to receive a lower per-share transaction credit for adding displayed liquidity in exchange for monthly rebates per assigned security because it would balance the increased risks and heightened quoting and other obligations that eDMMs on the Exchange have and that other market participants do not have. As such, it is equitable to offer eDMMs the option to receive a flat per-security credit based on the eDMM's quoting in that symbol, coupled with a lower transaction fee.
The Exchange believes that increasing the maximum Credit Per Security level to $1,250 (from $1,000) per month is equitable because it would apply equally to all eDMM firms, each of whom would have the option to elect to participate (or not participate) on a monthly basis. Any eDMM wishing to receive the Credit Per Security would be required to meet the prescribed quoting requirements in order to qualify for the payments, as described above. All eDMMs would be eligible to elect to receive a Credit Per Security and could do so by notifying the Exchange and meeting the per symbol quoting requirements.
The Exchange believes it is not unfairly discriminatory to offer eDMMs the option to receive a flat per-security credit coupled with a lower transaction fee for orders that provide displayed liquidity in assigned securities as the proposed credits would be provided on an equal basis to all such participants. The proposed $1,250 maximum Credit Per Security level would apply equally to all eDMM firms, who would have the option to elect to participate on a monthly basis. Further, the Exchange believes the new proposed maximum credit would incentivize eDMMs that meet the proposed quoting requirement to send more orders to the Exchange to qualify for a higher Credit Per Security.
The proposal neither targets nor will it have a disparate impact on any particular category of market participant. The proposal does not permit unfair discrimination because the proposed thresholds would be applied to all similarly situated eDMMs, who would all be eligible for the same credit on an equal basis. Accordingly, no eDMM already operating on the Exchange would be disadvantaged by this allocation of fees.
For the foregoing reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed changes would incentivize market participants to direct their orders to the Exchange. Greater overall order flow, trading opportunities, and pricing transparency benefit all market participants on the Exchange by enhancing market quality and continuing to encourage ETP Holders to send orders, thereby contributing towards a robust and well-balanced market ecosystem.
The Exchange believes that the proposed change could promote competition between the Exchange and other execution venues, including those that currently offer similar order types and comparable transaction pricing, by encouraging additional orders to be sent to the Exchange for execution.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act,
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act.
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Section 31 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”) requires each national securities exchange and national securities association to pay transaction fees to the Commission.
Section 31 of the Exchange Act requires the Commission to annually adjust the fee rates applicable under sections 31(b) and (c) to a uniform adjusted rate.
The Commission is required to publish notice of the new fee rates under section 31 not later than 30 days after the date on which an Act making a regular appropriation for the applicable fiscal year is enacted.
The new fee rate is determined by (1) subtracting the sum of fees estimated to be collected prior to the effective date of the new fee rate
As noted above, the Full-Year Continuing Appropriations and Extensions Act, 2025, includes total appropriations of $2,188,658,000 to the Commission for fiscal year 2025.
The uniform adjusted rate is computed by dividing the residual fees to be collected by the estimated aggregate dollar amount of covered sales for the remainder of fiscal year. Because the Commission expects to have collected its total appropriation in the period prior the effective date of the new fee rate, there are no residual fees
Under section 31(j)(4)(A) of the Exchange Act, the fiscal year 2025 annual adjustments to the fee rates applicable under sections 31(b) and (c) of the Exchange Act shall take effect on the later of October 1, 2024, or 60 days after the date on which a regular appropriation to the Commission for fiscal year 2025 is enacted.
Accordingly, pursuant to section 31 of the Exchange Act,
By the Commission.
This appendix provides the methodology for determining the annual adjustment to the fee rates applicable under sections 31(b) and (c) of the Exchange Act for fiscal year 2025. Section 31 of the Exchange Act requires the fee rates to be adjusted so that it is reasonably likely that the Commission will collect aggregate fees equal to its regular appropriation for fiscal year 2025.
To make the adjustment, the Commission must project the aggregate dollar amount of covered sales of securities on the securities exchanges and certain over-the-counter (“OTC”) markets over the course of the year. The fee rate equals the ratio of the Commission's regular appropriation for fiscal year 2025 (less the sum of fees to be collected during fiscal year 2025 prior to the effective date of the new fee rate and aggregate assessments on security futures transactions during all of fiscal year 2025) to the estimated aggregate dollar amount of covered sales for the remainder of the fiscal year following the effective date of the new fee rate.
For 2025, the Commission has estimated the aggregate dollar amount of covered sales by projecting forward the trend established in the previous decade. More specifically, the dollar amount of covered sales was forecasted for months subsequent to February 2025, the last month for which the Commission has data on the dollar volume of covered sales.
The following sections describe this process in detail.
First, calculate the average daily dollar amount of covered sales (“ADS”) for each month in the sample (August 2014 through February 2025). The monthly total dollar amount of covered sales (exchange plus certain OTC markets) is presented in column C of Table A.
The model forecasts the monthly moving average of the average daily dollar amount of covered sales. Each month's average daily dollar amount of covered sales is calculated by dividing the total covered sales for that month (column C of Table A) by the number of trading days for that month (column B of Table A). These amounts are shown in column D of Table A. The moving average will span the same number of months required to be forecast for the remainder of the fiscal year. The trailing moving average used in the forecast model is presented in column E of Table A.
To capture the recent trends in the monthly changes in the moving averages, calculate the one- and two-month lags of the trailing moving average shown in column E in Table A. These amounts are shown in columns F and G, respectively, of Table A.
Next, model the monthly trailing moving average of ADS as function of a constant term and the two lagged trailing moving averages using the ordinary least squares technique.
Use the estimated model to forecast the trailing moving average of ADS of the first month after the last available monthly data. Estimate the trailing moving average of the second month using the forecasted value of the first month and the actual value of the month before that. Similarly, estimate the trailing moving average of the third month using the forecasted values of the two previous months. Continue in this fashion until the end of the fiscal year.
The estimate of the trailing moving average ADS for the last applicable month in the fiscal year is a prediction of the moving average for those months that need to be predicted. This estimate is used as the predicted value of ADS for each month in the forecast period; to obtain the forecast total covered sales for each month, multiply the predicted ADS by the number of days in each month.
The following is a more formal (mathematical) description of the procedure:
1. Begin with the monthly data for total dollar volume of covered sales (column C). The sample spans ten years, from August 2014 through February 2025.
2. For each month
3. Calculate the one- and two-month lags of the trailing moving average. For example, the one-month lag of the six-month trailing moving average for March 2015 is equal to the six-month trailing moving average for February 2015. The two-month lag of the six-month trailing moving average for March 2015 is equal to the six-month trailing moving average for January 2015. These are shown in columns F and G.
4. Estimate the model using ordinary least squares:
Where
5. The predicted value of the six-month trailing moving average of the last month to be forecast represents the final forecast of covered sales for the entire prediction period. This value is shown in column H. This represents the prediction for August 2025. To calculate this value from the model above, one needs the one-month and two-month lag of the six-month trailing moving average ADS,
6. For example, for March 2025, using the a, b
7. With the estimated six-month trailing moving average ADS for March 2025 calculated above, one can estimate the six-month trailing moving average ADS for April 2025. The estimate obtained from March 2025 becomes the one-month lag for April, and the one-month lag used in the March forecast becomes the two-month lag for the April forecast. Thus, the predicted six-month trailing moving average ADS for April 2025 is calculated as: +3,895,798,017 + (1.676426 × 735,147,103,930) + (−0.682343 × 717,967,657,152) = 746,415,760,047.
8. Using the forecasts for March and April, one can estimate the value for May. Repeat this procedure for subsequent months, until the estimate for August 2025 is obtained. This value is 761,290,676,404.
9. To obtain the estimate of total monthly covered sales for each month, multiply the number of trading days in the month, shown in column B in Table A, by the final forecast six-month trailing moving average ADS, shown in column H of Table A. This product is shown in column I of Table A, and these figures are used to calculate the new fee rate.
1. Use Table A to estimate fees collected for the period September 1, 2024, through May 13, 2025. The projected aggregate dollar amount of covered sales for this period is $126,733,581,688,716. Actual and projected fee collections at the current fee rate of $27.80 per million are $3,523,193,571.
2. Estimate the amount of assessments on security futures products collected from September 1, 2024, through August 31, 2025. The only entity reporting assessable security futures products ceased operations in September 2020.
3. Subtract the amount $3,523,193,571 from the target off-setting collection amount set by Congress of $2,188,658,000, resulting in −$1,334,535,571 to be collected on dollar volume for the period May 14, 2025, through August 31, 2025.
4. Use Table A to estimate dollar volume for the period May 14, 2025, through August 31, 2025. The estimate is $57,096,800,730,300. Finally, compute the fee rate required to produce the −$1,334,535,571 in revenue. This rate is −$1,334,535,571 divided by $57,096,800,730,300 or −0.00002337321.
5. Round the result to the seventh decimal point, yielding a rate of -0.00002340 (or −$23.40 per million).
Neither the calculation methodology nor section 31 of the Exchange Act contemplates a negative fee rate, and the Commission cannot effectuate a negative fee rate. For these reasons, the fee rate is thus instead set to $0.00 per million.
This table summarizes the estimates of the aggregate dollar amount of covered sales, by time period. The figures in this table can be used to determine the new fee rate.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
[sic] amend the Franklin Bitcoin ETF (the “Bitcoin Fund”), the Franklin Ethereum ETF (the “Eth Fund”), and the Franklin Crypto Index ETF (the “Crypto Index Fund” and, collectively with the Bitcoin Fund and the Eth Fund, the “Funds”),
The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Exchange's website (
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Commission approved the listing and trading of shares (the “Bitcoin ETP Shares”) of the Bitcoin Fund on the Exchange pursuant to Exchange Rule 14.11(e)(4), Commodity-Based Trust Shares, on January 10, 2024.
The Exchange proposes to amend several portions of the Bitcoin ETP Amendment No. 1, as amended, in order to permit in-kind creation and redemptions.
The Bitcoin ETP Amendment No. 1 included specific representations making clear that the Bitcoin Fund would only process creations and redemptions in cash. Specifically, the “Franklin Templeton Digital Holdings Trust” section of Bitcoin ETP Amendment No. 1 stated:
When the Fund sells or redeems its Shares, it will do so in cash transactions in large blocks of 50,000 Shares (a “Creation Basket”) at the Fund's NAV. In such cases, a third party that is unaffiliated with the Fund and the Sponsor will use cash to buy and deliver bitcoin to create Shares or withdraw and sell bitcoin for cash to redeem Shares, on behalf of the Fund. Authorized participants will deliver, or
The Exchange proposes to replace the above paragraph as follows:
When the Fund sells or redeems its Shares, it will do so in large blocks of 50,000 Shares (a “Creation Basket”) based on the quantity of bitcoin attributable to each Share (net of the accrued but unpaid Sponsor's fee and any accrued but unpaid expenses or liabilities). Creation Baskets are issued and redeemed in exchange for bitcoin or cash. For cash creations, authorized participants will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, cash to the Fund's account with the Cash Custodian in exchange for Shares. Upon receipt of an approved cash creation order, the Sponsor, on behalf of the Fund, will submit to one or more previously onboarded trading partners an order to buy the amount of bitcoin represented by a Creation Basket.
Additionally, the “Creation and Redemption of Shares” section of the filing, as amended, includes a detailed description of how the cash-only creation and redemption process works.
When the Fund sells or redeems its Shares, it will do so in Creation Baskets that are based on the quantity of bitcoin attributable to each Share (net of the accrued but unpaid Sponsor's fee and any accrued but unpaid expenses or liabilities). Creation Baskets are issued and redeemed in exchange for bitcoin or cash. According to the Registration Statement, on any business day, an authorized participant may place an order to create one or more Creation Baskets. Purchase orders for cash transaction Creation Baskets must be placed by 2:00 p.m. ET (or such other time as disclosed in the Prospectus), or the close of regular trading on the Exchange, whichever is earlier. Purchase orders for in-kind transaction Creation Baskets must be placed by 4:00 p.m. ET (or such other time as disclosed in the Prospectus), or the close of regular trading on the Exchange, whichever is earlier. The day on which an order is properly received is considered the purchase order date.
For cash creations, authorized participants will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, cash to the Fund's account with the Cash Custodian in exchange for Shares. Upon receipt of an approved cash creation order, the Sponsor, on behalf of the Fund, will submit to one or more previously onboarded trading partners an order to buy the amount of bitcoin represented by a Creation Basket. For in-kind creations, authorized participants or their designee will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, bitcoin to the Fund's account with the bitcoin Custodian in exchange for Shares.
For a cash creation order, the total deposit of cash required is based on the combined NAV of the number of Shares included in the Creation Baskets being created determined as of 4:00 p.m. ET on the purchase order date, in an amount sufficient to purchase the requisite amount of bitcoin (as described below). For a creation order in-kind, the total in-kind transfer of bitcoin is based on the quantity of bitcoin attributable to the Creation Baskets being created determined as of 4:00 p.m. ET on the purchase order date. The Administrator determines the quantity of bitcoin associated with a Creation Basket for a given day by dividing the number of bitcoin held by the Fund as of the opening of business on that business day, adjusted for the amount of bitcoin constituting estimated accrued but unpaid fees and expenses of the Fund as of the opening of business on that business day, by the quotient of the number of Shares outstanding at the opening of business divided by the number of Shares in a Creation Basket.
The procedures by which an authorized participant can redeem one or more Creation Baskets mirror the procedures for the creation of Creation Baskets. For a cash creation order, an authorized participant will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, cash to create Shares. For an in-kind creation order, an authorized participant or its designee will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, bitcoin to create Shares. For a cash redemption order, an authorized participant will deliver Shares to the Fund and will receive cash for the Shares delivered. For an in-kind redemption order, an authorized participant will deliver Shares to the Fund and the authorized participant or its designee will receive bitcoin for the Shares delivered.
The Sponsor (including its delegates) will maintain ownership and control of the Fund's bitcoin in a manner consistent with good delivery requirements for spot commodity transactions.
Similarly, the Exchange proposes to amend several portions of the Eth ETP Amendment No. 1 in order to permit in-kind creations and redemptions.
The Eth ETP Amendment No. 1 included specific representations making clear that the Eth Fund would only process creations and redemptions in cash. Specifically, the “Franklin Ethereum ETF” section of the Eth ETP Amendment No. 1 stated:
When the Fund sells or redeems its Shares, it will do so in cash transactions in large blocks of 50,000 Shares (a “Creation Basket”) at the Fund's net asset value (“NAV”). For creations, authorized participants will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, cash to the Fund's account with the Cash Custodian in exchange for Shares. Upon receipt of an approved creation order, the Sponsor, on behalf of the Fund, will submit an order to buy the amount of ether represented by a Creation Basket. Based off ether executions, the Cash Custodian will request the required cash from the authorized participant. Following receipt by the Cash Custodian of the cash from an authorized participant, the Sponsor, on behalf of the Fund, will approve an order with one or more previously onboarded trading partners to purchase the amount of ether represented by the Creation
The Exchange proposes to replace the above with the following:
When the Fund sells or redeems its Shares, it will do so in large blocks of 50,000 Shares (a “Creation Basket”) based on the quantity of ETH attributable to each Share (net of the accrued but unpaid Sponsor's fee and any accrued but unpaid expenses or liabilities). Creation Baskets are issued and redeemed in exchange for ETH or cash. For cash creations, authorized participants will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, cash to the Fund's account with the Cash Custodian in exchange for Shares. Upon receipt of an approved cash creation order, the Sponsor, on behalf of the Fund, will submit to one or more previously onboarded trading partners an order to buy the amount of ETH represented by a Creation Basket.
Additionally, the “Creation and Redemption of Shares” section of the filing includes a detailed description of how the cash-only creation and redemption process works.
When the Fund sells or redeems its Shares, it will do so in Creation Baskets that are based on the quantity of ETH attributable to each Share (net of the accrued but unpaid Sponsor's fee and any accrued but unpaid expenses or liabilities). Creation Baskets are issued and redeemed in exchange for ETH or cash. According to the Registration Statement, on any business day, an authorized participant may place an order to create one or more Creation Baskets. Purchase orders for cash transaction Creation Baskets must be placed by 2:00 p.m. ET (or such other time as disclosed in the Prospectus), or the close of regular trading on the Exchange, whichever is earlier. Purchase orders for in-kind transaction Creation Baskets must be placed by 4:00 p.m. ET (or such other time as disclosed in the Prospectus), or the close of regular trading on the Exchange, whichever is earlier. The day on which an order is properly received is considered the purchase order date.
For cash creations, authorized participants will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, cash to the Fund's account with the Cash Custodian in exchange for Shares. Upon receipt of an approved cash creation order, the Sponsor, on behalf of the Fund, will submit to one or more previously onboarded trading partners an order to buy the amount of ETH represented by a Creation Basket. For in-kind creations, authorized participants or their designee will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, ETH to the Fund's account with the Custodian in exchange for Shares.
For a cash creation order, the total deposit of cash required is based on the combined NAV of the number of Shares included in the Creation Baskets being created determined as of 4:00 p.m. ET on the purchase order date, in an amount sufficient to purchase the requisite amount of ETH (as described below). For a creation order in-kind, the total in-kind transfer of ETH is based on the quantity of bitcoin attributable to the Creation Baskets being created determined as of 4:00 p.m. ET on the purchase order date. The Administrator determines the quantity of ETH associated with a Creation Basket for a given day by dividing the number of ETH held by the Fund as of the opening of business on that business day, adjusted for the amount of ETH constituting estimated accrued but unpaid fees and expenses of the Fund as of the opening of business on that business day, by the quotient of the number of Shares outstanding at the opening of business divided by the number of Shares in a Creation Basket.
The procedures by which an authorized participant can redeem one or more Creation Baskets mirror the procedures for the creation of Creation Baskets. For a cash creation order, an authorized participant will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, cash to create Shares. For an in-kind creation order, an authorized participant or its designee will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, ETH to create Shares. For a cash redemption order, an authorized participant will deliver Shares to the Fund and will receive cash for the Shares delivered. For an in-kind redemption order, an authorized participant will deliver Shares to the Fund and the authorized participant or its designee will receive ETH for the Shares delivered.
The Sponsor (including its delegates) will maintain ownership and control of the Fund's ETH in a manner consistent with good delivery requirements for spot commodity transactions.
The Exchange proposes to amend several portions of the Crypto Index ETP Amendment No. 1 in order to permit in-kind creations and redemptions.
The Crypto Index ETP Amendment No. 1 included specific representations making clear that the Crypto Index Fund would only process creations and redemptions in cash. Specifically, the “Franklin Crypto Index ETF” section of the Crypto Index ETP Amendment No. 1 stated:
When the Fund sells or redeems its Shares, it will do so in cash transactions in large blocks of 50,000 Shares (a “Creation Basket”) at the Fund's NAV. For creations, authorized participants will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, cash to the Fund's account with the Cash Custodian in exchange for Shares. Upon receipt of an approved creation order, the Sponsor, on behalf of the Fund, will submit to one or more previously onboarded trading partners an order to buy the amount of bitcoin and ether represented by a Creation Basket.
The Exchange proposes to replace the above with the following:
When the Fund sells or redeems its Shares, it will do so in large blocks of 50,000 Shares (a “Creation Basket”) based on the quantity of bitcoin and ether attributable to each Share (net of the accrued but unpaid Sponsor's fee and any accrued but unpaid expenses or liabilities). Creation Baskets are issued and redeemed in exchange for (i) bitcoin and ether or (ii) cash. For cash creations, authorized participants will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, cash to the Fund's account with the Cash Custodian in exchange for Shares. Upon receipt of an approved cash creation order, the Sponsor, on behalf of the
Additionally, the “Creation and Redemption of Shares” section of the filing includes a detailed description of how the cash-only creation and redemption process works.
When the Fund sells or redeems its Shares, it will do so in Creation Baskets that are based on the quantity of bitcoin and ether attributable to each Share (net of the accrued but unpaid Sponsor's fee and any accrued but unpaid expenses or liabilities). Creation Baskets are issued and redeemed in exchange for (i) bitcoin and ether or (ii) cash. According to the Registration Statement, on any business day, an authorized participant may place an order to create one or more Creation Baskets. Purchase orders for cash transaction Creation Baskets must be placed by 2:00 p.m. ET (or such other time as disclosed in the Prospectus), or the close of regular trading on the Exchange, whichever is earlier. Purchase orders for in-kind transaction Creation Baskets must be placed by 4:00 p.m. ET (or such other time as disclosed in the Prospectus), or the close of regular trading on the Exchange, whichever is earlier. The day on which an order is properly received is considered the purchase order date.
For cash creations, authorized participants will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, cash to the Fund's account with the Cash Custodian in exchange for Shares. Upon receipt of an approved cash creation order, the Sponsor, on behalf of the Fund, will submit to one or more previously onboarded trading partners an order to buy the amount of bitcoin and ether represented by a Creation Basket. For in-kind creations, authorized participants or their designee will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, bitcoin and ether to the Fund's account with the Custodian in exchange for Shares.
For a cash creation order, the total deposit of cash required is based on the combined NAV of the number of Shares included in the Creation Baskets being created determined as of 4:00 p.m. ET on the purchase order date, in an amount sufficient to purchase the requisite amount of bitcoin and ether (as described below). For a creation order in-kind, the total in-kind transfer of bitcoin and ether is based on the quantity of bitcoin and ether attributable to the Creation Baskets being created determined as of 4:00 p.m. ET on the purchase order date. The Administrator determines the quantity of bitcoin and ether associated with a Creation Basket for a given day by dividing the number of bitcoin and ether held by the Fund as of the opening of business on that business day, adjusted for the amount of bitcoin and ether constituting estimated accrued but unpaid fees and expenses of the Fund as of the opening of business on that business day, by the quotient of the number of Shares outstanding at the opening of business divided by the number of Shares in a Creation Basket.
The procedures by which an authorized participant can redeem one or more Creation Baskets mirror the procedures for the creation of Creation Baskets. For a cash creation order, an authorized participant will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, cash to create Shares. For an in-kind creation order, an authorized participant or its designee will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, bitcoin and ether to create Shares. For a cash redemption order, an authorized participant will deliver Shares to the Fund and will receive cash for the Shares delivered. For an in-kind redemption order, an authorized participant will deliver Shares to the Fund and the authorized participant or its designee will receive bitcoin and ether for the Shares delivered.
The Sponsor (including its delegates) will maintain ownership and control of the Fund's bitcoin and ether in a manner consistent with good delivery requirements for spot commodity transactions.
Except for the above changes, all other representations in the Bitcoin ETP Amendment No. 1, as amended, the Eth ETP Amendment No. 1, and the Crypto Index ETP Amendment No. 1 remain unchanged and will continue to constitute continuing listing requirements. In addition, the Bitcoin Fund will continue to comply with the terms of Bitcoin ETP Amendment No. 1, as amended, the Eth Fund will continue to comply with the terms of Eth ETP Amendment No. 1, and the Crypto Index Fund will continue to comply with the terms of the Crypto Index ETP Amendment No.1 and the Funds will continue to comply with the requirements of Rule 14.11(e)(4).
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is designed to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest because it would update representations in the Bitcoin ETP Amendment No. 1, as amended, the Eth ETP Amendment No. 1, and the Crypto Index ETP Amendment No. 1 such that the Funds would be able to engage in in-kind creation and redemptions with authorized participants or their designees, as described above. This ability would make the Funds (and the market more generally) operate more efficiently because authorized participants would be able to source bitcoin and/or ether, as applicable, rather than to provide
Except for the addition of in-kind creation and redemption for the Bitcoin Fund as specifically set forth herein, all other representations made in the Bitcoin ETP Amendment No. 1, as amended, remain unchanged, and will continue to constitute continuing listing requirements for the Bitcoin Fund. Except for the addition of in-kind creation and redemption for the Eth Fund as specifically set forth herein, all other representations made in the Eth ETP Amendment No. 1 remain unchanged and will continue to constitute continuing listing requirements for the Eth Fund. Similarly, except for the addition of in-kind creation and redemption for the Crypto Index Fund as specifically set forth herein, all other representations made in the Crypto Index ETP Amendment No. 1 remain unchanged and will continue to constitute continuing listing requirements for the Crypto Index Fund.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. As noted above, the proposed amendment is intended to allow the Funds to operate more efficiently by allowing for in-kind creation and redemption. The Exchange believes these changes will not impose any burden on competition.
The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
A. by order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
B. institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Social Security Administration (SSA).
Notice of a new matching program.
In accordance with the provisions of the Privacy Act, as amended, this notice announces a new matching program with the United Stated Department of Health and Human Services, Office of Child Support Services (OCSS). Under this matching program, OCSS will provide SSA with quarterly wage (QW) and unemployment insurance (UI) information located in the National Directory of New Hires (NDNH) to allow SSA to determine eligibility of applicants for Extra Help (low-income subsidy assistance) under the Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act (MMA) of 2003. This agreement assists SSA in determining eligibility of applicants for Extra Help, redetermining eligibility of existing Extra Help beneficiaries during periodic screening, and administering the Extra Help program.
The deadline to submit comments on the proposed matching program is May 12, 2025.
The matching program will be applicable on May 27, 2025, or once a minimum of 30 days after publication of this notice has elapsed, whichever is later. The matching program will be in effect for a period of 18 months.
You may submit comments by any one of three methods—internet, fax, or mail. Do not submit the same
1.
2.
3.
Interested parties may submit general questions about the matching program to Andrea Huseth, Division Director, Office of Privacy and Disclosure, Office of Law and Policy, Social Security Administration, 6401 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21235-6401, at telephone: (410) 608-9675, or send an email to
None.
SSA and OCSS.
This computer matching agreement (agreement) between OCSS and SSA is executed pursuant to the Social Security Act (Act) and the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended. Subsection 453(j)(4) of the Act provides that OCSS shall provide the Commissioner of SSA with all information in the NDNH. 42 U.S.C. 653(j)(4). SSA has authority to use the data to determine entitlement to and eligibility for programs it administers pursuant to sections 1631(e)(1)(B) and(f), and 1860D-14(a)(3) of the Act, codified at 42 U.S.C. 1383(e)(1)(B) and (f), and 1395w-114(a)(3)). Disclosures under this agreement are authorized by routine uses published in each agency's applicable System of Records Notice pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(3).
The Act provides that the determination of whether a Part D eligible individual residing in a state is a subsidy eligible individual shall be determined under the state plan for medical assistance or by the Commissioner of Social Security. 42 U.S.C. 1395w-114(a)(3)(B)(i).
SSA has independent authority to collect this information regarding Medicare Parts A-D eligibility and premium calculations via sections 202-205, 223, 226, 228, 1611, 1631, 1818, 1836, 1839, 1840, and 1860D-1 to 1860D-15 of the Act (42 U.S.C. 402-405, 423, 426, 428, 1382, 1383, 1395i-2, 1395o, 1395r, 1395s, and 1395w-101 to 1395w-115).
This agreement governs a matching program between OCSS and SSA. OCSS will provide SSA with QW and UI information from the NDNH to assist SSA in determining eligibility of applicants for Extra Help (low-income subsidy assistance) under the Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act (MMA) of 2003 (Pub. L. 108-173) (Extra Help). This agreement also governs the use, treatment, and safeguarding of the information exchanged. OCSS is the “source agency” and SSA is the “recipient agency,” as defined by the Privacy Act. 5 U.S.C. 552a(a)(9) and (11).
This matching program assists SSA in: (1) determining eligibility of applicants for Extra Help; (2) redetermining eligibility of existing Extra Help beneficiaries during periodic screening; and (3) administering the Extra Help program.
The Privacy Act provides that no record contained in a system of records (SOR) may be disclosed for use in a computer matching program, except pursuant to a written agreement containing specified provisions. 5 U.S.C. 552a(o). SSA and OCSS are executing this agreement to comply with the Privacy Act and the regulations and guidance promulgated thereunder. OCSS and SSA have been parties to matching agreements for this purpose since April 1, 2005.
The individuals whose information is involved in this matching program are applicants and beneficiaries of Extra Help (low-income subsidy assistance).
SSA will provide OCSS the following data elements electronically in the finder file:
OCSS will provide electronically to SSA the following data elements from the NDNH QW file:
OCSS will provide electronically to SSA the following data elements from the NDNH UI file:
Data Elements SSA updates in the OCSS Financial Items (OCSSFITM) table if there is a match:
SSA's SOR is the Medicare Database file SOR, No. 60-0321, last fully published at 71 FR 42159 (July 25, 2006), amended at 72 FR 69723 (December 10, 2007), and at 83 FR 54969 (November 1, 2018).
OCSS will match SSA's information in the MDB against the QW and UI information furnished by state and federal agencies maintained in its SOR, “OCSS National Directory of New Hires” (NDNH), No. 09-80-0381, published in the
Social Security Administration (SSA).
Notice of a new matching program.
In accordance with the provisions of the Privacy Act, as amended, this notice announces a new matching program with the United States Department of the Treasury, Internal Revenue Service (IRS). Under this matching program, the IRS will disclose IRS to SSA certain return information for the purpose of verifying eligibility for the Medicare Part D Low Income Subsidy (LIS) and determines the correct subsidy percentage of benefits provided under the Social Security Act (Act).
Submit comments on the proposed matching program on or before May 12, 2025.
The matching program will be applicable on May 27, 2025, or once a minimum of 30 days after publication of this notice has elapsed, whichever is later. The matching program will be in effect for a period of 18 months.
You may submit comments by any one of three methods—internet, fax, or mail. Do not submit the same comments multiple times or by more than one method. Regardless of which method you choose, please state that your comments refer to Docket No. SSA-2024-0028 so that we may associate your comments with the correct regulation.
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2.
3.
Interested parties may submit general questions about the matching program to Andrea Huseth, Division Director, Office of Privacy and Disclosure, Office of Law and Policy, Social Security Administration, G-401 WHR, 6401 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21235-6401, at telephone: (410) 608-9675, or send an email to
None.
SSA and IRS.
This matching agreement between IRS and SSA is executed pursuant to section 6103(l)(7)(D) of the Internal Revenue Code (IRC) (26 U.S.C. 6103(l)(7)) authorizes IRS to disclose return information with respect to unearned income to Federal, State and local agencies administering certain benefit programs under the Act.
Section 1860D-14 of the Act requires the Commissioner of Social Security to determine the eligibility of applicants for the prescription drug subsidy who self-certify their income, resources, and family size. Pursuant to section 1860D-14(a)(3) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 1395w-114(a)(3)), SSA must determine whether a Medicare Part D eligible individual is a subsidy-eligible individual, and whether the individual is an individual as described in section 1860D-14(a) of the Act.
This agreement sets forth the terms and conditions, and safeguards under which the IRS will to disclose to SSA certain return information for the purpose of verifying eligibility for the Medicare Part D LIS, and determining the correct subsidy percentage of benefits provided under section 1860D-14 of the Act (42 U.S.C. 1395w-114).
The individuals whose information is involved in this matching program are beneficiaries for whom SSA must make Mediare Part D Low Income Subsidy determinations.
SSA will provide electronically to IRS the following data elements in the finder file:
IRS will disclose to SSA the following:
SSA's System of Records is the Medicare Database (MDB) File, 60-321, last fully published at 71 FR 42159 (July 25, 2006), and amended at 72 FR 69723 (December 10, 2007), and at 83 FR 54969 (November 1, 2018).
IRS will match SSA's information with its Information Return Master File (IRMF) and disclose to SSA return information with respect to unearned income from the IRMF [Treasury/IRS 22.061], as published at 77 FR 47946 (August 10, 2012), as amended by 80 FR 54081-082 (September 8, 2015), through the “Disclosure of Information to Federal, State and Local Agencies” program.
The Surface Transportation Board has received a request from Thompson Hine and Escalation Consultants, on behalf of the American Chemistry Council (ACC), (WB25-18—04/04/25) for permission to use select data from the Board's 2023 unmasked Carload Waybill Samples. A copy of this request may be obtained from the Board's website under docket no. WB25-18.
The waybill sample contains confidential railroad and shipper data; therefore, if any parties object to these requests, they should file their objections with the Director of the Board's Office of Economics within 14 calendar days of the date of this notice. The rules for release of waybill data are codified at 49 CFR 1244.9.
Any inquiries on this request should be directed to
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice.
This notice contains a summary of a petition seeking relief from specified requirements of Federal Aviation Regulations. The purpose of this notice is to improve the public's awareness of, and participation in, the FAA's exemption process. Neither publication of this notice nor the inclusion nor omission of information in the summary is intended to affect the legal status of the petition or its final disposition.
Comments on this petition must identify the petition docket number and must be received on or before May 1, 2025.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2024-2466 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Kara White, 202-267-3793, Office of Rulemaking, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591.
This notice is published pursuant to 14 CFR 11.85.
Issued in Washington, DC.
Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice; withdrawal.
The FHWA is withdrawing the notice, “Agency Information Collection Activities: Request for Comments for a New Information Collection,” published in the
Jazmyne Lewis, (202)-366-2826/
The FHWA is withdrawing the notice published in the
Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), Department of Transportation.
Notice of request for reinstatement of a previously approved information collection.
The FHWA has forwarded the information collection request described
Please submit comments by May 12, 2025.
You may submit comments identified by DOT Docket ID Number 0002 by any of the following methods:
Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
Derrick Roma (202) 451-0787, Office of Real Estate Services, Federal Highway Administration, Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590. Office hours are from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
We published a
Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice; withdrawal.
The FHWA is withdrawing the notice, “Agency Information Collection Activities: Request for Comments for a New Information Collection,” published in the
Jazmyne Lewis, (202) 366-2826/
The FHWA is withdrawing the notice published in the
Unified Carrier Registration Plan.
Notice.
The Unified Carrier Registration (UCR) Plan Board of Directors (Board) is requesting nominations of qualified individuals for possible appointment by the FMCSA to one of the Board's motor carrier industry positions. Each nominee must be a representative of “a motor carrier that falls within the smallest fleet fee bracket.” The term for this position will begin immediately upon appointment and expire on May 31, 2027.
Nominations of or expressions of interest by qualified individuals, along with accompanying resumes, must be received on or before May 12, 2025.
Nominations of or expressions of interest by qualified individuals may be received by any of the following methods—internet, regular mail, courier, or hand-delivery.
Elizabeth Leaman, Chair, Unified Carrier Registration Plan Board of Directors, (617) 305-3783,
Section 14504a(d)(1)(B) directed the Secretary of Transportation to establish a UCR Plan Board of Directors made up of 15 members from FMCSA, State Governments, and the motor carrier industry. The establishment of the Board was announced in the
Section 14504a(d)(1)(B) provides that the Board must consist of directors from the following groups:
The Board is soliciting nominations of or expressions of interest by qualified individuals who are interested in being considered by the FMCSA for appointment to the Board as a representative of “a motor carrier that falls within the smallest fleet fee bracket.” The Board previously published a notice in the
All nominations of or expressions of interest for the director position described above must be submitted on or before May 12, 2025. Nominations or expressions of interest should indicate that the individual nominated or interested meets the statutory requirements specified in 49 U.S.C. 14504a(d)(1)(B). All applications must include a current resume.
As the authority to appoint individuals to the Board lies with Secretary of Transportation and has been delegated to FMCSA, the Board will forward all nominations or expressions of interest to FMCSA for consideration. The UCR Plan Board may, but is not required to, recommend to FMCSA the appointment of individuals from among the nominations or expressions of interest received. If the Board does make such recommendation(s), it will do so after consideration during an open meeting in compliance with the Government in the Sunshine Act that includes such recommendation(s) as part of the subject matter of the meeting.