Industry and Security Bureau
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Western Area Power Administration
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Drug Enforcement Administration
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Federal Aviation Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Foreign Assets Control Office
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Final guide; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing a new Regulatory Guide (RG) 3.78 (Revision 0), “Acceptable ASME Section XI Inservice Inspection Code Cases.” This new RG provides applicants and licensees with methods that the NRC staff considers acceptable for specific or general independent spent fuel storage installation (ISFSI) licensees and certificate of compliance (CoC) holders to comply with NRC regulations for inservice inspection of confinement boundary components and aging management activities associated with the renewals of ISFSIs, general licensees, and CoC holders for spent fuel storage systems.
Revision 0 to RG 3.78 is available on February 14, 2025.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2024-0121 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Revision 0 to RG 3.78 and the regulatory analysis may be found in ADAMS under Accession Nos. ML24225A160 and ML24093A012, respectively.
Regulatory guides are not copyrighted, and NRC approval is not required to reproduce them.
Darrell Dunn, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, telephone: 301-415-7079; email:
The NRC is issuing a new guide in the NRC's “Regulatory Guide” series. This series was developed to describe methods that are acceptable to the NRC staff for implementing specific parts of the agency's regulations, to explain techniques that the staff uses in evaluating specific issues or postulated events, and to describe information that the staff needs in its review of applications for permits and licenses.
RG 3.78 was issued with a temporary identification of Draft Regulatory Guide, DG-3058 (ADAMS Accession No. ML24093A010).
The NRC published a notice of the availability of DG-3058, in the
The new RG 3.78 provides the NRC staff and the industry with guidance using codes and standards for inservice inspection of confinement boundary components and aging management activities associated with the renewals of ISFSIs, general licensees, and CoC holders for spent fuel storage systems. This RG is endorsing the American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME) Code Case N-860, “Inspection Requirements and Evaluation Standards for Spent Nuclear Fuel Storage and Transportation Containment Systems Section XI, Division 1; Section XI, Division 2,” dated July 6, 2020.
As noted in the
This RG is a rule as defined in the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801-808). However, the Office of Management and Budget has not found it to be a major rule as defined in the Congressional Review Act.
Issuance of this RG does not constitute backfitting as defined in 10 CFR 72.62, “Backfitting,” as defined in 10 CFR 50.109, “Backfitting,” and as described in NRC Management Directive (MD) 8.4, “Management of Backfitting, Forward Fitting, Issue Finality, and Information Requests” (ADAMS Accession No. ML18093B087); does not constitute forward fitting as that term is defined and described in MD 8.4; does not affect the issue finality of any approval issued under 10 CFR part 52, “Licenses, Certificates, and Approvals for Nuclear Powerplants.” As explained in RG 3.78, applicants and licensees would not be required to comply with the positions set forth in RG 3.78.
A member of the public may, at any time, submit suggestions to the NRC for improvement of existing RGs or for the development of new RGs. Suggestions can be submitted on the NRC's public website at
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 747-400, 747-400F, 747-8F, and 747-8 series airplanes. This AD was prompted by a report that, during potable water servicing, there were multiple engine indicating and crew alerting system messages. The cause was the separation of a fitting and steel water supply tube above an electronics equipment cooling air filter, behind the forward cargo compartment left sidewall. This AD requires, depending on configuration, installing at certain locations: conduits on exposed potable water supply lines, envelope assemblies over all exposed potable water line fittings and exposed potable water supply lines, a slitted spray shield, a two-piece deflector shield around the equipment cooling system (ECS) air inlet, and/or a shroud on exposed potable water supply lines. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective March 21, 2025.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of March 21, 2025.
• For Boeing material identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; website
• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at
Courtney Tuck, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3986; email:
The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain The Boeing Company Model 747-400, 747-400F, 747-8F, and 747-8 series airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The FAA received a comment from Air Line Pilots Association, International (ALPA) who supported the NPRM without change.
The FAA reviewed the relevant data, considered any comments received, and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products. Except for minor editorial changes, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.
The FAA reviewed Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-38A2146 RB, dated August 7, 2024. This material specifies procedures for, depending on configuration, installing: conduits on exposed potable water supply lines between station (STA) 580 and STA 650, between STA 575 and STA 650, or between STA 595 and STA 650, as applicable; envelope assemblies over all exposed potable water line fittings and exposed potable water supply lines between STA 650 and STA 660, between STA 640 and STA 660, between STA 570 and STA 580, between STA 570 and STA 580 and between STA 650 and STA 660, between STA 580 and STA 600 and between STA 650 and STA 660, or between STA 580 and STA 600, as applicable; a slitted spray shield; a two-piece deflector shield around the ECS air inlet STA 610; a spray shield; and/or a shroud on exposed potable water supply line between STA 550 and STA 680.
This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
The FAA estimates that this AD affects 178 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:
The FAA has included all known costs in its cost estimate. According to the manufacturer, however, some or all of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected operators.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective March 21, 2025.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 747-400, 747-400F, 747-8F, and 747-8 series airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-38A2146 RB, dated August 7, 2024.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 38, Water/waste.
This AD was prompted by a report that, during potable water servicing, there were multiple engine indicating and crew alerting system messages. The cause was the separation of a fitting and steel water supply tube above an electronics equipment cooling air filter, behind the forward cargo compartment left sidewall. The FAA is issuing this AD to address water leaks into the main electronics center. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in an adverse impact on the function of multiple electronics and line replaceable units (LRUs) in the equipment bay racks that are essential for safe flight, which can lead to the loss of continued safe flight and landing.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as specified by paragraph (h) of this AD: At the applicable times specified in the “Compliance” paragraph of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-38A2146 RB, dated August 7, 2024, do all applicable actions identified in, and in accordance with, the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-38A2146 RB, dated August 7, 2024.
Where the Compliance Time columns of the tables in the “Compliance” paragraph of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-38A2146 RB, dated August 7, 2024, refer to the original issue date of Requirements Bulletin 747-38A2146 RB, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.
(1) The Manager, AIR-520, Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the certification office, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by The Boeing Company Organization Designation Authorization
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Courtney Tuck, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3986; email:
(2) Material identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the address specified in paragraph (k)(3) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-38A2146 RB, dated August 7, 2024.
(ii) [Reserved]
(3) For Boeing material identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; website
(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.
(5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
The FAA is superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2016-20-12, AD 2018-17-21, and AD 2019-14-04, which applied to certain Airbus SAS Model A318, A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes. AD 2019-14-04 required revising the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations and terminated the provisions of AD 2018-17-21, which, in turn, terminated the provisions of AD 2016-20-12. This AD was prompted by the determination that new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations are necessary. This AD requires revising the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations, as specified in a European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD, which is incorporated by reference. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective March 21, 2025.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of March 21, 2025.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain other publication listed in this AD as of August 29, 2019 (84 FR 35812, July 25, 2019).
• For EASA material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email
• For Airbus material identified in this AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EIAS, Rond-Point Emile Dewoitine No: 2, 31700 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at
Timothy Dowling, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3667; email:
The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to supersede AD 2019-14-04, Amendment 39-19682 (84 FR 35812, July 25, 2019) (AD 2019-14-04). AD 2019-14-04 applied to certain Airbus SAS Model A318, A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes. AD 2019-14-04 required revising the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate new or more restrictive fuel airworthiness limitations. The FAA issued AD 2019-14-04 to address the potential of ignition sources inside fuel tanks, which, in combination with flammable fuel vapors, could result in a fuel tank explosion and consequent loss of the airplane.
AD 2019-14-04 specified that accomplishing the revision required by that AD terminates all requirements of AD 2018-17-21, Amendment 39-19375 (83 FR 44209, August 30, 2018) (AD 2018-17-21). AD 2018-17-21 specified that accomplishing the revision required by that AD terminates all requirements of AD 2016-20-12, Amendment 39-18678 (81 FR 72507, October 20, 2016) (AD 2016-20-12). This AD therefore supersedes AD 2016-20-12 and AD 2018-17-21 as those ADs have already been terminated.
The NPRM published in the
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to retain all of the requirements of AD 2019-14-04. The FAA also proposed to require revising the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate additional new or more restrictive airworthiness
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at
The FAA received comments from a commenter who supported the NPRM without change.
The FAA received additional comments from United Airlines (United). The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
United requested the FAA clarify whether future versions of Airbus A318/A319/A320/A321 Airworthiness Limitations Section (ALS), Part 5 may be incorporated [into their maintenance or inspection program] without requiring FAA approval for an alternative method of compliance (AMOC). United noted that EASA AD 2024-0047 states the use of later approved variations or revisions of Airbus A318/A319/A320/A321 Airworthiness Limitations Section (ALS), Part 5, Fuel Airworthiness Limitations (FAL), Revision 08, dated November 6, 2023, are acceptable for compliance with the requirements of EASA AD 2024-0047. United also noted Variation 8.1 of that document is released but not included in the proposed AD.
The FAA provides the following clarification: A later-approved revision of Airbus A318/A319/A320/A321 Airworthiness Limitations Section (ALS), Part 5, Fuel Airworthiness Limitations (FAL), Revision 08, dated November 6, 2023, is acceptable for compliance with the corresponding requirements of this AD without needing to obtain an AMOC from the FAA. A later-approved variation of that document is acceptable for compliance with the corresponding requirements of this AD for the tasks identified in the material referenced in EASA AD 2024-0047 only, without needing to obtain an AMOC. Therefore, this AD does not need to be revised to reference Variation 8.1 of the document.
United requested the FAA clarify whether AMOC AIR-676-20-138 would be terminated by paragraph (l)(1)(iii) of the proposed AD, which states that AMOCs approved previously for AD 2019-14-04 are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of EASA AD 2024-0047 that are required by paragraph (i) of the proposed AD, except AMOCs that specify Airbus A318/A319/A320/A321 Airworthiness Limitation Section (ALS), Part 5, Revision 06, or Revision 07 are not approved as AMOCs for paragraph (i) of the proposed AD.
The FAA agrees to clarify. AMOC AIR-676-20-138 for AD 2019-14-04 was issued to allow the use of Airbus A318/A319/A320/A321 Airworthiness Limitation Section (ALS), Part 5, Revision 06, dated October 11, 2019, or “applicable future EASA approved exclusive revisions or revisions in combination with its applicable variations” for accomplishing the actions specified in paragraph (g) of AD 2019-14-04, which are retained in paragraph (g) of this AD. However, AMOC AIR-676-20-138 does not apply to the requirements specified in paragraph (i) of this AD because it allows the use of all later-approved revisions (including Revision 06 and Revision 07) of Airbus A318/A319/A320/A321 Airworthiness Limitation Section (ALS), Part 5, while this AD requires the incorporation of Revision 08 of that document.
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, it has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on this product. Except for minor editorial changes, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.
EASA AD 2024-0047 specifies new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations for fuel airworthiness limitations items and critical design configuration control limitations (CDCCLs).
This AD also requires Airbus A318/A319/A320/A321 Airworthiness Limitations Section (ALS), Part 5, Fuel Airworthiness Limitations (FAL), Revision 05, dated June 13, 2018, which the Director of the Federal Register approved for incorporation by reference as of August 29, 2019 (84 FR 35812, July 25, 2019).
This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
The FAA estimates that this AD affects 1,920 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:
The FAA estimates the total cost per operator for the retained actions from AD 2019-14-04 to be $7,650 (90 work-hours × $85 per work-hour).
The FAA has determined that revising the existing maintenance or inspection program takes an average of 90 work-hours per operator, although the agency recognizes that this number may vary from operator to operator. Since operators incorporate maintenance or inspection program changes for their affected fleet(s), the FAA has determined that a per-operator estimate is more accurate than a per-airplane estimate.
The FAA estimates the total cost per operator for the new actions to be $7,650 (90 work-hours × $85 per work-hour).
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective March 21, 2025.
This AD replaces AD 2016-20-12, Amendment 39-18678 (81 FR 72507, October 20, 2016); AD 2018-17-21, Amendment 39-19375 (83 FR 44209, August 30, 2018); and AD 2019-14-04, Amendment 39-19682 (84 FR 35812, July 25, 2019) (AD 2019-14-04).
This AD applies to Airbus SAS airplanes identified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this AD, certificated in any category, with an original airworthiness certificate or original export certificate of airworthiness issued on or before November 6, 2023.
(1) Model A318-111, -112, -121, and -122 airplanes.
(2) Model A319-111, -112, -113, -114, -115, -131, -132, -133, -151N, -153N, and -171N airplanes.
(3) Model A320-211, -212, -214, -216, -231, -232, -233, -251N, -252N, -253N, -271N, -272N, and -273N airplanes.
(4) Model A321-111, -112, -131, -211, -212, -213, -231, -232, -251N, -251NX, -252N, -252NX, -253N, -253NX, -271N, -271NX, -272N, and -272NX airplanes.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 05, Time Limits/Maintenance Checks.
This AD was prompted by a determination that new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations are necessary. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the potential of ignition sources inside fuel tanks, which, in combination with flammable fuel vapors, could result in a fuel tank explosion and consequent loss of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (g) of AD 2019-14-04, with no changes. For airplanes with an original airworthiness certificate or original export certificate of airworthiness issued on or before June 13, 2018: Within 90 days after August 29, 2019 (the effective date of AD 2019-14-04), revise the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate the information specified in Airbus A318/A319/A320/A321 Airworthiness Limitations Section (ALS), Part 5, Fuel Airworthiness Limitations (FAL), Revision 05, dated June 13, 2018. The initial compliance time for doing the tasks is at the time specified in Airbus A318/A319/A320/A321 Airworthiness Limitations Section (ALS), Part 5, Fuel Airworthiness Limitations (FAL), Revision 05, dated June 13, 2018, or within 90 days after August 29, 2019, whichever occurs later. Accomplishing the revision of the existing maintenance or inspection program required by paragraph (i) of this AD terminates the requirements of this paragraph.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (h) of AD 2019-14-04, with a new exception. Except as required by paragraph (i) of this AD, after the maintenance or inspection program has been revised as required by paragraph (g) of this AD, no alternative actions (
Except as specified in paragraph (j) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2024-0047, dated February 19, 2024 (EASA AD 2024-0047). Accomplishing the revision of the existing maintenance or inspection program required by this paragraph terminates the requirements of paragraph (g) of this AD.
(1) This AD does not adopt the requirements specified in paragraphs (1) and (2) of EASA AD 2024-0047.
(2) Paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2024-0047 specifies revising “the AMP” within 12 months after its effective date, but this AD requires revising the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, within 90 days after the effective date of this AD.
(3) The initial compliance time for doing the tasks specified in paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2024-0047 is at the applicable “limitations” and “associated thresholds” as incorporated by the requirements of paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2024-0047, or within 90 days after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later.
(4) This AD does not adopt the provisions specified in paragraphs (4) and (5) of EASA AD 2024-0047.
(5) This AD does not adopt the “Remarks” section of EASA AD 2024-0047.
After the existing maintenance or inspection program has been revised as required by paragraph (i) of this AD, no alternative actions (
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(i) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.
(ii) AMOCs approved for AD 2019-14-04 are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of paragraph (g) of this AD.
(iii) AMOCs approved previously for AD 2019-14-04 are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of EASA AD 2024-0047 that are required by paragraph (i) of this
(2)
For more information about this AD, contact Timothy Dowling, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3667; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(3) The following material was approved for IBR on March 21, 2025.
(i) European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2024-0047, dated February 19, 2024.
(ii) [Reserved]
(4) The following material was approved for IBR on August 29, 2019 (84 FR 35812, July 25, 2019).
(i) Airbus A318/A319/A320/A321 Airworthiness Limitations Section (ALS), Part 5, Fuel Airworthiness Limitations (FAL), Revision 05, dated June 13, 2018.
(ii) [Reserved]
(5) For EASA material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email
(6) For Airbus material identified in this AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EIAS, Rond-Point Emile Dewoitine No: 2, 31700 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
(7) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.
(8) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
The FAA is superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2017-22-03, AD 2023-13-10, and AD 2024-04-03, which applied to certain Airbus SAS Model A318, A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes. AD 2017-22-03, AD 2023-13-10, and AD 2024-04-03 required revising the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations. This AD continues to require certain actions in AD 2023-13-10 and all actions in AD 2024-04-03, and requires revising the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations, as specified in a European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD, which is incorporated by reference. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective March 21, 2025.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of March 21, 2025.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain other publication listed in this AD as of April 19, 2024 (89 FR 18769, dated March 15, 2024).
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain other publications listed in this AD as of September 5, 2023 (88 FR 50005, dated August 1, 2023).
• For EASA material identified in this AD, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email
• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at
Timothy Dowling, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3667; email:
The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to supersede AD 2023-13-10, Amendment 39-22495 (88 FR 50005, August 1, 2023) (AD 2023-13-10), and AD 2024-04-03, Amendment 39-22682 (89 FR 18769, March 15, 2024) (AD 2024-04-03). AD 2023-13-10 and AD 2024-04-03 applied to certain Airbus SAS Model A318, A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes. AD 2023-13-10 required revising the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations. AD 2024-04-03 required revising the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate additional new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations and terminated certain requirements of AD 2023-13-10. The FAA issued AD 2023-13-10 and AD 2024-04-03 to address fatigue cracking, accidental damage, or corrosion in principal structural elements, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
The NPRM published in the
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to continue to require all requirements of AD 2024-04-03 and certain requirements of AD 2023-13-10. The FAA also proposed to require revising the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate additional new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations, as specified in EASA AD 2024-0031. The FAA is issuing this AD to address fatigue cracking, accidental damage, or corrosion in principal structural elements, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at
The FAA received comments from two commenters, Delta Air Lines (Delta) and United Airlines (United). The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
Delta requested that an exception be added to paragraph (o) of the proposed AD to exclude tasks in section 4 of Airbus A318/A319/A320/A321 Airworthiness Limitations Section (ALS) Part 2 (ALS Part 2). In correspondence between Delta and Airbus, Delta noted certain ALS Part 2 tasks did not include associated maintenance planning document (MPD) or airplane maintenance manual (AMM) references. Delta stated that Airbus replied that those tasks are in Section 4 of ALS Part 2 and are part of the Maintenance Program Publication Trigger (MPPT), and that the contents of section 4 have been excluded from the MPD because the requirements of section 4 are not applicable to any operator today. Airbus also stated that if the tasks in that section become applicable, they would be transferred to section 3 of that document.
The FAA agrees with adding an exception to paragraph (o) of this AD to exclude incorporation of Section 4, “Damage Tolerant—Airworthiness Limitations Items—tasks beyond MPPT,” of ALS Part 2 and has revised this AD accordingly. Tasks listed under the MPPT are a placeholder with no maintenance instructions. According to the binding schedule between Airbus and the FAA, maintenance instructions for these tasks must be provided by Airbus prior to reaching the threshold of such task. The FAA acknowledges when such tasks become applicable, Airbus moves them into Section 3 of ALS Part 2 as new requirements. Therefore, it is not necessary to incorporate Section 4 of ALS Part 2 into the applicable existing maintenance or inspection program.
Delta requested that a paragraph be added to the proposed AD stating AD 2017-22-03, Amendment 39-19083 (82 FR 49091, October 24, 2017) (AD 2017-22-03), has been superseded and is historical in reference. Delta noted AD 2017-22-03 required incorporation of ALS Part 1, Revision 02, and ALS Part 2, Revision 02. Delta also noted paragraph (j) of AD 2017-22-03 specified that incorporation of ALS Part 1, Revision 04, into the applicable maintenance or inspection program is a method of compliance for incorporation of ALS Part 1, Revision 02, and that this requirement was later terminated by AD 2018-17-19, Amendment 39-19373 (83 FR 44460, August 31, 2018) (AD 2018-17-19), which mandated ALS Part 1, Revision 05. Delta stated AD 2018-17-19 was subsequently superseded by AD 2019-19-15, Amendment 39-19751 (84 FR 54480, October 10, 2019) (AD 2019-19-15). Delta further stated while AD 2018-17-19 is noted as “Historical” in the FAA Dynamic Regulatory System (DRS), AD 2017-22-03 shows as “Current” in DRS.
The FAA agrees that all the requirements of AD 2017-22-03 have been terminated by previous ADs. After AD 2017-22-03 was issued, subsequent ALS Part 1 revisions and ALS Part 2 revisions were separated into different AD actions. The FAA acknowledges the requirements to incorporate ALS Part 1, Revision 02, were terminated by AD 2018-17-19, which was later terminated by AD 2019-19-15. The FAA subsequently issued AD 2020-21-11, Amendment 39-21284 (85 FR 65674, October 16, 2020), to supersede AD 2018-17-19 and AD 2019-19-15. AD 2022-22-10, Amendment 39-22225 (87 FR 72374, November 25, 2022), is the AD that requires incorporation of ALS Part 1, Revision 08.
The remaining requirements of AD 2017-22-03 pertaining to incorporation of ALS Part 2, Revision 02, were terminated by AD 2018-25-02, Amendment 39-19513 (83 FR 62690, December 6, 2018) (AD 2018-25-02), which was later terminated by AD 2019-23-01, Amendment 39-19794 (84 FR 66579, December 5, 2019) (AD 2019-23-01). The FAA subsequently issued AD 2020-20-05, Amendment 39-21261 (85 FR 65197, October 15, 2020) (AD 2020-20-05), to supersede AD 2018-25-02 and AD 2019-23-01. The FAA then issued AD 2023-13-10 (which requires incorporation of ALS Part 2, Revision 09) to supersede AD 2020-20-05. This AD requires incorporation of ALS Part 2, Revision 10, Issue 02, as specified in EASA AD 2024-0031.
The FAA recognizes that AD 2017-22-03 should have been superseded with issuance of AD 2020-20-05 and AD 2020-21-11. Therefore, the FAA has revised this AD to supersede AD 2017-22-03. Note the requirements of AD 2017-22-03 are not restated in this AD because those requirements were terminated by previous ADs that mandated incorporation of later revisions to ALS Part 1 and ALS Part 2. After the effective date of this AD, the FAA will recategorize AD 2017-22-03 as historical in the DRS.
United requested that the proposed AD be revised to allow extensions provided in Airbus Statement of Compliance (ASAC) when it supports extensions to compliance times of specified ALS Part 2 tasks as an alternative method of compliance (AMOC). United noted that Airbus does not have the authority for Design Organization Approval (DOA) signatures on ASACs. United stated Airbus analysis and technical substantiations justify that the extensions in an ASAC provide an acceptable level of safety to ensure that the structural integrity of the aircraft is maintained.
The FAA disagrees, since the FAA needs to review each individual extension request, which can then be supported through the AMOC process, provided sufficient justification is available. Sufficient justification, supported by an acceptable level of safety, is needed to grant such a request. In such situations, the operator should work with the FAA as early as possible. The FAA has not revised this AD in this regard.
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of
EASA AD 2024-0031 specifies new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations for airplane structures and safe life limits.
This AD also requires the following material, which the Director of the Federal Register approved for incorporation by reference as of September 5, 2023 (88 FR 50005, August 1, 2023):
• EASA AD 2022-0085, dated May 12, 2022.
• EASA AD 2023-0008, dated January 16, 2023.
This AD also requires EASA AD 2023-0151, dated July 25, 2023, which the Director of the Federal Register approved for incorporation by reference as of April 19, 2024 (89 FR 18769, March 15, 2024).
This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
The FAA estimates that this AD affects 1,898 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:
The FAA estimates the total cost per operator for the retained actions from AD 2023-13-10 to be $7,650 (90 work-hours × $85 per work-hour).
The FAA estimates the total cost per operator for the retained actions from AD 2024-04-03 to be $7,650 (90 work-hours × $85 per work-hour).
The FAA has determined that revising the existing maintenance or inspection program takes an average of 90 work-hours per operator, although the agency recognizes that this number may vary from operator to operator. Since operators incorporate maintenance or inspection program changes for their affected fleet(s), the FAA has determined that a per-operator estimate is more accurate than a per-airplane estimate.
The FAA estimates the total cost per operator for the new actions to be $7,650 (90 work-hours × $85 per work-hour).
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective March 21, 2025.
(1) This AD replaces AD 2017-22-03, Amendment 39-19083 (82 FR 49091, October 24, 2017).
(2) This AD replaces AD 2023-13-10, Amendment 39-22495 (88 FR 50005, August 1, 2023) (AD 2023-13-10).
(3) This AD replaces AD 2024-04-03, Amendment 39-22682 (89 FR 18769, March 15, 2024) (AD 2024-04-03).
This AD applies to Airbus SAS airplanes specified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (4), certificated in any category, with an original airworthiness certificate or original export certificate of airworthiness issued on or before December 19, 2023.
(1) Model A318-111, -112, -121, and -122 airplanes.
(2) Model A319-111, -112, -113, -114, -115, -131, -132, -133, -151N, -153N, and -171N airplanes.
(3) Model A320-211, -212, -214, -216, -231, -232, -233, -251N, -252N, -253N, -271N, -272N, and -273N airplanes.
(4) Model A321-111, -112, -131, -211, -212, -213, -231, -232, -251N, -252N, -253N, -271N, -272N, -251NX, -252NX, -253NX, -271NX, and -272NX airplanes.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 05, Time Limits/Maintenance Checks.
This AD was prompted by a determination that new or more restrictive airworthiness limitations are necessary. The FAA is issuing this AD to address fatigue cracking, accidental damage, or corrosion in principal structural elements, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (o) of AD 2023-13-10, with new terminating action. For airplanes with an original airworthiness certificate or original export certificate of airworthiness issued on or before November 10, 2022: Except as
This paragraph restates the exceptions specified in paragraph (p) of AD 2023-13-10, with no changes.
(1) The requirements specified in paragraphs (1) and (2) of EASA AD 2022-0085 and of EASA AD 2023-0008 do not apply to this AD.
(2) Paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2022-0085 and of EASA AD 2023-0008 specifies revising “the approved AMP” within 12 months after its effective date, but this AD requires revising the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, within 90 days after September 5, 2023 (the effective date of AD 2023-13-10).
(3) The initial compliance time for doing the tasks specified in paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2022-0085 and of EASA AD 2023-0008 is at the applicable “thresholds” as incorporated by the requirements of paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2022-0085 and of EASA AD 2023-0008, respectively, or within 90 days after September 5, 2023 (the effective date of AD 2023-13-10), whichever occurs later. Where EASA AD 2023-0008 affects the same airworthiness limitations as those in EASA AD 2022-0085, the airworthiness limitations referenced in EASA AD 2023-0008 prevail.
(4) The provisions specified in paragraphs (4) and (5) of EASA AD 2022-0085 and of EASA AD 2023-0008 do not apply to this AD.
(5) This AD does not adopt the “Remarks” section of EASA AD 2022-0085 and of EASA AD 2023-0008.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (q) of AD 2023-13-10, with a new exception. Except as required by paragraphs (j) and (n) of this AD, after the existing maintenance or inspection program has been revised as required by paragraph (g) of this AD, no alternative actions (
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (g) of AD 2024-04-03, with new terminating action. For airplanes with an original airworthiness certificate or original export certificate of airworthiness issued on or before May 12, 2023: Except as specified in paragraph (k) of this AD, comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, EASA AD 2023-0151, dated July 25, 2023 (EASA AD 2023-0151). Accomplishing the revision of the existing maintenance or inspection program required by paragraph (n) of this AD terminates the requirements of this paragraph.
This paragraph restates the exceptions specified in paragraph (h) of AD 2024-04-03, with no changes.
(1) This AD does not adopt the requirements specified in paragraphs (1) and (2) of EASA AD 2023-0151.
(2) Where paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2023-0151 specifies “Within 12 months after the effective date of this AD, revise the approved AMP,” this AD requires replacing that text with “Within 90 days after April 19, 2024 (the effective date of AD 2024-04-03), revise the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable.”
(3) The initial compliance time for doing the tasks specified in paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2023-0151 is at the applicable “associated thresholds” as incorporated by the requirements of paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2023-0151, or within 90 days after April 19, 2024 (the effective date of AD 2024-04-03), whichever occurs later.
(4) This AD does not adopt the provisions specified in paragraph (4) of EASA AD 2023-0151.
(5) This AD does not adopt the “Remarks” section of EASA AD 2023-0151.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (i) of AD 2024-04-03, with no changes. Except as required by paragraph (n) of this AD, after the existing maintenance or inspection program has been revised as required by paragraph (j) of this AD, no alternative actions (
This paragraph restates the provisions of paragraph (j) of AD 2024-04-03, with no changes. Accomplishing the actions required by paragraph (j) of this AD terminates the corresponding requirements of paragraph (g) of this AD for the tasks identified in the service information referenced in EASA AD 2023-0151 only.
Except as specified in paragraph (o) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, EASA AD 2024-0031, dated January 31, 2024; corrected February 1, 2024 (EASA AD 2024-0031). Accomplishing the revision of the existing maintenance or inspection program required by this paragraph terminates the requirements of paragraphs (g) and (j) of this AD.
(1) This AD does not adopt the requirements specified in paragraphs (1) and (2) of EASA AD 2024-0031.
(2) Paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2024-0031 specifies revising “the approved AMP,” within 12 months after its effective date, but this AD requires revising the existing maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, within 90 days after the effective date of this AD.
(3) The initial compliance time for doing the tasks specified in paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2024-0031 is at the applicable “associated thresholds” as incorporated by the requirements of paragraph (3) of EASA AD 2024-0031, or within 90 days after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later.
(4) This AD does not adopt the provisions specified in paragraphs (4), (5), and (6) of EASA AD 2024-0031.
(5) This AD does not require incorporating Section 4, “Damage Tolerant—Airworthiness Limitations Items—tasks beyond MPPT,” of “the ALS” specified in EASA AD 2024-0031.
(6) This AD does not adopt the “Remarks” section of EASA AD 2024-0031.
After the existing maintenance or inspection program has been revised as required by paragraph (n) of this AD, no alternative actions (
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(i) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.
(ii) AMOCs approved previously for AD 2023-13-10 and AD 2024-04-03 are
(2)
For more information about this AD, contact Timothy Dowling, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3667; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(3) The following material was approved for IBR on March 21, 2025.
(i) European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2024-0031, dated January 31, 2024; corrected February 1, 2024.
(ii) [Reserved]
(4) The following material was approved for IBR on April 19, 2024 (89 FR 18769, dated March 15, 2024).
(i) EASA AD 2023-0151, dated July 25, 2023.
(ii) [Reserved]
(5) The following material was approved for IBR on September 5, 2023 (88 FR 50005, dated August 1, 2023).
(i) EASA AD 2022-0085, dated May 12, 2022.
(ii) EASA AD 2023-0008, dated January 16, 2023.
(6) For EASA material identified in this AD contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email
(7) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.
(8) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule; request for comments.
The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Costruzioni Aeronautiche Tecnam S.P.A. (Tecnam) Model P2010 and P2010 TDI airplanes. This AD was prompted by the disconnection of a rudder pedals torque tube from one of its hinges. This AD requires modifying the airplane by installing larger diameter retainer washers on both the left-hand (LH) and right-hand (RH) rudder pedals torque tube hinges, installing new self-locking nuts, doing a functional or operating test of the system to ensure the retaining washers are installed properly, and applying a torque stripe on the LH and RH nuts and bolts threads. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective March 3, 2025.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of March 3, 2025.
The FAA must receive comments on this AD by March 31, 2025.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
• For Tecnam material identified in this AD, contact TECNAM Costruzioni Aeronautiche S.p.A., Via Maiorise, 81043 Capua CE, Italy; phone: +39 0823 997538; email:
• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 901 Locust, Kansas City, MO 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110. It is also available at
Emma Copeland, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: (678) 227-4257; email:
The FAA invites you to send any written data, views, or arguments about this final rule. Send your comments to an address listed under
Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to
CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this AD contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and
The European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued AD 2024-0239, dated December 10, 2024 (EASA AD 2024-0239) (also referred to as the MCAI), to correct an unsafe condition on certain serial-numbered Tecnam Model P2010 and P2010 TDI airplanes, except those on which Tecnam Modification MOD2010/359 has been embodied. The MCAI states that an occurrence was reported of the disconnection of a rudder pedals torque tube from one of its hinges. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in the rudder pedals assembly slipping out of its housing, resulting in the inability of the flightcrew to maintain the safe flight and landing of the airplane and loss of control of the airplane. To address the unsafe condition, Tecnam designed Modification MOD2010/359, which introduces larger diameter retainer washers on the LH and RH rudder pedals torque tube hinges, and issued a modification service bulletin for in-service airplanes. EASA issued the MCAI to require modification of in-service airplanes.
The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at
The FAA reviewed TECNAM Service Bulletin No. 817-CS-Ed. 1, Rev. 1, dated December 11, 2024 (TECNAM SB 817-CS-Ed. 1, Rev. 1). This material specifies procedures for modifying the LH and RH rudder pedals torque tube hinges by installing larger diameter retainer washers on the LH and RH rudder pedals torque tube hinges.
This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
These products have been approved by the aviation authority of another country and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, it has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and material referenced above. The FAA is issuing this AD after determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
This AD requires accomplishing the actions specified in TECNAM SB 817-CS-Ed. 1, Rev. 1, described previously.
Section 553(b) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 551
An unsafe condition exists that requires the immediate adoption of this AD without providing an opportunity for public comments prior to adoption. The FAA has found that the risk to the flying public justifies foregoing notice and comment prior to adoption of this rule because a rudder pedal torque tube disconnecting from one of its hinges could cause the rudder pedals assembly to slip out of its housing resulting in the inability of the flightcrew to maintain the safe flight and landing of the airplane. Since this condition can result rapidly and without warning, the FAA has determined that the rudder pedal torque tube hinges must be modified within 25 hours time-in-service or 30 days, whichever occurs first after the effective date of this AD. These compliance times are shorter than the time necessary for the public to comment and for publication of the final rule. Accordingly, notice and opportunity for prior public comment are impracticable and contrary to the public interest pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b).
In addition, the FAA finds that good cause exists pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d) for making this amendment effective in less than 30 days, for the same reasons the FAA found good cause to forgo notice and comment.
The requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) do not apply when an agency finds good cause pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553 to adopt a rule without prior notice and comment. Because the FAA has determined that it has good cause to adopt this rule without prior notice and comment, RFA analysis is not required.
The FAA estimates that this AD affects 100 airplanes of U.S. registry.
The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:
The FAA has included all known costs in its cost estimate. According to the manufacturer, however, some of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected operators.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue
The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866, and
(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective March 3, 2025.
None.
This AD applies to Costruzioni Aeronautiche Tecnam S.P.A. (Tecnam) Model P2010 and P2010 TDI airplanes, all serial numbers (S/Ns) up to and including S/N 317, certificated in any category, except those on which the Tecnam modification MOD2010/359 has been installed.
Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC) Code 2720, Rudder Control System.
This AD was prompted by the disconnection of a rudder pedals torque tube from one of its hinges. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in the rudder pedals assembly slipping out of its housing, resulting in the inability of the flightcrew to maintain the safe flight and landing of the airplane and loss of control of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 25 hours time-in-service or 30 days, whichever occurs first after the effective date of this AD, modify your airplane by installing larger diameter retainer washers on the left-hand (LH) and right-hand (RH) rudder pedals torque tube hinges, installing new self-locking nuts, doing a functional or operating test of the system to ensure the retaining washers are installed properly and do not interfere with the lugs, and applying a torque stripe on the LH and RH nuts and bolts threads, in accordance with steps N 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7 of Appendix B, Accomplishment Instructions, in TECNAM Service Bulletin No. 817-CS-Ed. 1, Rev. 1, dated December 11, 2024.
A one-time special flight permit may be issued in accordance with 14 CFR 21.197 and 21.199 in order to fly to a maintenance base to perform the required action in this AD provided it is a non-revenue flight and limited to only essential flight crew.
You may take credit for the actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD if you performed those actions before the effective date of this AD using TECNAM Service Bulletin No. 817-CS-Ed. 1, Rev. 0, dated December 6, 2024.
The Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the International Validation Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k)(1) of this AD and email to:
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Emma Copeland, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone: (678) 227-4257; email:
(2) Material identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the address specified in paragraph (l)(3) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) TECNAM Service Bulletin No. 817-CS-Ed. 1, Rev. 1, dated December 11, 2024.
(ii) [Reserved]
(3) For Tecnam material identified in this AD, contact TECNAM Costruzioni Aeronautiche S.p.A., Via Maiorise, 81043 Capua CE, Italy; phone: +39 0823 997538; email:
(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 901 Locust, Kansas City, MO 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.
(5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Airbus Canada Limited Partnership Model BD-500-1A10 and BD-500-1A11 airplanes. This AD was prompted by reported events of annunciated horizontal stabilizer trim actuator (HSTA) jams occurring at the end of the cruise phase of flight. This AD requires lubricating the HSTA using an improved method, at a reduced interval, as specified in a Transport Canada AD, which is incorporated by reference. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective March 21, 2025.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of March 21, 2025.
• For Transport Canada material identified in this AD, contact Transport Canada, Transport Canada National Aircraft Certification, 159 Cleopatra Drive, Nepean, Ontario K1A 0N5, Canada; telephone 888-663-3639; email
• You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at
Mark Taylor, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone 781-238-7229; email
The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain Airbus Canada Limited Partnership Model BD-500-1A10 and BD-500-1A11 airplanes. The NPRM published in the
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to require lubricating the HSTA using an improved method, at a reduced interval, as specified in Transport Canada AD CF-2023-68R1. The FAA is issuing this AD to address water intrusion and subsequent freezing, which causes jamming of the HSTA, resulting in the loss of pitch trim capability.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at
The FAA received comments from the Air Line Pilots Association, International (ALPA), and an individual, who supported the NPRM without change.
The FAA received additional comments from Delta Air Lines. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
Delta requested that the FAA issue an AD to mandate an AWL in lieu of mandating the actions specified in Airbus Canada Limited Partnership Service Bulletin BD500-274006, Issue 001, dated June 29, 2023 (Airbus Canada Limited Partnership Service Bulletin BD500-274006). As an alternative, Delta requested that the FAA revise the proposed AD to allow the AWL as another acceptable means of compliance. Delta stated that Airbus Canada released A220 AWL Issue 018.00 on June 20, 2024, which adds CMR task C27-41-00-02 to perform the lubrication of the HSTA ballscrew assembly within intervals of 1,000 flight hours or 12 months. Delta noted that Airbus Canada Limited Partnership Service Bulletin BD500-274006 has a note that states it is not necessary to do the service bulletin after the HSTA lubrication interval given in the AWL manual is revised. Delta concluded that A220 AWL Issue 018.00 would be an acceptable means of compliance and an equivalent level of safety to Service Bulletin BD500-274006.
The FAA does not agree to include A220 AWL Issue 018.00 as an optional method of compliance. The AWL will not be mandated at this time. This AD corresponds to Transport Canada AD CF-2023-68R1, which mandates lubrication of the HSTA using Airbus Canada Limited Partnership Service Bulletin BD500-274006. By mandating the Transport Canada AD, the FAA minimizes differences between the FAA AD and the MCAI and MCAI-referenced service information. This FAA AD is consistent with FAA Order 8040.5, dated September 29, 2006, which covers the AD process for MCAIs. Furthermore, the FAA has not been provided any validation indicating equivalency of the requested change to the current MCAI requirement. Therefore, the FAA concurs with Transport Canada's requirement to mandate the service bulletin as specified in the Transport Canada AD. The FAA has not changed this AD in this regard.
Delta requested that the FAA add an exception to Airbus Canada Limited Partnership Service Bulletin BD500-274006 paragraph 3.2 to allow the use of Aircraft Maintenance Program (AMP) BD500-A-J12-20-27-12AAA-240B-A without referencing a revision level. Delta stated that per Airbus Canada Technical Request Case Number
The FAA disagrees with the request. In general, being in control of all aspects of an AD to minimize variability is critically important when addressing a safety issue. Limiting the allowable issues/revisions of service information is an important element of this process as the summation of numerous incremental changes over several issues/revisions can be significant. Therefore, the FAA is in full agreement with the Transport Canada AD and the reference to AMP BD500-A-J12-20-27-12AAA-240B-A at Issue 012 or later. The FAA has not changed this AD in this regard.
Delta requested that the FAA remove the 5-day “grace period” from the exceptions paragraphs (h)(3)(ii) and (h)(4)(ii) of the proposed AD. Delta stated that the previous versions of the Airbus A220 Airworthiness Limitations Issue 017.00 CCMR Section and MRB already included task 27-41-00-02 for the lubrication of the HSTA ballscrew assembly. Delta noted that in A220 AWL Issue 018.00, the task was transferred to the CMR section task C27-41-00-02; that task had a 12-month and 3,000-flight-hour limit. By including these requirements in the A220 AWL, MRBR, and MPD, the task already requires operators to perform the lubrication task within 12 months. Therefore, Delta concluded that no operator should be beyond the 12-month and 3,000-flight-hour limit, and thus there is no need to allow up to 5 days after the effective date requirement.
The FAA disagrees with the request. The allowance of a “grace period” (in this case 5 days) in a non-emergency AD is provided in order to avoid inadvertently and unnecessarily grounding any airplanes. The FAA has determined that providing a 5-day “grace period” will not adversely affect safety. The FAA notes that the commenter did not contend that the 5-day “grace period” is a problem or risk. The commenter is only contending that it “should” not be needed. If it is not needed, then it simply will not be utilized. However, if the 5-day “grace period” is needed, then it prevents inadvertent and unnecessary grounding of an airplane and provides operators with time after the effective date of the AD to accomplish the new lubrication task. The FAA has not revised this AD in this regard.
Paragraph (h)(1) of the proposed AD erroneously referred to the effective date of Transport Canada AD CF-2023-68R1, and should have referred to the effective date of AD CF-2023-68 (October 18, 2023). Paragraph (h)(1) of this AD has been revised accordingly.
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, it has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on this product. Except for minor editorial changes, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.
Transport Canada AD CF-2023-68R1 specifies improved procedures for lubricating the HSTA and repeating the lubrication at a reduced interval. This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
The FAA estimates that this AD affects 100 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective March 21, 2025.
None.
This AD applies to Airbus Canada Limited Partnership (Type Certificate previously held by C Series Aircraft Limited Partnership (CSALP); Bombardier, Inc.) Model BD-500-1A10 and BD-500-1A11 airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Transport Canada AD CF-2023-68R1, dated April 30, 2024 (Transport Canada AD CF-2023-68R1).
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 55, Stabilizers.
This AD was prompted by reported events of annunciated horizontal stabilizer trim actuator (HSTA) jams occurring at the end of the cruise phase of flight. Investigation revealed water intrusion in the primary ball nut and/or secondary nut housing of the HSTA ballscrew assembly. The FAA is issuing this AD to address water intrusion and subsequent freezing, which causes jamming of the HSTA, resulting in the loss of pitch trim capability. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in loss of control of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as specified in paragraph (h) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, Transport Canada AD CF-2023-68R1.
(1) Where Transport Canada AD CF-2023-68R1 refers to “the effective date of AD CF-2023-68 (18 October 2023),” this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.
(2) Where Transport Canada AD CF-2023-68R1 refers to hours air time, this AD requires using flight hours.
(3) Where paragraph A of Part I of Transport Canada AD CF-2023-68R1 specifies an initial compliance time for performing the lubrication of the HSTA, for this AD, the initial compliance time is at the earlier of the times specified in paragraphs (h)(3)(i) and (ii) of this AD.
(i) Within 1,100 flight hours after the effective date of this AD.
(ii) Within 12 months after the date of the most recent HSTA lubrication task, or within 5 days after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later.
(4) Where paragraph B of Part I of Transport Canada AD CF-2023-68R1 specifies an initial compliance time for performing the lubrication of the HSTA, for this AD, the initial compliance time is at the later of the times specified in paragraphs (h)(4)(i) and (ii) of this AD.
(i) Within 1,100 flight hours or 12 months, whichever occurs first, since the date of issuance of the original airworthiness certificate or the original export certificate of airworthiness.
(ii) Within 5 days after the effective date of this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
For more information about this AD, contact Mark Taylor, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone 781-238-7229; email
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Transport Canada AD CF-2023-68R1, dated April 30, 2024.
(ii) [Reserved]
(3) For Transport Canada AD CF-2023-68R1, contact Transport Canada, Transport Canada National Aircraft Certification, 159 Cleopatra Drive, Nepean, Ontario K1A 0N5, Canada; telephone 888-663-3639; email
(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.
(5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit
Bureau of Industry and Security, Department of Commerce.
Correcting amendment.
On January 16, 2025, BIS published in the
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Comments for the corrections in this rule may be submitted to the Federal rulemaking
All filers using the portal should use the name of the person or entity submitting the comments as the name of their files, in accordance with the instructions below. Anyone submitting business confidential information should clearly identify the business confidential portion at the time of submission, file a statement justifying nondisclosure and referring to the specific legal authority claimed, and provide a non-confidential version of the submission.
For comments submitted electronically containing business confidential information, the file name of the business confidential version should begin with the characters “BC.” Any page containing business confidential information must be clearly marked “BUSINESS CONFIDENTIAL” on the top of that page. The corresponding non-confidential version of those comments must be clearly marked “PUBLIC.” The file name of the non-confidential version should begin with the character “P.” Any submissions with file names that do not begin with either a “BC” or a “P” will be assumed to be public and will be made publicly available at:
• For general questions, contact Regulatory Policy Division, Office of Exporter Services, Bureau of Industry and Security, U.S. Department of Commerce at 202-482-2440 or by email:
• For Category 3 technical questions, contact Carlos Monroy at 202-482-3246 or by email:
On January 16, 2025, BIS published in the
This rule amends ECCN 3A090 by revising the first row and column in the license requirements table. The first column of the first row of the license requirements table is revised from “RS applies to the entire entry, except 3A090.a” to read “RS applies to 3A090.a”. The regional stability section of the EAR already states the license requirements for 3A090.a in § 742.6(a)(6)(iii)(A). That provision provides that there is a worldwide license requirement for ECCN 3A090.a items. If Note 1 to 3A090.a does not apply, then the license requirements for exports, reexports, or transfers (in-country) of ECCN 3A090.a items to destinations specified in Country Groups D:1, D:4, and D:5 remain in effect with a compliance date of December 2, 2024, consistent with the FDD IFR. Any items subject to Note 1 to ECCN 3A090.a are subject to worldwide license requirements with a compliance date of January 31, 2025, consistent with the January 16 IFR.
On August 13, 2018, the President signed into law the John S. McCain National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2019, which included ECRA (codified, as amended, at 50 U.S.C. 4801-4852). ECRA provides the legal basis for BIS's principal authorities and serves as the authority under which BIS issues this rule. In particular, and as noted elsewhere, Section 1753 of ECRA (50 U.S.C. 4812) authorizes the regulation of exports, reexports, and transfers (in-country) of items subject to U.S. jurisdiction. Further, Section 1754(a)(1)-(16) of ECRA (50 U.S.C. 4813(a)(1)-(16)) authorizes,
1. Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects and distributive impacts and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits and of reducing costs, harmonizing rules, and promoting flexibility. Pursuant to Executive Order 12866, as amended, this final rule has not been determined to be a “significant regulatory action.”
2. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person is required to respond to, nor shall any person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
This rule involves the following OMB-approved collections of information subject to the PRA:
• 0694-0088, “Multi-Purpose Application,” which carries a burden hour estimate of 29.4 minutes for a manual or electronic submission;
• 0694-0096, “Five Year Records Retention Period,” which carries a burden hour estimate of less than 1 minute;
• 0694-0122, “Licensing Responsibilities and Enforcement;” which carries a burden hour estimate of 10 minutes per electronic submission;
• 0694-0137, “License Exceptions and Exclusions;” which carries a burden hour estimate of 5 minutes per electronic submission; and
• 0607-0152, “Automated Export System (AES) Program,” which carries a burden hour estimate of 3 minutes per electronic submission.
The January 16 IFR that this rule is correcting will affect the collection under control number 0694-0088, for the multipurpose application because of the increase of 375 more license applications. BIS estimates that the changes included in the January 16 IFR will result in a net increase of 375 multi-purpose applications (
The January 16 IFR that this rule is correcting also involves a collection previously approved by the OMB under control number 0694-0137, “License Exceptions and Exclusions” because this rule modifies two EAR license exceptions, which now include new notification and reporting requirements. Specifically, the January 16 IFR adds
Additional information regarding these collections of information—including all background materials—can be found at:
3. This rule does not contain policies with federalism implications as that term is defined in Executive Order 13132.
4. Pursuant to Section 1762 of ECRA (50 U.S.C. 4821), this action is exempt from the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553) requirements for notice of proposed rulemaking, opportunity for public participation, and delay in effective date. While Section 1762 of ECRA on its own provides sufficient authority for such an exemption, this action is also independently exempt from the same APA requirements because it involves a military or foreign affairs function of the United States (5 U.S.C. 553(a)(1)). Nonetheless, BIS is accepting comments on this IFR.
5. Because a notice of proposed rulemaking and an opportunity for public comment are not required to be given for this rule under the APA (5 U.S.C. 553) or by any other law, the analytical requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, part 774 of the Export Administration Regulations (15 CFR parts 730 through 774) is corrected as follows:
50 U.S.C. 4801-4852; 50 U.S.C. 4601
a. Integrated circuits having one or more digital processing units having either of the following:
a.1. A `total processing performance' of 4800 or more;
a.2. A `total processing performance' of 1600 or more and a `performance density' of 5.92 or more.
c. High bandwidth memory (HBM) having a ‘memory bandwidth density’ greater than 2 gigabytes per second per square millimeter.
Consumer Product Safety Commission.
Direct final rule; correction.
The U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC) is correcting an error in a direct final rule, “Safety Standard for Non-Full-Size Baby Cribs,” issued pursuant to a statutory requirement in section 104 of the Consumer Product Safety Improvement Act (CPSIA), and published on January 31, 2025.
This correction is effective on April 5, 2025, unless the Commission receives a significant adverse comment by February 28, 2025. If the Commission receives such a comment, it will publish a document in the
See the
Alberta E. Mills, Office of the Secretary, U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission, 4330 East West Highway, Bethesda, Maryland 20814, telephone: 301-504-7479; email:
CPSC is correcting a direct final rule that appeared in the
(b) * * *
(14) Do not comply with sections 9.6.1 through 9.6.1.4 of ASTM F406-24.
Consumer Product Safety Commission.
Direct final rule; correction.
The U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC) is correcting an error in a direct final rule, “Safety Standard for Play Yards,” issued pursuant to a statutory requirement in section 104 of the Consumer Product Safety Improvement Act (CPSIA), and published on January 29, 2025.
This correction is effective on April 5, 2025, unless the Commission receives a significant adverse comment by February 28, 2025. If the Commission receives such a comment, it will publish a document in the
See the
Alberta E. Mills, Office of the Secretary, U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission, 4330 East West Highway, Bethesda, Maryland 20814, telephone: 301-504-7479; email:
CPSC is correcting a direct final rule that appeared in the
This rule is being published by the Office of the Federal Register to correct an editorial or technical error that appeared in the most recent annual revision of the Code of Federal Regulations.
This rule is being published by the Office of the Federal Register to correct an editorial or technical error that appeared in the most recent annual revision of the Code of Federal Regulations.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule; delay of effective date.
This document delays until March 20, 2025, the effective date of the December 20, 2024, final rule that adopted Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard (FMVSS) No. 305a to replace FMVSS No. 305, “Electric-powered vehicles: Electrolyte spillage and electrical shock protection.” FMVSS No. 305a applies to light and heavy vehicles and includes performance requirements for the propulsion battery. The final rule also established a part entitled, “Documentation for Electric-powered Vehicles,” that requires manufacturers to compile risk mitigation documentation and submit standardized emergency response information to assist first and second responders handling electric vehicles.
The effective date of the rule published on December 20, 2024, at 89 FR 104318, is delayed until March 20, 2025. The incorporation by reference approval of certain publications listed in the rule by the Director of the Federal Register is delayed until March 20, 2025.
Correspondence related to this rule should refer to the docket number set forth above (NHTSA-2024-0091) and be submitted to
In accordance with the memorandum of January 20, 2025 from the President to executive departments and agencies, entitled “Regulatory Freeze Pending Review,”
This action is exempt from notice and comment under 5 U.S.C. 553 and is effective immediately upon publication in the
Issued in Washington, DC, under authority delegated in 49 CFR 1.95 and 501.5.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule; delay of effective date.
This document delays until March 20, 2025, the effective date of the January 3, 2025, final rule that amended Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard (FMVSS) No. 208, “Occupant crash protection,” to require a seat belt use warning system for rear seats and enhance the seat belt warning requirements for the front outboard seats.
The effective date of the rule amending 49 CFR part 571 published January 3, 2025, at 90 FR 390, is delayed until March 20, 2025.
Correspondence related to this rule should refer to the docket number set forth above (NHTSA-2024-0071) and be submitted to
For non-legal issues, you may contact Ms. Carla Rush, Office of Crashworthiness Standards, Telephone: (202) 366-4583; Email:
In accordance with the memorandum of January 20, 2025, from the President to executive departments and agencies, entitled “Regulatory Freeze Pending Review,”
This action is exempt from notice and comment under 5 U.S.C. 553 and is effective immediately upon publication in the
Issued in Washington, DC, under authority delegated in 49 CFR 1.95 and 501.5.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule; delay of effective date.
This document delays until March 20, 2025, the effective date of the January 7, 2025, final rule that amends Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard (FMVSS) No. 225; Child restraint systems, and FMVSS No. 213b; Child restraint systems.
The effective date of the final rule amending 49 CFR parts 571 and 585, published January 7, 2025, at 90 FR 1288, is delayed until March 20, 2025. The incorporation by reference approval of certain material listed in the rule by the Director of the Federal Register is delayed until March 20, 2025.
Correspondence related to this rule should refer to the docket number set forth above (NHTSA-2024-0089) and be submitted to
In accordance with the memorandum of January 20, 2025, from the President to executive departments and agencies, entitled “Regulatory Freeze Pending Review,”
This action is exempt from notice and comment under 5 U.S.C. 553 and is effective immediately upon publication in the
Issued in Washington, DC, under authority delegated in 49 CFR 1.95 and 501.5.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule; delay of effective date.
This document delays until March 20, 2025, the effective date of the January 3, 2025, final rule that revised the chest jacket and spine box specifications for the Hybrid III 5th Percentile Female Test Dummy (HIII-5F) to address issues with fit and availability of the jacket and a noise artifact from the spine box.
The effective date of the rule, amending 49 CFR part 572, subpart O, published on January 3, 2025, at 90 FR 250, is delayed until March 20, 2025. The incorporation by reference of certain material listed in the rule is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of March 20, 2025.
Correspondence related to this rule should refer to the docket number set forth above (NHTSA-2024-0093) and be submitted to
For technical issues: Mr. Garry Brock, Office of Crashworthiness Standards, Telephone: (202) 366-6198; Facsimile: (202) 366-7002. For legal issues: Ms. K. Helena Sung, Office of the Chief Counsel, Telephone: (202) 366-2992, Facsimile: (202) 366-3820. The mailing address for these officials is: National
In accordance with the memorandum of January 20, 2025, from the President to executive departments and agencies, entitled “Regulatory Freeze Pending Review,”
This action is exempt from notice and comment under 5 U.S.C. 553 and is effective immediately upon publication in the
Issued in Washington, DC, under authority delegated in 49 CFR 1.95 and 501.5.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of proposed rule; cancellation of public hearing.
This document cancels a public hearing on proposed regulations regarding the Federal Income tax credit under the Inflation Reduction Act of 2022 for certain costs relating to qualified alternative fuel vehicle refueling property that is placed in service within a low-income community or within a non-urban census tract.
The public hearing scheduled for February 12, 2025, at 10 a.m. Eastern Time (ET) is cancelled.
See public comments submitted electronically via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
Oluwafunmilayo Taylor of the Publications and Regulations Section, Associate Chief Counsel (Procedure and Administration) at (202) 317-6901 (not a toll-free number).
A notice of proposed rulemaking appeared in the
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this information collection received by March 17, 2025 will be considered. Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
On January 17, 2025, the U.S. Court of International Trade (CIT) issued its final judgment in
Applicable January 27, 2025.
Bob Palmer, AD/CVD Operations, Office VIII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-9068.
On January 19, 2022, Commerce published its
KG Dongbu Steel appealed Commerce's
In its first remand redetermination, issued in July 2023, Commerce further explained its rationale for determining that the first through third debt-to-equity restructurings provided a countervailable benefit, that a benefit passed from Dongbu Steel to the new ownership in KG Dongbu Steel and that the uncreditworthy benchmark rate and unequityworthy discount rate are supported by substantial evidence.
In its second remand redetermination, issued in July 2024, Commerce determined, under protest, that no benefit was conferred through the first through third debt-to-equity restructurings and that the issue of whether benefits passed through to KG Dongbu Steel was moot.
In its decision in
Because there is now a final court judgment, Commerce is amending its
Because the Dongbu Steel Entity has a superseding cash deposit rate,
At this time, Commerce remains enjoined by CIT order from liquidating entries that were produced and/or exported by KG Dongbu Steel (formerly, Dongbu Steel), and its cross-owned company, Dongbu Incheon Steel, and were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption during the period January 1, 2019, through December 31, 2019. These entries will remain enjoined pursuant to the terms of the injunction during the pendency of any appeals process.
In the event the CIT's ruling is not appealed, or, if appealed, upheld by a final and conclusive court decision, Commerce intends to instruct CBP to assess countervailing duties on unliquidated entries of subject merchandise produced and/or exported by the Dongbu Steel Entity in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(b). We will instruct CBP to assess countervailing duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review when the
This notice is issued and published in accordance with sections 516A(c) and (e) and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Notice; correction.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) published notice in the
Terri Monroe, AD/CVD Operations, Customs Liaison Unit, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-1384.
On February 3, 2025, Commerce published in the
In the
This notice is not required by statute but is published as a service to the international trading community.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of a public meeting.
The Gulf of Mexico Fishery Management Council will hold a one day in-person meeting of its Shrimp Advisory Panel (AP).
The meeting will convene Tuesday, March 4, 2025, from 8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m., EST. For agenda details, see
The meeting will take place at the Gulf Council office. Registration information will be available on the Council's website by visiting
Dr. Matt Freeman, Economist, Gulf of Mexico Fishery Management Council;
The following items are on the agenda, though agenda items may be addressed out of order (changes will be noted on the Council's website when possible.)
Meeting will begin with Introduction of Members, Adoption of Agenda, Approval of Summary from December 16, 2024 Meeting, and Scope of Work. The AP will review and discuss Council Actions in Response to Motions from the December 2024
Following lunch, the AP will receive updates on Secure Digital Card Returns, Early Adopter Program, Southeast Regional Office Protected Resources
Lastly, the AP will receive any public testimony and discuss other business items.
Meeting Adjourns—
The in-person meeting will be broadcast via webinar. You may register by visiting
The Agenda is subject to change, and the latest version along with other meeting materials will be posted on
Although other non-emergency issues not on the agenda may come before the Advisory Panel for discussion, in accordance with the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act), those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Actions will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under Section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take-action to address the emergency at least 5 working days prior to the meeting.
The meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aid or accommodations should be directed to Kathy Pereira,
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of initiation of scoping process; notice of public scoping meetings; request for comments.
The Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council (Council) and the Atlantic States Marine Fisheries Commission (Commission) will hold 5 joint public scoping hearing to solicit public comments on potential topics to be addressed by a Recreational Sector Separation and Data Collection Amendment to the Summer Flounder, Scup, and Black Sea Bass Fishery Management Plan (FMP) and the Bluefish FMP. The Council and Commission are also accepting written scoping comments through March 20, 2025.
The meetings will be held between February 25, 2025 and March 5, 2025. For specific dates and times, see
Three of the meetings will be held by webinar only, and two meetings will be held in a hybrid format with in-person and webinar options. The two hybrid hearings with the option of in-person participation will take place in Narragansett, RI at 215 South Ferry Road, Narragansett, RI 02882; and Kings Park, NY at 123 Kings Park Blvd., Nissequogue River Park, Kings Park, NY 11754. Additional information and webinar connection details for all hearings are available at
Christopher M. Moore, Ph.D., Executive Director, Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council, telephone: (302) 526-5255.
The Council and Commission are considering development of an amendment to the Summer Flounder, Scup, and Black Sea Bass and Bluefish FMPs. The purpose of the proposed amendment is to consider options for managing for-hire recreational fisheries separately from other recreational fishing modes (referred to as sector separation), as well as options related to the collection and use of recreational data, such as private angler reporting and enhanced for-hire vessel trip reporting requirements. The Council and Commission are currently conducting
The Public Information/Scoping Document is available on the action web page at:
Scoping hearings will be hosted by states or groups of states. If you are unable to participate in your state's scheduled hearing, you are welcome to participate in any of the hearings. The hearing schedule is as follows and is also available at:
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In addition to the comment opportunity provided by the scoping hearings, the Council and Commission are accepting written scoping comments. Written comments will be accepted through 11:59 p.m. EST on Thursday, March 20, 2025 by any of the following methods:
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All comments, regardless of submission method, will be compiled into a single document for review and consideration by both the Council and Commission.
The meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Shelley Spedden at the Council Office, (302) 526-5251, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of a virtual meeting.
The North Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) Scallop Plan Team will meet on March 4, 2025.
The meeting will be held on Tuesday, March 4, 2025, from 12:30 p.m. to 4 p.m., AK time.
The meeting will be a virtual meeting. Attend online through the link at
Anita Kroska, Council staff; phone; (907) 271-2809; email:
The agenda will include: (a) 2024-25 overfishing determination; (b) 2024-25 statewide fishery performance; (c) status of stock assessment development; (d) socioeconomic update; (e) 2025 dredge survey plan, and (f) other business. The agenda is subject to change, and the latest version will be posted at
You can attend the meeting online using a computer, tablet, or smart phone, or by phone only. Connection information will be posted online at:
Public comment letters will be accepted and should be submitted electronically to
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meetings.
The Pacific Fishery Management Council (Pacific Council) and its advisory bodies will meet March 4-11, 2025, in Vancouver, WA and via webinar. The Council meeting will be live streamed with the opportunity to provide public comment remotely.
The Pacific Council and its advisory bodies will meet March 4-11, 2025. The Pacific Council meeting will begin on Thursday, March 6, 2025, at 9 a.m. Pacific Time (PT), reconvening at 8 a.m. on Friday, March 7 through Tuesday, March 11, 2025. All meetings are open to the public, except for a Closed Session held from 8 a.m. to 9 a.m., Thursday, March 6, to address litigation and personnel matters. The Pacific Council will meet as late as necessary each day to complete its scheduled business.
Mr. Merrick Burden, Executive Director, Pacific Council; telephone: (503) 820-2280 or (866) 806-7204 toll-free, or access the Pacific Council website,
The March 4-11, 2025 meeting of the Pacific Council will be streamed live on the internet. The broadcasts begin initially
The following items are on the Pacific Council agenda, but not necessarily in this order. Agenda items noted as “Final” refer to actions the Council may take requiring the transmission of a proposed fishery management plan, proposed plan amendment, or proposed regulations to the U.S. Secretary of Commerce, under Sections 304 or 305 of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Additional details on agenda items, Council action, and advisory entity meeting times, are described in Agenda Item A.3, Proposed Council Meeting Agenda, and will be in the advance March 2025 briefing materials and posted on the Pacific Council website at
Advisory body agendas will include discussions of relevant issues that are on the Pacific Council agenda for this meeting and may also include issues that may be relevant to future Council meetings. Proposed advisory body agendas for this meeting will be available on the Pacific Council website,
Although non-emergency issues not contained in the meeting agenda may be discussed, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during these meetings. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this document and any issues arising after publication of this document that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.
Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Mr. Kris Kleinschmidt (
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.
Proposed deletions from the Procurement List.
The Committee is proposing to delete product(s) and service(s) from the Procurement List that were furnished by nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities.
Comments must be received on or before: March 16, 2025.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 355 E Street SW, Suite 325, Washington, DC 20024.
For further information or to submit comments contact: Michael R. Jurkowski, telephone: (703) 489-1322, or email
This notice is published pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 8503(a)(2) and 41 CFR 51-2.3. Its purpose is to provide interested persons an opportunity to submit comments on the proposed actions.
The following product(s) and service(s) are proposed for deletion from the Procurement List:
Take notice that on January 31, 2025, Southern Star Central Gas Pipeline, Inc. (Southern Star), 4700 State Route 56, Owensboro, Kentucky 42301, filed in the above referenced docket, a prior notice request pursuant to sections 157.205 and 157.216(b) of the Commission's regulations under the Natural Gas Act (NGA), and Southern Star's blanket certificate issued in Docket No. CP82-479-000, for authorization to plug and abandon Webb Well 214, a pressure recovery well, in Southern Star's Webb Storage Field in Grant County, Oklahoma (Project).
The Project will enable Southern Star to reduce well integrity issues it identified in its Storage Integrity Management Plan which implements the storage integrity regulations of the Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Administration. Southern Star states that the Project will not affect service to existing customers or impact the Webb Storage Field's certificated parameters. The estimated cost for the project is $700,000.00, all as more fully set forth in the request which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection.
In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's website during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at
Any questions concerning this request should be directed to Jennifer Matthews, Manager, Regulatory, Southern Star Central Gas Pipeline, Inc., 4700 State Route 56, Owensboro, Kentucky 42301, by phone at (270) 316-2972, or by email to
There are three ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project: you can file a protest to the project, you can file a motion to intervene in the proceeding, and you can file comments on the project. There is no fee or cost for filing protests, motions to intervene, or comments. The deadline for filing protests, motions to intervene, and comments is 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on April 11, 2025. How to file protests, motions to intervene, and comments is explained below.
The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organizations, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or
Pursuant to section 157.205 of the Commission's regulations under the NGA,
Protests must comply with the requirements specified in section 157.205(e) of the Commission's regulations,
Any person has the option to file a motion to intervene in this proceeding. Only intervenors have the right to request rehearing of Commission orders issued in this proceeding and to subsequently challenge the Commission's orders in the U.S. Circuit Courts of Appeal.
To intervene, you must submit a motion to intervene to the Commission in accordance with Rule 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure
All timely, unopposed motions to intervene are automatically granted by operation of Rule 214(c)(1). Motions to intervene that are filed after the intervention deadline are untimely and may be denied. Any late-filed motion to intervene must show good cause for being late and must explain why the time limitation should be waived and provide justification by reference to factors set forth in Rule 214(d) of the Commission's Rules and Regulations. A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies (paper or electronic) of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties.
Any person wishing to comment on the project may do so. The Commission considers all comments received about the project in determining the appropriate action to be taken. To ensure that your comments are timely and properly recorded, please submit your comments on or before
There are two ways to submit protests, motions to intervene, and comments. In both instances, please reference the Project docket number CP25-58-000 in your submission.
(1) You may file your protest, motion to intervene, and comments by using the Commission's eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
(2) You can file a paper copy of your submission by mailing it to the address below. Your submission must reference the Project docket number CP25-58-000.
The Commission encourages electronic filing of submissions (option 1 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
Protests and motions to intervene must be served on the applicant either by mail at: Jennifer Matthews, Manager, Regulatory, Southern Star Central Gas Pipeline, Inc., 4700 State Route 56, Owensboro, Kentucky 42301, or by email (with a link to the document) at
Throughout the proceeding, additional information about the project will be available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC website at
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. For more information and to register, go to
Take notice that on January 31, 2025, Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC (Columbia), 700 Louisiana Street, Suite 1300, Houston, Texas 77002, filed in the above referenced docket, a prior notice request pursuant to sections 157.205 and 157.216(b) of the Commission's regulations under the Natural Gas Act (NGA), and Columbia's blanket certificate issued in Docket No. CP83-76-000, for authorization to abandon one injection/withdrawal well, connecting pipeline, and appurtenant facilities. All of the above facilities are located in its Ripley Storage Field in Jackson County, West Virginia (2025 Ripley Well 7297 Abandonment Project). Columbia concludes that the abandonment of Well 7297 will limit integrity risk in alignment with the guidance of the Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration Storage Final Rule. The estimated cost for the project is $462,000, all as more fully set forth in the request which is on file with
In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's website during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at
Any questions concerning this request should be directed to David A. Alonzo, Manager of Project Authorizations, Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC, 700 Louisiana Street, Suite 1300, Houston, Texas 77002-2700, by phone (832) 320-5477, or by email
There are three ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project: you can file a protest to the project, you can file a motion to intervene in the proceeding, and you can file comments on the project. There is no fee or cost for filing protests, motions to intervene, or comments. The deadline for filing protests, motions to intervene, and comments is 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on April 11, 2025. How to file protests, motions to intervene, and comments is explained below.
The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organizations, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or
Pursuant to section 157.205 of the Commission's regulations under the NGA,
Protests must comply with the requirements specified in section 157.205(e) of the Commission's regulations,
Any person has the option to file a motion to intervene in this proceeding. Only intervenors have the right to request rehearing of Commission orders issued in this proceeding and to subsequently challenge the Commission's orders in the U.S. Circuit Courts of Appeal.
To intervene, you must submit a motion to intervene to the Commission in accordance with Rule 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure
All timely, unopposed motions to intervene are automatically granted by operation of Rule 214(c)(1). Motions to intervene that are filed after the intervention deadline are untimely and may be denied. Any late-filed motion to intervene must show good cause for being late and must explain why the time limitation should be waived and provide justification by reference to factors set forth in Rule 214(d) of the Commission's Rules and Regulations. A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies (paper or electronic) of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties.
Any person wishing to comment on the project may do so. The Commission considers all comments received about the project in determining the appropriate action to be taken. To ensure that your comments are timely and properly recorded, please submit your comments on or before April 11, 2025. The filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. To become a party, you must intervene in the proceeding.
There are two ways to submit protests, motions to intervene, and comments. In both instances, please reference the Project docket number CP25-59-000 in your submission.
(1) You may file your protest, motion to intervene, and comments by using the Commission's eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
(2) You can file a paper copy of your submission by mailing it to the address below. Your submission must reference the Project docket number CP25-59-000.
The Commission encourages electronic filing of submissions (option 1 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
Protests and motions to intervene must be served on the applicant either by mail at: David A. Alonzo, Manager of Project Authorizations, Columbia Gas Transmission, LLC, 700 Louisiana Street, Suite 1300, Houston, Texas 77002-2700, or by email (with a link to the document)
Throughout the proceeding, additional information about the project will be available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC website at
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. For more information and to register, go to
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organizations, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or
Take notice that on February 6, 2025, of Robert Palmese submitted for filing, application for authority to hold interlocking positions, pursuant to section 305(b) of the Federal Power Act, 16 U.S.C. 825d(b) and Part 45.8 of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission) Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR part 45.8.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. On or before the comment date, it is not necessary to serve motions to intervene or protests on persons other than the Applicant.
In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's website during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at 202-502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organizations, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions,
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following public utility holding company filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, community organizations, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with
Western Area Power Administration, DOE.
Notice of rate order concerning Provo River Project's electric service formula rate.
The formula rate for the Colorado River Storage Project Management Center's (CRSP MC) Provo River Project electric service has been confirmed, approved, and placed into effect on an interim basis (Provisional Formula Rate). The new formula rate under Rate Schedule PR-3 replaces the existing formula rate for these services, under Rate Schedule PR-2, which expires on March 31, 2025, and makes no changes to the existing formula rate other than updating associated contract references.
The Provisional Formula Rate under Rate Schedule PR-3 is effective on the first day of the first full billing period beginning on or after April 1, 2025, and will remain in effect through March 31, 2030, pending confirmation and approval by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC) on a final basis, or until superseded.
Rodney Bailey, Regional Manager, CRSP MC, Western Area Power Administration, 1800 South Rio Grande Avenue, Montrose, CO 81401, or Tamala D. Gheller, Rates Manager, CRSP MC, Western Area Power Administration, 970-240-6545, or email:
On June 10, 2020, FERC confirmed and approved Rate Schedule PR-2 under Rate Order No. WAPA-189 on a final basis through March 31, 2025.
By Delegation Order No. S1-DEL-RATES-2016, effective November 19, 2016, the Secretary of Energy delegated: (1) the authority to develop power and transmission rates to the WAPA Administrator; (2) the authority to confirm, approve, and place such rates into effect on an interim basis to the Deputy Secretary of Energy; and (3) the authority to confirm, approve, and place into effect on a final basis, or to remand or disapprove such rates, to FERC. By Delegation Order No. S1-DEL-S3-2024, effective August 30, 2024, the Secretary of Energy also delegated the authority to confirm, approve, and place such rates into effect on an interim basis to the Under Secretary for Infrastructure. By Redelegation Order No. S3-DEL-WAPA1-2023, effective April 10, 2023, the Under Secretary for Infrastructure further redelegated the authority to confirm, approve, and place such rates into effect on an interim basis to WAPA's Administrator. This rate action is issued under Redelegation Order No. S3-DEL-WAPA1-2023 and Department of Energy procedures for public participation in rate adjustments set forth in 10 CFR part 903.
Following review of CRSP MC's proposal, Rate Order No. WAPA-221, which provides the formula rate for electric service, is hereby confirmed, approved, and placed into effect on an interim basis. WAPA will submit Rate Order No. WAPA-221 to FERC for confirmation and approval on a final basis.
The formula rate in Rate Order No. WAPA-221 is established following section 302 of the Department of Energy (DOE) Organization Act (42 U.S.C. 7152).
By Delegation Order No. S1-DEL-RATES-2016, effective November 19, 2016, the Secretary of Energy delegated: (1) the authority to develop power and transmission rates to the Western Area Power Administration (WAPA) Administrator; (2) the authority to confirm, approve, and place such rates into effect on an interim basis to the Deputy Secretary of Energy; and (3) the authority to confirm, approve, and place into effect on a final basis, or to remand or disapprove such rates, to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC). By Delegation Order No. S1-DEL-S3-2024, effective August 30, 2024, the Secretary of Energy also delegated the authority to confirm, approve, and place such rates into effect on an interim basis to the Under Secretary for Infrastructure. By Redelegation Order No. S3-DEL-WAPA1-2023, effective April 10, 2023, the Under Secretary for Infrastructure further redelegated the authority to confirm, approve, and place such rates into effect on an interim basis to WAPA's Administrator. This rate action is issued under Redelegation Order No. S3-DEL-WAPA1-2023 and DOE procedures for public participation in rate adjustments set forth in 10 CFR part 903.
As used in this Rate Order, the following acronyms, terms, and definitions apply:
The Provisional Formula Rate Schedule PR-3 will take effect on the first day of the first full billing period beginning on or after April 1, 2025, and will remain in effect through March 31, 2030, pending approval by FERC on a final basis or until superseded.
CRSP MC followed the Procedures for Public Participation in Power and Transmission Rate Adjustments and Extensions, 10 CFR part 903, in developing this formula rate. CRSP MC took the following steps to involve interested parties in the rate process:
1. On October 15, 2024, a
2. On October 15, 2024, CRSP MC notified Customers and interested parties of the proposed rate and provided a copy of the published Proposed FRN.
3. CRSP MC established a public website to post information about the rate process. The website is located at:
4. During the 30-day consultation and comment period, which ended on November 14, 2024, CRSP MC received no oral comment submissions or written comment letters.
CRSP MC prepares a PRS each FY to determine if revenues will be sufficient to repay, within the required time, all costs assigned to the Provo River Project. Repayment criteria are based on applicable laws and legislation, as well as policies including Order RA 6120.2. To meet the Cost Recovery Criteria outlined in Order RA 6120.2, CRSP MC developed a formula rate to demonstrate that sufficient revenues will be collected under the Provisional Formula Rates to meet future obligations. The Revenue Requirement is calculated every FY and is payable in 12 monthly installments. CRSP MC will forecast Provo River Project FY expenses by preparing a PRS, which will include estimates of future OM&R, associated interest expenses, and other assigned costs. This repayment schedule does not depend on the energy made available for sale or the year's generation amount. The amount of each monthly installment is established in advance and submitted to the Customers on or before August 31, before the new FY. Customers are to pay reimbursable investment and the OM&R of the Provo River Project and, in return, will receive all Surplus Marketable Energy produced.
CRSP MC will calculate the revenue requirement based on two years of data. The calculation also includes an adjustment. The adjustment is the surplus or deficit in the last historic year when actual costs and repayment obligations are subtracted from revenues. This surplus or deficit is combined with the projected revenue requirement year costs to arrive at the annual revenue requirement. Each Customer's annual installment pays the annual amortized portion of the United States' investment in the Provo River Project with interest and the associated OM&R.
To date, all investments not currently in progress (or in progress and not yet complete) are accounted for as construction-in-progress costs and have not been transferred to plant accounts for capitalization. Once transferred, an amortization schedule will be calculated for repayment. Current annual revenue requirement projections are based on the FY 2025 Reclamation and WAPA work plans received in February 2023, as indicated in Table 1. CRSP MC will update these projections on its website as data becomes available.
The FY 2025 annual revenue requirement includes all projected FY 2025 OM&R requiring repayment through FY 2025. Annual installments are established in advance by CRSP MC and submitted to the Customers on August 31, before the new FY. The FY 2026 annual installment will include all actual OM&R requiring repayment from the FY 2024 final financial data, the projected FY 2026 OM&R work plan, and amortized payments on capital investments plus interest. Subsequent annual installment updates will use updated financial data from appropriate conforming years.
CRSP MC received no oral or written comments during the public consultation and comment period.
I have certified that the Provisional Formula Rate for Provo River Project Electric Service under Rate Schedule PR-3 is the lowest possible rate, consistent with sound business principles. The Provisional Formula Rate was developed following administrative policies and applicable laws.
Information used by CRSP MC to develop the Provisional Formula Rate is available for inspection and copying at the CRSP Management Center, 1800 South Rio Grande Avenue, Montrose, CO 81401. Many of these documents are also available on CRSP MC's website at:
WAPA has determined that this action fits within the following categorical exclusion listed in appendix B to subpart D of 10 CFR part 1021: B4.3 (Electric power marketing rate changes).
WAPA has an exemption from centralized regulatory review under Executive Order 12866; accordingly, no clearance of this notice by the Office of Management and Budget is required.
The Provisional Formula Rate herein confirmed, approved, and placed into effect on an interim basis, together with supporting documents, will be submitted to FERC for confirmation and final approval.
In view of the above, and under the authority delegated to me, I hereby confirm, approve, and place into effect, on an interim basis, Rate Order No. WAPA-221. The rate will remain in effect on an interim basis until: (1) FERC confirms and approves it on a final basis; (2) a subsequent rate is confirmed and approved; or (3) such rate is superseded.
This document of the Department of Energy was signed on January 31, 2025, by Tracey A. LeBeau, Administrator, Western Area Power Administration, pursuant to delegated authority from the Secretary of Energy. That document, with the original signature and date, is maintained by DOE. For administrative purposes only, and in compliance with requirements of the Office of the Federal Register, the undersigned DOE Federal Register Liaison Officer has been authorized to sign and submit the document in electronic format for publication, as an official document of the Department of Energy. This administrative process in no way alters the legal effect of this document upon publication in the
The companies listed in this notice have given notice under section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843) (BHC Act) and Regulation Y, (12 CFR part 225) to engage de novo, or to acquire or control voting securities or assets of a company, including the companies listed below, that engages either directly or through a subsidiary or other company, in a nonbanking activity that is listed in § 225.28 of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.28) or that the Board has determined by Order to be closely related to banking and permissible for bank holding companies. Unless otherwise noted, these activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
The public portions of the applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, if any, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank(s) indicated below and at the offices of the Board of Governors. This information may also be obtained on an expedited basis, upon request, by contacting the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank and from the Board's Freedom of Information Office at
Comments received are subject to public disclosure. In general, comments received will be made available without change and will not be modified to remove personal or business information including confidential, contact, or other identifying information. Comments should not include any information such as confidential information that would not be appropriate for public disclosure.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding the applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors, Ann E. Misback, Secretary of the Board, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20551-0001, not later than March 3, 2025.
1.
In addition,
Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
The notificants listed below have applied under the Change in Bank Control Act (Act) (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) and § 225.41 of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41) to acquire shares of a bank or bank holding company. The factors that are considered in acting on the applications are set forth in paragraph 7 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(7)).
The public portions of the applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, if any, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank(s) indicated below and at the offices of the Board of Governors. This information may also be obtained on an expedited basis, upon request, by contacting the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank and from the Board's Freedom of Information Office at
Comments received are subject to public disclosure. In general, comments received will be made available without change and will not be modified to remove personal or business information including confidential, contact, or other identifying information. Comments should not include any information such as confidential information that would not be appropriate for public disclosure.
Comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors, Ann E. Misback, Secretary of the Board, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20551-0001, not later than March 3, 2025.
1.
1.
Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
The notificants listed below have applied under the Change in Bank Control Act (“Act”) (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) and of the Board's Regulation LL (12
The public portions of the applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, if any, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank(s) indicated below and at the offices of the Board of Governors. This information may also be obtained on an expedited basis, upon request, by contacting the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank and from the Board's Freedom of Information Office at
Comments received are subject to public disclosure. In general, comments received will be made available without change and will not be modified to remove personal or business information including confidential, contact, or other identifying information. Comments should not include any information such as confidential information that would not be appropriate for public disclosure.
Comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors, Ann E. Misback, Secretary of the Board, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20551-0001, not later than March 3, 2025.
1.
Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
Committee Management; notice of open Federal Advisory Committee meeting.
The Commercial Customs Operations Advisory Committee (COAC) will hold its quarterly meeting on Wednesday, March 5, 2025, in Atlanta, Georgia. The meeting will be open for the public to attend in-person or via webinar. The in-person capacity is limited to 50 persons for public attendees.
The COAC will meet on Wednesday, March 5, 2025, from 1 p.m. to 5 p.m. Eastern Standard Time (EST). Please note the meeting may close early if the committee has completed its business. Registration to attend in-person and comments must be submitted no later than February 28, 2025.
The meeting will be held at the Sam Nunn Building located at 61 Forsyth Street SW, Atlanta, GA 30303 in Conference Rooms B & C. For virtual participants, the webinar information will be posted by 5 p.m. EST on March 4, 2025, at
Comments may be submitted by one of the following methods:
•
•
Comments must be submitted in writing no later than February 28, 2025, and must be identified by Docket No. USCBP-2025-0004. All submissions received must also include the words “Department of Homeland Security.” All comments received will be posted without change to
Mrs. Latoria Martin, Office of Trade Relations, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Room 3.5A, Washington, DC 20229, (202) 344-1440; or Mr. George Bogden, Designated Federal Officer, at (202) 344-1440 or via email at
Notice of this meeting is given under the authority of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Title 5 U.S.C. ch. 10. The COAC provides advice to the Secretary of the Department of Homeland Security, the Secretary of the Department of the Treasury, and the Commissioner of U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) on matters pertaining to the commercial operations of CBP and related functions within the Department of Homeland Security and the Department of the Treasury.
For members of the public who plan to participate in person, please register via email at
For members of the public who plan to participate via webinar, the webinar information will be posted by 5 p.m. EST on March 4, 2025, at
The COAC is committed to ensuring all participants have equal access regardless of disability status. If you require a reasonable accommodation due to a disability to fully participate, please contact Mrs. Latoria Martin at (202) 344-1440 as soon as possible.
Please feel free to share this information with other interested members of your organization or association.
To facilitate public participation, we are inviting public comment on the issues the committee will consider prior to the formulation of recommendations as listed in the Agenda section below.
There will be a public comment period after each subcommittee update during the meeting on March 5, 2025. During the meeting, comments may be submitted via the trade events mailbox at
The COAC will hear from the current subcommittees on the topics listed below:
1. The Intelligent Enforcement Subcommittee will provide updates on the work completed and topics discussed in its working groups. The Antidumping/Countervailing Duty (AD/CVD) Working Group will provide updates regarding its work and discussions on importer compliance with AD/CVD and other trade remedy measures and requirements. The Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Process Modernization Working Group will provide updates concerning progress associated with its proposed recommendations specific to IPR enforcement and facilitation. The Forced Labor Working Group (FLWG) will submit proposed recommendations and provide updates on continued discussions regarding trade outreach and clarification of requirements. The FLWG will continue to provide CBP with input, as CBP rolls out a case management portal and a new version of the “Uyghur Forced Labor Prevention Act (UFLPA) U.S. Customs and Border Protection Operational Guidance for Importers”. The Bond Working Group remained on hiatus status since the last public meeting.
2. The Next Generation Facilitation Subcommittee will provide updates on all its existing working groups. The Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) 2.0 Working Group was focused on a discussion on the ACE 2.0 high level roadmap and clarification on some of the proposed capabilities such as blanket entries and correction processes. The Broker Modernization Working Group (BMWG) remains dedicated to the enhancement of the end user experience and improving the administration of the Customs Broker Licensing Exam (CBLE). This quarter, the Modernized Entry Processes Working Group (MEPWG) continues its National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) discussions and will provide updates on its efforts concerning the reconciliation test. The MEPWG will provide updates regarding areas where CBP could provide further guidance on the Broker Cybersecurity Incident Procedures in the form of Frequently Asked Questions. The remaining working group, the Customs Interagency Industry Working Group (CIIWG), was not active this past quarter but will provide a report on topics that the working group will focus on in the coming quarter.
3. The Secure Trade Lanes Subcommittee will provide updates on its seven active working groups: the Centers Working Group, the Cross-Border Recognition Working Group, the De Minimis Working Group, the Export Modernization Working Group, the FTZ/Warehouse Working Group, the Pipeline Working Group, and the Trade Partnership and Engagement Working Group. The proposed recommendations presented by the De Minimis Automation Task Force in the December meeting will be put forward for a vote in the March meeting. These proposed recommendations could not be voted on at the December meeting, due to the lack of quorum for COAC. The Export Modernization Working Group met to discuss the rail Electronic Export Manifest after much anticipation for its release. The Export Modernization Working Group continues the discussion on progressive filing in the export environment. The Drawback Task Force, within the Export Modernization Working Group, met to discuss the general rulings and the drawback desk review process and hopes to submit proposed recommendations this quarter surrounding the streamlining of the manufacturing rulings process. The Centers Working Group continues to meet within the Structure and Operations Sub-Working Groups. The Centers Working Group continues to evaluate previous the recommendations that were put forward and will determine if any additional proposed recommendations may come from that review and with new topics that are discussed within the Sub-Working Groups. The FTZ/Warehouse Working Group continues to review 19 CFR part 146 and intends to have proposed recommendations for review surrounding ACE functionality for the March public meeting. The Pipeline Working Group has not met yet this quarter and will not have any proposed recommendations. The Cross-Border Recognition Working group has not met this quarter and will finalize the evaluation for the Statement of Work to determine next steps.
Meeting materials will be available on February 24, 2025, at:
United States International Trade Commission.
Notice of termination of investigation.
On February 4, 2025, the Commission received a letter from the Office of the U.S. Trade Representative (USTR) withdrawing its request made on January 25, 2023, that the Commission prepare a series of public reports on the potential distributional effects of goods and services trade and trade policy on U.S. workers and underrepresented and underserved communities. Therefore, the Commission has terminated Investigation No. 332-599, “Distributional Effects of Trade and Trade Policy on U.S. Workers, 2026 Report”, and will not release a report related to this investigation. The USTR requested the investigation and report under authority delegated by the President and pursuant to section 332(g) of the Tariff Act of 1930.
Jennifer Andberg, Office of External Relations (
By order of the Commission.
On September 29, 2022, the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA or Government) issued an Order to Show Cause (OSC) to Robert L. Carter, D.D.S., of Camden Wyoming, Delaware (Respondent). Request for Final Agency Action (RFAA), Appendix (RFAAX) A, at 1, 9. The OSC proposes the revocation of Respondent's DEA registration in Delaware, Number BC5574048 (Registration), and the denial of Respondent's application for a DEA registration in New Jersey, Application Number W20128194C (Application), pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(1), (a)(3), and (a)(4), and 823(g)(1), because Respondent materially falsified multiple renewal applications and his registration is inconsistent with the public interest.
The OSC notified Respondent of the right to request a hearing. OSC, at 7-8 (citing 21 CFR 1301.43). On October 25, 2022, Respondent timely requested a hearing in this matter. RFAAX B. The matter was placed on the docket of DEA Chief Administrative Law Judge John J. Mulrooney, II (the Chief ALJ), who, on October 26, 2022, issued an Order for Prehearing Statements. RFAAX C. The Order for Prehearing Statements directed the parties to submit prehearing statements and explained the criteria these statements must meet to be considered adequate.
Both parties submitted timely prehearing statements. RFAAX D & E. The Chief ALJ, however, found Respondent's prehearing statement to be deficient. RFAAX F, at 1. Specifically, the Chief ALJ noted that instead of providing names of witnesses, summaries of testimony, and proposed exhibits as directed, Respondent's prehearing statement stated that Respondent could not comply with the Order for Prehearing Statements because the Government had not turned over documents supporting the OSC.
Instead of submitting a compliant prehearing statement in response to the Compliance Order as directed, Respondent submitted a letter in which he reiterated his position that he cannot comply with the Order for Prehearing Statements or the Compliance Order until he receives the Government's “supporting documents.” RFAAX G, at 1. Specifically, Respondent stated that he “simply cannot respond without reviewing the documents the Government has referenced” and it is “impossible” to identify witnesses and proposed testimony “without the documents the Government references.”
Following receipt of Respondent's letter and prior to the deadline set by the Compliance Order, the Chief ALJ issued an Order Terminating Proceedings (Termination Order) in which he found that Respondent had “effectively waived his right to a hearing” by failing to comply with the Order for Prehearing Statements and Compliance Order, and by informing the tribunal that he did not intend to
After issuance of the Termination Order but shortly before the deadline set by the Compliance Order,
In this letter, Respondent reiterated the same arguments that he advanced before the tribunal; specifically, that he was “deprived of the ability to defend himself,” and that he was (and still is) entitled to receive evidence from the Government prior to the normally scheduled deadline for the exchange of evidence.
The Agency finds that the Chief ALJ acted within his authority in determining that Respondent failed to cooperate with the tribunal's prehearing procedures after being afforded two opportunities to come into compliance and being cautioned on both occasions that failure to comply would be treated as an implied waiver of his right to a hearing. RFAAX C, at 2, 4; RFAAX F, at 2. The Chief ALJ did not err in using his discretion to find that Respondent's failure to file a compliant prehearing statement amounted to an implied waiver of his hearing request.
The Agency finds clear, unequivocal, and convincing record evidence for each of the following facts, which are uncontroverted. On October 31, 1995, the New Jersey State Board of Dentistry (State Board) issued an Administrative Action (Complaint) against Respondent. RFAA, GX 7(B). That Complaint alleged that Respondent improperly prescribed chloral hydrate,
The Agency finds clear, unequivocal, and convincing record evidence that, on September 25, 1996, the State Board and Respondent entered a Consent Order in which they agreed that, based upon the allegations in the Complaint, Respondent's New Jersey dentistry license would be suspended for one year, with 60 days of active suspension followed by probation for the remaining period. RFAA, GX 7(C), at 2.
The Agency finds clear, unequivocal, and convincing record evidence that, on January 19, 2004, and August 28, 2006, Respondent applied to renew DEA registration BC5574048. RFAA, GX 1, at 4-5, 17-22. These renewal applications asked whether “the applicant [has] ever surrendered (for cause) or had a state professional license or controlled substance registration revoked, suspended, denied, restricted, or placed on probation, or is any such action pending?” (Liability Question 3). RFAA, GX 1, at 17.
The Agency finds clear, unequivocal, and convincing record evidence that, on August 23, 2009, July 24, 2012, August 28, 2015, August 8, 2018, and August 15, 2021, Respondent submitted applications to renew DEA registration BC5574048. RFAA, GX 1, at 2-15. On each of these applications, Respondent falsely answered “no” to Liability Question 3, representing that he had never had a state professional license or controlled substance registration suspended or placed on probation.
The Agency finds clear, unequivocal, and convincing evidence that, on December 11, 2020, Respondent applied for a new DEA registration addressed in New Jersey (Application Number W20128194C). RFAA, GX 2, at 1-3. On this application, Respondent answered “yes” to Liability Question 3.
The Agency finds substantial record evidence for each of the following facts, which are uncontroverted. Respondent is a licensed dentist in both Delaware and New Jersey. RFAA, GX 3-6. Respondent's DEA registration, BC5574048, was originally registered in the State of New Jersey, but Respondent applied to change the registered address to Delaware. RFAA, GX 1, at 1. On May 23, 2019, Respondent's change of address application was approved, and the registered address for DEA registration BC5574048 became the State of Delaware. RFAA, GX 1, at 1. DEA registration BC5574048 has been registered to an address in Delaware ever since May 23, 2019.
The Agency finds substantial record evidence that, from June 19, 2019, to November 28, 2020, Respondent issued eight prescriptions
Pursuant to the CSA, the Attorney General is authorized to suspend or revoke a registration “upon a finding that the registrant . . . has materially falsified any application filed pursuant to or required by this subchapter.” 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(1).
Also according to the CSA, “[a] registration . . . to . . . distribute[ ] or dispense a controlled substance . . . may be suspended or revoked by the Attorney General upon a finding that the registrant . . . has committed such acts as would render his registration under . . . [21 U.S.C. 823] inconsistent with the public interest as determined by such section.” 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(4). In the case of a “practitioner,” Congress directed the Attorney General to consider five factors in making the public interest determination. 21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1)(A-E).
(A) The recommendation of the appropriate State licensing board or professional disciplinary authority.
(B) The [registrant's] experience in dispensing, or conducting research with respect to controlled substances.
(C) The [registrant's] conviction record under Federal or State laws relating to the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of controlled substances.
(D) Compliance with applicable State, Federal, or local laws relating to controlled substances.
(E) Such other conduct which may threaten the public health and safety.
In this matter, while all of the 21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1) factors have been considered, the Agency finds that the Government's evidence in support of its
According to DEA regulations, “[a]t any hearing for the revocation . . . of a registration, the . . . [Government] shall have the burden of proving that the requirements for such revocation . . . pursuant to . . . 21 U.S.C. [§ ] 824(a) . . . are satisfied.” 21 CFR 1301.44(e);
As already discussed, Respondent submitted registration renewal applications in 2009, 2012, 2015, 2018, and 2021 and falsely answered “yes” to the third liability question regarding whether he ever surrendered (for cause) or had a state professional license revoked, suspended, denied, restricted, or placed on probation, or whether any such action is pending.
Regarding materiality, the Supreme Court explained decades ago that “the ultimate finding of materiality turns on an interpretation of substantive law.”
Respondent's false submissions are material under the Supreme Court's materiality analysis because they are “capable of affecting . . . the [Agency's] official decision.”
Consequently, the Agency must find, based on the CSA and the analysis underlying multiple Supreme Court decisions involving materiality, that Respondent's false responses on multiple registration renewal applications dated 2009, 2012, 2015, 2018, and 2021 are material.
Under the CSA, “[e]very person who dispenses[
As already discussed, the Agency found substantial record evidence that while Respondent's registered place of business was in Delaware, he issued multiple controlled substance prescriptions on a New Jersey prescription pad containing a New Jersey place of business.
While Respondent initially requested a hearing, his non-compliance with prehearing proceedings resulted in his implied waiver of that right. As such, Respondent also waived the opportunity to present evidence and, therefore, to rebut the Government's
Here, the Government has met its
Regarding these matters, there is no record evidence that Respondent takes responsibility, let alone unequivocal responsibility, for the founded violations meaning, among other things, that it is not reasonable to believe that Respondent's future controlled substance-related actions will comply with legal requirements. Accordingly, Respondent did not convince the Agency that he can be entrusted with a registration.
Further, the interests of specific and general deterrence weigh in favor of revocation. Given the foundational nature and vast number of Respondent's violations, a sanction less than revocation would send a message to the existing and prospective registrant community that compliance with the law is not a condition precedent to maintaining a registration.
Accordingly, I shall order the sanction the Government requested, as contained in the Order below.
Pursuant to 28 CFR 0.100(b) and the authority vested in me by 21 U.S.C.
This document of the Drug Enforcement Administration was signed on February 3, 2025, by Acting Administrator Derek Maltz. That document with the original signature and date is maintained by DEA. For administrative purposes only, and in compliance with requirements of the Office of the Federal Register, the undersigned DEA Federal Register Liaison Officer has been authorized to sign and submit the document in electronic format for publication, as an official document of DEA. This administrative process in no way alters the legal effect of this document upon publication in the
On June 7, 2024, the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA or Government) issued an Order to Show Cause (OSC) to Yogesh Patel, M.D., of Grand Junction, Colorado (Registrant). Request for Final Agency Action (RFAA), Exhibit (RFAAX) 1, at 1, 3. The OSC proposed the revocation of Registrant's Certificate of Registration No. FP8684931, alleging that Registrant's registration should be revoked because Registrant is “currently without authority to handle controlled substances in Colorado, the state in which [he is] registered with DEA.”
The OSC notified Registrant of his right to file a written request for hearing, and that if he failed to file such a request, he would be deemed to have waived his right to a hearing and be in default.
Further, “[i]n the event that a registrant . . . is deemed to be in default . . . DEA may then file a request for final agency action with the Administrator, along with a record to support its request. In such circumstances, the Administrator may enter a default final order pursuant to [21 CFR] § 1316.67.”
The Agency finds that, in light of Registrant's default, the factual allegations in the OSC are admitted. According to the OSC, effective on or about January 22, 2024, Registrant entered into a Non-Disciplinary Interim Cessation of Practice Agreement with the Colorado Medical Board that indefinitely prohibited him from “performing any act requiring a license issued by the Colorado Medical Board.” RFAAX 1, at 1. According to Colorado online records, of which the Agency takes official notice, Registrant's Colorado medical license is under an “Active—Restricted” status and Registrant is not permitted to practice medicine.
Accordingly, the Agency finds that Registrant is not licensed to practice medicine in Colorado, the state in which he is registered with DEA.
Pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(3), the Attorney General is authorized to suspend or revoke a registration issued under 21 U.S.C. 823 “upon a finding that the registrant . . . has had his State license or registration suspended . . . [or] revoked . . . by competent State authority and is no longer authorized by State law to engage in the . . . dispensing of controlled substances.” With respect to a practitioner, DEA has also long held that the possession of authority to dispense controlled substances under the laws of the state in which a practitioner engages in professional practice is a fundamental condition for obtaining and maintaining a practitioner's registration.
According to Colorado statute, “dispense” means “to deliver a controlled substance to an ultimate user, patient, or research subject by or pursuant to the lawful order of a practitioner, including the prescribing, administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for that delivery.” Colo. Rev. Stat. § 18-18-102(9) (2024). Further, a “practitioner” means a “physician . . . or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise permitted, by this state, to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to, administer, or to use in teaching or chemical analysis, a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research.”
Here, the undisputed evidence in the record is that Registrant lacks authority to practice medicine in Colorado. As discussed above, a physician must be a licensed practitioner to dispense a controlled substance in Colorado. Thus, because Registrant lacks authority to practice medicine in Colorado and, therefore, is not authorized to handle controlled substances in Colorado, Registrant is not eligible to maintain a DEA registration. Accordingly, the Agency will order that Registrant's DEA registration be revoked.
Pursuant to 28 CFR 0.100(b) and the authority vested in me by 21 U.S.C. 824(a), I hereby revoke DEA Certificate of Registration No. FP8684931, issued to Yogesh Patel, M.D. Further, pursuant to 28 CFR 0.100(b) and the authority vested in me by 21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1), I hereby deny any pending applications of Yogesh Patel, M.D., to renew or modify this registration, as well as any other pending application of Yogesh Patel, M.D., for additional registration in Colorado. This Order is effective March 17, 2025.
This document of the Drug Enforcement Administration was signed on February 10, 2025, by Acting Administrator Derek Maltz. That document with the original signature and date is maintained by DEA. For administrative purposes only, and in compliance with requirements of the Office of the Federal Register, the undersigned DEA Federal Register Liaison Officer has been authorized to sign and submit the document in electronic format for publication, as an official document of DEA. This administrative process in no way alters the legal effect of this document upon publication in the
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Request for public comments.
OSHA solicits public comments concerning the proposal to extend the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) approval of the information collection requirements specified in the Occupational Exposure to Hazardous Chemicals in Laboratories.
Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by April 15, 2025.
For further information on submitting comments, see the “Public Participation” heading in the section of this notice titled
Seleda Perryman, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor; telephone (202) 693-2222.
The Department of Labor, as part of the continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
The following sections describe who uses the information collected under each requirement, as well as how they use it. The following sections describe who uses the information collected under each requirement, as well as how they use it. The purpose of these requirements is to reduce employees' risk of death or serious injury by ensuring that employment has been tested and is in safe operating condition.
The Standard entitled “Occupational Exposure to Hazardous Chemicals in Laboratories” (29 CFR 1910.1450; the “Standard”) applies to laboratories that use hazardous chemicals in accord with the Standard's definitions for “laboratory use of hazardous chemicals” and “laboratory scale.” The Standard
Other information collection requirements of the Standard include: documenting exposure monitoring results; notifying workers in writing of these results; presenting specified information and training to workers; establishing a medical surveillance program for overexposed workers; providing required information to the physician; obtaining the physician's written opinion on using proper respiratory equipment; and establishing, maintaining, transferring, and disclosing exposure monitoring and medical records. These collection of information requirements, including the CHP, control worker overexposure to hazardous laboratory chemicals, thereby preventing serious illnesses and death among workers exposed to such chemicals.
OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:
• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the agency's functions to protect workers, including whether the information is useful;
• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information, and transmission techniques.
OSHA is requesting that OMB extend the approval of the information collection requirements contained in Occupational Exposure to Hazardous Chemicals in Laboratories. The agency is requesting to decrease the current burden hour estimate from 622,482 to 602,594 hours, a total decrease of 19,888 hours. Although there was an increase in the worker and establishment estimates, we discovered a calculation error that created an overestimate of the burden hours in the last request for clearance. The error is corrected under this request and therefore created a decrease in the burden hours. Additionally, the capital cost estimate has decreased from $83,566,611 to $42,357,006, a total decrease of $41,209,605. This decrease is a result of a decrease in the medical consultation and medical examination price estimates used for this analysis, reflecting an updated method of deriving these prices.
OSHA will summarize the comments submitted in response to this notice and will include this summary in the request to OMB to extend the approval of the information collection requirements.
You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) electronically at
Comments and submissions are posted without change at
Scott C. Ketcham, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506
Signed at Washington, DC.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Request for public comments.
OSHA solicits public comments concerning the proposal to extend the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) approval of the information collection requirements specified in the Marine Terminals and Longshoring Standard.
Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by April 15, 2025.
For further information on submitting comments, see the “Public Participation” heading in the section of this notice titled
Seleda Perryman, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor; telephone (202) 693-2222.
The Department of Labor, as part of the continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
The following paragraph describes the information collected under the Standard, as well as how they use it. The purpose of these requirements is to reduce employee injuries and fatalities associated with cargo lifting gear, transfer of vehicular cargo, manual cargo handling, and exposure to hazardous atmospheres.
The information collection requirements specified in the Marine Terminals and Longshoring standard contains a number of collections of information which are used by employers to ensure that employees are properly informed about the safety and health hazards associated with marine terminals and longshoring operations. OSHA uses the records developed in response to the collection of information requirements to find out if the employer is complying adequately with the provisions of the standard.
OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:
• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the agency's functions to protect workers, including whether the information is useful;
• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information, and transmission techniques.
OSHA is requesting that OMB extend the approval of the information collection requirements contained in the Marine Terminals and Longshoring Standard. The agency is requesting an adjustment decrease in burden from 55,030 to 50,421 hours, a difference of 4,609 hours. This adjustment is attributed to a change in the number of establishments engaged in longshoring and port and harbor operations.
OSHA will summarize the comments submitted in response to this notice and will include this summary in the request to OMB to extend the approval of the information collection requirements.
You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) electronically at
Comments and submissions are posted without change at
Contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627) for information about materials not available from the website, and for assistance in using the internet to locate docket submissions.
Scott C. Ketcham, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork
Signed at Washington, DC.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Request for public comments.
OSHA solicits public comments concerning the proposal to extend the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) approval of the information collection requirements specified in the Inorganic Arsenic Standard.
Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by April 15, 2025.
For further information on submitting comments, see the “Public Participation” heading in the section of this notice titled
Seleda Perryman, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor; telephone (202) 693-2222.
The Department of Labor, as part of the continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
The following paragraph describes the information collected under the Standard, as well as how they use it. The purpose of these requirements is to protect workers from occupational exposures to the infectious hazardous agents posed by bloodborne pathogens.
The information collection requirements specified in the Inorganic Arsenic Standard provide protection for workers from the adverse health effects associated with exposure to inorganic arsenic. The Standard requires employers to: monitor workers' exposure to inorganic arsenic, and notify workers of exposure-monitoring results; notify anyone who cleans protective clothing or equipment of inorganic arsenic exposure; develop, update, ad maintain a housekeeping and maintenance plan; monitor worker health by providing medical surveillance; post warning signs, and apply labels to shipping and storage containers of inorganic arsenic; develop and maintain worker exposure monitoring and medical records; establish and implement written compliance programs; and provide workers with information about their exposure and the health effects of exposure to inorganic arsenic.
OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:
• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the agency's functions to protect workers, including whether the information is useful;
• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information, and transmission techniques.
OSHA is requesting that OMB extend the approval of the information collection requirements contained in the Inorganic Arsenic Standard. The agency is requesting the burden to remains the same of 10,430 hours. Also, the total capital cost of $1,120,896 to remain the same.
OSHA will summarize the comments submitted in response to this notice and will include this summary in the request to OMB to extend the approval of the information collection requirements.
You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) electronically at
Comments and submissions are posted without change at
Contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627) for information about materials not available from the website, and for assistance in using the internet to locate docket submissions.
Scott C. Ketcham, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506
Signed at Washington, DC.
Weeks of February 17, 24, March 3, 10, 17 and March 24, 2025. The schedule for Commission meetings is subject to change on short notice. The NRC Commission Meeting Schedule can be found on the internet at:
The NRC provides reasonable accommodation to individuals with disabilities where appropriate. If you need a reasonable accommodation to participate in these public meetings or need this meeting notice or the transcript or other information from the public meetings in another format (
Public.
Members of the public may request to receive the information in these notices electronically. If you would like to be added to the distribution, please contact the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Office of the Secretary, Washington, DC 20555, at 301-415-1969, or by email at
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of February 17, 2025.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of February 24, 2025.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of March 10, 2025.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of March 17, 2025.
For more information or to verify the status of meetings, contact Chris Markley at 301-415-6293 or via email at
The NRC is holding the meetings under the authority of the Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
In accordance with the purposes of sections 29 and 182b of the Atomic Energy Act (42 U.S.C. 2039, 2232(b)), the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS) will hold meetings on March 5-7, 2025. The Committee will be conducting meetings that will include some Members being physically present at headquarters of the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) while other Members participate remotely. Interested members of the public are encouraged to participate remotely in any open sessions via Microsoft (MS) Teams or via phone at 301-576-2978, passcode 344421732#. A more detailed agenda including the MSTeams link may be found at the ACRS public website at
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Procedures for the conduct of and participation in ACRS meetings were published in the
An electronic copy of each presentation should be emailed to the cognizant ACRS staff at least three days before the meeting.
In accordance with subsection 10(d) of Public Law 92-463 and 5 U.S.C. 552b(c), certain portions of this meeting may be closed, as specifically noted above. Use of still, motion picture, and television cameras during the meeting may be limited to selected portions of the meeting as determined by the Chair. Electronic recordings will be permitted only during the open portions of the meeting.
ACRS meeting agendas, meeting transcripts, and letter reports are available through the NRC Public Document Room (PDR) at
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing for the Commission's consideration concerning a negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
Pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.405, the Commission gives notice that the Postal Service filed request(s) for the Commission to consider matters related to Competitive negotiated service agreement(s). The request(s) may propose the addition of a negotiated service agreement from the Competitive product list or the modification of an existing product currently appearing on the Competitive product list.
The public portions of the Postal Service's request(s) can be accessed via the Commission's website (
Section II identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, if any, that will be reviewed in a public proceeding as defined by 39 CFR 3010.101(p), the title of each such request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. For each such request, the Commission appoints an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in the proceeding, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505 and 39 CFR 3000.114 (Public Representative). Section II also establishes comment deadline(s) pertaining to each such request.
The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's request(s) identified in Section II, if any, are consistent with the policies of title 39. Applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3632, 39 U.S.C. 3633, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3035, and 39 CFR part 3041. Comment deadline(s) for each such request, if any, appear in Section II.
Section III identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, if any, to add a standardized distinct product to the Competitive product list or to amend a standardized distinct product, the title of each such request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. Standardized distinct products are negotiated service agreements that are variations of one or more Competitive products, and for which financial models, minimum rates, and classification criteria have undergone advance Commission review.
1.
2.
3.
None.
This Notice will be published in the
On July 18, 2012, the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission” or the “SEC”) adopted Rule 613 of Regulation NMS, which required national securities exchanges and national securities associations (the “Participants”)
On March 20, 2020, the Commission granted exemptive relief from the requirement to report certain customer identifying information (individual tax payer identification numbers (“ITINs”)/social security numbers (“SSNs”), dates of birth, and account numbers) conditioned on the implementation of an alternative method of generating unique customer identifiers through transformed SSNs.
The CAT NMS Plan originally adopted the “Customer Information Approach.”
Under the CAT NMS Plan, for each new order submitted to the CAT Central Repository, broker-dealers are required to report the FDID for such new order, and the Plan Processor
Appendix C provides additional requirements that the Plan Processor must meet under the Customer Information Approach.
In light of the concerns raised by market participants, industry representatives and the Participants
The PII Exemption Order also permitted the Participants to implement the CCID Alternative.
Under the PII Exemption Order, the Commission issued relief that exempts the Participants from collecting or retaining an individual's SSN or ITIN—“the most sensitive piece of PII”
The Commission recognized the risks associated with a security breach when it acknowledged, in the CAT NMS Plan Approval Order, that “because some of the CAT Data stored in the Central Repository will contain PII such as names, [and] addresses . . . a security breach could raise the possibility of identity theft. . .”
As the Commission has recognized, customer name, address, and birth year are important CAT data points for regulators.
In light of these risks and the increasing sophistication of cybercriminals and bad actors, it is appropriate to grant this exemption so that the CAT no longer would be required to collect names, addresses and years of birth for natural persons with transformed SSNs or ITINs. The Commission's decision to grant this exemption takes into account the trade-off between the protection of individual investors' PII and regulatory efficiency, achieved by exempting additional PII from the CAT. Specifically, the regulatory benefit of collecting the
The Commission acknowledges that this Order will negatively impact regulatory efficiency. Specifically, because broker-dealers are currently required to report the names, addresses and years of birth of natural persons, regulators are able to identify the individuals responsible for orders or trades by querying a CCID in the CAT. In contrast, a request-response system
Section 36(a)(1) of the Exchange Act grants the Commission the authority, with certain limitations, to “conditionally or unconditionally exempt any person, security, or transaction . . . from any provision or provisions of [the Exchange Act] or of any rule or regulation thereunder, to the extent that such exemption is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, and is consistent with the protection of investors.”
The Commission grants exemptive relief from the following sections of the CAT NMS Plan as set forth below:
• Section 6.4(d)(ii)(C) of the CAT NMS Plan to the extent it requires Industry Members, through the Participant CAT Compliance Rules, to report to the Central Repository for the original receipt or origination of an order, the names, addresses and years of birth of natural persons reported with transformed SSNs or ITINs. Consistent with the PII Exemption Order, the Participants must continue to require Industry Members, through their CAT Compliance Rules, to report all other required information to the Central Repository, including a transformed value for the SSN/ITIN and the FDID for accounts for such natural persons.
• Section 9.1 of Appendix D to the extent it requires the CAT to capture the Customer Account Information attributes of current name, current address, previous name, previous address and year of birth of natural persons reported with transformed SSNs or ITINs. Section 9.1 of Appendix D also requires the Plan Processor to maintain valid Customer and Customer Account Information for each trading day. Consistent with the PII Exemption Order, the Participants must continue to require the Industry Members to report all other required information to the Central Repository, including a transformed value for the SSN/ITIN and the FDID for accounts of natural persons.
• Section 9.4 of Appendix D to the extent the error resolution requirements apply to names, addresses and years of
The exemptive relief pursuant to Section 36(a)(1) of the Exchange Act as set forth in this Order is appropriate and in the public interest, the protection of investors, and additionally that, pursuant to Rule 608(e), such relief is consistent with the public interest, the protection of investors, the maintenance of fair and orderly markets and the removal of impediments to, and perfection of the mechanisms of, a national market system. The exemption permitting the elimination of the requirement to report names, addresses and years of birth of natural persons reported with transformed SSNs or ITINs to the CAT minimizes the risk that bad actors will be able to associate individuals with their order and trade information. If there is a regulatory need to ascertain the names, addresses and years of birth of such individuals behind particular orders or trades, regulators will be able to request such information from Industry Members who have long been required to collect such information under Section 17 of the Exchange Act.
Accordingly, it is hereby ordered, pursuant to Section 36(a)(1) of the Exchange Act and Rule 608(e) of the Exchange Act,
By the Commission.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend its fee schedule to adopt fees for Unitized Logical Ports, a new connectivity offering for its equity options platform (“BZX Options”) and adopt new Average Daily Quote and Average Daily Order fees. The text of the proposed rule change is provided in Exhibit 5.
The proposed rule change, including the Exchange's statement of the purpose of, and statutory basis for, the proposed rule change, is available on the Exchange's website at
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On December 11, 2024, The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC (“Nasdaq” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
Nasdaq states that, since it became a national securities exchange, it has contracted with FINRA through regulatory service agreements (“RSAs”) to perform certain regulatory functions on its behalf.
Nasdaq proposes to further expand its enforcement authority by enabling Nasdaq Regulation to litigate contested disciplinary proceedings arising out of Nasdaq-led investigations and enforcement activities in the first instance, regardless of FINRA's willingness or ability to handle the proceedings.
Nasdaq also proposes amendments to its Code of Procedure set forth in General 5.
After careful review, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange.
The Commission believes that by directly handling contested disciplinary proceedings arising from Nasdaq-led investigations and enforcement actions, Nasdaq could continue to leverage its knowledge of its markets and members, its experience with investigation and enforcement work, and its surveillance, investigation, and enforcement staff, to litigate contested disciplinary proceedings that it has retained more effectively, efficiently, and with immediacy.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc. (“BZX” or the “Exchange”) is filing with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission” or “SEC”) a proposed rule change to amend the ARK 21Shares Bitcoin ETF (the “Bitcoin Trust”) and the 21Shares Core Ethereum ETF (the “ETH Trust” and, collectively with the Bitcoin Trust, the “Trusts”).
The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Exchange's website (
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
This Amendment No. 2 to SR-CboeBZX-2025-010 amends and replaces in its entirety the proposal as originally submitted on January 27, 2025, and as amended by Amendment No. 1 on February 5, 2025. The Exchange submits this Amendment No. 2 in order to clarify certain points and add additional details to the proposal.
The Commission approved the listing and trading of shares (the “Bitcoin ETP Shares”) of the Bitcoin Trust on the Exchange pursuant to Exchange Rule 14.11(e)(4), Commodity-Based Trust Shares, on January 10, 2024.
The Exchange proposes to amend several portions of the Bitcoin ETP Amendment No. 5, as amended by the Custodian Amendment, in order to permit in-kind creations and redemptions.
The Bitcoin ETP Amendment No. 5 included specific representations making clear that the Bitcoin Trust would only process creations and redemptions in cash. Specifically, Bitcoin ETP Amendment No. 5 stated: “The Trust will process all creations and redemptions in cash transactions with authorized participants.”
The Exchange proposes to replace this representation to state: “The Trust will process all creations and redemptions in cash or in-kind transactions with authorized participants.”
The Bitcoin ETP Amendment No. 5 also stated:
When the Trust creates or redeems its Shares, it will do so in cash transactions in blocks of 5,000 Shares (a “Creation Basket”) at the Trust's net asset value (“NAV”). Authorized participants will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, cash to the Trust's account with the Cash Custodian, in exchange for Shares when they create Shares, and the Trust, through the Cash Custodian, will deliver cash to such authorized participants when they redeem Shares with the Trust. Authorized participants may then offer Shares to the public at prices that depend on various factors, including the supply and demand for Shares, the value of the Trust's assets, and market conditions at the time of a transaction.
The Exchange proposes to replace the above paragraph as follows:
When the Trust creates or redeems its Shares, it will do so in cash transactions or in-kind transactions in blocks of 5,000 Shares (a “Creation Basket”) at the Trust's net asset value (“NAV”). For cash creations and redemptions, authorized participants will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, cash to the Trust's account with the Cash Custodian, in exchange for Shares when they create Shares, and the Trust, through the Cash Custodian, will deliver cash to such authorized participants when they redeem Shares with the Trust. For in-kind creation and redemptions, authorized participants will deliver, or facilitate delivery of, bitcoin to the Trust's account with the Custodian, in exchange for Shares when they create Shares, and the Trust, through the Custodian, will deliver bitcoin to such authorized participants when they redeem Shares with the Trust. Authorized participants may then offer Shares to the public at prices that depend on various factors, including the supply and demand for Shares, the value of the Trust's assets, and market conditions at the time of a transaction.
The Bitcoin ETP Amendment No. 5 included the “Creation and Redemption of Shares” section.
When the Trust creates or redeems its Shares, it will do so in cash or in-kind. In connection with cash creations and cash redemptions, the authorized participants will submit orders to create or redeem Baskets of Shares in exchange for cash. When the Trust creates or redeems its Shares in cash, it will do so in transactions in blocks of 5,000 Shares that are based on the quantity of bitcoin attributable to each Share of the Trust (
The authorized participants will deliver cash or bitcoin to create Shares and will receive cash or bitcoin when redeeming Shares. The Trust will create Shares by receiving bitcoin or cash from an authorized participant and will redeem Shares by delivering bitcoin or cash to an authorized participant.
On any business day, an authorized participant may place an order to create one or more Creation Baskets. Purchase orders must be placed by 12:00 p.m. Eastern Time, the close of regular trading on the Exchange, or another time determined by the Sponsor.
For a cash creation order, the total deposit of cash required is based on the combined NAV of the number of Shares included in the Creation Baskets being created determined as of 4:00 p.m. ET on the date the order to purchase is properly received.
For a creation order in-kind, the total in-kind transfer of bitcoin is based on the quantity of bitcoin attributable to the Creation Baskets being created determined as promptly as practicable after 4:00 p.m. ET on the date the order to purchase is properly received.
The Administrator determines the quantity of bitcoin associated with a Creation Basket for a given day by dividing the number of bitcoin held by the Trust as of the opening of business on that business day, adjusted for the amount of bitcoin constituting estimated accrued but unpaid fees and expenses of the Trust as of the opening of business on that business day, by the quotient of the number of Shares outstanding at the opening of business divided by the number of Shares in a Creation Basket.
The procedures by which an authorized participant can redeem one or more Creation Baskets mirror the procedures for the creation of Creation Baskets. For a cash creation order, an authorized participant will deliver cash to create Shares. For an in-kind creation order, an authorized participant will deliver bitcoin to create Shares. For a cash redemption order, an authorized participant will deliver Shares to the Trust and will receive cash for the Shares delivered. For an
The Bitcoin ETP Amendment No. 5 subsection entitled “Trust's Transfer Agent Will Instruct Disposition of Trust's Bitcoin” includes the following:
In such cases, a third party will use cash to buy and deliver bitcoin to create Shares or withdraw and sell bitcoin for cash to redeem Shares, on behalf of the Trust. Authorized participants will deliver cash to the Trust's account with the Cash Custodian in exchange for Shares of the Trust, and the Trust, through the Cash Custodian, will deliver cash to authorized participants when those authorized participants redeem Shares of the Trust.
The Exchange proposes to replace the above with the following:
For a cash creation order, an authorized participant will deliver cash to create Shares. For an in-kind creation order, an authorized participant will deliver bitcoin to create Shares. For a cash redemption order, an authorized participant will deliver Shares to the Trust and will receive cash for the Shares delivered. For an in-kind redemption order, an authorized participant will deliver Shares to the Trust and will receive bitcoin for the Shares delivered.
Similarly, the Exchange proposes to amend several portions of Eth ETP Amendment No. 2, as amended by the Custodian Amendment and the Trust Name and Sub-Adviser Amendment, in order to permit in-kind creations and redemptions.
First, Eth ETP Amendment No. 2 included specific representations making clear that the Bitcoin Trust would only process creations and redemptions in cash. Specifically, Eth ETP Amendment No. 2 stated:
When the Trust creates or redeems its Shares, it will do so in cash transactions in blocks of 10,000 Shares (a “Creation Basket”) at the Trust's net asset value (“NAV”). Authorized participants will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, cash to the Trust's account with the Cash Custodian in exchange for Shares when they create Shares, and the Trust, through the Cash Custodian, will deliver cash to such authorized participants when they redeem Shares with the Trust.
The Exchange proposes to replace the above as follows:
When the Trust creates or redeems its Shares in cash transactions, it will do so in blocks of 10,000 Shares (a “Creation Basket”) at the Trust's net asset value (“NAV”). Authorized participants will deliver, or facilitate the delivery of, cash to the Trust's account with the Cash Custodian in exchange for Shares when they create Shares, and the Trust, through the Cash Custodian, will deliver cash to such authorized participants when they redeem Shares with the Trust. When the Trust creates or redeems its Shares in-kind, it will do so in Creation Units in exchange for ether. Authorized participants will deliver, or facilitate delivery of, ether to the Trust's account with the Custodian, in exchange for Shares when they create Shares, and the Trust, through the Custodian, will deliver ether to such authorized participants when they redeem Shares with the Trust.
Eth ETP Amendment No. 2 also states: “The Trust will process all creations and redemptions in cash transactions with authorized participants.”
The Eth ETP Amendment No. 2 includes the “Creation and Redemption of Shares” section.
When the Trust creates or redeems its Shares, it will do so in cash or in-kind. In connection with cash creations and cash redemptions, the authorized participants will submit orders to create or redeem Baskets of Shares in exchange for cash. When the Trust creates or redeems its Shares in cash, it will do so in transactions in blocks of 10,000 Shares that are based on the quantity of ether attributable to each Share of the Trust (
The authorized participants will deliver cash or ether to create Shares and will receive cash or ether when redeeming Shares. The Trust will create Shares by receiving ether or cash from an authorized participant and will redeem Shares by delivering ether or cash to an authorized participant.
On any business day, an authorized participant may place an order to create one or more Creation Baskets. Purchase orders must be placed by 12:00 p.m. Eastern Time, the close of regular trading on the Exchange, or another time determined by the Sponsor.
For a cash creation, the total deposit of cash required is based on the combined NAV of the number of Shares included in the Creation Baskets being created determined as of 4:00 p.m. ET on the date the order to purchase is properly received.
For a creation order in-kind, the total in-kind transfer of ether is based on the quantity of ether attributable to the Creation Baskets being created determined as promptly as practicable after 4:00 p.m. ET on the date the order to purchase is properly received.
The Administrator determines the quantity of ether associated with a Creation Basket for a given day by dividing the number of ether held by the Trust as of the opening of business on that business day, adjusted for the amount of ether constituting estimated accrued but unpaid fees and expenses of the Trust as of the opening of business on that business day, by the quotient of the number of Shares outstanding at the opening of business divided by the number of Shares in a Creation Basket.
The procedures by which an authorized participant can redeem one or more Creation Baskets mirror the procedures for the creation of Creation Baskets. For a cash creation order, an authorized participant will deliver cash to create Shares. For an in-kind creation order, an authorized participant will deliver ether to create Shares. For a cash redemption order, an authorized participant will deliver Shares to the Trust and will receive cash for the Shares delivered. For an in-kind redemption order, an authorized participant will deliver Shares to the Trust and will receive ether for the Shares delivered.
The Eth ETP Amendment No. 2 subsection entitled “Trust's Transfer Agent Will Instruct Disposition of Trust's Ether” includes the following:
In such cases, a third party will use cash to buy and deliver ether to create Shares or withdraw and sell ether for cash to redeem Shares, on behalf of the Trust. Authorized participants will deliver cash to the Trust's account with the Cash Custodian in exchange for Shares of the Trust, and the Trust, through the Cash Custodian, will deliver cash to authorized participants when those authorized participants redeem Shares of the Trust.
The Exchange proposes to replace the above with the following:
For a cash creation order, an authorized participant will deliver cash to create Shares. For an in-kind creation order, an authorized participant will deliver ether to create Shares. For a cash redemption order, an authorized participant will deliver Shares to the Trust and will receive cash for the Shares delivered. For an in-kind redemption order, an authorized participant will deliver Shares to the Trust and will receive ether for the Shares delivered.
Except for the above changes, all other representations in the Bitcoin ETP Amendment No. 5, as amended by the Custodian Amendment, and ETH ETP Amendment No. 2, as amended by the Custodian Amendment and the Trust Name and Sub-Adviser Amendment, remain unchanged and will continue to constitute continuing listing requirements. In addition, the Bitcoin Trust will continue to comply with the terms of Bitcoin ETP Amendment No. 5, as amended, and the ETH Trust will continue to comply with the terms of ETH ETP Amendment No. 2, as amended, and the Trusts will continue to comply with the requirements of Rule 14.11(e)(4).
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is designed to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest because it would update representations in both the Bitcoin ETP Amendment No. 5, as amended, and the ETH ETP Amendment No. 2, as amended, such that the Trusts would both be able to engage in in-kind creations and redemptions with authorized participants, as described above. This ability would make the Trusts (and the market more generally) operate more efficiently because authorized participants would be able to source bitcoin or ether, as applicable, rather than to provide cash to the applicable Trust and to receive bitcoin or ether directly from the Trusts. This means that the authorized participant would be responsible for buying and selling the applicable crypto asset rather than the Trust itself, which would potentially lessen the impact on the market of the Trusts on both sides of the transaction by allowing the authorized participant to decide how and where to source the underlying crypto asset for creations and deciding how, where, and whether to sell the underlying crypto asset received for redemptions. This would improve the creation and redemption process for both authorized participants and the Trusts, increase efficiency, and ultimately benefit the end investors in the Trusts.
Except for the addition of in-kind creation and redemption for the Bitcoin Trust as specifically set forth herein, all other representations made in the Bitcoin ETP Amendment No. 5, as amended, remain unchanged, and will continue to constitute continuing listing requirements for the Bitcoin Trust. Similarly, except for the addition of in-kind creation and redemption for the ETH Trust as specifically set forth herein, all other representations made in the ETH ETP Amendment No. 2, as amended, remain unchanged, and will continue to constitute continuing listing requirements for the ETH Trust.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. As noted above, the proposed amendment is intended to allow the Trusts to operate more efficiently by allowing for in-kind creation and redemption. The Exchange believes these changes will not impose any burden on competition.
The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
A. by order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
B. institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 2, is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice of request for public comment.
The Department of State has submitted the information collection described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we are requesting comments on these collections from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this Notice is to allow 30 days for public comment.
The Department will accept comments from the public up to March 17, 2025.
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to:
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We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:
• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.
• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please note that comments submitted in response to this Notice are public record. Before including any detailed personal information, you should be aware that your comments as submitted, including your personal information, will be available for public review.
The Application for a U.S. Passport (form DS-11) solicits data necessary for Passport Services to issue a United States passport (book and/or card format) pursuant to authorities granted to the Secretary of State by 22 U.S.C. 211a
There were no comments submitted in response to the 60-day Notice.
In addition to plain language changes and general format changes, the following content changes have been made to the collection:
The Acts or Conditions statement on the form was revised to add an applicant statement, affirming that he or she is not required to register as a sex offender, in accordance with International Megan's Law (34 U.S.C. 21501
Passport Services collects information from U.S. citizens and non-citizen nationals when they complete and submit the Application for a U.S. Passport (form DS-11). Passport applicants can either download the DS-11 from the internet or obtain one from an acceptance facility/passport agency or U.S. embassy/consulate abroad. The form must be completed and executed at an acceptance facility, passport agency, or U.S. embassy/consulate (if abroad), and submitted with evidence of citizenship and identity.
Surface Transportation Board.
Notice tentatively approving and authorizing finance transaction.
TBL Group, Inc. (TBL Group), a holding company that owns multiple interstate motor passenger carriers, has filed an application for Board approval
Comments must be filed by March 31, 2025. If any comments are filed, TBL Group may file a reply by April 15, 2025. If no opposing comments are filed by March 31, 2025, this notice shall be effective on April 1, 2025.
Comments, referring to Docket No. MCF 21126, may be filed with the Board either via e-filing on the Board's website or in writing addressed to: Surface Transportation Board, 395 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20423-0001. In addition, send one copy of comments to TBL Group's representative: Andrew K. Light, Scopelitis, Garvin, Light, Hanson & Feary, P.C., 10 W Market Street, Suite 1400, Indianapolis, IN 46204.
Nathaniel Bawcombe at (202) 245-0376. If you require an accommodation under the Americans with Disabilities Act, please call (202) 245-0245.
On November 25, 2024, TBL Group filed an application under 49 U.S.C. 14303 and 49 CFR part 1182, for Board approval of its acquisition of Reston, a federally registered motor passenger carrier. (Appl. 1, 4.) On January 15, 2025, TBL Group filed a supplement to its application, clarifying certain information as requested by the Board.
According to the application, TBL Group is a Texas corporation, headquartered at 15734 Aldine Westfield Road, Houston, TX 77032. (
TBL Group describes Reston as a Virginia corporation that operates as a motor carrier of passengers primarily providing shuttle services under contracts for companies, government agencies, schools/universities, and other organizations. (Appl. at 3.) The application states that Reston also provides general charter services for companies, embassies, government agencies, retail customers, schools/universities, and other organizations for activities such as tours, to/from airport, weddings, athletics, and other group transportation activities. (
Under 49 U.S.C. 14303(b), the Board must approve and authorize a transaction that it finds consistent with the public interest, taking into consideration at least (1) the effect of the proposed transaction on the adequacy of transportation to the public, (2) the total fixed charges resulting from the proposed transaction, and (3) the interest of affected carrier employees. Applicants have submitted the information required by 49 CFR 1182.2, including information demonstrating that the proposed transaction is consistent with the public interest under 49 U.S.C. 14303(b),
TBL Group asserts that granting the application is not expected to have a material, detrimental impact on the adequacy of transportation services available for the public in the Reston service area. (Appl. 7.) TBL Group anticipates that services available to the public will be improved as operating
TBL Group states that the Contemplated Transaction would increase fixed charges, in the form of interest expense, because funds will be borrowed to assist in the financing of the Contemplated Transaction. (
Based on TBL Groups' representations, the Board finds that the acquisition as proposed in the application is consistent with the public interest. The application will be tentatively approved and authorized. If any opposing comments are timely filed, these findings will be deemed vacated, and, unless a final decision can be made on the record as developed, a procedural schedule will be adopted to reconsider the application.
This action is categorically excluded from environmental review under 49 CFR 1105.6(c).
Board decisions and notices are available at
1. The proposed transaction is approved and authorized, subject to the filing of opposing comments.
2. If opposing comments are timely filed, the findings made in this notice will be deemed vacated.
3. This notice will be effective on April 1, 2025, unless opposing comments are filed by March 31, 2025. If any comments are filed, TBL Group may file a reply by April 15, 2025.
4. A copy of this notice will be served on: (1) the U.S. Department of Transportation, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590; (2) the U.S. Department of Justice, Antitrust Division, 10th Street & Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20530; and (3) the U.S. Department of Transportation, Office of the General Counsel, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
By the Board, Board Members Fuchs, Hedlund, Primus, and Schultz.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Solicitation of applications.
The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and the National Park Service (NPS) invite interested persons to apply to fill two upcoming vacancies on the National Parks Overflights Advisory Group (NPOAG). This notice invites interested persons to apply for the openings. The upcoming openings are for a representative of Native American tribes and a representative of Air Tour Operators.
Persons interested in these membership openings will need to apply by March 17, 2025.
Sandi Fox, Environmental Protection Specialist, FAA Office of Environment and Energy, 800 Independence Ave. SW, Suite 900W, Washington, DC 20591, telephone: (202) 267-0928, email:
The National Parks Air Tour Management Act of 2000 (the Act) was enacted on April 5, 2000, as Public Law 106-181, and subsequently amended in the FAA Modernization and Reform Act of 2012. The Act required the establishment of the advisory group within one year after its enactment. The NPOAG was established in March 2001. The advisory group is comprised of representatives of general aviation, commercial air tour operators, environmental concerns, and Native American tribes. The Administrator of the FAA and the Director of NPS (or their designees) serve as ex officio members of the group. Representatives of the Administrator and Director serve alternating 1-year terms as chairman of the advisory group.
In accordance with the Act, the advisory group provides “advice, information, and recommendations to the Administrator and the Director—
(1) On the implementation of this title [the Act] and the amendments made by this title;
(2) On commonly accepted quiet aircraft technology for use in commercial air tour operations over a national park or tribal lands, which will receive preferential treatment in a given air tour management plan;
(3) On other measures that might be taken to accommodate the interests of visitors to national parks; and
(4) At the request of the Administrator and the Director, safety, environmental, and other issues related to commercial air tour operations over a national park or tribal lands.”
The current NPOAG is made up of one member representing general aviation, three members representing commercial air tour operators, four members representing environmental concerns, and two members representing Native American tribes. Members serve three-year terms. Current members of the NPOAG are as follows: Murray Huling representing general aviation; Eric Hamp, James Viola, and John Becker representing commercial air
To retain balance within the NPOAG, the FAA and NPS are seeking candidates interested in filling upcoming vacancies of one representing Native American tribes and one representing general aviation . The FAA and NPS invite persons interested in these openings on the NPOAG to contact the person listed in the
Requests to serve on the NPOAG must be made in writing and postmarked or emailed on or before March 17, 2025. Any request to fill one of these seats must describe the requestor's affiliation with general aviation, commercial air tour operators, environmental concerns, or federally recognized Native American tribes, as appropriate. The request should also explain what expertise the requestor would bring to the NPOAG as related to issues and concerns with aircraft flights over national parks or tribal lands. The term of service for NPOAG members is 3 years. Members may re-apply for another term.
On August 13, 2014, the Office of Management and Budget issued revised guidance regarding the prohibition against appointing or not reappointing federally registered lobbyists to serve on advisory committees (79 FR 47482). Therefore, before appointing an applicant to serve on the NPOAG, the FAA and NPS will require the prospective candidate to certify that they are not a federally registered lobbyist.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice and request for comments on an extension without change of a currently approved collection of information.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), this notice announces that the Information Collection Request (ICR) summarized below will be submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. The ICR describes the nature of the information collection and its expected burden. This is an extension without change of a currently approved information collection on the reporting of information and documents about potential defects, “Reporting of Information And Communications About Potential Defects”.
Comments must be submitted on or before March 17, 2025.
You may submit comments identified by the Docket No. NHTSA-2024-0055 through any of the following methods:
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For additional information or access to background documents, contact Jeff Quandt, Trends Analysis Division (NEF-108), Room W48-312, National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Ave., Washington, DC 20590. Telephone (202) 366-5207. Please identify the relevant collection of information by referring to its OMB Control Number.
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501
The purpose of part 579 is to enhance motor vehicle safety by specifying information and documents that manufacturers of motor vehicles and
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One commenter, Mr. Eric Hein, submitted three comments with a total of forty-five attachments, each of which were marked as separate comments.
Regarding “missing EWR reports,” Mr. Hein alleged that trailer manufacturers failed to submit reports to the Agency regarding seven (7) fatal side underride crashes between semitrailers and passenger vehicles that occurred between 2009 to 2020. He asked the Agency to confirm that these incidents should have been reported and to explain how it “intend[s] to correct these omissions and enforce EWR non-reporting.” As background, the requirements for reporting incidents involving death or injury by manufacturers of 5,000 or more trailers annually are contained in 49 CFR 579.24(b). There are several elements to the reporting requirement. First, reporting is required for “each incident involving one or more deaths or injuries occurring in the United States that is identified in a claim against and received by the manufacturer or in a notice received by the manufacturer which notice alleges or proves that the death or injury was caused by a possible defect in the manufacturer's trailer” as specified in paragraph (b)(1). Second, the requirement is limited to claims and notices received about “all trailers manufactured during a model year covered by the reporting period and the nine model years prior to the earliest model year in the reporting period.” Last, the claim or notice must identify the trailer with the minimal specificity for vehicles as defined in § 579.4.
The Agency reviewed the information provided by Mr. Hein about the 7 allegedly missing EWR reports and other public information about the incidents and found that 4 of the involved trailers were well over the reporting age limit on the dates of the incidents. A fifth incident, which was the subject of an investigation by the Agency's Special Crash Investigations program, did not contain any evidence that a claim or notice was ever sent to the trailer manufacturer. A sixth incident, which occurred over 15 years ago, did not contain sufficient information about the product to determine whether it should have been reported to the Agency. Our review found that just 1 of the 7 incidents cited by Mr. Hein may meet the requirements for reporting as an EWR death or injury claim or notice. The subject incident is a fatal crash involving a 2012 semitrailer that occurred in 2017 with a lawsuit that includes allegations referencing the absence of side underride guard protection filed in 2019, approximately 27 months after the incident.
The Agency also reviewed 36 additional fatal crash incidents submitted by Mr. Hein as attachments to his comment letter.
The second issue raised by Mr. Hein concerned a semitrailer manufacturer that was purportedly not listed in the online Early Warning Reporting-Data Search “even though they from 2020 to 2022 produced an average of 15,480 trailers per year,” and that had allegedly failed to report a fatal side-underride collision that occurred in 2019. The Agency's review found that the company identified by Mr. Hein failed to submit EWR production and aggregate data reports required by § 579.24 for multiple reporting quarters. However, the Agency did not confirm that the fatal crash cited by Mr. Hein should have been reported, as it involved a semitrailer that was greater than 10 years old when the collision occurred, and the Agency is not aware of any record of a claim or notice received by the trailer manufacturer. The lawsuit referenced in Mr. Hein's comment letter was a claim against the manufacturer of the vehicle that struck the trailer, not the trailer manufacturer. We also note that fatal incidents with reportable claims or notices must be reported by all trailer manufacturers regardless of production volume. The requirements for reporting information about incidents involving death for manufacturers of fewer than 5,000 trailers annually are contained in § 579.27(b).
Mr. Hein also questioned the timeliness of manufacturer reporting of death and injury incidents, citing as examples two incidents that were reported nearly three years after the crashes occurred. The reporting requirements for information on incidents involving death or injury are triggered by the manufacturer's receipt of a claim or notice that “alleges or proves that the death or injury was caused by a possible defect in the manufacturer's trailer” and not by the incident date as suggested by Mr. Hein's comments. The current regulation requires incidents involving death or injury to be reported to NHTSA within 60 days of the end of the quarter in which the manufacturer received an initial claim or notice containing such allegations. Any changes in this reporting requirement would require rulemaking and are outside the scope of this request for extension of a currently approved information collection.
Finally, the Agency reviewed Mr. Hein's concerns about the processes used by the Agency for deciding when to open a defect investigation and the resolution of specific recommendations from a 2015 Office of Inspector General audit. As background, Mr. Hein has submitted several petitions to the Agency requesting the investigation of certain semitrailers lacking side underride guards (SUGs) or lacking effective rear underride guards.
In summary, our review of 8 incidents of alleged non-reporting of fatal incidents submitted in Mr. Hein's letter identified one incident that does not appear to have been reported as required. We also confirmed the lapse in certain reporting by one manufacturer that was identified by Mr. Hein. The Agency works to resolve isolated errors or omissions in reporting from a manufacturer by correcting the reporting issue, reviewing the reasons for the error, and reviewing the manufacturer's corrective actions for avoiding similar errors in future reporting. If we detect a pattern of reporting non-compliance or other serious violations, we may open a formal investigation of the manufacturer's compliance with part 579 reporting. Manufacturers may be assessed penalties for non-compliance with reporting requirements depending on the severity of the violations. We appreciate the opportunity to review the information provided by Mr. Hein about suspected non-reporting of incidents involving death or injury and welcome such questions from anyone who has specific information indicating potential part 579 non-compliance.
The second commenter, Mrs. Marianne Karth, expressed concerns with the requirements for information collection about incidents involving “passenger vehicle and pedestrian/cyclist underride/override in crashes with large trucks (truck-tractors, tractor-trailers, and single unit trucks).” She recommended updating the EWR information collection to “include detailed information” about such incidents, potentially including a specific code for reporting underride incidents for the affected reporting categories. This recommendation would require amending the current EWR reporting regulation and is outside the scope of this request for an extension of a currently approved information collection.
The third and final comments were submitted by Mr. Thomas J. Karol on behalf of the National Association of Mutual Insurance Companies (NAMIC). Mr. Karol expressed strong support for the part 579 information collection requirements and suggested that the Agency seek input from representatives of the insurance industry to improve the “performance and efficacy of the proposed reporting.”
NHTSA estimated the burdens associated with this collection by calculating the burden associated with submitting information under each subpart of part 579. In addition to these burdens, NHTSA also estimates that manufacturers will incur computer maintenance burden hours, which are estimated on a per-manufacturer basis. There were no burden-related comments, in turn, burden-related changes are not in response to comments, but rather an overall estimation update.
The first component of this collection request covers the requirements found in part 579 subpart A, § 579.5, Notices, bulletins, customer satisfaction campaigns, consumer advisories, and other communications. Section 579.5 requires manufacturers to furnish (1) a copy of all notices, bulletins, and other communications sent to more than one manufacturer, distributor, dealer, lessor, lessee, owner, or purchaser, in the United States, regarding any defect in its vehicles or items of equipment (including any failure of malfunction beyond normal deterioration in use, or any failure of performance, or any flaw or unintended deviation from design specifications), whether or not such defect is safety-related and (2) a copy of each communication relating to a customer satisfaction campaign, consumer advisory, recall, or other safety activity involving the repair or replacement of motor vehicles or equipment, that the manufacturer issued to, or made available to, more than one dealer, distributor, lessor, lessee, another manufacturer, owner, or purchaser, in the United States. Manufacturers are required to submit these documents monthly. Section 579.5 does not require manufacturers to create these documents. Instead, only copies of these documents must be submitted to NHTSA, and manufacturers must index these communications and email them to NHTSA within 5 working days after the end of the month in which they were issued. Therefore, the burden hours are only those associated with collecting the documents and submitting copies to NHTSA.
NHTSA estimates that it receives approximately 17,615 notices a year. We estimate that it takes about 5 minutes to collect, index, and submit each notice to NHTSA. Therefore, we estimate that it takes 1,468 hours for manufacturers to submit notices as required under § 579.5 (17,615 notices × 5 minutes = 88,075 minutes or 1,468 hours) annually.
To calculate the labor cost associated with submitting § 579.5 notices, bulletins, customer satisfaction campaigns, consumer advisories, and other communications that are sent to more than one dealer or owner, NHTSA looked at wage estimates for the type of personnel submitting the documents. While some manufacturers employ clerical staff to collect and submit the documents, others use technical computer support staff to complete the task. Because we do not know what percent of the work is completed by clerical or technical computer support staff, NHTSA estimates the total labor costs associated with these burden hours by looking at the average wage for the higher-paid technical computer support staff. The Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) estimates that the average hourly wage for Computer Support Specialists (BLS Occupation code 15-1230) in the Motor Vehicle Manufacturing Industry is $37.62.
The second component of this information collection request covers the requirements found in part 579 subpart B, “Reporting of Safety Recalls and Other Safety Campaigns in Foreign Countries.” Pursuant to § 579.11, whenever a manufacturer determines to conduct a safety recall or other safety campaign in a foreign country, or whenever a foreign government has determined that a safety recall or other safety campaign must be conducted, covering a motor vehicle, item of motor vehicle equipment, or tire that is identical or substantially similar to a vehicle, item of equipment, or tire sold or offered for sale in the United States, the manufacturer must report to NHTSA not later than 5 working days after the manufacturer makes such determination or receives written notification of the foreign government's determination. Section 579.11(e) also requires each manufacturer of motor vehicles to submit, not later than November 1 of each year, a document that identifies foreign products and their domestic counterparts.
To provide the information required for foreign safety campaigns, manufacturers must (1) determine whether vehicles or equipment that are covered by a foreign safety recall or other safety campaign are identical or substantially similar to vehicles or equipment sold in the United States, (2) prepare and submit reports of these campaigns to the agency, and (3) where a determination or notice has been made in a language other than English, translate the determination or notice into English before transmitting it to the agency.
NHTSA estimates that there is no burden associated with determining whether an individual safety recall covers a foreign motor vehicle or item of motor vehicle equipment that is identical or substantially similar to those sold in the United States because manufacturers can simply consult the list that they are required to submit each year. Therefore, the only burden associated with determining whether a foreign safety recall or other safety campaign is required to be reported to NHTSA is the burden associated with creating the annual list. NHTSA continues to estimate that it takes approximately 9 hours per manufacturer to develop and submit the list. The 9 hours are comprised of 8 attorney hours and 1 hour for IT work. NHTSA receives these lists from 99 manufacturers, on average, resulting in 891 burden hours (99 vehicle manufacturers × 8 hours for attorney support = 792 hours) + (99 vehicle manufacturers × 1 hour for IT support = 99 hours).
NHTSA estimates that preparing and submitting each foreign defect report (foreign recall campaign) requires 1 hour of clerical staff and that translation of determinations into English requires 2 hours of technical staff (note: This assumes that all foreign campaign reports require translation, which is unlikely). Between 2021 and 2023 NHTSA received a yearly average of 262 foreign campaign reports. NHTSA estimates that in each of the next three years, NHTSA will receive, on average, 262 foreign recall reports. NHTSA estimates that each report will take 3 hours (1 hour to prepare by a clerical employee and 2 hours for translation). Therefore, NHTSA estimates that the burden hours associated with submitting these reports will be 786 hours (3 hours per report × 262 reports).
Therefore, NHTSA estimates the total annual burden hours for reporting foreign campaigns and substantially similar vehicles is 1,677 hours (891 hours for submitting annual lists + 786 hours for submitting foreign recall and safety campaign reports). This is an increase of 87 burden hours from our previous estimate (1,677 hours for the current estimate −1,590 hours for the previous estimate). Table 2 provides a summary of the estimated burden hours for part 579 subpart B submissions.
To calculate the labor cost associated with part 579 foreign reporting submissions, NHTSA looked at wage estimates for the type of personnel submitting the documents. As stated above, NHTSA estimates that submitting annual lists under § 579.11(e) will involve 8 hours of attorney time and 1 hour of IT work. The average hourly wage for Lawyers (BLS Occupation code 23-1000) in the Motor Vehicle Manufacturing Industry is $112.21.
NHTSA estimates that submitting each foreign recall or safety campaign report involves 1 hour of clerical work and 2 hours of translation work. The average hourly wage for Office Clerks (BLS Occupation code 43-9061) in the Motor Vehicle Manufacturing Industry is $26.65
Table 3 provides a summary of the labor costs associated with the foreign reporting requirements in part 579, subpart B. NHTSA estimates that the total labor costs associated with the annual list requirement and the requirement to report foreign recalls and safety campaigns are $164,020.68 or $164,021 ($131,527.44 + $32,493.24).
The third component of this information collection covers the requirements found in part 579 subpart C, “Reporting of Early Warning Information.” Besides production information, there are five major categories requiring reporting of incidents or claims in subpart C, with the specific requirements and applicability of those categories varying by vehicle and equipment type and, in some circumstances, manufacturer volume. Sections 579.21 through 27 require manufacturers to submit the following:
(1) Production information; (2) reports on incidents involving death or injury in the United States that are identified in claims or notices alleging that the death or injury was caused by a possible defect; (3) reports on incidents identified in a claim against a manufacturer that involves one or more deaths in a foreign country and involve a vehicle or item of equipment that is identical or substantially similar to a vehicle or item of equipment that is offered for sale in the United States; (4) separate reports on the number of property damage claims, consumer complaints, warranty claims, and field reports that involve a specified system or event; (5) copies of field reports; and, for manufacturers of tires, (6) a list of common green tires (applicable to only tire manufacturers). Section 579.28(l) allows NHTSA to request additional information to help identify a defect related to motor vehicle safety. The regulation specifies the time frame for reporting for each category. Foreign recalls of substantially similar vehicles and manufacturer communications are required to be submitted monthly, substantially similar vehicle listings are required annually, and all other report types are required to be submitted every quarter.
Manufacturers are required to report specific information to NHTSA every quarter. Manufacturers are required to submit production information,
• The number of manufacturers reporting;
• The frequency of required reports;
• The number of hours required per report; and
• The cost of personnel to report.
The number of hours for reporting ranges from 1 hour for trailer, child restraint, low volume vehicle, and equipment manufacturers to 8 hours for light vehicle manufacturers (table 4). Quarterly reporting burden hours are calculated by multiplying hours used to report for a given category by the number of manufacturers for the category and by the four times per-year quarterly reporting. Using these methods and the average number of manufacturers who report annually, we estimate the annual burden hours for quarterly reporting of production information at 3,664 hours as detailed below in table 4.
NHTSA assumes that the hourly wage rate for each quarterly report is split evenly between technical and clerical personnel and a weighted hourly rate is developed from this assumption. Therefore, using the BLS total hourly compensation rates discussed above of $53.44 for a Computer Support Specialist and $37.86 for an Office Clerk, the weighted hourly rate is $45.65 (Technical Mean Hourly Wage of $53.44 × 0.5 + Clerical Mean Hourly Wage of $37.86 × 0.5). The estimated reporting costs are calculated as follows:
For example, the estimated annual reporting cost for light vehicles is $59,892.80 (41 manufacturers × 8 hours × $45.65 compensation rate × 4 quarters), and the total annual labor costs associated with quarterly reporting are estimated to be $167,262. Table 4 includes the estimated burden hours and reporting costs for production information, non-dealer field reports, aggregate submissions, and death and injury submissions, as well as the quarterly and annual labor costs associated with reporting.
Table 5 provides an average annual submission count for each category submitted per the requirements of 49 CFR part 579, subpart C: reports on incidents identified in claims or notices involving death or injury in the United States; reports on incidents involving one or more deaths in a foreign country identified in claims involving a vehicle or item of equipment that is identical or substantially similar to a vehicle or item of equipment that is offered for sale in the United States; separate reports on the number of property damage claims, consumer complaints, warranty claims, and field reports that involve a specified system or event; copies of field reports; and, for manufacturers of tires; a list of common green tires; and additional follow-up information per 579.28(l) related to injury and fatality claims. Each reporting category has specific requirements and types of reports that need to be submitted and we state “N/A” where there is no requirement for that reporting category.
The submission totals summarized in Table 5 represent a 10 percent increase from the currently approved information collection with two reporting categories responsible for all of the increase. Submission totals increased for manufacturer field reports and follow-up sequence inquiries conducted per § 579.28(l) but saw a net decrease of 34 percent for the other four categories combined. Average annual injury and fatality claims in the United States dropped from 11,887 to 6,892 claims per year, a 42 percent decrease; foreign death claims dropped from 330 to 41 per year, an 88 percent decrease; claims involving specific systems or events dropped from 12,212 to 9,192, a 25 percent decrease; and common green tire reports dropped from 112 to 99 per year, a 12 percent decrease. Manufacturer field reports, which accounted for the majority of submissions in both the current and prior approved information collection requests, rose from 88,409 to 106,406 per year, a 20 percent increase.
The agency estimates that an average of 5 minutes is required for a manufacturer to process each report, except for foreign death claims and follow-up responses. We estimate foreign death claims and follow-up responses per § 579.28(l) require an average of 15 minutes to process. Multiplying the total average number of minutes by the number of submissions NHTSA receives in each reporting category yields the burden hour estimates found below in Table 6. Our previous estimates of EWR associated submission burden hours totaled 9,515 hours, and we now update that total to 10,655 burden hours, a 12 percent
We have also calculated hourly labor costs for each claim type with an incremental reporting burden based on time to process and labor costs for employee positions required for processing each submission. Table 7 shows the employee positions required for processing submissions for each claim type, the time required for each position to process each submission, and the weighted hourly rates for each claim type. The employee positions analyzed in table 7 include three that have been introduced in prior sections of this information collection request: Lawyers (BLS Occupation code 23-1000), Computer Support Specialists (BLS Occupation code 15-1230), and Office Clerks (BLS Occupation code 43-9061).
These rates are calculated by summing the weighted employer costs for each employee position required to review each submission claim type using the formula:
The annual labor costs for submissions of claims data are shown in table 8. Labor Cost per Submission is the product of the Average Time to Process Each Report and the Weight Hourly Rate calculated in table 7. Annual labor cost is the product of the labor cost per submission and the average annual submissions.
The total annual manufacturer burden hours for subpart C reporting of EWR data (§§ 579.21 through 28) is calculated by summing the burden hour estimates for quarterly reporting in table 4 (3,664 hours) and submission reporting in table 6 (10,655 hours). This produces an EWR annual burden hour estimate of 14,319 hours. The total annual labor cost for subpart C reporting is calculated by summing the labor cost estimates in table 4 ($167,261.60) and table 8 ($556,866.81), producing a total annual labor cost estimate for subpart C reporting of $724,128.41 or $724,128.
In addition to the burden associated with submitting documents under each subpart of part 579, NHTSA also estimates that manufacturers will incur computer maintenance burden hours associated with the information collection requirements. The estimated manufacturer burden hours associated with aggregate data submissions for consumer complaints, warranty claims, and dealer field reports are included in reporting and computer maintenance hours. The burden hours for computer maintenance are calculated by multiplying the hours of computer use (for a given category) by the number of manufacturers reporting in a category. NHTSA estimates that light vehicle manufacturers will spend approximately 347 hours per year on computer maintenance and that other vehicle manufacturers will spend about 22 percent as much time as light vehicle manufacturers on computer maintenance. Therefore, NHTSA estimates that bus, emergency, and medium-heavy truck; motorcycle; and trailer manufacturers will each spend approximately 86.5 hours on computer maintenance each year. NHTSA estimates that child restraint and tire manufacturers will also spend 86.5 hours on computer maintenance per year. Therefore, NHTSA estimates the total burden for computer maintenance to be 33,863 hours per year (based on there being an estimated 41 light vehicle manufacturers; 54 bus, emergency, and medium-heavy vehicle manufacturers; 16 motorcycle manufacturers; 91 trailer manufacturers; 35 child restraint manufacturers; and 31 tire manufacturers). This burden estimation is an update from the 60-day notice due to corrections to the number of bus, emergency, and medium-heavy vehicle manufacturers reporting to NHTSA.
To calculate the labor cost associated with computer maintenance hours, NHTSA looked at wage estimates for the type of personnel submitting the documents. The ECEC adjusted average hourly wage for Computer Support Specialists (BLS Occupation code 15-1230) in the Motor Vehicle Manufacturing Industry is $53.44 as reviewed in the discussion of table 1 data in the subpart A reporting burden analysis. For the estimated total of 33,863 annual computer maintenance burden hours, NHTSA estimates the associated labor costs will be approximately $1,809,612 annually. Table 9 shows the annual estimated burden hours for computer maintenance by vehicle/equipment category and the estimated labor costs associated with those burden hours.
Based on the foregoing, we estimate the burden hours for the industry to comply with the current part 579 reporting requirements (EWR requirements, foreign campaign requirements, and part 579.5 requirements) to be 51,327 hours per year. This a change from the 60-day notice estimates of 54,088 annual burden hours due to updates of estimation from the early warning reports and computer maintenance tables resulting from corrections in the number of bus, emergency, and medium-heavy vehicle manufacturers reporting each year. The total annual burden hours, labor costs, and changes from for this information collection consisting of manufacturer communications under § 579.5 (subpart A), foreign reporting (subpart B), EWR submissions and reporting (subpart C), and computer maintenance are outlined in table 10 below.
The burden estimates show an overall decrease in annual burden hours of 2,483 hours and an increase in annual labor costs of $336,746 from the part 579 information collection request approved in April 2022. These represent a decrease of 4.6 percent in burden hours and an increase of 13.8 percent in labor costs. The changes in annual burden hours are due to changes in the number of submissions in tables 1, 2, and 6 and changes in the number of manufacturers reporting in each category in tables 4 and 9. Most of the decrease resulted from corrections in the number of manufacturers reporting subpart C information in the bus, emergency, and medium and heavy vehicle categories. The changes in annual labor costs are also affected by reductions in manufacturer counts and burden hours but are offset by increases in labor costs for the manufacturer employee positions required for reporting part 579 information. The wage estimates have been adjusted to reflect the latest available rates from the Bureau of Labor Statistics.
Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.
Notice.
The U.S. Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is publishing the names of two individuals and one entity that have been placed on OFAC's Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons List (SDN List) based on OFAC's determination that one or more applicable legal criteria were satisfied. All property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of these individuals and entity are blocked, and U.S. persons are generally prohibited from engaging in transactions with them.
This action was issued on February 11, 2025. See
The SDN List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available on OFAC's website:
On February 11, 2025, OFAC determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authorities listed below.
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) gives notice under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. 10, that a meeting of the Health Systems Research (HSR) Scientific Merit Review Board (hereinafter, “the Board”) will be held on Wednesday, March 12, 2025, via WebEx from 12-1:30 p.m. EST. The meeting will be partially closed to the public, with an open portion from 12-12:15 p.m. The closed portion, from 12:15-1:30 p.m., will be used for discussion, examination of and reference to the research applications and scientific review. Discussions will involve reference staff and consultant critiques of research proposals. Discussions will also cover the scientific merit of each proposal and the qualifications of the personnel conducting the studies, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy. Additionally, premature disclosure of research information could significantly obstruct implementation of proposed agency action regarding the research proposals. As provided by Public Law 92-463 subsection 10(d), and amended by Public Law 94-409, closing the committee meeting is in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(6) and (9)(B).
The objective of the Board is to provide for the fair and equitable selection of the most meritorious research projects for support by VA research funds and to offer advice for research program officials on program priorities and policies. The ultimate objective of the Board is to ensure that the VA HSR program promotes functional independence and improves the quality of life for impaired and disabled Veterans.
Board members will advise the Deputy Chief Research and Development Officer for Investigators, Scientific Review and Management (ISRM) and the Chief Research and Development Officer on the scientific and technical merit, mission relevance and protection of human and animal subjects of the proposals submitted to HSR. The Board does not consider grants, contracts, or other forms of extramural research.
Members of the public may attend the open portion of the meeting via WebEx, from 12-12:15 p.m. EST, in listen-only mode, as the time-limited open agenda does not allow for public comment presentations. To attend the open portion of the meeting, the public may dial the WebEx phone number (1-833-558-0712) and entering the meeting access code (2829 087 8955).
Written comments from members of the public should be sent to Tiffin Ross-Shepard, Designated Federal Officer, HSR, Department of Veterans Affairs (14RDH), 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420, or to
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By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the laws of the United States of America, it is hereby ordered:
(b) Agencies shall take appropriate action to eliminate policies designed to disfavor plastic straws issued to further Executive Order 14057 of December 8, 2021 (Catalyzing Clean Energy Industries and Jobs Through Federal Sustainability), which I revoked on January 20, 2025.
(c) Within 45 days of the date of this order, the Assistant to the President for Domestic Policy, in coordination with relevant agencies, shall issue a National Strategy to End the Use of Paper Straws. This strategy shall address:
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(c) FCPA investigations and enforcement actions initiated or continued after the revised guidelines or policies are issued under subsection (a) of this section:
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(f) “Law enforcement” means:
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(h) “Reemployed annuitant” has the meaning given to it in 5 C.F.R. part 837.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f) Within 240 days of the date of this order, the USDS Administrator shall submit a report to the President regarding implementation of this order, including a recommendation as to whether any of its provisions should be extended, modified, or terminated.
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