Title: Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery.

OMB Number: 0503-0021.

OMB Expiration Date of Approval: Three years from the approval date.

Type of Request: Renewal/Extension of approval for a current information collection.

Abstract: The proposed information collection activity provides a means to garner qualitative customer and stakeholder feedback in an efficient, timely manner, in accordance with the Administration's commitment to improve service delivery. By qualitative feedback, we mean information that provides useful insights on perceptions and opinions, but not statistical surveys that yield quantitative results that can be generalized to the population. This feedback will, (1) provide insights into customer or stakeholder perceptions, experiences and expectations, (2) provide an early warning of issues with service and, (3) focus attention on areas where communication, training or changes in operations might improve delivery of products or services. This collection will allow for ongoing, collaborative and actionable communications between the Agency and its customers and stakeholders. It will also allow feedback to contribute directly to the improvement of program management.

The solicitation of feedback will target areas such as: Timeliness, appropriateness, accuracy of information, courtesy, efficiency of service delivery, and resolution of issues with service delivery. Responses will be assessed to plan and inform efforts to improve or maintain the quality of service offered to the public. If this information is not collected, vital feedback from customers and stakeholders on the Agency's services will be unavailable.

The Agency will only submit a collection for approval under this generic clearance if it meets the following conditions:

• The collections are voluntary;

• The collections are low-burden for respondents (based on considerations of total burden hours, total number of respondents, or burden-hours per respondent) and are low-cost for both the respondents and the Federal Government;

• The collections are non-controversial and do not raise issues of concern to other Federal agencies;

• Any collection is targeted to the solicitation of opinions from respondents who have experience with the program or may have experience with the program in the future;

• Personally identifiable information (PII) is collected only to the extent necessary and is not retained;

• Information gathered will be used only internally for general service improvement and program management purposes and is not intended for release outside of the agency;

• Information gathered will not be used for substantially informing influential policy decisions; and

• Information gathered will yield qualitative information; the collections will not be designed or expected to yield statistically reliable results or used as though the results are generalizable to the population of study.

Feedback collected under this generic clearance provides useful information, but it does not yield data that can be generalized to the overall population. This type of generic clearance for qualitative information will not be used for quantitative information collections that are designed to yield reliably actionable results, such as monitoring trends over time or documenting program performance. Such data usage requires more rigorous designs that address the target population to which generalizations will be made, the sampling frame, the sample design (including stratification and clustering), the precision requirements or power calculations that justify the proposed sample size, the expected response rate, methods for assessing potential non-response bias, the protocols for data collection, and any testing procedures that were or will be undertaken prior to fielding the study. Depending on the degree of influence the results are likely to have, such collections may still be eligible for submission for other generic mechanisms that are designed to yield quantitative results.

As a general matter, information collections will not result in any new system of records containing privacy information and will not ask questions of a sensitive nature, such as sexual behavior and attitudes, religious beliefs, and other matters that are commonly considered private.

Current Actions: Renewal/Extension of approval for a current information collection.

Type of Review: Renewal.

Affected Public: Individuals and Households, Businesses and Organizations, State, Local or Tribal Government.

Estimated Number of Respondents: 30,000.

Below we provide projected average estimates for the next 3-years:

Average Expected Annual Number of Activities: 20.

Average Number of Respondents per Activity: 1.

Annual Responses: 30,000.

Frequency of Response: Once per request.

Average Minutes per Response: 30.

Burden Hours: 16,750.

Request for Comments: Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval. Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information. Burden means the total time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose, or provide information to or for a Federal agency. This includes the time needed to review instructions to (1) develop, acquire, install, and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; (2) train personnel and be able to respond to a collection of information, to search data sources, (3) complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information.

All written comments will be available for public inspection at Regulations.gov .

An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget control number.

In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 35), this notice announces the U.S. Department of Agriculture's (USDA) intention to request an extension for—and a revision to the Advisory Committee and Research and Promotion Background Information collection form and applicable supplemental questionnaires.

The revised form and supplemental information will allow applicants to answer questions in more detail of their foreign citizenship identification (passport number, passport expiration date, and issuing country). In addition, if an applicant is a foreign national, identify if this person resided in the United States (U.S.) for 3 years or more continuous years. The primary objective is to determine the qualifications, suitability, and availability of a candidates to serve on advisory committees, research and promotion boards, and now marketing boards. The primary objective is to determine the qualifications, suitability, and availability of a candidate to serve on advisory committees, research and promotion, and marketing boards. Lastly, the AD-755 Form and supplemental questionnaire are being digitized for the receipt of applications to allow applicants to access and complete the form electronically and more securely safeguard data and information collection.

Title: Advisory Committee and Research and Promotion Background Information.

OMB Number: 0505-0001.

Expiration Date of Approval: December 31, 2025.

Type of Request: Revision of a currently approved information collection form document and with a revised research and promotion board supplemental list and add the marketing supplemental list with digitization to the receipt of applications.

Abstract: The primary objective is to determine the qualifications, suitability and availability of a candidate to serve on advisory committees and/or research and promotion boards. The information will be used to both conduct background clearances on the candidates and to compile annual reports regarding membership.

Estimate of Burden: Public reporting burden for this collection of information is estimated to average 30 minutes per response.

Respondents: Individuals.

Estimated Number of Respondents: 5,500.

Estimated Number of Responses per Respondent: One (1).

Estimated Total Annual Burden on Respondents: 5,500.

Comments are invited on: (1) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

Comments may be sent to Ms. Cikena Reid, Committee Management Officer, the White House Liaison Office, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, the Whitten Building, Room 536-A, Washington, DC 20250; fax: 202-720-9286; or by email: cikena.reid@usda.gov. Comments must be postmarked 10 business days prior to the deadline to ensure timely receipt.

All comments received will be available for public inspection during regular business hours at the same address.

All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.

In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 35), this notice announces the intention of the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Civil Rights to request approval for an existing collection in use without an Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.

Title: USDA Program Discrimination Complaint Form.

OMB Number: OMB No. 0508-0002.

Expiration Date of Approval: May 31, 2024.

Type of Request: Extension and renewal of a currently approved information collection.

Abstract: Under 7 CFR 15.6, “Any person who believes himself/herself or any specific class of individuals to be subjected to discrimination [in any USDA assisted program or activity] may by himself/herself or by an authorized representative file a written complaint.” Under 7 CFR 15d.5(a), “Any person who believes that he or she (or any specific class of individuals) has been, or is being, subjected to [discrimination in any USDA conducted program or activity] * * * may file [on his or her own,] (or file through an authorized representative) a written complaint alleging such discrimination.” The collection of this information is an avenue by which the individual or his representative may file such a program discrimination complaint.

The requested information, which can be submitted by filling out a form or by submitting a letter, is necessary for USDA OASCR to address the alleged discriminatory action. The Respondent is asked to state his/her name, mailing address, property address (if different from mailing address), telephone number, email address (if any) and to provide a name and contact information for the Respondent's representative (if any). A brief description of who was involved with the alleged discriminatory action, what occurred and when, is requested. In the event that the Respondent is filing the program discrimination complaint more than 180 days after the alleged discrimination occurred, the Respondent is asked to provide the reason for the delay.

Finally, the Respondent is asked to identify which bases are alleged to have motivated the discriminatory action. The form explains that laws and regulations prohibit on the bases of race, color, national origin, age, sex, gender identity (including gender expression), disability, religion, sexual orientation, marital or familial status, or because all or part of the individual's income is derived from any public assistance program, but that not all bases apply to all programs.

The program discrimination complaint filing information, which is voluntarily provided by the Respondent, will be used by the staff of USDA OASCR to intake, investigate, resolve, and/or adjudicate the Respondent's complaint. The program discrimination complaint form will enable OASCR to better collect information from complainants in a timely manner, therefore, reducing delays and errors in determining USDA jurisdiction.

Estimate of Burden: Public reporting burden for this collection of information is estimated to average 1 hour per response.

Respondents: Producers, applicants.

Estimated Number of Respondents: 280.

Estimated Number of Responses per Respondent: 1.

Estimated Total Annual Burden on Respondents: 280 hours.

Comments are invited on: (1) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Comments may be sent by any of the following methods:

• Email: Send comments to: OASCR.CCRO@USDA.Gov.

• U.S. Mail: Winona Massie, Executive Director, Center for Civil Rights Operations, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Civil Rights, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20250-9410.

All comments received will be available for public inspection during regular business hours at the same address.

All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.

Federal Awarding Agency Name: Rural Housing Service, (RHS).

Funding Opportunity Title: Puerto Rico RPN RCDI.

Announcement Type: Notice of Funding Availability (NOFA).

Funding Opportunity Number: USDA-RD-HCFP-PR-RPN-RCDI-2024.

Assistance Listing: 10.446.

Dates: Applications must be submitted using one of the following methods:

• Paper submissions: The deadline for receipt of a paper application is 4 p.m. local time, to the Puerto Rico Rural Development State Office, 654 Muñoz Rivera Ave., Suite 601, San Juan, Puerto Rico 00918. July 3, 2024. Applicants intending to mail applications must provide sufficient time to permit delivery on or before the closing deadline date and time. Acceptance by the United States Postal Service or private mailer does not constitute delivery. Facsimile (FAX), electronic mail, and postage due applications will not be accepted. The application dates and times are firm. The Agency will not consider any application received after the deadline.

• Electronic submission: Electronic applications will be accepted via Grants.gov . The deadline for receipt of an electronic applications via Grants.gov is 11:59 p.m. Eastern Time on June 28, 2024. The application dates and times are firm. The Agency will not consider any application received after the deadline. The Agency recommends not filing electronic submissions too close to the submission deadline in the event there is a problem with the system. Applicants that choose to mail applications in lieu of an electronic submission must provide sufficient time to permit delivery on or before the closing deadline date and time. Acceptance by the United States Postal Service or private mailer does not constitute delivery. Facsimile (FAX), electronic mail and postage due applications will not be accepted. Prior to official submission of applications, applicants may request technical assistance or other application guidance from the Agency, as long as such requests are made prior to June 24, 2024. Technical assistance is not meant to be an analysis or assessment of the quality of the materials submitted, a substitute for agency review of completed applications, nor a determination of eligibility, if such determination requires in-depth analysis. The Agency will not accept any applications or consider additional information or documentation received after the application deadline. The application dates and times are firm. The Agency reserves the right to contact applicants to seek clarification information on materials contained in the submitted application.

Rural Development Key Priorities: The Agency encourages applicants to consider projects that will advance the following key priorities (more details available at https://www.rd.usda.gov/priority-points ):

• Addressing Climate Change and Environmental Justice; Reducing climate pollution and increasing resilience to the impacts of climate change through economic support to rural communities.

• Advancing Racial Justice, Place-Based Equity, and Opportunity; Ensuring all rural residents have equitable access to RD programs and benefits from RD funded projects.

• Creating More and Better Market Opportunities; Assisting rural communities recover economically through more and better market opportunities and through improved infrastructure.

For further information, visit https://www.rd.usda.gov/priority-points.

1. Purpose of the Program.

The program is designed to assist qualified private organizations, nonprofit organizations, and public (including tribal) intermediary organizations located in Puerto Rico, proposing to carry out financial and technical assistance programs to improve housing, community facilities, and community and economic development projects in rural areas of Puerto Rico where a Presidential declaration of a major disaster was made under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42 U.S.C 5121 et seq. ) (Stafford Act). This program requires the intermediary (Grantee) to provide a program of financial and technical assistance to recipients. The recipients will, in turn, provide programs to their communities (beneficiaries).

Awards made under this NOFA will help rural communities and nonprofits to build capacity and technical assistance for readiness for more competitive funding applications and successful project completion. The aim is to support rural communities and nonprofit organizations in Puerto Rico's Rural Partners Community Networks to access federal funding to address community and economic challenges in areas where a Presidential declaration of a major disaster was issued.

2. Statutory and Regulatory Authority.

Congress created the RCDI program in 1999 (Pub. L. 106-78), and The Consolidated Security, Disaster Assistance, and Continuing Appropriations Act, 2009, Public Law 110-329 (7 U.S.C. 6945) (“the Act”), created the Disaster Assistance Fund (DAF). The Act authorized additional amounts for authorized activities in areas affected by a disaster declared by the President or the Secretary of Agriculture. This program is implemented under the guidelines announced in this Notice and 2 CFR part 200.

3. Definitions.

Agency —The Rural Housing Service or its successor.

Beneficiary —Entities or individuals that receive benefits from assistance provided by the Recipient.

Capacity —The ability of a Recipient to implement housing, community facilities, or community and economic development projects.

Conflict of interest —A situation in which a person or entity has competing personal, professional, or financial interests that make it difficult for the person or business to act impartially. Regarding use of grant funds, federal procurement standards prohibit transactions that involve a real or apparent conflict of interest for owners, employees, officers, agents, or their immediate family members having a financial or other interest in the outcome of the project; or that restrict open and free competition for unrestrained trade. Specifically, project funds may not be used for services or goods going to, or coming from, a person or entity with a real or apparent conflict of interest, including, but not limited to, owner(s) and their immediate family members. An example of a conflict of interest occurs when an employee of the grantee, a member of the grantee's board of directors, or the immediate family of either, has the appearance of a professional or personal financial interest in a recipient receiving the benefits or services of the grant.

Federally recognized Tribes —Tribal entities recognized and eligible for funding and services from the Bureau of Indian Affairs, based on the most recent notice in the Federal Register published by the Bureau of Indian Affairs (pursuant to Pub. L. 103-454) and Tribes that received federal recognition after the most recent publication. Tribally designated housing entities (TDHE) are eligible RCDI recipients. There are no federally recognized tribes nor TDHEs in Puerto Rico.

Financial assistance —Funds, not to exceed $10,000 per award, used by the intermediary to purchase supplies and equipment to build the recipient's capacity.

Funds —The Puerto Rico RPN RCDI grant funds that have been provided by the Grantee.

Intermediary —A qualified private organization, nonprofit organization (including faith-based and community organizations and philanthropic organizations), or public (including tribal) organization, located in Puerto Rico, that provides financial and technical assistance to multiple recipients.

Low-income rural community —An authority, district, economic development authority, regional council, federally recognized Tribe, or unit of government representing an incorporated city, town, village, county, township, parish, Indian reservation or borough whose income is at or below 80 percent of either (i) the state median household income of $21,967 or (ii) national Median Household Income of $69,021, whichever is higher, as measured by the 2020 Census.

Recipient —The entity that receives the financial and technical assistance from the intermediary. The recipient must be a nonprofit community-based housing and community development organization, low-income rural community, municipality, or a federally recognized tribe, within the selected (15) communities in the geographical area of the Puerto Rico RPN (see Appendix A). There are no federally recognized tribes nor TDHEs in Puerto Rico.

Rural and rural area —All Census Designated Places (CDP) in Puerto Rico with populations of 50,000 or less. Under this new methodology, all CDPs whose populations exceed 50,000 are not rural; however, individual census tracts within those CDPs with the following characteristics are designated as rural areas:

• Population density of 2,000 or less per square kilometer that are clearly not urban in character ( e.g., not an industrial/commercial area like a major airport, sportsplex, or a shopping center).

• Population density greater than 2,000 per square kilometer that are contiguous to other census tracts, the majority of whose population densities is 2,000 or less.

Rural Partners Network Community Network —pre-selected geographic boundaries at the municipal level where the RPN pilot is serving to provide place-based assistance. The three RPN Community Networks in Puerto Rico are the Southwest Community Network, the Central Mountain Community Network, and the East Community Network. The Southwest Community Network is comprised of Mayaguez, Maricao, and Guánica; the Central Mountain Community Network is comprised of 9 municipalities: Utuado, Jayuya, Orocovis, Ciales, Villalba, Ponce, Adjuntas, Barranquitas, and Coamo; and the East Community Network is comprised of Fajardo, Ceiba, Naguabo, and El Yunque National Rainforest.

Technical assistance —Skilled help in improving the recipient's abilities in the areas of housing, community facilities, or community and economic planning development, including assistance with organizational structure, planning pre-award and post-award management, disaster recovery training in response to a Presidentially declared disaster, vacant and abandoned properties solutions, and drafting bylaws.

4. Application of Awards.

The Agency will review, evaluate, and score applications received in response to this notice based on the provisions indicated in this notice. Awards under this program will be made on a competitive basis using specific selection criteria contained in this notice. The Agency advises all interested parties that the applicant bears the full burden of the costs incurred in connection with the preparation and submission of an application in response to this notice.

Awards under the Puerto Rico RPN RCDI Program are limited and are awarded through a competitive process. No reimbursement will be made for any funds expended prior to execution of the RCDI Grant Agreement and prior to the Agency's approval of recipients not identified in the application unless the intermediary is a nonprofit or educational entity and has requested and received written Agency approval of the costs prior to the actual expenditure. This exception is applicable for up to 90 days prior to grant closing and only applies to grantees that have received written approval but have not executed the Grant Agreement.

The Agency cannot retroactively approve reimbursement for expenditures prior to execution of the Grant Agreement.

Qualified private organizations, nonprofit organizations and public (including Tribal) intermediary organizations, located in Puerto Rico, proposing to carry out financial and technical assistance programs will be eligible to receive grant funding as an Intermediary under this program.

Type of Award: Grant.

Fiscal Year Funds: FY 2024.

Available Funds: A total of $1,000,000 will be made available to intermediaries proposing to serve areas in Puerto Rico affected by a disaster declared by the President.

Award Amounts: Grant funds are limited and are awarded through a competitive process. The maximum grant award amount available to an intermediary is $250,000. The intermediary must provide a program of financial and technical assistance to recipients to develop their capacity and ability to undertake projects related to housing, community facilities, or community and economic development that will support the community.

Anticipated Award Date: August 15, 2024.

Performance Period: Grant funds must be utilized within three years from the date of the award.

The intermediary must provide a program of financial and technical assistance to one or more of the following: a nonprofit, low-income rural community, or local municipality, or a federally recognized tribe.

Renewal or Supplemental Awards: The Agency does not anticipate any additional awards.

Type of Assistance Instrument: Grant agreement.

1. Eligible Applicants. Applicants must meet all the following eligibility requirements by the application deadline. Applications that fail to meet any of these requirements by the application deadline will be deemed ineligible, will not be evaluated further, and will not receive a federal award under this funding opportunity:

(a) Qualified private organizations, nonprofit organizations (including faith-based organizations in accordance with 7 CFR part 16, community organizations and philanthropic foundations), and public (including Tribal) intermediary organizations are eligible applicants. Definitions that describe eligible organizations and other key terms are listed above in section A(3) “Definitions.”

(b) The recipient must be a nonprofit community-based housing and development organization, a low-income rural community, municipality, or a federally recognized tribe within the selected fifteen (15) communities in the geographical of the Puerto Rico RPN (see Appendix A). There are no federally recognized tribes nor TDHEs in Puerto Rico.

(c) Private nonprofit, faith, or community-based organizations must provide a certificate of incorporation and a certificate of good standing from the Secretary of State of the State of incorporation, or other similar and valid documentation of current nonprofit status. For low-income rural community recipients, the Agency requires evidence that the entity is a public body and census data verifying that the median household income of the community where the office receiving the financial and technical assistance is located is at, or below, 80 percent of the State ($21,967) or national median household income ($69,021), whichever is higher, and provide evidence documenting that the recipient is located within Puerto Rico RPN Community Networks.

(d) Grant funds will be disbursed pursuant to relevant provisions of 2 CFR parts 200 and 400.

(e) Grant funds will be disbursed on an advance or reimbursement basis.

(f) Successful applications will be selected by the Agency for funding and will be awarded from funds appropriated for the Puerto Rico RPN RCDI program.

2. Cost Sharing or Matching.

There are no cost sharing or matching requirements associated with this grant program.

3. Other Eligibility Requirements.

The Intermediary must be located in Puerto Rico. The recipient and beneficiary, but not the intermediary, must be in an eligible RPN rural area (see Appendix A). The physical location of the recipient's office that will be receiving the financial and technical assistance must be in an eligible RPN rural area. If the recipient is a low-income community, the median household income of the area where the office is located must be at or below 80 percent of the State ($21,967) or national median household income ($69,021), whichever is higher. The Puerto Rico Rural Development State Office can assist in determining the eligibility of an area.

(a) Grant funds must be utilized in a timely manner to ensure that the goals and objectives of the program are met.

(b) Individuals cannot be recipients.

(c) The intermediary must provide a program of financial and technical assistance to the recipient.

(d) The intermediary organization must have been legally organized for a minimum of three years and have at least three years prior experience working with private nonprofit community-based housing and development organizations, low-income rural communities, or tribal organizations in the areas of housing, community facilities, or community and economic development. The intermediary organization may contract with a nonaffiliated organization for not more than 49 percent of the awarded grant to provide the proposed technical assistance.

(e) Proposals must be structured to utilize the grant funds within 3 years from the date of the award.

(f) Each applicant, whether individually or jointly, may only submit one application for RCDI funds under this Notice.

(g) The intermediary and the recipient cannot be the same entity. The recipient can be a related entity to the intermediary, if it meets the definition of a recipient, provided the relationship does not create a conflict of interest that cannot be resolved to Rural Development's satisfaction.

(1) Eligible activities:

• Build grant writing, program application and post award management and reporting capacity.

• Provide assistance to community based-organizations and other types of organizations that needs to formalize its organization—legal, administrative and financial capacity—including assisting with filing for System Award Management (SAM) and Unique Entity Identifier (UEI) registrations, and requirements.

• Board training.

• Assisting with completing a grant application in accordance with federal regulations.

• Assisting with capacity assessment, planning, short, medium, long-term solutions and coordination of funding and service resources.

• Assisting with completion of environmental reports and/or documentation required for submittal of applications.

• Accessing alternative funding sources.

• Funding identification program alignment and project management to include predevelopment grant writing, technical assistance, and post award management.

• According to the need or project, developing the necessary planning instrument such as: Strategic plan development, Viability Plans, Community Resiliency Plans, Community Emergency Plans, and/or Feasibility Plans.

• Developing successful community facilities.

• Creating training tools, such as videos, workbooks, and reference guides.

• Project coordination—of funding and service resources—and implementation program for the short-, medium- and long-term solutions.

• Providing Professional service fees for a Project Manager/Coordinator for assistance or implementation of the plans.

• Align outreach and site visit coordination.

• Engage with cultural, faith based and community stakeholders.

• Create alliances and partnerships to leverage mutual interest, promote efficiency, innovation and collaboration.

• Guide in the creation of a volunteer program.

• Planning, implementation strategies, project management, and identification of funds for community development projects and services.

• Strengthen community empowerment organizations and structure for supporting community development.

• Assist with Nuisance program development and strategies for providing affordable housing.

• Assist with Childcare, elderly services and housing, ownership titles orientation as part of disaster preparedness, support disaster recovery and climate change awareness in community development projects.

(2) Eligible recipients are:

(a) A municipality of any of the fifteen (15) RPN municipalities that compose the community networks (see Annex), private nonprofit, a community-based organization, or a rural community located in a Puerto Rico RPN Community Network. Particularly, organizations that have a community development project, services or initiatives in a RPN Community Network and needs assistance and capacity building to be eligible for federal funding and/or to implement the project, service or initiative.

(b) Recipients can benefit from more than one Puerto Rico RPN RCDI application; however, after grant selections are made, the recipient can only benefit from multiple RCDI-RPN grants if the type of financial and technical assistance the recipient will receive is not duplicative. The services described in multiple Puerto Rico RPN RCDI grant applications must have separate and identifiable accounts for compliance purposes.

(c) If the recipient is a low-income rural community, identify the unit of government to which the financial and technical assistance will be provided. The financial and technical assistance must be provided to the organized unit of government representing that community, not the community at large.

(3) Intermediary requirements:

Grant funds must be utilized in a timely manner to ensure that the goals and objectives of the program are met.

(a) The intermediary must have been legally organized for a minimum of three years.

(b) The intermediary must provide a program of financial and technical assistance to the recipient.

(c) The intermediary must provide the latest financial information to show the intermediary's financial viability to carry out the proposed work. A current audit report is preferred.

(d) The intermediary must provide evidence of their experience in successfully completing and administering similar activities for technical assistance and capacity building to municipalities, rural communities, nonprofit, community-based organizations, during the past three years in activities such as: SAM registrations, 501(c)(3) process, drafting bylaws, planning a community development project, implementing and managing a community project, searching for federal resources, drafting a successful proposal, financial planning, strategic planning, implementing a community empowerment approach, assessing and resolving on land ownership and title documentation, and a nuisance management program among others.

1. Address to Request Application Package.

Application information for electronic submissions may be found at https://www.grants.gov.

Applicants may also request paper application packages from the Puerto Rico Rural Development State Office located at 654 Muñoz Rivera Ave., Suite 601, San Juan, Puerto Rico 00918 or at (787) 766-5095.

2. Content and Form of Application Submission.

If the applicant is ineligible or the application is incomplete, the Agency will inform the applicant in writing of the decision, reasons therefore, and its appeal rights and no further evaluation of the application will occur.

A complete application for Puerto Rico Rural Partners Network RCDI Program funds must include the following:

(a) A summary page, double-spaced between items, listing the following:

(This information should not be presented in narrative form.)

• Applicant's name,

• Applicant's address,

• Applicant's telephone number,

• Name of applicant's contact person, email address and telephone number,

• County where applicant is located,

• Congressional district number where applicant is located,

• Amount of grant request, and

• Proposed number and type of recipients.

(b) A detailed Table of Contents containing page numbers for each component of the application.

(c) A project overview including the following items, which will also be addressed separately and in detail under “Building Capacity and Expertise” of the “Evaluation Criteria.”

The type of technical assistance to be provided to the recipients and how it will be implemented.

• How the capacity and ability of the recipients will be improved.

• The overall goals to be accomplished.

• The benchmarks to be used to measure the success of the program.

Benchmarks should be specific and quantifiable.

• What deliverables and outcomes are expected to be produced from the technical assistance.

• Define the process to provide mentorship and maintenance of efforts.

• Describe the technical assistance provided to the recipient demonstrating at least 50 percent l interaction.

• Timeline describing the proposed tasks to be accomplished and the schedule for the implementation.

• Outreach activities proposed.

(d) Organizational documents, such as a certificate of incorporation and a current good standing certification from the Secretary of State where the applicant is incorporated and other similar and valid documentation of current status, from the intermediary that confirms it has been legally organized for a minimum of three years as the applicant entity.

The applicant must maintain documentation on file for a period of at least three years after grant closing except that the records shall be retained beyond the three-year period if audit findings have not been resolved.

(e) The following information is required for each Recipient:

Recipients do not have to be identified in the application, however, Recipients must be determined eligible by the Puerto Rico Rural Development State office prior to the Intermediary providing assistance to the Recipient.

(1) Recipient's name,

(2) Complete address (mailing and physical location, if different),

(3) County where located,

(4) Congressional district where recipient is located,

(5) Contact person's name, email address and telephone number, and

(6) Form RD 400-4, “Assurance Agreement.” If the Form RD 400-4 is not submitted for each recipient, the recipient will be considered ineligible.

(f) Submit evidence that each recipient entity is eligible. Documentation must be submitted to verify recipient eligibility. Links to websites are not acceptable. Acceptable documentation varies depending on the type of recipient:

(1) Nonprofits —provide a current valid letter confirming nonprofit status from the Secretary of State of the State of incorporation, a current good standing certification from the Secretary of State of the State of incorporation, or other valid documentation of current nonprofit status of each recipient.

A nonprofit recipient must provide evidence that it is a valid nonprofit when the intermediary applies for the RCDI grant. Organizations with pending requests for nonprofit designations are not eligible.

(2) Low-income rural community —provide evidence the entity is a public body ( e.g., copy of Charter, relevant Acts of Assembly, relevant court orders (if created judicially) or other valid documentation), and 2021 American Community Survey (ACS) 5-year estimates (2017-2021 data set) data as evidence that the median household income is at, or below, 80 percent of either the State or national median household income. We will only accept data and printouts from https://data.census.gov/cedsci/.

(3) Federally recognized Tribes —The 2024 list is available at 89 FR 944, pages 944-948 at the following link: https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/FR-2024-01-08/pdf/2024-00109.pdf. For Tribes that received federal recognition status publication, outside the publication cited above, statutory citations and additional documentation will suffice.

An intermediary proposing to serve one or more federally recognized Tribes must include a resolution of support with its application from the Tribes it proposes to serve. If the resolution of support is not submitted for each Tribe, the Tribe will be considered ineligible as a recipient. This requirement is being added to ensure collaboration during the application process between intermediaries and all Tribes that they propose to serve. There are no federally recognized tribes nor TDHEs in Puerto Rico.

(g) Each of the “Evaluation Criteria” must be addressed specifically and individually by category. Present these criteria in narrative form. Narrative (not including attachments) must be limited to five pages per criterion.

(h) A timeline identifying specific activities and proposed dates for completion.

(i) A detailed project budget that includes the RCDI grant amount. This should be a line-item budget, by category. Categories such as salaries, administrative, other, and indirect costs that pertain to the proposed project must be clearly defined. Supporting documentation listing the components of these categories must be included. The budget should be dated as follows: year 1, year 2, and year 3, as applicable.

(j) The indirect cost category in the project budget should be used only when a grant applicant has a federally negotiated indirect cost rate. A copy of the current rate agreement must be provided with the application. Non-federal entities that have never received a negotiated indirect cost rate, except for those non-federal entities described in Appendix VII to Part 200—States and Local Government and Indian Tribe Indirect Cost Proposals, paragraph (D)(1)(b), may use the de minimis rate of 10 percent of modified total direct costs (MTDC).

(k) Form SF-424, “Application for Federal Assistance.”

(Do not complete Form SF-424A, “Budget Information.” A separate line-item budget should be presented as described in Letter (j) of this section.)

(l) Certification of Non-Lobbying Activities, RD Instruction 1940-Q Exhibit A-1, “Certification for Contracts, Grants and Loans” or equivalent.

(m) Standard Form LLL, “Disclosure of Lobbying Activities,” if applicable.

Applicants must collect and maintain data provided by recipients on race, sex, and national origin and ensure Ultimate Recipients collect and maintain this data. Race and ethnicity data will be collected in accordance with OMB Federal Register notice, “Revisions to the Standards for the Classification of Federal Data on Race and Ethnicity” (62 FR 58782), October 30, 1997. Sex data will be collected in accordance with Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972. These items should not be submitted with the application but should be available upon request by the Agency.

The applicant and the recipient must comply with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, Executive Order 12250, Executive Order 13166 Limited English Proficiency (LEP), and 7 CFR part 1901, subpart E.

(n) Identify and report any association or relationship with Rural Development employees. (A statement acknowledging whether or not a relationship exists is required.)

3. System for Award Management and Unique Entity Identifier.

At the time of application, each applicant must have an active registration in the System for Award Management (SAM) before submitting its application in accordance with 2 CFR part 25 ( https://www.ecfr.gov/current/title-2/subtitle-A/chapter-I/part-25 ). In order to register in SAM, entities will be required to obtain a Unique Entity Identifier (UEI). Instructions for obtaining the UEI are available at https://sam.gov/content/entity-registration.

(a) Applicants must maintain an active SAM registration, with current, accurate and complete information, at all times during which it has an active federal award or an application under consideration by a federal awarding agency.

(b) Applicants must ensure they complete the Financial Assistance General Certifications and Representations in SAM.

(c) Each Applicant must provide a valid UEI in its application, unless determined exempt under 2 CFR 25.110 ( https://www.ecfr.gov/current/title-2/subtitle-A/chapter-I/part-25/subpart-A/section-25.110 ).

(d) Each applicant must provide documentation that it is registered in SAM and include its UEI number. If the applicant does not provide documentation confirming that it is registered in SAM and its UEI number, the application will not be considered for funding.

(e) The Agency will not make an award until the applicant has complied with all SAM requirements including providing the UEI. If an applicant has not fully complied with the requirements by the time the Agency is ready to make an award, the Agency may determine that the applicant is not qualified to receive a federal award and use that determination as a basis for making a Federal award to another applicant.

4. Submission Dates and Times.

Completed applications must be submitted using one of the following methods:

Paper submissions: Paper application must be received by 4:00 p.m. local time by the Puerto Rico Rural Development State Office located at 654 Muñoz Rivera Ave., Suite 601, San Juan, Puerto Rico 00918, on July 3, 2024. Applicants intending to mail applications must provide sufficient time to permit delivery on or before the closing deadline date and time. Acceptance by the United States Postal Service or private mailer does not constitute delivery. Facsimile (FAX), electronic mail, and postage due applications will not be accepted. The application dates and times are firm. The Agency will not consider any application received after the deadline. To submit a paper application, the original application package must be submitted to the Puerto Rico Rural Development State Office located at 654 Muñoz Rivera Ave., Suite 601, San Juan, Puerto Rico 00918. The applicant should contact the Puerto Rico Rural Development State Office to see if applications may be submitted to Field Offices.

Applicants may also request paper application packages from the Puerto Rico Rural Development State office at 654 Muñoz Rivera Ave., Suite 601, San Juan, Puerto Rico 00918, or (787) 766-5095.

Electronic submissions: Applications will not be accepted via FAX or electronic mail. Applicants may file an electronic application at https://www.grants.gov. Application information for electronic submissions may be found at https://www.Grants.gov/. Electronic applications must be submitted via Grants.gov by 11:59 p.m. Eastern Time on June 28, 2024. The application dates and times are firm. The Agency will not consider any application received after the deadline. Follow the instructions at Grants.gov for registering and submitting an electronic application. If a system problem or technical difficulty occurs with an electronic application, please use the customer support resources available at the Grants.gov website.

Technical difficulties applying through Grants.gov will not be a reason to extend the application deadline. If an application is unable to be submitted through Grants.gov, a paper application must be received in the Puerto Rico Rural Development State Office by the deadline noted previously.

5. Intergovernmental Review.

Executive Order (E.O.) 12372, “Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs,” applies to this program. This E.O. requires that Federal agencies provide opportunities for consultation on proposed assistance with State and local governments. Many states have established a Single Point of Contact (SPOC) to facilitate this consultation. For a list of States that maintain a SPOC, please see the White House website: https://www.whitehouse.gov/omb/management/office-federal-financial-management/. If your State has a SPOC, you may submit a copy of the application directly for review. Any comments obtained through the SPOC must be provided to your State Office for consideration as part of your application. If your state has not established a SPOC, you may submit your application directly to the Agency. Applications from Federally recognized Indian Tribes are not subject to this requirement. There are no federally recognized tribes nor TDHEs in Puerto Rico.

6. Funding Restrictions.

The following are examples of eligible and ineligible purposes under the Puerto Rico RPN RCDI program. Activities that meet the objectives of the Puerto Rico RPN RCDI program and meet the criteria outlined in this Notice will be considered eligible. These examples are illustrative and are not meant to limit the activities proposed in the application:

(a) The intermediary must work directly with the recipient, not the ultimate beneficiaries. For example:

The intermediary provides training and technical assistance to the recipients on developing and updating materials related to the prevention, treatment and recovery activities for opioid use disorder and ensures that high-quality training is provided to communities affected by the opioid epidemic.

(b) The intermediary provides training to the recipient on how to conduct homeownership education classes. The recipient then provides ongoing homeownership education to the residents of the community—the ultimate beneficiaries. This “train the trainer” concept fully meets the intent of this initiative. The intermediary is providing technical assistance that will build the recipient's capacity by enabling it to conduct homeownership education classes for the public. This is an eligible purpose. However, if the intermediary directly provided homeownership education classes to individuals in the recipient's service area, this would not be an eligible purpose because the recipient would be bypassed.

(c) If the intermediary is working with a low-income community as the recipient, the intermediary must provide the technical assistance to the entity that represents the low-income community and is identified in the application.

If the intermediary provides technical assistance to the Board of the low-income community on how to establish a cooperative, this would be an eligible purpose. However, if the intermediary works directly with individuals from the community to establish the cooperative, this is not an eligible purpose.

The recipient's capacity is built by learning skills that will enable it to support sustainable economic development in its community on an ongoing basis.

(d) The intermediary may provide technical assistance to the recipient on how to create and operate a revolving loan fund. The intermediary may not monitor or operate the revolving loan fund. RCDI funds cannot be used to fund revolving loan funds.

(e) The intermediary may work with recipients to build their capacity to provide planning and leadership development training. The recipients of this training would be expected to assume leadership roles in the development and execution of regional strategic plans. The intermediary would work with multiple recipients in helping communities recognize their connections to the greater regional and national economies.

(f) The intermediary could provide training and technical assistance to the recipients on developing emergency shelter and feeding, short-term housing, search and rescue, and environmental accident, prevention, and cleanup program plans. For longer term disaster and economic crisis responses, the intermediary could work with the recipients to develop job placement and training programs and develop coordinated transit systems for displaced workers.

7. Other Submission Requirements.

Fund uses must be consistent with the Puerto Rico RPN RCDI purpose. Eligible purposes of grant funds include, but are not limited to, the following:

(a) Provide technical assistance to develop recipients' capacity and ability to undertake projects related to housing, community facilities, or community and economic development, ( e.g., the intermediary hires a staff person to provide technical assistance to the recipient or the recipient hires a staff person, under the supervision of the intermediary, to carry out the technical assistance provided by the intermediary). Hiring must support the intermediary's training purpose. Additional staff can be hired as a secondary purpose needed to carry out technical assistance/training to the recipient and must support the intermediary's training purpose.

(b) Develop the capacity of recipients to conduct community development programs, ( e.g., homeownership education or training for business entrepreneurs).

(c) Develop the capacity of recipients to conduct developmental initiatives ( e.g., programs that support micro-enterprise and sustainable development).

(d) Develop the capacity of recipients to increase their leveraging ability and access to alternative funding sources by providing training and staffing.

(e) Develop the capacity of recipients to provide the technical assistance component for essential community facilities projects.

(f) Assist recipients in completing pre-development requirements for housing, community facilities, or community and economic development projects by providing resources for professional services, e.g., architectural, engineering, or legal. While this is an eligible purpose, applicant needs to ensure the capacity of the recipient is being expanded with appropriate training during the process.

(g) Improve recipient's organizational capacity by providing training and resource material on developing strategic plans, board operations, management, financial systems, and information technology.

(h) Purchase of computers, software, and printers is limited to $10,000 per award at the recipient level when directly related to the technical assistance program being undertaken by the intermediary.

(i) Provide funds to recipients for training-related travel costs and training expenses related to Puerto Rico RPN RCDI.

The following is a list of ineligible uses of grant funds:

• Pass-through grants, and any funds provided to the recipient in a lump sum that are not reimbursements.

• Funding a revolving loan fund (RLF).

• Construction (in any form).

• Salaries for positions involved in construction, renovations, rehabilitation, and any oversight of these types of activities.

• Intermediary preparation of strategic plans for recipients.

• Funding prostitution, gambling, or any illegal activities.

• Grants to individuals.

• Funding a grant where there may be a conflict of interest, or an appearance of a conflict of interest, involving any action by the Agency.

• Paying obligations incurred before the beginning date without prior Agency approval or after the ending date of the grant agreement.

• Purchasing real estate.

• Improvement or renovation of the grantee or recipient's office space or for the repair or maintenance of privately-owned vehicles.

• Any purpose prohibited in 2 CFR part 200 or 400.

• Using funds for recipient's general operating costs.

• Using grant funds for Individual Development Accounts.

• Purchasing vehicles.

• In accordance with 31 U.S.C. 1345, “Expenses of Meetings,” appropriations may not be used for travel, transportation, and subsistence expenses for a meeting. RCDI grant funds cannot be used for these meeting-related expenses.

RCDI funds may be used to pay for a speaker as part of a program, equipment to facilitate the program, and the actual room that will house the meeting.

RCDI funds cannot be used for meetings; they can, however, be used for travel, transportation, or subsistence expenses for program-related training and technical assistance purposes. Any training not delineated in the application must be approved by the Agency to verify compliance with 31 U.S.C. 1345. Travel and per diem expenses (including meals and incidental expenses) will be allowed in accordance with 2 CFR parts 200 and 400.

1. Criteria.

All eligible and complete applications will be evaluated and scored based on the selection criteria and weights contained in this Notice. Failure to address any of the application criteria by the application deadline will result in the application being determined ineligible, and the application will not be considered for funding.

All applications that are complete and eligible will be scored and ranked competitively. The categories for scoring criteria used are the following:

(a) Building Capacity and Expertise —Maximum 40 Points

The applicant must demonstrate how it will improve the recipients' capacity, through a program of financial and technical assistance, as it relates to the Puerto Rico RPN RCDI Program purposes.

Capacity—Building financial and technical assistance should provide new functions to the recipients or expand existing functions that will enable the recipients to undertake projects in the areas of housing, community facilities, or community and economic development that will benefit the community. Capacity-building financial and technical assistance may include, but is not limited to: training to conduct community development programs ( e.g., homeownership education, or the establishment of minority business entrepreneurs, cooperatives, or micro-enterprises); organizational development ( e.g., assistance to develop or improve board operations, management, and financial systems); instruction on how to develop and implement a strategic plan; instruction on how to access alternative funding sources to increase leveraging opportunities; and, staffing ( e.g., hiring a person at intermediary or recipient level to provide technical assistance to recipients).

The program of financial and technical assistance that is to be provided, its delivery, and the measurability of the program's effectiveness will determine the merit of the application.

All applications will be competitively ranked and the applications providing the most improvement in capacity development and measurable activities being ranked the highest.

The narrative response must contain the following items. This list also contains the points for each item.

(1) Describe how the applicant will identify and will select the recipients in the RPN area and how the applicant will assess the recipient's needs for technical assistance and capacity building as described in purpose of the program (pages 6 to 8) (8 Points).

(2) The scope of the technical assistance to be provided to the recipients and the activities that will be conducted to deliver the technical assistance, particularly providing customized-individualized technical assistance and capacity building (7 Points).

(3) Identify which RCDI-RPN purpose areas will be addressed with this assistance: planning, project management, grant management and post award, development of bylaws, budgeting, financial planning, funding identification, implementation, community development and empowerment initiatives, grant eligibility and writing. (5 Points).

(4) Describe how the results of the technical assistance will be measured and describe the benchmarks to be used to measure effectiveness. Benchmarks should be specific and quantifiable (10 Points).

(5) Demonstrate that the applicant/intermediary has conducted programs of technical assistance and capacity building in rural communities, for municipalities, community-based organizations and nonprofits and achieved measurable results and best practices in successfully implementing and completing the community development project. (10 Points).

(b) Soundness of Approach —Maximum 15 Points

The applicant can receive up to 15 points for soundness of approach. The overall proposal will be considered under this criterion.

The maximum of 15 points for this criterion will be based on the following:

(1) The proposal fits the objectives for which applications were invited, is clearly stated, and the applicant has defined how this proposal will be implemented (7 Points).

(2) The ability to provide the proposed technical assistance and capacity building based on prior accomplishments (6 Points).

(3) Cost effectiveness will be evaluated based on the budget in the application. The proposed grant amount and matching funds should be utilized to maximize capacity building at the recipient level (2 Points).

(c) RPN Community Network—15 Points

The RPN Community Network is defined as the boundaries of the three Community Networks. The Southwest Community Network is comprised of Mayaguez, Maricao, and Guánica; the Central Mountain Community Network is comprised of 9 municipalities: Utuado, Jayuya, Orocovis, Ciales, Villalba, Ponce, Adjuntas, Barranquitas, and Coamo; and the Eastern Community Network is comprised of Fajardo, Ceiba, Naguabo, and El Yunque National Rainforest.

The applicant must indicate the targeted group that will benefit from the technical assistance and capacity building within the Community Network and will be scored as follows in the table illustrated below:

Commerce published the Preliminary Results of this administrative review in the Federal Register on December 28, 2023, and invited interested parties to comment. 1 On February 8, 2024, we received case briefs from the following interested parties: Riverside, 2 Jiangsu Senmao, the Government of the People's Republic of China (GOC), and the American Manufacturers of Multilayered Wood Flooring (AMMWF). 3 In addition, Commerce received a letter from Anhui Longhua Bamboo Product Co., Ltd.; Benxi Flooring Factory (General Partnership); Benxi Wood Company; Dalian Jiahong Wood Industry Co., Ltd.; Dalian Shengyu Science and Technology Development Co., Ltd.; Dongtai Fuan Universal Dynamics, LLC; HaiLin LinJing Wooden Products Co., Ltd.; Jiangsu Mingle Flooring Co., Ltd.; Jiangsu Simba Flooring Co., Ltd.; Jiangsu Yuhui International Trade Co., Ltd.; Jiashan On-Line Lumber Co., Ltd.; Kingman Wood Industry Co., Ltd.; Pinge Timber Manufacturing (Zhejiang) Co., Ltd.; Suzhou Dongda Wood Co., Ltd.; Tongxiang Jisheng Import and Export Co., Ltd.; Yihua Lifestyle Technology Co., Ltd.; Zhejiang Shiyou Timber Co., Ltd.; and Lumber Liquidators Services, LLC (collectively, CH Respondents) supporting arguments made by the mandatory respondents and the GOC. 4 On February 20, 2024, AMMWF, Riverside, and Jiangsu Senmao submitted timely rebuttal briefs. 5 Also on February 20, 2024, Commerce received a letter from the CH Respondents supporting the arguments presented in the rebuttal briefs by the GOC and the mandatory respondents. 6

The product covered by the Order   7 is multilayered wood flooring from China. For a complete description of the scope of the Order, see the Issues and Decision Memorandum. 8

All issues raised in the parties' briefs are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. A list of the issues addressed is attached to this notice at Appendix I. The Issues and Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS). ACCESS is available to registered users at https://access.trade.gov. In addition, a complete version of the Issues and Decision Memorandum can be accessed directly at https://access.trade.gov/public/FRNoticesListLayout.aspx.

Based on our analysis of the case and rebuttal briefs and the evidence on the record, we made certain changes from the Preliminary Results, and we revised the net countervailable subsidy rates for Riverside and Jiangsu Senmao. These changes are explained in the Issues and Decision Memorandum.

Commerce is conducting this review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(A) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). For each of the subsidy programs found countervailable, we find that there is a subsidy, i.e., a government-provided financial contribution that gives rise to a benefit to the recipient, and that the subsidy is specific. 9 The Issues and Decision Memorandum contains a full description of the methodology underlying Commerce's conclusions, including any determination that relied upon the use of adverse facts available pursuant to sections 776(a) and (b) of the Act.

The statute and Commerce's regulations do not address the establishment of a rate to be applied to companies not selected for individual examination when Commerce limits its examination in an administrative review pursuant to section 777A(e)(2) of the Act. However, Commerce normally determines the rates for non-selected companies in reviews in a manner that is consistent with section 705(c)(5) of the Act, which provides the basis for calculating the all-others rate in an investigation. Section 705(c)(5)(A)(i) of the Act instructs Commerce, as a general rule, to calculate the all-others rate equal to the weighted average of the countervailable subsidy rates established for exporters and producers individually investigated, excluding any zero or de minimis countervailable subsidy rates, and any rates determined entirely on the basis of facts available.

There are 12 companies for which a review was requested and not rescinded, and which were not selected as mandatory respondents or found to be cross-owned with a mandatory respondent. Because the rates calculated for the participating mandatory respondents in this review, Riverside and Jiangsu Senmao, were above de minimis and not entirely based on facts available, we calculated a rate for these 12 non-selected companies by weight-averaging the calculated subsidy rates of Riverside and Jiangsu Senmao using their publicly ranged sales data for exports of subject merchandise to the United States during the POR. 10

This is the same methodology Commerce applied in the Preliminary Results for determining a rate for companies not selected for individual examination. However, due to changes in the calculations for Riverside and Jiangsu Senmao, we revised the non-selected rate accordingly. Consequently, for the 12 non-selected companies for which a review was requested and not rescinded, we are applying an ad valorem subsidy rate of 21.97 percent.

We determine the countervailable subsidy rates for the mandatory and non-selected respondents under review for the period of January 1, 2021, through December 31, 2021, are as follows:

Commerce intends to disclose the calculations and analysis performed for these final results of review within five days of the date of publication of this notice in the Federal Register , in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).

Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.212(b)(2), Commerce will determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, countervailing duties on all appropriate entries of subject merchandise in accordance with the final results of this review, for the above-listed companies at the applicable ad valorem assessment rates listed. We intend to issue assessment instructions to CBP 35 days after the date of publication of these final results of review. If a timely summons is filed at the U.S. Court of International Trade, the assessment instructions will direct CBP not to liquidate relevant entries until the time for parties to file a request for a statutory injunction has expired ( i.e., within 90 days of publication).

In accordance with section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act, Commerce also intends to instruct CBP to collect cash deposits of estimated countervailing duties in the amounts shown for each of the respective companies listed above on shipments of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of the final results of this administrative review. For all non-reviewed firms subject to the Order, we will instruct CBP to continue to collect cash deposits of estimated countervailing duties at the most recent company-specific or all-others rate applicable to the company, as appropriate. These cash deposit requirements, effective upon publication of these final results, shall remain in effect until further notice.

This notice also serves as a reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.

We are issuing and publishing these final results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.221(b)(5).

Sections 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361 et seq. ) direct the Secretary of Commerce (as delegated to NMFS) to allow, upon request, the incidental, but not intentional, taking of small numbers of marine mammals by U.S. citizens who engage in a specified activity (other than commercial fishing) within a specified geographical region if certain findings are made and either regulations are issued or, if the taking is limited to harassment, a notice of a proposed authorization is provided to the public for review.

An incidental take authorization shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s), will not have an immitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for subsistence uses (where relevant), and if the permissible methods of taking and requirements pertaining to the mitigation, monitoring and reporting of such takings are set forth.

NMFS has defined “negligible impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.

The MMPA states that the term “take” means to harass, hunt, capture, kill or attempt to harass, hunt, capture, or kill any marine mammal.

Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, the MMPA defines “harassment” as: any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance, which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).

On October 18, 2023, NMFS received an application from the USACE requesting authorization for take of marine mammals incidental to in-water construction activities associated with the LCR DMMP in Oregon and Washington between River Mile (RM) 23 and RM 36. We provided comments on the application and the USACE submitted a revised version on February 27, 2024. We deemed the application adequate and complete on April 25, 2024. The requested regulations under which we would issue the requested LOA would be valid for 5 years, November 2028 through February 2032. The USACE plans to construct new structures with pilings in the Lower Columbia River. The full DMMP includes proposed dredging and placement operations between RM 3 and RM 105.5. However, the scope of this request for a LOA is limited to potential pile driving that would be associated with any new structures installed under the DMMP which would occur between RM 23 and RM 36. In-water impact and vibratory pile driving of steel and timber piles may incidentally expose marine mammals to elevated levels of noise, thereby resulting in incidental take, by Level A and Level B harassment only. Therefore, the USACE requests authorization to incidentally take marine mammals.

The purpose of the proposed project is to maintain the authorized LCR Federal Navigation Channel depth and width for a minimum of 20 years in the least cost, operationally feasible, and environmentally acceptable manner in order to provide continued reliable, safe, and efficient transportation of waterborne commerce and uninterrupted transit for fully loaded vessels in the LCR. The USACE anticipates 141 in-water work days will be required to install approximately 1,029, 12-inch timber piles and 1,038, 24-inch steel piles via impact and vibratory driving over 5 years. The number of in-water work days per year would range from 1 (Year 2) to 51 (Year 5). Take by Level A and Level B harassment has been requested for harbor seal ( Phoca vitulina richardii ), Steller sea lion ( Eumetopias jubatus ), and California sea lion ( Zalophus californianus ). The USACE's application contains mitigation and monitoring measures designed to reduce impacts to marine mammals. The application also contains proposed marine mammal monitoring and reporting plans.

Interested persons may submit information, suggestions, and comments concerning USACE's request (see ADDRESSES ). NMFS will consider all information, suggestions, and comments related to the request during the development of proposed regulations governing the incidental taking of marine mammals by USACE, if appropriate.

The NMFS Southeast Region proposes to extend the information collection currently approved under OMB Control Number 0648-0365, South Atlantic Documentation of Fish Harvest.

The NMFS Southeast Region manages commercial fishing in Federal waters of the South Atlantic under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act). South Atlantic Federal waters encompass the area offshore of North Carolina and south through the east coast of Florida.

Federally permitted seafood dealers who process or sell federally managed snapper and grouper species during seasonal fishery closures in the South Atlantic for those applicable species must maintain documentation, as specified in 50 CFR part 300 subpart K and 50 CFR 622.192(i), that such fish were harvested from areas other than state or Federal waters in the South Atlantic. The applicable snapper and grouper species are greater amberjack, gag, black grouper, red grouper, scamp, red hind, rock hind, yellowmouth grouper, yellowfin grouper, graysby, and coney. The required documentation includes information about the vessel that harvested the fish, and where and when the fish were offloaded. The required documentation also requires a signed statement by the dealer that attests to the harvest of the applicable species from areas other than the South Atlantic. NMFS requires the information for the enforcement of fishery regulations at 50 CFR 622, subpart I.

The information is in the form of a paper affidavit that a dealer creates and retains.

OMB Control Number: 0648-0365.

Form Number(s): None.

Type of Review: Regular submission—extension of a current information collection.

Affected Public: Businesses or other for-profit organizations.

Estimated Number of Respondents: 379.

Estimated Time per Response: 10 minutes.

Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours: 63 hours.

Estimated Total Annual Cost to Public: $0 in recordkeeping and reporting costs.

Respondent's Obligation: Mandatory.

Legal Authority: Magnuson-Stevens Act, 16 U.S.C. 1801 et seq.

We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department/Bureau to: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Evaluate ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you may ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.

This request is for revision and extension of a currently approved information collection by the Office of National Marine Sanctuaries (ONMS). ONMS manages national marine sanctuaries pursuant to the purposes and policies of the National Marine Sanctuaries Act (16 U.S.C. 1431 et seq. ).

National marine sanctuary regulations at 15 CFR part 922 list specific activities that are prohibited in national marine sanctuaries. These regulations also state that otherwise prohibited activities may be conducted if a permit is issued by ONMS. Persons desiring a permit must submit an application (note that requests for baitfish permits and Tortugas Ecological Reserve North Access permits require contacting Florida Keys National Marine Sanctuary and do not require a completed ONMS permit application), and anyone obtaining a permit is generally required to submit one or more reports on the activity allowed under the permit. The recordkeeping and reporting requirements at 15 CFR part 922 form the basis for this collection of information.

This information is required by ONMS to protect and manage sanctuary resources. The permit application collects information about the proposed activities, the methods proposed to be used, the potential effects to sanctuary resources, and information on the regulatory review criteria at 15 CFR part 922. ONMS uses this information to evaluate whether the proposed activities are consistent with the goals and objectives of the sanctuary and the purposes and policies of the NMSA.

Changes to this information collection include revisions to the permit application and instructions to collect information about small businesses to better assess the types of entities engaged in permitting activities. The estimated number of permits issued per year also changed from 424 to 567 to reflect the additional estimated permit numbers if the various proposed national marine sanctuary designations are finalized. In particular, this is based on adding an estimated fifteen additional permits and about 59 certifications for the proposed Chumash Heritage National Marine Sanctuary (88 FR 58123, August 25, 2023), an estimated five additional permits for the proposed designation of the National Marine Sanctuary for the Pacific Remote Islands (88 FR 23624; April 18, 2023), an estimated five additional permits for proposed Lake Ontario National Marine Sanctuary (88 FR 3334, January 19, 2023), an estimated five additional permits for proposed Lake Erie Quadrangle National Marine Sanctuary (88 FR 32198, July 18, 2023), an estimated nine permits for the proposed sanctuary in the Hudson Canyon area (87 FR 38387, June 8, 2022), and increasing the numbers of amendments and Tortugas access permits to reflect more recent average permit numbers. The number of baitfish permits was diminished by 35 permits and Florida Keys National Marine Sanctuary plans to phase out the bait fishing permits over the next three years (87 FR 42800, July 18, 2022).

Depending on the permit being requested, an application, reports, and telephone calls may be required from applicants. Applications and reports can be submitted via email, fax, or traditional mail. Applicants are encouraged to use electronic means to apply for permits and submit reports whenever possible.

OMB Control Number: 0648-0141.

Form Number(s): None.

Type of Review: Regular submission (revision and extension of a currently approved information collection).

Affected Public: Business or other for-profit organizations; individuals or households; not-for-profit institutions; Federal Government; State, local, or Tribal government.

Estimated Number of Respondents: 567.

Estimated Time per Response: General permits and authorizations, 1 hour and 30 minutes; special use permits, 8 hours; historical resources permits, 13 hours; baitfish permits, 25 minutes; permit amendments and certifications, 30 minutes; voluntary registrations, 15 minutes; appeals, 24 hours; Tortugas access permits, 5 minutes.

Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours: 2,307.75.

Estimated Total Annual Cost to Public: There are no capital/start-up or ongoing operation/maintenance costs associated with this information collection. The submission of information under this collection is primarily via email, phone, or fax and does not result in additional costs to the public.

Respondent's Obligation: Required to Obtain or Retain Benefits.

Legal Authority: 16 U.S.C. 1431 et seq.

We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department/Bureau to: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Evaluate ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you may ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.

This request is for the extension of the currently approved information collection. No changes have been made to the collection requirements. NOAA's regulations at 15 CFR part 970 govern the issuing and monitoring of exploration and production licenses under the Deep Seabed Hard Mineral Resources Act. The NOAA Office for Coastal Management is responsible for approving and administering licenses. Any persons seeking a license must submit certain information that allows NOAA to ensure the applicant meets the standards of the Act. Licensees are required to conduct monitoring and make reports, and they may request revisions, transfers, or extensions of licenses. Information required for the issuance and extension of licenses is provided to fulfill statutory requirements to ensure that license applicants have identified areas of interest for deep seabed hard mineral exploration and production; developed plans for those activities; have the financial resources available to conduct proposed activity; and have considered the effects of the activity on the natural and human environment. This information is used to determine whether licenses should be granted or extended.

Exploration licenses and commercial recovery permits under the Deep Seabed Hard Mineral Resources Act are only for activities by U.S. citizens in international waters. No license or permit applications have been received since the early 1980s, and none are expected during this collection period. Two exploration licenses issued in the early 1980s are held by Lockheed Martin Corporation. The licenses are subject to annual reporting requirements and extension requests every five years. No at-sea exploration is authorized under the licenses without further authorization from NOAA.

Submission may be made by on paper or by electronic transmission.

OMB Control Number: 0648-0145.

Form Number(s): None.

Type of Review: Extension of a current information collection without change.

Affected Public: Businesses.

Estimated Number of Respondents: 1.

Estimated Time per Response: Annual report: 20 hours; extension request: 250 hours.

Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours: 20 hours. For those years in which an extension request must be made the estimated total annual burden is 270 hours.

Estimated Total Annual Cost to Public: $200 in record keeping/reporting costs.

Respondent's Obligation: Required to maintain or apply for licenses.

Legal Authority: 30 U.S.C. 1441 et. seq.; 15 CFR part 970.

We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department/Bureau to: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Evaluate ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this information collection requirement. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you may ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.

This request is for extension of a currently approved information collection. The Sustainable Fisheries Act (SFA) amended the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (MSA) to provide for voluntary reduction of excess fishing capacity through fishing capacity reduction (buyback) programs. Excess fishing capacity decreases fisheries earnings, complicates fishery management, and imperils fishery conservation. The statutory objective of a program is “to obtain the maximum sustained reduction in fishing capacity at the least cost and in a minimum period of time.” Buybacks pay fishermen either to: (1) Surrender their fishing permits; or (2) both surrender their permits and either scrap their fishing vessels or restrict vessel title to prevent fishing. Buybacks can involve either a Federal or State fishery. Buybacks can be funded via a long-term loan from the Federal government to the fishery (industry-funded buybacks), to be repaid by the industry by post-buyback landing fees, or funded from appropriations (non-industry funded) or other non-loan sources of funds. Programs involving industry-financed loans are authorized by section 1111 of title XI of the Merchant Marine Act, 1936.

NOAA National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) established programs to reduce excess fishing capacity by paying fishermen to surrender their vessels/permits. The information collected by NMFS involves the submission of buyback requests by industry, submission of bids, referenda of fishery participants and reporting of collection of fees to repay buyback loans. For buybacks involving State-managed fisheries, the State may be involved in developing the buyback plan and complying with other information requirements. NMFS requests information from participating buyback participants to track repayments of the loans as well as ensure accurate management and monitoring of the loans. The fees for recordkeeping and reporting requirements at 50 CFR parts 600.1013 through 600.1017 form the basis for the collection of information.

Paper reports or electronic reports are required from buyback participants. Methods of submittal include mailing of paper reports, electronic submission via the internet.

OMB Control Number: 0648-0376.

Form Number: None.

Type of Review: Regular submission. [Extension of a current information collection.]

Affected Public: Individuals or households; business or other for-profit organizations.

Estimated Number of Respondents: 200.

Estimated Time per Response: Implementation plan, 6,634 hours; referenda votes, bids, seller/buyer reports and annual fee collection reports, 4 hours each; completion of fish ticket, 10 minutes; monthly fee collection report, 2 hours; advising holder/owner of conflict with accepted bidders' representations, 1 hour; potentially 270 hours-state approval/review of plans.

Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours: 15,838.

Estimated Total Annual Cost to Public: $1,596 in recordkeeping/filing costs.

Respondent's Obligation: Required to Obtain or Retain Benefits.

Legal Authority: Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Reauthorization Act.

We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department/Bureau to: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Evaluate ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you may ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.

The Patent Prosecution Highway (PPH) is a framework in which an application whose claims have been determined to be patentable by the Office of Earlier Examination (OEE) is eligible to go through an accelerated examination in an Office of Later Examination (OLE) with a simple procedure upon an applicant's request. By leveraging the search and examination work product of the OEE, PPH programs (1) deliver lower prosecution costs, (2) support applicants in their efforts to obtain stable patent rights efficiently around the world, and (3) reduce the search and examination burden, while improving the examination quality, of participating patent offices.

Initially, the PPH programs were limited to the utilization of search and examination results of national applications between cross filings under the Paris Convention. Later, the potential of the PPH was greatly expanded by Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT)-PPH programs, which permit participating patent offices to draw upon the positive results of the PCT work product from another participating office. PCT-PPH programs use international written opinions and international preliminary examination reports developed within the framework of the PCT, thereby making the PPH available to a larger number of applicants. Information collected for the PCT is approved under the USPTO information collection 0651-0021 (Patent Cooperation Treaty).

More recently, the USPTO and several other offices acted to consolidate and replace existing PPH programs, with the goal of streamlining the PPH process for both offices and applicants. To that end, the USPTO and other offices established the Global PPH pilot program and the IP5 PPH pilot program. Both the Global PPH and IP5 PPH pilot programs are running concurrently and are substantially identical, differing only with regard to their respective participating offices. The USPTO participates in both the Global PPH pilot program and the IP5 PPH pilot program. For USPTO applications, the Global PPH and IP5 PPH pilot programs supersede any prior PPH program between the USPTO and each Global PPH and IP5 PPH participating office. Any existing PPH programs between the USPTO and offices that are not participating in either the Global PPH pilot program or the IP5 PPH pilot program remain in effect.

This information collection covers data gathered through the Request for Participation in the Patent Prosecution Highway (PPH) Pilot Program, which the public uses to request an accelerated examination within the PPH provisions.

Information in this information collection must be submitted electronically.

OMB Control Number: 0651-0058.

Forms: (SB = Specimen Book)

Type of Review: Extension and revision of a currently approved information collection.

Affected Public: Private sector.

Respondent's Obligation: Required to obtain or retain benefits.

Estimated Number of Annual Respondents: 8,585 respondents.

Estimated Number of Annual Responses: 8,585 responses.

Frequency: On occasion.

Estimated Time per Response: The USPTO estimates that the responses in this information collection will take the public approximately 2 hours to complete. This includes the time to gather the necessary information, create the document, and submit the completed request to the USPTO.

Estimated Total Annual Respondent Burden Hours: 17,170 hours.

Estimated Total Annual Respondent Hourly Cost Burden: $7,674,990.

Estimated Total Annual Respondent Non-hourly Cost Burden: $0. There are no capital start-up costs, maintenance costs, recordkeeping costs, filing fees, or postage costs associated with this information collection.

The USPTO is soliciting public comments to:

(a) Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;

(b) Evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;

(c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

(d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submission of responses.

All comments submitted in response to this notice are a matter of public record. The USPTO will include or summarize each comment in the request to OMB to approve this information collection. Before including an address, phone number, email address, or other personally identifiable information (PII) in a comment, be aware that the entire comment—including PII—may be made publicly available at any time. While you may ask in your comment to withhold PII from public view, the USPTO cannot guarantee that it will be able to do so.

This 36(b)(1) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 22-14 with attached Policy Justification and Sensitivity of Technology.

(i) Prospective Purchaser: Government of Bulgaria

(ii) Total Estimated Value:

Funding Source: National Funds

(iii) Description and Quantity or Quantities of Articles or Services under Consideration for Purchase:

(iv) Military Department: Air Force (BU-D-SAD) and Navy (BU-P-AAH, BU-P-LBC)

(v) Prior Related Cases, if any: BU-D-SAB

(vi) Sales Commission, Fee, etc., Paid, Offered, or Agreed to be Paid: None known at this time

(vii) Sensitivity of Technology Contained in the Defense Article or Defense Services Proposed to be Sold: See Attached Annex

(viii) Date Report Delivered to Congress: April 4, 2022

* As defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.

The Government of Bulgaria has requested to buy four (4) F-16 C Block 70 aircraft; four (4) F-16 D Block 70 aircraft; eleven (11) F100-GE-129D engines (8 installed, 3 spares); eleven (11) Improved Programmable Display Generators (iPDG) (8 installed, 3 spares); eleven (11) AN/APG-83 Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) Scalable Agile Beam Radars (SABR) (8 installed, 3 spares); eleven (11) Modular Mission Computers (MMC) 7000AH (8 installed, 3 spares); eleven (11) LN-260 or equivalent Embedded Global Positioning System (GPS) Inertial Navigation Systems (INS) (EGI) with Selective Availability Anti-Spoofing Module (SAASM) and Precise Positioning Service (PPS) (8 installed, 3 spares); nineteen (19) Advanced Medium Range Air-to-Air Missile (AMRAAM) AIM-120C-7/C-8 or equivalent missiles; two (2) AMRAAM Guidance Sections; forty-eight (48) LAU-129A launchers (40 installed, 8 spares); twenty-eight (28) GBU-39/B Small Diameter Bombs (SDBs); two (2) SDB Guided Test Vehicles (GTVs); eleven (11) M61A1 Vulcan Cannons (8 installed, 3 spares); four (4) AN/AAQ-33 Sniper Advanced Targeting Pods (ATPs); twelve (12) Multifunctional Information Distribution System with Joint Tactical Radio Systems (MIDS-JTRS) (aircraft terminals and ground station terminals) (10 installed, 2 spares); twenty (20) AIM-9X Block II missiles; eight (8) AIM-9X Block II Captive Air Training Missiles (CATMs); four (4) AIM-9X Block II Tactical Guidance Units; four (4) AIM-9X Block II CATM Guidance Units; twenty-four (24) FMU-139 or FMU-152 fuze systems; twelve (12) KMU-572 Joint Direct Attack Munition (JDAM) Tail Kits for 500LB GBU-38 or Laser JDAM GBU-54; twelve (12) MXU-650 Air Foil Groups (AFGs) for Enhanced Paveway II EGBU-49; twelve (12) MAU-210 Enhanced Computer Control Groups (ECCGs) for EPII EGBU-49; twenty-four (24) MK-82 or BLU-111 or equivalent Bomb Bodies; six (6) MK-82 Inert Bombs; and two (2) GBU-39 SDB I Practice Bombs. Also included are AN/ARC-238 radios; AN/APX-126 or equivalent Advanced Identification Friend or Foe (AIFF) with Combined Interrogator Transponders (CIT); Joint Helmet Mounted Cueing System II (JHMCS II) or Scorpion Hybrid Optical-based Inertial Tacker (HObIT) helmet mounted displays; AN/ALQ-254 Viper Shield or equivalent Electronic Warfare (EW) systems; AN/ALE-47 Countermeasure Dispenser Systems (CMDS), KY-58M Cryptographic Devices, KIV-78 Cryptographic Devices, and Simple Key Loaders (SKLs); Joint Mission Planning Systems (JMPS) or equivalent; AIM-120 Captive Air Training Missiles (CATM); PGU-28 High Explosive Incendiary (HEI) ammunition; PGU-27 training rounds (non HEI); ARD-446 impulse cartridges; ARD-863 impulse cartridges; BBU-36/B impulse cartridges; BBU-35/B impulse cartridges; MK-124 smoke flares; MJU-7/B flare cartridges L463 or MJU-53 or equivalent; Common Munitions Built-in-Test (BIT) Reprogramming Equipment (CMBRE); ADU-890 adapter for CMBRE; ADU-891 adapter for CMBRE; Night Vision Devices (NVD); NVD Spare Image Intensifier Tubes; Remote Operated Video Enhanced Receiver (ROVER) 6i units; Tactical Network ROVER Kit; DSU-38 laser sensors for GBU-54; Cartridge Actuated Device/Propellant Actuated Devices (CADs/PADs); GBU-39 tactical training rounds; BRU-57 bomb racks; BRU-61 bomb racks; MAU-12 bomb racks and TER-9A triple ejection racks; other chaff and flare, ammunition, and pylons; launcher adaptors and weapons interfaces; fuel tanks and attached hardware; travel pods; aircraft and weapons integration, test, and support equipment; electronic warfare database and mission data file development; precision measurement and calibration laboratory equipment; secure communications; cryptographic equipment; precision navigation equipment; aircraft and personnel support and test equipment; spare and repair parts; repair and return services; maps, publications, and technical documentation; studies and surveys; classified/unclassified software and software support; personnel training and training equipment; facilities and facility management, design and/or construction services; U.S. Government and contractor engineering, technical and logistics support services; and other related elements of logistical and program support. The estimated total cost is $1.673 billion.

This proposed sale will support the foreign policy and national security objectives of the United States by helping to improve the security of a NATO ally that is a force for political stability and economic progress in Europe.

The proposed sale will improve Bulgaria's capability to meet current and future threats by enabling the Bulgarian Air Force to deploy modern fighter aircraft routinely in the Black Sea region. The acquisition of these aircraft would provide Bulgaria a NATO interoperable platform and allow the Bulgarian Air Force to operate more frequently alongside other regional F-16 operators, promoting common doctrine and operations. Bulgaria has shown a commitment to modernizing its armed forces and will have no difficulty absorbing these aircraft and services into its armed forces.

The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.

The principal contractor will be Lockheed Martin, Greenville, South Carolina. There are no known offset agreements proposed in connection with this potential sale.

Implementation of this proposed sale will require the assignment of U.S. contractor representatives (fewer than 20) to Bulgaria for a duration of thirty-six (36) months to support secure storage requirements of critically controlled assets and provide on-site contractor logistics support.

There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.

(vii) Sensitivity of Technology:

1. The F-16 Block 70 weapon system is a fourth generation single-engine supersonic all-weather multirole fighter aircraft and features advanced avionics and systems. It contains the General Electric F110-129D engine, AN/APG-83 radar, digital flight control system, embedded internal global navigation system, Joint Helmet Mounted Cueing Systems (JHMCS) II or Scorpion Hybrid Optical-based Inertial Tracker (HObIT) with Night Vision Device (NVD) compatibility, internal and external Electronic Warfare (EW) equipment, Advanced IFF, LINK-16 datalink, operational flight trainer, and software computer systems.

2. The General Electric F110-129 engine is an afterburning turbofan jet engine that powers the F-16.

3. The Improved Programmable Display Generator (iPDG) and color multifunction displays utilize ruggedized commercial liquid crystal display technology that is designed to withstand the harsh environment found in modern fighter cockpits. The display generator is the fifth generation graphics processor for the F-16. Through the use of state-of-the-art microprocessors and graphics engines, it provided orders of magnitude increases in throughput, memory, and graphics capabilities.

4. The Scalable Agile Beam Radar (SABR) APG-83 is an Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) radar upgrade for the F-16. It includes higher processor power, higher transmission power, more sensitive receiver electronics, and Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR), which creates higher-resolution ground maps from a greater distance than existing mechanically scanned array radars ( e.g., APG-68). The upgrade features an increase in detection range of air targets, increases in processing speed and memory, as well as significant improvements in all modes.

5. The Modular Mission Computer (MMC) 7000AH is the central aircraft computer of the F-16. It serves as the hub for all aircraft subsystems and avionics data transfer.

6. The Embedded GPS-INS (EGI) with Selective Availability Anti-Spoofing Module (SAASM) is a self-contained navigation system that provides the following: acceleration, velocity, position, attitude, platform azimuth, magnetic and true heading, altitude, body angular rates, time tags, and coordinated universal time (UTC) synchronized time. SAASM enables the GPS receiver access to the encrypted P(Y) signal providing protection against active spoofing attacks.

7. The LAU-129 Guided Missile Launcher is capable of launching a single AIM-9 (Sidewinder) family of missiles or AIM-120 Advanced Medium Range Air-to-Air Missile (AMRAAM). The LAU-129 launcher provides mechanical and electrical interface between missile and aircraft.

8. The M61A1 Vulcan Cannon is a six-barreled automatic cannon chambered in 20x120mm with a cyclic rate of fire from 2,500-6,000 shots per minute. This weapon is a hydraulically powered air cooled Gatling gun used to damage/destroy aerial targets, suppress/incapacitate personnel targets and damage or destroy moving and stationary light material targets.

9. The AN/AAQ-33 Sniper Advanced Targeting Pod (ATP) is a single, lightweight targeting pod for military aircraft that provides positive target identification, autonomous tracking, Global Positioning System (GPS) coordinate generation, and precise weapons guidance from extended standoff ranges. It incorporates a high definition mid-wave Forward-looking infrared (FLIR), dual-mode laser, visible-light High Definition television (HDTV), laser spot tracker, video data link (VDL), and a digital data recorder.

10. The Multifunctional Information Distribution System Joint Tactical Radio Systems (MIDS-JTRS) Link-16 is an advanced command, control, communications, and intelligence (C3I) system incorporating high capacity, jam-resistant, digital communication links for exchange of near real-time tactical information, including both data and voice, among air, ground, and sea elements. It provides the warfighter key theater functions such as surveillance, identification, air control, weapons engagement coordination, and direction for all services and allied forces. With modernized cryptography, Link 16 will ensure interoperability into the future.

11. AN/ARC-238 radio with HAVE QUICK II is a voice communications radio system that is equipped with HAVE QUICK II, which employs cryptographic technology. Other waveforms may be included as needed.

12. The AN/APX-126 or equivalent Advanced Identification Friend or Foe (AIFF) Combined Interrogator Transponder (CIT) is a system capable of transmitting and interrogating Mode V. Mode IV and Mode V anti-jam performance specifications/data, software source code, algorithms, and tempest plans or reports will not be offered, released discussed, or demonstrated.

13. The Joint Helmet Mounted Cueing System II (JHMCS II) or Scorpion Hybrid Optical-based Inertial Tracker (HObIT) is a device used in aircraft to project information to the pilot's eyes and aids in tasks such as cueing weapons and aircraft sensors to air and ground targets. This system projects visual targeting and aircraft performance information on the back of the helmet's visor, enabling the pilot to monitor this information without interrupting his field of view through the cockpit canopy. This provides improvement for close combat targeting and engagement.

14. The AN/ALQ-254 Viper Shield or equivalent Integrated Electronic Warfare (EW) Suite provides passive radar warning, wide spectrum Radio Frequency (RF) jamming, and control and management of the entire EW system. This system is anticipated to be internal to the aircraft although mounted pod variants are used in certain circumstances.

15. The AN/ALE-47 Countermeasure Dispenser Set (CMDS) provides an integrated threat-adaptive, computer controlled capability for dispensing chaff, flares, and active radio frequency expendables. The system is internally mounted and may be operated as a stand-alone system or may be integrated with other on-board Electronic Warfare (EW) and avionics systems. The AN/ALE-47 uses threat data received over the aircraft interfaces to assess the threat situation and determine a response. Expendable routines tailored to the immediate aircraft and threat environment may be dispensed using one of four operational modes.

16. The KY-58M is a lightweight terminal for secure voice and data communications. The KY-58M provides wideband/narrowband half duplex communication.

17. The KIV-78 is a crypto applique for IFF. It can be loaded with Mode 5 classified elements.

18. The Simple Key Loader (SKL) is a ruggedized, portable, hand-held device, for securely receiving, storing, and transferring data between compatible cryptographic and communications equipment.

19. Joint Mission Planning System (JMPS) is a multi-platform PC based mission planning system.

20. The AIM-120C-8 Advance Medium Range Air-to-Air Missile (AMRAAM) is a supersonic, air launched, aerial intercept, guided missile featuring digital technology and micro-miniature solid-state electronics. AMRAAM capabilities include look-down/shootdown, multiple launches against multiple targets, resistance to electronic countermeasures, and interception of high- and low-flying and maneuvering targets. This potential sale will include AMRAAM Guidance Section spares. The AIM-120C-8 is a form, fit, function refresh of the AIM-120C-7 and is the next generation to be produced.

21. The AIM-9X Block II SIDEWINDER Tactical is a short-range, air-to-air missile. The AIM-9X Block II SIDEWINDER Missile provides a high off-boresight seeker, enhanced countermeasure rejection capability, low drag/high angle of attack airframe and the ability to integrate the Helmet Mounted Cueing System. This potential sale includes Tactical Guidance Unit Spares.

22. The AIM-9X Block II Captive Air Training Missile (CATM) is a flight certified inert mass simulator with a functioning Guidance Unit (GU). The CATM is the primary aircrew training device providing all pre-launch functions as well as realistic aerodynamic performance that equate to carrying a tactical missile. The CATM provides pilot training in aerial target acquisition and use of aircraft controls/displays. This potential sale includes CATM Guidance Unit Spares.

23. The Joint Programmable Fuze FMU-139 or FMU-152 fuzes are multi-delay sensors compatible with weapon guidance kits, tail kits, high-explosive bombs, and reduced collateral damage weapons which provide all arming and detonation event functions combined in a single fuze system.

24. Laser JDAM (Joint Direct Attack Munitions) (GBU-54) converts existing unguided free-fall bombs into precision guided smart munitions by adding a new tail section containing Inertial Navigation System (INS) guidance/Global Positioning System (GPS) guidance and adds a Semi-active laser seeker. This allows the weapon to strike targets moving at up to 70 mph. The LJDAM weapon consists of a DSU-38 sensor, a JDAM guidance set installed on bomb body and a fuze. The DSU-38 consists of a laser spot tracker (same size and shape as a DSU-33 proximity fuze), a cable connecting the DSU-38 to the basic JDAM guidance set, a cable cover, cable cover tie down straps, modified tail kit door and wiring harness, and associated modified JDAM software that incorporates navigation and guidance flight software to support both LJDAM and standard JDAM missions.

The KMU-572 is the tail kit for a GBU-54, 500LB Laser JDAM.

25. The Enhanced Paveway II (EP II) Laser Guided Bomb (LGB) is a maneuverable, all-weather, free-fall weapon that guides to a spot of laser energy reflected off the target. The “enhanced” component is the addition of GPS-aided Inertial Navigation Systems (GAINS) guidance to the laser seeker. Laser designation for the LGB can be provided by a variety of laser target markers or designators. The EP II consists of an MAU-210 Enhanced Computer Control Group (ECCG) that is not warhead specific and a warhead-specific Air Foil Group (AFG) that attaches to the nose and tail of a General Purpose (GP) bomb body.

The EGBU-49 is a 500LB GP bomb body fitted with the MXU-650 AFG to guide to its laser-designated target.

26. The Mk-82 GP bomb body is a 500LB, free-fall, unguided, low-drag weapon.

27. Mk-82 inert GP bomb body is a 500LB, free-fall, unguided, low-drag weapon without the explosive fill.

28. The GBU-39 Small Diameter Bomb I Practice Bomb is an inert variant of the 250LB, GPS-aided inertial navigation system, small autonomous, day or night, adverse weather, conventional, air-to-ground precision glide weapon able to strike fixed and stationary re-locatable non-hardened targets from standoff ranges. It can be used for integration, test, or training purposes. This purchase will also include tactical training rounds.

29. The highest level of classification of defense articles, components, and services included in this potential sale is SECRET.

30. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures that might reduce weapon system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities.

31. A determination has been made that Bulgaria can provide substantially the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This sale is necessary in furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification.

32. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to the Government of Bulgaria.

This 36(b)(1) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 22-04 with attached Policy Justification and Sensitivity of Technology.

(i) Prospective Purchaser: Government of Bahrain

(ii) Total Estimated Value:

Funding Source: National Funds

(iii) Description and Quantity or Quantities of Articles or Services under Consideration for Purchase:

(iv) Military Department: Army (BA-B-ULJ)

(v) Prior Related Cases, if any: BA-B-JAH, BA-B-UEP, BA-B-UIW

(vi) Sales Commission, Fee, etc., Paid, Offered, or Agreed to be Paid: None

(vii) Sensitivity of Technology Contained in the Defense Article or Defense Services Proposed to be Sold: See Attached Annex

(viii) Date Report Delivered to Congress: March 24, 2022

* As defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.

The Government of Bahrain has requested to buy upgrades to nine (9) M270 Multiple Launch Rocket Systems (MLRS) to a M270 A1 minimum configuration. The upgrade will include: the Common Fire Control System (CFCS); Improved Launcher Mechanical System (ILMS); 600h Engine and associated engine compartment modifications; Improved Electronics Distribution Box (IEDB); fan speed control valve; cables and mounting hardware, Power Take Off (PTO) and BOO series transmission; the Digital Communication Systems (DCOMMS); and Vehicular Intercom System (AN/VIC-3). In addition, the effort will include two (2) years spare parts; Operator and Maintenance Training Course' Contractor Logistics Support; U.S. Government engineering support; support and test equipment; integration and test support, software delivery and support; publications and technical documentation; technical and logistics support services; storage; and other related elements of logistical and program support. The estimated total cost is $175.98 million.

This proposed sale will support the foreign policy and national security of the United States by helping to improve the security of a Major Non-NATO Ally that is an important force for political stability and economic progress in the Middle East.

The proposed sale will improve Bahrain's capability to meet current and future threats by enhancing Bahrain's ability to defend itself against regional malign actors and improve interoperability with systems operated by U.S. forces and other Gulf countries. Bahrain's continued investment in its defensive capabilities is crucial to protecting its borders, energy infrastructure, and its residents, including over 15,000 U.S. citizens and Naval personnel living and working in the country. Bahrain will have no difficulty absorbing these upgraded MLRSs into its armed forces.

The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.

The principal contractor will be the Lockheed Martin Corporation, Bethesda, MD. There are no known offset agreements proposed in connection with this potential sale.

Implementation of this proposed sale will not require the assignment of any additional U.S. Government or contractor representatives to Bahrain.

There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.

(vii) Sensitivity of Technology:

1. The Multiple Launch Rocket System (MLRS) is a high-mobility automatic system based on an M270 weapons platform. The MLRS fires surface-to-surface rockets: the Army Tactical Missile System (ATACMS) and the Guided Multiple Launch Rocket System (GMLRS). Without leaving the cab, the crew of three (driver, gunner and section chief) can fire up to 12 MLRS rockets in fewer than 60 seconds.

2. The highest level of classification of defense articles, components, and services included in this potential sale is SECRET.

3. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures that might reduce weapon system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities.

4. A determination has been made that the Government of Bahrain can provide substantially the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This sale is necessary in furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification.

5. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to the Government of Bahrain.

This 36(b)(1) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 22-18 with attached Policy Justification.

(i) Prospective Purchaser: Government of the United Kingdom

(ii) Total Estimated Value:

(iii) Description and Quantity or Quantities of Articles or Services under Consideration for Purchase:

(iv) Military Department: Navy (UK-P-FCS)

(v) Prior Related Cases, if any: UK-P-AGS, UK-P-AHA, UK-P-AHE, UK-P-AHJ, UK-P-AHS, UK-P-FAY, UK-P-FBX, UK-P-GEK, UK-P-GWY, UK-P-GXQ, UK-P-GYU, UK-P-LIS

(vi) Sales Commission, Fee, etc., Paid, Offered, or Agreed to be Paid: None

(vii) Sensitivity of Technology Contained in the Defense Article or Defense Services Proposed to be Sold: None

(viii) Date Report Delivered to Congress: March 29, 2022

* As defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.

The Government of the United Kingdom (UK) has requested to buy follow-on support for all three segments of the United Kingdom's Tomahawk Weapon System (TWS). This includes the All Up Round (AUR), Tactical Tomahawk Weapon Control System (TTWCS) and Theater Mission Planning Center (TMPC). The support includes recertification of the UK's missiles; unscheduled missile maintenance; spares; procurement; training; in-service support; software; hardware; communication equipment; operational flight test; engineering and technical expertise to maintain the TWS capability; and other related elements of logistical and program support. The total estimated program cost is $368.53 million.

This proposed sale will support the foreign policy goals and national security objectives of the United States by improving the security of a NATO Ally that is a force for political stability and economic progress in Europe.

The proposed sale will sustain the operating capability of the United Kingdom, ensuring maritime forces' interoperability with United States and other allied forces as well as their ability to contribute to missions of mutual interest by delivering follow-on support and sustainment. By deploying the Tomahawk Weapon system, the United Kingdom contributes to global readiness and enhances the capability for the U.S. forces operating globally alongside them. The United Kingdom already operates this capability, and will have no difficulty absorbing this equipment into its armed forces.

The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.

The prime contractor will be Raytheon Missiles and Defense, Tucson, AZ. There are no known offset agreements proposed in connection with this potential sale.

Implementation of this proposed sale will require multiple trips by U.S. Government representatives and the assignment of contractor representatives to United Kingdom on an intermittent basis over the life of the case to support delivery and integration of items and to provide supply support management, inventory control and equipment familiarization. There will be one (1) U.S. Government representative and three (3) U.S. contractor representatives in the UK full-time for the duration of the case.

There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.

This 36(b)(5)(C) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives with the attached Transmittal 22-0E.

(i) Purchaser: Government of France

(ii) Sec. 36(b)(1), AECA Transmittal No.: 20-40

Date: July 6, 2020

Military Department: Navy

(iii) Description: On July 6, 2020, Congress was notified by Congressional certification transmittal number 20-40, of the possible sale, under Section 36(b)(1) of the Arms Export Control Act, of three (3) E-2D Advanced Hawkeye Aircraft, ten (10) T-56-427A engines (6 installed and 4 spares), three (3) AN/APY-9 radar assemblies, four (4) AN/ALQ-217 electronic support measure systems (3 installed and 1 spare), three (3) AN/AYK-27 Integrated Navigation Channels and Display Systems, five (5) Link-16 (MIDS-JTRS) Communications Systems (3 installed and 2 spares), ten (10) Embedded GPS/INS (EGI) Devices (6 installed and 4 spares), four (4) AN/APX-122(A) and AN/APX-123(A) Identification, Friend or Foe systems (3 installed and 1 spare) and one (1) Joint Mission Planning System. Also included were Common Systems Integration Laboratories with/Test Equipment, one in Melbourne, FL, and the other in France; air and ground crew equipment; support equipment; spare and repair parts; publications and technical documentation; transportation; training and training equipment; U.S. Government and contractor logistics, engineering, and technical support services; and other related elements of logistics and program support. The estimated total cost was $2 billion. Major Defense Equipment (MDE) constituted $1.3 billion of this total.

This transmittal notifies the inclusion of: one (1) Tactics Trainer—Weapon Systems (TT) (MDE). Also included are additional training devices, spares, and services. The total estimated MDE value will increase by $42 million, resulting in a new MDE total of $1.35 billion. The total estimated case value will increase to $2.1 billion.

(iv) Significance: The proposed sale will improve France's ongoing E-2D acquisition. These trainers directly support France's capabilities for Electronic Warfare, air safety, NATO missions, and interoperability with U.S. forces.

(v) Justification: This proposed sale will support the foreign policy and national security of the United States by helping to improve the security of a NATO ally which is an important force for political stability and economic progress in Europe.

(vi) Sensitivity of Technology: The E-2D Tactics Trainer—Weapon Systems (TT) delivers a comprehensive and dynamic high fidelity environment simulating the E-2D Advanced Hawkeye (AHE) Combat Information Center (CIC) and related aircraft subsystems. The TT provides coordinated ground based qualification and continuation training for Naval Flight Officer (NFO) crew positions of the E-2D including: Air Control Officer (ACO), Combat Information Center Officer (CICO), Radar Officer (RO), and Tactical Forth Operator and an Instructor Operation Station (IOS) for simulation control and recording of student performance.

The highest level of classification of defense articles, components, and services included in this potential sale is SECRET.

(vii) Date Report Delivered to Congress: April 5, 2022

This 36(b)(1) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 22-10 with attached Policy Justification and Sensitivity of Technology.

(i) Prospective Purchaser: Government of the United Kingdom

(ii) Total Estimated Value:

(iii) Description and Quantity or Quantities of Articles or Services under Consideration for Purchase:

(iv) Military Department: Missile Defense Agency (UK-I-ZAB)

(v) Prior Related Cases, if any: UK-I-ZAA

(vi) Sales Commission, Fee, etc., Paid, Offered, or Agreed to be Paid: None

(vii) Sensitivity of Technology Contained in the Defense Article or Defense Services Proposed to be Sold: See Attached Annex

(viii) Date Report Delivered to Congress: March 17, 2022

* As defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.

The Government of the United Kingdom (UK) has requested to buy one (1) Ballistic Missile Defense Radar (BMDR); and two (2) Command and Control Battle Management and Communications (C2BMC) user nodes (with network capability required to connect to the C2BMC System to support radar operations). Also included are design and construction of a combined radar-equipment shelter; encryption devices, secure communication equipment, and other required COMSEC equipment to support radar operations; spare and repair parts, support and testing equipment, publications and technical documentation, personnel training and training equipment, U.S. Government and contractor engineering, technical and logistics support services, and other related elements of logistical and program support. The total estimated program cost is $700 million.

This proposed sale will support the foreign policy goals and national security objectives of the United States by improving the security of a NATO Ally that is a force for political stability and economic progress in Europe.

The proposed sale will improve UK's ability to meet current and future ballistic missile threats to the UK and NATO by improving the effectiveness of NATO BMD systems. The United Kingdom will have no difficulty absorbing the BMD Radar into its armed forces.

The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.

The principal contractor will be Lockheed Martin, Moorestown, NJ. There are no known offset agreements proposed in connection with this potential sale.

Implementation of this proposed sale may require the assignment of approximately 15 U.S. Government and up to 100 contractor representatives to the UK, at any given time, during the construction, installation, integration and testing of the BMDR and C2BMC capability.

There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.

(vii) Sensitivity of Technology:

1. The United Kingdom (UK) Ballistic Missile Defense Radar (BMDR) is a scaled version of the U.S. Long Range Discrimination Radar. It will provide continuous and precise tracking and discrimination of missile threats, persistent long-range midcourse discrimination, precision tracking and hit assessment. Discrimination is a critical capability of missile defense, which will provide data to distinguish lethal objects from debris and decoys around the lethal object. The UK will use the Command and Control, Battle Management, and Communications (C2BMC) system to integrate the UK BMDR. This will improve the effectiveness of North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) missile defenses.

2. The highest level of classification of defense articles, components, and services included in this potential sale is SECRET.

3. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures or equivalent systems, which might reduce system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities.

4. A determination has been made that the United Kingdom can provide substantially the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This sale is necessary in furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification.

5. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to the Government of the United Kingdom.

The BCER charter is being renewed in accordance with chapter 10 of title 5, United States Code (U.S.C.) (commonly known as the “Federal Advisory Committee Act” or “FACA”) and 41 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 102-3.50(a). The charter and contact information for the BCER's Designated Federal Officer (DFO) are found at https://www.facadatabase.gov/FACA/apex/FACAPublicAgencyNavigation.

Pursuant to 33 U.S.C. 426-2, the BCER provides independent advice and recommendations on the functions of the Coastal Engineering Research Center (CERC). The BCER provides independent advice and recommendations on the work of the Coastal and Hydraulics Laboratory, which includes the CERC, on coastal engineering research priorities and additional functions as assigned by the Commanding General, U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (USACE) (“the Chief of Engineers”).

Pursuant to 33 U.S.C. 426, the BCER shall be composed of seven members. Four members of the BCER will be officers of the USACE and serve as ex-officio members with one position being occupied by the Deputy Commanding General for Civil and Emergency Operations, USACE for no fixed term of service. The remaining three BCER members shall be civilian engineers who are selected with regard to their special fitness in the field of beach erosion and shore protection. The Deputy Commanding General for Civil and Emergency Operations, USACE, shall serve as the President of the Board.

The appointment of the civilian BCER members and the three coastal division commanders shall be approved by the Secretary of Defense or the Deputy Secretary of Defense (the DoD Appointing Authority), for a term of service of one-to-four years, in accordance with DoD policy and procedures. BCER members who are not full-time or permanent part-time Federal civilian officers or employees, or active-duty members of the Uniformed Services, are appointed as experts or consultants, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3109, to serve as special government employee members (SGE). BCER members who are full-time or permanent part-time Federal civilian officers or employees, or active-duty members of the Uniformed Services are appointed pursuant to 41 CFR 102-3.130(a), to serve as regular government employee (RGE) members. No member, unless approved by the DoD Appointing Authority, may serve more than two consecutive terms of service on the BCER or serve on more than two DoD Federal advisory committees at one time.

All BCER members are appointed to provide advice on the basis of their best judgment without representing any particular point of view and in a manner that is free from conflict of interest. Pursuant to section 105 of Public Law 91-611, SGE members on the BCER may be paid at a rate not to exceed the daily equivalent of the rate for a GS-15, step 10, for each day of attendance at BCER meetings, not to exceed 30 days per year, in addition to travel and other necessary expenses connected with their official duties on the BCER, in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 5703(b), (d), and 5707. RGE members may be reimbursed for official BCER-related travel and per diem.

The public or interested organizations may submit written statements about BCER mission and functions. Written statements may be submitted at any time or in response to a stated agenda of a planned meeting of the BCER. All written statements shall be submitted to the DFO for the BCER, and this individual will ensure that the written statements are provided to the membership for their consideration.

In the Federal Register of May 3, 2024, in FR Doc. 2024-09695, at 89 FR 36782-236783, the agenda has been revised to reflect new times for these meetings. The NCES Commissioner's update will now be held on Friday, May 17, 2024, from 10:30 a.m. to 11:00 a.m., the NAEP 2024 Administration update and discussion will be held from 11:00 a.m. to 11:45 a.m., and the NAEP budget and contracts update will be held from 12:45 p.m. to 2:30 p.m. The meeting will end at 2:30 p.m. which is 15 minutes later than the originally published end time of 2:15 p.m.

The Department is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.

Title of Collection: Campus Safety and Security Survey.

OMB Control Number: 1840-0833.

Type of Review: An extension without change of a currently approved ICR.

Respondents/Affected Public: Private sector; State, local, and Tribal governments.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses: 5,784.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours: 2,410.

Abstract: The collection of information through the Campus Safety and Security Survey (CSS) is necessary under section 485 of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended, with the goal of increasing transparency surrounding college safety and security information for students, prospective students, parents, employees and the general public. The survey is a collection tool to compile the annual data on campus crime and fire safety. The data collected from the individual institutions by the Department of Education (ED) is made available to the public through the Campus Safety and Security Data Analysis and Cutting Tool as well as the College Navigator.

Purpose of the Board: The purpose of the Board is to provide advice and recommendations concerning the following EM site-specific issues: clean-up activities and environmental restoration; waste and nuclear materials management and disposition; excess facilities; future land use and long-term stewardship. The Board may also be asked to provide advice and recommendations on any EM program components.

Public Participation: The meeting is open to the public. The EM SSAB, Portsmouth, will make every effort to accommodate persons with physical disabilities or special needs. If you require special accommodations due to a disability, please contact Greg Simonton in advance of the meeting at the telephone number listed above. The EM SSAB, Portsmouth will hear oral public comments during the meeting. Written statements may be filed either before or after the meeting. Written comments received no later than 5 p.m. EDT on Friday, May 31, 2024, will be read aloud during the meeting. Written comments submitted by 5 p.m. EDT on Friday, June 14, 2024 will be included in the minutes. Please submit written comments to Greg Simonton with “Public Comment” in the subject line. The Deputy Designated Federal Officer is empowered to conduct the meeting in a fashion that will facilitate the orderly conduct of business.

Minutes: Minutes will be available by writing or calling Greg Simonton, Federal Coordinator, U.S. Department of Energy, Portsmouth/Paducah Project Office, P.O. Box 700, Piketon, OH 45661, Email: greg.simonton@pppo.gov or by Phone: (740) 897-3737. Minutes will also be available at the following website: https://www.energy.gov/pppo/ports-ssab/listings/meeting-materials.

Signing Authority: This document of the Department of Energy was signed on May 8, 2024, by David Borak, Deputy Committee Management Officer, pursuant to delegated authority from the Secretary of Energy. That document with the original signature and date is maintained by DOE. For administrative purposes only, and in compliance with requirements of the Office of the Federal Register, the undersigned DOE Federal Register Liaison Officer has been authorized to sign and submit the document in electronic format for publication, as an official document of the Department of Energy. This administrative process in no way alters the legal effect of this document upon publication in the Federal Register .

All principal campaign committees of candidates who participate in the New Jersey Special Primary and Special General Election shall file a 12-day Pre-Primary Report on July 4, 2024; a 12-day Pre-General Report on September 6, 2024, and a 30-day Post-General Report on October 18, 2024. (See charts below for the closing date for each report.)

Note that these reports are in addition to the campaign committee's regular quarterly filings. (See charts below for the closing date for each report.)

Political committees not filing monthly are subject to special election reporting if they make previously undisclosed contributions or expenditures in connection with the New Jersey Special Primary or Special General Election by the close of books for the applicable report(s). (See charts below for the closing date for each report.)

Committees filing monthly that make contributions or expenditures in connection with the New Jersey Special Primary or Special General Election will continue to file according to the monthly reporting schedule.

Additional disclosure information for the New Jersey special elections may be found on the FEC website at https://www.fec.gov/help-candidates-and-committees/dates-and-deadlines/.

Principal campaign committees, party committees and leadership PACs that are otherwise required to file reports in connection with the special elections must simultaneously file FEC Form 3L if they receive two or more bundled contributions from lobbyists/registrants or lobbyist/registrant PACs that aggregate in excess of $22,700 during the special election reporting periods. (See charts below for closing date of each period.) 11 CFR 104.22(a)(5)(v), (b), 110.17(e)(2), (f).

This notice sets out a summary of the use and burden associated with the following information collections. More detailed information can be found in each collection's supporting statement and associated materials (see ADDRESSES ).

Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA requires federal agencies to publish a 60-day notice in the Federal Register concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension or reinstatement of an existing collection of information, before submitting the collection to OMB for approval. To comply with this requirement, CMS is publishing this notice.

1. Type of Information Collection Request: Revision of a currently approved collection; Title of Information Collection: Fast Track Appeals Notices: NOMNC/DENC; Use: The purpose of the NOMNC is to help a beneficiary/enrollee decide whether to pursue a fast appeal by a Quality Improvement Organization (QIO) and informs them on how to file a request. Consistent with §§ 405.1200 and 422.624, SNFs, HHAs, CORFs, and hospices must provide notice to all beneficiaries/enrollees whose Medicare-covered services are ending, no later than two days in advance of the proposed termination of service. This information is conveyed to the beneficiary/enrollee via the NOMNC.

If a beneficiary/enrollee appeals the termination decision, the beneficiary/enrollee and the QIO, consistent with §§ 405.1200(b) and 405.1202(f) for Traditional Medicare, and §§ 422.624(b) and 422.626(e)(1)-(5) for MA plans, will receive a detailed explanation of the reasons services should end. This detailed explanation is provided to the beneficiary/enrollee using the DENC, the second notice included in this renewal package. Form Number: CMS-10123/10124 (OMB control number: 0938-0935); Frequency: Yearly; Affected Public: Private sector, Business or other for-profits and Not-for-profit institutions; Number of Respondents: 32,384; Number of Responses: 21,322,379; Total Annual Hours: 3,962,194. (For policy questions regarding this collection contact Janet Miller at janet.miller@cms.hhs.gov. )

Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires federal agencies to publish a 30-day notice in the Federal Register concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension or reinstatement of an existing collection of information, before submitting the collection to OMB for approval. To comply with this requirement, CMS is publishing this notice that summarizes the following proposed collection(s) of information for public comment:

1. Type of Information Collection Request: Revision of currently approved collection; Title of Information Collection: Manufacturer Submission of Average Sales Price (ASP) Data for Medicare Part B Drugs and Biologicals; Use: Section 1847A of the Act requires that the Medicare Part B payment amounts for covered drugs and biologicals not paid on a cost or prospective payment basis be based upon manufacturers' average sales price data submitted quarterly to the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS). The reporting requirements are specified in 42 CFR part 414 Subpart J.

CMS, specifically, the Division of Data Analysis and Market-based Pricing (DDAMBP) will utilize the ASP data (ASP and number of units sold as specific in section 1847A of the Act) to determine the Medicare Part B drug payment amounts for CY 2005 and beyond. The manufacturers submit their ASP data for all of their National Drug Codes (NDC) for Part B drugs. DDAMBP compiles the data, analyzes the data and runs the data through software to calculate the volume-weighted ASP for all of the NDCs that are grouped within a given HCPCS code. The formula to calculate the volume-weighted ASP is the Sum (ASP * units) for all NDCs/Sum (units * bill units per pkg) for all NDCs. DDAMBP provides ASP payment amounts for several components within CMS that utilize 1847(A) payment methodologies to implement various payment policies including, but not limited to, ESRD, OPPS, OTP and payment models. CMS will also use reported ASP and units to calculate inflation adjusted coinsurance and rebates. The Department of Health and Human Services' Office of the Inspector General also uses the ASP data in conducting studies. Form Number: CMS-10110 (OMB Control Number: 0938-0921); Frequency: Quarterly; Affected Public: Private and Business or other for-profits; Number of Respondents: 500; Number of Responses: 2,00; Total Annual Hours: 26,000. (For policy questions regarding this collection contact Felicia Brown at (410) 786-9287 or Felicia.brown@cms.hhs.gov ).

Notice is hereby given that on May 8, 2024, U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) issued a final determination concerning the country of origin of Nikola's Tre Bev, class 8, battery-electric semi-truck for purposes of title III of the Trade Agreements Act of 1979. This final determination, HQ H335387, was issued at the request of Carter Machinery Co., Inc., under procedures set forth at 19 CFR part 177, subpart B, which implements title III of the Trade Agreements Act of 1979, as amended (19 U.S.C. 2511-18). In the final determination, CBP has concluded that, based upon the facts presented, the various imported components do undergo a substantial transformation in the United States when assembled into the battery-electric semi-truck.

Section 177.29, CBP Regulations (19 CFR 177.29), provides that a notice of final determination shall be published in the Federal Register within 60 days of the date the final determination is issued. Section 177.30, CBP Regulations (19 CFR 177.30), provides that any party-at-interest, as defined in 19 CFR 177.22(d), may seek judicial review of a final determination within 30 days of publication of such determination in the Federal Register .

Carter Machinery Co., Inc. 1330 Lynchburg Turnpike, Salem, VA 24153

Dear Mr. Sullivan:

This is in response to your request, dated November 1, 2023, on behalf of Carter Machinery Co., Inc. (“Carter Machinery”), for a final determination concerning the country of origin of Nikola's Tre Bev, class 8, battery-electric semi-truck pursuant to Title III of the Trade Agreements Act of 1979 (“TAA”), as amended (19 U.S.C. 2511 et seq. ), and subpart B of part 177, U.S. Customs and Border Protection (“CBP”) Regulations (19 CFR 177.21, et seq. ). Carter Machinery is a party-at-interest within the meaning of 19 CFR 177.22(d)(1) and 177.23(a) and is therefore entitled to request this final determination.

The merchandise at issue is Nikola's Tre Bev, class 8, battery-electric semi-truck (“Tre Bev”). The Tre Bev is a battery-electric, zero emission, heavy duty truck, with a 330-mile range. It is described as a 6x2 cab over style truck designed for short-haul regional-metro applications.

In response to a request from this office for a more detailed breakdown of components, Carter Machinery submitted a bill of materials (BOM) containing the country of origin of the Tre Bev components, as well as documents illustrating the assembly process. According to the submission, the Tre Bev is comprised of 1,349 individual parts. The total cost of the parts was provided, and it is indicated that 67% of that cost is represented by U.S.-made products. The trucks are built in Coolidge, AZ.

The U.S. assembly process is described as follows:

Station 0: The chassis  1 (product of Mexico) is brought inside the manufacturing plant. Based on the photograph submitted, the chassis is a black rectangular base metal structure/frame. It is imported in its “bare” form, and the mechanical components are incorporated into the frame in subsequent stations. Each chassis is loaded in the upside position onto a set of automatic guided vehicles (“AGV”).

Station 1: AGVs are moved from station zero to station one. Several major components and brackets are installed, including suspension brackets, cab tilt pump, rear axle alignment, air spring brackets, high voltage routing brackets, and the steering gear (product of USA).

Station 2: Pre-cut pneumatic lines (product of USA) are transported from the subassembly station to the mainline. These lines control air flow to help with steering, turning, and braking functions. The low voltage harnesses (product of Spain) are installed, which help route power from the batteries to areas that require a lower voltage to operate.

Station 3: High voltage cables are bundled and assembled. These cables are directly connected to the batteries (product of USA) and e-axle. E-motor hoses, inverter pipes, and air spring suspension are also installed. Additionally, the DCDC converter (product of USA) is installed.

Station 4: The front axle (product of USA), tag axle (product of Italy), and e-axles (product of Italy) are installed. The e-axle houses twin motors that power the vehicle.

Station 5: Station five focuses on the final preparation of the chassis. The last of the major internal support brackets, battery brackets, radiator support brackets, front under rider protection assembly, high voltage compressor, and HVAC are installed.

Station 6: The vehicle gets flipped in the truck position. The AGV is moved out of the station and the AGVs for the second half of the assembly process move into the station. The flip equipment releases the chassis back down onto the new AGV in truck position.

Station 7: The high voltage cable bundles are routed. The rear Power Distribution Unit (“PDU”) (product of Malta) is installed and connected to the rear inverter (product of USA). Simultaneously, the front PDU is installed and connected to the high voltage lines that will be connected to the batteries. The heat compressor, fuse box, and expansion tanks are connected to brake resistor lines. Thermal lines are also connected in the front.

Station 8: The high voltage batteries are installed using a lift assist into the individual housing units creating by the battery brackets. Additionally, two low voltage batteries are installed in a small housing under the cab to power cab functions such as instrument panel, doors, lights, etc.

Station 9: The cab is prepared to be mounted in the next station. This includes installing and securing the brackets onto which the cab will slide. Radiators, rear cargo lights, rear cameras, quick exhaust, and Tire Pressure Monitoring System (TPMS) fuse boxes are also installed.

Station 10: The cab is lifted using an overhead lift assist. The cab is married onto the support brackets installed in the previous station. The electrical harness and pneumatic connections between the cab and chassis are made. The tilt pin that allows the cab to lift is also installed here.

Station 11: The cab steps, lower side plates for batteries, fifth wheel, and mud flaps are all installed. The horn and speakers are installed to the cab. The rear inverter is also routed and connected.

Station 12: The electrical side panels, storage boxes, and side steps are installed. The wheel trim is installed on the cab tires and are then mounted to the axles. Air conditioning coolant, battery coolant, windshield wiper, and power steering fluids are filled. The chassis steps are also installed.

Station 13 : Bonding checks on high voltage components like batteries, compressors, DCDC converters are done to ensure they are grounded. Unified Diagnostic Services (UDS) routines are completed. Manual service disconnects are installed, completing the battery circuits. Skid plates are installed under the batteries. Electronic Braking Software (EBS) is flashed before high voltage is brought up.

Station 14: The truck is powered on at this point in the assembly process. The e-axle and controllers are paired to the accelerator through resolver learning. Air conditioning is activated, and the odometer is reset. Additionally, the lane departure warning system is programmed.

Alignment: The front axle alignment is adjusted. Rear axle alignment and thrust angle are measured. Headlamps are adjusted. Lane departure warning and autonomous emergency brake systems are also calibrated.

Dyno: The Dyno  2 confirms vehicle propulsion including acceleration/deceleration, braking, and vehicle speed sensors. The vehicle function lights, windshield wipers, and cruise control are also tested.

Whether the imported components are substantially transformed when made into the Tre Bev, class 8, battery-electric semi-truck in the United States.

CBP issues country of origin advisory rulings and final determinations as to whether an article is or would be a product of a designated country or instrumentality for the purpose of granting waivers of certain “Buy American” restrictions in U.S. law or practice for products offered for sale to the U.S. Government, pursuant to subpart B of part 177, 19 CFR 177.21 et seq., which implements title III, Trade Agreements Act of 1979, as amended (19 U.S.C. 2511-2518).

CBP's authority to issue advisory rulings and final determinations is set forth in 19 U.S.C. 2515(b)(1), which states:

The Secretary of the Treasury's authority mentioned above, along with other customs revenue functions, are delegated to CBP in the Appendix to 19 CFR part 0—Treasury Department Order No. 100-16, 68 FR 28,322 (May 23, 2003).

The rule of origin set forth in 19 U.S.C. 2518(4)(B) states:

See also 19 CFR 177.22(a).

In rendering advisory rulings and final determinations for purposes of U.S. Government procurement, CBP applies the provisions of subpart B of part 177 consistent with the Federal Acquisition Regulation (“FAR”). See 19 CFR 177.21. In this regard, CBP recognizes that the FAR restricts the U.S. Government's purchase of products to U.S.-made or designated country end products for acquisitions subject to the TAA. See 48 CFR 25.403(c)(1).

The FAR, 48 CFR 25.003, defines “U.S.-made end product” as:

Therefore, the question presented in this final determination is whether, as a result of the operations performed in the United States, the Tre Bev is substantially transformed into a product of the United States.

In deciding whether the combining of parts or materials constitutes a substantial transformation, the determinative issue is the extent of the operations performed and whether the parts lose their identity and become an integral part of the new article. See Belcrest Linens v. United States, 6 CIT 204 (1983), aff'd, 741 F.2d 1368 (Fed. Cir. 1984). Assembly operations that are minimal or simple, as opposed to complex or meaningful, will generally not result in a substantial transformation. Factors, which may be relevant in this evaluation, may include the nature of the operation (including the number of components assembled), the number of different operations involved, and whether a significant period of time, skill, detail, and quality control are necessary for the assembly operation. See C.S.D. 80-111, C.S.D. 85-25, C.S.D. 89-110, C.S.D. 89-118, C.S.D. 90-51, and C.S.D. 90-97. If the manufacturing or combining process is a minor one, which leaves the identity of the article intact, a substantial transformation has not occurred. See Uniroyal, Inc. v. United States, 3 CIT 220 (1982), aff'd, 702 F.2d 1022 (Fed. Cir. 1983).

In order to determine whether a substantial transformation occurs when components of various origins are assembled into completed products, CBP considers the totality of the circumstances and makes such determinations on a case-by-case basis. The country of origin of the item's components, extent of the processing that occurs within a country, and whether such processing renders a product with a new name, character, and use are primary considerations in such cases. Additionally, factors such as the resources expended on product design and development, the extent and nature of post-assembly inspection and testing procedures, and worker skill required during the actual manufacturing process will be considered when determining whether a substantial transformation has occurred. No one factor is determinative.

In Headquarters Ruling Letter (“HQ”) H155115, dated May 24, 2011, CBP found that assembly in the United States of an imported glider, and other imported and U.S.-origin parts, constituted a substantial transformation into the electric vehicle, an article with a new name, character, and use. The electric vehicle was composed of 31 components, of which 14 were of U.S. origin. The assembly process in the United States was complex and time-consuming and involved a significant U.S. contribution in both parts and labor. CBP determined that the country of origin of the electric vehicles for purposes of U.S. Government procurement was the United States. See also HQ H229157, dated November 16, 2012.

In HQ H118435, dated October 13, 2010, CBP determined the United States to be the country of origin for purposes of U.S. Government procurement for a line of electric golf and recreational vehicles. In this case, CBP found that a Chinese-origin chassis, plastic body parts and pieces of plastic trim were substantially transformed when they were assembled with U.S.-origin battery packs, motors, electronics, wiring assemblies, seats, and chargers in the United States. The vehicles were composed of approximately 53 and 62 inputs, of which between 12 and 17 inputs were U.S. components and critical in making the electric vehicle. The imported parts lost their individual identities and became integral parts of a new article possessing a new name, character, and use.

In HQ H022169, dated May 2, 2008, CBP held that a mini-truck glider from India was substantially transformed when assembled in the United States with approximately 87 different components, 68 of which were of U.S. origin, to produce an electric mini-truck. CBP found that the imported glider lost its individual identity and became an integral part of a new article possessing a new name, character and use. Accordingly, CBP determined the assembly process was complex and time-consuming and involved a significant U.S. contribution, in both parts and labor. The components used to power the vehicle were assembled in the United States, and then incorporated into the vehicle in the United States.

In the case at hand, various imported components such as the chassis, e-axle, and PDU cannot independently function and operate as an electric vehicle. These components need to be assembled in the United States with other necessary components of U.S. origin, such as the batteries, converter, wheels, and front axle. Furthermore, given the complexity and duration of the U.S. manufacturing process, such as installation, calibration, mounting, and preparation of the product, we consider these operations to be more than mere assembly. Importantly, 67% of the total cost of the truck is comprised of U.S.-made products.

This case is distinguishable from HQ H302821, dated July 26, 2021, in which we held that the assembly of Volvo vehicles in Sweden as part of a “knockdown operation” did not result in a substantial transformation. Unlike in that case, where the Chinese subassemblies had pre-determined end uses and did not undergo a change in character and use during the assembly process in Sweden, here, applying the name, character and use test, the imported components lose their individual identities and will become an integral part of a new article possessing a new name, character, and use. The assembly of the Tre Bev in the United States constitutes a substantial transformation resulting in an article with a new name, character, and use.

Based on the foregoing, we find that the last substantial transformation occurs in the United States, and therefore, the Tre Bev battery-electric semi-truck is not a product of a foreign country or instrumentality designated pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 2511(b). As to whether the Tre Bev produced in the United States qualifies as a “U.S.-made end product,” you may wish to consult with the relevant government procuring agency and review Acetris Health, LLC v. United States, 949 F.3d 719 (Fed. Cir. 2020).

Based on the information outlined above, we determine that the components imported into the United States undergo a substantial transformation when made into Nikola's Tre Bev, class 8, battery-electric semi-truck.

Notice of this final determination will be given in the Federal Register , as required by 19 CFR 177.29. Any party-at-interest other than the party which requested this final determination may request, pursuant to 19 CFR 177.31, that CBP reexamine the matter anew and issue a new final determination. Pursuant to 19 CFR 177.30, any party-at-interest may, within 30 days of publication of the Federal Register Notice referenced above, seek judicial review of this final determination before the U.S. Court of International Trade.

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Robert V. Fogel, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

This action terminates the appointment of William F. Roy as Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, John E. Brogan, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

This action terminates the appointment of Brett H. Howard as Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, John E. Brogan, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

This action terminates the appointment of Brett H. Howard as Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Jeremy C. Slinker, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

This action terminates the appointment of Darryl L. Dragoo as Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated March 20, 2024, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121 et seq. (the “Stafford Act”), as follows:

The time period prescribed for the implementation of section 310(a), Priority to Certain Applications for Public Facility and Public Housing Assistance, 42 U.S.C. 5153, shall be for a period not to exceed six months after the date of this declaration.

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Robert V. Fogel, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.

The following areas of the State of Rhode Island have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:

Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated April 13, 2024, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121 et seq. (the “Stafford Act”), as follows:

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Andrew F. Grant, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.

The following areas of the State of California have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:

Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated April 6, 2024, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121 et seq. (the “Stafford Act”), as follows:

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Brian F. Schiller, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.

The following areas of the State of Alaska have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:

Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated March 20, 2024, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121 et seq. (the “Stafford Act”), as follows:

The time period prescribed for the implementation of section 310(a), Priority to Certain Applications for Public Facility and Public Housing Assistance, 42 U.S.C. 5153, shall be for a period not to exceed six months after the date of this declaration.

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Robert V. Fogel, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.

The following areas of the State of Maine have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Robert V. Fogel, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

This action terminates the appointment of William F. Roy as Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, John E. Brogan, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

This action terminates the appointment of Brett H. Howard as Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated March 20, 2024, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121 et seq. (the “Stafford Act”), as follows:

The time period prescribed for the implementation of section 310(a), Priority to Certain Applications for Public Facility and Public Housing Assistance, 42 U.S.C. 5153, shall be for a period not to exceed six months after the date of this declaration.

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Robert V. Fogel, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.

The following areas of the State of Rhode Island have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:

Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated March 2, 2024, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121 et seq. (the “Stafford Act”), as follows:

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, William F. Roy, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.

The following areas of the State of Vermont have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Jeremy C. Slinker, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

This action terminates the appointment of Darryl L. Dragoo as Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, John E. Brogan, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

This action terminates the appointment of Brett H. Howard as Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

The notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Washington is hereby amended to include the following areas among those areas determined to have been adversely affected by the event declared a major disaster by the President in his declaration of February 15, 2024.

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Robert V. Fogel, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

This action terminates the appointment of William F. Roy as Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

Notice is hereby given that the incident period for this emergency is closed effective February 9, 2024.

Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated April 13, 2024, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121 et seq. (the “Stafford Act”), as follows:

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Yolanda J. Jackson, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.

The following areas of the State of Oregon have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:

Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated March 15, 2024, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121 et seq. (the “Stafford Act”), as follows:

The time period prescribed for the implementation of section 310(a), Priority to Certain Applications for Public Facility and Public Housing Assistance, 42 U.S.C. 5153, shall be for a period not to exceed six months after the date of this declaration.

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Brian F. Schiller, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.

The following areas have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Robert V. Fogel, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

This action terminates the appointment of William F. Roy as Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated February 27, 2024, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121 et seq. (the “Stafford Act”), as follows:

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, William F. Roy, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.

The following areas of the State of New Hampshire have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Edwin J. Martin, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

This action terminates the appointment of Jon K. Huss as Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Robert V. Fogel, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

This action terminates the appointment of William F. Roy as Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.

In accordance with PRA of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. ) and 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1), we provide the general public and other federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.

A Federal Register notice with a 60-day public comment period soliciting comments on this collection of information was published on November 17, 2022. (87 FR 69039). No comments were received.

As part of our continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burdens, we are again soliciting comments from the public and other federal agencies on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following:

(1) Whether or not the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;

(2) The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;

(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

(4) How the agency might minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submission of response.

Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personally identifiable information (PII) in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your PII—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your PII from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.

Abstract: The information gathered in the questionnaire is used by the USGS to provide overviews of the effects of earthquakes on humans and on the human environment. Summaries of the effects of earthquakes, and isoseismal maps that represent them, are published in Preliminary Determination of Epicenters publications of the USGS, in Open-File Reports, or in research publications. Summaries and maps are also distributed electronically from USGS earthquake information web pages. In 1998, we began experimenting with an electronic version of the questionnaire as a way of collecting information from people who were looking at the USGS earthquake information website. The experiment was so successful and the number of questionnaire responses for significant earthquakes increased so quickly, that we were able to eliminate other collection methods. We have collected data exclusively with the web-based questionnaire since 2002.

This addition of the questions means that people who received an alert via the ShakeAlert System or any earthquake early warning system can report their experiences to us quickly, in combination with their experiences of the earthquake. This combined data set can tell us much about how the ShakeAlert system operates, when people receive alerts, how they receive them and what they did once they received them. This is critical information for us to improve the ShakeAlert System.

Title of Collection: Did You Feel It? Earthquake Questionnaire.

OMB Control Number: 1028-0048.

Form Number: None.

Type of Review: Renewal with revisions.

Respondents/Affected Public: Individuals/households.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Respondents: 300,000.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses: 300,000.

Estimated Completion Time per Response: 4 minutes.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours: 20,000.

Respondent's Obligation: Voluntary.

Frequency of Collection: One-time, in an online survey.

Total Estimated Annual Nonhour Burden Cost: 0.

An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.

The authority for this action is the PRA.

Pursuant to the Act of August 15, 1953, Public Law 83-277, 67 Stat. 586, 18 U.S.C. 1161, as interpreted by the Supreme Court in Rice v. Rehner, 463 U.S. 713 (1983), the Secretary of the Interior shall certify and publish in the Federal Register notice of adopted liquor ordinances for the purpose of regulating liquor transactions in Indian country.

This notice is published in accordance with the authority delegated by the Secretary of the Interior to the Assistant Secretary-Indian Affairs. I certify that the Pueblo of Santa Ana Council of the Pueblo of Santa Ana duly adopted this amendment to the Pueblo's title XVII, article 3, Liquor Code by Resolution No. 2024-R-03 on March 7, 2024.

The Tribal Council finds as follows:

A. The introduction, possession and sale of alcoholic beverages on the Santa Ana Indian Reservation has, for a long time, been clearly recognized as a matter of special concern to the Pueblo and its members and to the United States; and

B. Under federal law and New Mexico state law, and as a matter of inherent Tribal sovereignty, the question of when and to what extent alcoholic beverages may be introduced into and sold or consumed within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation is to be decided by the governing body of the Tribe; and

C. It is desirable that the Tribal Council legislate comprehensively on the subject of the sale and possession of alcoholic beverages within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation both to establish a consistent and reasonable Tribal policy on this important subject, as well as to facilitate economic development projects within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation that may involve outlets for the sale and consumption of alcoholic beverages; and

D. It is the policy of the Tribal Council that the introduction, sale and consumption of alcoholic beverages within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation be carefully regulated so as to protect the public health, safety and welfare, and that licensees be made fully accountable for violations of conditions of their licenses and the consequences thereof.

As used in this Article, the following words shall have the following meanings:

A. “Council” means the Tribal Council of the Pueblo of Santa Ana.

B. “Development Area” means those lands within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation and that are situated west of the Rio Grande and south of the Rio Jemez, but not including any lands within the boundaries of the Santa Ana Pueblo Grant as confirmed by Congress by the Act of February 9, 1869, c. 26, 15 Stat. 438 (provided however, that if such term is more specifically defined in a planning or zoning statute or ordinance adopted by the Tribal Council, or in any regulations issued under the authority of any such duly adopted planning or zoning statute or ordinance, such definition shall supersede and control the definition of such term set forth herein).

C. “Governor” mans the Governor of the Pueblo of Santa Ana.

D. “Licensed Premises” means the location within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation at which a licensee is permitted to sell and allow the consumption of alcoholic beverages, and may, if requested by the applicant and adopted by the Governor, include any related or associated facilities under the control of the licensee, or within which the licensee is otherwise authorized to conduct business (but subject to any conditions or limitations as to sales within such area that may be imposed by the Governor in issuance of the license).

E. “Licensee” means a person or entity that has been issued a license to sell alcoholic beverages on the licensed premises under the provisions of this Liquor Code.

F. “Liquor” or “Alcoholic Beverage” includes the four varieties of liquor commonly referred to as alcohol, spirits, wine and beer, and all fermented, spirituous, vinous or malt liquors or combinations thereof, mixed liquor, any part of which is fermented, spirituous, vinous, or malt liquor, or any otherwise intoxicating liquid, including every liquid or solid or semi-solid or other substance, patented or not, containing alcohol, spirits, wine or beer and intended for oral consumption.

G. “Liquor Code” means the Santa Ana Pueblo Liquor Code, this Article.

H. “Person” means any natural person, partnership, corporation, joint venture, association, or other legal entity.

I. “Pueblo” or “Tribe” means the Pueblo of Santa Ana.

J. “Sale” or “sell” means any exchange, barter, or other transfer of goods from one person to another for commercial purposes, whether with or without consideration.

K. “Santa Ana Indian Reservation” means all lands within the exterior boundaries of the Santa Ana Indian Reservation, all lands within the exterior boundaries of the El Ranchito Grant and the Santa Ana Pueblo Grant, and all other lands owned by the Pueblo subject to federal law restrictions on alienation or held by the United States for the use and benefit of the Pueblo.

L. “Special Event” means a bona fide special occasion such as a fair, fiesta, show, tournament, contest, meeting, picnic or similar event within the Development Area, sponsored by an established business or organization, lasting no more than three days. A special event may be open to the public or to a designated group, and it may be a one-time event or periodic, provided, however, that such events held more than four times a year by the same business or organization may not be deemed special events for purposes of this Liquor Code, in the discretion of the Governor.

M. “Server” means an individual who sells, serves or dispenses alcoholic beverages for consumption on or off licensed premises, including persons who manage, direct or control the sale or service of alcohol.

Nothing in the Liquor Code shall be construed as a waiver or limitation of the sovereign immunity of the Pueblo.

No person shall be disqualified from being issued a license under the provisions of this Liquor Code, or shall be found to have violated any provision of this Article, solely because such person, having been duly authorized to engage in the sale of alcoholic beverages within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation under the law as it existed prior to enactment of this Liquor Code, continues to engage in such business without a license issued under the provisions of this Liquor Code after the effective date hereof, so long as such person, within 90 days after such effective date (or within 30 days after receiving written notice from the Pueblo of the enactment of the Liquor Code, whichever is later) submits an application for such license in compliance with the provisions of this Liquor Code, and a license is thereafter issued in due course; provided, however, that upon the issuance of a license under the provisions of this Liquor Code to any person or entity, or upon the rejection of an application for such license by any person or entity, no license issued by the State of New Mexico or issued under the provisions of any prior law of the Pueblo that is held by such person or entity, or that purports to authorize the possession, sale or consumption of alcoholic beverages on premises covered by a license issued (or a license application rejected) under the provisions of this Liquor Code, shall have any further validity or effect within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation.

In the event any provision of this Liquor Code is held invalid or unenforceable by any court of competent jurisdiction, the remainder of the Code shall continue in full force and effect, notwithstanding the invalidity or unenforceability of such provision, to the fullest extent practicable.

The sale, introduction for sale, purchase, or other dealing in alcoholic beverages, except as is specifically authorized by the Liquor Code, is prohibited within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation.

A. Except as provided in subsection B of this section, possession of alcoholic beverages for personal use shall be lawful within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation only if such alcoholic beverages were lawfully purchased, whether on or off the Santa Ana Indian Reservation, from a licensed establishment that obtains alcoholic beverages from a New Mexico licensed wholesaler and are possessed by a person or persons 21 years of age or older. Possession of alcoholic beverages is otherwise prohibited.

B. It shall be unlawful for any person to possess, including in a residence or vehicle, alcoholic beverages within the outer limits of the village of Tamaya (the Pueblo's traditional village on the north side of the Rio Jemez, at the center of the Santa Ana Pueblo Grant) during feast or any traditional gathering or traditional obligation as declared by the War Chief, Lt. War Chief, the Governor, or Lt. Governor.

Nothing herein shall pertain to the otherwise lawful transportation of alcoholic beverages through the Santa Ana Indian Reservation by persons remaining upon public highways (or other areas paved for motor vehicles) and where such beverages are not delivered, sold at retail or offered for sale at retail to anyone within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation.

No person shall sell any alcoholic beverage within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation at retail, or offer any such beverage for sale at retail, unless such person holds a license issued by the Pueblo under the provisions of this Article.

No person licensed to sell alcoholic beverages within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation shall sell any such beverage for resale, but all such sales shall be for the personal use of the purchaser. Nothing herein shall prohibit a duly licensed wholesale dealer in alcoholic beverages from selling and delivering such beverages to properly licensed retailers within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation, so long as such sales and deliveries are otherwise in conformity with the laws of the State of New Mexico and this Liquor Code.

Sales of alcoholic beverages on the Santa Ana Indian Reservation may be in package form or for consumption on the premises, or both, so long as the seller is properly licensed by the Pueblo to make sales of that type. No seller of alcoholic beverages shall permit any person to bring onto premises where liquor by the drink is authorized to be sold any alcoholic beverages purchased elsewhere, unless such person is otherwise licensed to possess or distribute such beverages on such premises, except that a restaurant holding a premises license may allow a customer who is ordering a meal, and who is legally entitled to consume alcoholic beverages, to bring onto the premises one or more bottles of wine that were legally acquired from a New Mexico licensed retailer or wholesaler (but not to exceed one bottle per person at the table), for consumption with such customer's meal, provided that any such bottle is opened by an employee of the restaurant who is legally entitled to serve alcoholic beverages, and the restaurant may charge a corkage fee for each such bottle opened.

No alcoholic beverages may be sold within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation to persons under the age of 21 years.

Alcoholic beverages may be sold, offered for sale or consumed on licensed premises within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation at such hours as are established by the Licensee, but provided that in no event shall any such sales or consumption occur between the hours of 2:00 a.m. and 7:00 a.m. on any day.

The Tribal Council may, by duly enacted resolution, establish other days on which or times at which sales or consumption of alcoholic beverages are not permitted within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation. The Council shall give notice of any such enactment promptly to all licensees within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation. In addition, the Governor of the Pueblo may, in the event of a bona fide emergency, and by written order, prohibit the sale of any alcoholic beverages within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation for a period of time not to exceed 48 hours. The Governor shall give prompt notice of such emergency order to all licensees within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation. No such emergency order may extend beyond 48 hours, unless during that time the Tribal Council meets and determines that the emergency requires a further extension of such order.

No person licensed to sell alcoholic beverages within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation shall make such sales except at the licensed premises specifically designated in such license. No person holding a premises license shall permit consumption of alcoholic beverages purchased from such licensee to occur off of the licensed premises; except that nothing herein shall prohibit a premises licensee from permitting a customer who has purchased a bottle of wine with a meal, but only partially consumed the contents of such bottle, from taking the partially consumed bottle off of the premises, after such bottle has been recorked by the licensee and placed in a sealed bag, to which a receipt for the purchase of the bottle has been affixed.

A. No person shall be employed as a server at a licensed premises unless within 30 days after such person's employment such person has obtained alcohol server training equivalent to that required under the laws of the State of New Mexico.

B. No person shall be employed to sell, serve or accept payment for any sale of alcoholic beverages, or to oversee or direct or have any other involvement in any such sale, within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation, who is less than 21 years of age, except that a premises licensee that operates a restaurant or other facility that is held out to the public as a place where meals are prepared and served may employ persons 19 years of age or older to sell or serve alcoholic beverages to persons who are also ordering food, provided that no person under the age of 21 shall be employed as a bartender by any licensee within Santa Ana Indian Reservation.

No licensee shall make any sale of any alcoholic beverages within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation without receiving payment therefor by cash, check, credit card, cash equivalent (such as gaming chips) or voucher issued by the licensee and specifically intended to be redeemable for alcoholic beverages, at or about the time the sale is made; provided, that nothing herein shall preclude a licensee from receiving a delivery of alcoholic beverages from a duly authorized wholesaler where arrangements have been made to pay for such delivery at a different time; and provided further that nothing herein shall preclude a licensee from allowing a customer to purchase more than one alcoholic beverage in sequence, and to pay for all such purchases at the conclusion thereof, so long as payment is made in full before the customer has left the licensed premises; and provided further that nothing herein shall prevent a licensee from distributing alcoholic beverages to customers without charge, so long as such distribution is not otherwise in violation of any provision of this Liquor Code.

Any person who sells, offers for sale, stores or possesses for commercial purposes, or maintains premises for the consumption of alcoholic beverages within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation, must be duly licensed under the provisions of this Liquor Code.

The following types or classes of licenses for the sale or distribution of alcoholic beverages within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation shall be permitted:

A. Package license, which shall authorize the licensee to store, possess, sell and offer for sale alcoholic beverages in unopened containers, or in containers that may only be opened by employees of the licensee, for consumption only off the licensed premises.

B. Premises license, which shall authorize the licensee to store, possess and sell alcoholic beverages for consumption on the licensed premises, and to permit such consumption on the licensed premises, provided that such license when held by an inn or hotel shall also permit the licensee to stock any individual guest room with alcoholic beverages contained in a compartment available to the registered guest to whom such room is rented and who is 21 years of age or older; and provided further that a premises licensee may allow a patron who has purchased a bottle of wine with a meal, but who has not consumed all of the contents of such bottle, to leave the premises with the partially filled bottle, after the bottle has been recorded and placed in a sealed bag by the licensee, with a receipt showing the customer's payment for the bottle attached to the bag.

C. Special event license, which shall authorize the licensee to possess, distribute, sell and offer for sale alcoholic beverages for consumption only on the licensed premises, and to permit such consumption, but only for a bona fide special event, and only during the period or periods specified in such license, which period or periods shall be limited to the periods during which the special event is occurring and from beginning to end shall not exceed 72 hours.

A. No person shall be entitled to be issued a license under the provisions of this Liquor Code who has previously been the subject of any proceeding resulting in the revocation or the denial of a renewal of any license for the sale of alcoholic beverages issued by the Pueblo or by any state or other jurisdiction, or who has been convicted of any felony in any jurisdiction involving theft, corruption, dishonesty or embezzlement, or who has not at the time the application for license is submitted attained the age of 21 years, or who is otherwise determined by the Pueblo to be unfit to be licensed to sell alcoholic beverages, or whose spouse is a person not qualified to hold a license under the provisions of this section.

B. No partnership or corporation shall be entitled to be issued a license under the provisions of this Liquor Code if any individual occupying any management or supervisory position within such corporation or partnership, or who sits on the management committee or board of directors or trustees thereof, or who holds or controls a financial interest of ten percent or more in such partnership or corporation, is a person who would not be entitled to be issued a license under the provisions of this section.

C. No person shall be entitled to be issued a package or premises license hereunder unless such person has, by virtue of an approved lease or other valid interest in lands within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation, lawful entitlement to engage in a business within the Development Area with which such license would be compatible, and can demonstrate that such person is otherwise capable of complying with all of the requirements imposed on licensees by this Liquor Code.

D. No application for a package or premises license shall be issued for any licensed premises outside of the Development Area.

E. Notwithstanding anything in this section to the contrary, the Pueblo and its agencies, programs and enterprises shall be entitled to be issued licenses hereunder in appropriate circumstances, provided that all other provisions of this Liquor Code are complied with.

A. Every person seeking a package or premises license under the provisions of this Liquor Code (other than the Pueblo or any of its agencies, programs or enterprises) shall submit to the Pueblo's Tribal Administrator, or such other person as the Governor may designate to handle such matters (hereinafter referred to as “Liquor License Administrator”) a written application, under oath, in the form prescribed by and containing the information required by this section.

B. If the applicant is a natural person, the application shall contain, at a minimum, all of the following information:

1. The full legal name of the applicant, plus any other names under which the applicant has been known or done business during the previous 20 years, and the applicant's date and place of birth, as shown by a certified copy of the applicant's birth certificate.

2. The applicant's current legal residence address and business address, if any, and every residence address that the applicant has maintained during the previous ten years, with the dates during which each such address was current.

3. The trade name, business address and description of every business in which the applicant has engaged or had any interest (other than stock ownership or partnership interest amounting to less than five percent of total capital) during the previous ten years, and the dates during which the applicant engaged in or held an interest in any such business.

4. A listing of every other jurisdiction in which the applicant has ever applied for a license to sell or distribute alcoholic beverages, the date on which each such application was filed, the name of the regulatory agency with which the application was filed, the action taken on each such application, and if any such license was issued, the dates during which it remained in effect, and as to each such license a statement whether any action was ever taken by the regulatory body to suspend or revoke such license, with full dates and details of any such incident.

5. A listing of every crime with which the applicant has ever been charged, other than routine traffic offenses (but including any charge of driving while intoxicated or the like), giving as to each the date on which the charge was made, the location, the jurisdiction, the court in which the matter was heard, and the outcome or ultimate disposition thereof.

6. The name and address of every person or entity holding any security interest in any of the assets of the business to be conducted by the applicant, or in any of the proceeds of such business.

7. A detailed plat of the business premises within the Development Area, including the floor plans of any structure and the details of any exterior areas intended to be part of the licensed premises, together with evidence of the applicant's right to conduct business on such premises.

8. A detailed description of the business conducted or intended to be conducted on the licensed premises and including (but not limited to) hours of operation and number of employees.

9. The type(s) of license(s) requested.

C. If the applicant is a corporation, the corporation, each officer of the corporation and every person holding 10% or more of the outstanding stock in the corporation shall submit an application complying with the provisions of paragraph B of this section, and in addition, the applicant shall also submit the following:

1. A certified copy of its Articles of Incorporation and Bylaws.

2. The names and addresses of all officers and directors and those stockholders owning 5% or more of the voting stock of the corporation and the amount of stock held by each such stockholder.

3. The name of the resident agent of the corporation who would be authorized to accept service of process, including orders and notices issued by the Pueblo, and who will have principal supervisory responsibility for the business to be conducted on the licensed premises.

4. Such additional information regarding the corporation as the Liquor License Administrator may require to assure a full disclosure of the corporation's structure and financial responsibility.

D. If the applicant is a partnership, the partnership, the managing partner and every partner having an interest amounting to 10% or more of the total equity interest in the partnership shall submit applicants complying with the provisions of paragraph B of this section, and in addition, the applicant shall submit the following:

1. A certified copy of the Partnership Agreement.

2. The names and addresses of all general partners and of all limited partners contributing 10% or more of the total value of contributions made to the limited partnership or who are entitled to 10% or more of any distributions of the limited partnership.

3. The name and address of the partner, or other agent of the partnership, authorized to accept service of process, including orders and notices issued by the Pueblo, and who will have principal supervisory responsibility for the business to be conducted in the licensed premises.

4. Such additional information regarding the partnership as the Liquor License Administrator may require to assure a full disclosure of the partnership's structure and financial responsibility.

E. Every applicant who is a natural person, and every person required by paragraphs C or D of this section to comply with the provisions of paragraph B, shall also submit with the application a complete set of fingerprints, taken under the supervision of and certified to by an officer of an authorized law enforcement agency located within the State of New Mexico.

F. Every applicant for either a package license or a premises license shall submit with the completed license application a non-refundable license processing fee, in the amount set forth below:

In addition, each applicant shall pay a fee to cover the cost of a background investigation of each individual for whom such investigation must be undertaken in connection with the application, in an amount to be set by the Liquor License Administrator from time to time.

G. Upon receiving a completed license application together with the required fee, the Liquor License Administrator shall cause a background investigation to be performed of the applicant, to determine whether the applicant is qualified to be licensed under the provisions of this Liquor Code. Upon the written recommendation of the Liquor License Administrator (if requested by the applicant), the Governor may, in his discretion, issue a preliminary license to the applicant effective for a period of no more than 90 days, but which shall be renewable for one additional period of 90 days in the event the background investigation cannot be completed within the first 90-day period; provided, however, that in no event shall the issuance of a preliminary license, or the renewal of such license for an additional 90-day period, entitle the applicant to favorable consideration with respect to the application for a package or premises license.

H. The Pueblo or any of its agencies, programs or enterprises may apply for a package or premises license by submitting an application to the Liquor License Administrator identifying the applicant, describing in detail the purpose of the license, including a detailed description of the proposed licensed premises, and including the appropriate fee as set forth in Paragraph F of this section.

A. The Liquor License Administrator shall, after reviewing all of the information submitted by the applicant or revealed by the background investigation, submit a report to the Governor recommending either approval or denial of the application for the license, and stating the reasons for such recommendation.

B. Upon review of the recommendation of the Liquor License Administrator, if the Governor finds that the applicant satisfies the requirements of Sec. 17-3-20 of this Article, the Governor shall issue the license, authorizing the applicant to engage in sales of alcoholic beverages within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation as permitted by the class of license applied for, and specifying in detail the licensed premises where such sales are permitted (which shall be within the Development Area), but subject also to all the terms and conditions of this Liquor Code, and to such other appropriate conditions, not inconsistent with the provisions of this Liquor Code, as the Governor may deem reasonable and necessary under the circumstances.

C. In the event the Governor concludes, on the basis of the Liquor License Administrator's report, that the applicant does not satisfy the requirements of Sec. 17-3-20 of this Article, the Governor shall issue a notice denying the application, and explaining the basis for such denial.

D. Any applicant whose application is denied shall have the right to appeal such denial, by filing a Notice of Appeal with the Office of the Governor and with the Santa Ana Tribal Court, within 30 days of the date of receipt of the Notice of Denial. Upon receiving a copy of a Notice of Appeal, the Governor's office shall prepare a copy of the entire file pertaining to the application and shall transmit it to the Tribal Court, with a copy to the applicant. The Pueblo, represented by the Pueblo's attorney, shall appear in the action in the Tribal Court. The proceedings in the Tribal Court shall be based upon the record that was before the Liquor License Administrator and the Governor, except that the applicant may, upon a showing of good cause, be permitted to submit additional evidence to rebut or explain information relied on by the Governor for his denial of the application that was not obtained from the applicant. The Tribal Court shall affirm the Governor's decision unless it finds that the Governor acted arbitrarily or capriciously or otherwise abused his discretion in making his determination.

E. Any party that is aggrieved by the decision of the Tribal Court may petition the Tribal Council to review the Tribal Court decision, in writing, within 30 days after issuance of the Tribal Court decision. The petition shall set forth the specific grounds on which the petitioner claims the Tribal Court erred in its decision, and why its decision should be reviewed, and shall be served on the Governor and all parties. The prevailing party may submit a response to the petition within 15 days of service of the petition. The Governor shall place the petition on the agenda of the next Tribal Council meeting after service of the response (or the expiration of the 15-day period, if no response is filed), and the Tribal Council shall, at such meeting, decide whether to hear the petition. In the event the Tribal Council decides to hear the petition, the Governor shall notify all parties of that decision, and of the date on which the Tribal Council shall consider the matter. The Governor shall provide each Tribal Council member with a copy of the Tribal Court decision, the petition for Tribal Council review and the response, if any, and the complete record before the Tribal Court shall be available for inspection by any Tribal Council member. The Tribal Council shall hear each party's representative present its arguments and shall decide by majority vote whether a license should be issued to the applicant. The Tribal Council's decision shall be final and nonreviewable.

A. Each package or premises license issued hereunder shall have a term of one (1) year from the date of issuance, provided that such license shall be renewable for additional periods of one year each by any licensee who has complied fully with the terms and provisions of the license and of this Liquor Code during the term of the license, and who remains fully qualified to be licensed under the provisions of Sec. 17-3-20 of this Article, upon payment to the Pueblo of a license renewal fee in the amount of the initial application fee, and submission of an application for renewal on a form specified by the Liquor License Administrator, no less than thirty (30) days prior to the expiration date of the license. The renewal form shall require the applicant to note any changes in the information submitted with the original license application. The failure to submit a timely renewal application, with the required fee, may subject the licensee to a late charge of $500.00. If the renewal application is not submitted prior to expiration of the license, the Liquor License Administrator may treat the license as having expired and may require the licensee to file a new application in compliance with Sec. 17-3-21 of this Article.

B. Upon receipt of an application for renewal of a license, and a recommendation of the Liquor License Administrator, the Governor shall determine whether the licensee has conducted its operations in compliance with the provisions of this Code and is otherwise qualified to be licensed. In the event the Governor receives information indicating that the licensee has not complied with the provisions of this Code or is otherwise not qualified to be licensed hereunder, the Governor shall deny the application for renewal, giving the licensee written notice thereof with a statement of the reasons for such denial.

C. A licensee may appeal a denial of an application for renewal of its license, by filing a Notice of Appeal with the Office of the Governor and with the Santa Ana Tribal Court, within 30 days of receipt of the Notice of Denial of the application for renewal. Upon receiving the Notice of Appeal, the Governor's office shall prepare a complete copy of the entire file pertaining to the application and shall transmit it to the Tribal Court, with a copy to the applicant. The Pueblo, represented by the Pueblo's attorney, shall appear in the action in the Tribal Court. The proceedings in the Tribal Court shall be based upon the information submitted to the Governor by the licensee and any other information obtained by the Governor in the course of processing the application, except that the licensee shall be permitted to submit additional evidence to rebut or explain information relied on by the Governor for his denial of the application that was not obtained from the licensee. The licensee may apply to the Tribal Court for an order maintaining the license in effect during the pendency of the appeal, but in the absence of such order, the license shall expire at the end of its term. The Tribal Court shall affirm the Governor's decision unless it finds that the Governor acted arbitrarily or capriciously or otherwise abused his discretion in making his determination.

D. Any party that is aggrieved by the decision of the Tribal Court may petition the Tribal Council to review the Tribal Court decision, in writing, within 30 days after issuance of the Tribal Court decision. The petition shall set forth the specific grounds on which the petitioner claims the Tribal Court erred in its decision, and why its decision should be reviewed, and shall be served on the Governor and all parties. The prevailing party may submit a response to the petition within 15 days of service of the petition. The Governor shall place the petition on the agenda of the next Tribal Council meeting after service of the response (or the expiration of the 15-day period, if no response is filed), and the Tribal Council shall, at such meeting, decide whether to hear the petition. In the event the Tribal Council decides to hear the petition, the Governor shall notify all parties of that decision, and of the date on which the Tribal Council shall consider the matter. The Governor shall provide each Tribal Council member with a copy of the Tribal Court decision, the petition for Tribal Council review and the response, if any, and the complete record before the Tribal Court shall be available for inspection by any Tribal Council member. The Tribal Council shall hear each party's representative present its argument and shall decide by majority vote whether the license should be renewed. The Tribal Council's decision shall be final and nonreviewable.

No licensee shall have any property interest in any license issued under the provisions of this Liquor Code, and every such license shall be deemed to confer a privilege, revocable by the Pueblo in accordance with the provisions of this Article. The continued validity of every package and premises license issued hereunder shall be dependent upon the following conditions:

A. Every representation made by the licensee and any of its officers, directors, shareholders, partners or other persons required to submit information in support of the application, shall have been true at the time such information was submitted, and shall continue to be true, except to the extent the licensee advises the Liquor License Administrator in writing of any change in any such information, and notwithstanding any such change, the licensee shall continue to be qualified to be licensed under the provisions of this Liquor Code.

B. The licensee shall at all times conduct its business on the Santa Ana Indian Reservation in full compliance with the provisions of this Liquor Code and with the other laws of the Pueblo.

C. The licensee shall maintain in force, public liability insurance covering the licensed premises, insuring the licensee and the Pueblo against any claims, losses or liability whatsoever for any acts or omissions of the licensee or of any business invitee on the licensed premises resulting in injury, loss or damage to any other party, with coverage limits of at least $1 million per injured person, and the Liquor License Administrator shall at all times have written evidence of the continued existence of such policy of insurance.

D. The licensee shall continue to have authority to engage in business within the Development Area, and shall have paid all required rentals, assessments, taxes, or other payments due the Pueblo.

E. The business conducted on the licensed premises shall be conducted by the licensee or its employees directly, and shall not be conducted by any lessee, sublessee, assignee or other transferee, nor shall any license or any interest therein be sold, assigned, leased or otherwise transferred to any other person.

F. All alcoholic beverages sold on the licensed premises shall have been obtained from a New Mexico licensed wholesaler.

G. The licensee shall submit to the jurisdiction of the Tribal Court of the Pueblo with respect to any action brought by the Pueblo or any of its agencies or officials to enforce the provisions of this Liquor Code, or with respect to any action arising out of the licensee's sale or service of alcoholic beverages on the licensed premises.

A. Upon determining that any person licensed by the Pueblo to sell alcoholic beverages under the provisions of this Article is for any reason no longer qualified to hold such license under the provisions of Sec. 17-3-20 hereof, or has violated any of the conditions set forth in Sec. 17-3-24, the Governor shall immediately serve written notice upon such licensee directing that he show cause within ten (10) calendar days why his license should not be suspended or revoked, or a fine imposed. The notice shall specify the precise grounds relied upon and the action proposed.

B. If the licensee fails to respond to such notice within ten (10) calendar days of service of such notice, the Governor shall issue an order suspending the license for such period as the Governor deems appropriate, or revoking the license, effective immediately, or imposing a fine, in such amount as the Governor deems reasonable. If the licensee, within the 10-day period, files with the Office of the Governor a written response and request for a hearing before the Santa Ana Tribal Court, such hearing shall be set no later than thirty (30) calendar days after receipt of such request.

C. At the hearing, the licensee, who may be represented by counsel, shall present evidence and argument directed at the issue of whether or not the asserted grounds for the proposed action are in fact true, and whether such grounds justify such action. The Pueblo may present such other evidence as it deems appropriate.

D. The court after considering all of the evidence and arguments shall issue a written decision either upholding the proposed action of the Governor, modifying such action by imposing some lesser penalty, or ruling in favor of the licensee, and such decision shall be final and conclusive.

A. Any person authorized to conduct business within the Development Area, or any established organization (including any agency, department or enterprise of the Pueblo) that includes any member of the Pueblo and that has authority to conduct any activities within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation, that is not a licensee hereunder and that has not had an application for a license rejected, may apply to the Liquor License Administrator for a special event license, which shall entitle the applicant to distribute alcoholic beverages, whether or not for consideration, in connection with a bona fide special event to be held by the applicant within the Development Area. Any such application must be filed in writing, in a form prescribed by the Liquor License Administrator, no later than ten (10) calendar days prior to the event, and must be accompanied by a fee in an amount set by the Liquor License Administrator from time to time, and must contain at least the following information:

1. The exact days and times during which the event will occur (provided, that in no event shall any license be in effect for a period exceeding 72 hours, from the beginning of the first day of the event until the end of the last day);

2. The precise location within the Development Area where the event will occur, and where alcoholic beverages will be distributed;

3. The nature and purpose of the event, and the identity or categories of persons who are invited to participate;

4. The nature of any food and beverages to be distributed, and the manner in which such distribution shall occur;

5. Details of all provisions made by the applicant for sanitation, security and other measures to protect the health and welfare of participants at the event;

6. Certification that the event will be covered by a policy of public liability insurance as described in Sec. 17-3-24(C) of this Liquor Code, that includes the Pueblo as a co-insured, or that the applicant will indemnify the Pueblo and hold it harmless from any claims, demands, liability or expense as a result of the act or omission of any person in connection with the special event, in which latter case the Liquor License Administrator or Governor may require a bond to assure compliance with such indemnification provision.

7. Any other information required by the Liquor License Administrator relative to the event.

B. The Liquor License Administrator, or the Governor, shall act to approve or reject the application no later than three days following submission of the application with the required fee. If the application is approved, the Liquor License Administrator or the Governor shall issue the license, which shall specify the hours during which and the premises within which sales, distribution and consumption of alcoholic beverages may occur. If any application is rejected, the rejection shall indicate the grounds therefor, and the applicant shall be entitled to file a new application correcting any deficiencies or problems found in the original application that warranted the rejection.

C. Alcoholic beverages may be sold or distributed pursuant to a special event license only at the location and during the hours specified in such license, in connection with the special event, only to participants in such special event, and only for consumption on the premises described in the license. Such sales or distribution must comply with any conditions imposed by the license, and with all other applicable provisions of this Liquor Code. All such alcoholic beverages must have been obtained from a New Mexico licensed wholesaler or retailer.

Every person licensed by the Pueblo to sell alcoholic beverages within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation shall prominently display the license on the licensed premises during hours of operation.

Within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation, no person shall purchase any alcoholic beverage at retail except from a person licensed by the Pueblo under the provisions of this title; no person except a person licensed by the Pueblo under the provisions of this title shall sell any alcoholic beverage at retail; nor shall any person sell any alcoholic beverage for resale to any person other than a person properly licensed by the Pueblo under the provisions of this title.

A. No person shall sell or serve any alcoholic beverage to any person under the age of 21 years.

B. It shall be a defense to an alleged violation of this Section that the purchaser presented to the seller or server an apparently valid identification document showing the purchaser's age to be 21 years or older, provided that the seller or server, as the case may be, had no actual or constructive knowledge of the falsity of the identification document, and relied in good faith on its apparent validity.

No person under the age of 21 years shall purchase, attempt to purchase or possess any alcoholic beverage.

No person shall sell any alcoholic beverage to a person who the seller has reason to believe is intoxicated or who the seller has reason to believe intends to provide such alcoholic beverage to an intoxicated person.

No intoxicated person shall purchase any alcoholic beverage.

No person shall consume any alcoholic beverage in any public place within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation except on premises licensed by the Pueblo for the sale of alcoholic beverages by the drink.

No person shall bring any alcoholic beverage for personal consumption onto any premises within the Santa Ana Indian Reservation where liquor is authorized to be sold by the drink, unless such beverage was purchased on such premises, or unless the possession or distribution of such beverages on such premises is otherwise permitted under the provisions of this Liquor Code.

No person shall have an open container of any alcoholic beverage in a public place, other than on premises licensed for the sale of alcoholic beverages by the drink, or in any automobile, whether moving or standing still. This Section shall not apply to empty containers such as aluminum cans or glass bottles collected for recycling.

No person shall purchase or attempt to purchase any alcoholic beverage by the use of any false or altered identification document that falsely purports to show the individual to be 21 years of age or older.

A. Any person convicted of committing any violation of this Article shall be subject to punishment of up to one (1) year imprisonment or a fine not to exceed Five Thousand Dollars ($5,000.00), or to both such imprisonment and fine.

B. Any person not a member of the Pueblo, upon committing any violation of any provision of this Article, may be subject to a civil action for trespass, and upon having been determined by the court to have committed the alleged violation, shall be found to have trespassed upon the lands of the Pueblo, and shall be assessed such damages as the court deems appropriate in the circumstances.

C. Any person suspected of having violated any provision of this Article shall, in addition to any other penalty imposed hereunder, be required to surrender any alcoholic beverages in such person's possession to the officer making the arrest or issuing the complaint.

Any and all actions, whether civil or criminal, arising from or pertaining to alleged violations of this title or any duty imposed hereby, or seeking any relief against the Pueblo or any officer or employee of the Pueblo with respect to any matter addressed by this Liquor Code, shall be brought in the Tribal Court of the Pueblo, which court shall have exclusive jurisdiction thereof. No waiver of this provision shall be implied by any court, and no such waiver shall be valid unless expressly set forth in a written resolution of the Tribal Council.

In accordance with the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. ) and 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1), we invite the public and other Federal agencies to comment on new, proposed, revised and continuing collections of information. This helps the BLM assess impacts of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand BLM information collection requirements and ensure requested data are provided in the desired format.

A Federal Register notice with a 60-day public comment period soliciting comments on this collection of information was published on November 7, 2023 (88 FR 76846).

As part of our continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burdens, we are again inviting the public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed ICR described below. The BLM is especially interested in public comment addressing the following:

(1) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility.

(2) The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.

(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and

(4) How might the agency minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, e.g., permitting electronic submission of response.

Comments submitted in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.

Abstract: This collection of information enables the BLM to process assignments of record title interest and transfers of operating rights in a lease for oil and gas or geothermal resources. Each assignment or transfer is a contract between private parties but, by law, must be approved by the Secretary. The BLM uses information about assignments and transfers to prevent unlawful extraction of mineral resources, to ensure prompt payment of rentals and royalties for the rights obtained under a Federal lease, and to ensure that leases are not encumbered with agreements that cause the minerals to be uneconomical to produce, resulting in lost revenues to the Federal Government. The information also enables the BLM to ensure the assignee or transferee is in compliance with the bonding requirements, when necessary, before approval of the transfer or assignment. The BLM does not expect any changes to the burden hours for submissions; however, the BLM did update the information to be collected. The BLM added the legacy lease serial number field to capture the legacy serial number now that all leases have a new serial number based upon all records migrating into the Mineral & Land Records System. The BLM will also require the forms to include a company's principals, as defined under 2 CFR 180.995. The BLM requires the principal information to ensure the entity acquiring interest in the lease is not Federally suspended or debarred and is qualified to hold a lease. The BLM does not expect these additional fields to increase the burden as this information is readily available. Additionally, The BLM is adjusting the cost burden to reflect inflation adjustments. This adjustment will increase the total annual cost burden by $132,270 (from $881,800 to $1,014,070). OMB control number 1004-0034 is currently scheduled to expire on September 30, 2024. The BLM plans to request that OMB renew this OMB control number for an additional thee (3) years.

Title of Collection: Oil and Gas, or Geothermal Resources: Transfers and Assignments (43 CFR Subparts 3106, 3135, and 3216).

OMB Control Number: 1004-0034.

Form Number: 3000-003; 3000-003a.

Type of Review: Extension with revision of a currently approved collection.

Respondents/Affected Public: Assignors and assignees of record title interest in a lease for oil and gas or geothermal resources; and transferors and transferees of operating rights (sublease) in a lease for oil and gas or geothermal resources.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Respondents: 8,818.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses: 8,818.

Estimated Completion Time per Response: 30 minutes.

Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours: 4,410.

Respondent's Obligation: Required to obtain or retain a benefit.

Frequency of Collection: On occasion.

Total Estimated Annual Nonhour Burden Cost: $1,014,070.

An agency may not conduct or sponsor and, notwithstanding any other provision of law, a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.

The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq. ).

The properties listed in this notice are being considered for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places. Nominations for their consideration were received by the National Park Service before May 4, 2024. Pursuant to section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60, comments are being accepted concerning the significance of the nominated properties under the National Register criteria for evaluation.

Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.

Nominations submitted by State or Tribal Historic Preservation Officers

Key: State, County, Property Name, Multiple Name(if applicable), Address/Boundary, City, Vicinity, Reference Number.

An additional documentation has been received for the following resource(s):

Nomination(s) submitted by Federal Preservation Officers:

The State Historic Preservation Officer reviewed the following nomination(s) and responded to the Federal Preservation Officer within 45 days of receipt of the nomination(s) and supports listing the properties in the National Register of Historic Places.

Authority: Section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60.

The meeting of the Council is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972. The Council was established by the Colorado River Basin Salinity Control Act of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-320) (Act) to receive reports and advise Federal agencies on implementing the Act.

Purpose of the Meeting: The purpose of the meeting is to discuss the accomplishments of Federal agencies and make recommendations on future activities to control salinity in the Colorado River Basin.

Agenda: Council members will be briefed on the status of salinity control activities. Discussions about salinity control research studies will occur. The Bureau of Reclamation, Bureau of Land Management, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, and United States Geological Survey of the Department of the Interior; the Natural Resources Conservation Service of the Department of Agriculture; and the Environmental Protection Agency will each present a progress report and a schedule of activities on salinity control in the Colorado River Basin. The Council will discuss salinity control activities, the contents of the reports, and the Basin States Program created by Public Law 110-246, which amended the Act. A final agenda will be posted online at https://www.usbr.gov/uc/progact/salinity/ at least one week prior to the meeting.

Meeting Accessibility/Special Accommodations: The meeting is open to the public. Please make requests in advance for sign language interpreter services, assistive listening devices, or other reasonable accommodations. We ask that you contact Clarence Fullard (see FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT section of this notice) at least seven (7) business days prior to the meeting to give the Department of the Interior sufficient time to process your request. All reasonable accommodation requests are managed on a case-by-case basis.

Individuals wanting virtual access to the meeting or those requiring special accommodations should contact Clarence Fullard (see FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT ) no later than May 23, 2024, to receive instructions.

Public Comments: The Council chairman will provide time for oral comments from members of the public at the meeting. Individuals wanting to make an oral comment should contact Clarence Fullard (see FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT ) to be placed on the public comment list. Members of the public may also file written statements with the Council before, during, or up to 30 days after the meeting either in person or by mail. To allow full consideration of information by Council members at this meeting, written comments must be provided to Clarence Fullard (see FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT ) by May 23, 2024.

Public Disclosure of Personal Information: Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.

Authority: 5 U.S.C. ch. 10.

Scope. —For purposes of these investigations, Commerce has defined the subject merchandise as “. . . aluminum lithographic printing plates. Aluminum lithographic printing plates consist of a flat substrate containing at least 90 percent aluminum. The aluminum-containing substrate is generally treated using a mechanical, electrochemical, or chemical graining process, which is followed by one or more anodizing treatments that form a hydrophilic layer on the aluminum-containing substrate. An image-recording, oleophilic layer that is sensitive to light, including but not limited to ultra-violet, visible, or infrared, is dispersed in a polymeric binder material that is applied on top of the hydrophilic layer, generally on one side of the aluminum lithographic printing plate. The oleophilic light-sensitive layer is capable of capturing an image that is transferred onto the plate by either light or heat. The image applied to an aluminum lithographic printing plate facilitates the production of newspapers, magazines, books, yearbooks, coupons, packaging, and other printed materials through an offset printing process, where an aluminum lithographic printing plate facilitates the transfer of an image onto the printed media. Aluminum lithographic printing plates within the scope of these investigations include all aluminum lithographic printing plates, irrespective of the dimensions or thickness of the underlying aluminum substrate, whether the plate requires processing after an image is applied to the plate, whether the plate is ready to be mounted to a press and used in printing operations immediately after an image is applied to the plate, or whether the plate has been exposed to light or heat to create an image on the plate or remains unexposed and is free of any image.

Subject merchandise also includes aluminum lithographic printing plates produced from an aluminum sheet coil that has been coated with a light-sensitive image recording layer in a subject country and that is subsequently unwound and cut to the final dimensions to produce a finished plate in a third country (including the United States), or exposed to light or heat to create an image on the plate in a third country (including in a foreign trade zone within the United States).

Excluded from the scope of these investigations are lithographic printing plates manufactured using a substrate produced from a material other than aluminum, such as rubber or plastic. Aluminum lithographic printing plates are currently classifiable under Harmonized Tariff of the United States (HTSUS) subheadings 3701.30.0000 and 3701.99.6060.

Further, merchandise that falls within the scope of these investigations may also be entered into the United States under HTSUS subheadings 3701.99.3000 and 8442.50.1000. Although the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of these investigations is dispositive.”

Background. —The final phase of these investigations is being scheduled pursuant to sections 705(b) and 731(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1671d(b) and 1673d(b)), as a result of affirmative preliminary determinations by Commerce that certain benefits which constitute subsidies within the meaning of § 703 of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1671b) are being provided to manufacturers, producers, or exporters in China of aluminum lithographic printing plates, and that imports of such products from China and Japan are being sold in the United States at less than fair value within the meaning of § 733 of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1673b). The investigations were requested in petitions filed on September 28, 2023, by Eastman Kodak Company, Rochester, New York.

For further information concerning the conduct of this phase of the investigations, hearing procedures, and rules of general application, consult the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, part 201, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 201), and part 207, subparts A and C (19 CFR part 207).

Participation in the investigations and public service list. —Persons, including industrial users of the subject merchandise and, if the merchandise is sold at the retail level, representative consumer organizations, wishing to participate in the final phase of these investigations as parties must file an entry of appearance with the Secretary to the Commission, as provided in § 201.11 of the Commission's rules, no later than 21 days prior to the hearing date specified in this notice. A party that filed a notice of appearance during the preliminary phase of the investigations need not file an additional notice of appearance during this final phase. The Secretary will maintain a public service list containing the names and addresses of all persons, or their representatives, who are parties to the investigations.

Please note the Secretary's Office will accept only electronic filings during this time. Filings must be made through the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS, https://edis.usitc.gov ). No in-person paper-based filings or paper copies of any electronic filings will be accepted until further notice.

Limited disclosure of business proprietary information (BPI) under an administrative protective order (APO) and BPI service list. —Pursuant to § 207.7(a) of the Commission's rules, the Secretary will make BPI gathered in the final phase of these investigations available to authorized applicants under the APO issued in the investigations, provided that the application is made no later than 21 days prior to the hearing date specified in this notice. Authorized applicants must represent interested parties, as defined by 19 U.S.C. 1677(9), who are parties to the investigations. A party granted access to BPI in the preliminary phase of the investigations need not reapply for such access. A separate service list will be maintained by the Secretary for those parties authorized to receive BPI under the APO.

Staff report. —The prehearing staff report in the final phase of these investigations will be placed in the nonpublic record on August 28, 2024, and a public version will be issued thereafter, pursuant to § 207.22 of the Commission's rules.

Hearing. —The Commission will hold a hearing in connection with the final phase of these investigations beginning at 9:30 a.m. on Thursday, September 12, 2024. Requests to appear at the hearing should be filed in writing with the Secretary to the Commission on or before Friday, September 6, 2024. Any requests to appear as a witness via videoconference must be included with your request to appear. Requests to appear via videoconference must include a statement explaining why the witness cannot appear in person; the Chairman, or other person designated to conduct the investigations, may in their discretion for good cause shown, grant such a request. Requests to appear as remote witness due to illness or a positive COVID-19 test result may be submitted by 3pm the business day prior to the hearing. Further information about participation in the hearing will be posted on the Commission's website at https://www.usitc.gov/calendarpad/calendar.html.

A nonparty who has testimony that may aid the Commission's deliberations may request permission to present a short statement at the hearing. All parties and nonparties desiring to appear at the hearing and make oral presentations should attend a prehearing conference, if deemed necessary, to be held at 9:30 a.m. on Tuesday, September 10, 2024. Parties shall file and serve written testimony and presentation slides in connection with their presentation at the hearing by no later than 4:00 p.m. on September 11, 2024 (one business day prior to hearing). Oral testimony and written materials to be submitted at the public hearing are governed by sections 201.6(b)(2), 201.13(f), and 207.24 of the Commission's rules. Parties must submit any request to present a portion of their hearing testimony in camera no later than 7 business days prior to the date of the hearing.

Written submissions. —Each party who is an interested party shall submit a prehearing brief to the Commission. Prehearing briefs must conform with the provisions of § 207.23 of the Commission's rules; the deadline for filing is September 5, 2024. Parties shall also file written testimony in connection with their presentation at the hearing, and posthearing briefs, which must conform with the provisions of § 207.25 of the Commission's rules. The deadline for filing posthearing briefs is September 19, 2024. In addition, any person who has not entered an appearance as a party to the investigations may submit a written statement of information pertinent to the subject of the investigations, including statements of support or opposition to the petitions, on or before September 19, 2024. On October 4, 2024, the Commission will make available to parties all information on which they have not had an opportunity to comment. Parties may submit final comments on this information on or before October 8, 2024, but such final comments must not contain new factual information and must otherwise comply with § 207.30 of the Commission's rules. All written submissions must conform with the provisions of § 201.8 of the Commission's rules; any submissions that contain BPI must also conform with the requirements of §§ 201.6, 207.3, and 207.7 of the Commission's rules. The Commission's Handbook on Filing Procedures, available on the Commission's website at https://www.usitc.gov/documents/handbook_on_filing_procedures.pdf, elaborates upon the Commission's procedures with respect to filings.

Additional written submissions to the Commission, including requests pursuant to § 201.12 of the Commission's rules, shall not be accepted unless good cause is shown for accepting such submissions, or unless the submission is pursuant to a specific request by a Commissioner or Commission staff.

In accordance with §§ 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the Commission's rules, each document filed by a party to the investigations must be served on all other parties to the investigations (as identified by either the public or BPI service list), and a certificate of service must be timely filed. The Secretary will not accept a document for filing without a certificate of service.

Authority: These investigations are being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to § 207.21 of the Commission's rules.

This proposed information collection requires underground coal mine operators to equip continuous mining machines, except full-face continuous mining machines, with proximity detection systems (80 FR 2188). Miners working near continuous mining machines face pinning, crushing, and striking hazards that result in accidents involving life-threatening injuries and death. Proximity detection is a technology that uses electronic sensors to detect the motion or the location of one object relative to another. Proximity detection systems provide a warning and stop mining machines before a pinning, crushing, or striking accident occurs that could result in injury or death to a miner. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the Federal Register on January 22, 2024 (89 FR 3951).

Comments are invited on: (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimates of the burden and cost of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless the OMB approves it and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid OMB Control Number. See 5 CFR 1320.5(a) and 1320.6.

Agency: DOL-MSHA.

Title of Collection: Proximity Detection Systems for Continuous Mining Machines in Underground Coal Mines.

OMB Control Number: 1219-0148.

Affected Public: Businesses or other for-profits.

Number of Respondents: 168.

Frequency: Annually.

Number of Responses: 245,337.

Annual Burden Hours: 697 hours.

Total Estimated Annual Other Costs Burden: $0.

Title 29 CFR 29 sets forth labor standards to safeguard the welfare of apprentices and to extend the application of such standards by prescribing policies and procedures concerning registration of apprenticeship. This information collection, ETA 671, has two sections: the first records the sponsor's information and the second is for the apprentice's information, filled out by the sponsor based on employment records. The submission is reviewed and signed by the state agency/Office of Apprenticeship. The information is collected on a one-time basis. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the Federal Register on December 8, 2023 (88 FR 85654).

Comments are invited on: (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimates of the burden and cost of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.

This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless the OMB approves it and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid OMB Control Number. See 5 CFR 1320.5(a) and 1320.6.

DOL seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOL notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.

Agency: DOL-ETA.

Title of Collection: Registration and Equal Employment Opportunity in Apprenticeship Programs.

OMB Control Number: 1205-0223.

Affected Public: Individuals/households, state/local/tribal governments, Federal government, private sector (businesses or other for-profits, and, not-for-profit institutions).

Total Estimated Number of Respondents: 704,577.

Total Estimated Number of Responses: 1,066,917.

Total Estimated Annual Time Burden: 522,653 hours.

Total Estimated Annual Other Costs Burden: $0.

I. Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments A. Obtaining Information

Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2024-0087, facility name, unit number(s), docket number(s), application date, and subject when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly available information related to this action by any of the following methods:

• Federal Rulemaking Website: Go to https://www.regulations.gov and search for Docket ID NRC-2024-0087.

• NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS): You may obtain publicly available documents online in the ADAMS Public Documents collection at https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html . To begin the search, select “Begin Web-based ADAMS Search.” For problems with ADAMS, please contact the NRC's Public Document Room (PDR) reference staff at 1-800-397-4209, at 301-415-4737, or by email to PDR.Resource@nrc.gov . The ADAMS accession number for each document referenced (if it is available in ADAMS) is provided the first time that it is mentioned in this document.

• NRC's PDR: The PDR, where you may examine and order copies of publicly available documents, is open by appointment. To make an appointment to visit the PDR, please send an email to PDR.Resource@nrc.gov or call 1-800-397-4209 or 301-415-4737, between 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. eastern time (ET), Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.

The NRC encourages electronic comment submission through the Federal rulemaking website ( https://www.regulations.gov ). Please include Docket ID NRC-2024-0087, facility name, unit number(s), docket number(s), application date, and subject, in your comment submission.

The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC will post all comment submissions at https://www.regulations.gov as well as enter the comment submissions into ADAMS. The NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove identifying or contact information.

If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment into ADAMS.

For the facility-specific amendment requests shown in this notice, the Commission finds that the licensees' analyses provided, consistent with section 50.91 of title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations (10 CFR) “Notice for public comment; State consultation,” are sufficient to support the proposed determinations that these amendment requests involve NSHC. Under the Commission's regulations in 10 CFR 50.92, operation of the facilities in accordance with the proposed amendments would not (1) involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated; or (2) create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated; or (3) involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.

The Commission is seeking public comments on these proposed determinations. Any comments received within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice will be considered in making any final determinations.

Normally, the Commission will not issue the amendments until the expiration of 60 days after the date of publication of this notice. The Commission may issue any of these license amendments before expiration of the 60-day period provided that its final determination is that the amendment involves NSHC. In addition, the Commission may issue any of these amendments prior to the expiration of the 30-day comment period if circumstances change during the 30-day comment period such that failure to act in a timely way would result, for example in derating or shutdown of the facility. If the Commission takes action on any of these amendments prior to the expiration of either the comment period or the notice period, it will publish in the Federal Register a notice of issuance. If the Commission makes a final NSHC determination for any of these amendments, any hearing will take place after issuance. The Commission expects that the need to take action on any amendment before 60 days have elapsed will occur very infrequently.

Within 60 days after the date of publication of this notice, any person (petitioner) whose interest may be affected by any of these actions may file a request for a hearing and petition for leave to intervene (petition) with respect to that action. Petitions shall be filed in accordance with the Commission's “Agency Rules of Practice and Procedure” in 10 CFR part 2. Interested persons should consult a current copy of 10 CFR 2.309. If a petition is filed, the Commission or a presiding officer will rule on the petition and, if appropriate, a notice of a hearing will be issued.

Petitions must be filed no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document. Petitions and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions that are filed after the deadline will not be entertained absent a determination by the presiding officer that the filing demonstrates good cause by satisfying the three factors in 10 CFR 2.309(c)(1)(i) through (iii).

If a hearing is requested, and the Commission has not made a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration, the Commission will make a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration, which will serve to establish when the hearing is held. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration, the Commission may issue the amendment and make it immediately effective, notwithstanding the request for a hearing. Any hearing would take place after issuance of the amendment. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves a significant hazards consideration, then any hearing held would take place before the issuance of the amendment unless the Commission finds an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public, in which case it will issue an appropriate order or rule under 10 CFR part 2.

A State, local governmental body, Federally recognized Indian Tribe, or designated agency thereof, may submit a petition to the Commission to participate as a party under 10 CFR 2.309(h) no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. Alternatively, a State, local governmental body, Federally recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof may participate as a non-party under 10 CFR 2.315(c).