<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?>
<FEDREG xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:noNamespaceSchemaLocation="FRMergedXML.xsd">
    <VOL>89</VOL>
    <NO>32</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, February 15, 2024</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Contents</UNITNAME>
    <CNTNTS>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>
                Agency Health
                <PRTPAGE P="iii"/>
            </EAR>
            <HD>Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Advisory Council for Healthcare Research and Quality, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11834-11835</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03155</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Agriculture</EAR>
            <HD>Agriculture Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Food Safety and Inspection Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Rural Business-Cooperative Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11809-11810</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03173</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03178</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Census Bureau</EAR>
            <HD>Census Bureau</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>High-Frequency Surveys Program/Household Pulse Survey, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11812-11813</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03188</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Centers Medicare</EAR>
            <HD>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Medicare Program:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Strengthening Oversight of Accrediting Organizations and Preventing Accrediting Organization Conflict of Interest, and Related Provisions, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11996-12064</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-02137</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Children</EAR>
            <HD>Children and Families Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Administration for Native Americans' Program Policies and Procedures, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11798-11800</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03160</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Community-Based Child Abuse Prevention Program, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11835-11836</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03107</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Civil Rights</EAR>
            <HD>Civil Rights Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11812</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03268</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Commerce</EAR>
            <HD>Commerce Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Census Bureau</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>International Trade Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Institute of Standards and Technology</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Patent and Trademark Office</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Community Development</EAR>
            <HD>Community Development Financial Institutions Fund</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Funds Availability, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11924-11941</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03152</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Copyright Office</EAR>
            <HD>Copyright Office, Library of Congress</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Group Registration of Two-Dimensional Artwork, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11789-11798</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03063</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Defense Acquisition</EAR>
            <HD>Defense Acquisition Regulations System</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Buy American Act Requirements, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11950-11993</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-01220</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Technical Amendments, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11747-11748</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-01221</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-02748</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Transfer and Adoption of Military Animals, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11745-11747</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-02743</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Assuring Integrity of Overseas Fuel Supplies, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11800-11803</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-02742</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Use of Department of Defense Program Nomenclature, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11803-11808</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-02744</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Defense Department</EAR>
            <HD>Defense Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Defense Acquisition Regulations System</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Engineers Corps</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Education Department</EAR>
            <HD>Education Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Assessment Governing Board</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Student Assistance General Provision Subpart I Immigration Status Confirmation, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11824</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03193</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Work Colleges Application and Agreement, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11825</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03159</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Work Colleges Expenditure Report, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11824-11825</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03158</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Employment and Training</EAR>
            <HD>Employment and Training Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Labor Certification for Permanent Employment of Foreign Workers in the United States:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Modernizing Schedule A to Include Consideration of Additional Occupations in Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics and Non-Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics Occupations, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11788-11789</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03187</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Energy Department</EAR>
            <HD>Energy Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Engineers</EAR>
            <HD>Engineers Corps</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Specific Procedures to Implement the Principles, Requirements, and Guidelines for Federal Investments in Water Resources, </DOC>
                    <PGS>12066-12105</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-02448</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Environmental Protection</EAR>
            <HD>Environmental Protection Agency</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Clean Air Act Operating Permit Program:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Petition for Objection to State Operating Permit for Commonwealth LNG, LLC, Cameron Parish, LA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11831</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03199</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Draft Approach for Implementation of the Environmental Protection Agency Label Program for Low Embodied Carbon Construction Materials; Webinar, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11829-11831</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03083</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Proposed Update of PM2.5 Data from T640/T640X PM Mass Monitors, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11831-11832</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-02935</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Aviation</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Aviation Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Airworthiness Directives:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Airbus Helicopters, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11718-11720</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03137</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Airbus SAS Airplanes, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11720-11722</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03080</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Bombardier, Inc., Airplanes, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11722-11726</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03047</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="iv"/>
                    <SJDOC>De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited (Type Certificate Previously Held by Bombardier, Inc.) Airplanes, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11713-11715</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03081</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>The Boeing Company Airplanes, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11715-11718</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03082</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11726-11729</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03134</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03135</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Commercial Air Tour Limitations in the Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11917-11918</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03194</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Petition for Exemption; Summary:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Bell Textron Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11917</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03198</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Communications</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Communications Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>2018 Quadrennial Regulatory Review:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Review of the Commission's Broadcast Ownership Rules, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>12196-12229</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-02577</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Partitioning, Disaggregation, and Leasing of Spectrum, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11743-11745</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-02864</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Partitioning, Disaggregation, and Leasing of Spectrum; Correction, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11742-11743</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-02863</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11832-11833</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03161</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc., </DOC>
                    <PGS>11833-11834</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03048</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Emergency</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Emergency Management Agency</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Flood Hazard Determinations, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11854-11860</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03179</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03180</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03181</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Energy</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Combined Filings, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11826-11827</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03172</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Institution of Section 206 Proceeding and Refund Effective Date:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>PJM Interconnection LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11828-11829</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03170</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Request under Blanket Authorization:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Gas Transmission Northwest LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11827-11828</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03171</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Waiver Period for Water Quality Certification Application:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>ALLETE, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11825-11826, 11829</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03168</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03169</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Highway</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Highway Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11918</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03147</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Labor</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Labor Relations Authority</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Changes in Filing Addresses and Procedures, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11701-11703</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-02912</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Maritime</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Maritime Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Complaint:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Visual Comfort and Co., Complainant  v.  Cosco Shipping Lines Co., Ltd., Respondent, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11834</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03139</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Motor</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Exemption Application:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Hours of Service of Drivers; Motion Picture Association, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11919-11920</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03192</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Financial Crimes</EAR>
            <HD>Financial Crimes Enforcement Network</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Anti-Money Laundering/Countering the Financing of Terrorism Program and Suspicious Activity Report Filing Requirements for Registered Investment Advisers and Exempt Reporting Advisers, </DOC>
                    <PGS>12108-12193</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-02854</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Fish</EAR>
            <HD>Fish and Wildlife Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Endangered and Threatened Species:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Threatened Species Status for the Silverspot Butterfly, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11750-11772</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03042</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Food and Drug</EAR>
            <HD>Food and Drug Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Guidance:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Charging for Investigational Drugs under an Investigational New Drug Application, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11836-11837</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03186</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Statement of Organization, Functions, and Delegations of Authority, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11837-11838</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-02603</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Food Safety</EAR>
            <HD>Food Safety and Inspection Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Charter Amendments, Establishments, Renewals and Terminations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Advisory Committee on Microbiological Criteria for Foods, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11810-11811</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03185</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>General Services</EAR>
            <HD>General Services Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Acquisition Regulation:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Removing Small Disadvantaged Business Program Requirements to Align with the Federal Acquisition Regulation, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11748-11749</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-02917</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Health and Human</EAR>
            <HD>Health and Human Services Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Children and Families Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Food and Drug Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Health Resources and Services Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Institutes of Health</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Health Resources</EAR>
            <HD>Health Resources and Services Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>DATA 2000 Waiver Training Payment Program Application for Payment, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11838-11840</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03092</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Historic</EAR>
            <HD>Historic Preservation, Advisory Council</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Adoption of Policy Statement on Housing and Historic Preservation, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11847-11854</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03164</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Homeland</EAR>
            <HD>Homeland Security Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Emergency Management Agency</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11860-11861</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03146</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Service Request Form for Enterprise Assessment Services, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11861-11862</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03151</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Interior</EAR>
            <HD>Interior Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Fish and Wildlife Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <PRTPAGE P="v"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Land Management Bureau</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Park Service</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Internal Revenue</EAR>
            <HD>Internal Revenue Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Superfund Tax on Chemical Substances:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Request to Modify List of Taxable Substances; Filing of Petition for Polyphenylene Sulfide; Correction, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11941-11942</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03141</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>International Trade Adm</EAR>
            <HD>International Trade Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Article 10.12 of the United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement; Correction, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11729</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-02899</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Antidumping or Countervailing Duty Investigations, Orders, or Reviews:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Polyethylene Retail Carrier Bags from Malaysia, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11813-11814</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03142</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Sales at Less Than Fair Value; Determinations, Investigations, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Aluminum Extrusions from the People's Republic of China, Colombia, et al., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11814-11815</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03145</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>International Trade Com</EAR>
            <HD>International Trade Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Complaint, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11867-11868</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03175</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Justice Department</EAR>
            <HD>Justice Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Application/Permit for Temporary Importation of Firearms and Ammunition by Nonimmigrant Aliens, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11869-11870</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03114</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Police Check Inquiry, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11871-11872</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03103</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Release and Receipt of Imported Firearms, Ammunition, and Defense Articles, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11868-11869</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03112</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>The Arson and Explosives Training Registration for Non-ATF Employees, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11870-11871</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03150</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Labor Department</EAR>
            <HD>Labor Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Employment and Training Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Land</EAR>
            <HD>Land Management Bureau</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Application:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Chief Joseph Dam Additional Units Project, Washington; Withdrawal, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11862</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03123</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Central California Resource Advisory Council, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11862-11863</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03125</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Library</EAR>
            <HD>Library of Congress</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Copyright Office, Library of Congress</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Management</EAR>
            <HD>Management and Budget Office</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Update of Statistical Policy Directive No. 3: Compilation, Release, and Evaluation of Principal Federal Economic Indicators:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Changing Timing of Public Comments by Employees of the Executive Branch, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11873-11878</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-02972</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>NASA</EAR>
            <HD>National Aeronautics and Space Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Astrophysics Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11878</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03163</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Planetary Science Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11878-11879</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03167</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Assesment</EAR>
            <HD>National Assessment Governing Board</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings etc.</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Committee and Quarterly Board, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11821-11824</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03096</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Highway</EAR>
            <HD>National Highway Traffic Safety Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Petition for Exemption from the Federal Motor Vehicle Theft Prevention Standard:`</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Mazda Motor Corp., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11920-11923</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03105</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Institute</EAR>
            <HD>National Institute of Standards and Technology</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Manufacturing Extension Partnership Advisory Board, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11815-11816</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03126</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Institute</EAR>
            <HD>National Institutes of Health</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Charter Amendments, Establishments, Renewals and Terminations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Cures Acceleration Network Review Board, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11845-11846</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03110</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Center for Advancing Translational Sciences Advisory Council, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11846</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03104</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Center for Scientific Review, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11840-11842</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03111</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03197</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11840-11841, 11844-11845</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03195</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03196</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Institute of Mental Health, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11841</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03113</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11842</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03102</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03108</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Office of the Secretary, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11844</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03106</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Licenses; Exemptions, Applications, Amendments, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Government-Owned Inventions, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11845-11846</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03120</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03121</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Request for Information:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Development of the FY 2026-2030 Strategic Plan for HIV and HIV-Related Research, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11843-11844</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03122</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Oceanic</EAR>
            <HD>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Analysis for Probabilistic and Risk Reduction Decision Support Fire Weather Services, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11816-11817</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03190</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Fisheries of the Gulf of Mexico; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11816</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03201</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>New England Fishery Management Council, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11818-11819</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03200</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>North Pacific Fishery Management Council, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11819</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03202</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Space Weather Advisory Group Meeting, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11817-11818</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03116</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Park</EAR>
            <HD>National Park Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Civil Monetary Penalty Inflation Adjustment, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11740-11742</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-02964</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Tule Springs Fossil Beds National Monument Advisory Council, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11865</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03124</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Inventory Completion:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Kansas State University, Manhattan, KS, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11865-11866</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03089</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology, Andover, MA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11863-11864</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03090</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>National Register of Historic Places:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Pending Nominations and Related Actions, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11866-11867</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03131</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Repatriation of Cultural Items:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology, Andover, MA, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11864-11865</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03091</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>
                Nuclear Regulatory
                <PRTPAGE P="vi"/>
            </EAR>
            <HD>Nuclear Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Disposal of High-Level Radioactive Wastes in a Geologic Repository at Yucca Mountain, Nevada, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11879-11880</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03154</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Nondiscrimination in Federally Assisted Programs or Activities Receiving Federal Financial Assistance from the Commission, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11880-11881</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03133</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Occupational Safety Health Adm</EAR>
            <HD>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Mechanical Power Press Standard, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11872-11873</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03128</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Patent</EAR>
            <HD>Patent and Trademark Office</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Patent Petitions Related to Application and Reexamination Processing Fees, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11819-11821</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03189</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Pipeline</EAR>
            <HD>Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11923-11924</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03140</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Postal Regulatory</EAR>
            <HD>Postal Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Product Lists, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11730-11740</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03060</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Postal Service</EAR>
            <HD>Postal Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Product Change:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Priority Mail and USPS Ground Advantage Negotiated Service Agreement, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11881-11882</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03085</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03086</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03088</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03094</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, and USPS Ground Advantage Negotiated Service Agreement, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11881</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03095</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Priority Mail, USPS Ground Advantage and Parcel Select Negotiated Service Agreement, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11882</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03087</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Rural Business</EAR>
            <HD>Rural Business-Cooperative Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Rural Microentrepreneur Assistance Program, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11811-11812</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03166</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Securities</EAR>
            <HD>Securities and Exchange Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Proposed Rule Changes:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Cboe BYX Exchange, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11891-11893</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03098</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11888-11891</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03097</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Cboe EDGX Exchange, Inc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11882-11886</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03099</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>New York Stock Exchange LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11893-11896</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03100</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11886-11887</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03101</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Small Business</EAR>
            <HD>Small Business Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Small Business Size Standards:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Adjustment of Alternative Size Standard for 7(a) and CDC/504 Loan Programs for Inflation; and Surety Bond Limits: Adjustments for Inflation, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11703-11713</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-02776</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Social</EAR>
            <HD>Social Security Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Use of Electronic Payroll Data to Improve Program Administration, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11773-11788</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-02961</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>State Department</EAR>
            <HD>State Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Individual, Corporate or Foundation, and Government Donor Letter Applications, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11896-11897</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03184</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Gifts to Federal Employees from Foreign Government Sources Reported to Employing Agencies in Calendar Year 2022, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11897-11916</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03129</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Substance</EAR>
            <HD>Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Interdepartmental Serious Mental Illness Coordinating Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11846-11847</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03165</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Surface Transportation</EAR>
            <HD>Surface Transportation Board</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Exemption:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Trackage Rights; Union Pacific Railroad Co., Omaha Public Power District, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11916-11917</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03117</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Transportation Department</EAR>
            <HD>Transportation Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Aviation Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Highway Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Highway Traffic Safety Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Treasury</EAR>
            <HD>Treasury Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Community Development Financial Institutions Fund</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Financial Crimes Enforcement Network</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Internal Revenue Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Request for Individual Access to Records Protected under the Privacy Act and Consent for Disclosure of Records Protected under the Privacy Act, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11942-11943</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03153</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>U.S. China</EAR>
            <HD>U.S.-China Economic and Security Review Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc., </DOC>
                    <PGS>11943-11944</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03174</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Veteran Affairs</EAR>
            <HD>Veterans Affairs Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Beneficiary Travel and Special Mode Transportation within the United States, </DOC>
                    <PGS>11729-11730</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03127</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Claim for Reimbursement of Travel Expenses, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11945-11946</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03136</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Conflicting Interests Certification for Proprietary Schools, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11946-11947</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03130</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Decision Review Request: Higher-Level Review, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11944-11945</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03132</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Request and Authorization for Supplies and Direct Reimbursement (Chapter 31—Veteran Readiness and Employment), </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11946</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03138</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Statement in Support of Claimed Mental Health Disorder(s) Due to an In-Service Traumatic Event(s), </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11944</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03148</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Research Advisory Council, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>11945</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-03182</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <PTS>
            <PRTPAGE P="vii"/>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Separate Parts In This Issue</HD>
            <HD>Part II</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Defense Department, Defense Acquisition Regulations System, </DOC>
                <PGS>11950-11993</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2024-01220</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part III</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Health and Human Services Department, Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, </DOC>
                <PGS>11996-12064</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2024-02137</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part IV</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Defense Department, Engineers Corps, </DOC>
                <PGS>12066-12105</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2024-02448</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part V</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Treasury Department, Financial Crimes Enforcement Network, </DOC>
                <PGS>12108-12193</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2024-02854</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part VI</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Federal Communications Commission, </DOC>
                <PGS>12196-12229</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2024-02577</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
        </PTS>
        <AIDS>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Reader Aids</HD>
            <P>Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.</P>
            <P>To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents electronic mailing list, go to https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USGPOOFR/subscriber/new, enter your e-mail address, then follow the instructions to join, leave, or manage your subscription.</P>
        </AIDS>
    </CNTNTS>
    <VOL>89</VOL>
    <NO>32</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, February 15, 2024</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <RULES>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="11701"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">FEDERAL LABOR RELATIONS AUTHORITY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>5 CFR Parts 2417, 2429, 2471, and Appendix A to 5 CFR Chapter XIV</CFR>
                <SUBJECT>Changes in Filing Addresses and Procedures</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Labor Relations Authority, General Counsel of the Federal Labor Relations Authority, and Federal Service Impasses Panel.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Federal Labor Relations Authority (FLRA), including the Office of the General Counsel (OGC), and the Federal Service Impasses Panel (FSIP), are amending their regulations to update their addresses and telephone numbers, and to eliminate the requirement that parties file four copies of original documents that they file with: the FLRA's three-member, decisional component (the Authority); the OGC; and the FLRA's Administrative Law Judges, Regional Directors, and Hearing Officers.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule is effective on March 1, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Erica Balkum, Chief, Office of Case Intake and Publication at 
                        <E T="03">ebalkum@flra.gov</E>
                         or at: (771) 444-5805.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Due primarily to budgetary constraints, the FLRA is consolidating its office space at 1400 K Street NW, Washington, DC, so that all of the offices currently on the second floor of that address will now be located on the third floor of that address, along with the other FLRA offices that are already located on the third floor. The FLRA is updating its rules to reflect that consolidation and new telephone numbers. The FLRA is also updating telephone numbers and addresses for regional offices that changed since the last update to the regulation, and making one minor change to clarify that “Panama,” rather than “Panama/limited jurisdiction,” is excluded from the Washington Regional Office's geographic jurisdiction.</P>
                <P>In addition, as part of its continued move towards fully electronic case files, and to alleviate parties' filing burdens, the FLRA is amending 5 CFR 2429.25(a) to eliminate the requirement that parties file four copies of original documents that they file with: the Authority; the OGC; and the FLRA's Administrative Law Judges, Regional Directors, and Hearing Officers. Because 5 CFR 2429.25(b)(1) provides an exception to the four-copies requirement for documents filed by facsimile, the amendment to § 2429.25(a) renders § 2429.25(b)(1) unnecessary. Therefore, the FLRA is also amending § 2429.25(b) to remove current subsection (b)(1), and to redesignate subsections (b)(2) through (b)(4) as subsections (b)(1) through (b)(3). The FLRA also is making a minor punctuation change to § 2429.25(a).</P>
                <P>As this rule pertains to agency organization, practice, or procedure, it is exempt from prior notice and public comment under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(A). For the same reason, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the FLRA and FSIP find that good cause exists for not providing a more delayed effective date.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act Certification</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to section 605(b) of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 605(b), the Chairman of the FLRA has determined that this final rule will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities, because this final rule applies only to Federal agencies, Federal employees, and labor organizations representing those employees.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 12866, Regulatory Review</HD>
                <P>The FLRA is an independent regulatory agency and thus is not subject to the requirements of E.O. 12866 (58 FR 51735, Sept. 30, 1993).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 13132, Federalism</HD>
                <P>The FLRA is an independent regulatory agency and thus is not subject to the requirements of E.O. 13132 (64 FR 43255, Aug. 4, 1999).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995</HD>
                <P>This final rule will not result in the expenditure by state, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100,000,000 or more in any one year, and it will not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. Therefore, no actions were deemed necessary under the provisions of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996</HD>
                <P>This action is not a major rule as defined by section 804 of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996. This final rule will not result in an annual effect on the economy of $100,000,000 or more; a major increase in costs or prices; or significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or on the ability of United States-based companies to compete with foreign-based companies in domestic and export markets.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995</HD>
                <P>
                    The amended regulations contain no additional information collection or record-keeping requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3501, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 5 CFR Parts 2417, 2429, 2471 and Appendix A to Chapter XIV</HD>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Government employees, Labor management relations.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the FLRA amends 5 CFR chapter XIV as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 2417—TESTIMONY BY EMPLOYEES RELATING TO OFFICIAL INFORMATION AND PRODUCTION OF OFFICIAL RECORDS IN LEGAL PROCEEDINGS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="5" PART="2417">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 2417 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>5 U.S.C. 7105; 31 U.S.C. 9701; 44 U.S.C. 3101-3107.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="5" PART="2417">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 2417.204 by revising paragraph (a) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 2417.204 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Where to submit a request or demand.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) Requests or demands for official records, information, or testimony under this part must be served on the Office of the Solicitor at the following address: Office of the Solicitor, Federal Labor Relations Authority, 1400 K Street NW, Suite 300, Washington, DC 20424-
                            <PRTPAGE P="11702"/>
                            0001; telephone: (771) 444-5775; fax: (202) 343-1007; or email: 
                            <E T="03">solmail@flra.gov.</E>
                             The request or demand must be sent by mail, fax, or email and clearly marked “Part 2417 Request for Testimony or Official Records in Legal Proceedings.”
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 2429—MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL REQUIREMENTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="5" PART="2429">
                    <AMDPAR>3. The authority citation for part 2429 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>5 U.S.C. 7134; § 2429.18 also issued under 28 U.S.C. 2112(a).</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="5" PART="2429">
                    <AMDPAR>4. Amend § 2429.24 by revising paragraph (a) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 2429.24 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Place and method of filing; acknowledgement.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) Except for documents that are filed electronically through use of the eFiling system on the FLRA's website at 
                            <E T="03">www.flra.gov,</E>
                             anyone who files a document with the Authority (as distinguished from the General Counsel, a Regional Director, or an Administrative Law Judge) must file that document with the Chief, Case Intake and Publication, Federal Labor Relations Authority, Docket Room, Suite 300, 1400 K Street NW, Washington, DC 20424-0001 (telephone: (771) 444-5805). To file documents by personal delivery, you must schedule an appointment at least one business day in advance by calling the telephone number in the previous sentence. Personal delivery is accepted by appointment Monday through Friday (except federal holidays). If you file documents electronically through use of the FLRA's eFiling system, then you may file those documents on any calendar day—including Saturdays, Sundays, and federal legal holidays—and the Authority will consider those documents filed on a particular day if you file them no later than 11:59 p.m. Eastern Time on that day. Note, however, that although you may eFile documents on Saturdays, Sundays, and federal legal holidays, you are not required to do so. Also note that you may not file documents with the Authority by electronic mail (“email”).
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="5" PART="2429">
                    <AMDPAR>5. Amend § 2429.25 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Revising paragraph (a),</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Removing paragraph (b)(1), and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>c. Redesignating paragraphs (b)(2) through (b)(4) as paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(3).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The revision reads as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 2429.25 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Number of copies and paper size.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">General rule.</E>
                             Except as discussed in paragraph (b) of this section, and unless you use an FLRA-prescribed form, any document that you file with the Authority, General Counsel, Administrative Law Judge, Regional Director, or Hearing Officer, including any attachments, must be on 8
                            <FR>1/2</FR>
                             by 11-inch size paper, using normal margins and font sizes. You must file one original document, but you may substitute for the original document a clean copy of that document, so long as the copy is capable of being used as an original for purposes such as further reproduction.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 2471—PROCEDURES OF THE PANEL</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="5" PART="2471">
                    <AMDPAR>6. The authority citation for part 2471 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>5 U.S.C. 7119, 7134.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="5" PART="2471">
                    <AMDPAR>7. Revise § 2471.2 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 2471.2 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Request form.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            A form is available for parties to use in filing either a request for consideration of an impasse or an approval of a binding arbitration procedure. Copies are available on the FLRA's website at 
                            <E T="03">www.flra.gov,</E>
                             or from the Office of the Executive Director, Federal Service Impasses Panel, Suite 300, 1400 K Street NW, Washington, DC 20424-0001. Telephone (771) 444-5762. Use of the form is not required, provided that the request includes all of the information set forth in § 2471.3.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="5" PART="2471">
                    <AMDPAR>8. Revise § 2471.4 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 2471.4 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Where to file.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            Requests to the Panel provided for in this part must either be filed electronically through use of the eFiling system on the FLRA's website at 
                            <E T="03">www.flra.gov,</E>
                             or be addressed to the Executive Director, Federal Service Impasses Panel, Suite 300, 1400 K Street NW, Washington, DC 20424-0001. All inquiries or correspondence on the status of impasses or other related matters must be submitted by regular mail to the street address above, by using the telephone number (771) 444-5762, or by using the facsimile number (202) 482-6674.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix A to 5 CFR Chapter XIV—Current Addresses and Geographic Jurisdiction</HD>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="5" PART="2471">
                    <AMDPAR>9. The authority citation for Appendix A to 5 CFR Chapter XIV continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>5 U.S.C. 7134.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="5" PART="2471">
                    <AMDPAR>10. Revise Appendix A to 5 CFR Chapter XIV to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix A to 5 CFR Chapter XIV—Current Addresses and Geographic Jurisdictions</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <P>(a) The Office address, telephone number, and fax number of the Authority are: Suite 300, 1400 K Street NW, Washington, DC 20424-0001; telephone: (771) 444-5801; fax: (202) 482-6657.</P>
                        <P>(b) The Office address, telephone number, and fax number of the General Counsel are: 1400 K Street NW, 3rd Floor, Washington, DC 20424; telephone: (771) 444-5790; fax: (202) 482-6608.</P>
                        <P>(c) The Office address, telephone number, and fax number of the Chief Administrative Law Judge are: Suite 300, 1400 K Street NW, Washington, DC 20424; telephone: (771) 444-5715; fax: (202) 482-6629.</P>
                        <P>(d) The Office addresses, telephone and fax numbers of the Regional Offices of the Authority are as follows:</P>
                        <P>(1) Washington, DC Regional Office—1400 K Street NW, 3rd Floor, Washington, DC 20424-0001; telephone: (771) 444-5780; fax: (202) 482-6724.</P>
                        <P>(2) Atlanta Regional Office—229 Peachtree Street NE, Suite 900, Atlanta, Georgia 30303; telephone: (470) 681-7630; fax: (678) 498-2697.</P>
                        <P>(3) Chicago Regional Office—224 S Michigan Avenue, Suite 445, Chicago, Illinois 60604-2505; telephone: (872) 627-0020; fax: (312) 281-6500.</P>
                        <P>(4) Denver Regional Office—1244 Speer Boulevard, Suite 446, Denver, Colorado 80204-3581; telephone: (303) 225-0340; fax: (303) 844-2774.</P>
                        <P>(5) San Francisco Regional Office—1301 Clay Street, Suite 1180N, Oakland, California 94612-5242; telephone: (510) 982-5440; fax: (415) 872-1445.</P>
                        <P>(e) The Office address, telephone number, and fax number of the Federal Service Impasses Panel are: Suite 300, 1400 K Street NW, Washington, DC 20424; telephone: (771) 444-5762; fax: (202) 482-6674.</P>
                        <P>(f) The geographic jurisdictions of the Regional Directors of the Federal Labor Relations Authority are as follows:</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s200,r40">
                            <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">State or other locality</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Regional office</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Alabama</ENT>
                                <ENT>Atlanta.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Alaska</ENT>
                                <ENT>San Francisco.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Arizona</ENT>
                                <ENT>Denver.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Arkansas</ENT>
                                <ENT>Atlanta.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">California</ENT>
                                <ENT>San Francisco.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <PRTPAGE P="11703"/>
                                <ENT I="01">Colorado</ENT>
                                <ENT>Denver.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Connecticut</ENT>
                                <ENT>Washington, DC.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Delaware</ENT>
                                <ENT>Washington, DC.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">District of Columbia</ENT>
                                <ENT>Washington, DC.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Florida</ENT>
                                <ENT>Atlanta.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Georgia</ENT>
                                <ENT>Atlanta.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Hawaii and all land and water areas west of the continents of North and South America (except coastal islands) to long. 90 degrees East</ENT>
                                <ENT>San Francisco.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Idaho</ENT>
                                <ENT>San Francisco.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Illinois</ENT>
                                <ENT>Chicago.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Indiana</ENT>
                                <ENT>Chicago.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Iowa</ENT>
                                <ENT>Chicago.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Kansas</ENT>
                                <ENT>Denver.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Kentucky</ENT>
                                <ENT>Chicago.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Louisiana</ENT>
                                <ENT>Atlanta.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Maine</ENT>
                                <ENT>Washington, DC.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Maryland</ENT>
                                <ENT>Washington, DC.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Massachusetts</ENT>
                                <ENT>Washington, DC.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Michigan</ENT>
                                <ENT>Chicago.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Minnesota</ENT>
                                <ENT>Chicago.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Mississippi</ENT>
                                <ENT>Atlanta.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Missouri</ENT>
                                <ENT>Chicago.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Montana</ENT>
                                <ENT>Denver.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Nebraska</ENT>
                                <ENT>Denver.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Nevada</ENT>
                                <ENT>San Francisco.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">New Hampshire</ENT>
                                <ENT>Washington, DC.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">New Jersey</ENT>
                                <ENT>Washington, DC.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">New Mexico</ENT>
                                <ENT>Denver.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">New York</ENT>
                                <ENT>Washington, DC.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">North Carolina</ENT>
                                <ENT>Atlanta.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">North Dakota</ENT>
                                <ENT>Chicago.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Ohio</ENT>
                                <ENT>Chicago.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Oklahoma</ENT>
                                <ENT>Denver.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Oregon</ENT>
                                <ENT>San Francisco.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Pennsylvania</ENT>
                                <ENT>Washington, DC.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Puerto Rico and coastal islands</ENT>
                                <ENT>Chicago.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Rhode Island</ENT>
                                <ENT>Washington, DC.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">South Carolina</ENT>
                                <ENT>Atlanta.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">South Dakota</ENT>
                                <ENT>Chicago.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Tennessee</ENT>
                                <ENT>Chicago.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Texas</ENT>
                                <ENT>Denver.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Utah</ENT>
                                <ENT>Denver.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Vermont</ENT>
                                <ENT>Washington, DC.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Virginia</ENT>
                                <ENT>Washington, DC.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Washington</ENT>
                                <ENT>San Francisco.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">West Virginia</ENT>
                                <ENT>Washington, DC.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Wisconsin</ENT>
                                <ENT>Chicago.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Wyoming</ENT>
                                <ENT>Denver.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Virgin Islands</ENT>
                                <ENT>Atlanta.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Panama/limited FLRA jurisdiction</ENT>
                                <ENT>Atlanta.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">All land and water areas east of the continents of North and South America to long. 90 degrees East, except the Virgin Islands, Panama, Puerto Rico and coastal islands</ENT>
                                <ENT>Washington, DC.</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Approved: February 8, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Thomas Tso,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Solicitor and Federal Register Liaison, Federal Labor Relations Authority.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-02912 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7627-01-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">SMALL BUSINESS ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <CFR>13 CFR Parts 115 and 121</CFR>
                <RIN>RIN 3245-AG16</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Small Business Size Standards: Adjustment of Alternative Size Standard for SBA's 7(a) and CDC/504 Loan Programs for Inflation; and Surety Bond Limits: Adjustments for Inflation</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Small Business Administration.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This rule finalizes, without change, the U.S. Small Business Administration's (SBA or Agency) July 28, 2023, proposed rule to adopt the current statutory alternative size standard for its 7(a) Business and Certified Development Company (CDC/504) Loan Programs (collectively “Business Loan Programs”), subject to a 34.46 percent adjustment for inflation that has occurred since the establishment of the statutory alternative size standard in 2010. The inflation adjustment would increase the size standard's level for tangible net worth to $20 million and for net income to $6.5 million. SBA also is adjusting for 
                        <PRTPAGE P="11704"/>
                        inflation the applicable statutory limits for contract size under the Surety Bond Guarantee (SBG) Program. The adjustment increases the contract limit to $9 million and the contract limit for Federal contracts if a Federal contracting officer certifies that such a guarantee is necessary to $14 million.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective March 18, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Khem Sharma, Ph.D., Chief, Office of Size Standards, (202) 205-6618, 
                        <E T="03">sizestandards@sba.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background for Small Business Size Standards</HD>
                <P>To determine eligibility for Federal small business assistance, SBA establishes small business size definitions (usually referred to as “size standards”) for private sector industries in the United States. SBA uses two primary measures of business size for size standards purposes: average annual receipts over the last several years (either three years or five years for SBA financial assistance programs) and average number of employees over the last 24 months. SBA uses assets for certain financial industries and refining capacity, in addition to employees, for the petroleum refining industry to measure business size. In addition, SBA's Small Business Investment Company (SBIC), Certified Development Company (CDC/504), and 7(a) Loan Programs use either the industry-based size standards or tangible net worth and net income-based alternative size standards to determine eligibility for those programs.</P>
                <P>SBA reviews small business size standards and makes necessary adjustments to them for three reasons: (i) changes in industry structure and Federal market conditions under the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010 (Jobs Act), Public Law 111-240, section 1344, Sep. 27, 2010; (ii) inflation in accordance with 13 CFR 121.102(c); and (iii) adoption of the latest North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) revision by the Office of Management and Budget. Updating size standards based on inflation—in addition to updating size standards based on the latest industry and Federal contracting data under the five-year rolling review—not only satisfies the Jobs Act's mandate that SBA review all size standards every five years, but also is consistent with Executive Order 13563 on improving regulation and regulatory review.</P>
                <P>
                    Although SBA is required to assess the impact of inflation on its monetary-based size standards 
                    <E T="03">at least</E>
                     once every five years (67 FR 3041; January 23, 2002) (13 CFR 121.102(c)), SBA may modify the timing of its adjustments to size standards and consider adjustments even more frequently than five-year intervals based on the prevailing economic conditions and the important policy objective of maintaining the value of size standards in inflation-adjusted terms.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background on Alternative Size Standards</HD>
                <P>Section 1116 of the Jobs Act added a new Section 3(a)(5) to the Small Business Act that directed SBA to establish an alternative size standard using maximum tangible net worth and average net income for applicants of the SBA's 7(a) Business and CDC/504 Loan Programs (collectively “Business Loan Programs”). The Jobs Act also established for applicants for the SBA's Business Loan Programs an interim alternative size standard of not more than $15 million in tangible net worth and of not more than $5 million in the average net income after Federal income taxes (excluding any carry-over losses) of the applicant for the two full fiscal years before the date of the application (referred to as “Interim Rule”). Under the Jobs Act, this interim statutory alternative size standard would remain in effect until SBA established a new alternative size standard for the Business Loan Programs through rulemaking. 15 U.S.C. 632(a)(5). Prior to that, SBA had a lower regulatory alternative size standard that applied to the CDC/504 Loan Program and applied temporarily to the 7(a) Loan Program for the period beginning on May 5, 2009, and ending on September 30, 2010. 13 CFR 120.301(b)(2).</P>
                <P>
                    On September 29, 2010, SBA issued Information Notice 5000-1175 (available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.sba.gov/sites/default/files/files/bank_5000-1175_0.pdf</E>
                    ) providing that, effective September 27, 2010, the new statutory alternative size standard applied to its Business Loan Programs, thereby replacing and superseding the lower existing alternative size standard of $8.5 million in tangible net worth and $3 million in average net income, as set forth in 13 CFR 121.301(b)(2). The Information Notice further stated that the new statutory alternative size standard would remain in effect until SBA established a permanent alternative size standard for the Business Loan Programs through rulemaking.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In accordance with its regulations, SBA is required to assess the impact of inflation on its monetary-based size standards at least once every five years (67 FR 3041; January 23, 2002) and 13 CFR 121.102(c)). Accordingly, except for the statutory alternative size standard for the SBA Business Loan Programs, SBA adjusted its monetary-based size standards for inflation three times since the Congress enacted the Interim Rule in 2010.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In its rulemaking for each adjustment, SBA provided that the statutorily set alternative size standard would remain in effect until SBA established a permanent alternative size standard for the 7(a) and CDC/504 Loan Programs.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Small Business Size Standards: Inflation Adjustment to Monetary Based Size Standards (Interim Final Rule) (79 FR 33647; June 12, 2014), finalized on January 25, 2016 (81 FR 3949); Small Business Size Standards: Adjustment of Monetary-Based Size Standards for Inflation (Interim Final Rule) (84 FR 34261; July 18, 2019), finalized on November 17, 2022 (87 FR 69118); Small Business Size Standards: Adjustment of Monetary-Based Size Standards, Disadvantage Thresholds, and 8(a) Eligibility Thresholds for Inflation (Joint Final and Interim Rule) (87 FR 69118; November 17, 2022).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    To move toward codifying a permanent alternative size standard, in March 2018, SBA published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     an advanced notice of proposed rulemaking (ANPRM) seeking public input to assist in establishing a permanent alternative size standard for its 7(a) and CDC/504 Loan Programs (83 FR 12506; March 22, 2018). SBA also invited suggestions on sources of relevant data and information that SBA should evaluate in developing a permanent alternative size standard and in assessing its impact. SBA received a total of 34 comments on the ANPRM, of which 11 were found to be not pertinent to the scope of the ANPRM. Of the 23 comments that were pertinent, all 23 not only supported the statutory alternative size standard, but also recommended making it the permanent alternative size standard for the SBA's 7(a) and CDC/504 Loan Programs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    On July 28, 2023, SBA issued a proposed rule to adopt the current statutory alternative size standard for its Business Loan Programs, subject to a 34.46 percent adjustment for inflation that has occurred since the establishment of the statutory alternative size standard in 2010 (88 FR 48739). As described in the July 2023 proposed rule, the inflation that has occurred since 2010 has eroded the value of the alternative size standard in real terms. SBA has an important policy objective of maintaining the value of monetary-based size standards in real (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     inflation-adjusted) terms, and by adjusting the statutory alternative size standard for inflation, SBA is fulfilling that objective. SBA used the inflation adjustment methodology it describes in its “Size Standards Methodology” white 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11705"/>
                    paper, available at 
                    <E T="03">www.sba.gov/size,</E>
                     to adjust the statutory alternative size standard for inflation. SBA applied the same methodology in its previous inflation adjustments to other monetary based size standards, including the latest inflation adjustment in 2022 (87 FR 69118; November 17, 2022). The proposed inflation adjustment increased the tangible net worth component of the alternative size standard to $20 million and the net income component to $6.5 million.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Background for Surety Bond Contract Limits</HD>
                <P>
                    In SBA's July 2023 proposed rule, SBA also proposed amending the contract limits applicable to its Surety Bond Guarantee (SBG) Program. The SBG Program is designed to increase small business access to Federal, state, and local government contracting, as well as private-sector contracting, by guaranteeing bid, payment, and performance bonds on contracts for small and emerging contractors who cannot obtain surety bonds through regular commercial channels.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Surety bonds are important to small businesses interested in competing for Federal contracts because the Federal Government requires prime contractors, prior to the award of a Federal contract exceeding $150,000 for the construction, alteration, or repair of any building or public work of the United States, to furnish a performance bond issued by a surety satisfactory to the officer awarding the contract in an amount the contracting officer considers adequate to protect the government. SBA's guarantee gives sureties an incentive to provide bonding for small businesses and thereby assists small businesses in obtaining greater access to contracting opportunities. SBA's guarantee is an agreement between a surety and SBA that SBA will assume a certain percentage of the surety's loss should a contractor default on the underlying contract. The SBA's guarantee currently ranges from 80 percent to 90 percent of the surety's loss if a default occurs. For more information about SBA's SBG Program, see 
                    <E T="03">https://www.sba.gov/funding-programs/surety-bonds.</E>
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         A surety bond is a three-party instrument between a surety, a contractor, and a project owner. The agreement binds the contractor to comply with the contract's terms and conditions. If the contractor is unable to successfully perform the contract, the surety assumes the contractor's responsibilities and ensures that the project is completed. The surety bonds reduce the risk of contracting. Surety bonds are viewed as a means to encourage project owners to contract with small businesses that may not have the credit history or prior experience of larger businesses and are considered to be at greater risk of failing to comply with the contract's terms and conditions.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Also see a July 8, 2022, Congressional Research Service Report on “SBA Surety Bond Guarantee Program,” available at 
                        <E T="03">https://crsreports.congress.gov/product/pdf/R/R42037.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Section 1695 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2013 (NDAA 2013 or Act) (Pub. L. 112-239; January 2, 2013) increased the SBG guarantee limit to $6.5 million, and up to $10 million for a Federal contract if a Federal contracting officer certifies that such a guarantee is necessary.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Act also included a provision to increase the $6.5 million limit periodically for inflation in accordance with 41 U.S.C. 1908. 41 U.S.C. 1908 provides that inflation adjustments for acquisition-related dollar thresholds are to be set by the Federal Acquisition Regulatory Council (FAR Council). It also requires that the Consumer Price Index (CPI) be used to measure inflation. The FAR Council is established under 41 U.S.C. 1302 to assist in the direction and coordination of procurement policy and regulatory activities for the Federal Government. The FAR Council is required to adjust for inflation the acquisition-related dollar thresholds every five years. Based on CPI, inflation has increased more than 30 percent since 2013. This has eroded the value of the bonding limits in real terms since the limits were set by Congress in 2013.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Section 508 of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 (ARRA) (Pub. L. 111-5; Feb 17, 2009) temporarily increased, from February 17, 2009, through September 30, 2010, the maximum bond amount from $2 million to $5 million. The act also authorized the SBA to guarantee a bond of up to $10 million for Federal contracts if a Federal contracting officer certified that such a guarantee was necessary. Using its rulemaking authority, SBA made ARRA's temporary size standard permanent on August 11, 2010 (76 FR 48549).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>SBA has an important statutory requirement to adjust the bonding limits in accordance with CPI and the FAR Council. The current limits are $6.5 million and, for Federal contracts if a Federal agency certifies that a greater amount is necessary, $10 million. SBA has not adjusted its bonding limits since 2013. The FAR Council has not set a specific threshold in the Federal Acquisition Regulations (FAR) for SBA bonding limits. The FAR Council adjusts the acquisition-related dollar thresholds every five years with the last adjustments occurring in 2015 and 2020. The FAR Council had a $6.5 million threshold in effect in 2013 when the SBA bonding limits were set. In 2015, as part of inflationary adjustments to the acquisition-related dollar thresholds, the FAR Council increased the $6.5 million threshold to $7 million (80 FR 38293; July 2, 2015). Likewise, in 2020, the FAR Council adjusted $7 million threshold to $7.5 million (85 FR 62485; October 2, 2020). The FAR did not have a $10 million threshold in effect in 2013.</P>
                <P>
                    As described in the July 2023 proposed rule, in absence of a specific FAR threshold for SBA bonding limits, SBA proposed to follow the FAR adjustment from $6.5 million to $7.5 million in 2020 and then calculate an adjustment from 2020 to 2023 using the same CPI methodology. SBA also proposed to adjust the existing limit of $10 million to maintain the same percentage spread (the lower limit is 65 percent of the upper limit). As explained in the July 2023 proposed rule, by adjusting both limits at the same time, SBA maintains the effectiveness of the necessity provision and avoids the upper limit becoming meaningless. If only the lower limit were adjusted, then at some point it will exceed the necessity limit due to inflation. Thus, SBA's actions fulfill the statutory objective of maintaining the value of monetary-based bonding limits in real (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     inflation-adjusted) terms.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Summary and Discussion of Public Comments Received on the July 2023 Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>SBA's July 2023 proposed rule invited public comments on SBA's proposed changes generally, and on a variety of specific issues, including the appropriateness of applying SBA's size standards methodology for inflation adjustments to the statutory alternative size standard, whether the inflation-adjusted level of the interim statutory alternative size standard is appropriate as a new permanent alternative size standard under the current credit environment, the impact of using the statutory alternative size standard as the permanent alternative size standard on small businesses seeking loans through its Business Loan Programs, and the appropriateness of SBA's proposed methodology for adjusting statutory contract limits for its SBG Program, especially on SBA's approach to adjust the $10 million contract limit for Federal contracts.</P>
                <P>SBA received 13 comments on the proposed rule from various trade associations, businesses, and individual stakeholders, of which 11 comments supported SBA's proposed changes and two comments were not applicable or were outside the scope of SBA's proposed rule. Generally, commenters expressed strong support for SBA's proposed changes without reservation.</P>
                <P>
                    Of the 11 comments pertinent to the proposed rule, SBA received three 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11706"/>
                    comments from national trade associations, each separately representing surety bond producers, certified development companies (CDCs), and lenders participating in SBA's 7(a) business loan program. These commenters expressed support for SBA's proposed rule on the grounds that SBA's changes would ultimately expand access for small businesses to financial assistance and other resources. For example, the national association representing surety bond producers expressed that SBA's proposal to adjust for inflation the statutory limits for contract size under the SBG Program would allow more small and emerging contractors to grow their businesses by obtaining bonding to bid on public construction projects.
                </P>
                <P>The national association representing CDCs supported SBA's proposal to adopt the statutory alternative size standard of $15 million in tangible net worth and $5 million in net income as the permanent alternative size standard, subject to SBA's proposed inflation adjustment. This commenter petitioned SBA to further adjust the alternative size standard for inflation on the same five-year schedule that SBA currently uses for reviewing its monetary-based industry size standards. Moreover, the commenter expressed general support for continuing to allow small businesses to qualify for SBA financial assistance using either the alternative size standard or the industry size standard to ensure that as many small businesses as possible have access to SBA programs. The commenter further explained that the alternative size standard is particularly helpful for CDCs who may find it is easier to use it rather than the industry-based size standards due to the alternative size standard's consistency across all industries.</P>
                <P>The national association representing lenders participating in SBA's 7(a) business loan program also expressed support for continued use of alternative size standards for 7(a) and 504 loan eligibility, explaining that the alternative size standard simplifies the size determination process for lenders since it relies on financial information that is readily available from the loan applicant. This commenter also supported SBA's proposal to make the interim alternative size standard permanent while adjusting it for inflation. The commenter petitioned SBA to adjust the alternative size standard on a periodic five-year basis going forward to assure that inflation does not erode the tangible net worth and net income monetary maximums.</P>
                <P>The remaining eight pertinent comments were from individual stakeholders and businesses, including five CDCs, which supported various aspects of SBA's proposed rule. Three individual stakeholders expressed general support for SBA's changes to the bonding thresholds or alternative size standard. The 5 CDCs expressed support for SBA's proposed inflation-adjusted alternative size standard on the basis that the higher levels would ensure that small businesses would remain eligible for SBA financial assistance in an environment of increasing bank conservatism, high inflation and soaring interest rates. Four of the CDCs specifically expressed support for adopting the inflation adjusted statutory threshold as the permanent threshold and further recommended that SBA adjust the alternative size standard for inflation on a periodic basis not to exceed every five years.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">SBA Response</HD>
                <P>SBA agrees with commenters that its proposed changes would allow more small businesses to access SBA programs and financial assistance. As explained in the July 2023 proposed rule, this rule will apply to more than 8.1 million employer firms, of which 98.2 percent are small under industry-based size standards and 92.5 percent are small under the interim statutory alternative size standard. SBA estimates that about 6,275 firms that are above the interim statutory alternate size standard will qualify as small under the inflation-adjusted size alternative standard. While SBA cannot precisely estimate the number of businesses that are approved under the alternative size standard for 7(a) or CDC/504 loans and the number of newly-defined small businesses that will qualify under the inflation-adjusted alternative size standard for loans under these programs due to data limitations, based on the analysis of the available data for fiscal years 2021-2022, SBA estimates that at least 500 7(a) or CDC/504 loans (or 0.4 percent of total loans) will likely be approved under the alternative size standard that otherwise would not have qualified under the industry-based size standard. Likewise, with respect to the SBG Program, under the rule, SBA estimates that more small businesses will qualify to apply for surety bonds as a result of the proposed increases to statutory bonding limits.</P>
                <P>SBA also agrees with commenters that using the alternative size standard has benefitted lenders in terms of simplifying and streamlining the loan application process and has reduced burden on applicants by providing an alternative method to establish eligibility for SBA financial assistance which would otherwise require businesses to keep three years or potentially five years of data to establish eligibility using industry-based size standards. Thus, SBA continues to support the use of alternative size standards for use in its Business Loan programs.</P>
                <P>As explained in the July 2023 proposed rule, SBA believes its changes to the alternative size standard will allow more businesses to gain eligibility for SBA's Business Loan Programs for which they would not otherwise be eligible based on their industry-specific size standards. SBA's changes to the SBG statutory contract limits will provide greater access to contracting opportunities for small businesses. Thus, SBA's changes will allow these additional businesses to attain SBA assistance that may be critical to their continued growth or economic viability.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Conclusion</HD>
                <P>With due consideration of all public comments, as discussed above, and in light of the overall strong support for SBA's proposed changes and anticipated impacts, SBA is adopting the proposed adjustments in the July 2023 proposed rule without change. SBA's adoption of the proposed changes provides assurances to the public that the Agency is monitoring inflation to determine whether to adjust size standards and other monetary thresholds within a reasonable period. SBA's adoption of the proposed changes also ensures that the thresholds applicable to the Business Loan Programs and SBG Program are up-to-date and appropriate for the respective intended beneficiaries of the programs. Given the current developments in the U.S. economy, SBA will continue to monitor the inflation and other economic indicators and their impacts on size standards and adjust size standards, as needed. SBA will adjust the levels for inflation on the same five-year schedule that SBA currently uses for reviewing its monetary-based industry size standards in accordance with 13 CFR 121.102(c).</P>
                <P>
                    Specifically, SBA is adopting the statutory alternative size standard of $15 million in tangible net worth and $5 million in net income as the permanent alternative size standard, subject to adjustment for inflation that has occurred since the establishment of the statutory alternative size standard in 2010. The inflation adjustment increases the size standard's level for tangible net worth to $20 million and for net income to $6.5 million. SBA is also adopting, as proposed, the inflation-adjusted thresholds applicable to the statutory 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11707"/>
                    limits for contract size under the SBG Program. The adjustment increases the contract limit to $9 million and to $14 million for Federal contracts if a Federal contracting officer certifies that such a guarantee is necessary. The statutory responsibility for adjusting the size standard for inflation lies with the Federal Acquisition Regulation. In the absence of FAR action, SBA will adjust the SBG contract limits on the same five-year schedule that SBA currently uses for reviewing its monetary-based industry size standards in accordance with 13 CFR 121.102(c).
                </P>
                <P>
                    As required under 13 CFR 121.102(e), SBA advises readers that interested eligible parties may file a petition for reconsideration of a revised, modified, or established size standard at SBA's Office of Hearings and Appeals (OHA) within 30 calendar days after publication of this final rule in accordance with 15 U.S.C. 632(a)(9) and 13 CFR 134 Subpart I. You may reach OHA using the following contact information: by mail at U.S. Small Business Administration, Office of Hearings and Appeals, 409 Third St. SW, Eighth Floor, Washington, DC 20416, by email at 
                    <E T="03">ohafilings@sba.gov,</E>
                     by phone: 202-401-8200 TTY/TRS: 711, or by fax at (202) 205-7059.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Compliance With Executive Order 12866, the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801-808), the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612), Executive Orders 13563, 12988, and 13132, and the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C., Ch. 35)</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 12866</HD>
                <P>The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has determined that this final rule is a significant regulatory action for purposes of Executive Order 12866. This rule affects applicants for SBA's 7(a) Business and CDC/504 Loan Programs and businesses and sureties that use the SBG Program. To help explain the need for this rule and the rule's potential benefits and costs, SBA is providing below a Regulatory Impact Analysis for this rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regulatory Impact Analysis</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. What is the need for this regulatory action?</HD>
                <P>SBA is required by the Jobs Act to adopt an alternative size standard based on tangible net worth and net income after taxes for its 7(a) and CDC/504 Loan Programs. SBA believes that adopting an alternative size standard is in the best interests of small businesses seeking SBA's financial assistance. SBA's mission is to aid and assist small businesses through a variety of financial, procurement, business development, and counseling programs. To assist the intended beneficiaries of these programs effectively, SBA establishes distinct definitions (usually referred to as “size standards”) to determine which businesses are deemed small businesses. One of the SBA's missions has been to provide necessary financing to small businesses that are not able to obtain loans in the commercial market in reasonable terms. Many businesses that have exceeded their industry-based size standards cannot grow and support their employees without additional capital from SBA's financial assistance programs. The alternative size standard established by Congress assisted some small businesses that could not have otherwise qualified under their industry-based size standards.</P>
                <P>
                    SBA is required to assess the impact of inflation on its monetary-based size standards at least once every five years (67 FR 3041 (January 23, 2002) and 13 CFR 121.102(c)). Inflation, as measured by the change in GDP price index, has increased more than 34 percent from the enactment of the interim statutory alternative size standard in 2010. Inflation has caused the statutory alternative size standard to decrease in real terms, thereby forcing some businesses to lose small business status and eligibility for SBA's Business Loan Programs. As stated previously, SBA adjusted its monetary size standards three times since the establishment of the statutory alternative size standard in 2010, but the Agency did not adjust the statutory alternative size standard for SBA's Business Loan Programs. SBA has an important policy objective of maintaining the value of monetary-based size standards in real (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     inflation-adjusted) terms, and by adjusting the statutory alternative size standard for inflation this rulemaking fulfils that objective.
                </P>
                <P>The Small Business Act delegates to SBA's Administrator responsibility for establishing definitions for small business. The Act requires that small business definitions vary to reflect industry differences. 15 U.S.C. 632(a). Some businesses in need of financial assistance from SBA's 7(a) and CDC/504 Loan Programs may exceed the applicable size standard for their industries. The alternative size standard, in addition to the industry-based size standards, would apply uniformly across all industries and expand credit opportunities to businesses that are in need of SBA's financial assistance. The inflationary adjustment of the statutory alternative size standard would not affect existing industry-based size standards but rather would supplement them and make financing available to otherwise eligible applicants that exceed their industry-based size standards.</P>
                <P>NDAA 2013 increased the SBG guarantee limit to $6.5 million, and up to $10 million for a Federal contract if a Federal contracting officer certifies that such a guarantee is necessary. The act also included a provision to increase the $6.5 million limit periodically for inflation in accordance with 41 U.S.C. 1908. Based on the CPI, inflation has increased more than 30 percent since 2013. SBA has not adjusted its bonding limits since 2013. This has eroded the value of the bonding limits in real terms since the limits were set by Congress in 2013. The adjustment of the SBG contract limits will bring them in line with ongoing inflation and current contracting trends and increase contracting opportunities to small businesses.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. What are the potential benefits and costs of this regulatory action?</HD>
                <P>The most significant benefit of this regulatory action for businesses is that certain businesses, especially in industries with receipts-based size standards, will gain eligibility for SBA's Business Loan Programs for which they would not otherwise be eligible based on their industry-specific size standards. This will allow them to attain financing that may be critical to their continued growth or economic viability.</P>
                <P>
                    Table 1, Comparison Between Industry-Based and Inflation-Adjusted Statutory Alternative Size Standard (FY 2021-2022), compares the percentages of industries that have higher industry-based size standards relative to inflation-adjusted statutory size standard by type of size standard. For nearly 96 percent of industries with receipts-based size standards, the inflation-adjusted alternative size standard is found to be, in relative terms, higher than the industry-based size standards, thereby allowing businesses exceeding industry-based size standards in those industries to qualify for 7(a) and CDC/504 Loan Programs under the inflation-adjusted alternative size standard. The corresponding figure for the interim statutory alternative size standard is nearly 93 percent. On the other hand, for 77 percent of industries with employee-based size standards, industry-based size standards are, in relative terms, higher than the inflation-adjusted alternative size standard. That figure for the interim statutory alternative size standard is 82.5 percent. This suggests that the alternative size 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11708"/>
                    standard provides more benefits to businesses in the receipts-based industries than those with employee-based size standards. The higher inflation-adjusted alternative size standard will continue to help businesses above the industry-based size standards to receive SBA's financing.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,15,15,15,15,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Comparison Between Industry-Based and Inflation-Adjusted Alternative Size Standard </TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[FY 2021-2022]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Size standard type</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Whether industry size standard is
                            <LI>higher or lower than interim statutory</LI>
                            <LI>alternative standard (Table 11)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Higher</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Lower</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Whether industry size standard is
                            <LI>higher or lower than inflation-adjusted</LI>
                            <LI>statutory alternative standard</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Higher</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Lower</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Employee-based</ENT>
                        <ENT>392 (82.5%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>83 (17.5%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>366 (77.1%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>109 (22.9%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>475 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Receipts-based</ENT>
                        <ENT>35 (7.3%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>445 (92.7%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>20 (4.2%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>460 (95.8%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>480 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>427 (44.7%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>528 (55.3%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>386 (40.4%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>569 (59.6%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>955 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>Table 2, Comparison Between Industry-Based and Inflation-Adjusted Statutory Alternative Size Standards by Sector (FY 2021-2022), shows by sector the impacts of inflation adjustment to the statutory alternative size standard on proportions of industries for which industry-based size standards are higher than the inflation-adjusted alternative size standard. Compared to the interim statutory alternative size standard, the proportions of industries for which alternative size standard is higher than the industry-based size standards are higher under the inflation-adjusted alternative size standard, especially for industries with employee-based size standards. For example, for just 7.8 percent of industries in manufacturing, the statutory size alternative size standard is higher than the industry-based size standards. That figure increases to 13.3 percent under the inflation-adjusted size standard. Another example is wholesale trade, where percentage of industries for which the statutory alternative size standard is higher than the industry-based size standard increases from about 68 percent under the statutory alternative size standard to about 78 percent under the inflation-adjusted alternative size standard.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,15,15,15,15,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Comparison Between Industry-Based and Inflation-Adjusted Statutory Alternative Size Standards by Sector </TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[FY 2021-2022]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Sector code</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Sector title</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Whether industry size standard is
                            <LI>higher or lower than interim statutory</LI>
                            <LI>alternative standard</LI>
                            <LI>(Table 12)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Higher</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Lower</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Whether industry size standard is
                            <LI>higher or lower than inflation-adjusted</LI>
                            <LI>statutory alternative standard</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Higher</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Lower</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">11</ENT>
                        <ENT>Agriculture, Forestry, Fishing and Hunting</ENT>
                        <ENT>0 (0.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>63 (100.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>0 (0.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>63 (100.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>63 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">21</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mining, Quarrying, and Oil and Gas Extraction</ENT>
                        <ENT>17 (81.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>4 (19.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>17 (81.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>4 (19.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>21(100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">22</ENT>
                        <ENT>Utilities</ENT>
                        <ENT>12 (85.7%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2 (14.3)</ENT>
                        <ENT>12 (85.7%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2 (14.3%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>14 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">23</ENT>
                        <ENT>Construction</ENT>
                        <ENT>0 (0.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>30 (100.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>0 (0.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>30 (100.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>30 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">31-33</ENT>
                        <ENT>Manufacturing</ENT>
                        <ENT>319 (92.2%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>27 (7.8%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>300 (86.7%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>46 (13.3%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>346 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">42</ENT>
                        <ENT>Wholesale Trade</ENT>
                        <ENT>22 (31.9%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>47 (68.1%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>15 (21.7%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>54 (78.3%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>69 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">44-45</ENT>
                        <ENT>Retail Trade</ENT>
                        <ENT>0 (0.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>57 (100.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>0 (0.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>57 (100.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>57 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">48-49</ENT>
                        <ENT>Transportation and Warehousing</ENT>
                        <ENT>15 (27.8%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>39 (72.2%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>12 (22.7%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>42 (77.8%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>54 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">52</ENT>
                        <ENT>Finance and Insurance</ENT>
                        <ENT>0 (0.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>16 (100%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>0 (0.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>16 (100.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>16 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">53</ENT>
                        <ENT>Real Estate and Rental and Leasing</ENT>
                        <ENT>10 (41.7%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>14 (58.3%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>6 (25.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>18 (75.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>24 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">54</ENT>
                        <ENT>Professional, Scientific, and Technical Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>3 (6.3%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>45 (93.8%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>3 (6.3%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>45 (93.8%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>48 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">55</ENT>
                        <ENT>Management of Companies and Enterprises</ENT>
                        <ENT>0 (0.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2 (100.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>0 (0.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2 (100.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">56</ENT>
                        <ENT>Administrative and Support and Waste Management and Remediation Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>0 (0.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>44 (100.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>0 (0.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>44 (100.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>44 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">61</ENT>
                        <ENT>Education Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>3 (17.6%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>14 (82.4%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2 (11.8%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>15 (88.2%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>17 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">62</ENT>
                        <ENT>Health Care and Social Assistance</ENT>
                        <ENT>3 (7.7%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>36 (92.3%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>3 (7.7%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>36 (92.3%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>39 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">71</ENT>
                        <ENT>Arts, Entertainment, and Recreation</ENT>
                        <ENT>9 (36.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>16 (64.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>4 (16.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>21 (84.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>25 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">72</ENT>
                        <ENT>Accommodation and Food Services</ENT>
                        <ENT>1 (6.7%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>14 (93.3%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>0 (0.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>15 (100.0%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>15 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">81</ENT>
                        <ENT>Other services</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 (11.6%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>38 (88.4%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>4 (9.3%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>39 (90.7%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>43 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi0">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>427 (44.7%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>528 (55.3%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>386 (40.4%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>569 (59.6%)</ENT>
                        <ENT>955 (100.0%)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    SBA cannot make a precise determination of the number of businesses that were approved under the alternative size standard for 7(a) or CDC/504 Business Loans since the enactment of the statutory alternative 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11709"/>
                    size standard in 2010 because the Agency does not store the data on whether an applicant for its 7(a) or CDC/504 Loan Program was qualified under its industry-based size standard or under the alternative size standard. The available data show that alternative size standard established by Congress enabled some small businesses above the industry-based size standards to get SBA's financing.
                </P>
                <P>As stated elsewhere, SBA also does not compile the data on average annual receipts, net worth, and net income. The only available data on business size is the number of employees. SBA examined its 7(a) and CDC/504 loan data for fiscal years 2021-2022. Based on this data, SBA estimates that 500 recipients of the SBA Business Loans (or 0.4 percent of the total loans) that appeared to have exceeded their industry-based size standards were granted 7(a) and CDC/504 loans, implying that most likely they qualified under the statutory alternative size standard. Thus, this result indicates that the higher alternative size standard expanded credit availability to more small businesses through SBA's 7(a) and CDC/504 Loan Programs.</P>
                <P>
                    Table 3, Applicant's Eligibility Under the Inflation-Adjusted Statutory Alternative and Industry-Based Size Standards (FY 2021-2022), shows the eligibility of recipients of SBA loans through 7(a) and CDC/504 Programs during fiscal years 2021-2022 under the industry-based and inflation-adjusted alternative size standard. More than 99.5 percent (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     117,327/117,882 = 0.9953) of loan recipients were found to have met both the industry-based size standards and inflation-adjusted alternative size standard. As in the case of the statutory alternative size standard, about 500 or 0.4 percent of loan recipients that did not meet the industry-based size standard met inflation-adjusted alternative size standard. About 0.1 percent (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     94/117,882 = 0.001) of loan recipients were found to have exceeded the interim statutory alternative size standard. That figure was 0.05 percent (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     54/117,882 = 0.0005) for the inflation-adjusted alternative size standard. Thus, 40 loan recipients that did not meet the statutory size standard met the inflation-adjusted alternative size standard.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,r50,r50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Table 3—Applicant's Eligibility Under the Inflation-Adjusted Statutory Alternative and Industry-Based Size Standards</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[FY 2021-2022]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Interim statutory alternative size
                            <LI>standard</LI>
                            <LI>(Table 5)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Meets </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Does not meet</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Inflation-adjusted alternative size
                            <LI>standard</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Meets </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Does not meet</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Industry size standard</ENT>
                        <ENT>Meets</ENT>
                        <ENT>117,288</ENT>
                        <ENT>81</ENT>
                        <ENT>117,327</ENT>
                        <ENT>42</ENT>
                        <ENT>117,369</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,n,s">
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Does not meet</ENT>
                        <ENT>500</ENT>
                        <ENT>13</ENT>
                        <ENT>501</ENT>
                        <ENT>12</ENT>
                        <ENT>513</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>117,788</ENT>
                        <ENT>94</ENT>
                        <ENT>117,828</ENT>
                        <ENT>54</ENT>
                        <ENT>*117,882</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        * 
                        <E T="02">Note:</E>
                         This excludes invalid or incomplete observations in the form of invalid NAICS codes or missing RMA or receipts-to-employee ratios to estimate tangible net worth, net income, or receipts equivalent size standard.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>Based on the data for 2017 Economic Census, Agricultural Census, and County Business Patterns special tabulations, SBA estimates that about 6,275 businesses that are above the interim statutory alternative size standard will qualify under the inflation-adjusted alternative size standard. About 25 additional SBA Business Loans, totaling up to $50 million, will be made to these newly-qualified businesses using the higher inflation-adjusted alternative size standard. That constitutes less than 0.1 percent of the loan activity during fiscal years 2021-2022. These results are consistent with results in Tables 7 and 8 of the July 2023 proposed rule, which showed that only a very small fraction of the SBA Business Loans and loan amount go to businesses that were close to the tangible net worth and net income thresholds of the statutory size standard. Thus, the vast majority of SBA Business Loans go to businesses that are significantly below the tangible net worth and net income thresholds of the statutory alternative size standard.</P>
                <P>The 7(a) Loan Program, SBA's largest loan program, includes financial help for businesses with special requirements. Small businesses can use SBA's 7(a) guaranteed loans for short- and long-term working capital, revolving funds based on inventory or receivables, fixed assets, and refinancing. Small businesses can use SBA's CDC/504 loans for the purchase of land, buildings, improvements, and equipment. These loans provide long-term, fixed-rate financing to small businesses to acquire real estate or machinery or equipment for expansion or modernization. The CDC/504 loan proceeds are generally limited to fixed assets and their related soft costs.</P>
                <P>Businesses are often denied SBA's loans for reasons unrelated to the use of the loan proceeds, the concern's ability to repay the loan, or other credit-based reasons. Rather, they can be denied because they exceed the size standards for their industries. Some business concerns that exceed their industry-based size standards might be eligible for SBA's financial assistance under the alternative size standard that this final rule adopts.</P>
                <P>
                    Raising the SBG bond guarantee limits will increase contracting opportunities for more small businesses and bring the limits in line with inflation. Due to the lack of data, SBA is unable to estimate the number of additional small businesses that will qualify to apply for bonding through the SBG Program for non-Federal (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     state government, local government, private sector, etc.) contracting because of increases to bond guarantee limits for inflation. Because the construction sector accounts for more than 95 percent of surety bonds and total value of bonded contracts, to estimate the number of additional small businesses and contracts that will qualify for surety bonds on Federal contracts, SBA analyzed the small business contract awards from FPDS-NG for the construction sector for fiscal years 2021-2022. These results are presented in Table 4, Federal Contracts in Construction for Fiscal Years 2021-2022. Because of the adopted increase to the lower contract limit from $6.5 million to $9 million, without contracting officer's certification, annually up to about 150-155 additional small businesses will be eligible to apply for surety bonds on about 175-180 Federal construction 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11710"/>
                    contracts totaling between $1.4 billion and $1.5 billion in value. Similarly, as a result of the adopted increase to the upper contract limit from $10 million to $14 million, with contracting officer's certification, annually up to about 100-110 additional small businesses will be eligible to apply for surety bonds on 110-120 Federal construction contracts totaling between $1.3 billion and $1.4 billion in value.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,15,15,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 4—Federal Contracts in Construction for Fiscal Years 2021-2022</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Contract limits</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Number of small firms</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>contracts</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total contract value
                            <LI>($ billion)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">&lt;= 6.5 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,100</ENT>
                        <ENT>25,312</ENT>
                        <ENT>$10.7</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">&gt; $6.5 million &lt;= $9 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>155</ENT>
                        <ENT>179</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">&gt; 9 million &lt;= $10 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>45</ENT>
                        <ENT>45</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">&gt; $10 million to &lt;= $14 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>106</ENT>
                        <ENT>115</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1.3</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">&gt; $14 million</ENT>
                        <ENT>142</ENT>
                        <ENT>172</ENT>
                        <ENT>$5.3</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,547</ENT>
                        <ENT>25,822</ENT>
                        <ENT>$19.1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>Raising the contract bond limits could lead to larger contracts being guaranteed by the SBA and, as a result, could increase the risk of program losses. To determine if higher contract limits will increase the risk of program losses, SBA analyzed all claim activity from October 1, 2020, to March 31, 2023. These results are presented in Table 5, Net Claims by Contract Size for October 1, 2020, to March 31, 2023. The results show a positive relationship between contract size and net claims. For example, contracts below $1 million in value accounted for nearly 66 percent of total claims but accounted for only 29 percent of net claim amount. On the other hand, contracts above $1 million in value accounted for 34 percent of claims but accounted for 71 percent of total net claim amount. Thus, the data suggests that higher contract limits may lead to larger contracts being guaranteed, which in turn may lead to an increase in defaults and, as a result, higher losses. However, SBA is unable to estimate exact losses due to the lack of data to estimate the number additional surety bonds on non-Federal contracts resulting from increases to contract bond limits.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 5—Net Claims by Contract Size for October 1, 2020, to March 31, 2023</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Contract size
                            <LI>($ million)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Number of claims</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Count</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">%</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Cum. %</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Net claim</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            Amount
                            <LI>($ million)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">%</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Cum. %</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">&lt; 0.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>12</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">0.1 to 0.25</ENT>
                        <ENT>32</ENT>
                        <ENT>15.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>21.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>2.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.3</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">0.25 to 0.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                        <ENT>24.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>45.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>13.1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">0.5 to 1.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>43</ENT>
                        <ENT>20.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>65.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>8.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>16.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>29.3</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1.0 to 2.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>44</ENT>
                        <ENT>21.2</ENT>
                        <ENT>87.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>17.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>33.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>62.8</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2.0 to 3.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>90.9</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.6</ENT>
                        <ENT>72.4</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3.0 to 4.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.8</ENT>
                        <ENT>95.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>10.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>82.9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4.0 to 5.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>7</ENT>
                        <ENT>3.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>99.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>9.4</ENT>
                        <ENT>92.3</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">5.0 to 6.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>100.0</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>100.0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>208</ENT>
                        <ENT>100.0</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>52.7</ENT>
                        <ENT>100.0</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Congressional Review Act</HD>
                <P>
                    Subtitle E of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (codified at 5 U.S.C. 801-808), also known as the Congressional Review Act or CRA, generally provides that before a rule may take effect, the agency promulgating the rule must submit a rule report, which includes a copy of the rule, to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. SBA will submit a report containing this rule and other required information to the U.S. Senate, the U.S. House of Representatives, and the Comptroller General of the United States. A major rule under the CRA cannot take effect until 60 days after it is published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . OMB's Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has determined that this final rule is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis</HD>
                <P>Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), this final rule may have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. As described above, this final rule could affect small entities seeking assistance through SBA's (7a) and CDC/504 Loan and SBG Programs.</P>
                <P>
                    Immediately below, SBA sets forth a final regulatory flexibility analysis (FRFA) of this final rule addressing the following questions: (1) What is the need for, and the objective of, the rule? (2) What significant issues were raised by the public comments in response to the initial regulatory flexibility analysis, and what changes were made as a result of such comments? (3) What is SBA's response to comments filed by the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration in response to the proposed rule, and what changes were made as a result of such comments? (4) What are SBA's description and estimate of the number of small entities to which the rule would apply? (5) What are the projected reporting, record keeping, and other compliance requirements of the rule? (6) What steps has SBA taken to minimize significant economic impact on small entities and why has SBA rejected the other significant alternatives to the rule in favor of the adopted one?
                    <PRTPAGE P="11711"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(1) What is the need for, and the objective of, the rule?</HD>
                <P>Under the Jobs Act, SBA is required to adopt an alternative size standard using maximum tangible net worth and net income for its 7(a) and CDC/504 Loan Programs. The Jobs Act defined an interim statutory alternative standard based on tangible net worth of $15 million and net income of $5 million until the SBA Administrator permanently designates an alternative size standard based on tangible net worth and net income for those programs. Many businesses that exceed their industry-based size standards cannot grow and support their employees and other businesses that depend on them without additional capital from SBA's financial assistance programs. The inflation-adjusted alternative size standard adopted under this final rule will enable such businesses to qualify for SBA's 7(a) and CDC/504 Loan Programs.</P>
                <P>Section 3(a) of Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 632(a)) gives the SBA's Administrator responsibility to establish and change small business size standards. Within its administrative discretion, SBA implemented a policy in its regulations to review the effect of inflation on size standards at least once every five years (13 CFR 121.102(c)) and make any changes as appropriate. SBA has adjusted its monetary-based size standards three times since the enactment of the interim statutory alternative size standard in 2010. However, SBA did not adjust the statutory alternative in each of those adjustments. Inflation, as measured by the change in GDP price index, has increased more than 34 percent since 2010. This has eroded the value of the statutory alternative size alternative in real terms. Consequently, many businesses above their industry-based size standards and in need of financial assistance from SBA's 7(a) or CDC/504 Loan Programs may have exceeded the statutory alternative size standard and lost eligibility for benefits of those programs. The inflationary adjustment of the statutory alternative size standard in this final rule will enable such businesses to qualify for those programs. The alternative size standard applies uniformly across all industries and does not affect existing size standards by industry. Rather it supplements them, by making more financing available to otherwise ineligible businesses that exceed their industry-based size standard.</P>
                <P>Regarding the SBG Program, NDAA 2013 increased the SBG guarantee limit to $6.5 million, and up to $10 million for a Federal contract if a Federal contracting officer certifies that such a guarantee is necessary. The Act also included a provision to increase the $6.5 million limit periodically for inflation in accordance with 41 U.S.C. 1908. Based on the CPI, inflation has increased more than 30 percent since 2013. SBA has not adjusted its bonding limits since 2013. This has eroded the value of the bonding limits in real terms since the limits were set by Congress in 2013. This has adversely impacted small business contractors seeking bonding assistance from the SBA SBG Program. The adjustment of the SBG contract limits will bring them in line with ongoing inflation and current contracting trends and increase contracting opportunities to small businesses.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(2) What significant issues were raised by the public comments in response to the initial regulatory flexibility analysis, and what changes were made as a result of such comments?</HD>
                <P>SBA received 13 comments on the July 2023 proposed rule from various trade associations, businesses, and individual stakeholders, of which 11 comments supported SBA's proposed changes and two comments were not applicable or were outside the scope of SBA's proposed rule. Generally, commenters expressed strong support for SBA's proposed changes, without reservation. Thus, with due consideration of all public comments, as discussed in detail in Section IV of this final rule, and in light of the overall strong support for SBA's proposed changes and anticipated impacts, SBA is adopting the proposed adjustments in the July 2023 proposed rule without change. Specifically, SBA is adopting the statutory alternative size standard of $15 million in tangible net worth and $5 million in net income as the permanent alternative size standard, subject to adjustment for inflation that has occurred since the establishment of the statutory alternative size standard in 2010. The inflation adjustment increases the size standard's level for tangible net worth to $20 million and for net income to $6.5 million. SBA is also adopting, as proposed, the inflation-adjusted thresholds applicable to the statutory limits for contract size under the SBG Program. The adjustment increases the contract limit to $9 million and to $14 million for Federal contracts if a Federal contracting officer certifies that such a guarantee is necessary. The statutory responsibility for adjusting the size standard for inflation lies with the Federal Acquisition Regulation. In the absence of FAR action, SBA will adjust the SBG contract limits on the same five-year schedule that SBA currently uses for reviewing its monetary-based industry size standards in accordance with 13 CFR 121.102(c).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(3) What is SBA's response to comments filed by the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration in response to the proposed rule, and what changes were made as a result of such comments?</HD>
                <P>SBA did not receive public comments filed by the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration in response to the proposed rule. As such, no changes were made to the rule in response to such comments.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(4) What are SBA's description and estimate of the number of small entities to which this rule would apply?</HD>
                <P>This rule will apply to more than 8.1 million employer firms, of which 98.2 percent are small under industry-based size standards and 92.5 percent are small under the interim statutory alternative size standard. About 92.6 percent of firms will qualify as small under the inflation-adjusted alternative size standard. About 6,275 firms that are above the interim statutory alternate size standard will qualify as small under the inflation-adjusted size alternative standard. That is less than 0.1 percent of firms that are small under the interim statutory alternative size standard.</P>
                <P>
                    For the reasons discussed under the 
                    <E T="03">Regulatory Impact Analysis</E>
                     section of this rule, because of lack of relevant data (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     receipts, tangible net worth, and net income of loan recipients), SBA cannot precisely state the number of businesses that were approved under the alternative size standard for 7(a) or CDC/504 loans and the number of newly-defined small businesses that will qualify under the inflation-adjusted alternative size standard for loans under these programs. However, based on the analysis of the available data for fiscal years 2021-2022, SBA estimates that at least 500 7(a) or CDC/504 loans (or 0.4 percent of total loans) were likely approved under the alternative size standard.
                </P>
                <P>
                    With respect to the SBG program, more than 95 percent of the bonding activity is concentrated in the construction sector. Based on the 2017 Economic Census, there are 689,260 small employer firms in construction to which this rule will apply. Additionally, about 2.5 percent of the bonding activity occurs in 11 industries in Sector 56 with more than 209,000 small firms in those industries to which this rule will also apply. More small businesses will qualify to apply for 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11712"/>
                    surety bonds as a result of adopted increases to statutory bonding limits.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(5) What are the projected reporting, record keeping, and other compliance requirements of the rule?</HD>
                <P>A new size standard does not impose any additional reporting, record keeping, or compliance requirements on small entities. Revising size standards alters the access to SBA programs that assist small businesses, but does not impose a regulatory burden as the size standards neither regulate nor control business behavior.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(6) What steps has SBA taken to minimize significant economic impact on small entities and why has SBA rejected the other significant alternatives to the rule in favor of the adopted one?</HD>
                <P>There are no alternatives to establishing a size standard for the Agency's 7(a) and CDC/504 Loan Programs based on an applicant's tangible net worth and net income because this is a statutory requirement. Specifically, the Jobs Act directs the Agency to use a firm's tangible net worth of not more than $15 million and average net income after Federal income taxes (excluding any carry-over losses) for the two full fiscal years immediately before its application of not more than $5 million until the Administrator adopts a different, permanent alternative size standard based on net worth and net income measures. SBA may propose to adopt a higher or lower alternative size standard based on an applicant's tangible net worth and net income, however, SBA's proposed alternative size standards, as detailed in the July 2023 proposed rule, were strongly supported by commenters, including trade associations small businesses and individuals. Thus, in this final rule, SBA is adopting the interim statutory alternative size standard as a permanent alternative size standard, subject to adjustment for inflation that has occurred since the standard's establishment in 2010.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 13563</HD>
                <P>A description of the need for this regulatory action and its associated benefits and costs associated with this action, including possible impacts that relate to Executive Order 13563 are included above in the Regulatory Impact Analysis. This final rule will further expand the benefits of the Jobs Act which also increased the upper limits of loans available under the 7(a) and CDC/504 Loan Programs, without restricting access and availability to qualified entities. SBA's changes to the SBG statutory contract limits will increase contracting opportunities to small businesses.  </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 12988</HD>
                <P>This action meets applicable standards set forth in sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform, to minimize litigation, eliminate ambiguity, and reduce burden. This rule does not have retroactive or preemptive effect.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Executive Order 13132</HD>
                <P>For purposes of Executive Order 13132, SBA has determined this rulemaking will not have substantial, direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, SBA has determined that this final rule has no federalism implications warranting preparation of a federalism assessment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>For the purpose of the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. Ch. 35, SBA has determined that this rulemaking will not impose any new reporting or recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                    <CFR>13 CFR Part 115</CFR>
                    <P>Claims, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Small businesses, Surety bonds.</P>
                    <CFR>13 CFR Part 121</CFR>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Government procurement, Government property, Grant programs—business, Individuals with disabilities, Loan programs—business, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Small businesses.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Small Business Administration amends 13 CFR part 115 and 13 CFR part 121 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 115—SURETY BOND GUARANTEE </HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="13" PART="115">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 115 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 5 U.S.C. app 3; 15 U.S.C. 636i, 687b, 687c, 694a, and 694b note.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="13" PART="115">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 115.10 by revising the definition of “Applicable Statutory Limit” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 115.10 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Applicable Statutory Limit</E>
                             means the maximum amount, set forth below, of any Contract or Order for which SBA is authorized to guarantee, or commit to guarantee, a Bid Bond, Payment Bond, Performance Bond, or Ancillary Bond:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) $9 million (as adjusted for inflation in accordance with 41 U.S.C. 1908).</P>
                        <P>(2) $14 million if a contracting officer of a Federal agency certifies, in accordance with section 115.12(e)(3), that such guarantee is necessary.</P>
                        <P>(3) If SBA is guaranteeing the bond in connection with a procurement related to a major disaster pursuant to section 12079 of Public Law 110-246, see section 115.12(e)(4).</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="13" PART="115">
                    <AMDPAR>3. Amend § 115.12 by revising paragraph (e)(3) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 115.12 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>General program policies and provisions.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(e) * * *</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Federal Contracts or Orders in excess of $9,000,000</E>
                             (
                            <E T="03">as adjusted for inflation in accordance with section 1908 of title 41, United States Code</E>
                            ). SBA is authorized to guarantee bonds on Federal Contracts or Orders greater than $9,000,000 (as adjusted for inflation in accordance with 41 U.S.C. 1908), but not exceeding $14 million, upon a signed certification of a Federal contracting officer that the SBA guarantee is necessary. The certification must be either express mailed to SBA, Office of Surety Guarantees, 409 Third Street SW, Washington, DC 20416 or sent by email to 
                            <E T="03">suretybonds@sba.gov,</E>
                             and include the following additional information:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Name, address and telephone number of the small business;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Offer or Contract number and brief description of the contract; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) Estimated Contract value and date of anticipated award determination.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 121—SMALL BUSINESS SIZE REGULATIONS </HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="13" PART="121">
                    <AMDPAR>4. The authority citation for part 121 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P> 15 U.S.C. 632, 634(b)(6), 636(a)(36), 662, and 694a(9).</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="13" PART="121">
                    <AMDPAR>5. Amend § 121.301 by revising the introductory text of paragraphs (a), (b), (b)(2), and paragraph (e) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 121.301 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>What size standards and affiliation principles are applicable to financial assistance programs?</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (a) For Business Loans (other than for 7(a) Business Loans) and for Disaster Loans (other than physical disaster 
                            <PRTPAGE P="11713"/>
                            loans), an applicant business concern must satisfy two criteria:
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(b) For 7(a) Business Loans and Development Company programs, an applicant business concern must meet one of the following standards:</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(2) Including its affiliates, tangible net worth not in excess of $20 million, and average net income after Federal income taxes (excluding any carry over losses) for the preceding two completed fiscal years not in excess of $6.5 million. * * *</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (e) The applicable size standards for purposes of SBA's financial assistance programs, excluding the Surety Bond Guarantee assistance program, are increased by 25 percent whenever the applicant agrees to use all of the financial assistance within a labor surplus area. The U.S. Department of Labor (DOL) issues the Labor Surplus Area (LSA) list on a fiscal year basis on its website at 
                            <E T="03">www.dol.gov/agencies/eta/lsa.</E>
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Isabella Casillas Guzman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrator.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-02776 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8026-09-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2023-0933; Project Identifier MCAI-2022-00554-T; Amendment 39-22666; AD 2024-02-02]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited (Type Certificate Previously Held by Bombardier, Inc.) Airplanes</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited Model DHC-8-401 and -402 airplanes. This AD was prompted by reports that the saddle washer (radius filler) for the front and rear spar joints may have been incorrectly manufactured for several years. This AD requires inspecting the horizontal stabilizer to vertical joint for gaps and bending of the saddle washer and adjacent washers, and replacing parts if necessary. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This AD is effective March 21, 2024.</P>
                    <P>The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of March 21, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2023-0933; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this final rule, the mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI), any comments received, and other information. The address for Docket Operations is U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For service information identified in this final rule, contact De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited, Dash 8 Series Customer Response Centre, 5800 Explorer Drive, Mississauga, Ontario, L4W 5K9, Canada; telephone 855-310-1013 or 647-277-5820; email 
                        <E T="03">thd@dehavilland.com;</E>
                         website 
                        <E T="03">dehavilland.com.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • You may view this service information at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2023-0933.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Yaser Osman, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 516-228-7300; email 
                        <E T="03">9-avs-nyaco-cos@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited Model DHC-8-401 and -402 airplanes. The NPRM published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on April 19, 2023 (88 FR 24144). The NPRM was prompted by AD CF-2022-21, dated April 21, 2022, issued by Transport Canada, which is the aviation authority for Canada (referred to after this as the MCAI). The MCAI states that certain saddle washers for the front and rear spar joint may have been incorrectly manufactured for several years. Non-conforming saddle washers could potentially become deformed when installed, and lead to gaps at the horizontal stabilizer to vertical stabilizer joint, that would result in reduction of the pre-load at the joint.
                </P>
                <P>In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to require inspecting the horizontal stabilizer to vertical joint for gaps and bending of the saddle washer and adjacent washers, and replacing parts if necessary. The FAA is issuing this AD to address gapping and bending of the saddle washer that could have the potential to reduce the life of the bolt, which in turn could affect the structural integrity of the horizontal stabilizer to vertical stabilizer joint.</P>
                <P>
                    You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2023-0933.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion of Final Airworthiness Directive</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments</HD>
                <P>The FAA received a comment from the Air Line Pilots Association, International (ALPA). ALPA supported the NPRM without change.</P>
                <P>The FAA received additional comments from De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Refer to New Service Information</HD>
                <P>De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited requested that the FAA revise the proposed AD to refer to De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited Service Bulletin 84-55-12, Revision B, dated April 20, 2023. De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited noted that the service information had been updated since the NPRM was released.</P>
                <P>The FAA agrees with the request. De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited Service Bulletin 84-55-12, Revision B, dated April 20, 2023, provides clarity on service information that may be used to do rework if there are gaps in the new radius fillers (saddle washers), and specifies an additional radius filler part number. The FAA has revised this AD to refer to De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited Service Bulletin 84-55-12, Revision B, dated April 20, 2023. The FAA has also revised paragraph (i) of this AD to provide credit for De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited Service Bulletin 84-55-12, Revision A, dated February 16, 2022.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Revise Corrective Actions</HD>
                <P>
                    De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited requested that the FAA revise paragraph (h) of the proposed AD. The 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11714"/>
                    commenter stated that De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited Service Bulletin 84-55-12, Revision B, dated April 20, 2023, includes instructions for reworking the new radius fillers that exhibit fouling conditions (gapping), and that the proposed AD should be amended to explain this.
                </P>
                <P>The FAA agrees to clarify. Paragraph (h) of this AD requires corrective actions (parts replacements) in accordance with Section 3.B., Part B, of the Accomplishment Instructions of De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited Service Bulletin 84-55-12, Revision B, dated April 20, 2023. The rework the commenter mentioned is part of Section 3.B., Part B, and is specified as part of the corrective actions if gapping is found after replacement of the radius filler. Therefore, that step is included as part of the requirements of paragraph (h) of this AD.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Correct the Number of U.S. Registered Airplanes</HD>
                <P>De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited requested that the FAA revise the cost of compliance section to correct the number of affected airplanes. The commenter stated that the number of aircraft on the U.S. registry is 49, not 400 as stated in the NPRM.</P>
                <P>The FAA agrees that the number of U.S. registered airplanes is less than that specified in the NPRM. After reviewing the FAA registry, the FAA has determined the correct number of affected airplanes is 54. The FAA has revised the Costs of Compliance section accordingly.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
                <P>This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, it has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on this product. Except for minor editorial changes, and any other changes described previously, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Related Service Information Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>The FAA reviewed De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited Service Bulletin 84-55-12, Revision B, dated April 20, 2023. This service information specifies procedures for a detailed visual inspection of the front and rear spar joints for signs of gapping or bending of the radius filler and/or adjacent washers, and depending on the inspection results, replacement of the saddle washer, adjacent washers, bolt, and barrel nut.</P>
                <P>
                    This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates that this AD affects 54 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12C,12C,12C">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs for Required Actions</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost on U.S.
                            <LI>operators</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">5 work-hours × $85 per hour = $425</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$425</ENT>
                        <ENT>$22,950</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The FAA estimates the following costs to do any necessary on-condition action that would be required based on the results of any required actions. The FAA has no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need this on-condition action:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,12C,12C">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs of On-Condition Actions</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2 work-hours × $85 per hour = $170</ENT>
                        <ENT>$5,333</ENT>
                        <ENT>$5,503</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The FAA has included all known costs in its cost estimate. According to the manufacturer, however, some or all of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected operators.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
                <P>(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and</P>
                <P>(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="11715"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="04">2024-02-02 De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited (Type Certificate Previously Held by Bombardier, Inc.):</E>
                         Amendment 39-22666; Docket No. FAA-2023-0933; Project Identifier MCAI-2022-00554-T.
                    </FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Effective Date</HD>
                    <P>This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective March 21, 2024.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                    <P>None.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                    <P>This AD applies to De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited (Type Certificate Previously Held by Bombardier, Inc.) Model DHC-8-401 and -402 airplanes, certificated in any category, having serial numbers 4001 and 4003 through 4633 inclusive.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                    <P>Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code: 55, Stabilizers.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                    <P>This AD was prompted by reports that the saddle washer (radius filler) for the front and rear spar joints may have been incorrectly manufactured for several years. The FAA is issuing this AD to address gaps and bending of the saddle washer that could have the potential to reduce the life of the bolt, which in turn could affect the structural integrity of the horizontal stabilizer to vertical stabilizer joint.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                    <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Inspection</HD>
                    <P>Within 8,000 flight hours after the effective date of this AD, perform a detailed inspection for signs of gapping or bending of the saddle washers and adjacent washers in the front spar and rear spar horizontal/vertical stabilizer joint fitting in accordance with Section 3.B., Part A, of the Accomplishment Instructions of De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited Service Bulletin 84-55-12, Revision B, dated April 20, 2023.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Corrective Actions</HD>
                    <P>If any gaps or bending of the washers are found during the inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, before further flight, replace the saddle washer, washers, PLI washer, bolt, and barrel nut, as applicable, in accordance with Section 3.B., Part B, of the Accomplishment Instructions of De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited Service Bulletin 84-55-12, Revision B, dated April 20, 2023.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) Credit for Previous Actions</HD>
                    <P>This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraphs (g) and (h) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited Service Bulletin 84-55-12, dated September 7, 2021; or De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited Service Bulletin 84-55-12, Revision A, dated February 16, 2022.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Additional AD Provisions</HD>
                    <P>The following provisions also apply to this AD:</P>
                    <P>
                        (1) 
                        <E T="03">Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs):</E>
                         The Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the International Validation Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k)(2) of this AD. Information may be emailed to: 
                        <E T="03">9-avs-nyaco-cos@faa.gov.</E>
                         Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Contacting the Manufacturer:</E>
                         For any requirement in this AD to obtain instructions from a manufacturer, the instructions must be accomplished using a method approved by the Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA; or Transport Canada; or De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited's Transport Canada Design Approval Organization (DAO). If approved by the DAO, the approval must include the DAO-authorized signature.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Additional Information</HD>
                    <P>
                        (1) Refer to Transport Canada AD CF-2022-21, dated April 21, 2022, for related information. This Transport Canada AD may be found in the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2023-0933.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) For more information about this AD, contact Yaser Osman, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 516-228-7300; email 
                        <E T="03">9-avs-nyaco-cos@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(3) Service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the addresses specified in paragraphs (l)(3) and (4) of this AD.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(l) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                    <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                    <P>(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                    <P>(i) De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited Service Bulletin 84-55-12, Revision B, dated April 20, 2023.</P>
                    <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                    <P>
                        (3) For service information identified in this AD, contact De Havilland Aircraft of Canada Limited, Dash 8 Series Customer Response Centre, 5800 Explorer Drive, Mississauga, Ontario, L4W 5K9, Canada; telephone 855-310-1013 or 647-277-5820; email 
                        <E T="03">thd@dehavilland.com;</E>
                         website 
                        <E T="03">dehavilland.com.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.</P>
                    <P>
                        (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                        <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                         or email 
                        <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on January 24, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Victor Wicklund,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Director, Compliance &amp; Airworthiness Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03081 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2023-1649; Project Identifier AD-2022-00905-T; Amendment 39-22667; AD 2024-02-03]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 747-8 and 747-8F series airplanes. This AD was prompted by a report that all six Integrated Display Units (IDUs) became blank when new flight plan data was entered in the Flight Management System (FMS), and by a determination that indication of decaying airspeed in certain scenarios is required. This AD requires installing updated software. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <PRTPAGE P="11716"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This AD is effective March 21, 2024.</P>
                    <P>The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of March 21, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2023-1649; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this final rule, any comments received, and other information. The address for Docket Operations is U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For service information identified in this final rule, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual &amp; Data Services, 2600 Westminster Boulevard., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; website 
                        <E T="03">myboeingfleet.com.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • You may view this service information at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2023-1649.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Raja Vengadasalam, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone 206-231-3537; email 
                        <E T="03">raja.vengadasalam@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain The Boeing Company Model 747-8 and 747-8F series airplanes. The NPRM published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on August 25, 2023 (88 FR 58120). The NPRM was prompted by a report indicating all six IDUs became blank when new flight plan data was entered in the FMS. It was determined that the Jeppesen airport map database (AMDB) had an error in the data structure tied to the Sydney airport (YSSY). The Electronic Flight Instrumentation System/Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System (EICAS) Interface Units (EIUs) were unable to process the data structure, resulting in the displays blanking. Jeppesen subsequently fixed the AMDB to address the issue with YSSY and additional airport codes with an incorrect data structure. The current EIU software is unable to process incorrect data structures, which results in an EIU fault that cannot be cleared by the automated reset function of an EIU. After five resets the EIU defaults to shut down, resulting in all six IDUs, which are controlled by the EIUs, becoming blank. The EIU shut down can also result in an autothrottle disconnect and a degraded autopilot mode. The problem can occur on the ground when an airport code with an incorrect data structure in the AMDB is entered as an origin or destination and the flight plan is then put into operation by the FMS. In flight, the problem can occur when an airport code with an incorrect data structure in the AMDB is entered as the selected diversion airport.
                </P>
                <P>Additionally, the existing software does not provide an earlier indication of decaying airspeed during the landing phase for flap settings 25 and 30. The revised software provides an earlier threshold for triggering the low airspeed alerting EICAS Caution message.</P>
                <P>In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to require installing updated software. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in loss of all flight deck displays (Primary Flight Display/EICAS/Navigation Display, not including standby displays) combined with potential impact to the autopilot and auto-throttle functionality and lack of crew visibility of any subsequent system failures, which can prevent continued safe flight and landing; it could also result in inadequate alerting of decaying airspeed, unacceptably low airspeed, and loss of control of the airplane.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion of Final Airworthiness Directive</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments</HD>
                <P>The FAA received comments from two commenters. Boeing stated it had no technical objection to the proposed AD. An anonymous individual commented generally on the manufacturer but provided no comments on the proposed actions or on the determination of the costs.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
                <P>The FAA reviewed the relevant data, considered any comments received, and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products. Except for minor editorial changes, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Related Service Information Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>The FAA reviewed Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-31A2544 RB, dated March 31, 2020. This service information specifies procedures for installing Integrated Display System (IDS) 804 software in each of the six Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) IDUs and in each of the three EIUs, if not already installed; followed by installing IDS 805 software, which includes EIU software part number COL3F-0034-E805 and LCD software part number 3177-COL-DL8-05.</P>
                <P>
                    This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates that this AD affects 19 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost per product</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost on U.S. operators</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Software Installation</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to 6 work-hours × $85 per hour = $510</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $650</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $1,160</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $22,040.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>
                    The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11717"/>
                    Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
                <P>(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and</P>
                <P>(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 39.13 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            <E T="04">2024-02-03 The Boeing Company:</E>
                             Amendment 39-22667; Docket No. FAA-2023-1649; Project Identifier AD-2022-00905-T.
                        </FP>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Effective Date</HD>
                        <P>This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective March 21, 2024.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                        <P>None.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                        <P>This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 747-8 and 747-8F series airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-31A2544 RB, dated March 31, 2020.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                        <P>Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code: 31, Instruments.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                        <P>This AD was prompted by a report that all six Integrated Display Units (IDUs) became blank when new flight plan data was entered in the Flight Management System, and by a determination that indication of decaying airspeed in certain scenarios is required. The FAA is issuing this AD to address problems with the Electronic Flight Instrumentation System/Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System (EICAS) Interface Units (EIUs), which control the IDUs. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in loss of all flight deck displays (Primary Flight Display/EICAS/Navigation Display, not including standby displays) combined with potential impact to the autopilot and auto-throttle functionality and lack of crew visibility of any subsequent system failures, which can prevent continued safe flight and landing; it could also result in inadequate alerting of decaying airspeed, unacceptably low airspeed, and loss of control of the airplane.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                        <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Required Actions</HD>
                        <P>Except as specified by paragraph (h) of this AD: At the applicable times specified in the “Compliance” paragraph of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-31A2544 RB, dated March 31, 2020, do all applicable actions identified in, and in accordance with, the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-31A2544 RB, dated March 31, 2020.</P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="04">Note 1 to paragraph (g):</E>
                             Guidance for accomplishing the actions required by this AD can be found in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-31A2544, dated March 31, 2020, which is referred to in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-31A2544 RB, dated March 31, 2020.
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Exceptions to Service Information Specifications</HD>
                        <P>(1) Where the Compliance Time column of the table in the “Compliance” paragraph of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-31A2544 RB, dated March 31, 2020, uses the phrase “the original issue date of Requirements Bulletin 747-31A2544 RB,” this AD requires using “the effective date of this AD.”</P>
                        <P>(2) For Group 2 airplanes identified in Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-31A2544 RB, dated March 31, 2020: The concurrent requirements specified in Action 1 of Table 1 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-31A2544 RB, dated March 31, 2020, do not apply.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)</HD>
                        <P>
                            (1) The Manager, AIR-520 Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the certification office, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j) of this AD. Information may be emailed to: 
                            <E T="03">9-ANM-Seattle-ACO-AMOC-Requests@faa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.</P>
                        <P>(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by The Boeing Company Organization Designation Authorization that has been authorized by the Manager, AIR-520 Continued Operational Safety Branch, FAA, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Related Information</HD>
                        <P>
                            For more information about this AD, contact Raja Vengadasalam, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; telephone 206-231-3537; email 
                            <E T="03">raja.vengadasalam@faa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                        <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                        <P>(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                        <P>(i) Boeing Alert Requirements Bulletin 747-31A2544 RB, dated March 31, 2020.</P>
                        <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual &amp; Data Services, 2600 Westminster Boulevard, MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; website 
                            <E T="03">myboeingfleet.com.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                            <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                             or email 
                            <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="11718"/>
                    <DATED>Issued on January 26, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Michael Linegang,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Compliance &amp; Airworthiness Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03082 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2024-0039; Project Identifier MCAI-2023-00966-R; Amendment 39-22665; AD 2024-02-01]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Helicopters</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Airbus Helicopters Model EC225LP helicopters. This AD was prompted by a report of incorrect door opening instructions on the placards located on the right hand (RH) side of the VIP flap door. This AD requires installing a placard specifying jettisoning instructions, as specified in a European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD, which is incorporated by reference. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This AD is effective March 1, 2024.</P>
                    <P>The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of March 1, 2024.</P>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this AD by April 1, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2024-0039; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this final rule, the EASA AD, any comments received, and other information. The street address for Docket Operations is listed above.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For EASA material incorporated by reference in this final rule, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email 
                        <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu.</E>
                         You may find this material on the EASA website at 
                        <E T="03">https://ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • You may view this material at the FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy., Room 6N-321, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110. The EASA material is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2024-0039.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Other Related Service Information:</E>
                         For Airbus Helicopters service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus Helicopters, 2701 North Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; telephone (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax (972) 641-3775; or at 
                        <E T="03">airbus.com/en/products-services/helicopters/hcare-services/airbusworld.</E>
                         You may also view this service information at the FAA contact information under 
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference</E>
                         above.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        William McCully, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, International Validation Branch, FAA, 1600 Stewart Ave., Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone (404) 474-5548; email 
                        <E T="03">william.mccully@faa.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA invites you to send any written data, views, or arguments about this final rule. Send your comments to an address listed under 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Include “Docket No. FAA-2024-0039; Project Identifier MCAI-2023-00966-R” at the beginning of your comments. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the final rule, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. The FAA will consider all comments received by the closing date and may amend this final rule because of those comments.
                </P>
                <P>Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to regulations.gov, including any personal information you provide. The agency will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact received about this final rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Confidential Business Information</HD>
                <P>
                    CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this AD contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this AD, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this AD. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to William McCully, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, International Validation Branch, FAA, 1600 Stewart Ave., Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone (404) 474-5548; email 
                    <E T="03">william.mccully@faa.gov.</E>
                     Any commentary that the FAA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA AD 2022-0072, dated April 26, 2022 (EASA AD 2022-0072), to correct an unsafe condition on Airbus Helicopters Model EC 225 LP helicopters, serial numbers 2650, 2651, 2653, 2684, 2712, and 2796.</P>
                <P>This AD was prompted by a report that placards located on the RH side of the VIP flap door of the passenger cabin do not provide adequate door opening instructions necessary to operate the RH side VIP flap door in case of the helicopter ditching. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could prevent jettisoning of the RH side VIP flap door during an emergency situation, possibly obstructing evacuation and resulting in injury to occupants.</P>
                <P>
                    You may examine the EASA AD in the AD docket at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2024-0039.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Related Service Information Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>
                    EASA AD 2022-0072 requires installing a placard over the current placard, which correctly specifies 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11719"/>
                    jettisoning instructions for the RH side of the VIP flap door.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Other Related Service Information</HD>
                <P>The FAA reviewed Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) No. EC225-52A023, Revision 0, dated January 22, 2020 for Model EC225LP helicopters. This service information specifies instructions for covering the existing incorrect placard with a correct placard, and reporting certain information to the manufacturer.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination</HD>
                <P>These helicopters have been approved by EASA and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with the European Union, EASA has notified the FAA about the unsafe condition described in its AD. The FAA is issuing this AD after evaluating all known relevant information and determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other helicopters of the same type design.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">AD Requirements</HD>
                <P>This AD requires accomplishing the actions specified in EASA AD 2022-0072, described previously, as incorporated by reference, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this AD and except as discussed under “Differences Between this AD and the EASA AD.”</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Explanation of Required Compliance Information</HD>
                <P>
                    In the FAA's ongoing efforts to improve the efficiency of the AD process, the FAA developed a process to use some civil aviation authority (CAA) ADs as the primary source of information for compliance with requirements for corresponding FAA ADs. The FAA has been coordinating this process with manufacturers and CAAs. As a result, EASA AD 2022-0072 will be incorporated by reference in this FAA final rule. This AD would, therefore, require compliance with EASA AD 2022-0072 in its entirety through that incorporation, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this AD. Using common terms that are the same as the heading of a particular section in EASA AD 2022-0072 does not mean that operators need comply only with that section. For example, where the AD requirement refers to “all required actions and compliance times,” compliance with this AD requirement is not limited to the section titled “Required Action(s) and Compliance Time(s)” in EASA AD 2022-0072. Service information referenced in EASA AD 2022-0072 for compliance will be available at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2024-0039.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Differences Between This AD and the EASA AD</HD>
                <P>Service information referenced in EASA AD 2022-0072 specified reporting certain information to Airbus Helicopters, including sending pictures, whereas this AD does not require reporting any information or sending any pictures.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Justification for Immediate Adoption and Determination of the Effective Date</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 553(b)(3)(B) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 551 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) authorizes agencies to dispense with notice and comment procedures for rules when the agency, for “good cause,” finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” Under this section, an agency, upon finding good cause, may issue a final rule without providing notice and seeking comment prior to issuance. Further, section 553(d) of the APA authorizes agencies to make rules effective in less than thirty days, upon a finding of good cause.
                </P>
                <P>There are currently no domestic operators of these products. Accordingly, notice and opportunity for prior public comment are unnecessary, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3)(B). In addition, for the foregoing reasons, the FAA finds that good cause exists pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d) for making this amendment effective in less than 30 days.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>The requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) do not apply when an agency finds good cause pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553 to adopt a rule without prior notice and comment. Because the FAA has determined that it has good cause to adopt this rule without prior notice and comment, RFA analysis is not required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>There are no costs of compliance with this AD because there are no helicopters with this type certificate on the U.S. Registry.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866, and</P>
                <P>(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            <E T="04">2024-02-01 Airbus Helicopters:</E>
                             Amendment 39-22665; Docket No. FAA-2024-0039; Project Identifier MCAI-2023-00966-R.
                        </FP>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Effective Date</HD>
                        <P>
                            This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective March 1, 2024.
                            <PRTPAGE P="11720"/>
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                        <P>None.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                        <P>This AD applies to Airbus Helicopters Model EC225LP helicopters, serial numbers 2650, 2651, 2653, 2684, 2712, and 2796, certificated in any category.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                        <P>Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC) Code: 5210, Passenger crew doors.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                        <P>This AD was prompted by a report of incorrect door opening instructions on the placard located on the right-hand (RH) side of the VIP flap door. The FAA is issuing this AD to address and correct placards on the RH side VIP flap door. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could prevent jettisoning of the RH side VIP flap door during an emergency situation, possibly obstructing evacuation and resulting in injury to occupants.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                        <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Required Actions</HD>
                        <P>Except as specified in paragraphs (h) and (i) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2022-0072, dated April 26, 2022 (EASA AD 2022-0072).</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Exceptions to EASA AD 2022-0072</HD>
                        <P>(1) Where EASA AD 2022-0072 refers to its effective date, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                        <P>(2) Where EASA AD 2022-0072 refers to flight hours, this AD requires using hours time-in-service.</P>
                        <P>(3) Where the paragraph defined as placard installation in EASA AD 2022-0072 states “in accordance with the instructions of the ASB,” for this AD, replace that text with “in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions, paragraph 3.B of the ASB.”</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) No Reporting Requirement</HD>
                        <P>Although the service information referenced in EASA AD 2022-0072 specifies to submit certain information to the manufacturer, this AD does not include that requirement.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)</HD>
                        <P>
                            The Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in § 39.19. In accordance with § 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the International Validation Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k) of this AD. Information may be emailed to: 
                            <E T="03">9-AVS-AIR-730-AMOC@faa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Related Information</HD>
                        <P>
                            For more information about this AD, contact William McCully, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, International Validation Branch, FAA, 1600 Stewart Ave., Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; phone (404) 474-5548; email 
                            <E T="03">william.mccully@faa.gov</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(l) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                        <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                        <P>(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                        <P>(i) European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2022-0072, dated April 26, 2022.</P>
                        <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) For EASA AD 2022-0072, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email 
                            <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu;</E>
                             internet 
                            <E T="03">easa.europa.eu.</E>
                             You may find the EASA material on the EASA website at 
                            <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy., Room 6N-321, Fort Worth, TX 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                            <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                             or email 
                            <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on January 24, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Victor Wicklund,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Director, Compliance &amp; Airworthiness Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03137 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2023-2136; Project Identifier MCAI-2023-00759-T; Amendment 39-22659; AD 2024-01-08]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Airbus SAS Airplanes</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA is superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2019-16-11, which applied to certain Airbus SAS Model A300 F4-605R and FR-622R airplanes. AD 2019-16-11 required repetitive high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspections of the aft lower deck cargo door (LDCD) frame forks; a one-time check of the LDCD clearances; a one-time detailed visual inspection of hooks, eccentric bushes, and x-stops; and corrective actions if necessary. This AD was prompted by a determination that the threshold for the (repetitive) HFEC inspection needs to be corrected, and the LDCD frame forks modified. This AD continues to require the actions in AD 2019-16-11, requires correcting the HFEC inspection threshold and modifying the LDCD frame forks, and prohibits the installation of affected LDCDs under certain conditions; as specified in a European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD, which is incorporated by reference. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This AD is effective March 21, 2024.</P>
                    <P>The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of March 21, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2023-2136; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this final rule, the mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI), any comments received, and other information. The address for Docket Operations is U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For EASA material identified in this final rule, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email 
                        <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu;</E>
                         website 
                        <E T="03">easa.europa.eu.</E>
                         You may find this material on the EASA website 
                        <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available in the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2023-2136.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Dan Rodina, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 206-231-3225; email 
                        <E T="03">dan.rodina@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">
                    SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
                    <PRTPAGE P="11721"/>
                </HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to supersede AD 2019-16-11, Amendment 39-19714 (84 FR 45061, August 28, 2019) (AD 2019-16-11). AD 2019-16-11 applied to certain Airbus SAS Model A300 F4-605R and F4-622R airplanes. AD 2019-16-11 required repetitive HFEC inspections of the aft LDCD frame forks; a one-time check of the LDCD clearances; a one-time detailed visual inspection of hooks, eccentric bushes, and x-stops; and corrective actions if necessary. The FAA issued AD 2019-16-11 to address cracked or ruptured aft LDCD frames, which could allow loads to be transferred to the remaining structural elements. This condition could lead to the rupture of one or more vertical aft LDCD frames, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the aft LDCD.</P>
                <P>
                    The NPRM published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on October 31, 2023 (88 FR 74369). The NPRM was prompted by AD 2023-0117, dated June 13, 2023, issued by EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union (EASA AD 2023-0117) (also referred to as the MCAI). The MCAI states that based on more detailed stress analyses, it has been determined that the threshold for the (repetitive) HFEC inspection could be extended from 12,500 flight hours to 26,455 flight hours for those affected parts installed on an LDCD that has been modified or replaced. It was also determined that an incorrect HFEC inspection threshold had been defined for the affected parts that have not been modified or replaced. Additional widespread fatigue damage analysis determined that all frame forks of affected LDCDs are susceptible to crack development, which compromises the structural integrity of the LDCD and therefore of the airplane.
                </P>
                <P>In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to continue to require the actions in AD 2019-16-11 and require correcting the HFEC inspection threshold, modifying the LDCD frame forks, and prohibit the installation of affected LDCDs under certain conditions, as specified in EASA AD 2023-0117. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                <P>
                    You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2023-2136.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion of Final Airworthiness Directive</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments</HD>
                <P>The FAA received comments from FedEx Express and the Air Line Pilots Association, International (ALPA), who supported the NPRM without change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
                <P>This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, it has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on this product. Except for minor editorial changes, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Related Service Information Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>EASA AD 2023-0117 specifies procedures for repetitive HFEC inspections for cracks of the aft LDCD frame forks; a one-time check of the LDCD clearances; a one-time detailed visual inspection for signs of wear on the hooks, eccentric bushes, and x-stops; and corrective actions if necessary. In addition, EASA AD 2023-0117 specifies procedures for modifying frame forks that have not been reinforced. EASA AD 2023-0117 also prohibits the installation of affected LDCDs under certain conditions.</P>
                <P>
                    This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates that this AD affects 58 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,12,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs for Required Actions</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Action</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost per product</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost on U.S.
                            <LI>operators</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Retained actions from AD 2019-16-11</ENT>
                        <ENT>15 work-hours × $85 per hour = $1,275</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,275</ENT>
                        <ENT>$73,950.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">New actions</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to 38 work-hours × $85 per hour = $3,230</ENT>
                        <ENT>850</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $4,080</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $236,640.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The FAA has received no definitive data on which to base the cost estimates for certain on-condition repairs specified in this AD.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
                <P>(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and</P>
                <P>(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="11722"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Removing Airworthiness Directive 2019-16-11, Amendment 39-19714 (84 FR 45061, August 28, 2019); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Adding the following new Airworthiness Directive:</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="04">2024-01-08 Airbus SAS:</E>
                         Amendment 39-22659; Docket No. FAA-2023-2136; Project Identifier MCAI-2023-00759-T.
                    </FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Effective Date</HD>
                    <P>This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective March 21, 2024.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                    <P>This AD replaces AD 2019-16-11, Amendment 39-19714 (84 FR 45061, August 28, 2019) (AD 2019-16-11).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                    <P>This AD applies to Airbus SAS Model A300 F4-605R and F4-622R airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2023-0117, dated June 13, 2023 (EASA AD 2023-0117).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                    <P>Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code: 52, Doors.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                    <P>This AD was prompted by a report of two adjacent frame forks that were found cracked on the aft lower deck cargo door (LDCD) of two airplanes during scheduled maintenance, and a determination that certain compliance times need to be revised. The FAA is also issuing this AD to address the susceptibility of the frame forks of affected LDCDs to develop cracks, which could lead to additional rupture of one or more LDCD frame forks, compromising the structural integrity of the LDCD and therefore of the airplane.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                    <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Requirements</HD>
                    <P>Except as specified in paragraph (h) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, EASA AD 2023-0117.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Exceptions to EASA AD 2023-0117</HD>
                    <P>(1) Where EASA AD 2023-0117 refers to its effective date, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                    <P>(2) Where Table 2 of EASA AD 2023-0117 refers to the effective date of EASA AD 2015-0152R1, dated May 23, 2017, this AD requires using November 5, 2018 (the effective date of AD 2018-20-06, Amendment 39-19440 (83 FR 49265, October 1, 2018)).</P>
                    <P>(3) Where Table 2 of EASA AD 2023-0117 refers to the effective date of EASA AD 2015-0152, dated July 24, 2015, this AD requires using January 26, 2017 (the effective date of AD 2016-25-03, Amendment 39-18729 (81 FR 93801, December 22, 2016)).</P>
                    <P>(4) Where paragraph (6) of EASA AD 2023-0117 uses the phrase “before next flight, contact Airbus for approved corrective action instructions, and within the compliance time specified therein, accomplish those instructions accordingly,” this AD requires replacing those words with “repair cracking before further flight using a method approved by the Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA; or EASA; or Airbus SAS's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA). If approved by the DOA, the approval must include the DOA-authorized signature.”</P>
                    <P>(5) This AD does not adopt the “Remarks” section of EASA AD 2023-0117.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) No Reporting Requirement</HD>
                    <P>Although the service information referenced in EASA AD 2023-0117 specifies to submit certain information to the manufacturer, this AD does not include that requirement.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Additional AD Provisions</HD>
                    <P>The following provisions also apply to this AD:</P>
                    <P>
                        (1) 
                        <E T="03">Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs):</E>
                         The Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the International Validation Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k) of this AD. Information may be emailed to: 
                        <E T="03">9-AVS-AIR-730-AMOC@faa.gov.</E>
                         Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Contacting the Manufacturer:</E>
                         For any requirement in this AD to obtain instructions from a manufacturer, the instructions must be accomplished using a method approved by the Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA; or EASA; or Airbus SAS's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA). If approved by the DOA, the approval must include the DOA-authorized signature.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (3) 
                        <E T="03">Required for Compliance (RC):</E>
                         Except as required by paragraphs (h)(4) and (j)(2) of this AD, if any service information contains procedures or tests that are identified as RC, those procedures and tests must be done to comply with this AD; any procedures or tests that are not identified as RC are recommended. Those procedures and tests that are not identified as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the procedures and tests identified as RC can be done and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition. Any substitutions or changes to procedures or tests identified as RC require approval of an AMOC.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Additional Information</HD>
                    <P>
                        For more information about this AD, contact Dan Rodina, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 206-231-3225; email 
                        <E T="03">dan.rodina@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">(l) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                    <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                    <P>(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                    <P>(i) European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2023-0117, dated June 13, 2023.</P>
                    <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                    <P>
                        (3) For EASA AD 2023-0117, contact EASA, Konrad-Adenauer-Ufer 3, 50668 Cologne, Germany; telephone +49 221 8999 000; email 
                        <E T="03">ADs@easa.europa.eu;</E>
                         website 
                        <E T="03">easa.europa.eu.</E>
                         You may find this EASA AD on the EASA website 
                        <E T="03">ad.easa.europa.eu.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.</P>
                    <P>
                        (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                        <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations,</E>
                         or email 
                        <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on January 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Caitlin Locke,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Compliance &amp; Airworthiness Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03080 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2023-2145; Project Identifier MCAI-2023-00358-T; Amendment 39-22660; AD 2024-01-09]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Bombardier, Inc., Airplanes</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="11723"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA is adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Bombardier, Inc., Model BD-100-1A10 airplanes. This AD was prompted by a report of a steering control unit (SCU) filter plate connector that does not meet the certification requirements for exposure of electronic components to high intensity radiated field environments, which could result in malfunction of the nose wheel steering (NWS) system. This AD requires determining if the SCU is an affected SCU, replacing all affected SCUs, and rigging and testing the NWS control. This AD also prohibits installing an affected SCU on any airplane. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This AD is effective March 21, 2024.</P>
                    <P>The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of March 21, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2023-2145; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this final rule, the mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI), any comments received, and other information. The address for Docket Operations is U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For service information identified in this final rule, contact Bombardier Business Aircraft Customer Response Center, 400 Côte-Vertu Road West, Dorval, Québec H4S 1Y9, Canada; telephone 514-855-2999; email 
                        <E T="03">ac.yul@aero.bombardier.com</E>
                        ; website 
                        <E T="03">bombardier.com</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • You may view this service information at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2023-2145.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        William Reisenauer, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 516-228-7301; email 
                        <E T="03">9-avs-nyaco-cos@faa.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to all Bombardier, Inc., Model BD-100-1A10 airplanes. The NPRM published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on November 13, 2023 (88 FR 77538). The NPRM was prompted by AD CF-2023-13, dated February 24, 2023, issued by Transport Canada, which is the aviation authority for Canada (referred to after this as the MCAI). The MCAI states that the manufacturer of SCU part number (P/N) 46000-01 introduced a new filter plate connector that does not meet the certification requirements related to the susceptibility of electronic components to high intensity radiated field. According to the MCAI, this non-compliant filter plate connector, if not replaced, could result in a malfunction of the NWS system and cause un-commanded steering or lateral excursion from the runway.
                </P>
                <P>In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to require determining if the SCU is an affected SCU, replacing all affected SCUs, and rigging and testing the NWS control. In the NPRM, the FAA also proposed to prohibit installing an affected SCU on any airplane. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                <P>
                    You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2023-2145.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Discussion of Final Airworthiness Directive</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments</HD>
                <P>The FAA received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Conclusion</HD>
                <P>This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, it has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety requires adopting this AD as proposed. Accordingly, the FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on this product. Except for minor editorial changes, this AD is adopted as proposed in the NPRM. None of the changes will increase the economic burden on any operator.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Related Service Information Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA reviewed Bombardier Service Bulletin 100-32-34, dated October 18, 2021, and Bombardier Service Bulletin 350-32-010, dated October 18, 2021. This service information specifies procedures for determining the serial number of SCU P/N 46000-01, replacing any affected SCU, and rigging and testing the NWS control. These documents are distinct since they apply to different airplane serial numbers. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates that this AD affects 725 airplanes of U.S. registry. The FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this AD:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="04" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,12C,12C,12C">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs for Required Actions</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost on U.S. operators</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">9 work-hours × $85 per hour = $765</ENT>
                        <ENT>$44,950</ENT>
                        <ENT>$45,715</ENT>
                        <ENT>$33,143,375</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The FAA has included all known costs in its cost estimate. According to the manufacturer, however, some of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected operators.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>
                    The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11724"/>
                    44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
                <P>(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and</P>
                <P>(3) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            <E T="04">2024-01-09 Bombardier, Inc.:</E>
                             Amendment 39-22660; Docket No. FAA-2023-2145; Project Identifier MCAI-2023-00358-T.
                        </FP>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Effective Date</HD>
                        <P>This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective March 21, 2024.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                        <P>None.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                        <P>This AD applies to all Bombardier, Inc., Model BD-100-1A10 airplanes, certificated in any category.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                        <P>Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 32, Landing gear.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                        <P>This AD was prompted by a report of a steering control unit (SCU) filter plate connector that does not meet the certification requirements for exposure of electronic components to high intensity radiated field environments. The FAA is issuing this AD to prevent malfunction of the nose wheel steering (NWS) system. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in un-commanded steering or lateral runway excursion.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                        <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Inspection or Records Review</HD>
                        <P>Within 24 months after the effective date of this AD: Inspect the SCU to determine if SCU part number (P/N) 46000-01 with a serial number listed in Figure 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD is installed on the airplane. A review of the airplane maintenance records is acceptable in lieu of the inspection if the SCU P/N and serial number can be conclusively determined from that review. If an SCU P/N 46000-01 with a serial number listed in Figure 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD is not installed on the airplane, or if the SCU identification plate is marked with SB100-32-030, then no further action is required by this AD; however, the installation prohibition in paragraph (i) of this AD still applies.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Figure 1 to Paragraph (g)—Affected SCU Serial Numbers</HD>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="528">
                            <PRTPAGE P="11725"/>
                            <GID>ER15FE24.018</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Replacement</HD>
                        <P>For airplanes with SCU P/N 46000-01 with a serial number listed in Figure 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD installed and not marked on the SCU identification plate with SB100-32-030: Within 24 months after the effective date of this AD, replace the SCU and rig and test the NWS control, in accordance with the instructions in paragraph (h)(1), (2), or (3) of this AD, as applicable.</P>
                        <P>(1) For airplane serial numbers 20001 through 20500 inclusive: Steps 2.C.(1) and 2.C.(3) of Section 2.C., “Part B—Modification,” and Section 2.D., “Testing,” of the Accomplishment Instructions in Bombardier Service Bulletin 100-32-34, dated October 18, 2021.</P>
                        <P>(2) For airplane serial numbers 20501 through 20893 inclusive: Steps 2.C.(1) and 2.C.(3) of Section 2.C., “Part B—Modification,” and Section 2.D., “Testing,” of the Accomplishment Instructions in Bombardier Service Bulletin 350-32-010, dated October 18, 2021.</P>
                        <P>(3) For airplane serial numbers 20894 and larger: A method approved by the Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA; or Transport Canada; or Bombardier, Inc.'s Transport Canada Design Approval Organization (DAO). If approved by the DAO, the approval must include the DAO-authorized signature.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) Parts Installation Prohibition</HD>
                        <P>As of the effective date of this AD, do not install SCU P/N 46000-01 on any airplane if the serial number of the SCU is listed in figure 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD, unless the SCU identification plate has been marked with SB100-32-030.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Additional AD Provisions</HD>
                        <P>
                            The following provisions also apply to this AD:
                            <PRTPAGE P="11726"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs):</E>
                             The Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the International Validation Branch, mail it to the address identified in paragraph (k)(2) of this AD. Information may be emailed to: 
                            <E T="03">9-avs-nyaco-cos@faa.gov</E>
                            . Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the responsible Flight Standards Office.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Contacting the Manufacturer:</E>
                             For any requirement in this AD to obtain instructions from a manufacturer, the instructions must be accomplished using a method approved by the Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA; or Transport Canada or Bombardier, Inc.'s Transport Canada Design Approval Organization (DAO). If approved by the DAO, the approval must include the DAO-authorized signature.
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Additional Information</HD>
                        <P>
                            (1) Refer to Transport Canada AD CF-2023-13, dated February 24, 2023, for related information. This Transport Canada AD may be found in the AD docket at 
                            <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                             under Docket No. FAA-2023-2145.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) For more information about this AD, contact William Reisenauer, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 516-228-7301; email 
                            <E T="03">9-avs-nyaco-cos@faa.gov</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(l) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                        <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                        <P>(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                        <P>(i) Bombardier Service Bulletin 100-32-34, dated October 18, 2021.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Bombardier Service Bulletin 350-32-010, dated October 18, 2021.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Bombardier Business Aircraft Customer Response Center, 400 Côte-Vertu Road West, Dorval, Québec H4S 1Y9, Canada; telephone 514-855-2999; email 
                            <E T="03">ac.yul@aero.bombardier.com</E>
                            ; website 
                            <E T="03">bombardier.com</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                        <P>(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                            <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                             or email 
                            <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on January 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Caitlin Locke,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Compliance &amp; Airworthiness Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03047 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 97</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 31530; Amdt. No. 4099]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This rule establishes, amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPS) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure procedures (ODPs) for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective February 15, 2024. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.</P>
                    <P>The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of February 15, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Availability of matters incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:</P>
                </ADD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">For Examination</HD>
                <P>1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30. 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.</P>
                <P>2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;</P>
                <P>3. The office of Aeronautical Information Services, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 or,</P>
                <P>
                    4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                    <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                     or email 
                    <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability</HD>
                <P>
                    All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center at 
                    <E T="03">nfdc.faa.gov</E>
                     to register. Additionally, individual SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP copies may be obtained from the FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located.
                </P>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedures and Airspace Group, Flight Technologies and Procedures Division, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration. Mailing Address: FAA Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, Flight Procedures and Airspace Group, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., STB Annex, Bldg. 26, Room 217, Oklahoma City, OK 73099. Telephone (405) 954-1139.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This rule amends 14 CFR part 97 by establishing, amending, suspending, or removes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPS. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP and its associated Takeoff Minimums or ODP for an identified airport is listed on FAA form documents which are incorporated by reference in this amendment under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR 97.20. The applicable FAA Forms 8260-3, 8260-4, 8260-5, 8260-15A, 8260-15B, when required by an entry on 8260-15A, and 8260-15C.</P>
                <P>
                    The large number of SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     expensive and impractical. Further, pilots do not use the regulatory text of the SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums or ODPs, but instead refer to their graphic depiction on charts printed by publishers or aeronautical materials. Thus, the advantages of incorporation by reference are realized and publication of the complete description of each SIAP, Takeoff Minimums and ODP listed on FAA form documents is unnecessary. This amendment provides the affected CFR sections and specifies the types of SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs with their applicable effective dates. This amendment also identifies the airport and its location, the procedure, and the amendment number.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11727"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability and Summary of Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPs as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Rule</HD>
                <P>This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP, Takeoff Minimums and ODP as amended in the transmittal. Some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and textual ODP amendments may have been issued previously by the FAA in a Flight Data Center (FDC) Notice to Air Missions (NOTAM) as an emergency action of immediate flights safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.</P>
                <P>The circumstances that created the need for some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments may require making them effective in less than 30 days. For the remaining SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, an effective date at least 30 days after publication is provided.</P>
                <P>Further, the SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, the TERPS criteria were applied to the conditions existing or anticipated at the affected airports. Because of the close and immediate relationship between these SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, and safety in air commerce, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and, where applicable, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d), good cause exists for making some SIAPs effective in less than 30 days.</P>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Lists of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 97</HD>
                    <P>Air Traffic Control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (Air).</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on February 2, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Thomas J. Nichols,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Aviation Safety, Flight Standards Service, Manager, Standards Section, Flight Procedures &amp; Airspace Group, Flight Technologies &amp; Procedures Division.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adoption of the Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, 14 CFR part 97 is amended by establishing, amending, suspending, or removing Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and/or Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 97—STANDARD INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="97">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 97 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="97">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Part 97 is amended to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Effective 21 March 2024</HD>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Anchorage, AK, PAMR, RNAV (GPS) RWY 34, Orig</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Anchorage, AK, PAMR, RNAV (GPS) Y RWY 7, Orig</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Anchorage, AK, PAMR, RNAV (GPS) Z RWY 7, Orig</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Fort Huachuca Sierra Vista, AZ, KFHU, RADAR 1, Orig-B, CANCELED</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Fort Huachuca Sierra Vista, AZ, KFHU, RADAR 2, Orig-B, CANCELED</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Nogales, AZ, KOLS, NOGALES THREE, Graphic DP</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Nogales, AZ, OLS, RNAV (GPS)-A, Orig</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Nogales, AZ, KOLS, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 4</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Nogales, AZ, OLS, VOR-B, Orig</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Nogales, AZ, KOLS, VOR/DME OR GPS-B, Amdt 2D, CANCELED</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Mountain View, CA, NUQ, RNAV (GPS) RWY 32R, Amdt 1A</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Watsonville, CA, WVI, LOC RWY 2, Amdt 4E</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Keokuk, IA, KEOK, RNAV (GPS) RWY 26, Amdt 1A</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Somerset, KY, SME, ILS OR LOC RWY 5, Orig-G</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Somerset, KY, SME, RNAV (GPS) RWY 5, Orig-C</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Somerset, KY, SME, RNAV (GPS) RWY 23, Amdt 2A</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Houlton, ME, HUL, RNAV (GPS) RWY 23, Orig</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Houlton, ME, HUL, RNAV (GPS)-A, Orig-B, CANCELED</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Battle Creek, MI, BTL, RNAV (GPS) RWY 5L, Amdt 1D</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Battle Creek, MI, BTL, RNAV (GPS) RWY 23R, Amdt 1E</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Kalamazoo, MI, KAZO, RNAV (GPS) RWY 5, Amdt 1A</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Pedricktown, NJ, 7N7, RNAV (GPS) RWY 7, Orig-A, CANCELED</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Pedricktown, NJ, 7N7, RNAV (GPS) RWY 25, Amdt 1A, CANCELED</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Pedricktown, NJ, 7N7, Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 1, CANCELED</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Batavia, OH, I69, VOR-B, Amdt 7C, CANCELED</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Dayton, OH, DAY, ILS OR LOC RWY 18, Amdt 11A</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Mifflintown, PA, P34, RNAV (GPS) RWY 26, Orig-C</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Wagner, SD, AGZ, RNAV (GPS) RWY 9, Orig-D</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Beaumont, TX, BMT, RNAV (GPS) RWY 31, Amdt 2</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Beaumont, TX, KBMT, VOR/DME RWY 13, Amdt 3E, CANCELED</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Beaumont, TX, KBMT, VOR/DME RWY 31, Amdt 4E, CANCELED</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sulphur Springs, TX, SLR, RNAV (GPS) RWY 19, Orig-F</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Petersburg, VA, PTB, RNAV (GPS) RWY 5, Amdt 3</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Petersburg, VA, PTB, RNAV (GPS) RWY 23, Amdt 3</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Renton, WA, RNT, RNAV (GPS) Y RWY 16, Amdt 6</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03135 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 97</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 31531; Amdt. No. 4100]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This rule amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide for the safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This rule is effective February 15, 2024. The compliance date for each 
                        <PRTPAGE P="11728"/>
                        SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.
                    </P>
                    <P>The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of February 15, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Availability of matter incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:</P>
                </ADD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">For Examination</HD>
                <P>1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001;</P>
                <P>2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;</P>
                <P>3. The office of Aeronautical Information Services, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 or,</P>
                <P>4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).</P>
                <P>
                    For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                    <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                     or email 
                    <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability</HD>
                <P>
                    All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center online at 
                    <E T="03">nfdc.faa.gov</E>
                     to register. Additionally, individual SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP copies may be obtained from the FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located.
                </P>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedures and Airspace Group, Flight Technologies and Procedures Division, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration. Mailing Address: FAA Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, Flight Procedures and Airspace Group, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., STB Annex, Bldg. 26, Room 217, Oklahoma City, OK 73099. Telephone: (405) 954-1139.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This rule amends 14 CFR part 97 by amending the referenced SIAPs. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP is listed on the appropriate FAA Form 8260, as modified by the National Flight Data Center (NFDC)/Permanent Notice to Air Missions (P-NOTAM), and is incorporated by reference under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR 97.20. The large number of SIAPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make their verbatim publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     expensive and impractical. Further, pilots do not use the regulatory text of the SIAPs, but refer to their graphic depiction on charts printed by publishers of aeronautical materials. Thus, the advantages of incorporation by reference are realized and publication of the complete description of each SIAP contained on FAA form documents is unnecessary. This amendment provides the affected CFR sections, and specifies the SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs with their applicable effective dates. This amendment also identifies the airport and its location, the procedure and the amendment number.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability and Summary of Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                <P>
                    The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Rule</HD>
                <P>This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP as amended in the transmittal. For safety and timeliness of change considerations, this amendment incorporates only specific changes contained for each SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP as modified by FDC permanent NOTAMs.</P>
                <P>The SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, as modified by FDC permanent NOTAM, and contained in this amendment are based on criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these changes to SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, the TERPS criteria were applied only to specific conditions existing at the affected airports. All SIAP amendments in this rule have been previously issued by the FAA in a FDC NOTAM as an emergency action of immediate flight safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.</P>
                <P>The circumstances that created the need for these SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments require making them effective in less than 30 days.</P>
                <P>Because of the close and immediate relationship between these SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, and safety in air commerce, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and, where applicable, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d), good cause exists for making these SIAPs effective in less than 30 days.</P>
                <P>The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 97</HD>
                    <P>Air Traffic Control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (Air).</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on February 2, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Thomas J. Nichols,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Aviation Safety, Flight Standards Service, Manager, Standards Section, Flight Procedures &amp; Airspace Group, Flight Technologies &amp; Procedures Division.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adoption of the Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, 14 CFR part 97 is amended by amending Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 97—STANDARD INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURES </HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="97">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 97 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="97">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Part 97 is amended to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <P>By amending: § 97.23 VOR, VOR/DME, VOR or TACAN, and VOR/DME or TACAN; § 97.25 LOC, LOC/DME, LDA, LDA/DME, SDF, SDF/DME; § 97.27 NDB, NDB/DME; § 97.29 ILS, ILS/DME, MLS, MLS/DME, MLS/RNAV; § 97.31 RADAR SIAPs; § 97.33 RNAV SIAPs; and § 97.35 COPTER SIAPs, Identified as follows:</P>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP>* * * EFFECTIVE UPON PUBLICATION</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="11729"/>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="xs48,xls24,r30,r30,10,10,r50">
                        <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">AIRAC date</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">State</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">City</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Airport name</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">FDC No.</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">FDC date</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Procedure name</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3/21/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>VA</ENT>
                            <ENT>Martinsville</ENT>
                            <ENT>Blue Ridge</ENT>
                            <ENT>3/0279</ENT>
                            <ENT>12/27/23</ENT>
                            <ENT>LOC RWY 31, Amdt 2.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3/21/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>PA</ENT>
                            <ENT>Waynesburg</ENT>
                            <ENT>Greene County</ENT>
                            <ENT>3/0698</ENT>
                            <ENT>1/25/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>RNAV (GPS) RWY 27, Orig-C.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3/21/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>PA</ENT>
                            <ENT>Waynesburg</ENT>
                            <ENT>Greene County</ENT>
                            <ENT>3/0699</ENT>
                            <ENT>1/25/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>RNAV (GPS) Z RWY 9, Amdt 1A.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3/21/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>FL</ENT>
                            <ENT>Sarasota/Bradenton</ENT>
                            <ENT>Sarasota/Bradenton Intl</ENT>
                            <ENT>3/2900</ENT>
                            <ENT>1/26/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>VOR RWY 14, Amdt 18D.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3/21/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>MS</ENT>
                            <ENT>Gulfport</ENT>
                            <ENT>Gulfport-Biloxi Intl</ENT>
                            <ENT>3/3192</ENT>
                            <ENT>12/19/23</ENT>
                            <ENT>RADAR-1, Amdt 7.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3/21/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>OH</ENT>
                            <ENT>Bellefontaine</ENT>
                            <ENT>Bellefontaine Rgnl</ENT>
                            <ENT>4/2926</ENT>
                            <ENT>1/12/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>RNAV (GPS) RWY 25, Amdt 1B.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3/21/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>GA</ENT>
                            <ENT>Canton</ENT>
                            <ENT>Cherokee County Rgnl</ENT>
                            <ENT>4/2927</ENT>
                            <ENT>1/11/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>RNAV (GPS) RWY 5, Amdt 1C.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3/21/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>MA</ENT>
                            <ENT>Worcester</ENT>
                            <ENT>Worcester Rgnl</ENT>
                            <ENT>4/3230</ENT>
                            <ENT>1/12/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle DP, Amdt 8.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3/21/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>IL</ENT>
                            <ENT>Cahokia/St Louis</ENT>
                            <ENT>St Louis Downtown</ENT>
                            <ENT>4/3266</ENT>
                            <ENT>1/16/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>ILS OR LOC RWY 30L, Amdt 9D.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3/21/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>IL</ENT>
                            <ENT>Cahokia/St Louis</ENT>
                            <ENT>St Louis Downtown</ENT>
                            <ENT>4/3267</ENT>
                            <ENT>1/16/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>RNAV (GPS) RWY 12R, Orig-D.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3/21/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>ME</ENT>
                            <ENT>Augusta</ENT>
                            <ENT>Augusta State</ENT>
                            <ENT>4/4918</ENT>
                            <ENT>1/18/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>VOR RWY 35, Amdt 6C.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3/21/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>ME</ENT>
                            <ENT>Augusta</ENT>
                            <ENT>Augusta State</ENT>
                            <ENT>4/4919</ENT>
                            <ENT>1/18/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>RNAV (GPS) RWY 17, Orig-C.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3/21/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>ME</ENT>
                            <ENT>Augusta</ENT>
                            <ENT>Augusta State</ENT>
                            <ENT>4/4920</ENT>
                            <ENT>1/18/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>ILS OR LOC RWY 17, Amdt 3C.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3/21/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>TX</ENT>
                            <ENT>Alpine</ENT>
                            <ENT>Alpine-Casparis Muni</ENT>
                            <ENT>4/6024</ENT>
                            <ENT>1/22/24</ENT>
                            <ENT>RNAV (GPS) RWY 19, Amdt 1A.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03134 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE </AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration </SUBAGY>
                <CFR>19 CFR Part 356</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 231127-0278]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0625-AB20 </RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Procedures and Rules for Article 10.12 of the United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule; correction. </P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Department of Commerce (Commerce) is amending a final rule that appeared in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on January 31, 2024. This document corrects a spelling error to update and make final an interim final rule that amended its regulations pertaining to the procedures and rules related to Article 1904 of the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) with appropriate references to the United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement (USMCA), which went into effect on July 1, 2020. Article 10.12 of the USMCA, like NAFTA Article 1904, provides a dispute settlement mechanism for purposes of reviewing antidumping and countervailing duty determinations issued by the United States, Canada, and Mexico. Commerce is amending its regulations to replace references to Article 1904 of NAFTA with references to Article 10.12 of the USMCA; to update outdated cross-references to Commerce's antidumping and countervailing duty regulations; update outdated notice, filing, service, and protective order procedures; and adopt other minor corrections and updates.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The final rule is effective on March 1, 2024. </P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P> Nikki Kalbing, Assistant Chief Counsel, at (202) 482-4343, Spencer Neff, Attorney, at (202) 482-8184, or Scott McBride, Associate Deputy Chief Counsel, at (202) 482-6292. </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Correction</HD>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="19" PART="356">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        In the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         of January 31, 2024 (89 FR 6011) in FR Document 2024-01475, on page 6016 in the first column, correct the amendment to §  356.9 to read:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>1. In §  356.9, revise paragraph (g) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§  356.9 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Corrected] Persons authorized to receive proprietary information.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(g) Every court reporter, interpreter, and translator employed in a panel or extraordinary challenge committee review, as well as individuals employed to provide audiovisual services at hearings, meetings, or other events as needed.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 5, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Abdelali Elouaradia,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-02899 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS</AGENCY>
                <CFR>38 CFR Part 70</CFR>
                <RIN>RIN 2900-AM02</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Beneficiary Travel and Special Mode Transportation Under 38 U.S.C. 111 Within the United States</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Correcting amendment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule corrects the approved Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Control Number relating to collection of information under the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) regulations that govern beneficiary travel.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule is effective February 15, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Ethan Kalett, Office of Regulations, Appeals, and Policy, Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-7633. This is not a toll free number.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    In a document published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on June 30, 2008, VA amended the beneficiary travel regulations that provide a mechanism for payment of travel expenses within the United States under 38 U.S.C. 111 to help veterans and other persons obtain care and services from VA's Veterans Health Administration. See 73 FR 36796. There is an information collection requirement in 38 CFR 70.20. Under 44 U.S.C. 3507(a), an agency may not collect or sponsor the collection of information, nor may it impose an information collection requirement, unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. See also 5 CFR 1320.8(b)(3)(vi).
                    <PRTPAGE P="11730"/>
                </P>
                <P>As required by 44 U.S.C. 3507(d), VA submitted this information collection to OMB for its review. OMB approved the information collection requirement associated with the final rules and assigned OMB control number 2900-0080. However, § 70.20 contains an inaccurate OMB control number of 2900-0080. The correct OMB control number should be 2900-0798. This final rule updates § 70.20 by substituting the correct and approved OMB control number.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Signing Authority</HD>
                <P>Denis McDonough, Secretary of Veterans Affairs, approved and signed this document on February 9, 2024, and authorized the undersigned to sign and submit the document to the Office of the Federal Register for publication electronically as an official document of the Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Michael P. Shores,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of Regulation Policy &amp; Management,  Office of General Counsel,  Department of Veterans Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 38 CFR Part 70</HD>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Alcohol abuse, Alcoholism, Claims, Day care, Dental health, Drug abuse, Foreign relations, Government contracts, Grant programs—health, Grant programs—veterans, Health care, Health facilities, Health professions, Health records, Homeless, Medical and dental schools, Medical devices, Medical research, Mental health programs, Nursing homes, Philippines, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Scholarships and fellowships, Travel and transportation expenses, Veterans.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons set out in the preamble, the Department of Veterans Affairs amends 38 CFR part 70 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 70—VETERANS TRANSPORTATION PROGRAMS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="38" PART="70">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 70 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 38 U.S.C. 101, 111, 111A, 501, 1701, 1714, 1720, 1728, 1782, 1783, and E.O. 11302, 31 FR 11741, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 578, unless otherwise noted.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 70.20 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="38" PART="70">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 70.20 by removing “(The Office of Management and Budget has approved the information collection requirements in this section under control number 2900-0080.)” at the end of the section and adding in its place “(The Office of Management and Budget has approved the information collection requirement in this section under control number 2900-0798.)”.</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03127 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8320-01-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">POSTAL REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <CFR>39 CFR Part 3040</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. RM2020-8]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 3211-AA28</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Update to Product Lists</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Postal Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Direct final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commission is announcing an update to the Market Dominant and Competitive product lists of the United States Postal Service (Postal Service). This action reflects a publication policy adopted by Commission rules. The referenced policy assumes periodic updates. The updates are identified in the body of this document. The Market Dominant and Competitive product lists, which are re-published in their entirety, include these updates.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This rule is effective April 1, 2024, without further action, unless adverse comment is received by March 18, 2024. If adverse comment is received, the Commission will publish a timely withdrawal of the rule in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For additional information, this document can be accessed electronically through the Commission's website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.prc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6800.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Introduction</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Commission Process</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Authorization</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Modifications</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Ordering Paragraphs</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642(d)(2) and 39 CFR 3040.103, the Commission provides a Notice of Update to Product Lists by listing all necessary modifications to both the Market Dominant and Competitive product lists between July 1, 2023 and December 31, 2023.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Commission Process</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to 39 CFR part 3040, the Commission maintains a Mail Classification Schedule (MCS) that includes rates, fees, and product descriptions for each Market Dominant and Competitive product, as well as product lists that categorize Postal Service products as either Market Dominant or Competitive. 
                    <E T="03">See generally</E>
                     39 CFR part 3040. The product lists are published in the Code of Federal Regulations as 39 CFR Appendix A to Subpart A of Part 3040—Market Dominant Product List and Appendix B to Subpart A of Part 3040—Competitive Product List pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642(d)(2). 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642(d)(2). The MCS is updated by the Commission on its website on a quarterly basis.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The product lists are updated biannually and are also published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     pursuant to 39 CFR 3040.103.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         39 CFR 3040.105(b). 
                        <E T="03">See https://www.prc.gov/mail-classification-schedule</E>
                         in the Current MCS section.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         39 CFR 3040.103. 
                        <E T="03">See https://prc.arkcase.com/portal/docket-search/advanced/docket-details/5192.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Authorization</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to 39 CFR 3040.103(d)(1), this Notice of Update to Product Lists identifies any modifications made to the Market Dominant or Competitive product list, including product additions, removals, and transfers.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Pursuant to 39 CFR 3040.103(d)(2), the modifications identified in this document result from the Commission's most recent MCS update posted on the Commission's website on January 26, 2024, and supersede all previous product lists.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         39 CFR 3040.103(d)(1). More detailed information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Docket Nos., Order Nos., effective dates, and extensions) for each Market Dominant and Competitive product can be found in the MCS, including the “Revision History” section, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.prc.gov/mail-classification-schedule.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Previous versions of the MCS and its product lists can be found on the Commission's website, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.prc.gov/mail-classification-schedule</E>
                         in the MCS Archives section.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Modifications</HD>
                <P>The following list of products is being added to 39 CFR Appendix A to Subpart A of Part 3040—Market Dominant Product List:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">1. Publisher's Clearing House Negotiated Service Agreement for USPS Marketing Mail</FP>
                <P>The following list of products is being added to 39 CFR Appendix B to Subpart A of Part 3040—Competitive Product List:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">1. First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 3</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">2. First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 4</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">3. First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 5</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">4. First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 7</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    5. Parcel Return Service Contract 20
                    <PRTPAGE P="11731"/>
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">6. Priority Mail Contract 781</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">7. Priority Mail Contract 782</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">8. Priority Mail Contract 783</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">9. Priority Mail Contract 785</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">10. Priority Mail Contract 786</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">11. Priority Mail Contract 787</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">12. Priority Mail Contract 788</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">13. Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; Commercial ePacket Contract 2</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">14. Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; Commercial ePacket Contract 3</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">15. Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 21</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">16. Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 22</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">17. Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 23</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">18. Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 24</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">19. Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 25</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">20. Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 26</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">21. Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 27</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">22. Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 28</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">23. Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 29</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">24. Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 30</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">25. Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 31</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">26. Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International, First-Class Package International Service &amp; Commercial ePacket Contract 14</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">27. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 122</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">28. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">29. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 2</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">30. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 3</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">31. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 4</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">32. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 5</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">33. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 6</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">34. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 7</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">35. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 8</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">36. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 9</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">37. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 10</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">38. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 11</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">39. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 12</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">40. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 13</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">41. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 14</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">42. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 15</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">43. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 16</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">44. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 17</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">45. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 18</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">46. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 19</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">47. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 20</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">48. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 21</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">49. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 22</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">50. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 23</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">51. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 24</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">52. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 25</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">53. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 26</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">54. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 27</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">55. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 28</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">56. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 29</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">57. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 30</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">58. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 31</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">59. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 32</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">60. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 33</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">61. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 34</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">62. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 35</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">63. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 36</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">64. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 37</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">65. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, USPS Ground Advantage &amp; Parcel Select Contract 1</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">66. Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 30</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">67. Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 31</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">68. Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 32</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">69. Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 33</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">70. Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 34</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">71. Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 35</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">72. Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 36</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">73. Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 38</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">74. Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 39</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">75. Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 40</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">76. Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 41</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">77. Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service, Parcel Select &amp; Parcel Return Service Contract 1</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">78. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 4</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">79. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 5</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    80. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 6
                    <PRTPAGE P="11732"/>
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">81. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 7</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">82. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 8</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">83. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 9</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">84. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 10</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">85. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 11</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">86. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 12</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">87. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 14</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">88. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 15</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">89. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 16</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">90. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 17</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">91. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 18</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">92. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 19</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">93. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 20</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">94. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 21</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">95. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 22</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">96. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 23</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">97. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 24</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">98. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 25</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">99. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 26</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">100. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 27</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">101. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 28</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">102. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 29</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">103. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 30</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">104. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 31</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">105. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 32</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">106. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 33</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">107. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 34</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">108. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 35</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">109. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 36</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">110. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 37</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">111. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 38</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">112. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 39</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">113. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 40</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">114. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 41</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">115. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 42</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">116. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 43</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">117. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 44</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">118. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 45</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">119. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 46</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">120. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 47</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">121. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 48</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">122. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 49</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">123. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 50</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">124. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 51</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">125. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 52</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">126. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 53</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">127. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 54</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">128. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 55</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">129. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 56</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">130. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 57</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">131. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 58</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">132. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 59</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">133. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 60</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">134. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 61</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">135. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 62</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">136. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 63</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">137. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 64</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">138. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 65</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">139. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 66</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">140. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 67</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">141. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 68</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">142. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 69</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">143. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 70</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">144. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 71</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">145. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 72</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">146. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 73</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">147. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 74</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">148. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 75</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">149. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 76</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">150. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 77</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">151. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 78</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">152. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 79</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">153. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 80</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">154. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 81</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">155. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 82</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">156. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 83</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">157. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 84</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">158. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 85</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">159. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 86</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">160. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 87</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">161. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 88</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">162. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 89</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">163. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 90</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">164. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 91</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">165. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 92</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">166. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 93</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">167. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 94</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">168. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 95</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">169. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 96</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">170. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 97</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">171. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 98</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">172. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 99</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">173. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 100</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">174. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 101</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">175. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 102</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">176. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 103</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">177. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 104</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">178. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 105</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">179. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 106</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">180. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 107</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">181. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 108</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">182. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 109</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">183. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 110</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">184. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 111</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    185. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 112
                    <PRTPAGE P="11733"/>
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">186. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 113</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">187. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 114</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">188. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 115</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">189. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 116</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">190. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 117</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">191. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 118</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">192. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 119</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">193. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 120</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">194. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 121</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">195. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 122</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">196. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 123</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">197. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 124</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">198. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 125</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">199. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 126</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">200. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 127</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">201. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 128</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">202. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 129</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">203. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 130</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">204. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 131</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">205. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 132</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">206. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 133</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">207. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 134</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">208. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 135</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">209. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 136</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">210. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 137</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">211. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 138</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">212. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 139</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">213. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 140</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">214. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 141</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">215. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 142</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">216. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 143</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">217. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 144</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">218. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 145</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">219. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 146</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">220. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 147</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">221. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 148</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">222. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 149</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">223. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 150</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">224. Priority Mail, USPS Ground Advantage &amp; Parcel Select Contract 1</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">225. Priority Mail, USPS Ground Advantage, Parcel Select &amp; Parcel Return Service Contract 1</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">226. USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">227. USPS Ground Advantage Contract 2</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">228. USPS Ground Advantage Contract 3</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">229. USPS Ground Advantage Contract 4</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">230. USPS Ground Advantage Contract 5</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">231. USPS Ground Advantage Contract 6</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">232. USPS Ground Advantage Contract 7</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">233. USPS Ground Advantage Contract 8</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">234. USPS Ground Advantage Contract 9</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">235. USPS Ground Advantage Contract 10</FP>
                <P>The following product from 39 CFR Appendix B to Subpart A of Part 3040—Competitive Product List is being removed:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">1. Parcel Return Service</FP>
                <P>The following list of products is being removed from 39 CFR Appendix B to Subpart A of Part 3040—Competitive Product List:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">1. First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 6</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">2. First-Class Package Service Contract 109</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">3. First-Class Package Service Contract 110</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">4. First-Class Package Service Contract 114</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">5. First-Class Package Service Contract 120</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">6. Parcel Return Service Contract 17</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">7. Parcel Return Service Contract 18</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">8. Parcel Select &amp; Parcel Return Service Contract 14</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">9. Parcel Select Contract 49</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">10. Parcel Select Contract 54</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">11. Parcel Select Contract 55</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">12. Parcel Select Contract 59</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">13. Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 143</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">14. Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 163</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">15. Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 172</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">16. Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 177</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">17. Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 184</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">18. Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 189</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">19. Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 190</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">20. Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 191</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">21. Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 197</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">22. Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 199</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">23. Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 202</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">24. Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 210</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">25. Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 219</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">26. Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 222</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">27. Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 223</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">28. Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 225</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">29. Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 226</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">30. Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 227</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">31. Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 229</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">32. Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 3</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">33. Priority Mail Contract 590</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">34. Priority Mail Contract 596</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">35. Priority Mail Contract 604</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">36. Priority Mail Contract 615</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">37. Priority Mail Contract 618</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">38. Priority Mail Contract 628</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">39. Priority Mail Contract 631</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">40. Priority Mail Contract 640</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">41. Priority Mail Contract 647</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">42. Priority Mail Contract 655</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">43. Priority Mail Contract 657</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">44. Priority Mail Contract 658</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">45. Priority Mail Contract 663</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">46. Priority Mail Contract 665</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">47. Priority Mail Contract 666</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">48. Priority Mail Contract 669</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">49. Priority Mail Contract 671</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">50. Priority Mail Contract 672</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">51. Priority Mail Contract 682</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">52. Priority Mail Contract 699</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">53. Priority Mail Contract 708</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">54. Priority Mail Contract 721</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">55. Priority Mail Contract 730</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">56. Priority Mail Contract 734</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">57. Priority Mail Contract 738</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">58. Priority Mail Contract 744</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">59. Priority Mail Contract 745</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">60. Priority Mail Contract 758</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">61. Priority Mail Contract 759</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">62. Priority Mail Contract 763</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">63. Priority Mail Contract 766</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">64. Priority Mail Contract 768</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">65. Priority Mail Contract 770</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">66. Priority Mail Contract 776</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">67. Priority Mail Contract 778</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">68. Priority Mail Contract 784</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">69. Priority Mail Express &amp; Priority Mail Contract 114</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    70. Priority Mail Express &amp; Priority Mail Contract 116
                    <PRTPAGE P="11734"/>
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">71. Priority Mail Express &amp; Priority Mail Contract 118</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">72. Priority Mail Express &amp; Priority Mail Contract 136</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">73. Priority Mail Express &amp; Priority Mail Contract 137</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">74. Priority Mail Express Contract 81</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">75. Priority Mail Express Contract 96</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">76. Priority Mail Express Contract 98</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">77. Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 7</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">78. Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International, First-Class Package International Service &amp; Commercial ePacket 12</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">79. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 67</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">80. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 71</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">81. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 79</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">82. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; Parcel Select Contract 1</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">83. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 11</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">84. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 13</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">85. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 15</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">86. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 21</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">87. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 35</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">88. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 46</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">89. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 70</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">90. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 74</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">91. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 82</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">92. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 85</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">93. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 87</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">94. Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 37</FP>
                <P>The above-referenced changes to the Market Dominant product list and the Competitive product list are incorporated into 39 CFR Appendix A and B to Subpart A of Part 3040.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Ordering Paragraphs</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">It is ordered:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. Part 3040 of title 39, Code of Federal Regulations, is amended as set forth below the signature of this Notice, effective 45 days after the date of publication of the Notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     without further action, unless adverse comments are received.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. The Secretary shall arrange for publication of the Notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. Interested persons may submit adverse comments no later than 30 days from the date of the publication of this Notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. If adverse comments are received, the Secretary will publish a timely withdrawal of the Notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By the Commission.</P>
                    <NAME>Jennie L. Jbara,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Alternate Certifying Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 39 CFR Part 3040</HD>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Postal Service.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Postal Regulatory Commission amends chapter III of title 39 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 3040—PRODUCT LISTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="39" PART="3040">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 3040 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P> 39 U.S.C. 503; 3622; 3631; 3642; 3682.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="39" PART="3040">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Revise appendix A to subpart A of part 3040 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix A to Subpart A of Part 3040—Market Dominant Product List</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <P>(An asterisk (*) indicates an organizational class or group, not a Postal Service product.)</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">FIRST-CLASS MAIL *</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Single-Piece Letters/Postcards</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Presorted Letters/Postcards</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Flats</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Outbound Single-Piece First-Class Mail International</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Inbound Letter Post</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">USPS MARKETING MAIL (COMMERCIAL AND NONPROFIT) *</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">High Density and Saturation Letters</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">High Density and Saturation Flats/Parcels</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Carrier Route</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Letters</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Flats</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Parcels</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Every Door Direct Mail—Retail</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">PERIODICALS *</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">In-County Periodicals</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Outside County Periodicals</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">PACKAGE SERVICES *</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Alaska Bypass Service</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Bound Printed Matter Flats</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Bound Printed Matter Parcels</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Media Mail/Library Mail</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">SPECIAL SERVICES *</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Ancillary Services</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">International Ancillary Services</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Address Management Services</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Caller Service</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Credit Card Authentication</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">International Reply Coupon Service</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">International Business Reply Mail Service</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Money Orders</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Post Office Box Service</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Stamp Fulfillment Services</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">NEGOTIATED SERVICE AGREEMENTS *</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Domestic *</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Publisher's Clearing House Negotiated Service Agreement for USPS Marketing Mail</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">International *</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Inbound Market Dominant Multi-Service Agreements with Foreign Postal Operators</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">NONPOSTAL SERVICES *</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Alliances with the Private Sector to Defray Cost of Key Postal Functions</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Philatelic Sales</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">MARKET TESTS *</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">USPS Connect Local Mail</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="39" PART="3040">
                    <AMDPAR>3. Revise appendix B to subpart A of part 3040 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix B to Subpart A of Part 3040—Competitive Product List</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <P>(An asterisk (*) indicates an organizational class or group, not a Postal Service product.)</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">DOMESTIC PRODUCTS *</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Parcel Select</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">USPS Ground Advantage</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">INTERNATIONAL PRODUCTS *</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Outbound International Expedited Services</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Inbound Parcel Post (at UPU rates)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Outbound Priority Mail International</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">International Priority Airmail (IPA)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">International Surface Air Lift (ISAL)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">International Direct Sacks-M-Bags</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Outbound Single-Piece First-Class Package International Service</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Inbound Letter Post Small Packets and Bulky Letters</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">NEGOTIATED SERVICE AGREEMENTS *</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Domestic *</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express Contract 83</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express Contract 87</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express Contract 88</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express Contract 92</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express Contract 95</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express Contract 97</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express Contract 99</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Parcel Return Service Contract 19</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Parcel Return Service Contract 20</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 80</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 153</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 360</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 609</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 642</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 685</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 686</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 687</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 690</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 693</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 694</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 695</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 700</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 701</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            Priority Mail Contract 704
                            <PRTPAGE P="11735"/>
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 705</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 707</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 709</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 712</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 714</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 715</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 720</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 722</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 733</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 736</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 737</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 739</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 740</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 742</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 747</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 749</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 750</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 751</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 753</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 754</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 755</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 756</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 757</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 760</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 761</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 762</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 764</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 765</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 767</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 769</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 771</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 772</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 773</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 774</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 777</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 779</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 780</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 781</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 782</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 783</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 785</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 786</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 787</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Contract 788</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express &amp; Priority Mail Contract 99</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express &amp; Priority Mail Contract 122</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express &amp; Priority Mail Contract 123</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express &amp; Priority Mail Contract 130</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express &amp; Priority Mail Contract 131</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express &amp; Priority Mail Contract 133</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express &amp; Priority Mail Contract 135</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Parcel Select &amp; Parcel Return Service Contract 10</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Parcel Select Contract 34</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Parcel Select Contract 44</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Parcel Select Contract 48</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Parcel Select Contract 56</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Parcel Select Contract 57</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Parcel Select Contract 58</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail—Non-Published Rates 1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail—Non-Published Rates 2</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">First-Class Package Service Contract 87</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">First-Class Package Service Contract 112</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">First-Class Package Service Contract 116</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">First-Class Package Service Contract 117</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">First-Class Package Service Contract 118</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">First-Class Package Service Contract 121</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 66</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 74</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 75</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 77</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 78</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 80</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 26</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 79</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 121</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 137</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 144</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 153</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 154</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 155</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 166</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 169</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 175</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 183</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 186</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 193</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 195</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 198</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 200</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 203</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 204</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 205</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 206</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 208</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 213</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 215</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 216</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 217</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 218</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 220</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 221</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 224</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 228</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; First-Class Package Service Contract 230</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; Parcel Select Contract 4</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; Parcel Select Contract 5</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; Parcel Select Contract 6</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; Parcel Select Contract 7</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; Parcel Select Contract 8</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; Parcel Select Contract 9</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 6</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 8</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 9</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 12</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 14</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 16</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 17</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 18</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 19</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 20</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 22</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 23</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 24</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 25</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 26</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 27</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 28</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 29</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 30</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 31</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 32</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 33</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 34</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 36
                            <PRTPAGE P="11736"/>
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 37</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 38</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 39</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 40</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 41</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 42</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 43</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 44</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 45</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 47</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 48</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 49</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 50</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 51</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 52</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 53</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 54</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 55</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 56</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 57</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 58</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 59</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 60</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 61</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 62</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 63</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 64</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 66</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 67</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 68</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 69</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 71</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 72</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 73</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 75</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 76</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 77</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 78</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 79</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 80</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 81</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 83</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 84</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 86</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 88</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 89</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 90</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 91</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 92</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 93</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 94</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 95</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 96</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 97</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 98</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 99</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 100</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 101</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 102</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 103</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 104</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 105</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 106</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 107</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 108</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 109</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 110</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 111</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 113</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 114</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 115</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 116</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 117</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 118</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 119
                            <PRTPAGE P="11737"/>
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 120</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 121</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 122</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 3</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 4</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 5</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 6</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 7</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 8</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 9</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 12</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 13</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 15</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 16</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 17</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 18</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 19</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 20</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 22</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 26</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 28</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 29</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 30</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 31</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 32</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 33</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 34</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 35</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 36</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 38</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 39</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 40</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 41</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, Parcel Select &amp; Parcel Return Service Contract 1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 2</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 3</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 4</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 5</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">First-Class Package Service &amp; Parcel Select Contract 7</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 2</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 4</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 5</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 6</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 7</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 8</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 9</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 10</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 11</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 12</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 14</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 15</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 16</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 17</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 18</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 19</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 20</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 21</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 22</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 23</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 24</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 25</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 26</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 27</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 28</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 29</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 30</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 31</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 32</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 33</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 34</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 35</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 36</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 37</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 38</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 39</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 40</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 41</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 42</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 43</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 44</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 45</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 46</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 47</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 48</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 49</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 50</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 51</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 52</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 53</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 54</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 55</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 56</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 57</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 58</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 59</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 60</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 61</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 62</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 63</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 64</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 65</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 66</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 67</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 68</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 69</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 70</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 71</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 72</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 73</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 74</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 75
                            <PRTPAGE P="11738"/>
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 76</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 77</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 78</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 79</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 80</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 81</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 82</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 83</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 84</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 85</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 86</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 87</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 88</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 89</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 90</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 91</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 92</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 93</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 94</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 95</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 96</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 97</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 98</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 99</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 100</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 101</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 102</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 103</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 104</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 105</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 106</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 107</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 108</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 109</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 110</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 111</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 112</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 113</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 114</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 115</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 116</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 117</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 118</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 119</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 120</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 121</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 122</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 123</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 124</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 125</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 126</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 127</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 128</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 129</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 130</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 131</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 132</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 133</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 134</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 135</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 136</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 137</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 138</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 139</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 140</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 141</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 142</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 143</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 144</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 145</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 146</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 147</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 148</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 149</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 150</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, First-Class Package Service, Parcel Select &amp; Parcel Return Service Contract 1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">USPS Ground Advantage Contract 2</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">USPS Ground Advantage Contract 3</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">USPS Ground Advantage Contract 4</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">USPS Ground Advantage Contract 5</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">USPS Ground Advantage Contract 6</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">USPS Ground Advantage Contract 7</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">USPS Ground Advantage Contract 8</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">USPS Ground Advantage Contract 9</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">USPS Ground Advantage Contract 10</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 2</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 3</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 4</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 5</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 6</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 7</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 8</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 9</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 10</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 11</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 12</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 13</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 14</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 15</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 16</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 17</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 18</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 19</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 20</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 21</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 22</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 23</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 24</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 25</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 26</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 27</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 28</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 29</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 30</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 31</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 32</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 33
                            <PRTPAGE P="11739"/>
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 34</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 35</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 36</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 37</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, USPS Ground Advantage, Parcel Select &amp; Parcel Return Service Contract 1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail, USPS Ground Advantage &amp; Parcel Select Contract 1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, USPS Ground Advantage &amp; Parcel Select Contract 1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Outbound International *</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Global Expedited Package Services (GEPS) Contracts</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">GEPS 3</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">GEPS 5</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">GEPS 6</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">GEPS 7</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">GEPS 8</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">GEPS 9</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">GEPS 10</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Global Bulk Economy (GBE) Contracts</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Global Plus Contracts</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Plus 1C</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Plus 1D</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Plus 1E</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Plus 2C</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Plus 3</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Plus 4</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Plus 5</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Plus 6</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Global Reseller Expedited Package Contracts</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Reseller Expedited Package Services 1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Reseller Expedited Package Services 2</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Reseller Expedited Package Services 3</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Reseller Expedited Package Services 4</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Global Expedited Package Services (GEPS)—Non-Published Rates</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Expedited Package Services (GEPS)—Non-Published Rates 2</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Expedited Package Services (GEPS)—Non-Published Rates 3</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Expedited Package Services (GEPS)—Non-Published Rates 4</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Expedited Package Services (GEPS)—Non-Published Rates 5</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Expedited Package Services (GEPS)—Non-Published Rates 6</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Expedited Package Services (GEPS)—Non-Published Rates 7</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Expedited Package Services (GEPS)—Non-Published Rates 8</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Expedited Package Services (GEPS)—Non-Published Rates 9</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Expedited Package Services (GEPS)—Non-Published Rates 10</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Expedited Package Services (GEPS)—Non-Published Rates 11</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Expedited Package Services (GEPS)—Non-Published Rates 12</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Expedited Package Services (GEPS)—Non-Published Rates 13</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Expedited Package Services (GEPS)—Non-Published Rates 14</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Global Expedited Package Services (GEPS)—Non-Published Rates 15</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Outbound Competitive International Merchandise Return Service Agreement with Royal Mail Group, Ltd.</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Competitive International Merchandise Return Service Agreements with Foreign Postal Operators</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Competitive International Merchandise Return Service Agreements with Foreign Postal Operators 1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Competitive International Merchandise Return Service Agreements with Foreign Postal Operators 2</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Alternative Delivery Provider (ADP) Contracts</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">ADP 1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Alternative Delivery Provider Reseller (ADPR) Contracts</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">ADPR 1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contracts</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 4</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 6</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 8</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 9</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 10</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 11</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 12</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 13</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 14</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 15</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 16</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 17</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 18</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 19</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 20</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 21</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 22</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 23</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 24</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 25</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 26</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 27</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 28</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 29</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 30</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 31</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International, First-Class Package International Service &amp; Commercial ePacket Contracts</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International, First-Class Package International Service &amp; Commercial ePacket Contract 2</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International, First-Class Package International Service &amp; Commercial ePacket Contract 8</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International, First-Class Package International Service &amp; Commercial ePacket Contract 13</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International, First-Class Package International Service &amp; Commercial ePacket Contract 14</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; Commercial ePacket Contracts</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; Commercial ePacket Contract 2</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; Commercial ePacket Contract 3</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contracts</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 2</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 4</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                            International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International 
                            <PRTPAGE P="11740"/>
                            &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 5
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 6</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 9</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 11</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 12</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 13</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 14</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 15</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service with Reseller Contracts</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service with Reseller Contract 2</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service with Reseller Contract 3</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service with Reseller Contract 4</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service with Reseller Contract 5</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service with Reseller Contract 6</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service with Reseller Contract 7</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">International Priority Airmail, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service with Reseller Contract 8</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">International Priority Airmail Contracts</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">International Priority Airmail, International Surface Air Lift, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contracts</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">International Priority Airmail, International Surface Air Lift, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service Contract 1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">International Priority Airmail, International Surface Air Lift, Commercial ePacket, Priority Mail Express International, Priority Mail International &amp; First-Class Package International Service with Reseller Contracts</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Inbound International *</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">International Business Reply Service (IBRS) Competitive Contracts</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">International Business Reply Service Competitive Contract 1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">International Business Reply Service Competitive Contract 3</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Inbound Direct Entry Contracts with Customers</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Inbound Direct Entry Contracts with Foreign Postal Administrations</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Inbound Direct Entry Contracts with Foreign Postal Administrations</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Inbound Direct Entry Contracts with Foreign Postal Administrations 1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Inbound EMS</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Inbound EMS 2</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Inbound Air Parcel Post (at non-UPU rates)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Inbound Competitive Multi-Service Agreements with Foreign Postal Operators</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Inbound Competitive Multi-Service Agreements with Foreign Postal Operators 1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">SPECIAL SERVICES *</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Address Enhancement Services</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Greeting Cards, Gift Cards, and Stationery</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">International Ancillary Services</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">International Money Transfer Service—Outbound</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">International Money Transfer Service—Inbound</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Premium Forwarding Service</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Shipping and Mailing Supplies</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Post Office Box Service</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Competitive Ancillary Services</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">NONPOSTAL SERVICES *</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Advertising</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Licensing of Intellectual Property other than Officially Licensed Retail Products (OLRP)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Mail Service Promotion</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Officially Licensed Retail Products (OLRP)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Passport Photo Service</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Photocopying Service</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Rental, Leasing, Licensing or other Non-Sale Disposition of Tangible Property</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Training Facilities and Related Services</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">USPS Electronic Postmark (EPM) Program</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">MARKET TESTS *</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03060 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7710-FW-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of the Secretary</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>43 CFR Part 10</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0037190; PPWOVPADU0/PPMPRLE1Y.Y00000]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1024-AE85</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustments</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of the Secretary, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This rule revises U.S. Department of the Interior regulations implementing the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA) to provide for annual adjustments of civil penalties to account for inflation under the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 and Office of Management and Budget guidance. The purpose of these adjustments is to maintain the deterrent effect of civil penalties and to further the policy goals of the underlying statute.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective on February 15, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Melanie O'Brien, Manager, National NAGPRA Program, (202) 354-2204, National Park Service, 1849 C Street NW, Washington, DC 20240. Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>On November 2, 2015, the President signed into law the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (Sec. 701 of Pub. L. 114-74) (“the Act”). The Act requires Federal agencies to adjust the level of civil monetary penalties annually for inflation no later than January 15 of each year.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Calculation of Annual Adjustments</HD>
                <P>
                    The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) recently issued guidance to assist Federal agencies in implementing the annual adjustments required by the Act which agencies must complete by January 15, 2024. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     December 19, 2023, Memorandum for the Heads of Executive Departments and Agencies, from Shalanda D. Young, Director, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11741"/>
                    Office of Management and Budget, re: 
                    <E T="03">Implementation of Penalty Inflation Adjustments for 2024, Pursuant to the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015</E>
                     (M-24-07). The guidance states that the cost-of-living adjustment multiplier for 2024, based on the Consumer Price Index (CPI-U) for the month of October 2023, not seasonally adjusted, is 1.03241.
                </P>
                <P>Annual inflation adjustments are based on the percent change between each published October's CPI-U. In this case, October 2023 CPI-U (307.671)/October 2022 CPI-U (298.012) = 1.03241. The guidance instructs agencies to complete the 2024 annual adjustment by multiplying each applicable penalty by the multiplier, 1.03241, and rounding to the nearest dollar.</P>
                <P>
                    The annual adjustment applies to all civil monetary penalties with a dollar amount that are subject to the Act. A civil monetary penalty is any assessment with a dollar amount that is levied for a violation of a Federal civil statute or regulation, and is assessed or enforceable through a civil action in Federal court or an administrative proceeding. A civil monetary penalty does not include a penalty levied for violation of a criminal statute, or fees for services, licenses, permits, or other regulatory review. This final rule adjusts the following civil monetary penalties contained in the Department of the Interior regulations implementing the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA) for 2024 by multiplying 1.03241 by each penalty amount as updated by the adjustment made in 2023: 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         The DOI published a final rule in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on December 13, 2023 (88 FR 86452) revising the NAGPRA implementing regulations. That final rule incorrectly codified the 2022 civil penalty amounts. This final rule appropriately adjusts the civil penalty amounts for 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">CFR Citation</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Description of the penalty</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2022 Penalty</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2023 Penalty</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>adjustment</LI>
                            <LI>(multiplier)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">2024 Adjusted penalty</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">43 CFR 10.11(c)(1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Failure of Museum to Comply</ENT>
                        <ENT>$7,475</ENT>
                        <ENT>$8,054</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.03241</ENT>
                        <ENT>$8,315</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">43 CFR 10.11(g)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Continued Failure to Comply Per Day</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,496</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,612</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.03241</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,664</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>Consistent with the Act, the adjusted penalty levels for 2024 will take effect immediately upon the effective date of the adjustment. The adjusted penalty levels for 2024 will apply to penalties assessed after that date including, if consistent with agency policy, assessments associated with violations that occurred on or after November 2, 2015. The Act does not, however, change previously assessed penalties that the Department is collecting or has collected. Nor does the Act change an agency's existing statutory authorities to adjust penalties.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Procedural Requirements</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Compliance With Other Laws, Executive Orders, and Department Policy. Regulatory Planning and Review (Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 14094)</HD>
                <P>Executive Order 12866 provides that the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs in the Office of Management and Budget will review all significant rules. The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has determined that this rule is not significant.</P>
                <P>Executive Order 14094 amends Executive Order 12866 and reaffirms the principles of Executive Order 12866 and Executive Order 13563 and states that regulatory analysis should facilitate agency efforts to develop regulations that serve the public interest, advance statutory objectives, and be consistent with Executive Order 12866, Executive Order 13563, and the Presidential Memorandum of January 20, 2021 (Modernizing Regulatory Review). Regulatory analysis, as practicable and appropriate, shall recognize distributive impacts and equity, to the extent permitted by law.</P>
                <P>Executive Order 13563 reaffirms the principles of Executive Order 12866 while calling for improvements in the nation's regulatory system to promote predictability, to reduce uncertainty, and to use the best, most innovative, and least burdensome tools for achieving regulatory ends. Executive Order 13563 directs agencies to consider regulatory approaches that reduce burdens and maintain flexibility and freedom of choice for the public where these approaches are relevant, feasible, and consistent with regulatory objectives. Executive Order 13563 emphasizes further that regulations must be based on the best available science and that the rulemaking process must allow for public participation and an open exchange of ideas. The NPS has developed this rule in a manner consistent with these requirements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) requires an agency to prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis for rules unless the agency certifies that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The RFA applies only to rules for which an agency is required to first publish a proposed rule. See 5 U.S.C. 603(a) and 604(a). The RFA does not apply to this final rule because the Office of the Secretary is not required to publish a proposed rule for the reasons explained below in Section III.L.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Congressional Review Act</HD>
                <P>This rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804(2), the Congressional Review Act. This rule:</P>
                <P>(a) Does not have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more.</P>
                <P>(b) Will not cause a major increase in costs or prices for consumers, individual industries, Federal, State, or local government agencies, or geographic regions.</P>
                <P>(c) Does not have significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or the ability of U.S.-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>
                    This rule does not impose an unfunded mandate on State, local, or Tribal governments, or the private sector of more than $100 million per year. The rule does not have a significant or unique effect on State, local, or Tribal governments or the private sector. A statement containing the information required by the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (2 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) is not required.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Takings (E.O. 12630)</HD>
                <P>
                    This rule does not effect a taking of private property or otherwise have taking implications under Executive Order 12630. A takings implication assessment is not required.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11742"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Federalism (E.O. 13132)</HD>
                <P>Under the criteria in section 1 of Executive Order 13132, this rule does not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a federalism summary impact statement. A federalism summary impact statement is not required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Civil Justice Reform (E.O. 12988)</HD>
                <P>This rule complies with the requirements of E.O. 12988. Specifically, this rule:</P>
                <P>(a) Meets the criteria of section 3(a) requiring that all regulations be reviewed to eliminate errors and ambiguity and be written to minimize litigation; and</P>
                <P>(b) Meets the criteria of section 3(b)(2) requiring that all regulations be written in clear language and contain clear legal standards.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Consultation With Indian Tribes (E.O. 13175 and Departmental Policy)</HD>
                <P>The Department of the Interior strives to strengthen its government-to-government relationship with Indian Tribes through a commitment to consultation with Indian Tribes and recognition of their right to self-governance and Tribal sovereignty. The Department has evaluated this rule under its consultation policy and under the criteria in Executive Order 13175 and has determined that the rule has no substantial direct effects on federally recognized Indian Tribes and that consultation under the Department's Tribal consultation policy is not required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>This rule does not contain information collection requirements, and a submission to the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq) is not required. We may not conduct or sponsor, and you are not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">J. National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)</HD>
                <P>This rule does not constitute a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment. A detailed statement under the NEPA is not required because the rule is covered by a categorical exclusion. This rule is excluded from the requirement to prepare a detailed statement because it is a regulation of an administrative nature. (For further information see 43 CFR 46.210(i).) We have also determined that the rule does not involve any of the extraordinary circumstances listed in 43 CFR 46.215 that would require further analysis under NEPA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">K. Effects on the Energy Supply (E.O. 13211)</HD>
                <P>This rule is not a significant energy action under the definition in Executive Order 13211; the rule is not likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy, and the rule has not otherwise been designated by the Administrator of Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs as a significant energy action. A Statement of Energy Effects is not required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">L. Administrative Procedure Act</HD>
                <P>
                    The Act requires agencies to publish annual inflation adjustments by no later than January 15 of each year, notwithstanding section 553 of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553). OMB has interpreted this direction to mean that the usual procedure for rulemaking under the APA—which includes public notice of a proposed rule, an opportunity for public comment, and a delay in the effective date of a final rule—is not required when agencies issue regulations to implement the annual adjustments to civil penalties that the Act requires. Accordingly, we are issuing the 2024 annual adjustments as a final rule without prior notice or an opportunity for comment and with an effective date immediately upon publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 43 CFR Part 10</HD>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Alaska, Cemeteries, Citizenship and naturalization, Colleges and universities, Hawaiian Natives, Historic preservation, Human remains, Indians, Indians—claims, Indians—law, Indians—lands, Museums, Penalties, Public lands, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Treaties.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons given in the preamble, the Office of the Secretary amends 43 CFR part 10 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 10—NATIVE AMERICAN GRAVES PROTECTION AND REPATRIATION REGULATIONS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="43" PART="10">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 10 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>
                             25 U.S.C. 3001 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                             and 25 U.S.C. 9.
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 10.11</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended] </SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="43" PART="10">
                    <AMDPAR>2. In § 10.11:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. In paragraph (c)(1), remove “$7,475” and add in its place “$8,315”.</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. In paragraph (g)(4), remove “$1,496” and add in its place “$1,664”.</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Shannon Estenoz,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary for Fish and Wildlife and Parks. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-02964 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL COMMUNICATIONS COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <CFR>47 CFR Part 1</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[WT Docket No. 19-38; FCC 22-53; FR ID 201127]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Partitioning, Disaggregation, and Leasing of Spectrum; Correction</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Communications Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule; correction.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Federal Communications Commission is correcting a final rule that appeared in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on September 20, 2022. The document modified partitioning, disaggregation, and leasing rules to provide specific incentives for small carriers and Tribal Nations, and entities in rural areas, to voluntarily participate in the Enhanced Competition Incentive Program (ECIP). The ECIP proceeding is in response to Congressional direction in the Making Opportunities for Broadband Investment and Limiting Excessive and Needless Obstacles to Wireless Act (MOBILE NOW Act) to consider steps to increase the diversity of spectrum access and the availability of advanced telecommunications services in rural areas. The ECIP will promote greater competition in the provision of wireless services, facilitate increased availability of advanced wireless services in rural areas, facilitate new opportunities for small carriers and Tribal Nations to increase access to spectrum, and bring more advanced wireless service including 5G to underserved communities.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This correction is effective February 15, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Stephanie Asous, 
                        <E T="03">Stephanie.Asous@fcc.gov,</E>
                         Wireless Telecommunications Bureau, Mobility Division, (202) 418-2155.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The general effective date for the final rule published September 20, 2022, at 87 FR 57403, which included the addition of 47 CFR 1.60001 through 1.60007, was October 20, 2022. Sections 1.60001 through 1.60007 were delayed indefinitely, and the Commission stated 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11743"/>
                    in that rule it would publish a document in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     announcing the effective date. The document announcing the effective date is published elsewhere in this issue of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>The document makes corrections to §§ 1.60001, 1.60002, 1.60006, and 1.60007.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Correction</HD>
                <P>
                    In FR Doc. 2022-17520 appearing on page 57403 in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     of Tuesday, September 20, 2022, the following corrections are made:
                </P>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 1.60001 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Corrected]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="47" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>1. On page 57417, in the third column, in § 1.60001, in paragraph (b), “pursuant to § 1.60002 or the rural-focused transaction prong pursuant to § 1.60003” is corrected to read “pursuant to § 1.60003 or the rural-focused transaction prong pursuant to § 1.60004”.</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 1.60002 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Corrected] </SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="47" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>2. On page 57418, in the first column, in § 1.60002, in paragraph (e), “§ 1.60005(e);” is corrected to read “§ 1.60005;”.</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 1.60006 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Corrected] </SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="47" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>3. On page 57420, in the third column, in § 1.60006, in paragraph (g), “§ 20.30 of this chapter” is corrected to read “§ 1.9003”.</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 1.60007</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Corrected] </SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="47" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>4. On page 57420, in the third column, in § 1.60007:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. In paragraph (a)(1), “§ 1.60006(e)” is corrected to read “§ 1.60006(f)”;</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. In § 1.60007, in paragraph (a)(2) “§ 1.60006(a) or (c),” is corrected to read “§ 1.60006(b) or (d)”;</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>c. In paragraph (a)(3), “§ 1.60006(b) or (c)” is corrected to read “§ 1.60006(c) or (d)”;</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>d. In paragraph (b)(1), § 1.60006(e)” is corrected to read “§ 1.60006(f)”;</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>e. In paragraph (b)(2), “§ 1.60006(a) or (c)” is corrected to read “§ 1.60006(b) or (d)”; and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>f. In paragraph (b)(3), “§ 1.60006(b) or (c)” is corrected to read “§ 1.60006(c) or (d)”.</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Federal Communications Commission.</FP>
                    <NAME>Marlene Dortch,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-02863 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6712-01-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">FEDERAL COMMUNICATIONS COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <CFR>47 CFR Part 1</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[WT Docket No. 19-38; FCC 22-53; FR ID 201552]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Partitioning, Disaggregation, and Leasing of Spectrum</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Communications Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule; announcement of effective date.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In this document, the Commission announces that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has approved the information collection requirements under OMB Control Numbers 3060-0798, 3060-0800, and 3060-1058 associated with the rules adopted in the 
                        <E T="03">Report and Order and Second Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking,</E>
                         FCC 22-53, governing the partitioning, disaggregation, and leasing of spectrum, and that compliance with these rules is now required. This document is consistent with the 
                        <E T="03">Report and Order and Second Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking,</E>
                         which states that the Commission will publish a document in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         announcing the effective date for these revised rule sections and revising the rules accordingly.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The additions of 47 CFR 1.60001 through 1.60007, published at 87 FR 57403, September 20, 2022, and delayed indefinitely, are effective February 15, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Cathy Williams, Office of the Managing Director, Federal Communications Commission, at (202) 418-2918 or 
                        <E T="03">Cathy.Williams@fcc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This document announces that OMB approved the information collection requirements in 47 CFR 1.60001-1.60007 on September 25, 2023, December 5, 2023, and January 18, 2024, respectively. These rule sections were adopted in the 
                    <E T="03">Report and Order and Second Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking,</E>
                     FCC 22-53. The Commission publishes this document as an announcement of the immediate effective date for these revised rules. Published elsewhere in this issue of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     is a document making corrections to §§ 1.60001, 1.60002, 1.60006, and 1.660007.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Synopsis</HD>
                <P>As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507), the Commission is notifying the public that it received final OMB approvals on September 25, 2023, December 5, 2023, and January 18, 2024, respectively, for the information collection requirements contained in 47 CFR 1.60001-1.60007. Under 5 CFR part 1320, an agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a current, valid OMB Control Number.</P>
                <P>No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act that does not display a current, valid OMB Control Number. The OMB Control Numbers for the information collection requirements in 47 CFR 1.60001-1.60007 are 3060-0798, 3060-0800, and 3060-1058.</P>
                <P>The foregoing notice is required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, October 1, 1995, and 44 U.S.C. 3507.</P>
                <P>The total annual reporting burdens and costs for the respondents are as follows:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     3060-0798.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Approval Date:</E>
                     September 25, 2023.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Expiration Date:</E>
                     September 30, 2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     FCC Authorization for Radio Service Authorization; Wireless Telecommunications Bureau; Public Safety and Homeland Security Bureau.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     FCC Form 601.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Individual and households, Business or other for-profit entities, state, local, or tribal government, and not for profit institutions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents and Responses:</E>
                     255,552 respondents; 255,552 responses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     0.5 to 1.25 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Recordkeeping requirement; third party disclosure requirement, on occasion reporting requirement and periodic reporting requirement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Obligation to Respond:</E>
                     Required to obtain or retain benefits. Statutory authority for these collections are contained in 47 U.S.C. 151, 152, 154, 154(i), 155(c), 157, 201, 202, 208, 214, 301, 302a, 303, 307, 308, 309, 310, 311, 314, 316, 319, 324, 331, 332, 333, 336, 534, 535, and 554 of the Communications Act of 1934.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden:</E>
                     225,808 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Cost:</E>
                     $72,474,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     On July 18, 2022, the Commission released a Report and Order and Second Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, Partitioning, Disaggregation, and Leasing of Spectrum, WT Docket No. 19-38, FCC 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11744"/>
                    22-53, in which the Commission established the Enhanced Competition Incentive Program (ECIP) to establish incentives for wireless radio service licensees to make underutilized spectrum available to small carriers, Tribal Nations, and entities serving rural areas (ECIP Report and Order in WT Docket No. 19-38, FCC 22-53). In the Report and Order, the Commission adopted a program under which any covered geographic area licensee may offer spectrum to an unaffiliated eligible entity through a partition and/or disaggregation, and any covered geographic area licensee eligible to lease in an included service may offer spectrum to an unaffiliated eligible entity through a long-term leasing arrangement. If the FCC finds that approval of an ECIP eligible assignment or lease is in the public interest, the agency will consent to the transaction and confer benefits, including five-year license term extensions, one year construction extensions, and substituted alternative construction requirements for rural-focused transactions.
                </P>
                <P>In establishing the ECIP, the Commission requires applicants seeking to participate in the program to submit certain information that shows the transaction qualifies for ECIP inclusion. The Commission found that the ECIP builds on Congressional goals in the MOBILE NOW Act to incentivize beneficial transactions in the public interest that will promote greater competition in the provision of wireless services, facilitate increased availability of advanced wireless services in rural areas, facilitate new opportunities for small carriers and Tribal Nations to increase access to spectrum, and bring more advanced wireless service including 5G to underserved communities. The ECIP related change created a new Schedule O, similar to schedule K, that will be used by certain ECIP Licensees to file either their Initial Operation Requirement Notifications (IORN) or their Final Operation Requirement Notifications (FORN), as required by 47 CFR 1.60004, 1.60006.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     3060-0800.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Approval Date:</E>
                     December 5, 2023.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Expiration Date:</E>
                     December 31, 2026.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     FCC Application for Assignments of Authorization and Transfers of Control: Wireless Telecommunications Bureau and Public Safety and Homeland Security Bureau.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     FCC Form 603.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Business or other for-profit entities, Individuals or households, not-for-profit institutions, and State, Local or Tribal Governments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents and Responses:</E>
                     2,567 respondents; 2,567 responses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     0.05 hours-1.80 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Recordkeeping requirement, on occasion reporting requirement and periodic reporting requirement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Obligation to Respond:</E>
                     Required to obtain or retain benefits. The statutory authority for this collection is contained in 47 U.S.C. 154, 155, 158, 161, 301, 303(r), 308, 309, 310 and 332.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden:</E>
                     2,957 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Cost:</E>
                     $532,728.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     On July 18, 2022, the Commission adopted the Partition, Disaggregation and Leasing of Spectrum Report and Order and Second Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking that modifies partitioning, disaggregation, and leasing rules to provide specific incentives for small carriers and Tribal Nations, and entities in rural areas, to voluntarily participate in ECIP (ECIP Report and Order in WT Docket No. 19-38, FCC 22-53). The ECIP proceeding is in response to Congressional direction in the Making Opportunities for Broadband Investment and Limiting Excessive and Needless Obstacles to Wireless Act (MOBILE NOW Act) to consider steps to increase the diversity of spectrum access and the availability of advanced telecommunications services in rural areas. The ECIP will promote greater competition in the provision of wireless services, facilitate increased availability of advanced wireless services in rural areas, facilitate new opportunities for small carriers and Tribal Nations to increase access to spectrum, and bring more advanced wireless service including 5G to underserved communities.
                </P>
                <P>In establishing ECIP, the Commission revised its rules to allow partition and/or disaggregation assignment applications pursuant to §  1.950 or full assignments pursuant to §  1.948, to designate a Qualifying Transaction identified in the application as seeking consideration under the ECIP. Respondents are also required to select the applicable ECIP prong to its Qualifying Transaction, pursuant to either §  1.60003 or §  1.60004. Respondents will also certify via attachment to FCC Form 603 for the purpose of certifying compliance with § 1.60002 of the Commission's rules, which requires simply a check box of yes that the applicant selects. This has been approved by non-substantive change request.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     3060-1058.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Approval Date:</E>
                     January 18, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Expiration Date:</E>
                     January 31, 2027.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     FCC Application or Notification for Spectrum Leasing Arrangement or Private Commons Arrangement; Wireless Telecommunications Bureau; Public Safety and Homeland Security Bureau.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     FCC Form 608.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Individual and households, Business or other for-profit entities, state, local, or tribal government, and not for profit institutions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents and Responses:</E>
                     1,116 respondents and 1,116 responses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     0.05 to 1 hour.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Recordkeeping requirement; third party disclosure requirement, on occasion reporting requirement and periodic reporting requirement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Obligation to Respond:</E>
                     Required to obtain or retain benefits. Statutory authority for this collection of information is contained in 47 U.S.C. 154, 155, 158, 161, 301, 303(r), 308, 309, 310 and 332.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden:</E>
                     1,135 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Cost:</E>
                     $1,443,825.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     On July 18, 2022, the Commission released a Report and Order and Second Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, Partitioning, Disaggregation, and Leasing of Spectrum, WT Docket No. 19-38, FCC 22-53, in which the Commission established the Enhanced Competition Incentive Program (ECIP) to establish incentives for wireless radio service licensees to make underutilized spectrum available to small carriers, Tribal Nations, and entities serving rural areas (ECIP Report and Order in WT Docket No. 19-38, FCC 22-53). In the Report and Order, the Commission adopted a program under which any covered geographic area licensee may offer spectrum to an unaffiliated eligible entity through a partition and/or disaggregation, and any covered geographic area licensee eligible to lease in an included service may offer spectrum to an unaffiliated eligible entity through a long-term leasing arrangement. If the FCC finds that approval of an ECIP eligible assignment or lease is in the public interest, the agency will consent to the transaction and confer benefits, including five-year license term extensions, one year construction extensions, and substituted alternative construction requirements for rural-focused transactions.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11745"/>
                </P>
                <P>In establishing the ECIP, the Commission requires applicants seeking to participate in the program to submit certain information that shows the transaction qualifies for ECIP inclusion. The Commission found that the ECIP builds on Congressional goals in the MOBILE NOW Act to incentivize beneficial transactions in the public interest that will promote greater competition in the provision of wireless services, facilitate increased availability of advanced wireless services in rural areas, facilitate new opportunities for small carriers and Tribal Nations to increase access to spectrum, and bring more advanced wireless service including 5G to underserved communities. Specifically, in the ECIP Report and Order, the Commission revised its rules to allow any covered geographic licenses in included services to be leased to eligible entities through a long-term leasing arrangement.</P>
                <P>Specifically, in the ECIP Report and Order, the Commission revised its rules to allow any covered geographic licenses in included services to be leased to eligible entities through a long-term leasing arrangement, to designate a Qualifying Transaction identified in the application as seeking consideration under the ECIP. Two new questions are being added to the FCC Form 608 as a result. Respondents are required to indicate by yes or no answer whether the application is seeking consideration under ECIP. Respondents are also required to select the applicable ECIP prong to its Qualifying Transaction, pursuant to either §  1.60003 or §  1.60004. A certification is also included via attachment to FCC Form 608 for the purpose of certifying compliance with § 1.60002 of the Commission's rules, which requires simply a check box of yes by the applicant. This has been approved by non-substantive change request.</P>
                <P>
                    Finally, a new Schedule J is being added to FCC Form 608 and will be used by Spectrum Manager Lessors (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the Licensee) to file either the Initial Operation Requirement Notifications (IORN) or the Final Operation Requirement Notifications (FORN), as required by 47 CFR 1.60004, 1.60006, on behalf of the Lessee.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Federal Communications Commission.</FP>
                    <NAME>Marlene Dortch,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-02864 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6712-01-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Defense Acquisition Regulations System</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>48 CFR Part 212, 237, and 252</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket DARS-2023-0016]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0750-AL07</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement: Transfer and Adoption of Military Animals (DFARS Case 2020-D021)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Defense Acquisition Regulations System, Department of Defense (DoD).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>DoD is issuing a final rule to amend the Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) to implement a section of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2020.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Effective February 15, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Kimberly R. Ziegler, telephone 703-901-3176.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    DoD published a proposed rule in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     at 88 FR 25606 on April 27, 2023, to implement section 372(f) of the National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) for Fiscal Year (FY) 2020 (Pub. L. 116-92). Section 372(f), as implemented at 10 U.S.C. 2387 (previously 10 U.S.C. 2410r), requires DoD contracting officers to include a clause in contracts when contract working dogs are provided under the contract. 10 U.S.C. 2387 requires the transfer of a contract working dog, after the service life of the dog has terminated, to the United States Air Force, 341st Training Squadron. The preamble to the proposed rule contained a detailed description of the treatment and care to be provided for a contract working dog whose service life has terminated and the conditions under which that determination may be made.
                </P>
                <P>Three respondents submitted comments on the proposed rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Discussion and Analysis.</HD>
                <P>DoD reviewed the public comments in the development of the final rule. A discussion of the comments and the changes made to the rule as a result of those comments is provided, as follows:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Summary of Significant Changes from the Proposed Rule.</HD>
                <P>There are no significant changes from the proposed rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Analysis of Public Comments</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Support for the Rule</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Some respondents support the rule.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The support is noted.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Application to All Contracts for Military Working Dogs</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Some respondents voiced concerns that the rule will only apply to contracts at or below the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The rule applies to all contracts for contract working dogs, as defined in 10 U.S.C. 2387(c), including those valued at or below the SAT. Section III of the preamble for the proposed rule provides the legal basis for applying the rule to contracts valued at or below the SAT and for commercial services and products, including commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) items.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Replacement vs. Termination of Contract Working Dogs</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Some respondents were concerned that a contract working dog would be replaced instead of retired under a service contract, avoiding the termination and transfer of the dog.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     DoD generally contracts for a team consisting of the working dog and handler under a service contract. Service contracts include standards of performance for the team. If the team cannot perform to the standard, the contractor is generally expected to replace the team with a team that can perform to the standard. The statute recognizes that the inability to perform to the standard in an individual DoD contract does not mean that a dog has met the conditions for retirement or termination. Specifically, the contract working dog service life would continue if the dog could be utilized on another Federal Government contract, which could have different standards than a DoD contract.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     A respondent expressed concerns that the proposed rule explanation of the impact characterized the need for a contracting officer to make a determination as “rare” because it may be assumed that a dog's service life would never be terminated.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     As noted in section IV of the preamble for the proposed rule, DoD does not expect the impact of the rule to be significant because the number of acquisitions that include contract working dogs and handlers are few in number. If the contracting officer's representative or requiring activity identifies a non-performing working dog and handler, an assessment will be conducted by Government experts to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11746"/>
                    determine if the conditions at 10 U.S.C. 2387(b) are met before a recommendation is provided to the contracting officer.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. DoD Handlers</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Some respondents asserted that contract working dogs are paired with military and DoD civilian handlers and that DoD's statement to the contrary, provided in the preamble for the proposed rule, is inaccurate. The respondents refer to DoD Inspector General (DoDIG) report 2018-081, entitled “The Army's Tactical Explosive Detection Dog Disposition Process from 2011 to 2014.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     This rule addresses contract working dogs that are not Government-owned property (see 10 U.S.C. 2387(c)). Contract working dogs addressed by this rule are not paired with military personnel or DoD civilian employee handlers. The respondent's references to DoDIG report 2018-081 seem to indicate a misunderstanding of the difference between a contract working dog and those working dogs procured as Government property under the military working dog and Tactical Explosive Detection Dog (TEDD) programs. The TEDD program authorized the procurement of a working dog and provided that a contractor, rather than the Government, train, house, and care for the dog through certification under the military working dog standards. The Government owned these military working dogs and was responsible for their disposition in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2583.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Penalty for Noncompliance</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Some respondents requested that the final rule include a penalty for noncompliance.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response:</E>
                     The statute does not provide a specific penalty for contractor noncompliance; however, contracting officers may use existing contracting regulations to enforce the terms of the contract.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Other Changes</HD>
                <P>Text at DFARS contract clause 252.237-7027, Transfer and Adoption of Military Animals, is revised for clarity. At DFARS 237.7804, the prescription for the clause is also revised for clarity.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Applicability to Contracts at or Below the Simplified Acquisition Threshold (SAT) and for Commercial Services and Commercial Products, Including Commercially Available Off-the-Shelf (COTS) Items</HD>
                <P>The contract clause at DFARS 252.237-7027, Transfer and Adoption of Military Animals, is prescribed at DFARS 237.7804 for use in solicitations and contracts, including solicitations and contracts using Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) part 12 procedures for commercial products and commercial services, that require the services of a contract working dog. Consistent with the analysis that DoD provided in the proposed rule with regard to the application of the requirements of section 372(f) of the NDAA for FY 2020, DoD has made the determination to apply the statute, as implemented in the clause at DFARS 252.237-7027, to contracts at or below the SAT and to the acquisition of commercial services, as defined at FAR 2.101.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Expected Impact of the Rule</HD>
                <P>DoD does not expect the rule to have a significant impact on the public, because the need for a contracting officer to make a determination that a contract working dog has reached the end of its service life will be rare. Such acquisitions are few in number, and service contractors who provide contract working dogs and handlers are expected to replace dogs and handlers who are unable to perform to DoD standards. A contracting officer's representative (COR) would be responsible for monitoring contract performance and coordinating any replacement dog and handler requirements. If the COR or requiring activity identifies a non-performing working dog and handler, an assessment will be conducted by Government experts to determine if the conditions at 10 U.S.C. 2387(b) are met before a recommendation is provided to the contracting officer for action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Executive Orders 12866 and 13563</HD>
                <P>Executive Orders (E.O.s) 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This is not a significant regulatory action and, therefore, was not subject to review under section 6(b) of E.O. 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, as amended.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Congressional Review Act</HD>
                <P>
                    As required by the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801-808) before an interim or final rule takes effect, DoD will submit a copy of the interim or final rule with the form, Submission of Federal Rules Under the Congressional Review Act, to the U.S. Senate, the U.S. House of Representatives, and the Comptroller General of the United States. A major rule under the Congressional Review Act cannot take effect until 60 days after it is published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has determined that this rule is not a major rule as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>
                    A final regulatory flexibility analysis has been prepared consistent with the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                     and is summarized as follows:
                </P>
                <P>This final rule amends the Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) to implement 10 U.S.C. 2387, as amended by section 372(f) of the National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) for Fiscal Year (FY) 2020 (Pub. L. 116-92). Under 10 U.S.C. 2387, DoD contracting officers are required to include a clause in contracts for contract working dog services.</P>
                <P>The objective of the rule is to implement the statutory requirements for terminating the service life of a contract working dog, when certain circumstances apply, and transferring the animal to the Department of the Air Force, 341st Training Squadron.</P>
                <P>There were no significant issues raised by the public in response to the initial regulatory flexibility analysis.</P>
                <P>This rule will apply to small entities providing contract working dog and handler services to DoD. The contract clause is prescribed for use in solicitations and contracts for such services, including those conducted under FAR part 12 procedures for the acquisition of commercial products and commercial services.</P>
                <P>
                    Research conducted in the Contract Opportunities section of 
                    <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                     indicates that contract working dog and handler services are generally procured under North American Industry Classification System codes and product and service codes that provide for certain physical security and law enforcement services. Data obtained from the Federal Procurement Data System (FPDS) for FYs 2019, 2020, and 2021 indicate that DoD awards an average of 227 contract actions annually for these physical security and law enforcement services, which may include a requirement for a contract working dog and handler. Of the estimated 227 awards, an average of approximately 72 awards are made annually to an estimated 52 unique 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11747"/>
                    small entities. Neither FPDS nor 
                    <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                     provide data for the number of awards that are specific to the contract working dog and handler services; however, this analysis assumes all of the estimated awards and unique small entities may be impacted.
                </P>
                <P>The rule does not impose any new reporting, recordkeeping, or compliance requirements.</P>
                <P>There are no practical alternatives that will accomplish the objectives of the statute.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>This final rule does not contain any information collection requirements that require the approval of the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35).</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 48 CFR Part 212, 237, and 252</HD>
                    <P>Government procurement.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jennifer D. Johnson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Editor/Publisher, Defense Acquisition Regulations System.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>Therefore, 48 CFR parts 212, 237, and 252 are amended as follows:</P>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="212">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for parts 212, 237, and 252 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 41 U.S.C. 1303 and 48 CFR chapter 1.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 212—ACQUISITION OF COMMERCIAL PRODUCTS AND COMMERCIAL SERVICES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="212">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Amend section 212.301 by adding paragraph (f)(xv)(E) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>212.301 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Solicitation provisions and contract clauses for the acquisition of commercial products and commercial services.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(f) * * *</P>
                        <P>(xv) * * *</P>
                        <P>(E) Use the clause at 252.237-7027, Transfer and Adoption of Military Animals, as prescribed in 237.7804 to comply with 10 U.S.C. 2387.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 237—SERVICE CONTRACTING</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="237">
                    <AMDPAR>3. Add subpart 237.78 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <CONTENTS>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart 237.78—Transfer and Adoption of Military Animals</HD>
                            <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                            <SECTNO>237.7800 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Scope of subpart.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>237.7801 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Definition.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>237.7802 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Policy.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>237.7803 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Procedures.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>237.7804 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Contract clause.</SUBJECT>
                        </SUBPART>
                    </CONTENTS>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart 237.78—Transfer and Adoption of Military Animals</HD>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>237.7800 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Scope of subpart.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>This subpart implements 10 U.S.C. 2387, which requires, under certain circumstances, the transfer of a contract working dog to the Department of Air Force, 341st Training Squadron, for veterinary screening and care in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2583.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>237.7801 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Definition.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>As used in this subpart—</P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Contract working dog</E>
                                 means a dog that—
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Performs a service for DoD pursuant to a contract; and</P>
                            <P>(2) Is trained and kenneled by an entity that provides such a dog pursuant to such a contract.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>237.7802 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Policy.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2387, DoD will transfer a contract working dog to the Department of the Air Force, 341st Training Squadron, for veterinary screening and care after the service life of the dog has terminated.</P>
                            <P>(b) The service life of a contract working dog may be terminated if—</P>
                            <P>(1) The final contractual obligation of the dog preceding transfer is with DoD; and</P>
                            <P>(2) The dog cannot be used by another department or agency of the Federal Government due to age, injury, or performance.</P>
                            <P>(c) A contract working dog that has reached the end of its service life will be transferred for care, reclassification as a military animal, and placement for adoption in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2583.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>237.7803 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Procedures.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>Contracting officers, at the request of the requiring activity, may issue a determination that the service life of a contract working dog has terminated if the conditions in 237.7802(b) have been documented by the requiring activity.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>237.7804 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Contract clause.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>Use the clause at 252.237-7027, Transfer and Adoption of Military Animals, in solicitations and contracts, including solicitations and contracts using FAR part 12 procedures for the acquisition of commercial products and commercial services, that require the services of a contract working dog.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </SUBPART>
                </REGTEXT>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 252—SOLICITATION PROVISIONS AND CONTRACT CLAUSES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="252">
                    <AMDPAR>4. Add section 252.237-7027 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>252.237-7027 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Transfer and Adoption of Military Animals.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>As prescribed in 237.7804, use the following clause:</P>
                        <EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD1">Transfer and Adoption of Military Animals (Feb 2024)</HD>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Definition.</E>
                                 As used in this clause—
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Contract working dog</E>
                                 means a dog that—
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Performs a service for DoD pursuant to a contract; and</P>
                            <P>(2) Is trained and kenneled by an entity that provides such a dog pursuant to such a contract.</P>
                            <P>(b) In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2387, if the Contracting Officer determines that the service life of a contract working dog has terminated, the dog will be transferred to the Department of the Air Force, 341st Training Squadron, for veterinary screening and care, reclassification as a military animal, and placement for adoption in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2583.</P>
                            <P>(c) The service life of a contract working dog may be terminated if the Contracting Officer determines that—</P>
                            <P>(1) The final contractual obligation of the dog preceding transfer is with DoD; and</P>
                            <P>(2) The dog cannot be used by another department or agency of the Federal Government due to age, injury, or performance.</P>
                        </EXTRACT>
                        <FP>(End of clause)</FP>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-02743 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE6001-FR-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Defense Acquisition Regulations System</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>48 CFR Part 213</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket DARS-2024-0001]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement; Technical Amendments</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Defense Acquisition Regulations System, Department of Defense (DoD).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule; technical amendment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>DoD is amending the Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) to make needed editorial changes.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Effective February 15, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Ms. Jennifer D. Johnson, Defense Acquisition Regulations System, telephone 703-717-8226.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This final rule amends the DFARS to make needed editorial changes to add a pointer to DFARS Procedures, Guidance, and Information.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="11748"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 48 CFR Part 213</HD>
                    <P>Government procurement.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jennifer D. Johnson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Editor/Publisher, Defense Acquisition Regulations System.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>Therefore, 48 CFR part 213 is amended as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 213—SIMPLIFIED ACQUISITION PROCEDURES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="213">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 48 CFR part 213 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 41 U.S.C. 1303 and 48 CFR chapter 1.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="213">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Amend section 213.301 by adding paragraph (6) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>213.301 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Governmentwide commercial purchase card.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (6) When the Governmentwide commercial purchase card is used as a method of payment for contracts or orders, follow the procedures at 232.7002(a)(5) and PGI 242.302(a)(13)(B)(
                            <E T="03">3</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-02748 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6001-FR-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Defense Acquisition Regulations System</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>48 CFR Parts 245 and 225</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket DARS-2024-0001]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement; Technical Amendments</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Defense Acquisition Regulations System, Department of Defense (DoD).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule; technical amendment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>DoD is amending the Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) to make needed editorial changes.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Effective February 15, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Ms. Jennifer D. Johnson, Defense Acquisition Regulations System, telephone 703-717-8226.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P> This final rule amends the DFARS to make needed editorial changes to update an outdated office name and address at DFARS 245.102 and to correct typographical errors at DFARS 252.223-7009.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 48 CFR Parts 245 and 252</HD>
                    <P>Government procurement.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jennifer D. Johnson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Editor/Publisher, Defense Acquisition Regulations System.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>Therefore, 48 CFR parts 245 and 252 are amended as follows:</P>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="245">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 48 CFR parts 245 and 252 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P> 41 U.S.C. 1303 and 48 CFR chapter 1.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 245—GOVERNMENT PROPERTY</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="245">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        2. Amend section 245.102 by revising paragraph (4)(ii)(C)(
                        <E T="03">2</E>
                        ) to read as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>245.102 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Policy.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(4) * * *</P>
                        <P>(ii) * * *</P>
                        <P>(C) * * *</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) A copy of the executed determination and findings shall be provided to the Office of the Principal Director, Defense Pricing and Contracting (DPC) (Contracting eBusiness) via email at 
                            <E T="03">osd.pentagon.ousd-a-s.mbx.dpc-cb@mail.mil.</E>
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 252—SOLICITATION PROVISIONS AND CONTRACT CLAUSES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="252">
                    <AMDPAR>3. Amend section 252.223-7009 by revising the clause title and date to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>252.223-7009 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Prohibition of Procurement of Fluorinated Aqueous Film-Forming Foam Fire-Fighting Agent for Use on Military Installations.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Prohibition of Procurement of Fluorinated Aqueous Film-Forming Foam Fire-Fighting Agent for Use on Military Installations (Feb 2024)</HD>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-01221 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6001-FR-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">GENERAL SERVICES ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <CFR>48 CFR Parts 519 and 570</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[GSAR Case 2022-G519; Docket No. 2024-0006; Sequence No. 1]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 3090-AK78</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation; Removing Small Disadvantaged Business Program Requirements To Align With the FAR</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Acquisition Policy, General Services Administration (GSA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The General Services Administration is issuing a final rule amending the General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation to remove Small Disadvantaged Business Program requirements references to align with the Federal Acquisition Regulation for consistency.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Effective February 15, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For clarification of content, contact Mr. Curtis Hauschlidt, GSA Acquisition Policy Division, at 
                        <E T="03">GSARPolicy@gsa.gov</E>
                         or 817-253-7858. For information pertaining to status or publication schedules, contact the Regulatory Secretariat at 202-501-4755 or 
                        <E T="03">GSARegsec@gsa.gov.</E>
                         Please cite GSAR Case 2022-G519.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) subpart 19.12, Small Disadvantaged Business Participation Program, and all references to it, were removed from the FAR on October 14, 2014 (FAR Case 2009-016, 79 FR 61746). This removal followed a Federal court ruling that declared 10 U.S.C. 2323 unconstitutional. FAR subpart 19.12 derived its authority solely from 10 U.S.C. 2323, thus necessitating its removal. While removal from the FAR was made, no conforming changes were made to the General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation (GSAR). Upon routine regulatory review of the GSAR, this discrepancy was observed and removal was determined necessary. This final rule aligns the GSAR with the FAR.</P>
                <P>
                    To summarize, GSAR subpart 519.12 is removed and reserved for future use. All mentions of GSAR subpart 519.12 are also removed, as well as corresponding mentions to FAR subpart 19.12 and corresponding clauses, which have been removed from the FAR. Changes made are as follows:
                    <PRTPAGE P="11749"/>
                </P>
                <P>• Removal of GSAR subpart 519.12. Reservation of GSAR subpart 519.12.</P>
                <P>• Removal of reference to GSAR subpart 519.12 from the table at 570.101.</P>
                <P>• Removal of reference to FAR clauses 52.219-24, 52.219-25, and 52.219-26 listed at 570.701.</P>
                <P>• Removal of reference to FAR 19.1202-4(b) from GSAR 570.306.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Publication of This Final Rule for Public Comment Is Not Required</HD>
                <P>The statute that applies to the publication of the GSAR is the Office of Federal Procurement Policy statute (codified at title 41 of the United States Code). Specifically, 41 U.S.C. 1707(a)(1) requires that a procurement policy, regulation, procedure or form (including an amendment or modification thereof) must be published for public comment if it relates to the expenditure of appropriated funds, and has either a significant effect beyond the internal operating procedures of the agency issuing the policy, regulation, procedure, or form, or has a significant cost or administrative impact on contractors or offerors. This rule is not required to be published for public comment because GSA is not issuing a new regulation; rather, this rule is merely removing the Small Disadvantaged Business Program requirements from the GSAR to better align with the FAR for consistency.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Executive Order 12866, 13563, and 14094</HD>
                <P>Executive Order (E.O.) 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review) directs agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). E.O. 13563 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review) emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. E.O. 14094 (Modernizing Regulatory Review) supplements and reaffirms the principles, structures, and definitions governing contemporary regulatory review established in E.O. 12866 and E.O. 13563. The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) in the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has determined that this is not a significant regulatory action and, therefore, is not subject to review under section 6(b) of E.O. 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, dated September 30, 1993.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Congressional Review Act</HD>
                <P>
                    OIRA has determined that this rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804(2). Subtitle E of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (codified at 5 U.S.C. 801-808), also known as the Congressional Review Act or CRA, generally provides that before a “major rule” may take effect, the agency promulgating the rule must submit a rule report, which includes a copy of the rule, to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. The General Services Administration will submit a report containing this rule and other required information to the U.S. Senate, the U.S. House of Representatives, and the Comptroller General of the United States. A major rule under the CRA cannot take effect until 60 days after it is published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>
                    The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) does not apply to this rule, because an opportunity for public comment is not required to be given for this rule under 41 U.S.C. 1707(a)(1). Accordingly, no regulatory flexibility analysis is required and none has been prepared.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>The rule does not contain any information collection requirements that require the approval of the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35).</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 48 CFR Parts 519 and 570</HD>
                    <P>Government procurement.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jeffrey A. Koses,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Senior Procurement Executive, Office of Acquisition Policy, Office of Government-wide Policy, General Services Administration.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>Therefore, GSA amends 48 CFR parts 519 and 570 as set forth below:</P>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="519">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 48 CFR parts 519 and 570 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>40 U.S.C. 121(c).</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>Subpart 519.12</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Removed and Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 519—SMALL BUSINESS PROGRAMS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="519">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Remove and reserve subpart 519.12, consisting of sections 519.1202 and 519.1202-2.</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 570—ACQUIRING LEASEHOLD INTERESTS IN REAL PROPERTY</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="519">
                    <AMDPAR>3. Amend section 570.101 in table 1 to paragraph (b) by revising the entry for 501 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>570.101</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Applicability.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(b) * * *</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L1,p1,8/9,i1" CDEF="s25,12,12,12">
                            <TTITLE>
                                Table 1 to Paragraph (
                                <E T="01">b</E>
                                )—GSAR Rules Applicable to Acquisitions of Leasehold Interests in Real Property
                            </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">501</ENT>
                                <ENT>515.209-70</ENT>
                                <ENT/>
                                <ENT>536.271</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="570">
                    <AMDPAR>4. Amend section 570.306 by revising the introductory text of paragraph (d) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>570.306</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Evaluating offers.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(d) The contracting officer may obtain information to evaluate an offeror's past performance on subcontracting plan goals and monetary targets from the following sources:</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>570.701</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="570">
                    <AMDPAR>5. Amend section 570.701 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Removing paragraph (h);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Redesignating paragraphs (i) through (l) as paragraphs (h) through (k); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>c. Removing paragraph (m).</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-02917 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6820-61-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="11750"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Fish and Wildlife Service</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>50 CFR Part 17</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FWS-R6-ES-2021-0134; FF09E21000 FXES1111090FEDR 245]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1018-BE98</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Threatened Species Status With Section 4(d) Rule for the Silverspot Butterfly</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), determine threatened species status under the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (Act), as amended, for a subspecies of butterfly (
                        <E T="03">Speyeria nokomis nokomis</E>
                        ), a silverspot butterfly from Colorado, New Mexico, and Utah. We also finalize a rule issued under the authority of section 4(d) of the Act that provides measures that are necessary and advisable to provide for the conservation of this subspecies. We have determined that the designation of critical habitat is not prudent.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective March 18, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This final rule is available on the internet at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at Docket No. FWS-R6-ES-2021-0134. Comments and materials we received, as well as supporting documentation we used in preparing this rule, are available for public inspection at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at Docket No. FWS-R6-ES-2021-0134.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Nathan Darnall, Western Colorado Supervisor, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Colorado Ecological Services Field Office, 445 West Gunnison Avenue, Grand Junction, CO 81501; telephone 970-628-7181. Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Summary</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Why we need to publish a rule.</E>
                     Under the Act, a species warrants listing if it meets the definition of an endangered species (in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range) or a threatened species (likely to become endangered within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range). If we determine that a species warrants listing, we must list the species promptly and designate the species' critical habitat to the maximum extent prudent and determinable. We have determined that the silverspot butterfly meets the Act's definition of a threatened species; therefore, we are listing it as such. Listing a species as an endangered or threatened species can be completed only by issuing a rule through the Administrative Procedure Act rulemaking process (5 U.S.C. 551 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). We have determined that the designation of critical habitat is not prudent due to the threat of collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">What this document does.</E>
                     This rule finalizes the listing of the silverspot butterfly as a threatened species with a rule issued under the authority of section 4(d) of the Act (a “4(d) rule”).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">The basis for our action.</E>
                     Under the Act, we may determine that a species is an endangered or threatened species because of any of five factors: (A) The present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of its habitat or range; (B) overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes; (C) disease or predation; (D) the inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; or (E) other natural or manmade factors affecting its continued existence. We have determined that the silverspot butterfly is threatened due to the individual and cumulative effects of habitat loss and fragmentation (Factor A), incompatible livestock grazing (Factor A), human-caused hydrologic alteration (Factor A), genetic isolation (Factor E), and climate change (Factor E).
                </P>
                <P>Section 4(a)(3) of the Act requires the Secretary of the Interior (Secretary), to the maximum extent prudent and determinable, to designate critical habitat concurrent with listing. We have determined that designating critical habitat is not prudent for the silverspot butterfly at this time, for the reasons discussed below in section III. Critical Habitat.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Previous Federal Actions</HD>
                <P>Please refer to the May 4, 2022, proposed rule (87 FR 26319) to list the silverspot butterfly for a detailed description of previous Federal actions concerning this subspecies.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Peer Review</HD>
                <P>A species status assessment (SSA) team prepared an SSA report for the silverspot butterfly (hereafter, silverspot). The SSA team was composed of Service biologists, in consultation with other species experts. The SSA report represents a compilation of the best scientific and commercial data available concerning the status of the subspecies, including the impacts of past, present, and future factors (both negative and beneficial) affecting the subspecies.</P>
                <P>
                    In accordance with our joint policy on peer review published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on July 1, 1994 (59 FR 34270), and our August 22, 2016, memorandum updating and clarifying the role of peer review of listing actions under the Act, we solicited independent scientific review of the information contained in the silverspot SSA report. We sent the SSA report to four appropriate and independent peer reviewers and received four responses. Results of this structured peer review process can be found at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     at Docket No. FWS-R6-ES-2021-0134. We incorporated the results of these reviews, as appropriate, into the SSA report, which is the foundation for the May 4, 2022, proposed rule and this final rule. A summary of the peer review comments and our responses can be found in the “Summary of Public Comments and Recommendations” below.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Changes From the Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>After consideration of the comments we received during the public comment period on the May 4, 2022, proposed rule (87 FR 26319), we made changes to this final rule. In addition to minor editorial changes, we updated information in this final rule and the SSA report (Service 2023, entire) based on comments and additional information provided, as follows:</P>
                <P>
                    First, we incorporated new survey information from 2021 and 2022 for six populations (Garfield, Mesa/Grand, Montrose/San Juan, Ouray, San Miguel/Mora, and Taos) into the SSA report and our evaluation of current and future condition in this final rule. Recent surveys for these populations provided updated information on the number of colonies and habitat acreage. There are now 21 known silverspot colonies grouped into 10 populations, an increase from the 19 colonies reported in the May 4, 2022, proposed rule (the number of silverspot populations has not changed). There are now known to be approximately 714 habitat acres (289 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11751"/>
                    hectares (ha)) within the 10 populations, a slight increase from the 710.5 acres (287.5 ha) reported in the May 4, 2022, proposed rule. This information resulted in changes to resiliency scores identified in tables 1 and 2 of the May 4, 2022, proposed rule, and the current and future resiliency condition categories for three (Garfield, Mesa/Grand, and San Miguel/Mora) of the six populations with new survey information (see Service 2023, pp. 8, 39-48). These changes include both increases and decreases in current and future resiliency scores, depending on the population (see tables 1 and 2, below). This information improves our understanding of the silverspot's status.
                </P>
                <P>Second, we incorporated into the SSA report a change to the categories that we used to evaluate the current status of silverspot populations (extant, likely extant, intermittent, unknown, likely extirpated, extirpated) as shown in the resiliency tables (see Service 2023, pp. 8, 40-47). We no longer consider there to be a relevant distinction between the “intermittent” and “unknown” status categories given the similar levels of uncertainty ascribed to their status. Therefore, we merged the two categories into the “unknown” category, and, as a result, we changed the status of the Garfield and LaPlata populations from intermittent to unknown. This change simplifies and better delineates the status categories for the subspecies and does not affect the scoring of current and future condition.</P>
                <P>Third, we updated the range map in the SSA report and removed higher elevation areas. Now, the range map only identifies areas within the elevation range of the silverspot (Service 2023, pp. 16, 18).</P>
                <P>Finally, we made the following changes to the preamble discussion and/or regulatory text of the 4(d) rule:</P>
                <P>(1) We added an exception for maintenance and operation of existing utility infrastructure within existing rights-of-way (for more information, see “Provisions of the 4(d) Rule” below); and</P>
                <P>(2) We made editorial corrections to the wording of certain exceptions in the regulatory text of the 4(d) rule to increase clarity and to better align the language with existing regulations and law. These corrections include revisions such as specifying that a machine blade's height be measured from “above the ground” and that certain excepted activities can occur “year-round.” These editorial corrections do not alter the original meaning of these exceptions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Public Comments and Recommendations</HD>
                <P>In the proposed rule published on May 4, 2022 (87 FR 26319), we requested that all interested parties submit written comments on the proposal by July 5, 2022. We also contacted appropriate Federal and State agencies, Tribes, scientific experts and organizations, and other interested parties and invited them to comment on the proposal. On May 3, 2022, we published a press release on our website inviting the public to comment. On May 4, 2022, a newspaper notice inviting general public comment was also published in the Grand Junction Daily Sentinel. We did not receive any requests for a public hearing. All substantive information we received during the comment period has either been incorporated directly into this final determination, has been used to clarify the information in the SSA report, or is addressed below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Peer Reviewer Comments</HD>
                <P>As discussed in “Peer Review” above, we received comments from four peer reviewers on the draft SSA report. We reviewed all comments we received from the peer reviewers for substantive issues and new information regarding the contents of the SSA report. Peer reviewer comments are addressed in the following summary. As discussed above, because we conducted this peer review prior to the publication of our proposed rule, we had already incorporated all applicable peer review comments into version 1.0 of the SSA report, which was the foundation for the proposed rule and this final rule. The four peer reviewers provided additional information, clarifications, and recommendations that we have either incorporated into the SSA report or address below. We received a few comments on recovery efforts for the silverspot. We note these for future reference in recovery planning but do not respond here because they are outside the scope of this rulemaking.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(1) Comment:</E>
                     One reviewer recommended including more discussion in the SSA report about the results of a recent genetic study (Cong et al. 2019, entire) regarding the timing of introgression (also known as introgressive hybridization, the transfer of genetic material between species following hybridization by repeated backcrossing of an interspecific hybrid with one of its parent species) between the silverspot and other species or subspecies, and how populations became introgressed. The reviewer also recommended that we evaluate introgression as a future threat to the silverspot if this would result in the loss of the subspecies' conservation value.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     We did not add more discussion on this topic to the SSA report because the document already has a summary of the genetic variation and introgression results from the recent genetic study referenced by the reviewer (Cong et al. 2019, entire). In the SSA report, we refer to introgression as hybridization that resulted in hybrid segregates or intermediate hybrids with various levels of genetic mixing between 
                    <E T="03">Speyeria nokomis nokomis, S. n. apacheana,</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">S. n. nitocris</E>
                     (Service 2023, pp. 13-14). We also stated that various levels of hybridization occurred historically between the silverspot and other subspecies, but that hybridization declined under warmer, drier climate conditions since the last ice age as the subspecies became isolated from each other. There is evidence of isolation between the silverspot and the other subspecies or hybrids that has persisted for centuries (over the last few hundred years or longer). We also identify genetic isolation as a threat to the silverspot based on the distances between known populations (see 
                    <E T="03">Factors Influencing Subspecies Viability,</E>
                     below). Given the low likelihood of current or future hybridization, we do not consider hybridization to be a threat to the silverspot.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(2) Comment:</E>
                     One reviewer stated their concern with the current distribution description in the SSA report and the treatment of known sites as somewhat fixed in both space and time. The reviewer felt that the presence of undiscovered colonies within each population could have important consequences for colony persistence by augmenting known populations both demographically and genetically, thereby increasing resilience. The reviewer noted there is documentation of this in one Great Basin 
                    <E T="03">Speyeria n. apacheana</E>
                     colony (Britten et al. 2003, entire). The reviewer suggested that some discussion of this possibility and a description of systematic efforts that have been made to find additional colonies within the subspecies' range (as shown on the SSA report's range map) should be included.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     We acknowledge that species can shift their ranges over space and time. The range map in the SSA report (Service 2023, p. 18) is based on the best available information at the time it was created, and we will update the SSA report and range map as new information becomes available for the subspecies. We also characterize the importance of colonies for population 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11752"/>
                    persistence, demographics, and genetics in the SSA report (Service 2023, pp. 17, 23-26, 35-36). The demographic and genetic benefits of connectivity between known colonies would apply to undiscovered colonies, and we added this statement to the SSA report (Service 2023, p. 35). We are not able to disclose details or results of systematic survey efforts and colony locations due to the threat of collection; however, we have surveyed, and will continue to survey, historical locations and potential habitat to determine the presence or absence of the silverspot.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(3) Comment:</E>
                     One reviewer agreed with the definition of the silverspot's occupied habitat, the individual site descriptions presented in the SSA report, and how current and past habitat patches have changed through time. However, the reviewer noted that the SSA report does not include implications of the long-term dynamics of habitat quality and dispersion. The reviewer thought a more in-depth analysis of the dynamic nature of the butterfly's habitat and population fluctuations would be helpful to the long-term persistence of the subspecies even if it is based on educated opinion. The reviewer stated that there is enough information to at least speculate on the potential for the silverspot to follow its habitat, or find newly formed habitat, as climate change and other perturbations alter the current distribution of its habitat. The reviewer wondered if there are places within the current distribution where butterfly colonies could move upslope as the current habitat becomes unsuitable due to warming. A second reviewer stated that climate change could cause small elevation shifts in silverspot colonies.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     Currently, we do not have sufficient information to make a reliable or well-informed projection of the silverspot's ability to find newly formed habitat or occupy higher elevation habitat if climate change or habitat loss and fragmentation alter its current distribution. We lack detailed information on the locations of bog violet populations across the range and in higher elevations. One species expert stated that the silverspot was not likely to move upslope in a warmer/drier climate unless habitat is continuous and the bog violet already occurs there (Ellis 2020b, pers. comm.; Service 2023, p. 50). We will develop a recovery plan and recovery actions for the silverspot to improve our understanding of the silverspot and perhaps its ability to occupy higher elevation habitats.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(4) Comment:</E>
                     One reviewer recommended referring to a silverspot population as a metapopulation because colonies connected by demographic and genetic exchange are better described as metapopulations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     We use the term metapopulation when discussing silverspot populations with more than one colony. However, in the SSA report, we continue to use the term population in general, because there are also many single colony silverspot populations, and it is a standard term we use to describe the groupings of silverspots we used in our analysis of resiliency and viability.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(5) Comment:</E>
                     One reviewer supported the subspecies delineation presented in the recent genetic study (Cong et al. 2019, entire) and the SSA report. However, the reviewer noted that while the genetic study uses strong methods, it has not been peer-reviewed and lacks some details about methods and analyses. The reviewer recommended a discussion in the SSA report about the level of confidence in the results and why we identify 10 major populations for the genus, 
                    <E T="03">Speyeria.</E>
                     Their interpretation of the results was that a delineation of 13 populations was better supported than the 10 populations we state in the SSA report.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     We report the results and conclusions of the draft genetic study (Cong et al. 2019, entire) in the SSA report because the draft genetic study provides the best available information on the genetics of the silverspot and the other 
                    <E T="03">Speyeria nokomis</E>
                     subspecies. We are confident in the results of the draft study because of the researchers' genetic expertise despite the fact that the study has not been peer-reviewed. We will update the SSA report as needed to reflect major changes, if any, once the genetic study is published.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(6) Comment:</E>
                     One reviewer stated that the SSA report does not include published reports of 
                    <E T="03">Speyeria nokomis apacheana</E>
                     to their full potential. The reviewer noted that the ecology and life history of 
                    <E T="03">S. n. nokomis</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">S. n. apacheana</E>
                     are similar and suggested that 
                    <E T="03">S. n. apacheana</E>
                     should serve as a good surrogate for 
                    <E T="03">S. n. nokomis</E>
                     where data are lacking. The reviewer noted that two reports document gene flow among 
                    <E T="03">S. n. apacheana</E>
                     colonies that may mitigate the effects of genetic drift (the loss of alleles (version of a gene) or change in their frequency in a population) on colony genetic diversity (Britten et al. 1994, entire; Britten 2003, entire). The reviewer noted that 
                    <E T="03">S. n. apacheana</E>
                     also experiences high levels of colony turnover and routinely disperses about 4 kilometers (about 2.5 miles) from natal (birth) sites based on years of mark/recapture studies at several locations in Nevada (Fleishman et al. 2002, entire). The reviewer noted that the SSA report concluded that about 10 miles is a good estimate of 
                    <E T="03">S. n. nokomis</E>
                     dispersal distance but questioned whether estimates of the silverspot's viability would differ if shorter dispersal distances, closer to those of 
                    <E T="03">S. n. apacheana,</E>
                     were applied in the SSA report.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     In the SSA report, we evaluate connectivity between silverspot populations based on their estimated long-distance dispersal ability of 5 to 10 miles (Ellis 2020c, 2020d, 2020e, pers. comm.) and the potential for longer term gene flow between colonies within a 20-mile distance based on the recent genetic study (Cong et al. 2019, entire). Taken together, these distances characterize the potential for gene flow and population connectivity over short-term and long-term timeframes and provide a more appropriate evaluation of gene flow than the annual dispersal distances for the silverspot and 
                    <E T="03">Speyeria nokomis apacheana.</E>
                     Therefore, we did not change the metrics we used to evaluate resiliency, although we note that the shorter, annual dispersal distances the reviewer mentions would receive the highest score for genetic connectivity in our analysis because those distances allow for a high level of genetic interchange and maintenance of a metapopulation structure.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(7) Comment:</E>
                     One reviewer stated that collecting has never been shown to cause the extirpation of an insect population or species because it is a density-independent factor.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     The reviewer did not provide information to support their comment. Many of the silverspot populations are small and currently in low resiliency condition, and therefore could be easily extirpated if collection pressure increased. The best available information indicates that poaching of rare and imperiled taxa for profit does occur, even to the point of driving a species to extinction to increase the value of individual specimens (Kleiner 1995, entire; Hoekwater 1997, entire; Courchamp et al. 2006, entire; O'Neill 2007, entire; Stratton 2012, entire).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(8) Comment:</E>
                     One reviewer stated that changes in water management are the most likely immediate threat to silverspot populations based on the decline of other 
                    <E T="03">S. nokomis</E>
                     subspecies' colonies from the capping of springs and water diversions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     We consider hydrologic alteration to be a major factor affecting the subspecies (see 
                    <E T="03">Factors Influencing Subspecies Viability,</E>
                     below). We recognize that water management can 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11753"/>
                    result in the loss or alteration of silverspot habitat, and that extensive hydrologic alteration has occurred within the range of the silverspot for agricultural, commercial, and municipal purposes. The reviewer did not recommend any changes to our analysis, and we accounted for water management practices and hydrologic alteration of silverspot habitat in the habitat factor score for current and future condition (see Summary of Biological Status and Threats, below).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(9) Comment:</E>
                     One reviewer stated that some colonies may require management, such as light grazing or mowing, to maintain habitat suitability. For example, the 
                    <E T="03">Speyeria nokomis apacheana</E>
                     population in Round Valley (Inyo County, California) has persisted at least over the past 70 years under a regime of light grazing. Conversely, the reviewer noted that heavy park-like mowing of the Mono County Park near Mono Lake, California, caused the extirpation of a small colony.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     We agree that light grazing or mowing in addition to other occasional disturbances, such as burning or non-catastrophic flooding, are needed to maintain suitable habitat conditions for the silverspot. We identify some of these practices as exceptions to the take prohibitions under the 4(d) rule (see “Provisions of the 4(d) rule” below). We intend to work with landowners or managers to provide occasional disturbance or even light annual disturbance that is compatible with conserving the silverspot and the bog violet.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(10) Comment:</E>
                     A reviewer stated that the current common name for the species is Nokomis Fritillary according to the North American Butterfly Association (NABA) Common Names List, which is the recognized source for North American butterfly species. However, the reviewer noted that there is no recognized source for subspecies' common names.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     We state that Nokomis Fritillary is the accepted common name for the species, 
                    <E T="03">Speyeria nokomis,</E>
                     in the SSA report (Service 2023, appendix C, p. 80). We refer to the subspecies that is the subject of this document, 
                    <E T="03">S. n. nokomis,</E>
                     as the silverspot to distinguish it from the other Nokomis Fritillary subspecies and to minimize public confusion once it is listed under the Act. Prior to the recent genetic study (Cong et al. 2019, entire), which clarified the range of the subspecies, we referred to the silverspot butterfly as the Great Basin silverspot butterfly, a common name that is no longer applicable (see 87 FR 26319, May 4, 2022, p. 26322). We will report updates to its common name and taxonomy, if needed, in the SSA report and future 5-year status reviews to be consistent with the accepted taxonomic nomenclature. We note in the SSA report that the silverspot and other members of the 
                    <E T="03">Nokomis</E>
                     genus may be assigned to a different genus (
                    <E T="03">Argynnis</E>
                    ) soon (Service 2023, p. 13). This change in genus would likely not affect the silverspot's listing status under the Act.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Comments From States</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(11) Comment:</E>
                     The Utah Public Lands Policy Coordination Office (PLPCO) of the Utah Governor's Office stated that they advocate for silverspot conservation and are available to assist in the development of a conservation strategy for the subspecies. They expressed that the most effective conservation strategy is to coordinate with State agencies, local governments, and landowners because the silverspot is mostly on private lands. The PLPCO also supported our determination that the designation of critical habitat is not prudent for the silverspot.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     We welcome participation by the PLPCO and any stakeholder or landowner to provide conservation for the silverspot through the development of a conservation strategy or other means. We agree that State and local support will be critical to the recovery and successful management of the silverspot.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(12) Comment:</E>
                     The PLPCO expressed that managed grazing, burning, mowing, and non-catastrophic flooding are necessary to remove harmful and invasive vegetation to benefit the silverspot and its host plants. They suggested that lack of grazing could lead to population extinction of the silverspot based on a published study from another endangered butterfly, the Quino checkerspot (Preston et al. 2012, entire).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     The SSA report (Service 2023, entire), proposed rule (87 FR 26319; May 4, 2022), and this final rule state that managed grazing, burning, mowing, and non-catastrophic flooding can benefit the silverspot. Livestock grazing that is done in a manner consistent with local ecological conditions, including soil types, precipitation zones, vegetation composition, and drought conditions, to provide early seral or more open conditions for the bog violet can be compatible with the needs and conservation of the silverspot. For more information, see the discussions under “Summary of Biological Status and Threats” and “Beneficial Factors” below. We also recognize that maintenance of sustainable grazing practices on private lands can aid in recovery of the silverspot by discouraging further conversion of the species' habitat into habitat unsuitable to the species (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     due to development).
                </P>
                <P>
                    We reviewed the Preston et al. 2012 paper, and it does not state that lack of grazing resulted in the extinction or extirpation of the Quino checkerspot (
                    <E T="03">Euphydryas editha quino</E>
                    ), which is currently listed as endangered under the Act. However, the paper did reference another article (Weiss 1999, entire) related to beneficial grazing practices to suppress nonnative plants in butterfly populations. We have incorporated this article into the SSA report (Service 2023, p. 38).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(13) Comment:</E>
                     The New Mexico Department of Agriculture (NMDA) and others expressed concern that the range map of the silverspot in the SSA report (Service 2021, p. 12) is overly broad relative to the small amount of known, occupied habitat, and includes elevations much higher than the upper elevation for the butterfly. The NMDA recommended the use of range delineation methods from a published article (Burgman and Fox 2003, entire) to refine the subspecies' range. Another commenter suggested the range map in the 2021 SSA report is an example of a flawed habitat model that could be corrected with a more detailed discussion of why the area is thought to be suitable, and the commenter provided a definition of wildlife habitat to improve how we define habitat in the proposed rule. Both commenters expressed the need for comprehensive surveys and improvements to the habitat model to better define suitable, occupied habitat, and the silverspot's range, to reduce unnecessary regulatory burden.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     We have updated the range map in the SSA report and removed higher elevation areas to address the comment. Now, the range map in the SSA report identifies only areas within the known elevation range of the silverspot (Service 2023, p. 18). The range map provides an intentionally broad delineation of the current extent of the silverspot's range to protect the exact locations of colonies and should not be used or considered as a habitat model for the subspecies. We acknowledge that most of the lands identified in the range map are not suitable habitat for the silverspot; the subspecies is a habitat specialist with very specific habitat needs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    We do not have a habitat model for the silverspot; however, when this rule is effective (see 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                    , above), we intend to develop one using the best available habitat information and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11754"/>
                    methods used by the Service, which are consistent with those recommended in the published paper recommended by the commenter (Burgman and Fox 2003, entire) (see Service 2019, entire). Once developed, the suitable habitat model will inform the need for surveys, and additional surveys would better delineate occupied habitat, suitable habitat, and the current range of the subspecies.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(14) Comment:</E>
                     The NMDA and others requested time to implement proactive conservation and education in cooperation with private landowners, Federal land managers, and lessees prior to a final listing determination for the silverspot. They state that there are beneficial management practices for the silverspot that have yet to be implemented.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     The commenters are correct that beneficial management practices have not been implemented for the silverspot, and we welcome participation by States, counties, landowners, or other stakeholders to implement conservation and recovery efforts for the subspecies. Under the Act, we must list a species or subspecies if it meets the definition of an endangered species or a threatened species. Moreover, our policy for the evaluation of conservation efforts when making listing decisions (PECE policy; 68 FR 15100, March 28, 2003) identifies criteria we use in determining whether formalized conservation efforts that have yet to be implemented or to show effectiveness contribute to making listing a species as endangered or threatened unnecessary. The PECE policy applies to conservation efforts identified in conservation agreements, conservation plans, management plans, or similar documents developed by Federal agencies, State and local governments, Tribal governments, businesses, organizations, and individuals. For the silverspot, there were no formalized conservation efforts that had yet to be implemented prior to this final rule for us to consider under the PECE policy.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(15) Comment:</E>
                     The NMDA expressed that the 4(d) rule should ensure that private landowners and public land managers will not be exposed to risk of take of the silverspot for their normal agricultural activities in wet meadows that do not contain the silverspot within its range. They recommend the 4(d) rule clarify that take of the silverspot from habitat modification only applies to areas where the silverspot is found (known colonies) and requested that we modify the specific take prohibition in the 4(d) rule to reflect that.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     Under 50 CFR 17.31(c), for a species listed as a threatened species, the species-specific 4(d) rule will contain all the applicable prohibitions and exceptions. On the effective date of this rule (see 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     above), the protections of the Act provided for in the 4(d) rule for the silverspot will apply to the subspecies wherever it is found. We acknowledge that there is uncertainty about the extent of suitable habitat within the silverspot's range, and thus it would be premature to except take prohibitions for actions in suitable habitats where occupancy is unknown until adequate surveys for the butterfly are conducted. In the 4(d) rule, we provide exceptions for take for common agricultural practices in wet meadow habitats (see “Provisions of the 4(d) Rule” below). Additionally, if anyone has concerns about specific agricultural practices in wet meadow habitats that are not identified as exceptions in the 4(d) rule, we welcome those discussions and will provide information (see 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     above). Therefore, we have not made any changes to the 4(d) rule in response to this comment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(16) Comment:</E>
                     The NMDA and others recommended developing an outreach strategy and materials for private landowners and local entities to provide them information on the listing of the silverspot, the subspecies' 4(d) rule, and beneficial conservation actions for the subspecies (such as protecting bog violets and planting beneficial nectar plants).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     As part of our outreach efforts, we intend to contact landowners of known occupied habitat and discuss the silverspot's listing and 4(d) rule, as well as beneficial conservation actions for the subspecies. We welcome the assistance of the commenters, State and Federal agencies, Tribes, nongovernmental organizations, and other interested parties with outreach and implementation of conservation and recovery actions.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Public Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(17) Comment:</E>
                     One commenter expressed opposition to listing the silverspot under the Act because the reasons for population declines are lacking and several of the factors influencing viability in the SSA report are either not detectable or are unknown. Without an understanding of what is causing the presumed population decline, the commenter thought it will be nearly impossible to develop a viable recovery plan.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     We summarize the threats to the silverspot in this final rule (see “Summary of Biological Status and Threats” below). While we acknowledge that there are gaps in our understanding of the subspecies, listing under the Act will confer protections to the silverspot from several of the identified threats to help arrest and reverse its decline. When this rule is effective (see 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     above), actions authorized, funded, or carried out by Federal agencies that may affect the subspecies will require consultations under section 7 of the Act in all occupied areas. Prohibitions against take under section 9 of the Act will further protect the silverspot from human-caused mortality such as continued habitat loss.
                </P>
                <P>The Act requires us to develop recovery plans for all listed species, unless such a plan will not promote the conservation of the species. Recovery plans must, to the maximum extent practicable, contain objective, measurable criteria that, when met, would lead to “delisting,” that is, removal of the species from the Lists of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants. These recovery plans are created following a final determination to list a species as endangered or threatened. Recovery plans are non-binding documents intended to provide a roadmap for us and our partners on methods of enhancing conservation and minimizing threats to listed species, as well as measurable criteria against which to evaluate progress towards recovery. Recovery criteria and objectives are developed based on the information known at that time, and much is learned about a species between the time the recovery plan is developed and the time it is determined to no longer meet the Act's definition of endangered or threatened.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(18) Comment:</E>
                     One commenter stated that utility corridors maintain or create open, early successional areas that support the silverspot's needs, and requested that the proposed exception for maintenance of other existing structures in the 4(d) rule apply to many common electric company operation, maintenance, and modernization (OMM) activities that are essentially maintenance of other existing structures. The commenter felt that the additional requirement in the 4(d) rule for those activities to be kept within the confines of already disturbed ground was unclear and, depending on how it is interpreted and applied in practice, could significantly limit many OMM activities. For example, transmission lines often span long distances of relatively undisturbed vegetation between the support towers or poles. However, electric companies regularly need to conduct OMM activities along transmission line rights-of-way (ROWs) 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11755"/>
                    in the space between towers or poles. The commenter requested the scope of this exception be clarified to include OMM activities along entire transmission line ROWs rather than limited to previously disturbed areas centered on support towers or poles.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     Maintenance and operation activities and vegetation removal along existing transmission line and utility corridors are not major factors influencing the silverspot and are not known to negatively affect the subspecies (Service 2023, pp. 28-38). Therefore, in this final rule, we add to the silverspot's 4(d) rule an exception to the take prohibitions for these activities if the activities are kept within the confines of existing ROWs. This does not remove the requirement for section 7 consultation and appropriate permitting processes. Importantly, construction of new transmission lines and utility corridors is not an excepted activity under the 4(d) rule.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(19) Comment:</E>
                     One commenter requested that we revise one aspect of the definition of “reasonable care” in the silverspot's 4(d) rule. The commenter asked that instead of “ensuring no introduction of” invasive plant species, we revise the 4(d) rule to read, “minimizing the potential to introduce” invasive plant species.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     We agree with the commenter that reasonable care to control for invasive plant species should be to minimize their potential introduction rather than ensure no introduction. We used language in the proposed 4(d) rule that was stricter than we intended, and because it is not feasible to ensure no introduction of invasive plant species, in this final rule, we clarify that statement in the 4(d) rule in accordance with the commenter's suggestion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(20) Comment:</E>
                     One commenter requested listing the silverspot as endangered or alternatively strengthening the 4(d) rule. They also recommended designating critical habitat. Their reasons are explained in greater detail below:
                </P>
                <P>a. List as endangered: The commenter stated that the silverspot faces immediate extinction and climate change should be considered a major factor, rather than a minor factor, as it has significant impacts to the subspecies' viability as defined in the SSA report. Most silverspot populations face very low or low resiliency conditions and possess little to no ability to respond to and recover from disturbances and the negative effects of climate change, such as earlier springs, rising temperatures, less snowpack, and soil-moisture drought. The commenter felt that the proposed rule provided no analysis or evidence that these very low resiliency populations are currently not at risk of extirpation. The commenter suggested that the imminent threat of losing half of the silverspot's populations should make the subspecies in danger of extinction throughout a significant portion of its range, thus warranting an endangered listing. The commenter stated that the loss of these populations may occur in 5 years, not the 30 years identified as the foreseeable future.</P>
                <P>b. Strengthen the 4(d) rule: Alternatively, the commenter requested that we develop a more protective 4(d) rule that does not permit year-round grazing, because it is not scientifically supported and not enforceable. The commenter felt that the proposed 4(d) rule gave disproportionate weight to inconclusive possible benefits of grazing in need of further study over the more conclusive studies establishing grazing's detrimental effects to the silverspot's habitat. They recommend that the final 4(d) rule should not allow summer grazing, to provide for adequate protection and enforcement.</P>
                <P>c. Designate critical habitat: The commenter requested that we designate critical habitat for the silverspot because the benefit of designation outweighs the threat of collection. As stated in the SSA report, collection is not thought to be a current stressor, and designation can be done without disclosing silverspot locations. The commenter stated that without credible information regarding actual collection risk, designating critical habitat is prudent and necessary to conserve the silverspot.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     Climate change is occurring, and there is strong scientific support for projections that warming will continue through the 21st century (see “Climate Change” under 
                    <E T="03">Factors Influencing Subspecies Viability,</E>
                     below). However, to date, there is only one small silverspot population (Archuleta) of the 10 total populations where prolonged drought combined with overgrazing is identified as a potential contributor to the population's very low resiliency rank based on the best available information (Whiteman 2022, pers. comm.; Service 2023, pp. 30, 40-41, 57-60). The other nine populations currently appear to have an adequate water supply despite existing hydrologic alterations, recent droughts, and drier, current climate conditions (Bainbridge and Ireland 2022, pers. comm; Service 2023, p. 30). While current water availability is not a concern, we are concerned about future climate effects to the silverspot in combination with other threats, and we determined that the subspecies meets the Act's definition of a threatened species. For additional explanation as to why the species does not meet the Act's definition of an endangered species throughout all or a significant portion of its range, see “Summary of Biological Status and Threats and Determination of Silverspot's Status” below.
                </P>
                <P>
                    We find that the 4(d) rule exception for grazing is scientifically supported and enforceable. The exception for grazing is based on the best available scientific information that light summer grazing (30 percent or less utilization of forage) and moderate fall and spring grazing (40 to 50 percent utilization) appears to be compatible with the subspecies' needs and habitat requirements (Arnold 1989, entire; Service 2023, pp. 33-34). In practice, little summer grazing occurs in silverspot habitat because many landowners move their cattle to higher elevations with more seasonal forage (Service 2023, p. 33). While livestock grazing under this exception may result in low levels of take, these grazing practices do not pose a threat to the silverspot's continued existence and should help maintain suitable habitat conditions for the subspecies. Additionally, we consider the utilization rates for seasonal grazing to provide enforceable and objective grazing measurements. We find that the 4(d) rule provides flexibility to our partners and satisfies the requirement in section 4(d) of the Act to issue regulations deemed necessary and advisable to provide for the conservation of the silverspot. When this rule is effective (see 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     above), we will work with private landowners, public land managers, Tribes, and grazing experts to maintain or improve silverspot habitat using seasonal grazing practices.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Finally, the demand for butterflies is high by collectors in the illegal animal trade, and the best available information indicates that collection may have resulted in the extirpation of one silverspot colony (Scott 2023, pers. comm.; Service 2023, p. 31). We believe that the public has been largely unaware of the subspecies and that listing under the Act will raise public awareness and result in a greater demand from collectors. We determine in this final rule that the designation of critical habitat is not prudent in accordance with 50 CFR 424.12(a)(1), because the silverspot faces a threat of unauthorized collection and trade, and designation can reasonably be expected to increase the degree of this threat to the subspecies. We have determined that the publication of maps and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11756"/>
                    descriptions outlining the locations of the silverspot would further facilitate unauthorized collection and trade, as collectors would know the exact locations where silverspots occur (see section III. Critical Habitat below).
                </P>
                <P>For the reasons explained above, we are not making any changes to this final rule in response to this comment.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(21) Comment:</E>
                     Some commenters opposed listing the silverspot and stated that the Act does not work for insects and other species that cannot accurately be identified. Commenters felt that the silverspot's definition and description in the proposed rule was highly ambiguous and the SSA report identified almost every color as a characteristic of the subspecies. They are concerned about the ability to accurately count and distinguish the silverspot from other subspecies with ranges that overlap and from potential hybrids that may result from reproduction between the silverspot and other subspecies; they are also concerned about the environmental factors that may impact the silverspot's characteristics. The commenters felt that the Service's inability to clearly identify the silverspot will lead to public confusion, an erosion of public support, and the assumption that any butterfly or moth in the silverspot's range would be treated as a listed species. The inability to accurately describe the species falls into the category of intrinsic uncertainty as defined by a published paper they provided and may not be resolvable (Freckleton 2020, entire). The commenters requested to know what has changed since our previous determinations that suggested the silverspot was not a listable entity.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     We understand the commenters' questions and uncertainty regarding identification and taxonomy. We disagree with the comment that the subspecies is not well defined or described, or that there is intrinsic uncertainty regarding the taxonomy that cannot be resolved. A recent genetic study identified the silverspot as a distinct taxon, and we have delineated the subspecies' range based on that report (Cong et al. 2019, entire) (see “Background” under section I. Final Listing Determination below). The silverspot and its habitat can be identified accurately by experts or with training, in the field or with close-up photographs. There is always the potential for hybridization to occur at the margins of a species' range or areas of overlapping ranges with other species or subspecies. However, there is a low likelihood of interbreeding to produce hybrid butterflies within the silverspot's range (Service 2023, pp. 1-14). Any potential hybrids can be confirmed through additional genetic analysis, and we will address methods to count and estimate butterfly numbers during the recovery planning process.
                </P>
                <P>Our determination in 1996 that removed the designation of the silverspot as a category 2 candidate was not related to taxonomy; rather, we discontinued the practice of maintaining a list of species regarded as category 2 candidates (see 61 FR 7596, February 28, 1996; see also “Previous Federal Actions” in the May 4, 2022, proposed rule (87 FR 26319)). Category 2 candidate species were taxa for which we lacked conclusive data on biological vulnerability and threats. By 2013, we had more information on the silverspot to evaluate its status and threats in response to a petition submitted to us by Wild Earth Guardians.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(22) Comment:</E>
                     Commenters asked about the status of potential silverspot hybrids under the Act.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     We address hybrids on a case-by-case basis under the Act, and in this case, we did not propose to list hybrids of the silverspot because as we describe above in our response to 
                    <E T="03">Comment (1),</E>
                     there is a low likelihood of finding hybrid butterflies in the silverspot's range in the future because the various subspecies of 
                    <E T="03">S. nokomis</E>
                     are isolated from one another.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(23) Comment:</E>
                     Some commenters felt that the Service made an arbitrary decision when we determined that habitat fragmentation is a threat to the silverspot, while pesticide usage is not. The best available science for other insect species such as the monarch butterfly (
                    <E T="03">Danaus plexippus</E>
                    ) identifies pesticide use as a significant component of activities that cause habitat fragmentation (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     agriculture and haying). Commenters also stated that it was not clear whether we evaluated habitat fragmentation across the entire range or only in known, occupied habitat.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     The hypothesis that pesticides are a major threat to the silverspot presented in this comment appears to be based solely on the commenters' evaluation of threats identified for other species. No methods or data are given or cited for pesticide use and effects on the silverspot or similar species in the arid western United States. Evidence in support of such a hypothesis would need to be provided for further consideration. We do not discuss pesticides in the May 4, 2022, proposed rule or this final rule because our evaluation in the SSA report identified it as a minor factor influencing the current and future condition of the silverspot (Service 2023, pp. 27-28, 32). The primary agricultural practices in the silverspot's range are haying and grazing that generally use fewer pesticides than are used on croplands. However, we state in the SSA report that further research is needed on pesticide use and its effects on the subspecies.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Based on the best available information, habitat loss and fragmentation are primary threats to the silverspot in occupied habitat and across the range (see 
                    <E T="03">Factors Influencing Subspecies Viability,</E>
                     below). Nearly all populations have been or are expected to be negatively affected by this threat, which has resulted in lower current and future population resiliency and connectivity.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(24) Comment:</E>
                     Commenters expressed concern that there would be significant restrictions placed on recreation as a result of listing the silverspot, even though the proposed rule identifies recreation as a minimal threat to the silverspot. The commenters were familiar with listing decisions for other species (wolverine (
                    <E T="03">Gulo gulo luscus</E>
                    ) and Mexican spotted owl (
                    <E T="03">Strix occidentalis lucida</E>
                    )) where the Service explicitly and clearly states that recreation is not a threat, but other agencies placed significant restrictions on recreation because of the potential for habitat fragmentation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Our response:</E>
                     The silverspot primarily occurs on private lands (18 of the 21 colonies), where recreation does not occur. Occupied habitat on public lands also currently appears to have minimal recreational use, and we are not aware of plans that may increase the level of future recreational use in these areas. However, recreation could pose a threat to the silverspot if trails or other recreational facilities are planned in the future within the butterfly's habitat that may result in habitat loss or degradation, invasive plant establishment, changes to the water regime, or erosion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Section 7(a)(2) of the Act requires Federal agencies to ensure that activities they authorize, fund, or carry out are not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any endangered or threatened species or destroy or adversely modify its critical habitat. When this rule is effective (see 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     above), Federal agencies will be required to consult with us on the potential effects to the silverspot for all proposed projects, including recreation projects, that are subject to the requirements of section 7(a)(2) of the Act. For proposed projects without a Federal nexus, the proponent must ensure that the project will not result in take of the silverspot as set forth in the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11757"/>
                    4(d) rule. We will cooperate with Federal agencies, landowners, and project proponents to identify conservation measures that avoid or minimize effects and take of the silverspot during project planning.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Final Listing Determination</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>A thorough review of the taxonomy, life history, and ecology of the silverspot is presented in the SSA report (Service 2023, pp. 9-27), and is briefly summarized here.</P>
                <P>The silverspot is a relatively large butterfly with up to a 3-inch wingspan. Males typically have bright orange on the upper side of the wing, while females typically have cream or light yellow with brown or black. The underside of the wing of both sexes has silvery-white spots, giving the subspecies' the common name of silverspot butterfly.</P>
                <P>
                    Based on recent genetic analysis, there are 10 major populations of 
                    <E T="03">Speyeria nokomis</E>
                     comprised of five subspecies throughout the United States and Mexico (Cong et al. 2019, entire). We established a new, more precise range boundary for the subspecies that is the subject of this document, the silverspot (
                    <E T="03">S. n. nokomis</E>
                    ), in the SSA report based on the genetic analysis, which limits the distribution to east-central Utah through western and south-central Colorado and into north-central New Mexico (Service 2023, p. 18). The new range delineation shows that the subspecies does not occur in the Great Basin and thus the former common name, Great Basin silverspot butterfly, is no longer valid. Consequently, we refer to the 
                    <E T="03">S. n. nokomis</E>
                     subspecies as “silverspot” in this final rule.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In the SSA report, we identified 10 populations of silverspot in our analysis, consisting of the following: Archuleta, Conejos, Costilla, Garfield, La Plata, Mesa/Grand, Montrose/San Juan, and Ouray populations in Colorado and Utah; and the San Miguel/Mora and Taos populations in New Mexico (Service 2023, figure 14 and table 4, pp. 39-47). Populations of silverspot occur between 5,200 feet (ft) (1,585 meters (m)) and 8,300 ft (2,530 m). The butterfly requires moist habitats in mostly open meadows with a variety of herbaceous and woody vegetation. Eggs are laid on or near the bog violet (
                    <E T="03">Viola nephrophylla</E>
                    /
                    <E T="03">V. sororia</E>
                     var. 
                    <E T="03">affinis</E>
                    ), which the larvae feed on exclusively. A variety of flowering plants provide adult nectar sources. The butterfly completes its entire life cycle in one year.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory and Analytical Framework</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regulatory Framework</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 4 of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1533) and the implementing regulations in title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations set forth the procedures for determining whether a species is an endangered species or a threatened species, issuing protective regulations for threatened species, and designating critical habitat for endangered and threatened species. In 2019, jointly with the National Marine Fisheries Service, the Service issued a final rule that revised the regulations in 50 CFR part 424 regarding how we add, remove, and reclassify endangered and threatened species and the criteria for designating listed species' critical habitat (84 FR 45020; August 27, 2019). On the same day, we issued a finalrule that revised 50 CFR 17.31 and 17.71(84 FR 44753; hereinafter, “the 20194(d) rule”) and ended the “blanket rule” option for application of section 9prohibitions to species newly listed as threatened after the effective date ofthose regulatory revisions (September 26, 2019). Blanket rules hadextended the majority of the protections (all of the prohibitions that apply to endangered species under section 9 and additional exceptions to the prohibitions) to threatened species, unless we issued an alternative rule under section 4(d) of the Act for a particular species (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     a species-specific 4(d) rule).The blanket rule protectionscontinued to apply to threatened speciesthat were listed prior to September 26,2019, without an associated species-specificrule. Under the 2019 4(d) rule,the only way to apply protections to aspecies newly listed as threatened is forus to issue a species-specific rule settingout the protective regulations that areappropriate for that species.
                </P>
                <P>Our analysis for this decision applied our current regulations, portions of which were last revised in 2019. Given that we proposed further revisions to these regulations on June 22, 2023 (88 FR 40742; 88 FR 40764), we have also undertaken an analysis of whether the decision would be different if we were to apply those proposed revisions. We concluded that the decision would have been the sameif we had applied the proposed 2023 regulations. The analyses under both the regulations currently in effect and the regulations after incorporating the June 22, 2023, proposed revisions are included in our decision file.</P>
                <P>The Act defines an “endangered species” as a species that is in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range, and a “threatened species” as a species that is likely to become an endangered species within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range. The Act requires that we determine whether any species is an endangered species or a threatened species because of any of the following factors:</P>
                <P>• Factor A—The present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of its habitat or range;</P>
                <P>• Factor B—Overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes;</P>
                <P>• Factor C—Disease or predation;</P>
                <P>• Factor D—The inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; or</P>
                <P>• Factor E—Other natural or manmade factors affecting its continued existence.</P>
                <P>These factors represent broad categories of natural or human-caused actions or conditions that could have an effect on a species' continued existence. In evaluating these actions and conditions, we look for those that may have a negative effect on individuals of the species, as well as other actions or conditions that may ameliorate any negative effects or may have positive effects.</P>
                <P>We use the term “threat” to refer in general to actions or conditions that are known to or are reasonably likely to negatively affect individuals of a species. The term “threat” includes actions or conditions that have a direct impact on individuals (direct impacts), as well as those that affect individuals through alteration of their habitat or required resources (stressors). The term “threat” may encompass—either together or separately—the source of the action or condition or the action or condition itself.</P>
                <P>
                    However, the mere identification of any threat(s) does not necessarily mean that the species meets the statutory definition of an “endangered species” or a “threatened species.” In determining whether a species meets either definition, we must evaluate all identified threats by considering the species' expected response and the effects of the threats—in light of those actions and conditions that will ameliorate the threats—on an individual, population, and species level. We evaluate each threat and its expected effects on the species, then analyze the cumulative effect of all threats on the species as a whole. We also consider the cumulative effect of the threats in light of those actions and conditions that will have positive effects on the species, such as any existing regulatory mechanisms or conservation efforts. The Secretary determines whether the species meets the definition 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11758"/>
                    of an “endangered species” or a “threatened species” only after conducting this cumulative analysis and describing the expected effect on the species now and in the foreseeable future.
                </P>
                <P>The Act does not define the term “foreseeable future,” which appears in the statutory definition of “threatened species.” Our implementing regulations at 50 CFR 424.11(d) set forth a framework for evaluating the foreseeable future on a case-by-case basis. The term “foreseeable future” extends only so far into the future as the Service can reasonably determine that both the future threats and the species' responses to those threats are likely. In other words, the foreseeable future is the period of time in which we can make reliable predictions. “Reliable” does not mean “certain”; it means sufficient to provide a reasonable degree of confidence in the prediction. Thus, a prediction is reliable if it is reasonable to depend on it when making decisions.</P>
                <P>It is not always possible or necessary to define the foreseeable future as a particular number of years. Analysis of the foreseeable future uses the best scientific and commercial data available and should consider the timeframes applicable to the relevant threats and to the species' likely responses to those threats in view of its life-history characteristics. Data that are typically relevant to assessing the species' biological response include species-specific factors such as lifespan, reproductive rates or productivity, certain behaviors, and other demographic factors.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Analytical Framework</HD>
                <P>The SSA report documents the results of our comprehensive biological review of the best scientific and commercial data regarding the status of the subspecies, including an assessment of the potential threats to the subspecies. The SSA report does not represent our decision on whether the subspecies should be listed as an endangered or threatened species under the Act. However, it does provide the scientific basis that informs our regulatory decisions, which involve the further application of standards within the Act and its implementing regulations and policies.</P>
                <P>To assess the silverspot's viability, we used the three conservation biology principles of resiliency, redundancy, and representation (Shaffer and Stein 2000, pp. 306-310). Briefly, resiliency is the ability of a species to withstand environmental and demographic stochasticity (for example, wet or dry, warm or cold years); redundancy is the ability of a species to withstand catastrophic events (for example, droughts, large pollution events); and representation is the ability of a species to adapt to both near-term and long-term changes in its physical and biological environment (for example, climate conditions, pathogens). In general, species viability will increase with increases in resiliency, redundancy, and representation (Smith et al. 2018, p. 306). Using these principles, we identified the silverspot's ecological requirements for survival and reproduction at the individual, population, and subspecies levels, and described the beneficial and risk factors influencing the subspecies' viability.</P>
                <P>
                    The SSA process can be categorized into three sequential stages. During the first stage, we evaluated the individual subspecies' life-history needs. The next stage involved an assessment of the historical and current condition of the subspecies' demographics and habitat characteristics, including an explanation of how the subspecies arrived at its current condition. The final stage of the SSA report involved making predictions about the subspecies' responses to positive and negative environmental and anthropogenic influences. Throughout all of these stages, we used the best available information to characterize viability as the ability of a species (or in this case, subspecies, which is a listable entity under the Act) to sustain populations in the wild over time. We use this information to inform our regulatory decision. The following is a summary of the key results and conclusions from the SSA report; the full SSA report can be found at Docket No. FWS-R6-ES-2021-0134 on 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Biological Status and Threats</HD>
                <P>In this discussion, we review the biological condition of the silverspot and its resources, and the threats that influence the subspecies' current and future condition, to assess the subspecies' overall viability and the risks to that viability.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Individual Needs</HD>
                <P>Individual silverspot needs include wet meadows supported by springs, seeps, streams, or irrigated areas that contain the bog violet host plant for eggs and larvae, and other herbaceous vegetation for cover and food resources. The butterflies may benefit from a light interspersion of willow or other shrubs for shade and for larval shelter. More dense willow and shrubs often surround open meadows where the silverspot occurs and, if the woody vegetation does not take over the meadows, the margins of denser stands can be beneficial for shade and shelter as well.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Population Needs</HD>
                <P>Populations need abundant individuals within habitat patches of adequate size and quality to maintain survival and reproduction. In general, the greater the suitable habitat acreage, and the greater the number of individuals within a population, the greater the resilience. Furthermore, colonies and populations need to be close enough to each other for individuals to breed with each other to maintain genetic diversity. The silverspot likely does not fly more than 5-10 miles (mi) (8-16 kilometers (km)) and would likely have difficulty finding another colony beyond this distance (Ellis 2020c, 2020d, 2020e, pers. comms.). Additionally, the silverspot needs the bog violet to be of sufficient extent and density to support colonies and populations. We define colonies to mean areas of abundant violets that produce butterflies, as well as surrounding habitat with nectar plants. If there is narrow but contiguous nectar habitat up or down a drainage but without violets (or with only sparse violets), we consider those areas transitional corridors that are likely valuable for dispersal and genetic connectivity.</P>
                <P>
                    The silverspot and other 
                    <E T="03">S. nokomis</E>
                     subspecies can move between colonies within a continuous or nearly continuous riparian zone (Arnold 1989, pp. 10, 14; Fleishman et al. 2002, p. 708). For example, six colonies occurred along a 5-mile stretch in Unaweep Canyon that had likely genetic interchange (Ellis 1989, p. 3). However, these are considered separate colonies due to the natural or human-caused patchiness of bog violets up and down the canyon. In a mark-recapture study (Arnold 1989, pp. 10, 14, 21) in Unaweep Canyon, about 50 percent of the recaptured butterflies moved between two colonies separated by about 0.75 mi (1.2 km). Based on this work, the researcher inferred that the silverspot could easily move at least 1 mile, and based on this, Ellis (1989, p. 19) further inferred that there was exchange of individuals among all the Unaweep Canyon colonies every 1 to 5 years. This information provided the basis for Ellis' professional judgement that colonies or populations farther than 5 to 10 mi (8 to 16 km) from each other are likely isolated (Ellis 2020c, 2020d, 2020e, pers. comm.).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Some silverspot populations are comprised of a single colony, while 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11759"/>
                    others are comprised of multiple colonies that function as a metapopulation. Within a metapopulation, butterflies are close enough to move between colonies and to interbreed and can recolonize temporarily extirpated areas that may result from local, naturally occurring (stochastic) events. For instance, a flood may extirpate a colony, but if there are nearby colonies, the temporarily flooded area may return to suitable habitat conditions and be recolonized by the silverspot.
                </P>
                <P>Unfortunately, there is very little information on what an adequate-sized habitat patch is, especially if there is only a single colony in a population. A professional estimate for minimum patch size of colonies is 2 acres (ac) (0.8 hectares (ha)) if the habitat has a reliable groundwater source and has high violet density and is 5 ac (2 ha) if violets are less dense due to natural or human-caused variability within a patch (Ellis 2020e, pers. comm.). Although it is possible a single 2-ac or 5-ac patch of habitat could support the butterfly for a period of time, a more resilient metapopulation will likely contain at least three colonies of those patch sizes or greater. A three-colony metapopulation will have a better chance of survival by spreading the risk of extirpation if a natural event occurs at one or two of the colonies. Thus, the remaining one or two colonies can recolonize the extirpated sites assuming suitable habitat remains or reestablishes. Due to natural variability in soil and topographic conditions, we assume that most areas within the silverspot's range are likely to have a lower density of violets, rather than dense violets (Service 2023, pp. 23-25). Consequently, under this assumption, a minimum amount of habitat for a sufficiently resilient population may be 12 ac (5 ha), and this can be made up of multiple colonies if they are at least 2 ac (0.8 ha) in size (Service 2023, p. 25). The specific minimum threshold for single colonies to maintain viability is unknown, but the larger the acreage the greater the resiliency and higher likelihood of viability.</P>
                <P>There is also little information on the minimum number of silverspot individuals needed to sustain a colony. There have only been two demographic studies for the silverspot that occurred at the same locations 10 years apart: 1979 and 1989 (Arnold 1989, entire). The 1989 study found a daily estimate of between 48 and 260 butterflies with two different models at the Unaweep Seep colony (Arnold 1989, pp. 6, 14). A combined population estimate at the Unaweep Seep colony and another upstream colony in Unaweep Canyon (which is considered two colonies due to intervening transitional habitat) resulted in a range of daily abundance from 594 to 2,689 butterflies.</P>
                <P>Quality of habitat may have as much weight in determining resiliency of a colony or population as does overall size of a habitat patch or number of individuals. Habitat quality could potentially be measured by density of violets. The Unaweep Seep study (Arnold 1989, p. 20) revealed that the larger colony with many individuals became extirpated, likely due to vegetative encroachment, while the upstream colony with more violets remained extant. Consequently, populations appear to have greater chance for survival when containing more violets.</P>
                <P>Based on observations of grazed and burned properties in Unaweep Canyon, occasional or well-managed grazing and burning likely benefit the violet by reducing willows, as well as reducing thatch buildup from grasses and sedges (Arnold 1989, p. 14; Ellis 1989, pp. 18, 19). Consequently, natural factors or management activities that lead to early seral stages or at least more open conditions, where willow, grass, sedge, or other vegetation does not outcompete violets, is important to colonies and populations.</P>
                <P>Based on the scant evidence, the minimum number of individuals that are needed to sustain a silverspot colony or population is unknown, and even apparent natural but detrimental habitat factors, such as excessive growth of other plants, can cause extirpation of seemingly large colonies. Without additional study, it is not known what the minimum habitat size is to maintain viability, nor what density or abundance of bog violets or nectar plants is needed to sustain a colony or population, nor the maximum distance between colonies or populations that can be reached for genetic interchange to continue to occur on a regular basis. Furthermore, it is unknown if large single-colony populations can be sufficiently resilient without occasional genetic interchange from other populations.</P>
                <P>In summary, to be adequately resilient, silverspot populations need water to sustain violets for the larvae, as well as occasional or seasonal disturbance by grazing from native ungulates or domestic livestock, or burning, mowing, or non-catastrophic flooding, to occasionally remove vegetation that might otherwise crowd out the violets and other nectar plants for the adults. Furthermore, based on expert opinion and evidence, the most resilient populations need to be at least 2 ac (0.8 ha) in size with dense violets or at least 5 ac (2 ha) in size with less dense violets (Ellis 2020e, pers. comm.), and need to have a few to several colonies within 0.75 to 5 mi (1.2 to 8 km) of each other and likely be not more than 10 mi (16 km) from each other (Arnold 1989, pp. 10, 14; Ellis 1989, p. 19; Ellis 2020c, 2020d, 2020e pers. comm.).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Subspecies Needs</HD>
                <P>To maintain viability, the silverspot needs to have a sufficient quality and quantity of habitat for adequately resilient populations, numerous populations to create redundancy in the event of catastrophic events, and broad enough genetic and ecological diversity to adapt to changing environmental conditions (representation). The subspecies will have a better chance of long-term viability if single-colony populations and even the metapopulations occasionally receive individuals from other populations such that genetic interchange occurs, better enabling them to adapt to environmental changes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Factors Influencing Subspecies Viability</HD>
                <P>
                    We reviewed the potential risk factors (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     threats, stressors) that could be affecting the silverspot now and in the future. In this final rule, we will discuss only those factors in detail that could meaningfully impact the status of the subspecies. Habitat loss and fragmentation, human-caused hydrologic alteration, livestock grazing, genetic isolation, exotic plant invasion, climate change, climate events, larval desiccation, and collecting are all factors that influence or could influence the subspecies' viability. Those risks that are not known to have effects on silverspot populations, such as disease, predation, prescribed burning or wildfire, and pesticides, are not discussed here but are evaluated in the SSA report.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Habitat Loss and Fragmentation</HD>
                <P>
                    Habitat loss from golf course and housing development caused the extirpation of two historical colonies north of Durango, Colorado (Selby 2007, entire; Ellis and Fisher 2020, pers. comm.). The remaining colony in the La Plata population has residential and commercial development across the street from it, and one of two drainages supplying water to it has relatively new housing and golf courses within 1.5 air miles (2.4 km), potentially degrading downstream silverspot habitat through hydrologic alteration. Housing development also appears to have been 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11760"/>
                    a contributing factor in extirpation of the Beulah, New Mexico, colony (Scott and Fisher 2014, p. 3). In Colorado, it is possible that Rifle Gap Reservoir and Dam degraded and fragmented habitat, as one butterfly was sighted at a small wetland downstream of the dam and the reservoir flooded and fragmented habitat upstream. Additional habitat alteration upstream and downstream from a variety of factors (residential and commercial development, roads, and agricultural conversion of habitat) also has likely fragmented habitat. Many other colonies and populations have development around them that also either directly encroaches on the habitat or likely has caused degradation and fragmentation from homes, roads, hydrologic alteration, and habitat conversion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Agricultural habitat conversion can cause loss or fragmentation of habitat and typically involves mowing native meadows or growing exotic grasses for hay. Aerial imagery reveals that agricultural conversion has been extensive within the silverspot's range. It has likely caused loss of unknown colonies over the last 150 years and has fragmented native habitat, reducing connectivity between colonies and populations. Annual haying may be less detrimental than haying two or three times a summer. One major population of 
                    <E T="03">Speyeria nokomis</E>
                     (Chuska Mountains) in Arizona and New Mexico has persisted for many years even though haying occurs there once a year typically in late August or September (Cong et al. 2019, entire; Smith 2019, pers. comm.).
                </P>
                <P>Despite the silverspot's potential compatibility with annually mowing native hay fields, agricultural conversion to unsuitable crops or fragmentation of habitat in the silverspot's range has been extensive. Furthermore, the impact of residential and commercial development, and other development like roads, continues to limit and/or degrade habitat in or adjacent to existing colonies and populations. Habitat loss and fragmentation, therefore, has meaningfully reduced the viability of the subspecies.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Hydrologic Alteration</HD>
                <P>Hydrologic alteration is also a factor influencing the subspecies' viability. Hydrologic alteration can result from a variety of sources, including, but not limited to, diversions for agricultural and domestic use; erosion and stream channel incision caused by livestock grazing, mining, roads, or dredging and filling of wetlands; removal of beaver dams; manipulation of waterways that minimizes flooding and reduces natural meander features; and creation and operation of large human-made dams. For example, the only colony in the Costilla population has a diversion ditch running through it that likely reduced the size of colony. The ditch and other diversions have allowed for extensive agricultural development in the drainage that has altered native habitat and likely dropped the water table in much of the area. The Montrose County colony in the Montrose/San Juan population also has had livestock grazing and water diversions occur over the last 30 years, which have degraded the quality of the wet meadow areas and lowered the water table (Ireland 2018, pers. comm.).</P>
                <P>Many drainages in the Sacramento Mountains, where one historical silverspot colony may have occurred, succumbed to incision of streams around 1900, in turn lowering water tables and eliminating wet meadow habitat (Service 2023, p. 35). Incision of stream channels occurred due to erosion from deforestation, conversion to agricultural and grazing lands, mining, and so forth. Beavers were also eliminated around 1900 in the Sacramento Mountains (and other parts of the West), which also undoubtedly caused reduction of water tables and elimination of wet meadow habitat suitable for the silverspot and other wetland-dependent species. Hydrologic alteration that degrades riparian areas and lowers water tables from natural systems has occurred not only in the Costilla population, Montrose/San Juan population, and Sacramento Mountains, but extensively in the western United States, including much of the silverspot's range. Hydrologic alteration continues to limit suitable habitat and is a major factor influencing the viability of the subspecies.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Livestock Grazing</HD>
                <P>Grazing is ongoing in suitable habitat for the subspecies and is a major factor influencing the subspecies' viability. Livestock grazing may cause habitat loss and degradation if excessive, especially in the naturally scarce habitats of the silverspot (Hammond and McCorkle 1983, p. 219) and depending on the timing and intensity. Year-round grazing or heavy summer grazing is typically incompatible with the silverspot because livestock graze on the violet leaves, nectar sources, and other vegetation necessary for the butterfly when the larvae and adults need them (Ellis 1999, p. 5). For example, an area adjacent to a colony in the Ouray population has underlying hydrology and soils beneficial for the silverspot, but the habitat is unsuitable due primarily to grazing and perhaps to a lesser extent occasional mowing for hay (Service 2023, figure 13, p. 34).</P>
                <P>
                    Livestock grazing benefits and is compatible with silverspot conservation if managed appropriately. Winter grazing is beneficial to maintain the bog violet and suitable habitat conditions. Light or moderate summer grazing (up to 20 or 30 percent vegetative utilization) appears to be acceptable (Arnold 1989, p. 14), but total rest from grazing in the summer is preferred (Ellis 2020g, pers. comm.). If one or more kinds of vegetation are too dense, they can prevent the bog violet from persisting and thus cause extirpation of the silverspot. This occurred in the Unaweep Seep colony in the Mesa/Grand population, perhaps primarily because of spike rush (
                    <E T="03">Eleocharis</E>
                     spp.) invasion of meadows but also seemingly because of grass, sedge, and willow invasion (Arnold 1989, pp. 9, 14; Ellis 1999, pp. 3, 5, 6). It is unknown if this invasion would have occurred without grazing or if long-term grazing was the factor that shifted vegetation. Without occasional reduction or removal, herbaceous or woody vegetation could crowd out violets. Seasonal grazing or mowing and other occasional disturbances, such as burning or non-catastrophic flooding, are needed to maintain suitable habitat conditions for the silverspot. We identify some of these practices as exceptions to the take prohibitions under the 4(d) rule (see “Provisions of the 4(d) rule” below).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Genetic Isolation</HD>
                <P>
                    Population isolation can cause detrimental genetic and demographic effects and is a concern for the silverspot's population resiliency as well as its redundancy and representation. Lower levels of genetic diversity can reduce the capacity of a population to respond to environmental change (representation) and may lead to reduced population fitness through reductions in individual longevity and fecundity (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     fewer offspring) and smaller population sizes (Darvill et al. 2006, p. 608). Another silverspot subspecies, 
                    <E T="03">S. n. apacheana,</E>
                     has low genetic diversity, likely from genetic drift (loss of alleles (versions of a gene) or change in their frequency in a population) due to genetic isolation and small population size (Britten et al. 1994, entire). Genetic exchange between and within populations can alleviate problems with genetic drift and augment populations demographically. In 
                    <E T="03">S. n. apacheana,</E>
                     routine dispersal distances up to 2.5 mi (3.9 km) were documented, and 26 percent of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11761"/>
                    recaptured butterflies had emigrated from the initial patch of capture (Fleishman et al. 2002, p. 708). This migration appears to play an important role for 
                    <E T="03">S. n. apacheana</E>
                     populations both demographically and genetically (Britten et al. 2003, p. 232). Consequently, the ability or inability of individuals to migrate between colonies and populations is expected to also be of benefit or detriment, respectively, for the silverspot.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Genetic isolation among silverspot populations indicates reduced population fitness and could be of concern in the future (Cong et al. 2019, p. 22). Based on the latest scientific evidence, genetic exchange does not appear to occur between colonies or populations that are at least 20 miles apart (Cong et al. 2019, entire). Currently, the distance between the two closest populations, which we know are genetically different and represent separate populations, is 24.5 air miles (39 km) (between the Taos and San Miguel/Mora populations in New Mexico). Consequently, and more specifically, the distance where silverspot populations may not interbreed and thus may not support each other genetically or demographically appears to be somewhere between 20 and 24.5 air miles (32 and 39 km). We used the minimum distance of 20 mi (32 km), based on findings of Cong et al. (2019, entire), in our analysis of genetic connectivity (see 
                    <E T="03">Current Condition,</E>
                     below).
                </P>
                <P>Reasons for isolation, specifically whether from natural fragmentation or human habitat alteration, are not currently known for all populations. It is also not known how long single colonies may have been isolated from each other. If an isolated colony has enough area of habitat to support large numbers of the butterfly, it may be resilient enough to survive without nearby colonies and thus maintain viability for a long time. However, many silverspot populations, whether single-colony or multi-colony, have limited amounts of habitat. It is unknown specifically how long it will take for low genetic diversity to become a threat to the silverspot, but isolation of populations indicates that loss of genetic diversity could be a threat at some point, if loss of populations through lack of demographic support does not occur first, and both are cause for concern for the subspecies' viability.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Exotic Plant Invasion</HD>
                <P>
                    The Taos population has experienced some invasion by the exotic Siberian elm (
                    <E T="03">Ulmus pumila</E>
                    ). Because Siberian elm is widespread in the silverspot's range, we expect its occurrence to increase if changes in climate reduce snowpack and water levels in the wet meadows of the Taos population or other populations. Similarly, the extirpated Unaweep Seep colony location was invaded by other exotic species, including Himalayan blackberry (
                    <E T="03">Rubus armeniacus</E>
                    ) and tree-of-heaven (
                    <E T="03">Ailanthus altissima</E>
                    ). Although not known to occupy other colonies at present, these plant species could invade other colonies (Plank 2020, pers. comm.). Other exotic woody or herbaceous species (such as Russian olive (
                    <E T="03">Elaeagnus angustifolia</E>
                    ), tamarisk (
                    <E T="03">Tamarix</E>
                     spp.), or leafy spurge (
                    <E T="03">Euphorbia esula</E>
                    )) can rapidly take over habitat and could eliminate bog violets and other native plants. However, there is currently little to no data on plants at the colonies (Ellis 1989, pp. 14-15).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Some nonnative thistles, such as Canada thistle (
                    <E T="03">Cirsium arvense</E>
                    ), occur in or around colonies and can create monocultures that create poor overall habitat conditions for the silverspot and bog violet by replacing native species (Ellis 1989, p. 14; Selby 2007, p. 30). Land managers in the West sometimes control the spread of exotic thistles, but Canada thistle (as well as native thistles) provides a nectar source for the silverspot. Additionally, the adventive (exotic but not well-established) bull thistle (
                    <E T="03">C. vulgare</E>
                    ) and burdock (
                    <E T="03">Arctium minus</E>
                    ) can provide nectar sources (Ellis 1989, p. 14). Because the silverspot uses exotic thistles, aggressive control of them has been advised against (Fisher 2020e, pers. comm.). It does not appear that monocultures of Canada thistle or other exotic vegetation have replaced native vegetation beneficial for the silverspot at observed colonies (Ireland 2018, pers. comm.), but study of plant composition at all colonies is needed to determine levels of exotic plant presence. Exotic plant invasion is currently considered a minor factor because exotic species are not currently known to be significantly influencing the subspecies' viability.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Climate Events</HD>
                <P>
                    Climate events are defined in the SSA report as events that would happen within the range of normal variability (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     stochastic events). However, they may reduce the amount and quality of habitat and the number of butterflies. A record of other 
                    <E T="03">Speyeria</E>
                     in Utah indicates that too much rain can reduce the number of butterflies but may be beneficial to violets, which can support greater numbers of butterflies in following years (Myrup 2020b, pers. comm.). Similarly, floods may at least temporarily reduce the amount and quality of habitat and vegetation as well as butterfly numbers by inundating the area with water for long periods or by erosion. For instance, the Lake Fork River in northeast Utah flooded in the spring of 2019 and caused the reduction or extirpation of a related silverspot subspecies colony in the Uinta Mountains documented the year before (Ellis 2019, pers. comm.). However, the flood event was not outside the norm for past observed flood events in that drainage. This stochastic event provides an example of normal climate events that can cause reduction in numbers of individual butterflies or temporary extirpation of a colony but are not expected to cause permanent reduction or extirpation. Thus, climate events are not expected to reduce the subspecies' viability in the long term and are considered a minor factor influencing the subspecies' viability.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Climate Change</HD>
                <P>
                    The climate within the silverspot's range already appears to be changing because of increased greenhouse gas emissions, with earlier springs and warmer temperatures. Average temperatures in Colorado have increased by 2.5 °F (1.4 °C) in the last 50 years (Lukas et al. 2014, p. 2). Snowpack, as measured by snow water equivalent, has mostly been below average in Colorado since 2000. The timing of snowmelt and peak runoff has also shifted 1 to 4 weeks earlier in the last 30 years in Colorado. Furthermore, the Palmer Drought Severity Index has shown an increasing trend in soil-moisture drought conditions due to below average precipitation since 2000 and the warming trend (Lukas et al. 2014, p. 2). More recent analysis using National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) temperature data shows that, since 1895, the average temperature in much of the northern half of the silverspot's range has increased by 3.6 °F (2 °C) or more, and it is reported that average annual flows in the Colorado River Basin have declined by 20 percent over the past century (Eilperin 2020, entire). However, tree ring and other paleoclimate data indicate that there were more severe and sustained droughts prior to recent climate data (since 1900) (Lukas et al. 2014, pp. 2, 3). The silverspot has survived through the more severe past droughts, and, despite noted changes in climate over the last 36 years, climate has thus far not been a detectable factor in reduction of the subspecies' viability. Consequently, at the present and for the current condition analysis in the SSA report, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11762"/>
                    climate change is considered a minor factor. However, climate may become a major factor; see additional discussion of climate change under 
                    <E T="03">Future Condition,</E>
                     below.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Desiccation of Larvae</HD>
                <P>Desiccation of overwintering larvae may be a stressor if soil moisture and air humidity are too low or if larvae cannot remain hydrated. Soil moisture and dead vegetation, along with some air flow, may provide suitable conditions that prevent desiccation (Fisher 2020b, 2020f, pers. comm.). Hydration also appears to be needed prior to first instar larvae overwintering and is achievable if water for drinking is freely available and if soil or air moisture is sufficient for absorption (Myrup 2020a, pers. comm.; Stout 2020, entire). Snow cover may also provide some desiccation prevention and thermal cover, although it may not be a significant factor (Ellis 2020a, 2020b, pers. comm.). Snow cover may be of benefit during extreme cold (Fisher 2020b, pers. comm.). In general, however, extreme cold in the silverspot's range is preceded by snow; thus, extreme cold may kill some larvae but is likely not a major factor that reduces the subspecies' viability.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Collecting</HD>
                <P>Collecting has occurred in silverspot colonies, and it is possible collecting in small colonies could negatively affect population resiliency (Ellis 1989, p. 15; Selby 2007, p. 31; Scott 2023, pers. comm.). We know of one colony that was extirpated, in part, from collection by multiple people (Scott 2023, pers. comm.). However, collecting is not currently thought to be a significant stressor for the silverspot because most colonies occur on private land, colony locations are largely unknown to the public, and current collecting pressure is not thought to be extensive (Ellis 2020f, pers. comm.). In terms of the effect on the current condition of the subspecies, collecting is currently considered a minor factor and does not appear to be significantly reducing the subspecies' viability. Efforts should be taken to keep it a minor factor, as losing even one of the remaining populations to collection could have a substantial impact on the subspecies' redundancy and representation. We are concerned about the potentially detrimental effects to the subspecies' viability from future collection if silverspot locations, especially the locations of smaller populations, are made public (see section III. Critical Habitat below).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Current Condition</HD>
                <P>We assessed current conditions of silverspot populations in relation to the ecological requirements of this subspecies. Measurements available that are consistent across populations are habitat patch size, number of colonies, and approximate distance between colonies within a population from which genetic connectivity can be estimated. Additionally, the presence and potential influence of the three major habitat factors affecting the subspecies (habitat loss and fragmentation, livestock grazing, and hydrologic alteration) were derived from aerial imagery and/or on-the-ground knowledge. Therefore, we used these metrics to characterize the current resiliency condition of populations (see the SSA report's section 3.5 “Current Condition by Population” on how metric scores were derived; Service 2023, pp. 39-40).</P>
                <P>Resiliency scores and categories were established based on the best available information and professional opinion of species experts. Habitat patch sizes are estimates based on expert opinion of individual colony bog violet areas and primary nectar plant areas using aerial imagery or field observations. Determination of the number and status of colonies within a population was primarily based on expert input and survey information.</P>
                <P>There are 10 silverspot populations comprised of 21 known colonies. Two populations, Archuleta and Garfield, were not included in the genetic analysis by Cong et al. (2019, entire) due to a lack of samples, but we consider them to be part of the silverspot subspecies due to their geographic proximity to confirmed populations. We designated the Archuleta and Garfield populations as separate populations because they are more than 20 air miles (32 km) away from other populations (41 and 80 mi (66 and 129 km), respectively) and it is likely populations more than 20 mi (32 km) apart are not genetically connected (Ellis 2020c, 2020d, 2020e, pers. comm.; Grishin 2020b, pers. comm.)</P>
                <P>Within the range of and among all 10 populations, five previously known colonies have been extirpated; one was confirmed as extirpated from the Ouray population as recently as 2022 (Fisher 2022b, pers. comm.). The other four extirpations occurred over the last 40 years (since the late 1970s) (Scott and Fisher 2014, p. 3; Service 2023, pp. 18-19). Not including the extirpated colonies or stray sightings, and based on recent surveys or expert input, we evaluated the 21 known colonies that make up the 10 populations. There is some uncertainty whether all 21 colonies are extant based on the lack of consistent and consecutive surveys over the last 5 years. We characterize their current status in the SSA report as extant, likely extant, unknown, likely extirpated, or extirpated (Service 2023, pp. 40, 47).</P>
                <P>Resiliency for each population was scored using metrics for population size (in acres), number of colonies within populations, connectivity within populations, and habitat condition. Resiliency scores are categorized as follows: 0 = predicted extirpation (future scenarios only); 1 = very low resiliency; 2 and 3 = low resiliency; 4 to 6 = moderate resiliency; and 7 and above = high resiliency (see table 1, below). According to our current condition analysis in the SSA report, three populations have very low resiliency, three populations have low resiliency, two populations have moderate resiliency, and two populations have high resiliency (see table 1, below; Service 2023, pp. 46-49).</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="04" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Current Condition Resiliency Rankings for Silverspot Populations</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Population</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Size in ac 
                            <LI>(ha)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of 
                            <LI>colonies</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Population 
                            <LI>resiliency score</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Archuleta</ENT>
                        <ENT>11.9 (4.8)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Conejos</ENT>
                        <ENT>39.2 (15.9)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Costilla</ENT>
                        <ENT>4.3 (1.7)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Garfield</ENT>
                        <ENT>25.8 (10.4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">La Plata</ENT>
                        <ENT>5.2 (2.1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mesa/Grand</ENT>
                        <ENT>45.6 (18.5)</ENT>
                        <ENT>6</ENT>
                        <ENT>9</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Montrose/San Juan</ENT>
                        <ENT>19.9 (8.1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ouray</ENT>
                        <ENT>38.6 (15.6)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11763"/>
                        <ENT I="01">San Miguel/Mora</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.5 (0.6)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Taos</ENT>
                        <ENT>522.2 (211.3)</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>11</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>With 10 populations spread across 284 air miles (457 km) north to south and 237 air miles (381 km) east to west, there appears to be adequate redundancy should catastrophic events occur that cause extirpation of one or a few populations. However, if catastrophic events cause extirpation of the populations with the highest resiliency (Mesa/Grand, Montrose/San Juan, Ouray, and Taos), it could be quite detrimental to the viability of the subspecies because the six remaining populations have very low or low resiliency. Due to the low resiliency of many populations, more populations with sufficient resiliency would contribute to the subspecies' viability. Based on our evaluation of the 10 populations, we consider the current condition of the subspecies' redundancy to be moderate.</P>
                <P>The 10 silverspot populations represent the genetic and ecological variation (representation) currently known for this subspecies. Eight silverspot populations were identified based on genetic variation, which supports the ability of the subspecies to adapt over time to long-term changes in the environment (for example, climate change) (Cong et al. 2019, entire). However, 5 populations are comprised of a single colony, and all 10 populations appear isolated from one another. Genetic drift, the change in allele frequency in a population, is a particular concern for the small, isolated populations, and could impact the subspecies' adaptive capacity. In general, the bog violet and the silverspot occur in the same habitat across the range, but ecological representation adds to adaptive capacity because the silverspot occurs at different elevations and latitudes, such that overall, the silverspot has low to moderate representation. Future analysis of ecological settings at all colonies and populations is needed to improve our understanding of representation across the subspecies' range.</P>
                <P>In summary, there are currently 21 colonies representing the 10 populations. In terms of resiliency, three populations are in very low condition, three in low condition, two in moderate condition, and two in high condition. Current redundancy is determined to be moderate, and representation is thought to be low to moderate.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Future Condition</HD>
                <P>In the SSA report, we forecast the resiliency of silverspot populations and the redundancy and representation of the subspecies over the next approximately 30 years (to the year 2050) using a range of plausible future scenarios. This timeframe encompasses approximately 30 generations of the subspecies, and we can reasonably rely on the climate model projections and our projections of the subspecies' response up to this point. Climate change impacts and human habitat impacts are likely to be the biggest drivers of changes to resiliency, redundancy, and representation for the silverspot. We evaluated four future scenarios that capture the range of plausible futures based on four climate models and future climate projections developed for southern Colorado and northern New Mexico (Rangwala 2020a, entire; 2020b, entire). Three of the four models use representative concentration pathway (RCP; a greenhouse gas concentration trajectory) 4.5, and the fourth uses RCP8.5. The RCP4.5 is considered a medium emissions trajectory, and the RCP8.5 is considered a high emissions trajectory. The higher the emissions, the greater chance the climate will change further from the 1971-2000 baseline. Current policies are projected to take us slightly above the RCP4.5 emission trends by mid-century (Hausfather and Peters 2020, p. 260). The climate models are presented in the SSA report (Service 2023, tables 5-8, pp. 51-54).</P>
                <P>Using the four climate scenarios, we developed four future condition scenarios to evaluate the future viability of the silverspot. In simple terms, the four scenarios include:</P>
                <P>• Scenario 1: Warm Climate with Conservation Efforts;</P>
                <P>• Scenario 2: Hot and Dry Summers/Very Wet Winters with Conservation Efforts;</P>
                <P>• Scenario 3: Very Hot and Very Dry Summers/Wet Winters with No Conservation Efforts; and</P>
                <P>• Scenario 4: Hot and Very Dry Summers/Dry Winters with No Conservation Efforts.</P>
                <P>Because Scenarios 1 and 2 included potential future conservation efforts, which are not certain to occur and are not formalized in any conservation agreements, we did not consider these scenarios when determining if the silverspot meets the Act's definition of an endangered species or of a threatened species. However, Scenarios 1 and 2 will inform our strategies for recovery of the subspecies. Therefore, our analysis in this final rule focuses on the future condition of the silverspot under Scenarios 3 and 4, as summarized below. Refer to the SSA report for full descriptions of the future scenarios (Service 2023, chapter 4, pp. 49-67).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Scenario 3</HD>
                <P>Scenario 3 is characterized by the following assumptions:</P>
                <P>• An increase in direct habitat loss due to development occurs, particularly in colonies close to existing housing development.</P>
                <P>• Habitat fragmentation due to agricultural conversion remains unchanged from the current condition.</P>
                <P>• Greater negative effects from summer grazing occur because of dry or drought conditions (an increase from current condition) that reduce nectar sources.</P>
                <P>• No efforts are made to maintain current hydrology, and, in combination with dry or drought conditions, the habitat areas of small colonies will dry up and become extirpated and larger colonies are reduced in size (a decrease in suitable habitat from the current condition).</P>
                <P>• All populations receive a negative habitat factor score due to climate-related hydrologic alteration whether there is surrounding development or not.</P>
                <P>• No translocations of butterflies are implemented, and genetic diversity is low.</P>
                <P>• Climate emissions follow RCP8.5 (a high emissions scenario) with very hot and dry summers and wet winters.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Scenario 4</HD>
                <P>Scenario 4 is characterized by the following assumptions:</P>
                <P>
                    • We include the same assumptions as Scenario 3 for habitat loss and fragmentation, summer grazing, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11764"/>
                    hydrology and climate-related hydrologic factors, and translocation (the first six bullets, above).
                </P>
                <P>• Climate emissions follow RCP4.5 (a medium emissions scenario) with hot and very dry summers and dry winters.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Results of Scenarios 3 and 4</HD>
                <P>Resiliency rankings for each population under Scenario 3 can be found in table 2, below, and in the SSA report (Service 2023, table 11, p. 64). Four of the previously ranked low or very low resiliency populations under current conditions are expected to become extirpated, three populations have a very low resiliency, two have low resiliency, and the Ouray population retains a moderate resiliency, surpassing the Mesa/Grand and Taos populations as the highest-ranking population. Extirpation of colonies will reduce resiliency and redundancy of populations and will also undoubtedly decrease representation relative to the current condition, causing a decline in subspecies' viability.</P>
                <P>Resiliency rankings for each population under Scenario 4 can be found in table 2, below, and in the SSA report (Service 2023, table 12, p. 66). As in Scenario 3, we expect climate change will cause the extirpation of four populations, which have habitat areas smaller than 12 ac (5 ha). The size of habitat in the remaining populations is projected to decrease compared to the current condition. Compared to Scenario 3, habitat size is projected to be larger in the Colorado populations and smaller in the Taos population, but not enough to change the size scoring. With slightly less evaporative stress and slightly lower frequency of severe drought under Scenario 4 compared to Scenario 3, remaining populations may, in turn, be slightly more resilient in this scenario than in Scenario 3. However, using the resiliency scoring metrics in the SSA report, the minor differences in resiliency between the two scenarios are too small to result in different scores. Consequently, resiliency scorings are the same in both Scenarios 3 and 4, with four extirpated populations, three very low and two low resiliency populations, and only one moderately resilient population. Redundancy and representation are projected to be low, the same as in Scenario 3, and a decrease from the current condition.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Summary of Current and Future Conditions</HD>
                <P>A comparison of the resiliency of each population for the current condition and future scenarios is presented below in table 2, and table 3 presents a summary of redundancy and representation (see also Service 2023, table 13, p. 67). Currently, we have determined that 3 of the 10 silverspot populations are in a very low resiliency condition, 3 are in a low resiliency condition, 2 are in a moderate resiliency condition, and 2 of the largest populations are in a high resiliency condition. With 10 populations spread across the subspecies' range, there appears to be adequate redundancy should catastrophic events occur that cause the extirpation of one or a few populations, and we consider current redundancy to be moderate for the silverspot. It is likely there is sufficient representation and adaptability due to the genetic differences observed among populations. However, many of the populations are composed of a single colony, and all populations appear isolated genetically. In general, the bog violet and the silverspot occur in the same habitat across the subspecies' range, but ecological representation adds to adaptive capacity through occurrences at different elevations and latitudes and provides a low-to-moderate subspecies representation currently.</P>
                <P>The effects of future climate changes coupled with the continuation of other stressors that alter hydrology and cause habitat loss and fragmentation are projected to increase over the next 30 years in Scenarios 3 and 4, resulting in future conditions that cause resiliency, redundancy, and representation to decrease, and thus the subspecies' viability is expected to decrease from the current condition. Resiliency rankings are the same for Scenarios 3 and 4 with four extirpated populations, three very low and two low resiliency populations, and only one moderately resilient population. Redundancy and representation are both projected to be reduced from the current condition.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="04" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Summary of Silverspot Resiliency for Current Condition and Two Future Scenarios</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Population</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Resiliency</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            Current 
                            <LI>condition</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            Future 
                            <LI>scenario 3</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            Future 
                            <LI>scenario 4</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Archuleta</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Conejos</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Costilla</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Garfield</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">La Plata</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mesa/Grand</ENT>
                        <ENT>9</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Montrose/San Juan</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ouray</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">San Miguel/Mora</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Taos</ENT>
                        <ENT>11</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s75,r50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Table 3—Summary of Silverspot Redundancy and Representation for Current Condition and Two Future Scenarios</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Current condition</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Future scenario 3</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Future scenario 4</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Redundancy</ENT>
                        <ENT>Moderate</ENT>
                        <ENT>Very Low</ENT>
                        <ENT>Very Low.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Representation</ENT>
                        <ENT>Low-Moderate</ENT>
                        <ENT>Low</ENT>
                        <ENT>Low.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="11765"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Cumulative Effects</HD>
                <P>We note that, by using the SSA framework to guide our analysis of the scientific information documented in the SSA report, we have analyzed the cumulative effects of identified threats and conservation actions on the subspecies. To assess the current and future condition of the subspecies, we evaluate the effects of all the relevant factors that may be influencing the subspecies, including threats and conservation efforts.</P>
                <P>Habitat loss and fragmentation, human-caused hydrologic alteration, livestock grazing, genetic isolation, exotic plant invasion, climate change, climate events, larval desiccation, and collecting are all factors that influence or could influence the subspecies' viability. These factors also have the potential to act cumulatively to impact silverspot viability and their cumulative impacts were considered in our characterization of the subspecies' current and future condition in the SSA report. Because the SSA framework considers not just the presence of the factors, but to what degree they collectively influence risk to the entire subspecies, our assessment integrates the cumulative effects of factors and replaces a standalone cumulative effects analysis.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Beneficial Factors</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Mowing or haying:</E>
                     Periodic mowing or haying, occasionally or once a year, appears to be beneficial to open the canopy for violets, to reduce a buildup of thatch from dead vegetation, and to keep woody vegetation from encroaching beyond what is suitable for the silverspot. Mowing or haying may approximate disturbance that would have occurred historically from native ungulate grazing or wildfire or both. Mowing in the early summer would allow for regrowth of vegetation and nectar plants suitable for the silverspot (Ellis 2020g, pers. comm.). Mowing once in the late summer or early fall could also potentially be compatible (Smith 2019, pers. comm.), but has a higher risk of reducing vegetation and nectar plants for that year's pupae and adults and possibly crushing pupae, eggs, and larvae. Occasional or annual mowing can, nonetheless, be beneficial to reduce competition from other plants if adequate nectar plants remain in the field or if there are enough within a short distance around the field to supply nectar to adult silverspots.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Grazing:</E>
                     Winter and spring grazing (October to mid-April) can be beneficial to the silverspot (Arnold 1989, pp. 14-15). This is because removal of thatch from the dead vegetation limits competition in the spring for the violets. It also may approximate historical grazing patterns by native ungulates (deer and elk), which, in the winter, come down to lower valleys where there is less snow. Horses grazed an apparently healthy colony in the spring and summer (Arnold 1989, p. 14), so some light to moderate grazing in the spring or summer appears to be acceptable. In contrast, grazing when violets have emerged and are actively growing (spring and summer) may be detrimental if livestock readily consume or trample the violets and possibly eggs, larvae, and pupae.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Burning:</E>
                     Burning of meadows to reduce dead vegetation and reduce woody vegetation to suitable levels for the silverspot can also be beneficial and can possibly increase violet density (Arnold 1989, p. 14; Ellis 1989, p. 14).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Exotic plant invasion:</E>
                     Some exotic plants considered invasive or adventive may provide nectar sources that benefit the silverspot (Ellis 1989, p. 14; Fisher 2020e, pers. comm.). However, especially with invasive plants, this may only be the case where native nectar plants have been substantially reduced or eliminated.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Conservation efforts:</E>
                     The historical Unaweep Seep colony in the Mesa/Grand population was designated as a State Natural Area in 1983 (Ellis 1999, p. 2). The Bureau of Land Management (BLM) also established a Research Natural Area around it in 1983 and designated it as an Area of Critical Environmental Concern (ACEC) through their 2015 Resource Management Plan (Ellis 1989, p. 1; BLM 2015, pp. 207-208). Some monitoring, at least for the bog violet, occurred through 1999, but sometime after 1989 or possibly 1999, the colony became extirpated (Ellis 1999, entire). Habitat monitoring actions were recommended, but it is unclear whether any of them were ever implemented (Ellis 1999, pp. 8-9). Although the State of Colorado and the BLM implemented land conservation designations around the Unaweep Seep colony in the Mesa/Grand population, this colony has been extirpated for at least 20 years. Therefore, unless the bog violet and silverspot are translocated back to Unaweep Seep, the land designations do not benefit the silverspot. There are no other State regulatory mechanisms that benefit the silverspot in Colorado, New Mexico, or Utah. The Colorado State Wildlife Action Plan (SWAP) includes the silverspot, but there are no State statutes for management of the subspecies, so management would occur through cooperative efforts with other agencies or organizations.
                </P>
                <P>The BLM (Colorado), U.S. Forest Service (USFS) Region 2 (Colorado), and USFS Region 3 (New Mexico) have the silverspot on their sensitive species lists. The USFS Region 4 (Utah) does not, but no silverspots are currently known on USFS land in Utah. No silverspot colonies are currently known on USFS land in Colorado or New Mexico either, but the elevational range of the subspecies includes some lower elevation USFS land. The BLM does not have the silverspot on its sensitive species lists in either Utah or New Mexico. If species are on BLM sensitive species lists, the BLM works cooperatively with other Federal and State agencies and nongovernmental organizations to conserve these species and ensure that activities on BLM lands do not contribute to the need for their listing under the Act. Specific conservation objectives for BLM sensitive species are established in BLM land use plans. BLM's Grand Junction Field Office manages the Unaweep Seep property and, in addition to ACEC designation, includes management of the area for the butterfly in their 2015 Resource Management Plan (BLM 2015, pp. 207-208, appendix B, appendix H). The butterfly is not included in other BLM land use plans in any of the other BLM resource areas in Colorado, New Mexico, or Utah, because the butterfly was not known to occur on BLM land in areas other than Unaweep Seep until very recently (only one new colony has been identified on BLM lands).</P>
                <P>Only three silverspot colonies are known to occur on public land (Federal and State lands), but there is potentially part of a fourth colony (unconfirmed) on public land in the Ouray population. Additionally, there are unsurveyed bog violet patches on State and Federal lands in the Garfield, Mesa/Grand, and Montrose/San Juan populations. Consequently, at present, any regulatory mechanisms or conservation efforts on State, BLM, and USFS lands, although contributing to conservation of the silverspot, would have a low impact on the silverspot's overall viability because most colonies and populations occur on private land.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determination of Silverspot's Status</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 4 of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1533) and its implementing regulations (50 CFR part 424) set forth the procedures for determining whether a species meets the Act's definition of an endangered species or a threatened species. The Act defines an “endangered species” as a species in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11766"/>
                    its range, and a “threatened species” as a species likely to become an endangered species within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range. The Act requires that we determine whether a species meets the definition of endangered species or threatened species because of any of the following factors: (A) The present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of its habitat or range; (B) overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes; (C) disease or predation; (D) the inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; or (E) other natural or manmade factors affecting its continued existence.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Status Throughout All of Its Range</HD>
                <P>After evaluating threats to the species and assessing the cumulative effect of the threats under the Act's section 4(a)(1) factors, we found habitat loss and fragmentation (Factor A), incompatible livestock grazing (Factor A), human-caused hydrologic alteration (Factor A), and genetic isolation (Factor E) to be the main drivers of the silverspot's current condition, with the addition of the effects of climate change (Factor E) influencing future condition. These stressors all contribute to loss of habitat quantity and quality for the silverspot and for the bog violet, the plant on which silverspot larvae exclusively feed. These threats can currently occur anywhere in the range of the silverspot, and the future effects of climate change are expected to be ubiquitous throughout the subspecies' range. The existing regulatory mechanisms (Factor D) do not significantly affect the subspecies or ameliorate these stressors; thus, these stressors continue and are predicted to increase in prevalence in the future.</P>
                <P>Under the two future scenarios considered in this evaluation, we expect some populations to become extirpated and resiliency of the remaining populations to decrease. This would result in decreased redundancy and representation in the future compared to the current condition.</P>
                <P>
                    We find that the silverspot is not currently in danger of extinction because the subspecies is still widespread with multiple populations of various sizes and levels of resiliency spread across its range, capturing known genetic and ecological variation. Therefore, the subspecies currently has sufficient redundancy and representation to withstand catastrophic events and maintain adaptability to changes. However, we expect that the stressors, individually and cumulatively, will reduce resiliency, redundancy, and representation within all parts of the range within the foreseeable future, in light of future climate change effects. Thus, after assessing the best available information, we conclude that the silverspot is not currently in danger of extinction but is likely to become in danger of extinction within the foreseeable future throughout all of its range. This finding is based on anticipated reductions in resiliency, redundancy, and representation in the future as a result of predicted loss and degradation of wet meadow habitat from the synergistic and cumulative interactions between climate change and other stressors. Climate change is predicted to increase temperatures and decrease water availability and snowpack necessary to maintain the wet meadows that the silverspot and bog violet need. This, coupled with the continuation of other stressors that alter hydrology and cause habitat loss and fragmentation, is expected to impact the future viability of this subspecies. We can reasonably determine that both the future threats and the subspecies' responses to those threats are likely within a 30-year timeframe (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the foreseeable future). Thus, after assessing the best available information, we determine that the silverspot is not currently in danger of extinction but is likely to become in danger of extinction within the foreseeable future throughout all of its range.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Status Throughout a Significant Portion of Its Range</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the Act and our implementing regulations, a species may warrant listing if it is in danger of extinction or likely to become so in the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range. The court in 
                    <E T="03">Center for Biological Diversity</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Everson,</E>
                     435 F. Supp. 3d 69 (D.D.C. 2020) (
                    <E T="03">Everson</E>
                    ), vacated the provision of the Final Policy on Interpretation of the Phrase “Significant Portion of Its Range” in the Endangered Species Act's Definitions of “Endangered Species” and “Threatened Species” (Final Policy; 79 FR 37578, July 1, 2014) that provided if the Services determine that a species is threatened throughout all of its range, the Services will not analyze whether the species is endangered in a significant portion of its range.
                </P>
                <P>Therefore, we proceed to evaluating whether the species is endangered in a significant portion of its range—that is, whether there is any portion of the species' range for which both (1) the portion is significant; and (2) the species is in danger of extinction in that portion. Depending on the case, it might be more efficient for us to address the “significance” question or the “status” question first. We can choose to address either question first. Regardless of which question we address first, if we reach a negative answer with respect to the first question that we address, we do not need to evaluate the other question for that portion of the species' range.</P>
                <P>
                    Following the court's holding in 
                    <E T="03">Everson,</E>
                     we now consider whether there are any significant portions of the species' range where the species is in danger of extinction now (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     endangered). In undertaking this analysis for the silverspot, we choose to address the status question first—we consider information pertaining to the geographic distribution of both the subspecies and the threats that the subspecies faces to identify portions of the range where the subspecies may be endangered.
                </P>
                <P>We evaluated the range of the silverspot to determine if the species is in danger of extinction now in any portion of its range. The range of a species can theoretically be divided into portions in an infinite number of ways. We focused our analysis on portions of the subspecies' range that may meet the definition of an endangered species.</P>
                <P>
                    For the silverspot, we considered whether the threats or their effects on the subspecies are greater in any biologically meaningful portion of the subspecies' range than in other portions such that the subspecies is in danger of extinction now in that portion. We examined the following threats: Habitat loss and fragmentation; livestock grazing; human-caused hydrologic alteration; genetic isolation; climate change; climate events; invasion by nonnative plants; larval desiccation; and collecting. These are all factors that influence or could influence the subspecies' viability, including cumulative effects. All of these threats are similar in scope, scale, and distribution across the range of the subspecies. The spatial distribution of these threats is evenly distributed throughout the range and not concentrated in any particular area. However, there are several smaller populations distributed throughout the range that are currently in low resiliency condition and therefore could experience an elevated risk of extinction in the future (see tables 1 and 2, above). These smaller populations are not concentrated in their location, instead they are distributed across the range with more highly resilient populations interspersed between them. These smaller populations are not at risk of extinction currently due to the lack of imminent threats, as described in our 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11767"/>
                    analysis above. Climate events are currently a minor factor and when considered with the other stressors are not expected to reduce the subspecies' viability in the near term. The risk of extinction of the smaller populations increases in the foreseeable future when climate change becomes a major factor and when other major factors such as habitat loss and degradation are predicted to increase. Therefore, the smaller populations risk of extinction is influenced by the predicted increase in threats from habitat loss and degradation, climate change, and (to a lesser extent) the other stressors analyzed in this rule, and their future effects to the silverspot.
                </P>
                <P>
                    We found no portion of the silverspot's range where threats are impacting individuals differently from how they are affecting the subspecies elsewhere in its range, or where the biological condition of the subspecies differs from its condition elsewhere in its range such that the status of the subspecies in that portion differs from any other portion of the subspecies' range. Therefore, no portion of the subspecies' range provides a basis for determining that the subspecies is in danger of extinction in a significant portion of its range, and we determine that the subspecies is likely to become in danger of extinction within the foreseeable future throughout all of its range. This does not conflict with the courts' holdings in 
                    <E T="03">Desert Survivors</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">U.S. Department of the Interior,</E>
                     321 F. Supp. 3d 1011, 1070-74 (N.D. Cal. 2018), and 
                    <E T="03">Center for Biological Diversity</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Jewell,</E>
                     248 F. Supp. 3d 946, 959 (D. Ariz. 2017), because, in reaching this conclusion, we did not apply the aspects of the Final Policy, including the definition of “significant” that those court decisions held to be invalid.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Determination of Status</HD>
                <P>Our review of the best scientific and commercial data available indicates that the silverspot meets the Act's definition of a threatened species. Therefore, we are listing the silverspot as a threatened species in accordance with sections 3(20) and 4(a)(1) of the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Available Conservation Measures</HD>
                <P>Conservation measures provided to species listed as endangered or threatened species under the Act include recognition as a listed species, planning and implementation of recovery actions, requirements for Federal protection, and prohibitions against certain practices. Recognition through listing results in public awareness, and conservation by Federal, State, Tribal, and local agencies, private organizations, and individuals. The Act encourages cooperation with the States and other countries and calls for recovery actions to be carried out for listed species. The protection required by Federal agencies, including the Service, and the prohibitions against certain activities are discussed, in part, below.</P>
                <P>The primary purpose of the Act is the conservation of endangered and threatened species and the ecosystems upon which they depend. The ultimate goal of such conservation efforts is the recovery of these listed species, so that they no longer need the protective measures of the Act. Section 4(f) of the Act calls for the Service to develop and implement recovery plans for the conservation of endangered and threatened species. The goal of this process is to restore listed species to a point where they are secure, self-sustaining, and functioning components of their ecosystems.</P>
                <P>
                    Recovery planning consists of preparing draft and final recovery plans, beginning with the development of a recovery outline and making it available to the public soon after a final listing determination. The recovery outline guides the immediate implementation of urgent recovery actions and describes the process to be used to develop a recovery plan. The recovery planning process involves the identification of actions that are necessary to halt and reverse the species' decline by addressing the threats to its survival and recovery. The recovery plan also identifies recovery criteria for review of when a species may be ready for reclassification from endangered to threatened (“downlisting”) or removal from protected status (“delisting”), and methods for monitoring recovery progress. Recovery plans also establish a framework for agencies to coordinate their recovery efforts and provide estimates of the cost of implementing recovery tasks. Recovery teams (composed of species experts, Federal and State agencies, nongovernmental organizations, and stakeholders) may be established to develop recovery plans. Revisions of the plan may be done to address continuing or new threats to the species, as new substantive information becomes available. When completed, the recovery outline, draft recovery plan, and the final recovery plan will be available on our website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.fws.gov/program/endangered-species</E>
                    ), or from our Colorado Ecological Services Field Office (see 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Implementation of recovery actions generally requires the participation of a broad range of partners, including other Federal agencies, States, Tribes, nongovernmental organizations, businesses, and private landowners. Examples of recovery actions include habitat restoration (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     restoration of native vegetation), research, captive propagation and reintroduction, and outreach and education. The recovery of many listed species cannot be accomplished solely on Federal lands because their range may occur primarily or solely on non-Federal lands. For many listed species, achieving recovery requires cooperative conservation efforts on private, State, and Tribal lands.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Once this subspecies is listed (see 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     above), funding for recovery actions will be available from a variety of sources, including Federal budgets, State programs, and cost-share grants for non-Federal landowners, the academic community, and nongovernmental organizations. In addition, pursuant to section 6 of the Act, the States of Colorado, New Mexico, and Utah will be eligible for Federal funds to implement management actions that promote the protection or recovery of the silverspot. Information on our grant programs that are available to aid the subspecies recovery can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fws.gov/service/financial-assistance</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    Please let us know if you are interested in participating in recovery efforts for the silverspot. Additionally, we invite you to submit any new information on this subspecies whenever it becomes available and any information you may have for recovery planning purposes (see 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>Section 7 of the Act is titled Interagency Cooperation and mandates all Federal action agencies to use their existing authorities to further the conservation purposes of the Act and to ensure that their actions are not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of listed species or adversely modify critical habitat. Regulations implementing section 7 are codified at 50 CFR part 402.</P>
                <P>
                    Section 7(a)(2) states that each Federal action agency shall, in consultation with the Secretary, ensure that any action they authorize, fund, or carry out is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of a listed species or result in the destruction or adverse modification of designated critical habitat. Each Federal agency shall review its action at the earliest possible time to determine whether it may affect listed species or critical habitat. If a determination is made that the action may affect listed species or critical habitat, formal consultation is required (50 CFR 402.14(a)), unless the Service concurs in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11768"/>
                    writing that the action is not likely to adversely affect listed species or critical habitat. At the end of a formal consultation, the Service issues a biological opinion, containing its determination of whether the federal action is likely to result in jeopardy or adverse modification.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Examples of discretionary actions for the silverspot that may be subject to consultation procedures under section 7 are land management or other landscape-altering activities on Federal lands administered by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Bureau of Land Management, Bureau of Indian Affairs, Bureau of Reclamation, National Park Service, and U.S. Forest Service as well as actions on State, Tribal, local, or private lands that require a Federal permit (such as a permit from the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers under section 404 of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1251 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) or a permit from the Service under section 10 of the Act) or that involve some other Federal action (such as funding from the Federal Highway Administration, Federal Aviation Administration, or the Federal Emergency Management Agency). Federal actions not affecting listed species or critical habitat—and actions on State, Tribal, local, or private lands that are not federally funded, authorized, or carried out by a Federal agency—do not require section 7 consultation. Federal agencies should coordinate with the local Service Field Office (see 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    ) with any specific questions on Section 7 consultation and conference requirements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    It is the policy of the Services, as published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on July 1, 1994 (59 FR 34272), to identify to the extent known at the time a species is listed, specific activities that will not be considered likely to result in violation of section 9 of the Act. To the extent possible, activities that will be considered likely to result in violation will also be identified in as specific a manner as possible. The intent of this policy is to increase public awareness of the effect of a listing on proposed and ongoing activities within the range of the species. Although most of the prohibitions in section 9 of the Act apply to endangered species, sections 9(a)(1)(G) and 9(a)(2)(E) of the Act prohibit the violation of any regulation under section 4(d) pertaining to any threatened species of fish or wildlife, or threatened species of plant, respectively. Section 4(d) of the Act directs the Secretary to promulgate protective regulations that are necessary and advisable for the conservation of threatened species. As a result, we interpret our policy to mean that, when we list a species as a threatened species, to the extent possible, we identify activities that will or will not be considered likely to result in violation of the protective regulations under section 4(d) for that species.
                </P>
                <P>At this time, we are unable to identify specific activities that will or will not be considered likely to result in violation of section 9 of the Act beyond what is already clear from the descriptions of prohibitions and exceptions established by protective regulation under section 4(d) of the Act.</P>
                <P>
                    Questions regarding whether specific activities would constitute violation of section 9 of the Act should be directed to the Colorado Ecological Services Field Office (see 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Final Rule Issued Under Section 4(d) of the Act</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 4(d) of the Act contains two sentences. The first sentence states that the Secretary shall issue such regulations as she deems necessary and advisable to provide for the conservation of species listed as threatened. The U.S. Supreme Court has noted that statutory language similar to the language in section 4(d) of the Act authorizing the Secretary to take action that she “deems necessary and advisable” affords a large degree of deference to the agency (see 
                    <E T="03">Webster</E>
                     v.
                    <E T="03"> Doe,</E>
                     486 U.S. 592, 600 (1988)). Conservation is defined in the Act to mean the use of all methods and procedures which are necessary to bring any endangered species or threatened species to the point at which the measures provided pursuant to the Act are no longer necessary. Additionally, the second sentence of section 4(d) of the Act states that the Secretary may by regulation prohibit with respect to any threatened species any act prohibited under section 9(a)(1), in the case of fish or wildlife, or section 9(a)(2), in the case of plants. Thus, the combination of the two sentences of section 4(d) provides the Secretary with wide latitude of discretion to select and promulgate appropriate regulations tailored to the specific conservation needs of the threatened species. The second sentence grants particularly broad discretion to the Service when adopting the prohibitions under section 9.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The courts have recognized the extent of the Secretary's discretion under this standard to develop rules that are appropriate for the conservation of a species. For example, courts have upheld rules developed under section 4(d) as a valid exercise of agency authority where they prohibited take of threatened wildlife or include a limited taking prohibition (see 
                    <E T="03">Alsea Valley Alliance</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Lautenbacher,</E>
                     2007 U.S. Dist. Lexis 60203 (D. Or. 2007); 
                    <E T="03">Washington Environmental Council</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">National Marine Fisheries Service,</E>
                     2002 U.S. Dist. Lexis 5432 (W.D. Wash. 2002)). Courts have also upheld 4(d) rules that do not address all of the threats a species faces (see 
                    <E T="03">State of Louisiana</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Verity,</E>
                     853 F.2d 322 (5th Cir. 1988)). As noted in the legislative history when the Act was initially enacted, “once an animal is on the threatened list, the Secretary has an almost infinite number of options available to [her] with regard to the permitted activities for those species. [She] may, for example, permit taking, but not importation of such species, or [she] may choose to forbid both taking and importation but allow the transportation of such species” (H.R. Rep. No. 412, 93rd Cong., 1st Sess. 1973).
                </P>
                <P>The provisions of this 4(d) rule will promote conservation of the silverspot by encouraging management of the landscape in ways that meet both land management considerations and the conservation needs of the silverspot. The provisions of this rule are one of many tools that we will use to promote the conservation of the silverspot.</P>
                <P>As mentioned previously in “Available Conservation Measures,” section 7(a)(2) of the Act requires Federal agencies, including the Service, to ensure that any action they fund, authorize, or carry out is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any endangered species or threatened species or result in the destruction or adverse modification of designated critical habitat of such species.</P>
                <P>These requirements are the same for a threatened species with a species-specific 4(d) rule. For example, as with an endangered species, if a Federal agency determines that an action is “not likely to adversely affect” a threatened species will require the Service's written concurrence (50 CFR 402.13(c). Similarly, if a Federal agency determines that an action is “likely to adversely affect” a threatened species, the action will require formal consultation and the formulation of a biological opinion (50 CFR 402.14(a)).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Provisions of the 4(d) Rule</HD>
                <P>
                    Exercising the Secretary's authority under section 4(d), we have developed a rule that is designed to address the silverspot's specific threats and conservation needs. As discussed above under “Summary of Biological Status 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11769"/>
                    and Threats,” we have concluded that the silverspot is likely to become in danger of extinction within the foreseeable future primarily due to the individual and cumulative effects of habitat loss and fragmentation, incompatible livestock grazing, human-caused hydrologic alteration, genetic isolation, and climate change. Section 4(d) requires the Secretary to issue such regulations as she deems necessary and advisable to provide for the conservation of each threatened species and authorizes the Secretary to include among those protective regulations any of the prohibitions that section 9(a)(1) of the Act prescribes for endangered species. We find that the protections, prohibitions, and exceptions in this rule as a whole satisfy the requirement in section 4(d) of the Act to issue regulations deemed necessary and advisable to provide for the conservation of the silverspot.
                </P>
                <P>The protective regulations for the silverspot incorporate prohibitions from section 9(a)(1) to address the threats to the species. Section 9(a)(1) prohibits the following activities for endangered wildlife: importing or exporting; take; possession and other acts with unlawfully taken specimens; delivering, receiving, carrying, transporting, or shipping in interstate or foreign commerce in the course of commercial activity; or selling or offering for sale in interstate or foreign commerce. This protective regulation includes all of these prohibitions because the silverspot is at risk of extinction in the foreseeable future and putting these prohibitions in place will help to preserve the subspecies' remaining populations, slow their rate of decline, and decrease synergistic, negative effects from other threats.</P>
                <P>
                    This 4(d) rule will provide for the conservation of the silverspot by prohibiting the following activities, except as otherwise authorized or permitted (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     allowed for in an exception or authorized by a permit issued under section 10(a)(1)(A) of the Act): importing or exporting; possession and other acts with unlawfully taken specimens; delivering, receiving, carrying, transporting, or shipping in interstate or foreign commerce in the course of commercial activity; or selling or offering for sale in interstate or foreign commerce. In addition, anyone taking, attempting to take, or otherwise possessing a silverspot, or parts thereof, in violation of section 9 of the Act will be subject to a penalty under section 11 of the Act, with certain exceptions (discussed below).
                </P>
                <P>Under the Act, “take” means to harass, harm, pursue, hunt, shoot, wound, kill, trap, capture, or collect, or to attempt to engage in any such conduct. Some of these provisions have been further defined in regulation at 50 CFR 17.3. Take can result knowingly or otherwise, by direct and indirect impacts, intentionally or incidentally. Regulating incidental and intentional take will help preserve the subspecies' remaining populations, slow their rate of decline, and decrease synergistic, negative effects from other threats.</P>
                <P>Exceptions to the prohibition on take include all of the general exceptions to the prohibition on take of endangered wildlife, as set forth in 50 CFR 17.21 and additional exceptions, as described below.</P>
                <P>
                    The 4(d) rule will also provide for the conservation of the species by allowing exceptions that incentivize conservation actions or that, while they may have some minimal level of take of the silverspot, are not expected to rise to the level that would have a negative impact (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     would have only de minimis impacts) on the subspecies' conservation.
                </P>
                <P>As discussed above under “Summary of Biological Status and Threats”, livestock grazing, exotic plant invasion, prescribed burning, and use of pesticides affect the status of the silverspot both negatively and positively depending on how, when, and where they are done. Accordingly, this final 4(d) rule addresses activities to facilitate conservation and management of the silverspot where the subspecies currently occurs and may occur in the future by excepting the activities from the Act's take prohibition under certain specific conditions. These activities are intended to increase management flexibility and encourage support for the conservation and habitat improvement of the silverspot. Under this 4(d) rule, take will be prohibited, except for take incidental to an otherwise lawful activity described in the exceptions to prohibitions in the 4(d) rule for the purpose of silverspot conservation or recovery.</P>
                <P>
                    The specific exceptions to the prohibitions for specific types of incidental take under this 4(d) rule are explained in more detail below. For all of these, reasonable care must be practiced to minimize the impacts from the actions. Reasonable care means limiting the impacts to the silverspot and its host plant (bog violet) by complying with any and all applicable Federal, State, and Tribal regulations for the activity in question; using methods and techniques that result in the least harm, injury, or death, as feasible; undertaking activities at the least impactful times (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     conducting activities that might impact habitat during the flight season) and locations, as feasible; ensuring the number of individuals affected does not impact the existing populations; minimizing the potential to introduce invasive plant species; and preserving the genetic diversity of populations.
                </P>
                <P>Under this 4(d) rule, incidental take of a silverspot will not be a violation of section 9 of the Act if it occurs as a result of the following activities. All activities and statements below only apply in habitat areas of silverspot that include wet meadow areas where bog violets are growing and immediately adjacent areas with nectar plants.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Livestock Grazing</HD>
                <P>By excepting take of the silverspot caused by grazing, we acknowledge the positive role that some ranchers have already played in conserving the silverspot and the importance of preventing any additional loss and fragmentation of native grasslands and riparian habitat. Grazing (and browsing) by livestock may improve silverspot habitat by opening up tree or shrub canopy cover in the habitat and removing herbaceous vegetation that shades and competes with the bog violet, thereby reducing its abundance. Grazing may be an effective tool to improve silverspot habitat when carefully applied in cooperation and consultation with private landowners, public land managers, and grazing experts. Moderate vegetative utilization (40-55 percent) in late fall to early spring (October 15 to May 31) is excepted under this 4(d) rule. Resting pastures that include silverspot habitat is preferred in summer through fall (June 1 to October 14), but light grazing (less than 30 percent utilization) during this timeframe is also excepted from take because it may reduce competition for the bog violet. Recovery of the silverspot will depend on the protection and restoration of high-quality habitats supporting the bog violet on private lands and on public lands that are grazed by private individuals under lease or other agreements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Annual Haying or Mowing</HD>
                <P>
                    Annual haying or mowing in early summer can be beneficial, or at least not detrimental, to the silverspot by removing vegetation that competes with the bog violet for light, nutrients, and water and reduces the violet's abundance. Therefore, we except take from annual haying or mowing in silverspot habitat under the following conditions: activities must occur in the early summer (June 30 or earlier), and blade height must be a minimum of 6 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11770"/>
                    inches above the ground, with 8 inches or higher preferred in areas with bog violet to avoid cutting the violet leaves. The timing of cutting also applies to adjacent drier habitat areas that contain nectar plants, an important food source for adult butterflies, but blade height may be lower than 6 inches where the bog violet is not present. However, haying or mowing from July 1 through October would be detrimental due to removal of nectar plants and cover for all silverspot life stages, and therefore is not excepted from the prohibitions in this 4(d) rule in and adjacent to bog violet habitat.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Prescribed Burning</HD>
                <P>
                    Spring burning can be beneficial to remove thatch that may reduce or prevent growth of the bog violet. Prescribed burning in the spring (March 1 to April 30) has limited impact to silverspots and is excepted from take. Fall burning (October 15 to December 15) is also excepted if adequate monitoring (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     at least two surveys at times when butterflies are active) is performed on the property during the adult flight period of that year and does not detect the silverspot.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Brush Control</HD>
                <P>Some woody vegetation interspersed in silverspot habitat or at the margins of habitat can be beneficial for bog violet survival and growth by providing some protection from livestock grazing and trampling and a future substrate for violet establishment on old decaying logs (Ireland 2021a, pers. comm.). However, if allowed to become too dense, woody vegetation can crowd out bog violets and nectar plants. Consequently, brush removal every 4 to 5 years is excepted from take and may occur at any time during the year. Removal can be by mechanical means, burning, grazing, or herbicide application if in compliance with other excepted activities in the 4(d) rule. If mechanical means such as a brush hog is used, the blade must be set to 8 inches or higher above the ground. If herbicides are used, an appropriate systemic herbicide to prevent regrowth must be directly applied to cut stems. Broadcast spraying in silverspot habitat is prohibited because it may remove all nectar plants for the butterfly.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Noxious Weed Control</HD>
                <P>Although some noxious weeds like Canada thistle provide nectar sources for silverspot, spot spraying, hand pulling, or mechanical treatment of noxious weeds is excepted from take and may occur at any time during the year. High densities of noxious weeds can be detrimental to the bog violet and their control can benefit the silverspot. However, broadcast spraying in silverspot habitat is prohibited because it may remove all nectar plants for the butterfly.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Fence Maintenance</HD>
                <P>Excepted activities related to fence maintenance include replacement of poles and wire, and aboveground removal of woody vegetation along fence lines. These activities may occur at any time during the year. Fences help manage where cattle and other livestock can graze and reduce unwanted impacts to bog violet habitat. Removal of woody vegetation can prevent encroachment of vegetation into bog violet habitat and reduces competition with bog violet. If removal of woody vegetation is done by machine, such as a brush hog, the machine blade must be set 8 inches or higher above ground to avoid or minimize damage to the bog violet. If permanent removal of woody vegetation is desired, we recommend a systemic herbicide be directly applied to the cut stems of woody vegetation. However, as stated earlier, broadcast spraying in silverspot habitat is prohibited because it may remove all nectar plants for the butterfly.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Maintenance and Operation of Existing Utility Corridors</HD>
                <P>Maintenance and operation of existing utility infrastructure within and immediately adjacent to silverspot habitat are excepted from take within existing rights-of-way for standard activities to repair and maintain existing transmission towers, lines, access roads, and to perform brush control. These activities are excepted from take year-round and as needed with no restriction on frequency. Replacement of existing structures and the installation of new structures and infrastructure such as access roads are not excepted. Noxious weed control and fence maintenance must abide by the exceptions for these activities identified in the 4(d) rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Maintenance of Other Structures</HD>
                <P>Maintenance of other existing structures within and immediately adjacent to silverspot habitat is excepted if activities are kept within the confines of already disturbed ground so as to not disturb the subspecies or its habitat.</P>
                <P>Despite these prohibitions regarding threatened species, we may under certain circumstances issue permits to carry out one or more otherwise prohibited activities, including those described above. The regulations that govern permits for threatened wildlife state that the Director may issue a permit authorizing any activity otherwise prohibited with regard to threatened species. These include permits issued for the following purposes: for scientific purposes, to enhance propagation or survival, for economic hardship, for zoological exhibition, for educational purposes, for incidental taking, or for special purposes consistent with the purposes of the Act (50 CFR 17.32). The statute also contains certain exemptions from the prohibitions, which are found in sections 9 and 10 of the Act.</P>
                <P>We recognize the special and unique relationship with our State natural resource agency partners in contributing to conservation of listed species. State agencies often possess scientific data and valuable expertise on the status and distribution of endangered, threatened, and candidate species of wildlife and plants. State agencies, because of their authorities and their close working relationships with local governments and landowners, are in a unique position to assist us in implementing all aspects of the Act. In this regard, section 6 of the Act provides that we must cooperate to the maximum extent practicable with the States in carrying out programs authorized by the Act. Therefore, any qualified employee or agent of a State conservation agency that is a party to a cooperative agreement with us in accordance with section 6(c) of the Act, who is designated by his or her agency for such purposes, will be able to conduct activities designed to conserve the silverspot that may result in otherwise prohibited take without additional authorization.</P>
                <P>Nothing in this 4(d) rule will change in any way the recovery planning provisions of section 4(f) of the Act, the consultation requirements under section 7 of the Act, or the ability of the Service to enter into partnerships for the management and protection of the silverspot. However, interagency cooperation may be further streamlined through planned programmatic consultations for the subspecies between Federal agencies and the Service.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Critical Habitat</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 4(a)(3) of the Act, as amended, and implementing regulations (50 CFR 424.12), require that, to the maximum extent prudent and determinable, the Secretary shall designate critical habitat at the time the species is determined to be an endangered or threatened species. Our regulations (50 CFR 424.12(a)(1)) state that the Secretary may, but is not required to, determine that a 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11771"/>
                    designation would not be prudent in the following circumstances:
                </P>
                <P>• The species is threatened by taking or other human activity and identification of critical habitat can be expected to increase the degree of such threat to the species;</P>
                <P>• The present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of a species' habitat or range is not a threat to the species, or threats to the species' habitat stem solely from causes that cannot be addressed through management actions resulting from consultations under section 7(a)(2) of the Act;</P>
                <P>• Areas within the jurisdiction of the United States provide no more than negligible conservation value, if any, for a species occurring primarily outside the jurisdiction of the United States;</P>
                <P>• No areas meet the definition of critical habitat; or</P>
                <P>• The Secretary otherwise determines that designation of critical habitat would not be prudent based on the best scientific data available.</P>
                <P>
                    In this final rule, we affirm the prudency determination we made in our May 4, 2022, proposed rule (87 FR 26319 at pp. 26335-26336) concerning the designation of critical habitat for the silverspot. We find that the designation of critical habitat is not prudent for the silverspot, in accordance with 50 CFR 424.12(a)(1), because the silverspot faces a threat of unauthorized collection and trade, and designation can reasonably be expected to increase the degree of these threats to the subspecies. Designation of critical habitat requires the publication of maps and a narrative description of specific critical habitat areas in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . The degree of detail in those maps and boundary descriptions is greater than the general location descriptions provided in this final rule. We find that the publication of maps and descriptions outlining the locations of the silverspot would likely facilitate unauthorized collection and trade, as collectors would know the exact locations where silverspots occur. The silverspot has been collected in the past, and there is potential for collection pressure to increase if specific locations of populations were to become widely known (Ellis 2020f, pers. comm.). Butterflies in general are highly sought after by collectors in the illegal animal trade (Courchamp et al. 2006, entire). We are concerned that the publicity from listing the silverspot may result in greater interest from collectors and make the subspecies more desirable for collection because of its rarity as has been documented for other rare butterflies (Hoekwater 1997, entire; Courchamp et al. 2006, entire; O'Neill 2007, entire; Stratton 2012, entire; Lewis 2018, entire). Therefore, a designation of critical habitat would be detrimental for the subspecies. For more information on the rationale for our determination that designation of critical habitat is not prudent, see the May 4, 2022, proposed rule (87 FR 26319 at pp. 26335-26336).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Required Determinations</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">National Environmental Policy Act (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.)</HD>
                <P>
                    Regulations adopted pursuant to section 4(a) of the Act are exempt from the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and do not require an environmental analysis under NEPA. We published a notice outlining our reasons for this determination in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on October 25, 1983 (48 FR 49244). This includes listing, delisting, and reclassification rules, as well as critical habitat designations and species-specific protective regulations promulgated concurrently with a decision to list or reclassify a species as threatened. The courts have upheld this position (
                    <E T="03">e.g., Douglas County</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Babbitt,</E>
                     48 F.3d 1495 (9th Cir. 1995) (critical habitat); 
                    <E T="03">Center for Biological Diversity</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service.,</E>
                     2005 WL 2000928 (N.D. Cal. Aug. 19, 2005) (concurrent 4(d) rule)).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Government-to-Government Relationship With Tribes</HD>
                <P>In accordance with the President's memorandum of April 29, 1994 (Government-to-Government Relations with Native American Tribal Governments; 59 FR 22951), Executive Order 13175 (Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments), and the Department of the Interior's manual at 512 DM 2, we readily acknowledge our responsibility to communicate meaningfully with federally recognized Tribes on a government-to-government basis. In accordance with Secretary's Order 3206 of June 5, 1997 (American Indian Tribal Rights, Federal-Tribal Trust Responsibilities, and the Endangered Species Act), we readily acknowledge our responsibilities to work directly with Tribes in developing programs for healthy ecosystems, to acknowledge that Tribal lands are not subject to the same controls as Federal public lands, to remain sensitive to Indian culture, and to make information available to Tribes. Thirty-eight Tribes with cultural claims or affiliation to land or with lands currently in the range of the silverspot were contacted via letter to solicit input on the SSA report. One Tribe responded and stated that they do not have scientific data but would like to be kept informed of the SSA findings. We notified Tribes of the May 4, 2022, proposed listing determination and this final determination.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">References Cited</HD>
                <P>
                    A complete list of references cited in this rulemaking is available on the internet at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and upon request from the Colorado Ecological Services Field Office (see 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authors</HD>
                <P>The primary authors of this final rule are the staff members of the Fish and Wildlife Service's Species Assessment Team and the Colorado Ecological Services Field Office.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 50 CFR Part 17</HD>
                    <P>Endangered and threatened species, Exports, Imports, Plants, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transportation, Wildlife.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulation Promulgation</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, we amend part 17, subchapter B of chapter I, title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as set forth below:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 17—ENDANGERED AND THREATENED WILDLIFE AND PLANTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="17">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 17 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 16 U.S.C. 1361-1407; 1531-1544; and 4201-4245, unless otherwise noted.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="17">
                    <AMDPAR>2. In § 17.11, in paragraph (h), amend the List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife by adding an entry for “Butterfly, silverspot” in alphabetical order under INSECTS to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 17.11</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Endangered and threatened wildlife.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(h) * * *</P>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11772"/>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s75,r75,r50,xls30,r100">
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Common name</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Scientific name</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Where listed</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Status</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Listing citations and
                                    <LI>applicable rules</LI>
                                </CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="04">Insects</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Butterfly, silverspot</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    <E T="03">Speyeria nokomis nokomis</E>
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>Wherever found</ENT>
                                <ENT>T</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    89 FR [INSERT 
                                    <E T="02">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                                     PAGE WHERE THE DOCUMENT BEGINS], February 15, 2024; 50 CFR 17.47(h).
                                    <SU>4d</SU>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="50" PART="17">
                    <AMDPAR>3. Amend § 17.47 by adding paragraph (h) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 17.47</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Special rules—insects.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (h) Silverspot butterfly (
                            <E T="03">Speyeria nokomis nokomis</E>
                            ). (1) 
                            <E T="03">Prohibitions.</E>
                             The following prohibitions that apply to endangered wildlife also apply to the silverspot butterfly. Except as provided under paragraphs (h)(2) and (3) of this section and §§ 17.4 and 17.5, it is unlawful for any person subject to the jurisdiction of the United States to commit, to attempt to commit, to solicit another to commit, or cause to be committed, any of the following acts in regard to this species:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Import or export, as set forth at § 17.21(b) for endangered wildlife.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Take, as set forth at § 17.21(c)(1) for endangered wildlife.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Possession and other acts with unlawfully taken specimens, as set forth at § 17.21(d)(1) for endangered wildlife.</P>
                        <P>(iv) Interstate or foreign commerce in the course of commercial activity, as set forth at § 17.21(e) for endangered wildlife.</P>
                        <P>(v) Sale or offer for sale, as set forth at § 17.21(f) for endangered wildlife.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">General exceptions from prohibitions.</E>
                             In regard to this species, you may:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Conduct activities as authorized by a permit under § 17.32.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Take, as set forth at § 17.21(c)(2) through (c)(4) for endangered wildlife.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Take as set forth at § 17.31(b).</P>
                        <P>(iv) Possess and engage in other acts with unlawfully taken wildlife, as set forth at § 17.21(d)(2) for endangered wildlife.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Exceptions from prohibitions for specific types of incidental take.</E>
                             You may take silverspot butterfly without a permit in wet meadow areas where bog violets (
                            <E T="03">Viola nephrophylla</E>
                            /
                            <E T="03">V. sororia</E>
                             var. 
                            <E T="03">affinis</E>
                            ) are growing and immediately adjacent areas with nectar sources while carrying out the legally conducted activities set forth in this paragraph (h)(3), as long as the activities:
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) Are conducted with reasonable care. For the purposes of this paragraph, “reasonable care” means limiting the impacts to the silverspot and bog violet by complying with any and all applicable Federal, State, and Tribal regulations for the activity in question; using methods and techniques that result in the least harm, injury, or death, as feasible; undertaking activities at the least impactful times (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             conducting activities that might impact habitat during the flight season) and locations, as feasible; ensuring the number of individuals affected does not impact the existing populations; minimizing the potential to introduce invasive plant species; and preserving the genetic diversity of populations; and
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) Consist of one or more of the following:</P>
                        <P>(A) Grazing:</P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">1</E>
                            ) Moderate grazing (40 to 55 percent vegetative utilization) in late fall to early spring (October 15 to May 31); or
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ) Light grazing (less than 30 percent vegetative utilization) in summer through fall (June 1 to October 14).
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Annual haying or mowing in silverspot habitat in the early summer (June 30 or earlier). Blade height must be a minimum of 6 inches above the ground, with 8 inches or higher preferred in areas with bog violet. In surrounding drier areas, blade height may be lower than 6 inches where the violet is not present.</P>
                        <P>(C) Prescribed burning:</P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">1</E>
                            ) In the spring (March 1 to April 30); or
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ) In the fall (October 15 to December 15), if the silverspot butterfly has been shown to not be present in a given year through adequate monitoring (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             at least two surveys at times when butterflies are active).
                        </P>
                        <P>(D) Brush removal every 4 to 5 years. Brush removal may be conducted at any time during the year. Removal can be by mechanical means, burning, grazing, or herbicide application if in compliance with other excepted activities in this paragraph (h)(3). If mechanical means such as a brush hog is used, the blade must be set to 8 inches or higher above the ground. If herbicides are used, an appropriate systemic herbicide to prevent regrowth must be directly applied to cut stems; broadcast spraying is prohibited.</P>
                        <P>(E) Spot spraying, hand pulling, or mechanical treatment of noxious weeds, which may be conducted at any time during the year. Broadcast spraying of noxious weeds is prohibited.</P>
                        <P>(F) Replacement of fence poles and wire, and aboveground removal of woody vegetation along fence lines, which may be conducted at any time during the year. If removal of woody vegetation is done by machine, such as a brush hog, the machine blade must be set 8 inches or higher above the ground. For permanent removal of woody vegetation, a systemic herbicide may be applied directly to the cut stems of woody vegetation; broadcast spraying is prohibited.</P>
                        <P>(G) Maintenance and operation of existing utility infrastructure within and immediately adjacent to silverspot habitat if activities are kept within the confines of existing rights-of-way. This exception applies to standard activities to repair and maintain existing transmission towers, lines, and access roads, and to perform brush control, that are conducted as needed at any time during the year. Replacement of existing structures and the installation of new structures and infrastructure such as access roads are not excepted. Noxious weed control and fence maintenance must abide by the exceptions for these activities identified in paragraphs (h)(3)(ii)(E) and (F) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(H) Maintenance of other existing structures within and immediately adjacent to silverspot habitat if activities are kept within the confines of already disturbed ground. </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Martha Williams,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03042 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
    </RULES>
    <VOL>89</VOL>
    <NO>32</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, February 15, 2024</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <PRORULES>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="11773"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">SOCIAL SECURITY ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <CFR>20 CFR Parts 404, 416, and 422</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. SSA-2016-0039]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0960-AH88</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Use of Electronic Payroll Data To Improve Program Administration</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Social Security Administration.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Section 824 of the Bipartisan Budget Act of 2015 (BBA) authorizes the Commissioner of Social Security to enter into information exchanges with payroll data providers to obtain wage and employment information. We use wage and employment information to administer the Old-Age, Survivors, and Disability Insurance (OASDI) disability and Supplemental Security Income (SSI) programs under titles II and XVI of the Social Security Act (Act). We are proposing these rules pursuant to section 824 of the BBA, which requires us to prescribe, by regulation, procedures for implementing the access to and use of the information held by payroll data providers. We expect these proposed rules will support proper use of information exchanges with payroll data providers that will help us administer our programs more efficiently and prevent improper payments under titles II and XVI of the Act, which can otherwise occur when we do not receive timely and accurate wage and employment information.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>To ensure that your comments are considered, we must receive them no later than April 15, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments by any one of three methods—internet, fax, or mail. Do not submit the same comments multiple times or by more than one method. Regardless of which method you choose, please state that your comments refer to Docket No. SSA-2016-0039 so that we may associate your comments with the correct rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Caution:</E>
                         You should be careful to include in your comments only information that you wish to make publicly available. We strongly urge you not to include in your comments any personal information, such as Social Security numbers or medical information.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        1. 
                        <E T="03">Internet:</E>
                         We strongly recommend that you submit your comments via the internet. Please visit the Federal eRulemaking portal at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Use the Search function to find docket number SSA-2016-0039. The system will issue a tracking number to confirm your submission. You will not be able to view your comment immediately because we must post each comment manually. It may take up to a week for your comment to be viewable.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        2. 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to 1-833-410-1631.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        3. 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Mail your comments to the Office of Legislation and Congressional Affairs, Regulations and Reports Clearance Staff, Social Security Administration, Mail Stop 3253 Altmeyer, 6401 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, Maryland 21235-6401.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Comments are available for public viewing on the Federal eRulemaking portal at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         or in person, during regular business hours, by arranging with the contact person identified below.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Nicole Dunham, Policy Analyst, Office of Supplemental Security Income and Program Integrity Policy, Social Security Administration, 6401 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, Maryland 21235-6401, (410) 966-9078. For information on eligibility or filing for benefits, call our national toll-free number, 1-800-772-1213, or TTY 1-800-325-0778, or visit our internet site, Social Security Online, at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.socialsecurity.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    We administer the OASDI disability and SSI programs under titles II and XVI of the Act, respectively. The OASDI program pays benefits to individuals who meet certain requirements, including those who are disabled and insured for disability.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OASDI also pays benefits to certain members of disabled individuals' families.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We refer to meeting the requirements for OASDI disability benefits as OASDI disability “entitlement.” The SSI program provides financial support to: (1) adults and children with a disability or blindness; and (2) adults aged 65 and older. These individuals must meet all program eligibility requirements, including having resources and income below specified amounts.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We refer to meeting the factors of eligibility for SSI payments as SSI “eligibility.”
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         20 CFR 404.315 for a full list of the OASDI disability eligibility requirements.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         This can include, for example, a child of the disabled individual, a child of the disabled individual entitled to an adult child disability benefit, a spouse caring for a minor or disabled child of the disabled individual, or retirement benefits for a spouse age 62 or older of the disabled individual. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         20 CFR 404.330, 404.350, 404.351.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         20 CFR 416.202 for a full list of the SSI eligibility requirements.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>We take seriously our responsibilities to ensure eligible individuals receive the benefits to which they are entitled and to safeguard the integrity of benefit programs to better serve our customers. Our commitment includes working to ensure we have accurate wage data as quickly as practicable to avoid overpayments before they occur or correct them quickly.</P>
                <P>
                    We use wage and employment information to decide who can receive OASDI disability benefits and SSI payments. We also use it to determine SSI payment amounts. Receiving complete, accurate, and timely wage and employment information allows us to administer our programs efficiently and to avoid improper payments that can occur when we do not have such information. Reviews of post-entitlement cases show that substantial gainful activity (SGA) 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     continues to be the leading cause of overpayments in the OASDI disability program. In fact, SGA-related overpayments in the OASDI program averaged approximately $500 million annually as of fiscal year 2022.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Further, wage discrepancies, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11774"/>
                    which reached an annual average of approximately $1.4 billion in improper payments as of fiscal year 2022, have been a leading cause of improper payments in the SSI program for more than a decade.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         A requirement for disability for both OASDI disability and SSI is that you cannot be engaged in SGA, which is defined as work that involves significant and productive physical or mental duties, and is done, or intended to be done, for pay or profit. 20 CFR 404.1510, 404.1520(b), 416.910, 416.920(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         FY2023 Agency Financial Report, page 180, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.ssa.gov/finance/2023/Full%20FY%202023%20AFR.pdf.</E>
                         Beneficiaries' failure to report earnings in a timely manner accounted for 82 percent of SGA-related improper payments and our failure to take the proper actions 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        to process work reports accounted for the remainder.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at 184 and 185. Wage discrepancies occur when the recipient or their deemor has actual wages that differ from the wage amount we used to calculate the SSI payment, either because the recipient failed to report a change, or we failed to make changes to payments in a timely manner.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Currently, we rely on individuals to report certain wage and employment information to us. Individuals who are entitled to OASDI disability must report to us when their condition improves, when they return to work, when they increase the amount they work, and when their earnings increase.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Individuals who are eligible for SSI based on disability or blindness must make similar reports.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     All SSI recipients and deemors 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     must also report to us any change in income 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     as soon as a reportable event happens.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For OASDI disability and SSI, they can report these changes by phone, fax, mail, in person,
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or by using 
                    <E T="03">my</E>
                    SocialSecurity. In many cases, SSI recipients may also report wages through the SSA Mobile Wage Reporting (SSAMWR) application and the SSI Telephone Wage Reporting (SSITWR) system. We may also request this information from the employer(s) or payroll data providers when the information we receive is incomplete or we are unable to obtain it from the individual. Because many individuals work in jobs where earnings may vary from week to week, some individuals report these changes to us each month or more frequently. In FY 2022, we received 1.1 million wage reports 
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     for individuals who received OASDI disability or OASDI disability and SSI concurrently, and who were in current pay status (this does not include SSI only wage reports). Though we strive to make reporting as easy as possible, individuals must keep track of their reportable events, report them as soon as they happen, and spend time making the reports, which can be burdensome.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We estimate that there are about 1,100,000 OASDI disability beneficiaries, between 200,000 and 300,000 SSI recipients, and another 500,000 to 600,000 deemors of SSI recipients who work in a given year. Despite the many reporting options, we do not always receive complete or timely reports. Even when we receive complete reports, we may still need to verify them with independent or collateral sources when we do not have proper wage evidence to verify the report, such as a paystub. Currently, to verify wage reports, we conduct a manual query, requesting records from payroll data providers, and sometimes employers, on a case-by-case basis. This is time-consuming, prolongs the resolution of the case, and adds to our workloads. An automated information exchange would allow us to obtain this information more efficiently because it could automatically process large numbers of queries at once.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         20 CFR 404.1588(a). We require reporting an increase in work or earnings because that may indicate the beneficiary has performed SGA (
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         20 CFR 404.1572 and 404.1574) and will no longer be entitled to an OASDI disability benefit (20 CFR 404.1520(b)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         See 20 CFR 416.988. As with OASDI disability, we require these reports because they may indicate SGA (
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         20 CFR 972 and 416.974), which may affect SSI eligibility (20 CFR 416.920(b)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         A deemor is any person whose income or resources are material to determining the eligibility of someone filing for or receiving SSI. 20 CFR 416.1160; SI 01310.127.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         20 CFR 416.708(c). Income in our SSI regulations is a broad term that includes “anything you receive in cash or in kind that you can use to meet your daily needs for food and shelter.” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         20 CFR 416.1102. One type of income is wages, which are divided into two categories: wages paid in cash and wages paid in kind. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         20 CFR 416.1110. Wages paid in cash may include salaries, commissions, bonuses, severance pay, and any other special payments received because of employment. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         20 CFR 416.714.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         When we receive reports by phone, fax, mail, or in person, our technicians process them manually. Manual processing by technicians includes calculating the total wage amount for the month, posting the amount to the record, and providing a receipt to the customer. Electronic methods of reporting accept wage reports on any day during the reporting month. Wage reports submitted by electronic methods are automatically posted to the record and the payment is adjusted accordingly.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         A “wage report” is anytime SSA becomes aware of wages, whether through self-reporting (mail, fax, office visit, or a self-report through an electronic method), third party data provider, IRS annual wage data, or State reported wage data.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         To be considered in time to process a particular month's payment, SSI recipients or their representative payees must report income changes within the first ten days of the month following the month of change (20 CFR 416.714). Receiving this information earlier in the month allows us more time to calculate the correct payment, send a Notice of Planned Action (NOPA) when an adverse action applies, and adjust benefits for the following month. If a change is reported after the first ten days of the month and the change results in a change in the recipient's payment amount, then it is likely that we will not be able to adjust benefits for the following month, resulting in an overpayment or underpayment.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As we discuss later in this proposed rule, when individuals become eligible for reduced reporting responsibilities, we would no longer burden them with frequent reporting of certain wage information. They would no longer need to keep track of certain reportable events, report them as soon as they happen, and spend time making the reports. Further, we would no longer need to burden employers with requests for this information. As discussed in the regulatory analysis section, we project that identifying overpayments more quickly will reduce the quantity and size of overpayments, benefitting both recipients and employers, and better fulfill our stewardship obligations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Section 824 of the BBA and the Proposed Automated Process</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 824 of the BBA 
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     authorizes the Commissioner of Social Security to enter into information exchanges with payroll data providers 
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to obtain wage and employment information. It authorizes these information exchanges for the purposes of efficient program administration and to prevent improper OASDI disability and SSI payments 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     without the need for verification by independent or collateral sources.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Section 824 adds a new section 1184 to the Act and also adds language to sections 225 and 1631(e) of the Act 
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to clarify the role that information exchanges will play in determining payment amount and making eligibility and entitlement determinations and decisions for the OASDI disability and SSI programs.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         Public Law 114-74, 129 Stat. 584, 607.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         “Payroll data providers” include payroll providers, wage verification companies, and other commercial or non-commercial entities that collect and maintain information regarding employment and wages. 42 U.S.C. 1320e-3(c)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         Under 42 U.S.C. 1320e-3(a)(1) the information exchange is limited to disability insurance beneficiaries (those under subsections (d)(1)(B)(ii), (d)(6)(A)(ii), (d)(6)(B), (e)(1)(B)(ii), and (f)(1)(B)(ii) of section 202 and subsection (a)(1) of section 223) and supplemental security income benefits under title XVI. The law does not allow us to use the information exchange to obtain wage information for other beneficiaries under Title II (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         individuals who continue to work while receiving old-age benefits).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         42 U.S.C. 1320e-3(a). “Information exchanges” are the automated comparison of our system(s) of records with information of payroll data providers. 42 U.S.C.. 1320e-3(c)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         42 U.S.C. 425, 1320e-3, and 1383(e).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As discussed above, we require wage and employment information to administer the OASDI disability and SSI programs. An information exchange would allow us to automate the process of obtaining and recording the wage and employment data we receive from a payroll data provider through the information exchange to the appropriate OASDI disability and SSI systems records.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We will use this information 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11775"/>
                    to efficiently administer OASDI and SSI benefits, including adjusting payment amounts and making entitlement or eligibility determinations for the OASDI disability and SSI programs based on the information we receive from a payroll data provider. We will also use this information to avoid making improper payments of those benefits.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         Implementation of the information exchange will not affect our quarterly data-matches with the National Directory of New Hires (NDNH) or our annual match with the Master Earnings File, both which supply us with limited wage data. The NDNH is a federally mandated national repository of employment, unemployment insurance, and quarterly wage information submitted by state 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        directories of new hires, state workforce agencies, and Federal employers. The Master Earnings File contains data derived from IRS Form W-2, quarterly earnings records, and annual income tax forms. These data include regular wages and salaries, tips, self-employment income, and deferred compensation (contributions or distributions).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Advantages of Using Information Exchanges With Payroll Data Providers</HD>
                <P>
                    We expect that receiving monthly wage and employment information for our claimants, beneficiaries, recipients, and deemors 
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     automatically through an information exchange with a payroll data provider who provides sufficiently accurate, up-to-date, and complete information will improve payment accuracy. It will also reduce improper payments that occur when we do not receive wage or employment reports timely (although, as indicated in the E.O. 12866 analysis section, we do not estimate the reduction in improper payments). Further, this process would reduce the burden of self-reporting on individuals who authorize us to obtain wage and employment information from a participating payroll data provider and we receive their wage and employment information from their employer through an information exchange. Additionally, individuals who provide authorization would not be subject to certain penalties under section 1129A of the Act 
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     for any omission or error with respect to wages reported by a participating payroll data provider (in FY 2022 we performed 54 cases of administrative sanctions in the SSI program and 82 administrative sanctions in the Social Security Disability Insurance (SSDI) program; in FY 2023 it was 59 cases and 24 cases, respectively). We define a participating payroll data provider as a payroll data provider that has an information exchange arrangement with us to provide wage and employment information.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         As explained above, a deemor is any person whose income or resources are material to determining the eligibility of someone filing for or receiving SSI. 20 CFR 416.1160; SI 01310.127.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         42 U.S.C. 1320a-8a. 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         20 CFR 404.459 and 416.1340.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>We anticipate that implementation of an information exchange would result in more efficient use of our limited administrative resources. If we receive wage and employment information through an information exchange with a participating payroll data provider, our technicians can reduce the amount of time spent manually requesting this information from payroll data providers and employers, manually entering data into our systems from an individual's pay records, contacting individuals, and assisting individuals with the results of incomplete or untimely reporting.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Solicitation for Payroll Data Provider</HD>
                <P>
                    In May 2019, we solicited proposals for payroll providers using full and open competition in accordance with Federal Acquisition Regulations (FAR) Part 15. As stated in our solicitation, we based our award decision on a trade-off process (best value), considering both price and non-price factors.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         In accordance with FAR Subpart 15.101-1(a), a trade-off process is appropriate when it may be in the best interest of the Government to consider award to other than the lowest priced offeror or other than the highest rated offeror. The non-price factors (listed in descending order of importance) used were: 1. Technical approach, 2. Corporate experience, and 3. Past performance. The solicitation stated factors 1, 2, and 3 when combined were approximately equal in importance to price.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Equifax Workforce Solutions (Equifax) was the only payroll provider to respond to our solicitation. We evaluated the proposal against the evaluation criteria listed above, which consisted of technical approach, corporate experience, past performance, and price. The Technical Evaluation Committee 
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     determined the Non-Price Proposal to be acceptable and assigned favorable ratings for the three non-price factors. The Contracting Officer evaluated the Business Proposal (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     price proposal) and determined the proposed prices were fair and reasonable according to FAR 15.404-1(b) and the terms of the solicitation. In September 2019, the agency awarded the Payroll Information Exchange contract to Equifax, as we determined Equifax offered the best value to the government, all factors considered.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         The Technical Evaluation Committee supports the source selection for the acquisition. It is typically comprised of no more than three individuals with the appropriate technical expertise to evaluate proposals in accordance with the solicited evaluation factors.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         We published notice of our information exchange with Equifax, pursuant to section 824 of the BBA, on January 19, 2021. 86 FR 5303.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Accuracy Study</HD>
                <P>
                    We conducted an accuracy study 
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of data we received from Equifax through a database known as 
                    <E T="03">The Work Number.</E>
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Equifax reports that The Work Number covers over two-thirds of non-farm payroll, although neither SSA nor Equifax has analyzed whether working disability benefit recipients are represented in a similar proportion in the database. This study compared wage and employment information we received from Equifax to wage and employment information we obtained from paystubs that users uploaded to the SSAMWR application, an online wage reporting tool currently available to SSI recipients, deemors, and their representative payees. We identified about 40,000 samples from March 2022 through September 2022 where both Equifax and SSAMWR had information on the same paystub for the same employee, employer, and time period.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We then compared the information that Equifax and SSAMWR had for these paystubs using the following four variables: pay period start date, pay period end date, pay date, and gross earnings amount.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         The study, “Evaluation of Payroll Information Exchange (PIE) Wage Data Accuracy,” is available in the rulemaking record at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         as a supporting document for Docket SSA-2016-0039.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         We performed a limited period of exchanges through September 2022 with Equifax. We used this data to test systems we created to receive, interpret, and incorporate the data Equifax sent. We were also able to use this data to perform this accuracy study.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         The sampling choices limit the types of conclusions that can be drawn about the accuracy of Equifax's data across the entire covered population. For example, if Equifax reports payroll information on an individual who was not working during a pay period, such an error would lower the true accuracy of using the Equifax database but would not be identified in this study.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                  
                <P>We evaluated the accuracy through two steps. First, we matched seven months of information exchange records to SSAMWR based on SSN and pay periods as identified by the variables pay period start date, pay period end date, and pay date. Of the roughly 40,000 records with SSNs in both datasets, we found that 80.43% exactly matched both gross earning and all date fields. In 13.35% of the cases all dates matched but gross earnings did not. In the remainder of the cases there were iterations of partial earnings matches but with inaccurate dates.</P>
                <P>
                    To study the cause of the 7,976 cases with matching errors, our second step was to randomly sample 4% (341) and manually review the cases. We first found that a large source of gross earnings match errors between information exchange data and SSAMWR were due to optical scanning inaccuracies from our SSAMWR file compared with the actual photo of the paystub the beneficiary had uploaded to SSAMWR. To further determine the accuracy of information exchange-reported data, we compared the information exchange data against actual images of the paystubs which 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11776"/>
                    were submitted in SSAMWR. Through this process, we determined that in 77.4% of the sampled cases,
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     all dates and gross earnings matched between the information exchange and the true paystub.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         The 95 percent confidence interval for this estimate had a lower bound of 73.0 percent and an upper bound of 81.8 percent.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    By extrapolating this sample to the broader set of 7,976 cases where there were initial mismatches between information exchange records and SSAMWR, we concluded that in 95.6 percent 
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the original roughly 40,000 cases, all four variables matched between the actual paystub and the information exchange record. Although some data differed in 4.4 percent of these cases between Equifax and SSAMWR, the study did not determine whether the differences would have affected our benefit determinations. For example, one of the pay period variables we evaluated, pay period start date, would have no discernable impact on benefit determinations.
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     While some other variable inconsistencies likewise may have had little or no impact on benefit determinations, potential errors related to total pay (such as over- or under-reporting actual income) could result in us initiating an action to change benefit amount.
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         The 95 percent confidence interval for this estimate had a lower bound of 94.7 percent and an upper bound of 96.5 percent.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         The pay period start date obtained through this exchange is not used for benefit determinations. For OASDI disability determinations, we use pay period end date, gross earnings, and sometimes pay date. For SSI determinations, we use only the pay date and gross earnings. When we removed the pay period start date variable from the study data, the match rate increased from 95.6 percent to 97.1 percent.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         Regarding the sample of cases that did not match on gross earnings, representing roughly half of the 4.4 percent of mismatched data, the study did not determine, for example, whether the mismatch in gross earnings was a significant difference that would result in an incorrect benefit determination. Mismatched earnings may not impact benefit eligibility or amounts if the earnings are below relevant thresholds or not relevant to the calculation based on when they are paid (for SSI) or earned (for OASDI disability). The study did not determine how mismatched cases impacted benefit determinations. Also, the study only looked at single instances of paystubs and not the full monthly earnings amount. Therefore, the study was unable to determine the true impact of those inaccuracies.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Based on the results of this accuracy study, we are confident the information exchange will supply the accurate wage and employment information we need to make benefit determinations in most circumstances.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requirements of Section 824 of the BBA</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 824(d) of the BBA 
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requires us to publish regulations prescribing procedures for implementing the access and use of the information held by payroll data providers, including: (1) guidelines for establishing and maintaining information exchanges with payroll data providers, pursuant to section 1184 of the Act; (2) beneficiary authorizations; (3) reduced wage reporting responsibilities for individuals when they authorize us to access information held by payroll data providers through an information exchange; and (4) procedures for notifying individuals in writing when they become subject to such reduced wage reporting requirements and when such reduced wage reporting requirements no longer apply to them. We discuss each of these four items below.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         Public Law 114-74, 129 Stat. 584, 610.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">1. Guidelines for Establishing and Maintaining Information Exchanges With Payroll Data Providers</HD>
                <P>
                    As discussed above, we need wage and employment information to decide who can receive OASDI disability benefits and SSI payments and to determine SSI payment amounts.
                    <SU>34</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Although individuals are required to report this information to us, they do not always report it to us timely or provide complete information. As required by section 824 of the BBA, we propose to prescribe guidelines for establishing and maintaining an information exchange.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         Section 824 of the BBA also permits us to obtain wage and employment information from a participating payroll data provider for the purpose of making OASDI disability benefit amount determinations. 42 U.S.C. 1320e-3(b)(1)(A). Currently, we do not use wage and employment information from a payroll data provider for OASDI disability benefit amount determinations.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    To establish an information exchange, we will identify the payroll data providers (as defined in proposed §§ 404.702 and 416.702) that may be interested in participating in an information exchange with us. Before we establish an information exchange with a payroll data provider, we will consider such factors as the provider's ability and willingness to: engage in an information exchange; provide us with wage and employment information that includes all necessary data elements needed to make program determinations and payment amount decisions; and provide data that is sufficiently accurate,
                    <SU>35</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     complete,
                    <SU>36</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and up-to-date.
                    <SU>37</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We will also consider and evaluate any conditions and limitations associated with our receipt of the data.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         By “accurate” we mean that the exchange supplies the correct wage and employment information received for the requested individual.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>36</SU>
                         By “complete” we mean the wage and employment information received from the participating payroll data provider contains all the required data elements necessary for us to make determinations and decisions regarding entitlement under title II of the Act. and eligibility and payment amounts under title XVI of the Act. We note that, in cases in which our current participating payroll data provider cannot supply all the wage and employment information we require to make benefit determinations, we investigate further to gather additional information.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>37</SU>
                         By “up-to-date” we mean the latest wage and employment information received from the payroll data provider each month. For example, our current participating payroll data provider makes wage and employment information available within 24 hours of receipt from employers.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Any arrangement with a selected payroll data provider will describe: the records to be matched; the procedure for conducting the match; any requirements established relating to ensuring records are accurate, complete, and up-to-date; procedures for ensuring the administrative, technical, and physical security of the records matched; and such other provisions as are necessary. Further, before we enter into an information exchange,
                    <SU>38</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     we will publish a notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     describing the information exchange,
                    <SU>39</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     including our assessment that the information received through the exchange is relevant and necessary to administer our programs and an explanation for why the information is sufficiently accurate, complete, and up-to-date. Receiving accurate, complete, and up-to-date, information from an information exchange is necessary to allow us to decide claims earlier and avoid improper payments that may arise from untimely, incomplete, or missing wage and employment reports.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>38</SU>
                         We have interpreted this to mean before implementing an information exchange by data sharing, which would occur after establishing an arrangement with a payroll data provider (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         contract) to develop the exchange.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>39</SU>
                         On January 19, 2021, we published a notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         that provided advance notification to the public regarding an information exchange we established with Equifax (86 FR 5303). To date, that is the only information exchange we have established under section 824 of the BBA.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Once we enter into an information exchange with a payroll data provider, we will maintain the information exchange by periodically assessing whether the data we receive continues to be accurate, complete, and up-to-date. We will also monitor compliance with the requirements of the information exchange.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">2. Beneficiary Authorizations</HD>
                <P>
                    When an individual applies for benefits under OASDI disability or SSI, we will request authorization from the individual to obtain their wage and employment information from a payroll data provider.
                    <SU>40</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We will also ask for 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11777"/>
                    authorization during other post-entitlement events, such as a redetermination for SSI. Although we have not started using payroll data, in anticipation of implementing the information exchange, we began collecting authorizations in late 2017 (which we currently collect via paper form or through attestation).
                    <SU>41</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In the future, we could accept authorization electronically. For OASDI disability, we request authorization from individuals who apply for or are entitled to benefits.
                    <SU>42</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For SSI, we request authorization from individuals who apply for or receive SSI, as well as deemors, ineligible children, and individuals who turn age 18.
                    <SU>43</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     An authorization applies to all pending and approved claims under the specific program until the authorization is revoked or terminated.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>40</SU>
                         The law allows SSA to require the authorization. SSA has decided that we will request 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        this authorization on a voluntary basis, and that there will be no automatic assumption of inclusion without obtaining prior authorization. Under the law, individuals may refuse to provide this authorization and may revoke it. We will follow the BBA 824 requirements about the specific information to be provided with the authorization.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>41</SU>
                         Attestation is the action taken by an SSA employee of confirming and annotating on record the proper individual's intent to sign an SSA form.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>42</SU>
                         For OASDI disability, we request authorization at the initial claim, expedited reinstatement (EXR), and work continuing disability review (CDR) stages. When unsuccessful or if the individual is not available to provide authorization at the time we request it, we mail the paper SSA-8240 to the authorizing person, including a cover letter indicating the individual should complete, sign, and return the paper SSA-8240 form.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>43</SU>
                         For SSI, we request authorization at the full and deferred initial claims, and redetermination stages. We attempt to collect the authorization verbally and record it in our relevant system of record. When unsuccessful or if the individual is not available to provide authorization at the time we request it, we mail the paper SSA-8240 to the authorizing person, including a cover letter indicating the individual should complete, sign, and return the paper SSA-8240 form.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                  
                <P>When we request authorization, we explain the authorization's scope and duration. With regard to scope, we explain that we will use the authorization to obtain information from a payroll data provider to determine initial or ongoing entitlement to disability benefits for OASDI, as well as eligibility and payment amounts for SSI. We also explain that we may use the authorization for additional claims associated with the claim filed, such as an SSI claim by a spouse or child. In addition, we explain how we may use and disclose records obtained from payroll data providers consistent with applicable Federal law and any privacy notices we provide the individual. For example, we may use the individual's wage and employment information to decide whether they may be entitled to or eligible for benefits under both the OASDI disability and SSI programs, even if the individual's authorization was given for only one of those programs.</P>
                <P>With respect to the duration of an authorization, we inform individuals that the authorization remains in effect until the earliest of the following occurs:</P>
                <P>(a) the individual revokes their authorization in writing;</P>
                <P>
                    (b) we terminate all entitlement(s) to benefits or eligibility for payments, there are no other claims or appeals pending, and all periods for appealing the determination or decision to terminate entitlement or eligibility have lapsed; 
                    <SU>44</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>44</SU>
                         In cases with multiple claims, if one of the claims has an adverse determination or decision and the appeals period for that determination or decision has ended or the benefits terminate, we will no longer use the authorization for that specific claim. However, we will continue to use the authorization for all other current claims under the program for which the individual provided authorization and there is no other reason to end the authorization.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>(c) there has been an adverse determination or decision under the OASDI disability or SSI program, and, for that program, the individual is not otherwise currently entitled to benefits or eligible for payments, there are no other claims or appeals pending, and the period for appealing the adverse determination or decision has lapsed; or</P>
                <P>
                    (d) for SSI deemors, the deeming relationship ends.
                    <SU>45</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>45</SU>
                         Additionally, if a parent or legal guardian gave us the initial authorization for an individual who is not a legally incompetent adult, the authorization will terminate when the individual turns 18 years of age. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         POMS SI 00515.001.C.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Individuals may revoke their authorization in writing at any time. If they revoke their authorization, we will apply the revocation to all pending or approved claims under the OASDI disability and SSI programs from the time we process the revocation, including claims involving deemors. If the authorization is revoked, we will no longer request new information from payroll data providers for that individual.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">3. Reduced Wage Reporting Responsibilities When Individuals Authorize Us To Access Information Held by Payroll Data Providers Through an Information Exchange</HD>
                <P>Currently, if individuals become entitled to OASDI disability or eligible for SSI, they must report certain wage and employment information to us. We use this information to make program determinations. We expect that, once implemented, the information exchanges will help us reduce the wage reporting obligations of some individuals. Further explanation follows.</P>
                <P>Under section 824 of the BBA and these regulations, when individuals apply for or become entitled to a benefit based on disability under OASDI or any type of benefit under SSI and they authorize us to obtain information from payroll data providers, their reporting responsibilities may be reduced. The reduced wage reporting responsibilities depends on whether we receive their wage and employment information for their employer(s) through a participating payroll data provider. We will send a notice to individuals whenever their wage reporting responsibilities change, as discussed in the next section.</P>
                <P>
                    Under our current rules, individuals who are entitled to OASDI disability must report to us when their condition improves, when they return to work, when they increase the amount they work, or if their earnings increase.
                    <SU>46</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     There are many ways to do this. As mentioned above, individuals receiving OASDI disability can report changes in work activity by phone, fax, mail, in person, or online via their mySocialSecurity account. Under the proposed rules, we would require reporting only when their condition improves, they return to work, or they have a new employer. However, if individuals provide authorization and we receive their wage and employment information from their employer(s) through a participating payroll data provider, they would no longer have to report an increase in the amount of their work or an increase in their earnings with that employer, because we will obtain that information directly from the payroll data provider.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>46</SU>
                         20 CFR 404.1588(a). We require reporting an increase in work or earnings because that may indicate that the beneficiary has performed substantial gainful activity (
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         20 CFR 404.1572 and 404.1574) and will no longer be entitled to an OASDI disability benefit (20 CFR 404.1520(b)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    For SSI, wage reporting responsibilities may affect both eligibility and the payment amount. Individuals must report events that might change their disability or blindness status, including when their condition improves, when they return to work, when they increase the amount of their work, or when their earnings increase.
                    <SU>47</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     To determine SSI eligibility and payment amount, we require individuals to report various events to us, among them any change in income 
                    <SU>48</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and individuals must report to us as 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11778"/>
                    soon as a reportable event happens.
                    <SU>49</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As mentioned above, individuals receiving SSI can report changes in work activity by phone, fax, mail, in person, online via their mySocialSecurity account, or by using SSAMWR or SSITWR. However, if individuals provide authorization and we receive their wage and employment information from their employer(s) through a participating payroll data provider, they will no longer have to report an increase in the amount of their work for that employer, an increase in earnings from that employer, or changes to wages paid in cash 
                    <SU>50</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     from that employer, because we will obtain that information directly from the payroll data provider. All other reporting obligations apply, as detailed in the chart.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>47</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         20 CFR 416.988.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>48</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         20 CFR 416.708(c).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>49</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         20 CFR 416.714.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>50</SU>
                         By “wages paid in cash” we are referring to wages paid in money or its equivalent, as opposed to wages paid “in kind,” which refers to the value of food, clothing, shelter, or other items provided as wages instead of cash. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         20 CFR 416.1110.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="xs72,xl100,xl100">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Program</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Reporting responsibilities under current regulations</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Reporting responsibilities under proposed regulations when we receive wage and employment information for an
                            <LI>employer through a payroll data provider</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">OASDI disability</ENT>
                        <ENT>Individuals must report to us when:</ENT>
                        <ENT>Individuals must report to us when:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">• their condition improves:</ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">• their condition improves;</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">• they return to work;</ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">• they return to work; or</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">• they increase the amount they work; or</ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">• they have a new employer.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">• their earnings increase.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SSI</ENT>
                        <ENT>Individuals must report to us any change in income as soon as a reportable event happens.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Individuals no longer have to report changes to wages paid in cash.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            They must also report to us when:
                            <LI O="oi3">• their condition improves;</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• they return to work;</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• they increase the amount they work; or</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• their earnings increase.</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            They must report to us when:
                            <LI O="oi3">• their condition improves;</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• they return to work; or</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• they have a new employer.</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>See § 416.708 for additional reporting requirements.</ENT>
                        <ENT>See § 416.708 for additional reporting requirements.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    In addition to the reduced wage reporting responsibilities described above, individuals may not be subject to certain penalties related to reporting if they authorize us to obtain information from a payroll data provider. Individuals who authorize us to obtain wage and employment information from a payroll data provider will not be subject to penalties under section 1129A of the Act for omissions or errors in the data we receive from a participating payroll data provider, excluding situations where there may be fraud or similar fault.
                    <SU>51</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>51</SU>
                         42 U.S.C. 1320a-8a. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         20 CFR 404.459, 416.1340. The relevant penalty under section 1129A of the Act and 20 CFR 404.459, 416.1340 is the non-payment of OASDI disability benefits and ineligibility for SSI cash benefits. Other penalties under section 1129A of the Act may apply in situations involving false or misleading statements, including statements regarding wages and employment.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Further, if individuals report changes in income late or not at all in connection with SSI payments, they may be subject to penalties under section 1631(e)(2) of the Act, unless they have good cause for the failure to report timely.
                    <SU>52</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In cases in which an individual has authorized us to obtain information from a payroll data provider, however, we will find good cause for a failure of, or delay by, an individual reporting a change in employer.
                    <SU>53</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In our notice of a change in reporting responsibilities, we will include any changes in penalty relief that may apply or when we may make the good cause finding described above.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>52</SU>
                         42 U.S.C. 1383(e)(2). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         20 CFR 416.722 to 416.732. This penalty may be assessed for failure or delay in making certain reports to us.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>53</SU>
                         This comes directly from the BBA and we expect the intent was to provide additional relief from reporting obligations for SSI cases with authorizations. In section 824(c)(2)(B), the BBA added language to section 1631(e)(2)(B) of the Act clarifying that if someone authorizes, and there is a failure or delay to report a change in employer, SSA will find good cause for that failure or delay if “the event or change in circumstance is a change in the individual's employer.” We would anticipate receiving this information through the information exchange.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Penalties that we may impose for failure to report are distinct from any attempts we may make to recover money that is improperly paid as a result of an overpayment. While individuals may not be subject to penalties for omissions or errors that may occur as a result of wage reporting, if we discover an overpayment, we will still attempt to recover any improperly paid funds. Although we do not propose it at this time, we are considering clarifying that for individuals who are exempt from reporting responsibilities because we get their wage and income information from a payroll data provider, any overpayments which result from inaccurate reporting of their income by the payroll data provider would be treated as an overpayment which they were “without fault” in causing under 20 CFR 404.507 (for OASDI) and 20 CFR 416.552 (for SSI). While we still initially may seek recovery of an overpayment from an individual who is considered “without fault” in causing the overpayment, these individuals may request a waiver of the overpayment recovery which we may grant if, among other reasons, we determine that recovering the overpayment would either be “against equity and good conscience” or “defeat the purpose” of the program. Because one benefit of the payroll exchange is to facilitate the automatic transmission of wage data without the beneficiary manually reviewing and reporting this information to us, this alternative would provide an additional protection for participating beneficiaries against payroll inaccuracies. As discussed in the Solicitation for Public comment section below, prior to adopting this alternative policy we seek comments on if it would lower burdens for our beneficiaries or improve administrative efficiencies, other improvements we might consider related to addressing overpayments associated with workers who participate in the payroll exchange, as well as whether we should consider any other consequences of this alternative.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11779"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="xs72,r100,r100">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Program</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Penalties under current law affected by the BBA</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Penalty relief when providing authorization</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">OASDI disability</ENT>
                        <ENT>• Individuals are subject to penalties for omissions or errors in wage and employment information under section 1129A</ENT>
                        <ENT>• Individuals are no longer subject to penalties under section 1129A for omissions or errors in wage and employment information that we receive from a payroll data provider through an information exchange.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SSI</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            • Individuals are subject to penalties for omissions or errors in wage and employment information under section 1129A
                            <LI>• We may impose a penalty under section 1631(e)(2) of the Act for a failure or delay in reporting certain events or changes in circumstances relevant to SSI eligibility or payment amount unless the individual can show good cause for the failure or delay</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            • Individuals are no longer subject to penalties under section 1129A for omissions or errors in wage and employment information that we receive from a payroll data provider through an information exchange.
                            <LI>• We will find good cause for a failure of, or delay by, an individual reporting a change in employer. This means the penalty would not apply.</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">4. Procedures for Notifying Individuals in Writing When They Become Subject to Reduced or Increased Wage Reporting Requirements and When Penalty Relief Applies</HD>
                <P>
                    We will notify individuals in writing of changes in their reporting responsibilities whenever we start or stop receiving their wage and employment information from a payroll data provider through an information exchange. We also explain whether they may be subject to penalties under section 1129A of the Act at the time they provide authorization.
                    <SU>54</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     If they receive SSI, we will also explain when we will find good cause for a failure or delay in reporting a change in employer under section 1631(e)(2) of the Act.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>54</SU>
                         There are certain instances where an individual may be subject to penalties even though they have authorized the use of an information exchange. For example, if an individual authorizes the use of an information exchange but their employer does not actually participate in one, they may be subject to penalties for failure to report their income. As another example, if an individual's employer participates in the information exchange but the individual fails to report a separate stream of self-employment income, they may be subject to penalties for failure to report their income.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As discussed above, if individuals authorize us to obtain information from a payroll data provider, and we receive their wage and employment information for their employer(s) through a participating payroll data provider, they will not have to report, for that employer, changes in earnings for OASDI disability and SSI or wages paid in cash for SSI. This will continue for as long as we continue to receive this information through a participating payroll data provider for that employer, and we will send a notice to the individual informing them of the change to their reporting responsibilities. We will also send notices whenever we start and stop receiving information about their employer and their reporting responsibilities change. All other reporting requirements will still apply.</P>
                <P>
                    If individuals work multiple jobs, they will not have to report an increase in earnings for OASDI disability and SSI or wages paid in cash for SSI from any employer(s) whose wage and employment information we receive from a participating payroll data provider, as long as we continue to receive this information through a participating payroll data provider for that employer(s). We will send a notice 
                    <SU>55</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to the individual informing them of any change to their reporting responsibilities. When an individual gives us authorization to obtain their wage and employment information from a payroll data provider, we promptly issue them a receipt that includes the scope and duration of their authorization and explains their wage reporting responsibilities related to the information exchange. This receipt explains they are required to continue to report their wage and employment information to us until they receive a specific notice telling them that they no longer must report. The notice will identify the employer(s) for whom the individual will not need to report wage and employment information to us. Individuals must still report an increase in earnings for OASDI disability and SSI and wages paid in cash for SSI from any employer(s) whose wage and employment information we do not receive through a participating payroll data provider. They must also tell us if they have a new employer.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>55</SU>
                         Following publication of this proposed rule, we will submit to OMB a request for a revision to an existing information collection under the Paperwork Reduction Act (5 CFR 1320.11).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>If individuals revoke their authorization, we will notify them in writing to explain that all reporting responsibilities apply and that penalties relating to reporting may apply.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">When Individuals Disagree With Wage and Employment Information Obtained From a Payroll Data Provider</HD>
                <P>
                    As noted above, wage and employment information may affect OASDI disability entitlement, SSI eligibility, and SSI payment amounts because we use that information to determine or decide who can receive benefits and the amount of the SSI payments for eligible individuals. If we implement the information exchange, we would obtain the payroll data from the previous month on or around the 7th day of the current month. For example, on November 7, 2023, we would receive the wage and employment information for October 2023. If our use of wage and employment information from a payroll data provider affects entitlement, eligibility, or payment amounts, all of our usual procedures apply.
                    <SU>56</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     By receiving this information early in a month for SSI cases, we should have enough time to calculate the correct payment, send an advance notice or Notice of Planned Action (NOPA) when an adverse action applies, and adjust benefits accurately for the following month (December 2023 in this example).
                    <SU>57</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>56</SU>
                         As described in this and subsequent paragraphs, we will provide adequate notice to beneficiaries before adversely adjusting their benefits. However, we do not undertake any specialized review of payroll data to identify potential aberrations or other indicators that a reported income may be particularly unlikely to be accurate.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>57</SU>
                         We note that the monthly information exchange only provides us data for the previous month but does not provide any updates to revisions made for earlier months. For example, if during the May 7th, 2024 information exchange we received information that a beneficiary earned $500 in April, but during the month of May the employer corrected that amount in their own payroll system to $800, the June 7th, 2024 information exchange would not alert us to the change in reported income for April.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    For OASDI disability, we send a notice to the beneficiary before taking an adverse action (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     reduction, suspension, or termination of benefits) if we learned of the reason for the action from a source other than a first party report. We call this an advance notice. Once we issue the advance notice, the beneficiary has 15 days or 35 days to rebut the information in the advance notice before the adverse action will 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11780"/>
                    occur.
                    <SU>58</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     If we do not hear from the beneficiary within the timeframe, we assume the information in the advance notice is correct and we will take the adverse action. When we take the adverse action, the beneficiary will receive a final (initial determination) notice,
                    <SU>59</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which provides the beneficiary with the right to appeal the action taken.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>58</SU>
                         The time frame for rebuttal is 15 days for cases that involve adverse actions or adjustments that do not involve an automated computer or non-automated data match and 35 days for cases that involve automated computer or non-automated data match. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         POMS 
                        <E T="03">GN 03001.015.</E>
                         Individuals whose wage and employment information is received through an information exchange will have 35 days to rebut the information.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>59</SU>
                         Initial determinations are the determinations we make that are subject to administrative and judicial review. We base our initial determination on the preponderance of the evidence. We state the important facts and give the reasons for our conclusions in the initial determination. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         20 CFR 404.902, 20 CFR 404.900, 20 CFR 416.1402, and 20 CFR 416.1400. We mail a written notice of our initial determination to them at their last known address. The written notice will explain in simple and clear language what we have determined and the reasons for and the effect of our determination. If our determination involves a determination of disability that is in whole or in part unfavorable to them, our written notice also will contain in understandable language a statement of the case setting forth the evidence on which our determination is based. The notice also will inform them of their right to reconsideration. We will not mail a notice if the beneficiary's entitlement to benefits has ended because of their death. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         20 CFR 404.904 and 20 CFR 416.1404. Initial determinations may be appealed within 60 days (or longer with good cause). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         20 CFR 404.909, 20 CFR 404.901, 20 CFR 416.1409, and 20 CFR 416.1401. To appeal an initial determination, an individual may file an SSA-561-U2 Reconsideration Request available at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.ssa.gov/forms/ssa-561-u2.pdf</E>
                        . To appeal a Reconsideration Determination, an individual can file an HA-501-U5 Request for Hearing by Administrative Law Judge available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.ssa.gov/forms/ha-501.pdf</E>
                        . To appeal a hearing decision, an individual can file an HA-520 Request for Review of Hearing Decision/Order available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.ssa.gov/forms/ha-520.html</E>
                        . To appeal an Appeals Council Decision or if the Appeals Council denies review of the hearing decision, an individual can file an action in Federal District Court. The SSA-561-U2, HA-501-U5, and HA-520 can be completed and submitted online via the Non-Medical Appeal Page available at 
                        <E T="03">https://secure.ssa.gov/iApplNMD/start</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,p1,8/9,i1" CDEF="s100,r100">
                    <TTITLE>OASDI Disability</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Estimated Date by Which Information Must Be Received for an Adverse Action</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">For adverse actions that do not involve an automated computer or non-automated data match:</E>
                             At least 15 days in advance.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">For adverse actions that involve an automated computer or non-automated data match:</E>
                             At least 35 days in advance.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Note:</E>
                             Individuals whose wage and employment information is received through an information exchange will have 35 days to rebut the information.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    For SSI, we send a NOPA to the beneficiary before taking an adverse action (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     reduction, suspension, or termination of benefits). This NOPA, also referred to as a Goldberg Kelly (GK) notice, is a written notice of proposed adverse action. The notice includes the basis for the adverse action and an explanation of appeal rights. It allows a recipient the necessary time to appeal the planned action and continue to receive unreduced benefits pending a determination on the appeal. After receiving the NOPA, the individual has 60 days to file an appeal. If an appeal is filed within 60 days, the recipient will receive, unless waived, continued, or reinstated SSI payments until we make a determination at the reconsideration level.
                    <SU>60</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>60</SU>
                         20 CFR 416.1336(b) and EM 21064REV.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Because we must provide a NOPA before reducing or terminating benefits, we will only take an adverse action if we receive information leading to that action at least 15 days before the first day of the adverse action month. This allows time for mailing and for the individual to respond. If there is insufficient time remaining in the month to accommodate the NOPA procedures, we will not take the adverse action until the following month. For example, if we received information adversely affecting ongoing benefits on March 26, 2024, we would send a NOPA that notifies the recipient of the adverse action that will occur in May 2024. The first month we could reduce or terminate benefits would be May 2024.
                    <SU>61</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because the wage and employment information from the information exchange is always requested for the prior month, the pay period cycle (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the date the individual receives payment) has a minimal effect on the information exchange.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>61</SU>
                         POMS SI 02301.301.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,p1,8/9,i1" CDEF="s100,r100">
                    <TTITLE>SSI</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Estimated Date by Which Earnings Must Be Received for an Adverse Action</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">For adverse actions:</E>
                             At least 15 days before the first day of the adverse action month.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    As noted above, our usual procedures apply. This includes our procedures for seeking review of an initial determination and any related procedures. Our administrative review process is described in existing regulations § 404.900 for OASDI disability and § 416.1400 for SSI. As in any other case, the process consists of several administrative review steps which generally must be completed within certain time periods, and in the following order: (1) initial determination, (2) reconsideration, (3) hearing held by an administrative law judge, and (4) Appeals Council review.
                    <SU>62</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     An individual who is dissatisfied with our final decision may seek judicial review.
                    <SU>63</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>62</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         subpart J of 20 CFR 404 and subpart N of 20 CFR 416.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>63</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 205(g) of the Act, 42 U.S.C. 405(g).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    A claimant, recipient, beneficiary, or deemor may present us with evidence such as pay stubs or we may send requests to their employers for this information, if the individual believes our information is not correct.
                    <SU>64</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We will consider all evidence submitted and use it to determine the appropriate action for the individual's record. We will prioritize pay stubs over payroll data provider information in situations in which the individual questions the wage and employment information we receive from payroll data providers through an information exchange. We have longstanding policies for resolving discrepancies in wage evidence, which we would leverage. Individuals are 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11781"/>
                    generally responsible for providing evidence to us, but if a situation arises in which it is difficult for them to obtain evidence, we may assist them. Our policies direct technicians to use other acceptable evidence of wages when discrepancies are present, and to document the discrepancy, resolution, and associated evidence. If a technician determines based on acceptable evidence that the earnings do not belong to the individual, those earnings will be removed and will not affect SSI eligibility or payment determinations.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>64</SU>
                         Section 824 of the BBA allows us to treat the wage and employment information we receive from the from a payroll data provider through the information exchange as verified and does not require additional verification.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In addition, if an individual is not satisfied with the wage and employment information we are receiving from payroll data providers through an information exchange, they have the option to revoke authorization at any time.</P>
                <P>
                    Finally, we are requesting public input on expanding the methods which are available under our regulations to initiate a reconsideration (which is the first step of appealing an adverse decision). We do not intend to make any changes to the appeals filing process at this time, but we will consider public input for future rulemaking. One such option would be removing the requirement that reconsideration requests must be “written.” Under our current regulations, a request for reconsideration can only be made as a “written request” (see 20 CFR 404.909(a) and 20 CFR 416.1409(a)). As a result, if an individual participating in the payroll exchange receives an advanced notice or NOPA indicating that their benefits may be reduced, they do not have the option of calling our 800 number or a field office to initiate the process of requesting a reconsideration (currently, available options for initiating a reconsideration request including completing and mailing paper form SSA-561, visiting a field office and completing an SSA-561 in-person, or completing the i561 through 
                    <E T="03">www.ssa.gov</E>
                    ). This alternative would allow individuals, if they desired, to submit a request by calling us (which may be the preferred option for many of our beneficiaries). As discussed in the Solicitation for Public comment section below, we seek comments on if this would lower burdens for our beneficiaries as well as whether we should consider any other consequences of this alternative.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Changes</HD>
                <P>In § 404.702 and § 416.702, we propose to add definitions for “Participating payroll data provider” and “Payroll data provider.”</P>
                <P>In § 404.703, we propose to designate the existing text as paragraph (a) and add paragraph (b) to explain that we will ask individuals for written authorization so that we can obtain their wage and employment information from a payroll data provider when they apply for or become entitled to monthly insurance benefits. We will also explain the scope and duration of the authorization and how we will use it.</P>
                <P>In § 404.1588, we propose to clarify in paragraph (a) that an individual must report if they have a new employer. This clarification will more effectively cover the situation where an individual starts a new job, rather than requiring individuals to report all increased work when reduced reporting applies. We also propose to add a new paragraph (b) to explain OASDI disability reporting obligations when individuals authorize us to obtain their wage and employment information from payroll data providers. Proposed § 404.1588(b) explains that if we have the authorization described in § 404.703, we will reduce reporting responsibilities if we receive the individuals' wage and employment information from their employer(s) through a participating payroll data provider, but only for that employer(s). We will notify individuals in writing whenever there is a change in their reporting responsibilities related to the authorization, or when they may be subject to certain penalties. However, the OASDI disability beneficiary will always have to report when their condition improves, when they return to work, and when they have a new employer.</P>
                <P>
                    We also explain that individuals may revoke their authorization in writing at any time and that if they do, we will apply the revocation to all pending or approved disability claims under OASDI and all pending or approved claims under SSI from the time we process the revocation. If they revoke their authorizations, they will be subject to all reporting responsibilities and possible penalties. Also, we removed references to the centralized computer file from redesignated paragraph (c) because these references were outdated.
                    <SU>65</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>65</SU>
                         We are proposing to remove outdated language in this section and in § 416.709 (discussed below) explaining that the establishment of a centralized computer file may cause us to stop issuing receipts under certain circumstances. Because we do not use the centralized computer file described in the regulations, we are removing references to it. We will continue to issue receipts whenever we get information about the changes described in this section or in earned income described in § 416.709.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>We propose to revise § 416.701 to explain that subpart G discusses what events individuals must report to us. We inform individuals what their reports must include, when reports are due, and when certain reporting requirements and penalties relating to reporting requirements do not apply.</P>
                <P>We propose to revise § 416.708 to explain that individuals must report any increase or decrease in their income and any increase or decrease in the income of certain other individuals, unless the circumstances in § 416.709(a) and (c) apply. Those circumstances are:</P>
                <P>• they authorize us to obtain information from a payroll data provider; and</P>
                <P>• we receive their wage and employment information from their employer(s) through a participating payroll data provider.</P>
                <P>
                    Also, we removed references to the centralized computer file from paragraph (c) because these references were outdated.
                    <SU>66</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>66</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>We propose to add a new section, § 416.709, to explain the potential for reduced reporting responsibilities for SSI when an individual authorizes us to obtain wage and employment information from payroll data providers through an information exchange. As proposed, § 416.709(a) explains that we will ask individuals for written authorization to obtain wage and employment information about them from a payroll data provider whenever we determine the information is needed in connection with a determination of initial or ongoing eligibility for SSI benefits. We further explain the scope and duration of the authorization, and when reporting requirements change in proposed paragraphs (b) and (c) of § 416.709. Reporting responsibilities will change based on whether we receive an individual's wage and employment information from their employer(s) through a participating payroll data provider. If we receive wage and employment information from an individual's employer(s) through a participating payroll data provider, they will not have to report changes in their wages paid in cash from that employer(s) only. However, the individual will have to comply with all other reporting requirements.</P>
                <P>In proposed paragraph (c) in § 416.709, we also explain that when we inform individuals about changes in their reporting responsibilities, we will also inform them whether they may be subject to certain penalties, and when and how they may revoke their authorization.</P>
                <P>
                    We propose to revise § 416.988 to explain that, if we receive wage and employment information from an individual's employer(s) through a participating payroll data provider, they 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11782"/>
                    will not have to report an increase in the amount of work or an earnings increase from that employer(s) only. As with § 404.1588, we have clarified that an individual must report a new employer. This clarification will more effectively cover the situation where an individual starts a new job, rather than requiring individuals to report all increased work when reduced reporting applies.
                </P>
                <P>
                    We also propose to add a new section, § 422.150, to explain our guidelines for establishing and maintaining an information exchange with payroll data providers. We will identify and review payroll data providers to determine their ability to engage in an information exchange with us. We also explain that consistent with applicable law and regulations, we will establish an information exchange with the selected payroll data provider. Proposed § 422.150(a) also explains the requirements for an information exchange, and that we will publish a notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     describing the information exchange and other factors before we receive and use information from a payroll data provider. Finally, proposed § 422.150(b) explains that we will periodically assess whether the data we receive under an information exchange continues to be accurate, complete, and up-to-date, and monitor compliance with the requirements of the information exchange.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Solicitation for Public Comment</HD>
                <P>As discussed elsewhere in this NPRM, we are seeking public comment. Questions that interested parties may wish to consider when evaluating this proposed rule:</P>
                <P>1. If we receive someone's wage and employment information through the payroll exchange, should we treat any overpayments which result from inaccurate reporting of their wage and employment information by their employer or the payroll data provider as an overpayment which the individual was “without fault” in causing? Would this lower burdens for our beneficiaries or improve administrative efficiencies, are there other improvements we might consider related to addressing overpayments associated with workers who participate in the payroll exchange, or are there any other consequences that we should consider?</P>
                <P>2. Should we revise our regulations to remove the requirement that reconsideration be received only via “written request” to accommodate the ability to receive reconsideration requests via the phone? Would this lower burden for beneficiaries and are there any other consequences that we should consider?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Rulemaking Analyses and Notices</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Clarity of These Rules</HD>
                <P>Executive Order (E.O.) 12866 as supplemented by E.O. 13563 and amended by E.O. 14094 require each agency to write all rules in plain language. In addition to your substantive comments on this NPRM, we invite your comments on how to make rules easier to understand.</P>
                <P>For example:</P>
                <P>• Would more, but shorter, sections be better?</P>
                <P>• Are the requirements in the rule clearly stated?</P>
                <P>• Have we organized the material to suit your needs?</P>
                <P>• Could we improve clarity by adding tables, lists, or diagrams?</P>
                <P>• What else could we do to make the rule easier to understand?</P>
                <P>• Does the rule contain technical language or jargon that is not clear?</P>
                <P>
                    • Would a different format make the rule easier to understand, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     grouping and order of sections, use of headings, paragraphing?
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Procedures</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E.O. 12866 as Supplemented by E.O. 13563 and Amended by E.O. 14094</HD>
                <P>We consulted with the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and OMB has determined that this proposed rule meets the criteria for a Section 3(f)(1) significant regulatory action under E.O. 12866, as supplemented by E.O. 13563 and amended by E.O. 14094 and is subject to OMB review.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Assumptions</HD>
                <P>
                    We estimate that, by 2033, 96% of SSI recipients will have authorized us to obtain this information from payroll data providers through information exchanges, and about 60% of disabled OASDI beneficiaries will have also provided this authorization. We base this estimate on current rates of adoption as we have sought authorization from beneficiaries during both new enrollment and disability review processes since late 2017. Since 2017, 98% of OASDI disability beneficiaries and SSI recipients who have been asked have provided authorization—this corresponds to about 25% of all current OASDI disability beneficiaries as of May 2023. As of July 2022, 56% of all current SSI recipients and 67% of SSI deemors have provided authorization.
                    <SU>67</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>67</SU>
                         We do not know why SSI deemors have provided authorization at a higher rate than beneficiaries.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    We estimate that there are about 1,100,000 OASDI disability beneficiaries, between 200,000 and 300,000 SSI recipients, and another 500,000 to 600,000 deemors of SSI recipients who work in a given year. Because employers representing approximately two-thirds of the non-farm payroll of employees will automatically provide payroll data to us, we expect individuals will submit fewer wage reports.
                    <SU>68</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>68</SU>
                         As stated in the preamble, neither SSA nor Equifax has analyzed whether working disability benefit recipients are represented in a similar proportion in the database, but we assume it for the purposes of this analysis.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Additionally, we estimate that there are 100,000 OASDI disability beneficiaries who are overpaid due to working at or above the SGA level. Over FYs 2018 through 2022, these individuals were overpaid an annual average of $1,163 million. We estimate that, through the information exchange, we will be able to identify both wages we otherwise would not have known about, as well as wages that will be identified timelier than under current processes. Additionally, we estimate that we will identify and assess approximately an additional 10% of overpayments due to working at or above SGA (OASDI) or having wages from employment (SSI) which we never would have identified through our current processes.
                    <SU>69</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>69</SU>
                         We do not have data to specifically support the assumption that we will identify 10% more overpayments. However, we do know certain small overpayments may be currently overlooked through our current systems. Through review processes such as the Master Earnings File, SSA is generally able to identify overpayments from unreported wage changes at least on an annual basis. In certain circumstances, however, annual earnings as identified on the Master Earnings File or on a quarterly match may be below the threshold for identifying an overpayment even though the beneficiary's monthly earnings in certain months would have resulted in changes to the amount they were owed. For example, if an OASDI disability beneficiary worked at $50 above SGA for 11 months of the year, and worked $0 in the 12th month, they would generally be passed over in the annual match because their total annual wages would be below 12 times SGA. Having the monthly data would give SSA more exact information and the agency would be able to compare on a monthly basis whether earnings exceeds SGA. As another example, certain 
                        <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                         changes in benefit payment rates due to changes in income may not be assessed under current policy because of required efforts under current processes; because these processes will be automated through PIE, these changes will be made in a timely manner.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Anticipated Costs to the Public</HD>
                <P>
                    There are minor costs to the public associated with this rulemaking. Individuals who apply for or are receiving OASDI disability, individuals who apply for or are receiving SSI, and SSI deemors, will need to spend a 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11783"/>
                    minimal amount of time to complete the authorization to allow us to obtain wage and employment information from payroll data providers through an information exchange. Similarly, individuals who want to revoke their authorizations would need to spend a minimal amount of time to do so. We anticipate this time would be more than offset by the time saved by individuals who would no longer need to spend time reporting certain wage and employment information and work activity.
                </P>
                <P>There is a potential for lost benefits to the beneficiary or recipient in instances where we make an unfavorable or partially favorable determination or decision based on potentially inaccurate information obtained from payroll data providers through an information exchange. We have not estimated at this time the number of additional NOPAs which might be due to inaccurate payroll information.</P>
                <P>
                    There is a potential burden on the public to correct any inaccurate data reported to us from a payroll data provider if an individual identifies an error in the information we receive through an information exchange. However, the primary burden related to these rules is the time it would take for the individual to correct information with us. Additionally, although individuals can give us information that we may use to correct our records, they may also have to work with the payroll data provider directly to correct any inaccurate data in its records, because we can only update our records.
                    <SU>70</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>70</SU>
                         When an individual believes the information we are receiving from a payroll data provider is incorrect, they can correct the information with us. A beneficiary may also wish to contact the payroll data provider to resolve a recurring issue or if, for example, they believe the error may be due to potential fraud. We will provide information in the advance notice (for OASDI disability) or NOPA (for SSI) for how to contact the payroll data provider directly.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>We anticipate minimal costs to the public associated with reporting inaccurate data based on the accuracy rate recorded in the accuracy analysis study previously discussed and included in the rulemaking record.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Anticipated Benefit to the Public</HD>
                <P>An information exchange has many benefits. Individuals will have reduced wage reporting responsibilities if they provide us with authorization to obtain their wage and employment information from a payroll data provider and we obtain that information from a participating payroll data provider through an information exchange. Reducing reporting responsibilities relieves the burden placed on individuals to report certain wage and employment information to us if we are already receiving it from a payroll data provider through an information exchange. This reduced reporting responsibility should make it easier for individuals to comply with our wage reporting rules. It reduces the individual's need to report certain wage and employment information to us which includes the burden of the time it takes the individual to report this information and the burden of remembering to report it to us within a certain timeframe.</P>
                <P>The timely receipt of wage and employment information from a payroll data provider through an information exchange would also help us reduce improper payments, which may be a source of confusion for the public and may cause individuals to spend time addressing errors associated with improper payments or filing appeals or waiver requests. Lastly, authorizing us to obtain records from a payroll data provider through an information exchange may relieve individuals from certain penalties under section 1129A of the Act for any omission or error with respect to wages reported to us by a participating payroll data provider. And for SSI, we will find good cause for a failure or delay in reporting a change in employer, which can avoid certain additional penalties.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Anticipated Transfers to Our Program</HD>
                <P>
                    Our Office of the Chief Actuary estimates that implementation of this proposed rule would result in a total net reduction in OASDI benefit payments of $1.8 billion and a total net reduction in Federal SSI payments of $1.9 billion over fiscal years 2024 through 2033. The estimates assume implementation of this rule on October 1, 2023, and that SSA will not, during the estimate period, contract with any other payroll data provider beyond Equifax. We note that the increase in the amount of overpayments identified or prevented in this period would be larger than the reduction in actual benefits paid in this period. First, regarding overpayments newly identified, as discussed in our 
                    <E T="03">Assumptions</E>
                     section, these estimates assume that 50 percent of work-related overpayments identified for OASDI beneficiaries and 80 percent of earned-income related overpayments for SSI recipients will be recovered within 10 years after they are identified. Thus, much of the overpayments newly identified, especially those identified late in this 10-year period, will be only partially recovered with subsequent reductions in payments through fiscal year 2033. Second, while potential overpayments that would be prevented due to implementation of this rule will immediately reduce benefit payments, such early identification of earnings will also avoid subsequent potential overpayments through fiscal year 2033 and beyond.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Anticipated Administrative Costs to the Social Security Administration</HD>
                <P>
                    The Office of Budget, Finance, and Management estimates that this proposal will result in a net administrative cost of $419 million for the 10-year period from FY 2024 to FY 2033. The net administrative cost is mainly a result of the contract and IT costs to administer the information exchange. The total costs are offset by some administrative savings from a shorter wage development process in affected cases during title XVI (SSI) pre-effectuation reviews, redeterminations, post-eligibility actions, and overpayments, as well as during title II (OASDI) work continuing disability reviews. However, we do not attempt to estimate these time savings. As explained above, under our current process, we sometimes conduct a manual query to request records from payroll data providers or employers. We estimate we would save approximately 20 minutes of our staff's time each time we no longer need to complete this query.
                    <SU>71</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>71</SU>
                         We note these savings are for our staff. They do not represent public reporting burden savings.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Order 13132 (Federalism)</HD>
                <P>We analyzed this proposed rule in accordance with the principles and criteria established by Executive Order 13132 and determined that the proposed rule will not have sufficient Federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a Federalism assessment. We also determined that this proposed rule will not preempt any State law or State regulation or affect the States' abilities to discharge traditional State governmental functions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>
                    We certify that these proposed rules will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities because it primarily affects individuals. In some instances, this proposed change may reduce the burden on employers because we may need to contact employers for information less frequently when we receive wage and employment information from payroll data providers through an information exchange. Because our contact with employers for this reason is limited now, we do not expect a significant 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11784"/>
                    difference. Therefore, a regulatory flexibility analysis is not required under the Regulatory Flexibility Act, as amended. We discuss the time burden savings for employers stemming from this proposed rule in the Paperwork Reduction Act section of the preamble.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Paperwork Reduction Act Statement  </HD>
                <P>SSA already has existing OMB-approved information collection tools relating to this proposed rule: the Letter to Employer Requesting Information About Wages Earned by Beneficiary (SSA-L725, OMB Control No. 0960-0034); Letter to Employer Requesting Wage Information (SSA-L4201, OMB Control No. 0960-0138); Monthly SSI Wage Reporting (SSA's Mobile Wage Reporting, Telephone Wage Reporting, and Internet myWage Report application, OMB Control No. 0960-0715); the Authorization for the Social Security Administration to Obtain Wage and Employment Information from Payroll Data Providers (Form SSA-8240, OMB Control No. 0960-0807); and the Notice to Electronic Information Exchange Partners to Provide Contractor List (SSA-731, OMB Control No. 0960-0820). While we previously obtained OMB approval for the new form (under OMB Control No. 0960-0807) to collect the authorization for the wage and employment information from payroll data providers, SSA has not utilized this information through an automated information exchange, because those exchanges have not yet gone live. The proposed rule provides additional information on OASDI and SSI reduced reporting requirements, as well as the effects of beneficiaries, recipients, and deemors authorizing us to obtain records from payroll data providers. In addition, the proposed rule describes the establishment of the requirements to enter into an information exchange with payroll data providers. SSA established the information collection for the Authorization for the Social Security Administration to Obtain Wage and Employment Information from Payroll Data Providers (0960-0807) prior to the creation of this new rule. We will include the appropriate CFR citations under that OMB approved information collection upon publication of the final rule. In addition, we will obtain OMB approval for revisions to the collection instruments as needed simultaneously with the publication of the final rule. Finally, the implementation of this proposed rule would decrease the time burden for the public, as it would remove the need for individuals or employers to submit wages to SSA when we receive them from payroll data providers through an information exchange instead. While we acknowledge that there is a burden on the public for 20 CFR 422.150(a)(3), we did not include it in the chart below because fewer than 10 providers submit this information to SSA. The following chart shows the anticipated burden reduction due to the other regulatory requirements from this proposed rule:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="9" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,10,10,10,11,11,11,9">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">OMB #; form #; CFR citations</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Frequency of
                            <LI>response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Current
                            <LI>average</LI>
                            <LI>burden per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(minutes)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Current
                            <LI>estimated</LI>
                            <LI>total </LI>
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Anticipated
                            <LI>new </LI>
                            <LI>number of </LI>
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                            <LI>under</LI>
                            <LI>regulation</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Anticipated
                            <LI>new burden</LI>
                            <LI>per response</LI>
                            <LI>under</LI>
                            <LI>regulation</LI>
                            <LI>(minutes)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Anticipated
                            <LI>estimated</LI>
                            <LI>total burden</LI>
                            <LI>under</LI>
                            <LI>regulation</LI>
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>burden </LI>
                            <LI>savings</LI>
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">0960-0034—SSA-L725</ENT>
                        <ENT>170,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>40</ENT>
                        <ENT>113,333</ENT>
                        <ENT>170,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>40</ENT>
                        <ENT>113,333</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">0960-0138—SSA-L4201</ENT>
                        <ENT>133,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>30</ENT>
                        <ENT>66,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>133,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>30</ENT>
                        <ENT>66,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">0960-0715—Mobile Wage reporting, 404.703(a), 416.708(c), 416.709 (new)</ENT>
                        <ENT>88,382</ENT>
                        <ENT>12</ENT>
                        <ENT>6</ENT>
                        <ENT>106,058</ENT>
                        <ENT>36,237</ENT>
                        <ENT>6</ENT>
                        <ENT>43,484</ENT>
                        <ENT>62,574</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">0960-0715—Telephone Wage reporting, 404.703(a), 416.708(c), 416.709 (new)</ENT>
                        <ENT>16,341</ENT>
                        <ENT>12</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>16,341</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,700</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,700</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,641</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">0960-0715—myWage Report, 404.703(a), 416.708(c), 416.709 (new)</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,557</ENT>
                        <ENT>12</ENT>
                        <ENT>7</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,980</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,458</ENT>
                        <ENT>7</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,041</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 2,939</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">0960-0807—SSA-8240, 404.703(b), 404.1588(a), 404.1588(b)(3)(iii), 404.1588(b)(4), 416.988(a)</ENT>
                        <ENT>150,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                        <ENT>20,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>150,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                        <ENT>20,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">0960-0807—MCS/SSI Claim System, 404.703(b), 404.1588(a), 404.1588(b)(3)(iii), 404.1588(b)(4), 416.988(a)</ENT>
                        <ENT>697,580</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>34,879</ENT>
                        <ENT>697,580</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>34,879</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">0960-0807—Internet, 404.703(b), 404.1588(a), 404.1588(b)(3)(iii), 404.1588(b)(4), 416.988(a)</ENT>
                        <ENT>147,820</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,391</ENT>
                        <ENT>147,820</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,391</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,406,680</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>369,482</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,342,795</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>294,328</ENT>
                        <ENT>75,154</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* These proposed rules will not significantly affect the burden for this information collection; therefore, we do not anticipate any burden reduction for this information collection due to the implementation of this rule.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>** SSA is providing this figure as a current best estimate for burden reduction under these proposed rules. We will not have accurate data until we implement the rule.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The following chart shows the reduction in theoretical cost burdens associated with the proposed rule:</P>
                  
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12,12">
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">OMB #; form #; CFR citations</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Anticipated new number of respondents</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated 
                            <LI>burden </LI>
                            <LI>per response </LI>
                            <LI>from chart </LI>
                            <LI>above</LI>
                            <LI>(minutes)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Anticipated 
                            <LI>estimated </LI>
                            <LI>total burden </LI>
                            <LI>under </LI>
                            <LI>regulation</LI>
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average 
                            <LI>theoretical </LI>
                            <LI>hourly cost </LI>
                            <LI>amount</LI>
                            <LI>(dollars) *</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average 
                            <LI>combined </LI>
                            <LI>wait time in </LI>
                            <LI>field office </LI>
                            <LI>and/or </LI>
                            <LI>teleservice centers </LI>
                            <LI>(minutes) **</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Anticipated 
                            <LI>annual </LI>
                            <LI>opportunity cost</LI>
                            <LI>(dollars) ***</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">0960-0034—SSA-L725</ENT>
                        <ENT>170,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>40</ENT>
                        <ENT>113,333</ENT>
                        <ENT>* $25.14</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** $2,849,192</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">0960-0138—SSA-L4201</ENT>
                        <ENT>133,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>30</ENT>
                        <ENT>66,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 25.14</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 1,671,810</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">0960-0715—Mobile Wage reporting, 404.703(a), 416.708(c), 416.709 (new)</ENT>
                        <ENT>36,237</ENT>
                        <ENT>6</ENT>
                        <ENT>43,484</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 21.29</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 925,774</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11785"/>
                        <ENT I="01">0960-0715—Telephone Wage reporting, 404.703(a), 416.708(c), 416.709 (new)</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,700</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,700</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 21.29</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 142,643</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">0960-0715—myWage Report, 404.703(a), 416.708(c), 416.709 (new)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,458</ENT>
                        <ENT>7</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,041</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 21.29</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 43,453</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">0960-0807—SSA-8240, 404.703(b), 404.1588(a), 404.1588(b)(3)(iii), 404.1588(b)(4), 416.988(a)</ENT>
                        <ENT>150,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>8</ENT>
                        <ENT>20,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 21.29</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 24</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 1,703,200</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">0960-0807—MCS/SSI Claim System, 404.703(b), 404.1588(a), 404.1588(b)(3)(iii), 404.1588(b)(4), 416.988(a)</ENT>
                        <ENT>697,580</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>34,879</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 21.29</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 21</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 5,940,591</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">0960-0807—Internet, 404.703(b), 404.1588(a), 404.1588(b)(3)(iii), 404.1588(b)(4), 416.988(a)</ENT>
                        <ENT>147,820</ENT>
                        <ENT>3</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,391</ENT>
                        <ENT>* 21.29</ENT>
                        <ENT>** 21</ENT>
                        <ENT>*** 1,258,835</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,342,795</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>294,328</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>*** 14,535,498</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        * We based this figure on the average Payroll and Timekeeping Clerks hourly salary, as reported by the Bureau of Labor Statistics data (
                        <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/oes/current/oes433051.htm</E>
                        ); as well as the averaging of SSDI payments based on SSA's current FY 2023 data (
                        <E T="03">https://www.ssa.gov/legislation/2023factsheet.pdf</E>
                        ) and the average U.S. citizen's hourly salary, as reported by Bureau of Labor Statistics data (
                        <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/oes/current/oes_nat.htm</E>
                        ).
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>** We based this figure on the average FY 2023 wait times for field offices and hearings office, as well as by averaging both the average FY 2023 wait times for field offices and teleservice centers, based on SSA's current management information data.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>*** This figure does not represent actual costs that SSA is imposing on recipients of Social Security payments to complete this application; rather, these are theoretical opportunity costs for the additional time respondents will spend to complete the application. There is no actual charge to respondents to complete the application.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>SSA submitted a single new Information Collection Request which encompasses revisions to information collections currently under OMB Numbers 0960-0034, 0960-0138, 0960-0715, 0960-0807) to OMB for the approval of the changes due to the proposed rule. After approval at the final rule stage, we will adjust the figures associated with the current OMB numbers for these forms to reflect the new burden. We are soliciting comments on the burden estimate; the need for the information; its practical utility; ways to enhance its quality, utility, and clarity; and ways to minimize the burden on respondents, including the use of automated techniques or other forms of information technology. In addition, we are specifically seeking comment on whether you have any questions or suggestions for edits to the forms referenced above in the context of this proposed regulatory change. If you would like to submit comments, please send them to the following locations:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Office of Management and Budget, Attn: Desk Officer for SSA, Fax Number: 202-395-6974</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    Social Security Administration, OLCA, Attn: Reports Clearance Director, Mail Stop 3253 Altmeyer, 6401 Security Blvd., Baltimore, MD 21235, Fax: 410-966-2830, Email address: 
                    <E T="03">OR.Reports.Clearance@ssa.gov</E>
                </FP>
                <P>You can submit comments until April 15, 2024, which is 60 days after the publication of this notice. To receive a copy of the OMB clearance package, contact the SSA Reports Clearance Officer using any of the above contact methods. We prefer to receive comments by email or fax.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 96.001, Social Security—Disability Insurance; 96.002, Social Security—Retirement Insurance; 96.004, Social Security—Survivors Insurance; and 96.006, Supplemental Security Income)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                    <CFR>20 CFR Part 404</CFR>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure; Blind; Disability benefits; Old-Age, Survivors, and Disability Insurance; Reporting and recordkeeping requirements; Social Security.</P>
                    <CFR>20 CFR Part 416</CFR>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure; Aged, Blind, Disability benefits, Public Assistance programs; Reporting and recordkeeping requirements; Supplemental Security Income (SSI).</P>
                    <CFR>20 CFR Part 422</CFR>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure; Organization and functions (Government agencies); Operational effectiveness; Social Security. </P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>
                    The Commissioner of Social Security, Martin O'Malley, having reviewed and approved this document, is delegating the authority to electronically sign this document to Faye I. Lipsky, who is the primary Federal Register Liaison for SSA, for purposes of publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Faye I. Lipsky,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Federal Register Liaison, Office of Legislation and Congressional Affairs, Social Security Administration.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons set out in the preamble, we propose to amend 20 CFR chapter III parts 404, 416, and 422 as set forth below:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 404—FEDERAL OLD-AGE, SURVIVORS AND DISABILITY INSURANCE</HD>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart H—Evidence</HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for subpart H of part 404 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 42 U.S.C. 405(a), 902(a)(5), and 1320e-3.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 404.702 by adding, in alphabetical order, the definitions of “Participating payroll data provider” and “Payroll data provider” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 404.702</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Participating payroll data provider</E>
                         means a payroll data provider that has established an information exchange with us to provide wage and employment information.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Payroll data provider</E>
                         means payroll providers, wage verification companies, and other commercial or non-commercial entities that collect and maintain information regarding employment and wages.
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>3. Revise § 404.703 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 404.703</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> When evidence is needed.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Evidence.</E>
                         When you apply for benefits, we will ask for evidence that you are eligible for them. After you become entitled to benefits, we may ask for evidence showing whether you continue to be entitled to benefits; or evidence showing whether your benefit payments should be reduced or stopped. See § 404.401 for a list showing when benefit payments must be reduced or stopped.
                        <PRTPAGE P="11786"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Authorization to obtain data from a payroll data provider.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) We will ask you for a written authorization to obtain information about you from a payroll data provider whenever we determine the information is needed in connection with a determination of initial or ongoing entitlement to benefits.</P>
                    <P>(2) When we ask for your authorization, we will explain the authorization's scope and duration.</P>
                    <P>
                        (i) We will explain to you that we will use the information obtained from a payroll data provider when it is needed in connection with a determination of initial or ongoing entitlement to title II benefits based on disability, or for eligibility or the amount of benefits under the Supplemental Security Income program of title XVI of the Social Security Act, and to prevent improper payments. We will explain to you that we may also use the authorization to obtain wage and employment information from a payroll data provider for claims associated with the claim filed, such as a claim for benefits by a spouse or child. We will also explain that we may use and disclose your information consistent with applicable Federal law (see, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         part 401 of this chapter) and any privacy notices we provide to you.
                    </P>
                    <P>(ii) We will also inform you that your authorization will remain effective until the earliest of one of the following occurrences: (A) you revoke your authorization in writing (see § 404.1588(b)(4)); (B) we have terminated all entitlement for benefits, you have no other claims or appeals pending under this title, and the period for appealing the determination or decision terminating entitlement has lapsed; or (C) there has been an adverse determination or decision on your claim, you have no other claims or appeals pending under this title, and the period for appealing the adverse determination or decision has lapsed.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart P—Determining Disability and Blindness</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <AMDPAR>4. The authority citation for subpart P of part 404 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 42 U.S.C. 402, 405(a)-(b) and (d)-(h), 416(i), 421(a) and (h)-(j), 422(c), 423, 425, 902(a)(5), and 1320e-3; sec. 211(b), Pub. L. 104-193, 110 Stat. 2105, 2189; sec. 202, Pub. L. 108-203, 118 Stat. 509 (42 U.S.C. 902 note).</P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>5. Amend § 404.1588 by redesignating paragraph (b) as paragraph (c) and adding a new paragraph (b) and revising paragraphs (a) and (c) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 404.1588</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Your responsibility to tell us of events that may change your disability status.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Your responsibility to report changes to us.</E>
                         If you are entitled to cash benefits or to a period of disability because you are disabled, you should promptly tell us if—
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) Your condition improves;</P>
                    <P>(2) You return to work;</P>
                    <P>(3) You have a new employer;</P>
                    <P>(4) You increase the amount of your work; or</P>
                    <P>(5) Your earnings increase.</P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Effect of authorizing us to obtain your information from payroll data providers.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) We will reduce your reporting responsibilities as described in paragraphs (a)(4) and (a)(5) of this section if we have your authorization to obtain wage and employment information from a payroll data provider (see § 404.703), and we receive your wage and employment information from your employer(s) through a participating payroll data provider (see § 404.702).</P>
                    <P>(2) We will notify you in writing whenever there is a change in your reporting responsibilities relating to the authorization described in § 404.703. When we tell you about changes in your reporting responsibilities, we will also tell you whether you may be subject to a penalty of nonpayment of benefits (see § 404.459) related to information we receive from a participating payroll data provider. You are always required to submit any changes described in paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(3) of this section.</P>
                    <P>(3) When your reporting requirements will change—</P>
                    <P>(i) If we have your authorization to obtain wage and employment information from a payroll data provider (see § 404.703), and we receive your wage and employment information from your employer through a participating payroll data provider, you will not have to report when your earnings from that employer increase.</P>
                    <P>(ii) If we have your authorization to obtain wage and employment information from a payroll data provider (see § 404.703), but we do not receive your wage and employment information from your employer through a participating payroll data provider, we will not reduce your reporting responsibilities.</P>
                    <P>(iii) If we have your authorization to obtain wage and employment information from a payroll data provider (see § 404.703) and you have more than one employer,</P>
                    <P>(A) you do not need to report when your earnings increase for an employer if we receive your wage and employment information for that employer through a participating payroll data provider, and</P>
                    <P>(B) you must still report when your earnings increase for an employer if we do not receive your wage and employment information for that employer through a participating payroll data provider.</P>
                    <P>(4) You may revoke your authorization at any time, but you must do so in writing. We will apply the revocation to all pending or approved disability claims under this title, as well as all pending or approved claims under title XVI, from the time we process your revocation. If you revoke your authorization, all your reporting responsibilities will resume, and you will again be subject to all related penalties. We will notify you in writing of these changes.</P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Our responsibility when you report your work to us.</E>
                         When you or your representative report changes in your work activity to us under paragraphs (a)(2), (a)(3), (a)(4), and (a)(5) of this section, we will issue a receipt to you or your representative.
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Part 416—SUPPLEMENTAL SECURITY INCOME FOR THE AGED, BLIND, AND DISABLED</HD>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart G—Reports Required</HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>6. The authority citation for subpart G of part 416 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>42 U.S.C. 902(a)(5), 1320a-8a, 1320e-3, 1382, 1382a, 1382b, 1382c, and 1383; sec. 211, Pub. L. 93-66, 87 Stat. 154 (42 U.S.C. 1382 note); sec. 202, Pub. L. 108-203, 118 Stat. 509 (42 U.S.C. 902 note).</P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>7. Amend § 416.701 by revising the third sentence of paragraph (a) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 416.701 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Scope of subpart.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) * * * This subpart tells you what events you must report; what your reports must include; when reports are due; and when certain reporting requirements, and penalties relating to reporting requirements, do not apply. * * *</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>8. Amend 416.702 by adding, in alphabetical order, the definitions of “Participating payroll data provider” and “Payroll data provider” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 416.702</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Participating payroll data provider</E>
                         means a payroll data provider that has established an information exchange with us to provide wage and employment information.
                        <PRTPAGE P="11787"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Payroll data provider</E>
                         means payroll providers, wage verification companies, and other commercial or non-commercial entities that collect and maintain information regarding employment and wages.
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>9. Amend § 416.708 by revising paragraph (c) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 416.708</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> What you must report.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">(c) A change in income.</E>
                         Unless the circumstances in § 416.709(a) and (c) apply, you must report to us any increase or decrease in your income and any increase or decrease in the income of—
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) Your ineligible spouse who lives with you;</P>
                    <P>(2) Your essential person;</P>
                    <P>(3) Your parent, if you are an eligible child and your parent lives with you; or</P>
                    <P>(4) An ineligible child who lives with you.</P>
                    <FP>However, you need not report an increase in your Social Security benefits if the increase is only a cost-of-living adjustment. (For a complete discussion of what we consider income, see subpart K of this part. See § 416.1323 regarding suspension because of excess income.) If you receive benefits based on disability, when you or your representative report changes in your earned income, we will issue a receipt to you or your representative.</FP>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>10. Add § 416.709 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 416.709</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Reduced reporting requirements when you authorize us to obtain your information from payroll data providers.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Authorization to obtain data from a payroll data provider.</E>
                         We will ask you for written authorization to obtain information about you from a payroll data provider whenever we determine the information is needed in connection with a determination of initial or ongoing eligibility for benefits.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Scope and duration.</E>
                         When we ask for your authorization, we will explain the authorization's scope and duration.
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) We will explain to you that we will use information obtained from a payroll data provider, when it is needed, in connection with a determination of eligibility or the amount of benefits under this title, or for the initial or ongoing entitlement to disability benefits under title II of the Social Security Act, and to prevent improper payments. We will explain to you that we may also use the authorization to obtain wage and employment information from a payroll data provider for claims associated with the claim filed, such as an SSI claim by a spouse or child. We will also explain that we may use and disclose your information consistent with applicable Federal law (see part 401 of this chapter) and any privacy notices we provide to you.</P>
                    <P>(2) We will also inform you that your authorization will remain effective until the earliest of one of the following occurrences: (A) you revoke your authorization in writing (see paragraph (c)(4) of this section); (B) we have terminated all eligibility for benefits and you have no other claims or appeals pending under this title, and the period for appealing the determination or decision terminating entitlement has lapsed; (C) there has been an adverse determination or decision on your claim, you have no other claims or appeals pending under this title, and the period for appealing the determination or decision terminating eligibility has lapsed; or (D) your deeming relationship ends.</P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">When reporting requirements will change.</E>
                         We will notify you in writing whenever there is a change in your reporting responsibilities relating to the authorization described in paragraph (a) of this section. When we tell you about changes in your reporting responsibilities, we will also tell you whether you may be subject to a penalty of ineligibility for cash benefits (see § 416.1340) related to information we receive from a participating payroll data provider. We will also tell you when we will find good cause, under section 416.732, for a failure or delay in reporting a change in employer.
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) If we have your authorization to obtain wage and employment information from a payroll data provider as described in paragraph (a) of this section, and we receive your wage and employment information from your employer(s) through a participating payroll data provider, you will not have to report changes in your wages paid in cash, as defined in § 416.1110(a), from that employer(s). Also, you will not have to report an increase in the amount of work from that employer or an increase in earnings from that employer, as described in § 416.988(a)(4) and (a)(5). All other reporting requirements still apply.</P>
                    <P>(2) If we have your authorization to obtain wage and employment information from a payroll data provider as described in paragraph (a) of this section, but we do not receive your wage and employment information from your employer(s) through a participating payroll data provider, we will not reduce your reporting responsibilities.</P>
                    <P>(3) If we have your authorization to obtain wage and employment information from a payroll data provider as described in paragraph (a) of this section, and you have more than one employer,</P>
                    <P>(i) you do not need to report wages paid in cash for an employer if we receive your wage and employment information for that employer through a participating payroll data provider, and</P>
                    <P>(ii) you must still report wages paid in cash for an employer if we do not receive your wage and employment information for that employer through a participating payroll data provider.</P>
                    <P>(4) You may revoke your authorization at any time, but you must do so in writing. We will apply the revocation to all pending or approved claims under this title as well as all pending or approved disability claims under title II from the time we process your revocation. If you revoke your authorization, all your reporting responsibilities will resume; you will again be subject to all related penalties; and we may not find good cause, under § 416.732, for a failure to report timely a change in employer. We will notify you in writing of these changes.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart I—Determining Disability and Blindness</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <AMDPAR>11. The authority citation for subpart I of part 416 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 42 U.S.C. 421(m), 902(a)(5), 1382, 1382c, 1382h, 1383, and 1383b; secs. 4(c) and 5, 6(c)-(e), 14(a), and 15, Pub. L. 98-460, 98 Stat. 1794, 1801, 1802, and 1808 (42 U.S.C. 421 note, 423 note, and 1382h note).</P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>12. Revise § 416.988to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 416.988 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Your responsibility to tell us of events that may change your disability or blindness status.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) If you are entitled to payments because you are disabled or blind, you should promptly tell us if—</P>
                    <P>(1) Your condition improves;</P>
                    <P>(2) You return to work;</P>
                    <P>(3) You have a new employer;</P>
                    <P>(4) You increase the amount of your work; or</P>
                    <P>(5) Your earnings increase.</P>
                    <P>(b) If we have your authorization to obtain wage and employment information (see § 416.709(a)) from a payroll data provider (see § 416.702), and we receive your wage and employment information from your employer(s) through a participating payroll data provider, your reporting requirements under paragraphs (a)(4) and (a)(5) will be reduced as described in § 416.709(c).</P>
                </SECTION>
                <PART>
                    <PRTPAGE P="11788"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 422—ORGANIZATION AND FUNCTIONS OF THE SOCIAL SECURITY ADMINISTRATION</HD>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—General Procedures</HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>13. The authority citation for subpart B of part 422 is revised to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>42 U.S.C. 405, 432, 902(a)(5), 1320b-1, 1320b-13, and 1320e-3, and sec. 7213(a)(1)(A) of Pub. L. 108-458.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>14. Add § 422.150 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 422.150</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Guidelines for Establishing and Maintaining an Information Exchange with Payroll Data Providers</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Guidelines for Establishing an Information Exchange with Payroll Data Providers.</E>
                         In establishing an information exchange under section 1184 of the Social Security Act, we will do the following:
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) Identify the payroll data providers (as defined in §§ 404.702 and 416.702 of this chapter) that may be interested in participating in an information exchange with us.</P>
                    <P>(2) Review the payroll data providers and consider factors such as: whether a payroll data provider is able and willing to engage in an information exchange; what data the payroll data provider could provide; whether the data from the payroll data provider is sufficiently accurate, complete, and up-to-date; and any conditions and limitations associated with our receipt of the data.</P>
                    <P>(3) Consistent with applicable law and regulations, establish an information exchange with the selected payroll data provider. The arrangement between us and the selected payroll data provider will describe:</P>
                    <P>(i) the records that will be matched;</P>
                    <P>(ii) the procedures for the match;</P>
                    <P>(iii) any requirements established related to accuracy, completeness, and up-to-date records;</P>
                    <P>(iv) the procedures for ensuring the administrative, technical, and physical security of the records matched; and</P>
                    <P>(v) such other provisions as are necessary.</P>
                    <P>
                        (4) Prior to receiving payroll data provider information, publish a notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         that describes the information exchange and the extent to which the information received through such exchange is:
                    </P>
                    <P>(i) relevant and necessary to: (A) accurately determine initial and ongoing entitlement to, and the amount of, disability benefits under title II of the Social Security Act; (B) accurately determine eligibility for, and the amount of, benefits under the Supplemental Security Income program under title XVI of the Social Security Act; and (C) prevent improper payments of such benefits; and</P>
                    <P>(ii) sufficiently accurate, up-to-date, and complete.</P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Guidelines for Maintaining an Information Exchange with Payroll Data Providers.</E>
                         We will perform the following activities while we maintain an established information exchange with a payroll data provider described in paragraph (a):
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) Periodically assess whether the data we receive under the information exchange continues to be accurate, complete, and up-to-date; and</P>
                    <P>(2) Monitor compliance with the requirements of the information exchange described in paragraph (a)(3).</P>
                </SECTION>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-02961 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4191-02-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Employment and Training Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>20 CFR Part 656</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. ETA-2023-0006]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1205-AC16</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Labor Certification for Permanent Employment of Foreign Workers in the United States; Modernizing Schedule A To Include Consideration of Additional Occupations in Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) and Non-STEM Occupations</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Employment and Training Administration (ETA), Labor.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for information; extension of public comment period.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>On December 21, 2023, ETA published a Request for Information (RFI), titled “Labor Certification for Permanent Employment of Foreign Workers in the United States; Modernizing Schedule A To Include Consideration of Additional Occupations in Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) and Non-STEM Occupations.” The period for submitting public comments is being extended to May 13, 2024, to allow stakeholders additional time to comment.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The comment period for the RFI published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on December 21, 2023 (88 FR 88290), is extended. Submit comments to the RFI and other information by May 13, 2024.
                    </P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit written comments electronically by the following method:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                        . Follow the instructions on the website for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         Include the docket number ETA-2023-0006 in your comments. All comments received will be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                        . Please do not include any personally identifiable or confidential business information you do not want publicly disclosed.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Brian Pasternak, Administrator, Office of Foreign Labor Certification, Employment and Training Administration, Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, N-5311, Washington, DC 20210; Telephone (202) 513-7350 (this is not a toll-free number). For persons with a hearing or speech disability who need assistance to use the telephone system, please dial 711 to access telecommunications relay services.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>On December 21, 2023, ETA published an RFI titled, “Labor Certification for Permanent Employment of Foreign Workers in the United States; Modernizing Schedule A To Include Consideration of Additional Occupations in Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) and Non-STEM Occupations.” 88 FR 88290. In the RFI, ETA invited public comment on “evaluating the utility of expanding Schedule A to include STEM occupations, the Department invites the public to provide input on the appropriate data sources and methods for determining whether labor shortages exist, whether Schedule A should be used to alleviate any labor shortages in STEM occupations should it be determined from these data sources and methods that such shortages exist, and if so, how the Department could establish a reliable, objective, and transparent methodology for identifying STEM occupations that are experiencing labor shortages.” The RFI further invited the public to answer a number of questions in their responses that would assist ETA in making this evaluation.</P>
                <P>
                    The public comment period for this RFI was to conclude on February 20, 2024, 60 days after publication of the RFI. To date, ETA has received a very limited number of comments, many of which do not provide the information requested or address the questions raised in the RFI. In addition, ETA received a request from a stakeholder for an extension of the public comment period (Document ID ETA-2023-0006-0035). ETA agrees to an extension of the public comment period and believes that an extension until May 13, 2024, is sufficient and appropriate to balance the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11789"/>
                    agency's need for timely and robust input and to satisfy the stakeholder's request. Accordingly, the comment period for this RFI is being extended and will now conclude on May 13, 2024.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Brent Parton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary for Employment and Training, Labor.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03187 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-FP-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">LIBRARY OF CONGRESS</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Copyright Office</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>37 CFR Parts 201, 202</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 2024-2]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Group Registration of Two-Dimensional Artwork</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Copyright Office, Library of Congress.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Copyright Office is proposing to create a new group registration option for two-dimensional artwork. This option will allow applicants to register up to ten works published within a thirty-day time period by submitting a single online application with a digital deposit copy of each work. The Office will examine each work to determine if it contains a sufficient amount of creative pictorial or graphic authorship. If the Office registers the claim, the registration will cover each artwork as a separate work of authorship. The Office invites comment on this proposal.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on the proposed rule must be made in writing and must be received by the U.S. Copyright Office no later than April 1, 2024.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For reasons of government efficiency, the Copyright Office is using the 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         system for the submission and posting of public comments in this proceeding. All comments are therefore to be submitted electronically through 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov.</E>
                         Specific instructions for submitting comments are available on the Copyright Office website at 
                        <E T="03">http://copyright.gov/rulemaking/gr2d.</E>
                         If electronic submission of comments is not feasible due to lack of access to a computer and/or the internet, please contact the Office using the contact information below for special instructions.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Rhea Efthimiadis, Assistant to the General Counsel, by email at 
                        <E T="03">meft@copyright.gov,</E>
                         or by telephone at 202-707-8350.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The U.S. Copyright Office (“Office”) is proposing to create a new group registration option for works of two-dimensional art. When Congress enacted the Copyright Act of 1976 (“Copyright Act” or “Act”), it authorized the Register of Copyrights (“Register”) to specify by regulation the administrative classes of works for the purpose of seeking registration, and the nature of the deposit required for each such class. Congress afforded the Register discretion to permit registration of groups of related works with one application and one filing fee, known as “group registration.” 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Pursuant to this authority, the Register has established regulations permitting the Office to issue group registrations for certain limited categories of works, provided certain conditions have been met.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         17 U.S.C. 408(c)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See generally</E>
                         37 CFR 202.3(b)(5), 202.4(c)-(k), (o).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As the legislative history explains, allowing “a number of related works to be registered together as a group represent[ed] a needed and important liberalization of the law.” 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Congress recognized that requiring applicants to submit separate applications where related works are separately published may be so burdensome that authors and copyright owners may forgo registration altogether, since registration is not a prerequisite to copyright protection.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     If copyright owners do not submit their works for registration, the public record will not contain any information concerning these works.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         H.R. Rep. No. 94-1476, at 154 (1976), 
                        <E T="03">reprinted in</E>
                         1976 U.S.C.C.A.N. 5659, 5770; S. Rep. No. 94-473, at 136 (1975).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         H.R. Rep. No. 94-1476 at 154; S. Rep. No. 94-473 at 136.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>At the same time, when published works are bundled together in one application, it can be difficult to capture adequate information about each work, particularly within the technological constraints of the current electronic registration system (known as “eCO”). The Office also must consider the potential effect of a group registration option on its overall administration of the registration system, including the processing times for other types of works. Group registration options require balancing the copyright owner's desire for more liberal registration options, the importance of an accurate public record, and the Office's need for an efficient method of examining, indexing, and cataloging each work.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                    A. Calls for a New Registration Option for Two-Dimensional Artwork 
                    <E T="51">5</E>
                    <FTREF/>
                </HD>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         This document references a number of prior rulemakings in which commenters have requested group registration, including: 60 FR 18742 (Mar. 28, 2012) (“2014 Fee Study NPRM”); 80 FR 23054 (Apr. 24, 2015) (“Visual Works NOI”); 81 FR 86643 (Dec. 1, 2016) (“Group Photographs NPRM”); 82 FR 47415 (Oct. 12, 2017) (“GRUW NPRM”); 83 FR 24054 (May 24, 2018) (“2019 Fee Study NPRM”); 83 FR 52336 (Oct. 17, 2018) (“Registration Modernization NOI”); 84 FR 66328 (Dec. 4, 2019) (“Online Publication NOI”); and 86 FR 70540 (Dec. 10, 2021) (“Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On numerous occasions, groups representing artists have asked the Office to establish a new group registration option for two-dimensional artwork.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     They assert that such an option is needed because visual artists are often prolific creators who produce a significant number of works each year.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These works can be particularly susceptible to infringement, because in most cases they are fixed in a digital file that can easily be copied, even if the file includes copyright management information or technical protection measures.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Once a file has been sent to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11790"/>
                    another party it is impossible to know if the recipient deleted the file, kept it, or shared it with others.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In some cases, recipients may mistakenly assume they own everything received from the artist, and use the artist's work for other projects without obtaining an appropriate license.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         Copyright Alliance Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination NOI, at 31 (Jan. 24, 2022) (urging the Office to create “a group registration option for illustrations”); Coalition of Visual Artists (“Coalition”) Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, at 35 (May 24, 2018) (“We believe that the current GRPPH [“Group Registration of Published Photographs”] and GRUPH [“Group Registration of Unpublished Photographs”] group registrations should be expanded to include all such two-dimensional visual works, including without limitation, illustrations, graphic art, video clips, textile arts or visual art in any medium.”); Coalition Comment in response to Group Photographs NPRM, at 60 (Jan. 30, 2017) (asking the Office to “[a]llow group registration for all two-dimensional artworks (visual works)”); Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to Visual Works NOI, at 9 (July 20, 2015) (requesting “a new ruling to allow Group registration for illustration and graphic design; for all visual works, not just photographs”); Association of Medical Illustrators (“AMI”) Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 9 (Jan. 15, 2019) (“The AMI wishes to emphasize that the option of group registration for multiple published images for a single, reasonable fee should be available for works of visual art . . . .”); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 30-31 (Jan. 11, 2019) (“The Graphic Artists Guild has been on record to the Copyright Office asking to include illustration and graphic art in the Group registration category since 1999; at every Roundtable discussion, annual meeting, and nearly every NOI comment letter for the last 20 years.” (footnote omitted)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         Coalition Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 3 (Jan. 24, 2022); Graphic Artists Guild Reply Comment in response to Online Publication NOI, at 2 (June 15, 2020); Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 6 (Jan. 15, 2019); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 30 (Jan. 11, 2019); Coalition Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, at 35 (May 24, 2018).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         Coalition Comment in response to Online Publication NOI, App. B, at 16 n.27 (Mar. 19, 2020); 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 6 (Jan.15, 2019); Coalition Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 16 n.27 (Jan. 15, 2019); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 41 (Jan. 11, 2019); Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 2 (Jan. 24, 2022). Visual artists who produce works in a physical format may face similar risks. For example, when textile designs are displayed in showrooms or other public places, they can easily be photographed and converted into an unauthorized digital file. Coalition Comment in response to Group Photographs NPRM, at 47 (Jan. 30, 2017).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         Coalition Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, at 35 (May 24, 2018); Coalition Comment in response to Group Photographs NPRM, at 5 (Jan. 30, 2017); Graphic Artists Guild, American Photographic Artists, and American Society for Collective Rights Licensing Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, at 2 (Sept. 21, 2018).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         Coalition Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, at 35 (May 24, 2018); Graphic Artists Guild, American Photographic Artists, and American Society for Collective Rights Licensing Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, at 2 (Sept. 21, 2018); Coalition Comment in response to Group Photographs NPRM, at 5 (Jan. 30, 2017); Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to 2014 Fee Study NPRM, at 3-4 (May 14, 2012).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    These stakeholder groups have reported that most visual artists do not register their works, despite this risk of infringement.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In surveys conducted by the Graphic Artists Guild and the Coalition of Visual Artists (“Coalition”), between 50 and 60% of the participants said they have not registered any of their works with the Office.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These groups have cited several reasons why so many visual artists do not participate in the registration system. First and foremost is the cost of registration.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Visual artists may be prolific creators, but the economic value of each work they produce tends to be quite low.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     They typically cannot charge a premium for individual works; instead, their income is dependent on the volume of material they produce for their clients.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     To register a published work with the Office, visual artists generally must submit a separate application and pay a $45 or $65 filing fee for each work.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The stakeholder groups assert this is cost-prohibitive for individual creators and small businesses,
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     because in some cases, the fee for registering a single published work would exceed the revenue that the artist can reasonably expect to receive for certain types of licensed uses.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     According to visual artists, these fees cannot be passed onto their clients.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As the consulting firm Schaftel &amp; Schmelzer explained, “the marketplace does not pay fees high enough to cover the costs.” 
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         AMI Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, at 3 (Sept. 18, 2018).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to Visual Works NOI, at 8 (July 20, 2015); Coalition Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, App. B, at 14 (Oct. 11, 2018).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         Copyright Alliance Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 2 (Jan. 24, 2022); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 2 (Jan. 22, 2022); Coalition Comment in response to Online Publication NOI, App. B, at 16 n.27 (Mar. 19, 2020); AMI Comment in response to Online Publication NOI, at 8 (Mar. 19, 2020); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 6 (Jan. 11, 2019); Coalition Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 16 n.27 (Jan. 15, 2019); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, at 18 (Sept. 20, 2018); Coalition Comment in response to Group Photographs NPRM, at 51 (Jan. 30, 2017); Copyright Alliance Comment in response to 2014 Fee Study NPRM, at 4 (May 14, 2012); Letter from Mica Duran, AMI, to Shira Perlmutter, Register of Copyrights, at 1 (July 10, 2023) (on file with Copyright Office); Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 1 (Jan. 24, 2022).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         Coalition Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 3 (Jan. 24, 2022); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 28 (Jan. 22, 2022); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 30 (Jan. 11, 2019); Copyright Alliance Comment in response to Visual Artists NOI, at 1 (undated); Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to Visual Works NOI, at 6 (July 20, 2015).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         AMI Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, at 3 (Sept. 18, 2018); AMI Comment in response to Visual Works NOI, at 13 (undated).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         37 CFR 201.3(c)(1)(i)(A), (B) ($45 fee for registering one work by one author with the Single Application; $65 fee for registering a work with the Standard Application).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Online Publication NOI, at 18 (Mar. 17, 2020); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, at 8 (Sept. 20, 2018).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to Visual Works NOI, at 14 (July 20, 2015) (“In some instances, the cost of registration is higher than what the works are licensed for.”); Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to 2014 Fee Study NPRM, at 2 (May 14, 2012) (“Licenses to use visual works for small and one-time uses to individual and small business users are often below the proposed fee increase.”); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 6-7 (Jan. 11, 2019) (“Licenses for visual works for small and one-time uses to individual and small business users would in some cases not even cover the cost of registration.”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, at 18 (Sept. 20, 2018). For example, AMI estimated that if an artist created twenty-six illustrations for a project they could bill their client $4,500, but they would have to pay $1,690 to register these works with the Standard Application, which would account for 37% of the artist's license fee. Letter from Mica Duran, AMI, to Shira Perlmutter, Register of Copyrights, Ex. 1 (July 10, 2023) (on file with Copyright Office).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, at 42 (Sept. 20, 2018)
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Second, the groups contend that individual artists and small businesses do not have the time or resources required to register each work individually.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Many visual artists are self-employed, meaning they are personally responsible for handling every aspect of their business. In addition to creating and delivering works to their clients, they must order supplies, update their marketing materials, pay their bills, manage their accounts, organize their records, and perform countless other tasks on a daily basis.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     According to the Association of Medical Illustrators (“AMI”), “[t]here are not enough hours in the day” and the added burden of registering one work at a time “is simply too much” for many visual artists.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     They also assert that the registration process is too complicated and that many visual artists do not know how to use it.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         AMI Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 1 (Jan. 24, 2022); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 3 (Jan. 22, 2022); Coalition Comment in response to Group Photographs NPRM, at 51 (Jan. 30, 2017); Copyright Alliance Comment in response to Visual Works NOI, at 8 (undated); Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to Visual Works NOI, at 13 (July 20, 2015).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         Coalition Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 3 (Jan. 24, 2022); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 6 (Jan. 11, 2019); AMI Comment in response to Visual Works NOI, at 13 (undated).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         AMI Comment in response to Visual Works NOI, at 13 (undated); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         Coalition Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 3 (Jan. 24, 2022); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 6, 36 (Jan. 11, 2019).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response 2019 Fee Study NPRM, at 12 (Sept. 20, 2018). In response to a survey conducted by the Graphic Artists Guild, 41% of the participants said they do not register their works because “I don't understand how” and another 18% said they do not register because “[t]he form . . . is too difficult.” Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to Visual Works NOI, at 12-13 (July 15, 2015).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. The Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>The Office recognizes the challenges facing individual visual artists and small businesses in registering two-dimensional artwork one work at a time. These challenges may result in many artists not submitting their works for registration. At the same time, registration is a necessary step to enforce their copyrights. Thus, the Office finds there is a legitimate need for a new group registration option for published two-dimensional artwork.</P>
                <P>
                    The Office proposes a new option, to be known as “GR2D.” This option is intended to benefit individual creators and small businesses that otherwise might not use the Standard Application or the Single Application to register their published works. Under the proposed rule, an applicant will be able 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11791"/>
                    to register up to ten published two-dimensional artworks with one filing fee by submitting an online application and uploading a digital deposit copy of each work. Each work must be a single two-dimensional pictorial or graphic work. Three-dimensional works and works containing multiple images will not be eligible for this option.
                </P>
                <P>In all cases, the works must be created by the same author and that author must be the copyright claimant for each work in the group. The works must have been published within a 30-day period, and the applicant must identify the title and publication date for each work. Each of these requirements is discussed below.</P>
                <P>
                    In proposing this new option, the Office acknowledges that visual artists have expressed interest in other accommodations, such as registering published and unpublished works with the same application, and providing flexible methods of paying for registration services, such as tiered pricing, subscription plans, and bulk payment options.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As explained in this document, the Office will take these interests into consideration as part of the ongoing development of the new Enterprise Copyright System (“ECS”).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Coalition Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 21 (Jan. 24, 2022) (advocating for registration option to combine published and unpublished works); Copyright Alliance Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 32 (Jan. 24, 2022) (same); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 16-17 (Jan. 22, 2022) (same); AMI Comment in response to Online Publication NOI, at 8 (Mar. 19, 2020) (same); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         Coalition Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 20, 21 (Jan. 24, 2022) (advocating for alternative pricing schemes); Copyright Alliance Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 3, 32 (Jan. 24, 2022) (same); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 21-22, 27 (Jan. 22, 2022) (same).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Eligibility Requirements</HD>
                <P>This section discusses the eligibility requirements for this new group registration option.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Types of Works That May Be Included</HD>
                <P>
                    To qualify for this option, a work must be a pictorial or graphic work that has been fixed in a two-dimensional form. Representative examples of works that would be eligible for GR2D include paintings, illustrations, sketches, collages, cartoons,
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     character artwork, logos, commercial art,
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     textile designs,
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     as well as representational or abstract artwork.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         This category includes comic strips that are published as one work.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         Commercial art includes many different types of works that are intended to advertise, market, or promote a product, service, or event. Representative examples of works that fit within this category include proposals and pitch documents, advertisements, billboards, posters, brochures, postcards, mailers, and flyers. This category also includes two-dimensional commercial products, such as stickers, stationery, greeting cards, and the like.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         This category includes two-dimensional designs that are woven into or applied to cloth or fabric.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         This category includes works created in a variety of media, such as paint, ink, pencil, as well as digital artwork.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Each work in the group must consist of no more than a single pictorial or graphic work, such as one drawing, one illustration, one comic strip, or one fabric design, and the work must be deposited in one uploaded file. Works comprised of multiple pictorial or graphic works, such as catalogs, coloring books, children's picture books, comic books, calendars, or style guides will not be eligible for this option. Likewise, the Office will not accept GR2D claims including a compilation, a collective work, a database, or a website, as such works contain or are comprised of multiple works of authorship.</P>
                <P>
                    The Office does not see an equivalent need to include three-dimensional pictorial, graphic, or sculptural works under this option. A work that is fixed in a three-dimensional form necessarily requires more time to design than a work that is fixed in two dimensions, and is less likely to be manufactured, packaged, and distributed with a short turn-around time or a rapid publication schedule. During the Office's most recent fee study, the Coalition conducted a survey that supports this conclusion. Artists who typically create three-dimensional works were asked “[o]n the average . . . [h]ow many finished works of art/design do you produce in a year?” 
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     More than 63% of the participants said they produce between one and fifty works per year, which suggests that even the most prolific sculptor may produce less than five finished works per month.
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Moreover, registering a three-dimensional work usually requires multiple deposits showing each side of the work. When an applicant uploads multiple files to the registration system, they are ingested into the registration system in random order, making it difficult to match the files for each work with the corresponding title listed in the application.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         Coalition Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, App. B, at 44 (Oct. 11, 2018). The participants who completed this part of the survey include fine artists, sculptors, jewelry designers, and architects. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at 42.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at 44.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Similarly, this group registration option may not be used to register architectural works or technical drawings, even though these works may be fixed in a two-dimensional form. Current regulations state that “[m]ultiple architectural works may not be registered using one application.” 
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Additionally, claims involving architectural works and technical drawings tend to be complex, so grouping them would impose a significant examination burden on the Office's Visual Arts Division.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         37 CFR 202.11(c)(3).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Likewise, this option may not be used to register multiple works of applied art, such as the design of a useful article or a work of artistic craftsmanship.
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These types of works take more time to examine because the Office must determine if the object shown in the deposit is a work of art that might also serve a useful purpose, or if it contains pictorial or graphic features that can be identified separately from and are capable of existing independently of the object's utilitarian aspects.
                    <SU>34</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The application of such a complex analysis to multiple works submitted at the same time on one application would be cost prohibitive.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         Works of applied art are usually fixed in a three-dimensional form, which would also make them ineligible for this option.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         U.S. Copyright Office, Compendium of U.S. Copyright Office Practices secs. 924, 925 (3d ed. 2021) (“Compendium (Third)”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>If an applicant submits a work that is not eligible for this group registration option, the examiner may remove the title and deposit for that work from the registration record and send a post-registration email to the applicant explaining why the change was made. In cases where an applicant submits two-dimensional identifying material depicting a three-dimensional work of authorship (such as a drawing of a toy or a piece of jewelry), the examiner may register the two-dimensional pictorial or graphic expression and add an annotation confirming that the registration does not cover any three-dimensional authorship that is shown in the deposit. If the applicant wants to subsequently pursue a separate registration for a work that is not eligible for GR2D, it may submit a Single or Standard Application, which will require an additional filing fee and result in a later effective date of registration.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Number of Works That May Be Included</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the proposed rule, applicants will be able to submit up to ten published pictorial or graphic works with each application. The examiner will review each work for copyrightable 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11792"/>
                    authorship, and if the claim is approved, the registration will cover each work on a separate basis. If an applicant submits more than ten works, the examiner may accept the first ten titles listed in the application, remove the additional titles from the registration record, and send a post-registration email notifying the applicant that those works were not included in the registration.
                </P>
                <P>The Office considered a number of factors in setting a proposed limit for this group registration option.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Technical, Financial, and Implementation Considerations</HD>
                <P>As discussed above, the proposed rule is intended to improve the registration process for visual artists as soon as possible by providing a means for registering multiple published works through the current registration system. To minimize development costs and time, the Office intends to create a new application using the technical specifications for the group registration option for unpublished works (“GRUW”) application, an existing application option which can be used to register up to ten unpublished works. The GRUW application contains ten spaces for providing the titles of the works being registered, and technical validations that discourage applicants from entering more than ten titles in the form. Because the GR2D application will be cloned from this application, the same limitation will be incorporated into the technical specifications for the new form.</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed new application for GR2D will reduce the amount of time needed to design, build, and test this application, and limit the diversion of resources from ECS development. It would be cost prohibitive to build an entirely new application solely for the purpose of accepting more than ten published works, particularly given that eCO is a legacy system that will be decommissioned in the near future. More importantly, building a new application from scratch would delay the implementation of this proposal, and divert the limited resources being used to develop the Office's next generation registration system.
                    <SU>35</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         By way of example, it took twenty-two months to develop and release a brand-new application for registering a group of short online literary works and a group of works published on the same album. 
                        <E T="03">Compare</E>
                         83 FR 65612 (Dec. 21, 2018) 
                        <E T="03">and</E>
                         84 FR 22762 (May 20, 2019) 
                        <E T="03">with eCO Updates</E>
                         at 2, 3, U.S. Copyright Office (Oct. 29, 2020; Mar. 26, 2021), 
                        <E T="03">https://www.copyright.gov/eco/updates/eco-updates.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Data From Visual Artists</HD>
                <P>
                    In proposing a limit on the number of works permitted under this option, the Office also considered the data it received from groups that represent visual artists. In 2018, the Coalition conducted a survey that posed the following question: “On the average, how many works would you like to register each year but don't?” 
                    <SU>36</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In response, 35% said they would like to register fewer than twenty-five works per year, 36% said they would like to register between twenty-five and 100 works, and 15% said they would like to register between 100 and 500 works.
                    <SU>37</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In other words, a majority of the people surveyed (71%) expressed interest in registering no more than 100 works each year, which comes to roughly eight works per month.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>36</SU>
                         Coalition Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, App. B, at 19 (Oct. 11, 2018).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>37</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         The survey participants included illustrators, graphic artists, graphic designers, surface or textile designers, package designers, signage and wayfinding designers, exhibit and display designers, muralists, animators, storyboard artists, cartoonists, as well as graphic novelists, web designers, typographers, and calligraphers. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at 9-10.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Office also considered the number of works that visual artists actually produce each year. In 2012, the Graphic Artists Guild conducted a survey indicating that, on average, illustrators and graphic designers produce 57.16 “finished pieces of art/design in a year.” 
                    <SU>38</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Coalition's more recent 2018 survey posed a similar question.
                    <SU>39</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In response, 55% said they produce between one to fifty finished works each year, while almost 42% said they produce between fifty-one to 500 finished works.
                    <SU>40</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>38</SU>
                         Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to 2014 Fee Study NPRM, at 3 (May 14, 2012).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>39</SU>
                         Coalition Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, App. B, at 12 (Oct. 11, 2018) (asking “On the average . . . [h]ow many finished works of art/design do you produce in a year?”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>40</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         These results are in line with the number of people (71%) who said they would like to register between one and 100 works each year. 
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                         at 19.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Graphic Artists Guild explained that “finished pieces” are published works, presumably because the artists distributed an authorized copy of the work to one or more of their clients,
                    <SU>41</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or offered to distribute them to a group of persons for the purpose of further distribution or display.
                    <SU>42</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     If an artist produced up to fifty published works each year, then under the proposed rule, all of them could be registered with five GR2D applications.
                    <SU>43</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This would accommodate most of those artists who responded to the Coalition's survey and the earlier survey conducted by the Graphic Artists Guild.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>41</SU>
                         Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to 2014 Fee Study NPRM, at 3-4 (May 14, 2012). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         17 U.S.C. 101 (stating that publication occurs when copies of a work are distributed “to the public by sale or other transfer of ownership, or by rental, lease, or lending”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>42</SU>
                         Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to 2014 Fee Study NPRM, at 5 (May 14, 2012); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         17 U.S.C. 101 (defining “publication”); Letter from Mica Duran, AMI, to Shira Perlmutter, Register of Copyrights, at 1 (July 10, 2023) (on file with Copyright Office) (noting that medical illustrators often distribute multiple sketch concepts to clients to be considered for further distribution).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>43</SU>
                         As discussed below, the proposed filing fee for GR2D would be $85. Thus, the cost of registering up to fifty works would be $425 per year or roughly $106 per quarter. That comes to $8.50 for each work, which would be an 87% discount on the normal fee for registering one published work for $65 with the Standard Application.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Office recognizes that some visual artists are more prolific than others. The surveys do not identify the total number of artists who produce between fifty-one and 100 or between 100 and 500 finished pieces per year. But as mentioned above, 35% of those surveyed by the Coalition said they would like to register fewer than twenty-five works each year, while 36% said they would like to register between twenty-five and 100 works.
                    <SU>44</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Only 15% said they would like to register between 100 and 500 works per year.
                    <SU>45</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These numbers suggest that more than a third of the artists surveyed (35%) may be able to register all of their published works with three GR2D applications, while another 36% may be able to register all of their published works with ten or fewer GR2D applications.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>44</SU>
                         Coalition Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, App. B, at 19 (Oct. 11, 2018).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>45</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Finally, many stakeholders have noted that photographers are able to register up to 750 works using the group registration option for published photographs (known as “GRPPH”). They have requested that the Office create a similar option for visual artists or allow them to register their works using the GRPPH application.
                    <SU>46</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>46</SU>
                         Coalition Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 14-15, (Jan. 15. 2019); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 30 (Jan. 22, 2022); Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to Online Publication NOI, at 6 (Mar. 19, 2020); AMI Comment in response to Online Publication NOI, at 2 (Mar. 19, 2020); Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 6 (Jan. 15, 2019); Graphic Artists Guild, American Photographic Artists, and American Society for Collective Rights Licensing Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, at 3 (Sept. 21, 2018); Copyright Alliance Comment in response to Group Photographs NPRM, at 2 (Jan. 31, 2017); Coalition Comment in response to Group Photographs NPRM, at 5 (Jan. 30, 2017).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Stakeholders offer two justifications for this request. First, they argue that visual artists should be treated the same as photographers, and that it is unfair to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11793"/>
                    let photographers register many more works with one application.
                    <SU>47</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Second, they argue that the deposit requirements for photographs and other visual art works are the same, so the amount of time needed to examine these works should also be the same.
                    <SU>48</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     After considering these arguments the Office has determined that there are legitimate reasons for differentiating between the number of works that should be permitted under GR2D and GRPPH.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>47</SU>
                         Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 31 (Jan. 11, 2019); Coalition Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 14 (Jan. 15, 2019); Coalition Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, at 35 (Oct. 11, 2018); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, at 20 (Sept. 20, 2018); Letter from Mica Duran, AMI, to Shira Perlmutter, Register of Copyrights, at 3-4 (July 10, 2023) (on file with Copyright Office).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>48</SU>
                         Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 31 (Jan. 11, 2019); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, at 31-32 (Sept. 20, 2018).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    First, photographers are exceptionally prolific creators. As the Office noted during the GRPPH rulemaking, “[a] photographer may take dozens or even hundreds of copyrightable images in a single session and thousands of images over the course of a week, a month, or a year.” 
                    <SU>49</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     While visual artists may produce significant numbers of published works, it is unlikely that even the most prolific would be able to produce as many works as the average photographer. The Coalition's survey supports this hypothesis. Only 14% of the visual artists surveyed said they create between 501 to 1,000 works in a single year,
                    <SU>50</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     while a majority of the photographers surveyed said they produce a comparable number of photos in a single day.
                    <SU>51</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>49</SU>
                         81 FR 86643, 86649.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>50</SU>
                         Coalition Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, App. B, at 13 (Oct. 11, 2018).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>51</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at 32-33.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Second, GRPPH may only be used to register one specific type of work. All of the works in the group must be photographs, all of them must contain photographic authorship, and when the claim is submitted the system automatically adds the term “photographs” to the “author created” field.
                    <SU>52</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Works that contain any other form of authorship are not eligible. As the Office noted when it established the group registration option for unpublished works, “[a]n examiner can more easily review a large set of photographs for copyrightable authorship than a large quantity of . . . other visual works.” 
                    <SU>53</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     When examiners review a GRPPH claim, they look for creative photographic authorship; they do not consider the subject matter of the photo or any other type of authorship that may be shown in the image, such as text or artwork. This review often occurs relatively quickly as photographs submitted for registration generally include some selection, coordination, or arrangement sufficient to meet the minimum level of creativity for copyright described in the Supreme Court's 
                    <E T="03">Feist Publications</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Rural Telephone Service Company.</E>
                    <SU>54</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>52</SU>
                         37 CFR 202.4(h)(1), (i)(1); Compendium (Third) sec. 1114.6(J).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>53</SU>
                         84 FR 3693, 3695 (Feb. 13, 2019).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>54</SU>
                         499 U.S. 340 (1991).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    By contrast, GR2D may be used to register a wide range of pictorial and graphic works. The issues presented and the time needed to complete this examination may vary dramatically depending on whether the applicant is registering a group of logos, a batch of commercial artwork, or a collection of fabric designs. For example, when examining fabric, examiners will look for repeating patterns in the design, and when reviewing a logo, they will evaluate the textual and artistic elements that make up the design as well as the interrelationship between those elements. In some cases, applicants could include different types of pictorial or graphic works within the same GR2D application—such as a group that includes logos, advertisements, and character art—which would further complicate the examination process. As the Coalition acknowledged, a “[o]ne-size-fits-all” approach may not be the most effective means for registering multiple works “if [the] deposits of particular types of visual works require more examination time to determine copyrightability than others.” 
                    <SU>55</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Moreover, the Office has learned from its experience with GRUW that works of visual art often contain borderline or 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     amounts of expression. Examining these works requires careful review, and determinations must be made on a case-by-case basis. It would require a prohibitive amount of time to conduct this level of analysis if dozens of works were included within the same submission for one filing fee.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>55</SU>
                         Coalition Comment in response to Group Photographs NPRM, at 57 (Jan. 30, 2017).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Third, GRPPH may only be used to register photographs that are entirely new; it cannot be used to register derivative works. The Office has explained that it will not accept group registration claims involving “digital editing” or any other form of authorship “other than photographs.” 
                    <SU>56</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For this reason, the GRPPH application does not have a limitation of claim screen where applicants may identify the new material that the author contributed to each photograph or exclude any preexisting material that appears in the images.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>56</SU>
                         81 FR 86643, 86650.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>By comparison, GR2D may be used to register works that are entirely new, as well as derivative works that are based on one or more preexisting works, and the application will include a limitation of claim screen that may be used for this purpose. Indeed, the Office is creating this option in part based on its understanding that many visual artists want to register multiple iterations of the same work. When multiple versions are submitted with the same application or when an applicant submits works that contain overlapping authorship, the examiner must review each work for copyrightable authorship; and if they are published on different dates, the examiner must determine if there are copyrightable differences between each version. This is a time-consuming process that requires significantly more analysis than a claim involving a single work or a group of photographs that are entirely new.</P>
                <P>
                    Finally, the Office must consider the impact this option will have on the registration system. Allowing more than ten works of visual art to be submitted with one application and one filing fee would burden the Office's limited resources and may affect pendency times within the Visual Arts Division. Based on its experience with GRUW, the Office has determined that claims involving up to ten visual artworks require more time to examine than claims involving up to 750 photographs. The correspondence rates for GRUW are higher than the correspondence rates for group photographs,
                    <SU>57</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the average processing times for registering a group of unpublished visual art works is nearly double the processing times for a group of photographs—even though the group registration option for unpublished photographs (known as “GRUPH”) and GRPPH applications may be used to register a significantly larger number of works.
                    <SU>58</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>57</SU>
                         In the Visual Arts Division, the correspondence rate for GRUW claims is 27%, while the correspondence rate for group photograph claims is 19%.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>58</SU>
                         On average, it takes the Office 2.4 months to process a GRUW claim involving a group of unpublished visual art works, and 1.5 months to process a claim involving a group of photographs.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Nonetheless, the Office is committed to creating the best public record possible for a group registration, including pertinent information and an appropriate assessment of copyrightability for each work within 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11794"/>
                    the group. To achieve these goals, the Office must limit the number of works submitted, given current staffing levels, the modest filing fee proposed, and the amount of examination time needed. A limit of ten published works would allow the Office to examine each work for copyrightable authorship and confirm that the legal and formal requirements for registration have been met. Establishing this number within the eCO system will also allow the Office to conduct a targeted study to determine whether the allowable number could be higher in the ECS system, or whether the fee would need to be increased due to the average examination times for this group option.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Title Requirements</HD>
                <P>Applicants will be required to provide a title for each work that is included in the group. The title may consist of words, letters, and/or numbers, as long as it is entered in the application with Arabic numerals and/or Roman letters. However, the Office discourages applicants from stating “untitled,” “no title,” “working title,” or the like, because interested parties typically search for works by title, and it may be difficult to locate a specific pictorial or graphic work unless a recognizable title has been provided.</P>
                <P>
                    As discussed below, applicants will be required to upload an electronic deposit copy of each work. The file name assigned to each work must include the corresponding title that was entered in the application. If the titles and file names do not match, the examiner may remove the mismatched titles and files from the registration record and send a post-registration email to the applicant explaining why the change was made. Establishing efficient titling procedures will prove beneficial in the new ECS system where applicants will have the option of using the file name as the default title for the works they upload, thereby reducing the time it takes to complete a group registration application.
                    <SU>59</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>59</SU>
                         Mandatory file naming conventions are already required for the group registration options for serials, newspapers, newsletters, short online literary works, as well as musical works and sound recordings published on the same album. 37 CFR 202.4(d)(3), (e)(6), (f)(3), (j)(7), (k)(3)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    A title for the group as a whole will be added automatically by the electronic registration system, consisting of the title of the first work listed in the application followed by the phrase “and [NUMBER] other published works” (depending on how many titles are entered in the application).
                    <SU>60</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In this respect, the group title will be similar to the format of the group title for a GRUW registration.
                    <SU>61</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Office will use this title to identify the registration in its online public record.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>60</SU>
                         If the applicant provides a “collection” title in the application (instead of or in addition to providing titles for the individual works) the examiner will remove that term from the registration record before the claim is approved.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>61</SU>
                         82 FR 47415, 47417-18.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Publication Requirements</HD>
                <P>An applicant will be allowed to register a group of two-dimensional artwork only if the works were all first published within a thirty-day period, regardless of whether they were published in a physical or electronic form. The works need not be published within the same calendar month or the same calendar year. For example, a visual artist would be able to register works published anytime between December 15, 2023, and January 14, 2024.</P>
                <P>
                    The Office is proposing a thirty-day period for two reasons. First, a tighter limit protects the quality and utility of the public record. For ease of use, the Office will require applicants to provide only the earliest and most recent publication dates for the works submitted in the group, rather than the exact publication date for each individual work. If the Office extended the period, it would likely require applicants to provide the exact date of publication for each individual work. An indication of only the earliest and most recent publication dates for multiple works published over the course of several months would make it difficult for those who rely on the public record to determine whether the work is eligible for certain remedies for infringement.
                    <SU>62</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>62</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         17 U.S.C. 412.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Second, providing a thirty-day time period for eligible works expedites the creation of an effective GR2D application. The current online registration system is equipped to compare the number of days between two dates, which would validate an application's compliance with the thirty-day requirement. If the Office extended the period to span several months, thus necessitating precise dates of publication for each individual work, the eCo system would not be able to validate for multiple dates of publication. Further, because the eCo system cannot currently accept multiple dates of publication within registration applications, applicants would likely have to submit a separate spreadsheet that includes the title and publication information for each work in the group. Without validations to ensure compliance and a streamlined method for ingesting multiple publication dates, the application process would be less efficient, increasing correspondence and, as a result, processing times.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Subject of Inquiry:</E>
                     The Office acknowledges that a thirty-day limit may be less desirable for certain applicants. Therefore, the Office seeks public comment on whether the thirty-day time period strikes the right balance between the public interest in creating a meaningful record (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     collecting precise publication information for works published over the course of several months) and the relative burden on applicants. Commenters proposing a different time period should address the concerns identified in this document with regard to creating additional burdens on the Office.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The GR2D group registration option may only be used to register published works. It cannot be used to register a group of published and unpublished works in the same claim. The applicant will be responsible for determining if the works have been published, and for identifying the earliest and most recent publication date for the works submitted in the group, along with the country where the works were first published. Applicants are only required to identify the date that the work was published for the first time, generally when the artist first distributes an authorized copy of the work to a member of the public. In particular, the Office will generally accept that a work has been published when a visual artist distributes a copy to a client or other entity and authorizes them to retain, reproduce, redistribute, or display that copy (subject to any licenses or other restrictions that the artist may impose).
                    <SU>63</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The fact that the client may subsequently share the work with its own customers or republish it in some other form is irrelevant. In other words, it is the visual artist who decides if, when, where, and how their work is published (rather than the client or the client's customers or any other party).
                    <FTREF/>
                    <SU>64</SU>
                      
                    <PRTPAGE P="11795"/>
                    As a general rule, the Office will accept the applicant's determinations, unless they are contradicted by the information contained within the registration materials.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>63</SU>
                         For detailed examples that illustrate these principles, see Chapter 1100, Sections 1114.5 and 1114.6(G) of the 
                        <E T="03">Compendium of U.S. Copyright Office Practices. See also</E>
                         Response of the Register of Copyrights to Request Pursuant to 17 U.S.C. 411(b)(2), Lisa Brunson v. 
                        <E T="03">David Cook dba Integrity Music, Capitol CMG, Inc., No. 3:20-cv-01056 (M.D. Tenn. Jan. 29, 2024) (discussing the publication status of a work that was distributed to various social media platforms), https://www.copyright.gov/rulings-filings/411/Lisa-Brunson-v-David-Cook-dba-Integrity-Music-Capitol-CMG-Inc-No-320-cv-01056-MD-Tenn.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>64</SU>
                         To obtain the optimal statutory protection, the Office encourages visual artists to register their works before they are published. Stakeholders have stated that visual artists often produce preliminary concepts, drafts, sketches, and layouts as part of 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        their iterative creative process, and may send multiple drafts to their clients for review and approval. While the client may receive a license to use the finished design, the artist generally retains the copyright in their initial drafts. In some cases, the client may use these drafts without obtaining an appropriate license for this material. Visual artists can protect against this risk by timely registering their drafts with the GRUW application (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         as a group of unpublished works) before sending an authorized copy of the works to the client or any other party.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Office recognizes that many visual artists would like to register all the works they create for the same client or the same project and would prefer to submit all of their works with the same application, regardless of whether they are published or unpublished.
                    <SU>65</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Unfortunately, this is not possible given the technical constraints of the current registration system.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>65</SU>
                         AMI Comment in response to Online Publication NOI, at 8 (Mar. 19, 2020); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 28 (Jan. 11, 2019); Letter from Mica Duran, AMI, to Shira Perlmutter, Register of Copyrights, at 4 (July 10, 2023) (on file with Copyright Office).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The statute states that a registration application must identify, “if the work has been published, the date and nation of its first publication.” 
                    <SU>66</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These requirements are embedded in both the eCO system and the Office's internal processes. For example, when the Office issues a group registration, the prefix assigned to the registration number begins with the letters VA if the work is published or the letters VAU if the work is unpublished. When the Office registers a group of published works, the certificate and the public record include the date and nation of publication that was provided in the application. When the Office registers a group of unpublished works, this information does not appear in the record. If applicants were allowed to combine published and unpublished works in the same application, the registration number would be misleading. And at the present time, the Office does not have the ability to issue a certificate or a public record that would clearly delineate the published works from the works that have not been published yet. However, the Office will take these interests into account when it begins to develop the requirements for the group registration features of its next-generation registration system, and will consider the feasibility of allowing published and unpublished works to be registered with the same application when the group applications are migrated into this system.
                    <SU>67</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>66</SU>
                         17 U.S.C. 409(8).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>67</SU>
                         The Copyright Alliance, the Coalition, and AMI have acknowledged that applicants would still be required to separately identify each published and unpublished work and provide a month, day, and year of publication for each published work. 83 FR 2542, 2545 (Jan. 18, 2018); Letter from Mica Duran, AMI, to Shira Perlmutter, Register of Copyrights, at 4 (July 10, 2023) (on file with Copyright Office).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Author and Claimant Requirements</HD>
                <P>Under the proposed rule, all the works must be created by the same author. Applicants will not be allowed to submit groups of works created by different authors. Likewise, the Office will not accept applications claiming that two or more authors jointly created each work in the group. The Office conducted an analysis of the claims submitted on the Standard and GRUW applications that were approved for registration with a claim in “2D artwork” and found that in the vast majority of cases just one author is named in the application. The Office therefore does not see a compelling need to allow joint authorship claims within this group registration option. The Office welcomes comment on this proposed limitation.</P>
                <P>
                    In all cases, the claim will be limited to “2D artwork” and that term will be added automatically to the application by the electronic registration system. Applicants will not be allowed to assert claims in other forms of authorship, such as “text,” “sculpture,” “jewelry design,” “3D artwork,” or “audiovisual material.” Likewise, applicants will not be able to add other forms of authorship to the claim during the examination process or with a supplementary registration.
                    <SU>68</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>68</SU>
                         For example, if an applicant submits an animated image, the registration will cover the “two-dimensional artwork” shown in the moving image. In this situation, the examiner may add an annotation explaining that the Office did not examine the audiovisual elements of the work.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The author must also be named as the copyright claimant, even if a transfer of ownership for the copyright in each work has occurred.
                    <SU>69</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For instance, if Mary Watson created ten medical illustrations and transferred all of her rights to the publisher of a medical textbook, Mary would have to be named as the claimant for each illustration, even though the publisher owns the copyrights.
                    <SU>70</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This is consistent with the basic principle that an author may always be named as the copyright claimant, even if they do not own any of the exclusive rights when the claim is submitted.
                    <SU>71</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     It also accounts for the majority of claims approved by the Visual Arts Division within the past five years. The Office found that fewer than 12% of the claims approved by the Visual Arts Division during this period contained a statement indicating that the author had transferred the copyright to another party.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>69</SU>
                         If the author transferred the copyright to another person or entity, the copyright owner may add that information to the public record by recording the assignment, exclusive license, bill of sale, or other document that identifies the current owner(s) of each work. This may be done quickly and efficiently through the Office's new electronic recordation system. 
                        <E T="03">See Recordation System,</E>
                         U.S. Copyright Office, 
                        <E T="03">https://copyright.gov/recordation/pilot/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>70</SU>
                         The proposed rule explains that the claim may be submitted by any of the parties listed in sec. 202.3(c)(1) of regulations, including the author of the works (such as Mary Watson), the owner of one or more of the exclusive rights in the works (such as the publisher of the textbook), or a duly authorized agent of one or more of these parties (such as the agents who represent Mary and/or the publisher).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>71</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         37 CFR 202.3(a)(3)(i); Compendium (Third) sec. 619.7.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Office has taken a similar approach with the group registration option for unpublished works.
                    <SU>72</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Based on this experience, the Office expects this same approach will simplify the examination process by allowing examiners to focus on the copyrightability of each work. If an applicant erroneously names a third party as the author/claimant on a GR2D application—instead of naming the apparent author of the work—the Office may accept that assertion at face value and approve the claim as is. In such cases, the examiner may send a post-registration email notifying the applicant that the author/claimant information seems questionable and explaining that if the wrong party was named as the author/claimant, the applicant may correct the mistake with a supplementary registration (which will require a separate application and an additional filing fee).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>72</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         37 CFR 202.4(c)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Works Made for Hire</HD>
                <P>
                    As discussed above, this group registration option is intended for visual artists who routinely create and publish a large volume of works, who do not have the time or resources to register their works with the Office. Corporate entities that employ in-house designers, or entities that hire independent contractors to produce works on their behalf, do not face the same challenges as small creators. In most cases, these entities can afford to pay the normal filing fee and do not need special incentives to participate in the registration process. For this reason, the Office considered limiting the proposed option to works created by individual authors.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11796"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    However, stakeholders have informed the Office that many authors are small business owners who face similar economic challenges and resource limitations.
                    <SU>73</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     While the Office may be able to offer different tiers of services for different types of creators as part of its next-generation registration system, it does not have a means of distinguishing a small business from a large corporate entity within the context of the eCO system.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>73</SU>
                         AMI Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 6 (Jan. 24. 2022); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 22-23 (Jan. 22. 2022); Coalition Comment in response to Group Photographs NPRM, at 17 (Jan. 30, 2017); Copyright Alliance Comment in response to Visual Works NOI, at 2 (undated); Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to Visual Works NOI, at 22 (July 20, 2015).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Accordingly, for the time being, the proposed rule will allow two-dimensional pictorial or graphic works to be registered by any applicant as works made for hire. To do so, all of the works in the group must be identified as works made for hire, and the employer or the party that ordered or commissioned the works, must be named as the author/claimant. Applicants will not be able to register as a group works created by an individual author together with works created pursuant to a work made for hire agreement. For example, if a small business commissioned a set of fabric designs through a work made for hire agreement and acquired another set of designs through an assignment of copyright from an individual author, the applicant would need to divide those designs into two groups and submit a separate GR2D application for each group—one with the small business named as the author/claimant and the work made for hire question answered “yes,” and the other with the individual author named as the author/claimant with the question answered “no.”</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Application Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    As explained above, the proposed rule would rely on an existing group registration application form using the current registration system to avoid delaying the creation of a new group option for visual artists. The Office will revise the onscreen instructions so that the modified GR2D application may be used for claims involving published two-dimensional artwork. Specific instructions on how to complete the new application will be provided within the application itself and through the Office's traditional channels, including its website, Circulars, and/or Chapter 1100 of the 
                    <E T="03">Compendium of U.S. Copyright Office Practices.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Under the proposed rule, GR2D claims may not be submitted on a paper application.
                    <SU>74</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     When the Office has established new group registration options or updated its regulations governing existing options, it has consistently required these claims to be filed electronically,
                    <SU>75</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the rationale provided in those proceedings applies equally here.
                    <SU>76</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As is the case with other group registration options, the proposed rule will allow the Office to waive this online filing requirement in exceptional cases.
                    <SU>77</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>74</SU>
                         Likewise, the online-filing requirement will apply to the supplementary registration procedure, which may be used to correct or amplify the information in an existing registration. The Office has consistently stated that if it moves “registrations for other classes of works into the electronic registration system,” the procedure for correcting or amplifying those registrations will “be subject to this same [online filing] requirement.” 81 FR 86656, 86658 (Dec. 1, 2016). Thus, if an applicant needs to amend a registration for a group of two-dimensional artwork, that request will need to be submitted through the electronic registration system. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         37 CFR 202.6(e)(1). To minimize development costs, the Office does not plan to create a separate application form for this purpose. Instead, applicants will use the existing form for seeking a supplementary registration, and they will need to contact the Office of Registration Policy &amp; Practice to obtain instructions on how to complete this form.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>75</SU>
                         37 CFR 202.4(c)(8), (d)(2), (e)(5), (f)(2), (g)(6), (h)(8), (i)(8), (j)(8), (k)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>76</SU>
                         81 FR 86643; 82 FR 47415, 47419; 82 FR 52224, 52227 (Nov. 13, 2017); 83 FR 65612, 65615; 84 FR 22762, 22766.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>77</SU>
                         37 CFR 202.4(c)(10), (d)(4), (f)(4), (g)(9), (h)(11), (i)(11), (j)(9), (k)(4).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Deposit Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the proposed rule, applicants will be required to submit one complete copy of each work in the group. A digital copy of each work must be uploaded to the electronic registration system, regardless of whether the work was published in a digital or physical form. Because the vast majority of claims received by the Visual Arts Division are submitted with electronic deposits, this requirement should not have an adverse impact on most applicants.
                    <SU>78</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>78</SU>
                         As a general rule, the Office will not accept physical copies, even if the works were published in a physical form. As is the case with other group registration options, the proposed rule will allow the Office to grant special relief from the deposit requirement in exceptional cases. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         37 CFR 202.20(d)(1)(iii), (iv).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Office will accept a copy that shows each work on its own, disassociated from the context where it was first published. For example, if the author created five graphic designs and published those designs on her website, the applicant may upload five files that each contain a complete copy of each work, appearing entirely on its own (instead of submitting a screenshot showing how each design appeared on the website where it was first published). Likewise, if the works were published in a physical form, applicants will not be expected to submit a copy of the best edition of each work. For instance, if the author created ten medical illustrations that were first published in a textbook, the applicant should upload a complete copy of each illustration but should not submit a physical copy of the book itself.</P>
                <P>
                    To qualify for this group registration option, applicants will need to comply with certain technical requirements. First, each work must be contained in a separate electronic file, each file must be uploaded to the electronic registration system in one of the acceptable file formats listed on the Office's website, and the size of each file must not exceed 500 megabytes.
                    <SU>79</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     If necessary, applicants may save the files in a .zip folder and upload it to the system, provided that all of the files within the folder are acceptable file types.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>79</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See eCO Acceptable File Types,</E>
                         U.S. Copyright Office, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.copyright.gov/eco/help-file-types.html.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Second, each file must be submitted in an orderly manner. A submission file will be considered “orderly” if it contains no more than one pictorial or graphic work, if the title of that work is included in the file name, and if the file name can be matched to the corresponding title that is listed in the application. If an applicant submits a file that contains multiple pieces of artwork or if the titles and file names do not match each other, the examiner may remove that file from the record and send the applicant a post-registration email explaining that those works were not included in the registration.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Filing Fee</HD>
                <P>
                    The filing fee for registering a group of two-dimensional artworks will be $85, the amount the Office currently charges for registering a group of unpublished works.
                    <SU>80</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Office believes it is reasonable to charge the same fee based on the similarity in the number of works that may be registered and the expected workflow for examining, indexing, and cataloging these claims. Once the proposed rule has been implemented, the Office will monitor both the cost and the demand for this service to determine if future fee adjustments are warranted. This represents a substantial cost saving for visual artists. For example, if an artist created twenty-six illustrations and billed her client $4500 for this project, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11797"/>
                    she would be able to register all of her works for $255—significantly less than the $1170 to $1690 she normally would pay to register each individual work with the Single or Standard Applications.
                    <SU>81</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>80</SU>
                         37 CFR 201.3(c)(10).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>81</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Letter from Mica Duran, AMI, to Shira Perlmutter, Register of Copyrights, Ex. 1 (July 10, 2023) (on file with Copyright Office). 1 Coalition Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, App. B, at 11 (Oct. 11, 2018).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Office recognizes that visual artists are interested in tiered fee structures, subscription plans, and bulk registration options.
                    <SU>82</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Under a tiered-fee approach, the Office could charge a base fee for registering an individual work, and an incrementally higher fee for each additional work added to the application. Alternatively, it could charge a flat rate that would let visual artists register a specific number of works over a designated period of time. The Office previously sought public comment on these issues,
                    <SU>83</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     but as explained above, it will not be able to offer alternate fee structures for high volume creators until after the ECS system is fully operational and has been released to the public.
                    <SU>84</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>82</SU>
                         Coalition Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 21 (Jan 24. 2022); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 21-22 (Jan. 22, 2022); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 8 (Jan. 11, 2019); Coalition Comment in response to Group Photographs NPRM, at 17 (Jan. 30, 2017); Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to Visual Works NOI, at 9 (July 20, 2015); Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to 2014 Fee Study NPRM, at 5 (May 14, 2012).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>83</SU>
                         83 FR 52336, 52339.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>84</SU>
                         83 FR 2542, 2545.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. The Scope of a Group Registration</HD>
                <P>The Office will review each work in the group to determine if it contains a sufficient amount of original pictorial or graphic authorship. If the legal and formal requirements have been met, the examiner will register the claim, and the certificate and public record will contain an annotation indicating that the works were registered in accordance with those requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    Consistent with the regulations governing other group registration options,
                    <SU>85</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the proposed rule will cover each pictorial or graphic work in the group, and each piece of artwork will be considered to be registered as a separate work. Thus, if any of the works are subsequently infringed, the copyright owner should be entitled to seek a separate award of statutory damages for each individual work, and the group as a whole should not be considered a compilation or a collective work for purposes of sections 101, 103(b), or 504(c)(1) of the Copyright Act.
                    <SU>86</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     To that end, the proposed rule confirms that the group itself is merely an administrative classification created solely for the purpose of registering multiple pictorial or graphic works with a single application and filing fee.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>85</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         37 CFR 202.4(r) (specifying the scope of a registration for a group of unpublished works, contributions to periodicals, photographs, or works published on the same album).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>86</SU>
                         Several stakeholders have expressed support for this approach. Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Deferred Registration Examination Study NOI, at 28 (Jan. 22, 2022); AMI Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 4 (Jan. 15, 2019); Shaftel &amp; Schmelzer Comment in response to Registration Modernization NOI, at 30 (Jan. 11, 2019); AMI Comment in response to 2019 Fee Study NPRM, at 3-4 (Sept. 18, 2018); Graphic Artists Guild Comment in response to Visual Works NOI, at 13-14 (July 20, 2015).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Conclusion</HD>
                <P>The proposed rule is intended to facilitate broader participation in the registration system by establishing a new group registration option for individual artists and small businesses that publish two-dimensional pictorial or graphic works. The Office invites comment on this proposal.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                    <CFR>37 CFR Part 201</CFR>
                    <P>Copyright, General provisions.</P>
                    <CFR>37 CFR Part 202</CFR>
                    <P>Copyright, Copyright claims, preregistration and registration.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Regulations</HD>
                <P>For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Copyright Office proposes amending 37 CFR parts 201 and 202 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 201—GENERAL PROVISIONS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 201 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 17 U.S.C. 702.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>Section 201.10 also issued under 17 U.S.C. 304.</P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <AMDPAR>2. In § 201.3:</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>a. Revise paragraph (c)(10);</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>b. Redesignate paragraphs (c)(12) through (29) as (c)(13) through (30), respectively; and</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>c. Add a reserved paragraph (c)(12).</AMDPAR>
                <P>The revision reads as follows:</P>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 201.3 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Fees for registration, recordation, and related services, special services, and services performed by the Licensing Section and the Copyright Claims Board.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(c) * * *</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L1,i1" CDEF="s25,9">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 1 to Paragraph (
                            <E T="01">c</E>
                            )
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Registration, recordation, and 
                                <LI>related services</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Fees
                                <LI>($)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="28">*    *    *    *    *</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">(10) Registration of a claim in a group of unpublished works or a claim in a group of two-dimensional artwork</ENT>
                            <ENT>85</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="28">*    *    *    *    *</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 202—PREREGISTRATION AND REGISTRATION OF CLAIMS TO COPYRIGHT</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>3. The authority citation for part 202 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>17 U.S.C. 408(f), 702.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>4. Amend § 202.4 by:</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>a. Adding paragraph (l).</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>b. In paragraph (r), by removing “(k), or” and adding in its place “(k), (l), or”.</AMDPAR>
                <P>The addition and revision read as follows:</P>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 202.4 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Group registration.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        (l) 
                        <E T="03">Group registration of two-dimensional artwork.</E>
                         Pursuant to the authority granted by 17 U.S.C. 408(c)(2), the Register of Copyrights has determined that a group of two-dimensional artwork may be registered in Class VA with one application, the required deposit, and the filing fee required by § 201.3(c) if the following conditions are met:
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) All the works in the group must be two-dimensional pictorial or graphic works, and each work must be comprised of no more than one pictorial or graphic work. The group may include up to ten works, and the application must specify the total number of works that are included in the group. The group may not include any three-dimensional pictorial, graphic, or sculptural works, any architectural works, technical drawings, or works of applied art, any works comprised of multiple pictorial or graphic works, including compilations, collective works, databases, or websites. Claims in any form of authorship other than “2D artwork” or claims in the selection, coordination, or arrangement of the group as a whole will not be permitted on the application.</P>
                    <P>(2) The applicant must provide a title for each work in the group.</P>
                    <P>
                        (3) All the works must be created by the same author, and the author must be named as the copyright claimant for each work in the group. The group may not include any works created by more 
                        <PRTPAGE P="11798"/>
                        than one author. The works may be registered as works made for hire if they are identified in the application as such.
                    </P>
                    <P>(4) All the works must be published within a thirty-day period, and the application must identify the date of publication for each work.</P>
                    <P>(5) The applicant must complete and submit the online application designated for a group of two-dimensional artwork. The application may be submitted by any of the parties listed in § 202.3(c)(1).</P>
                    <P>(6) The applicant must submit one complete copy of each work. The works must be assembled in an orderly form with each work contained in a separate electronic file. The file name for each work must match the title as submitted on the application. All of the works must be submitted in one of the electronic formats approved by the Office, and they must be uploaded to the electronic registration system. The file size for each uploaded file must not exceed 500 megabytes; the files may be compressed to comply with this requirement.</P>
                    <P>(7) In an exceptional case, the Copyright Office may waive the online filing requirement set forth in paragraph (l)(5) of this section or may grant special relief from the deposit requirement under § 202.20(d) of this chapter, subject to such conditions as the Associate Register of Copyrights and Director of the Office of Registration Policy and Practice may impose on the applicant.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 202.6 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>5. In § 202.6, amend paragraph (e)(2) by removing “or a group of works published on the same album registered under § 202.4(k),” and adding in its place “a group of works published on the same album registered under § 202.4(k), or a group of two-dimensional artwork under § 202.4(l),”.</AMDPAR>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Suzanne Wilson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>General Counsel and Associate Register of Copyrights.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03063 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 1410-30-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Administration for Children and Families</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>45 CFR Part 1336</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Assistance Listing Numbers: 93.581, 93.587, 93.612]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice for Public Comment on Administration for Native Americans' Program Policies and Procedures</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Administration for Native Americans, Administration for Children and Families, Department of Health and Human Services.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for public comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Pursuant to section 814 of the Native American Programs Act of 1974 (NAPA), as amended, the Administration for Native Americans (ANA) is required to provide members of the public an opportunity to comment on proposed changes in interpretive rules and general statements of policy and to give notice of the proposed changes no less than 30 days before such changes become effective. In accordance with notice requirements of NAPA, ANA herein describes proposed interpretive rules and general statements of policy that relate to ANA's Notices of Funding Opportunities (NOFOs) in fiscal year (FY) 2024. Changes to FY NOFOs will be based on the previously published programs: Environmental Regulatory Enhancement (ERE), HHS-2021-ACF-ANA-NR-1907; Native American Language Preservation and Maintenance-Esther Martinez Immersion (EMI), HHS-2021-ACF-ANA-NB-1958; Native American Language Preservation and Maintenance (P&amp;M), HHS-2021-ACF-ANA-NL-1924; Social and Economic Development Strategies (SEDS), HHS-2021-ACF-ANA-NA-1906; Social and Economic Development Strategies-Alaska (SEDS-AK), HHS-2021-ACF-ANA-NK-1902.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are due by March 18, 2024. If ANA does not receive any significant comments within the 30-day comment period, ANA will proceed with the proposed changes in the respective published NOFOs. The NOFOs will serve as the final notice of these proposed changes.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments may be submitted to: Carmelia Strickland, Director of Program Operations, Administration for Native Americans, 330 C Street, SW, Washington, DC 20201 or via email to: 
                        <E T="03">ANAComments@acf.hhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Carmelia Strickland, Director, Division of Program Operations, Administration for Native Americans, 330 C Street SW, Washington, DC 20201; Telephone: (877) 922-9262; Email: 
                        <E T="03">ANAComments@acf.hhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Section 814 of NAPA, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2992b-1), incorporates provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act that require ANA to provide notice of its proposed interpretive rules and statements of policy and to seek public comment on such proposals. This notice serves to fulfill the statutory notice and public comment requirement. ANA voluntarily includes rules of practice and procedures in this notice to be transparent. The proposed interpretive rules, statements of policy, and rules of ANA practice and procedure reflected in clarifications, modifications, and new text will appear in the five FY 2024 NOFOs: SEDS—HHS-2024-ACF-ANA-NK-0050; SEDS-AK—HHS-2024-ACF-ANA-NA-0051; ERE—HHS-2024-ACF-ANA-NR-0061; P&amp;M—HHS-2024-ACF-ANA-NL-0059; EMI—HHS-2024-ACF-ANA-NB-0054.</P>
                <P>
                    A. 
                    <E T="03">Interpretive rules, statements of policy, procedures, and practice.</E>
                     The proposals in this section reflect ANA's proposed changes in rules, policy, or procedure that will take effect in the FY 2024 NOFOs.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">1. Fully-Funding Awards</HD>
                <P>
                    ANA regulations state that awards will “
                    <E T="03">generally</E>
                     . . . be made available for a one-year budget period and subsequent non-competing continuation awards with the same project period will also be for one year”. 45 CFR 1336.32 (emphasis added). In accordance with the regulation, ANA awards are currently awarded in 12-month increments and recipients with multi-year awards must submit a non-competitive continuation application to receive funding for the next budget period. In addition, if a recipient is unable to complete all activities within a budget period, they must request approval of a carryover budget amendment to use the funds from a previous budget period. In FY 2024, ANA will fully fund all competitive awards for the programs SEDS, ERE, P&amp;M, and SEDS for Alaska for up to 36 months. This will promote self-governance and self-determination of tribes, Alaska Natives, and other Native American organizations; reduce the administrative burden of recipients by not requiring annual non-competing continuation applications for multi-year projects; and reduce the need for post-
                    <PRTPAGE P="11799"/>
                    award amendments such as carryover budget requests. In addition, this will reduce administrative burden for ANA and Office of Grants Management staff and allow more time to support recipients. ANA will consider amending its regulations to fully fund competitive awards instead of incrementally fund awards in future award cycles. Applicants should be aware that fully funding awards in FY 2024 for the entire project period will result in fewer awards in this cycle. However, the number of non-competing continuations in future years will decline, leaving more annual appropriations funding available for new, fully funded awards.
                </P>
                <P>The EMI program's authorizing statute allows for a 5-year or 60-month project period. ANA will fully fund EMI projects for the first 36 months with a 36-month budget period. EMI awards with a project period of 48 or 60-months will need to submit a non-competing continuation application for the remaining budget period(s), if applicable. This will mitigate financial risk and allow ANA to fund more projects with annual appropriations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">2. Modify Policy for ANA Disqualification Factor for “Assurance of Representation on Board of Directors”, Also Known as “Assurance”</HD>
                <P>ANA has a long-standing requirement that all applicants, other than tribes and Alaska Native village governments, include documentation in the application that identifies Board members by name and their affiliation to the communities that ANA serves. This policy ensures that organizations applying for an ANA award have a majority of the members on its governing board that have a personal affiliation or relationship to federally or state recognized tribes, have a cultural relationship with a Native community, or are considered Native American as defined by ANA regulations and Native American Pacific Islanders. Without this assurance, an application is disqualified from competing. ANA will modify this policy by exempting state recognized tribes from the Assurance disqualification factor. In addition, the current policy requires applicants from public agencies serving Native people from Guam, American Samoa, or the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands to submit the Assurance documentation. The revised policy will exempt public government agencies within the Pacific territories from this disqualification factor. Schools and universities that are governed by a board independent from their respective territorial governments remain subject to the Assurance requirements. Over the years, ANA has disqualified applications from state-recognized tribes and public governmental agencies in the territories because they did not include the Assurance documentation in the application. The policy modification will no longer require state-recognized tribes and public governmental agencies in Guam, American Samoa, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands to submit the Assurance documentation requirement. ANA's intent is to disqualify fewer applications. Disqualified applications are considered non-responsive and the application is not included in the merit review or funded.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">3. Change Reference in ANA Policies That Reference the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance (CFDA) to “Assistance Listings”</HD>
                <P>
                    The name for the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance (CFDA) changed to Assistance Listings on 
                    <E T="03">www.SAM.gov.</E>
                     ANA has several long-standing administrative policies and one disqualification factor included in all five NOFOs that include references to the CFDA. The administrative policies are known as the “Limitation on the Number of Award Under a Single CFDA Number” and “Limitation on the Number of Awards Based on Two Consecutively Funding Projects” with the same CFDA Number. The disqualification factor is known as the “Only One Active Award Per CFDA”. An eligible entity can have no more than one active award per CFDA number for an ANA program at any given time. This policy disqualifies any applicant that has an active ANA award with the same CFDA number that will continue beyond the start date of a possible new award to not apply for a new award. The policies regarding the limitation of awards per CFDA number ensures that ANA funding can reach other organizations that do not have an ANA award. The CFDA-related policies help to preserve resources and maximize the reach of ANA's limited funding by precluding the review of applications that would be ineligible for funding based on ANA's administrative policies. The policies are not changing; however, due to the government's name change of the CFDA to Assistance Listings, ANA is updating the related policy names in the NOFOs.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">4. SEDS NOFO Specific Changes</HD>
                <P>ANA intends to fully fund awards upfront starting in FY24 and adjust the annual awards ceiling from $400,000 to $300,000 resulting, for example, total funding of $900,000 per grantee for a project period of 36 months. This change will allow ANA to fund additional projects with its annual appropriations, support management of fully funded projects, make funding more equitable across ANA's programs and positively impact more Native communities and organizations.</P>
                <P>Since 2020, the SEDS NOFO set out bonus points in the evaluation criteria for projects that address Native American community priority areas such as veterans, emergency preparedness, and Missing and Murdered Indigenous People. Since 2021, the SEDS NOFO provided bonus points in the evaluation criteria for certain types of economic development projects that were mandated by the Indian Community Economic Enhancement Act of 2020. In this NOFO ANA intends to continue to fund projects that promote social and economic development; however, the SEDS NOFO will no longer include bonus points. This change will allow all types of proposed community-based projects in the SEDS competition to receive equal consideration while also allowing applicants to choose their own priorities that best meet the needs of their community.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">SEDS-AK NOFO Specific Changes</HD>
                <P>Since 2020, the SEDS-AK NOFO allowed reviewers to add bonus points in the evaluation criteria for applications that documented that the applicant organization has never received a past award from ANA. Since 2021, the SEDS-AK NOFO provided bonus points in the evaluation criteria for certain types of economic development projects that were mandated by the Indian Community Economic Enhancement Act of 2020. In this NOFO ANA intends to continue to fund projects that promote social and economic development; however, the SEDS-AK NOFO will no longer include bonus points. This change will allow all proposed community-based projects in the SEDS-AK competition to receive equal consideration while also allowing applicants to choose their own priorities that best meet the needs of their community.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">5. Changes to Required Application Elements</HD>
                <P>
                    ANA has received applicant feedback for many years that the NOFOs are burdensome, too long, and difficult to understand. For FY24, HHS announced a Simpler NOFO pilot project to make NOFOs easier to understand and navigate as part of its efforts to increase equity and inclusion for underserved and marginalized communities. All five ANA NOFOs were selected to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11800"/>
                    participate in the Simpler NOFO project. Therefore, the application requirements and evaluation criteria will change in FY24 to lessen the burden and make it easier to read, understand, and write an application. The ANA Project Framework, used in NOFOs from FY 2018-2023, will no longer be used, although some elements will remain. The required elements for an ANA application across all five NOFOs that will be evaluated will include: Project Narrative (for 75 points) to include the Current Community Condition (5 points), Project Goal (7 points), Objectives (8 points), Project Strategy and Implementation Plan (15 points), Community Based Strategy (12 points), Population to be Served (7 points), Outcomes (6 points), Objective Work Plan (15 points). The Organizational Capacity (total of 15 points) includes a Staffing Plan (5 points), Data Management Plan (3 points), Partnerships and Consultants (2 points), and Oversight Plan (5 points). The Line-Item Budget and Budget Narrative will be combined for a total of 10 points. A total of 100 points will be available for each NOFO. As mentioned earlier, no bonus points will be provided for any NOFO.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">6. Reduction in Application Page Limits</HD>
                <P>ANA's previous application total page limit was 150 pages, excluding Standard Forms such as the SF-424, SF-424A, and other OMB-approved forms including ANA's Objective Work Plan. Applicant feedback informed ANA that 150 pages is too much. While ANA limits rather than requires 150 pages, applicants sometimes feel that it is a requirement to provide 150 pages to have a competitive application. Therefore, ANA will reduce the total page limit from 150 to 100 pages to reduce the burden to apply for ANA funding. To accommodate the lower page limit, business plans will no longer be required at the time of application submission. However, if a proposed project is subject to a business plan, ANA staff will request an applicant to provide a business plan during the Internal Review of Proposed Projects process of finalizing and negotiating grant awards.</P>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Statutory Authority:</HD>
                    <P>Sections 803 and 814 of the Native American Programs Act of 1974 (NAPA), as amended (42 U.S.C. 2291b; 2992b-1).</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Patrice H. Kunesh,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Commissioner, Administration for Native Americans.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03160 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4184-34-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Defense Acquisition Regulations System</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>48 CFR Parts 212, 215, 225, and 252</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket DARS-2024-0002]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0750-AL64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement: Assuring Integrity of Overseas Fuel Supplies (DFARS Case 2022-D013)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Defense Acquisition Regulations System, Department of Defense (DoD).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>DoD is proposing to amend the Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) to implement a section of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2022 that requires offerors to certify that they will not provide fuel from a prohibited source and that they will comply with certain export control and anticorruption regulations and statutes for contracts awarded for the acquisition of fuel in support of overseas contingency operations.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on the proposed rule should be submitted in writing to the address shown below on or before April 15, 2024, to be considered in the formation of a final rule.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments identified by DFARS Case 2022-D013, using either of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        ○ 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Search for DFARS Case 2022-D013. Select “Comment” and follow the instructions to submit a comment. Please include “DFARS Case 2022-D013” on any attached documents.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        ○ 
                        <E T="03">Email: osd.dfars@mail.mil.</E>
                         Include DFARS Case 2022-D013 in the subject line of the message.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Comments received generally will be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal information provided. To confirm receipt of your comment(s), please check 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         approximately two to three days after submission to verify posting.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Mr. Jon Snyder, telephone 703-945-5341.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>DoD is proposing to revise the DFARS to implement section 843 of the National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) for Fiscal Year (FY) 2022 (Pub. L. 117-81). Section 843 requires offerors to certify that fuel to be provided for a contract in support of an overseas contingency operation is not sourced from a prohibited nation or region and to furnish such records as are necessary to verify their compliance with applicable export control and anticorruption regulations and statutes. Section 843 requires contracting officers, when conducting a source selection for such contracts, to consider using tradeoff processes and certain evaluation factors. If the contracting officer does not consider a tradeoff process prior to issuing the solicitation, the contracting officer is required to justify in writing why a tradeoff process was not considered. Section 843 also requires the contracting officer to ensure, prior to contract award, that the offeror is not disqualified based upon an unsupported denial of access to a facility or equipment by the host nation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Discussion and Analysis</HD>
                <P>DoD proposes to add to the DFARS a new section 225.70WW, Restriction on acquisition of fuel for overseas contingency operations. Section 225.70WW provides the scope, prohibition, and procedures for contracting officers to use for the acquisition of fuel that is for overseas contingency operations and is expected to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold. This proposed rule requires that fuel is not sourced from a nation or region prohibited from selling petroleum to the United States. The proposed rule allows contracting officers to request records from the apparent successful offeror to verify compliance with certain regulations and statutes when the head of the contracting activity determines in writing that it is necessary. In addition, the proposed rule precludes contracting officers from disqualifying an offeror based on an unsupported denial of access to a facility or equipment by a host-nation government.</P>
                <P>This proposed rule includes a new section 215.101-71, Tradeoff process when acquiring fuel for overseas contingency operations, which requires contracting officers to consider using a tradeoff process during a source selection. When using a tradeoff process, contracting officers are required to consider the use of certain evaluation factors. This proposed rule also provides procedures for a contracting officer to justify when a tradeoff process is not considered.</P>
                <P>
                    A new solicitation provision is proposed at DFARS 252.225-70XX, Restriction on Acquisition of Fuel for Overseas Contingency Operations, for 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11801"/>
                    use in solicitations expected to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold, including solicitations using FAR part 12 procedures for the acquisition of commercial products, including commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) items, and commercial services, for the procurement of fuel for overseas contingency operations. DFARS 252.225-70XX requires an offeror to certify that the fuel, in whole or in part, or derivatives of such fuel, to be provided under the resulting contract will not be sourced from a nation or region prohibited from selling petroleum to the United States. This proposed provision requires the apparent successful offeror to furnish records verifying compliance upon contracting officer request. The provision also requires an offeror, prior to award, to promptly report to the contracting officer any instance of unsupported denial of access to a facility or equipment by a host nation government that may prevent it from complying with the terms and conditions of the solicitation.
                </P>
                <P>Since DoD plans to apply the requirements of this proposed rule to acquisitions using FAR part 12 procedures, cross references to the new subpart are added at new paragraphs 212.203(5) and 212.301(f)(ix)(OO).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Applicability to Contracts at or Below the Simplified Acquisition Threshold (SAT), for Commercial Products (Including Commercially Available Off-the-Shelf (COTS) Items), and for Commercial Services</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule includes a new provision at DFARS 252.225-70XX, Restriction on Acquisition of Fuel for Overseas Contingency Operations, to implement the requirements of section 843 of the NDAA for FY 2022. The provision at DFARS 252.225-70XX is prescribed at DFARS 225.70WW-4 for use in solicitations, including solicitations using FAR part 12 procedures for the acquisition of commercial products and commercial services, that are for the procurement of fuel for overseas contingency operations and are expected to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold. DoD does not intend to apply the proposed rule to contracts at or below the SAT. DoD does intend to apply the proposed rule to contracts for the acquisition of commercial products including COTS items and for the acquisition of commercial services.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Applicability to Contracts at or Below the Simplified Acquisition Threshold</HD>
                <P>41 U.S.C. 1905 governs the applicability of laws to contracts or subcontracts in amounts not greater than the simplified acquisition threshold. It is intended to limit the applicability of laws to such contracts or subcontracts. 41 U.S.C. 1905 provides that if a provision of law contains criminal or civil penalties, or if the Federal Acquisition Regulatory Council makes a written determination that it is not in the best interest of the Federal Government to exempt contracts or subcontracts at or below the SAT, the law will apply to them. The Principal Director, Defense Pricing and Contracting (DPC), is the appropriate authority to make comparable determinations for regulations to be published in the DFARS, which is part of the Federal Acquisition Regulation system of regulations. DoD does not intend to make that determination. Therefore, this proposed rule will not apply at or below the simplified acquisition threshold.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Applicability to Contracts for the Acquisition of Commercial Products Including COTS Items and for the Acquisition of Commercial Services</HD>
                <P>10 U.S.C. 3452 exempts contracts and subcontracts for the acquisition of commercial products including COTS items, and commercial services from provisions of law enacted after October 13, 1994, unless the Under Secretary of Defense (Acquisition and Sustainment) (USD(A&amp;S)) makes a written determination that it would not be in the best interest of DoD to exempt contracts for the procurement of commercial products and commercial services from the applicability of the provision or contract requirement, except for a provision of law that—</P>
                <P>• Provides for criminal or civil penalties;</P>
                <P>• Requires that certain articles be bought from American sources pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 4862 (previously 10 U.S.C. 2533c), or that strategic materials critical to national security be bought from American sources pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 4863 (previously 10 U.S.C. 2533b); or</P>
                <P>• Specifically refers to 10 U.S.C. 3452 and states that it shall apply to contracts and subcontracts for the acquisition of commercial products (including COTS items) and commercial services.</P>
                <P>The statute implemented in this proposed rule does not impose criminal or civil penalties, does not require purchase pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 4862 or 4863, and does not refer to 10 U.S.C. 3452. Therefore, section 843 of the NDAA for FY 2022 will not apply to the acquisition of commercial services or commercial products including COTS items unless a written determination is made. Due to delegations of authority, the Principal Director, DPC is the appropriate authority to make this determination. DoD intends to make that determination to apply this statute to the acquisition of commercial products including COTS items and to the acquisition of commercial services. Therefore, this proposed rule will apply to the acquisition of commercial products including COTS items and to the acquisition of commercial services.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Determination</HD>
                <P>Given that the requirements of section 843 of the NDAA for FY 2022 were enacted to ensure that fuel for overseas contingency operations is not procured from prohibited sources, and since fuel is generally a commercial product or COTS item, it is in the best interest of the Federal Government to apply the rule to contracts for the acquisition of commercial services and commercial products, including COTS items, as defined at Federal Acquisition Regulation 2.101. An exception for contracts for the acquisition of commercial services and commercial products, including COTS items, would exclude the contracts intended to be covered by the law, thereby undermining the overarching public policy purpose of the law.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Expected Impact of the Rule</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule includes a requirement for offerors for a contract for the procurement of fuel that is for an overseas contingency operation and is expected to exceed the SAT, to certify that the proposed fuel, in whole or in part, or derivatives of such fuel, will not be sourced from a nation or region prohibited from selling petroleum to the United States. Offerors will also be required to comply with certain export control and anticorruption statutes and regulations. The apparent successful offeror may be requested to provide records to verify such compliance upon contracting officer request.</P>
                <P>
                    This proposed rule also includes new requirements for contracting officers. Contracting officers must not disqualify an offeror based on an unsupported denial of access to a facility or equipment by a host nation government. When conducting a source selection for such acquisitions, contracting officers will be required to consider the use of a tradeoff process and the use of certain evaluation factors. If the contracting officer does not consider a tradeoff process, the contracting officer must justify and obtain approval of the rationale for not considering a tradeoff process.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11802"/>
                </P>
                <P>Analysis of data from the Federal Procurement Data System for fiscal years 2021, 2022, and 2023, for DoD contracts awarded to procure fuel for overseas operations revealed there was an average of five awards per fiscal year. These five awards were made to three contractors. Across the three fiscal years, a total of three companies received awards for the procurement of liquid fuels supporting overseas operations. During this period, no awards were made to small entities.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Executive Orders 12866 and 13563</HD>
                <P>Executive Orders (E.O.s) 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This is not a significant regulatory action and, therefore, was not subject to review under section 6(b) of E.O. 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, as amended.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>
                    DoD does not expect this proposed rule, when finalized, to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     because during recent fiscal years there were no contracts awarded to small entities for supplying fuel for overseas contingency operations. However, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis has been performed and is summarized as follows:
                </P>
                <P>This proposed rule is necessary to implement section 843 of the National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) for Fiscal Year (FY) 2022 (Pub. L. 117-81). Section 843 requires offerors to certify that the fuel procured for an overseas contingency operation is not sourced from a prohibited nation or region and to furnish such records as are necessary to verify their compliance with certain export control and anticorruption statutes and regulations. Section 843 requires contracting officers to consider a tradeoff process and the use of certain evaluation factors when procuring fuel for an overseas contingency operation. If the contracting officer does not consider a tradeoff process, section 843 requires the contracting officer to justify, before issuing the solicitation, why a tradeoff process was not considered.</P>
                <P>The objective of the proposed rule is to implement section 843 of the NDAA for FY 2022, which is the legal basis for the rule.</P>
                <P>Data from the Federal Procurement Data System was analyzed for fiscal years 2021, 2022, and 2023 for DoD contracts awarded to procure fuel for overseas operations. The data revealed there was an average of five awards per fiscal year for the procurement of fuel supporting overseas operations. These awards were made to three unique entities, of which none were small entities. Therefore, DoD does not anticipate that this proposed rule will have an impact on small entities.</P>
                <P>The proposed rule does not impose any new reporting, recordkeeping, or other compliance requirements for small entities.</P>
                <P>The proposed rule does not duplicate, overlap, or conflict with any other Federal rules.</P>
                <P>There are no known alternatives to the proposed rule that would accomplish the stated objectives of the applicable statute.</P>
                <P>DoD invites comments from small business concerns and other interested parties on the expected impact of this proposed rule on small entities.</P>
                <P>DoD will also consider comments from small entities concerning the existing regulations in subparts affected by this proposed rule in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 610. Interested parties must submit such comments separately and should cite 5 U.S.C. 610 (DFARS Case 2022-D013), in correspondence.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule does not contain any information collection requirements that require the approval of the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35).</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 48 CFR Parts 212, 215, 225, and 252</HD>
                    <P>Government procurement.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jennifer D. Johnson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Editor/Publisher, Defense Acquisition Regulations System.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>Therefore, 48 CFR parts 212, 215, 225, and 252 are proposed to be amended as follows:</P>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for parts 212, 215, 225, and 252 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 41 U.S.C. 1303 and 48 CFR chapter 1.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 212—ACQUISITION OF COMMERCIAL PRODUCTS AND COMMERCIAL SERVICES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>2. Amend section 212.203 by adding paragraph (5) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>212.203 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Procedures for solicitation, evaluation, and award.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(5) See 215.101-71 and 225.70WW for the acquisition of fuel for overseas contingency operations.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>3. Amend section 212.301 by adding paragraph (f)(x)(OO) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>212.301 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Solicitation provisions and contract clauses for the acquisition of commercial products and commercial services.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(f) * * *</P>
                    <P>(x) * * *</P>
                    <P>(OO) Use the provision at 252.225-70XX, Restriction on Acquisition of Fuel for Overseas Contingency Operations, as prescribed in 225.70WW-4, to comply with section 843 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2022 (Pub. L. 117-81).</P>
                </SECTION>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 215—CONTRACTING BY NEGOTIATION</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>4. Add section 215.101-71 to subpart 215.1 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>215.101-71 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Tradeoff process when acquiring fuel for overseas contingency operations.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) When conducting a source selection for the acquisition of fuel that is for an overseas contingency operation and is expected to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold, the contracting officer shall consider using a tradeoff process in accordance with FAR 15.101-1 (section 843 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2022 (Pub. L. 117-81)). The contracting officer should consider using the following evaluation factors in any such tradeoff process:</P>
                    <P>(1) Past performance.</P>
                    <P>(2) Cost.</P>
                    <P>(3) Anticorruption training.</P>
                    <P>(4) Anticorruption compliance.</P>
                    <P>(b) If a tradeoff process was not considered, prior to the issuance of the solicitation, the contracting officer shall justify in writing why a tradeoff process was not considered and obtain approval by an official one level above the contracting officer. This authority is not delegable. The contracting officer shall include the justification in the contract file.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <PART>
                    <PRTPAGE P="11803"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 225—FOREIGN ACQUISITION</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>5. Add sections 225.70WW, 225.70WW-1, 225.70WW-2, 225.70WW-3, and 225.70WW-4 to subpart 225.70 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <STARS/>
                <CONTENTS>
                    <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                    <SECTNO>225.70WW </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Restriction on acquisition of fuel for overseas contingency operations.</SUBJECT>
                    <SECTNO>225.70WW-1 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Scope.</SUBJECT>
                    <SECTNO>225.70WW-2 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Prohibition.</SUBJECT>
                    <SECTNO>225.70WW-3 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Procedures.</SUBJECT>
                    <SECTNO>225.70WW-4 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Solicitation provision.</SUBJECT>
                </CONTENTS>
                <STARS/>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>225.70WW </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Restriction on acquisition of fuel for overseas contingency operations.</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>225.70WW-1 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Scope.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>This section implements section 843 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2022 (Pub. L. 117-81), for the acquisition of fuel for overseas contingency operations.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>225.70WW-2 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Prohibition.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>Contracting officers shall not award, for an overseas contingency operation, a contract for fuel, in whole or in part, or derivatives of such fuel, that is sourced from nations or regions prohibited from selling petroleum to the United States. See FAR subpart 25.7 for prohibited sources.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>225.70WW-3 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Procedures.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) For contracts for the acquisition of fuel for overseas contingency operations, including contracts using FAR part 12 procedures, expected to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold, the contracting officer—</P>
                    <P>(1) May request records from the apparent successful offeror to verify compliance with the following statutes and regulations only when the head of the contracting activity determines in writing that it is necessary:</P>
                    <P>
                        (i) The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (15 U.S.C. 78dd-1 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>(ii) International Traffic in Arms Regulations at 22 CFR 120 through 130 (see PGI 225.7901-2).</P>
                    <P>(iii) Export Administration Regulations at 15 CFR 730 through 774 (see PGI 225.7901-2).</P>
                    <P>
                        (iv) Relevant regulations promulgated by the Office of Foreign Assets Control of the Department of the Treasury. Sanction information for specific countries and programs is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://ofac.treasury.gov/sanctions-programs-and-country-information.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(2) To the maximum extent practicable, shall not disqualify an otherwise responsible offeror on the basis of an unsupported denial of access to a facility or equipment by a host-nation government. The provision at 252.225-70XX, Restriction on Acquisition of Fuel for Overseas Contingency Operations, requires offerors to report promptly to the contracting officer, prior to award, any instance of unsupported denial of access to a facility or equipment by a host-nation government that may prevent it from complying with the terms and conditions of the solicitation.</P>
                    <P>(b) See 215.101-71 for the requirement to consider using a tradeoff process.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>225.70WW-4 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Solicitation provision.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>Use the provision at 252.225-70XX, Restriction on Acquisition of Fuel for Overseas Contingency Operations, in solicitations, including solicitations using FAR part 12 procedures for the acquisition of commercial products and commercial services, that are for the acquisition of fuel for overseas contingency operations and are expected to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 252—SOLICITATION PROVISIONS AND CONTRACT CLAUSES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>6. Add section 252.225-70XX to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>252.225-70XX </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Restriction on Acquisition of Fuel for Overseas Contingency Operations.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>As prescribed in 225.70WW-4, use the following provision:</P>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Restriction on Acquisition of Fuel for Overseas Contingency Operations (Date)</HD>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Prohibition.</E>
                             For an overseas contingency operation, DoD may not procure fuel in whole or in part, or derivatives of such fuel, that is sourced from nations or regions prohibited from selling petroleum to the United States. See Federal Acquisition Regulation subpart 25.7 for prohibited sources.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Certification.</E>
                             Offerors shall complete the certification in paragraph (b)(1) of this provision and submit the certification with their offer.
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) The Offeror does [ ] does not [ ] certify that the fuel, in whole or in part, or derivatives of such fuel, to be provided under any contract resulting from this solicitation is not sourced from a nation or region prohibited from selling petroleum to the United States.</P>
                        <P>(2) Only Offerors who certify that the fuel to be provided is not sourced from a prohibited nation or region will be eligible for award.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Compliance.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) When requested by the Contracting Officer, the apparent successful Offeror shall submit records necessary to demonstrate compliance with applicable laws and regulations regarding export-controlled items and anticorruption statutes and regulations including—</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (15 U.S.C. 78dd-1 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                            );
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR) at 22 CFR 120 through 130 (also see Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) clause 252.225-7048, Export-Controlled Items);</P>
                        <P>(iii) Export Administration Regulations (EAR) at 15 CFR 730 through 774 (also see DFARS clause 252.225-7048); and</P>
                        <P>
                            (iv) Relevant regulations promulgated by the Office of Foreign Assets Control of the Department of the Treasury. Sanction information for specific countries and programs is available at 
                            <E T="03">https://ofac.treasury.gov/sanctions-programs-and-country-information.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) The Offeror shall contact the Department of State regarding ITAR compliance and the Department of Commerce regarding EAR compliance.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Reporting requirement.</E>
                             The Offeror shall, prior to contract award, promptly report to the Contracting Officer any instance of unsupported denial of access to a facility or equipment by a host-nation government that may prevent it from complying with the terms and conditions of the solicitation.
                        </P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(End of provision)</FP>
                </SECTION>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-02742 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6001-FR-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Defense Acquisition Regulations System</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>48 CFR Parts 212, 227, and 252</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket DARS-2024-0005]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0750-AL21</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement: Use of DoD Program Nomenclature (DFARS Case 2021-D002)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Defense Acquisition Regulations System, Department of Defense (DoD).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>DoD is proposing to amend the Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) to introduce coverage of trademarks and similar designations, such as popular names and program names. In addition to the request for written comments on this proposed rule, DoD will hold a public meeting to hear the views of interested parties.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on the proposed rule should be submitted in writing to the address shown below on or before April 15, 2024, to be considered in the formation of a final rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Public Meeting:</E>
                         A virtual public meeting will be held on March 22, 2024, from 1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m., Eastern 
                        <PRTPAGE P="11804"/>
                        time. The public meeting will end at the stated time, or when the discussion ends, whichever comes first.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Registration:</E>
                         Registration to attend the public meeting must be received no later than close of business on March 15, 2024. Information on how to register for the public meeting is provided under the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section of this proposed rule.
                    </P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Public Meeting:</E>
                         A virtual public meeting will be held using Zoom video conferencing software.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Submission of Comments:</E>
                         Submit comments identified by DFARS Case 2021-D002, using either of the following methods:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        ○ 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                        . Search for DFARS Case 2021-D002. Select “Comment” and follow the instructions to submit a comment. Please include “DFARS Case 2021-D002” on any attached documents.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        ○ 
                        <E T="03">Email: osd.dfars@mail.mil.</E>
                         Include DFARS Case 2021-D002 in the subject line of the message.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Comments received generally will be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal information provided. To confirm receipt of your comment(s), please check 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         approximately two to three days after submission to verify posting.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>David E. Johnson, telephone 202-913-5764.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>DoD is proposing to revise the DFARS to implement coverage of contract-specific designations, such as popular names and program names. DoD intends this coverage to avoid or minimize conflict between DoD and offerors and contractors over rights to such designations. In particular, this proposed rule creates a mechanism to foster transparency between DoD and offerors and contractors regarding claimed ownership of such designations.</P>
                <P>By providing for such information exchange, this proposed rule is intended to allow the parties to identify possibly conflicting claims to designations before contract award. This will encourage the early and efficient resolution of potential disputes over ownership and use of designations. This proposed rule is therefore intended to work both prospectively and proactively to prevent such claims or disputes from happening as DoD establishes designations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Public Meeting</HD>
                <P>DoD is interested in a dialogue with experts and interested parties both in the Government and the private sector regarding amending the DFARS to implement coverage of trademarks and similar designations, such as popular names and program names.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Registration:</E>
                     Individuals wishing to participate in the virtual meeting must register by March 15, 2024, to facilitate entry to the meeting. Interested parties may register for the meeting by sending the following information via email to 
                    <E T="03">osd.dfars@mail.mil</E>
                     and include “Public Meeting, DFARS Case 2021-D002” in the subject line of the message:
                </P>
                <P>• Full name.</P>
                <P>• Valid email address, which will be used for admittance to the meeting.</P>
                <P>• Valid telephone number, which will serve as a secondary connection method. Registrants must provide the telephone number they plan on using to connect to the virtual meeting.</P>
                <P>• Company or organization name.</P>
                <P>• Whether the individual desires to make a presentation.</P>
                <P>Pre-registered individuals will receive instructions for connecting using the Zoom video conferencing software not more than one week before the meeting is scheduled to commence.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Presentations:</E>
                     Presentations will be limited to 5 minutes per company or organization. This limit may be subject to adjustment, depending on the number of entities requesting to present, in order to ensure adequate time for discussion. If you wish to make a presentation, please submit an electronic copy of your presentation via email to 
                    <E T="03">osd.dfars@mail.mil</E>
                     no later than the registration date for the specific meeting. Each presentation should be in PowerPoint to facilitate projection during the public meeting and should include the presenter's name, title, organization affiliation, telephone number, and email address on the cover page.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Correspondence, Comments, and Presentations:</E>
                     Please cite “Public Meeting, DFARS Case 2021-D002” in all correspondence related to the public meeting. There will be no transcription of the meeting. The submitted presentations will be posted to the following website at the conclusion of the public meeting: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.acq.osd.mil/dpap/dars/technical_data_rights.html</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion and Analysis</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule places the coverage of contract-specific designations in a new subpart in DFARS part 227, Patents, Data, and Copyrights. The new subpart 227.7X, Contract-Specific Designations, defines the term “Government designation” to cover the larger set of trademarks and designations of potential concern to DoD. Further, this proposed rule defines the term “contract-specific designation” to cover designations and names of particular concern for specific contracts. “Contract-specific designations” are therefore a subset of “Government designations.” This proposed rule requires contracting officers to include in solicitations a list of contract-specific designations relevant to the acquisition.</P>
                <P>The contract clause proposed at DFARS 252.227-70YY, Contractor Use of Government Designations, applies only to “contract-specific designations.” However, the defined term “Government designation” is relevant for acquisition-planning purposes, including whether such marks or designations are or should be associated with a given contract to become “contract-specific designations” for that contract.</P>
                <P>This proposed rule also defines the term “asserted marks” to recognize trademarks and other designations in which offerors claim ownership or control. An offeror's submission of an asserted-marks list facilitates recognition of offeror-owned marks or designations, and it supports a process for required assertions analogous to that in the solicitation provision at DFARS 252.227-7017, Identification and Assertion of Use, Release, or Disclosure Restrictions, for assertions of contractor restrictions on use of technical data and computer software.</P>
                <P>DFARS 227.7X01 and 252.227-70YY include definitions of the terms “asserted marks,” “contract-specific designation,” and “Government designation.” The solicitation provision proposed at 252.227-70XX, Identification of Asserted Marks, also includes a cross-reference to these definitions contained in 252.227-70YY. The proposed rule prescribes both new provision 252.227-70XX, Identification of Asserted Marks, and new clause 252.227-70YY, Contractor Use of Government Designations, for use when the acquisition is expected to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold and will involve use of one or more Government designations.</P>
                <P>
                    The provision at 252.227-70XX requires offerors both to include an asserted-marks list in their offers and to update the asserted-marks list prior to contract award. The provision notes that, like assertions of data rights restrictions in DFARS 252.227-7017, submission of an asserted-marks list 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11805"/>
                    does not constitute the Government's agreement to the rights asserted therein.
                </P>
                <P>With respect to contract-specific designations, DFARS clause 252.227-70YY, paragraph (b) contains requirements on the part of the contractor and authorizations for the contractor to conduct certain activities. DFARS 252.227-70YY, paragraph (c) obligates the contractor to provide notice if it becomes aware of unauthorized use or infringement of contract-specific designations by third parties and, in addition, to cooperate with the Government and not to attempt to enforce rights in any contract-specific designation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Applicability to Contracts at or Below the Simplified Acquisition Threshold (SAT), for Commercial Products Including Commercially Available Off-the-Shelf (COTS) Items, and for Commercial Services</HD>
                <P>This proposed rule includes a new provision and a new clause: (1) DFARS 252.227-70XX, Identification of Asserted Marks, and (2) DFARS 252.227-70YY, Contractor Use of Government Designations. The provision at DFARS 252.227-70XX is prescribed at DFARS 227.7X04 for use in solicitations that include the clause at DFARS 252.227-70YY. The clause at DFARS 252.227-70YY is prescribed at DFARS 227.7X04 for use in solicitations and contracts, including solicitations and contracts using Federal Acquisition Regulation part 12 procedures for the acquisition of commercial products, including COTS items, and commercial services, that are expected to exceed the SAT and will involve use of one or more Government designations. Not applying this provision and clause to contracts for commercial products would exclude contracts intended to be covered by this rule and undermine the overarching purpose of the rule. Consequently, DoD plans to apply the rule to contracts for the acquisition of commercial products, including COTS items, and commercial services.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Expected Impact of the Rule</HD>
                <P>The DFARS currently does not directly address ownership of trademarks and similar marks or designations, such as popular names or program names. While there is protection for common law trademarks and registered trademarks in the Lanham (Trademark) Act, this protection may not apply to all types of marks and designations used and owned by DoD and contractors. The proposed rule, when finalized, will require contracting officers to include in solicitations a list of contract-specific designations relevant to the acquisition. This proposed rule requires offerors to submit in their offers an asserted-marks list to facilitate recognition of contractor-owned marks or designations. This proposed rule is intended to create a transparency mechanism for each party to identify designations, marks, or trademarks that may overlap prior to contract award to encourage early and efficient resolution of potential disputes over ownership of marks or designations. The proposed rule will proactively prevent disputes arising from overlapping claims before contract award.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Executive Orders 12866 and 13563</HD>
                <P>Executive Orders (E.O.s) 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This is not a significant regulatory action and, therefore, was not subject to review under section 6(b) of E.O. 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, as amended.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>
                    DoD does not expect this proposed rule, when finalized, to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     because the economic impact of the proposed rule on offerors is expected to be slight or negligible. However, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis has been performed and is summarized as follows:
                </P>
                <P>
                    DoD is proposing to amend the DFARS to add text ensuring that DoD and its authorized contractors are not restricted in the use of certain DoD program nomenclature, such as program names and assigned DoD systems designations (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     a type of mission-design-series designator, approved item name, or approved popular name) that are assigned and approved by the Government pursuant to established procedures.
                </P>
                <P>The objectives of the proposed rule are to balance and protect the varied interests and equities that both DoD and its contractors might possess in DoD program nomenclature, including but not limited to trademarks. The legal basis for the proposed rule is 41 U.S.C. 1303.</P>
                <P>This proposed rule may impact small entities that are awarded DoD contracts for major programs, to include Acquisition Category 1 programs. Based on data from the Federal Procurement Data System and Electronic Data Access for fiscal year 2018 through fiscal year 2020, DoD estimates that an average of 222 unique small entities are awarded an average of 364 total contract actions on an annual basis that likely implicate DoD program nomenclature.</P>
                <P>The changes in this proposed rule would add a requirement for offerors to submit an asserted-marks list, accurate at time of offer. “Asserted marks” means all trademarks, service marks, collective marks, certification marks, or other marks used as indicators of origin or source, whether registered or not, that the offeror or contractor asserts that it owns or controls, that are associated with a specific contract or program, and that are included in the asserted-marks list made part of the contract. Such asserted marks might include, but are not limited to, the following: corporate names, trade names, logos, acronyms, slogans, insignia, seals, emblems, domain names, website addresses, and hashtags. An offeror may submit an updated asserted-marks list any time before contract award.</P>
                <P>This proposed rule applies to all offerors, including both large and small entities, responding to solicitations containing the solicitation provision proposed at DFARS 252.227-70XX, Identification of Asserted Marks. This proposed rule therefore imposes new recordkeeping and compliance requirements for small entities. Senior-level staff will most likely possess the skills necessary to prepare the offeror's asserted-marks list.</P>
                <P>This proposed rule does not duplicate, overlap, or conflict with any other Federal rules.</P>
                <P>There are no known alternatives that would accomplish the stated objectives.</P>
                <P>DoD invites comments from small business concerns and other interested parties on the expected impact of this proposed rule on small entities.</P>
                <P>DoD will also consider comments from small entities concerning the existing regulations in subparts affected by this proposed rule in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 610. Interested parties must submit such comments separately and should cite 5 U.S.C. 610 (DFARS Case 2021-D002), in correspondence.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>
                    This proposed rule contains information collection requirements that require the approval of the Office of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11806"/>
                    Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35). Accordingly, DoD has submitted a request for approval of a new information collection requirement concerning Use of DoD Program Nomenclature (DFARS Case 2021-D002) to the Office of Management and Budget.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Estimate of Public Burden</HD>
                <P>Public reporting burden for this collection of information is estimated to average 1.8 hours per response, including the time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing the collection of information.</P>
                <P>The annual reporting burden is estimated as follows:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     2,656.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Responses per respondent:</E>
                     Approximately 1.3.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total annual responses:</E>
                     3,320.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Preparation hours per response:</E>
                     1.8 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total response burden hours:</E>
                     5,976.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Request for Comments Regarding Paperwork Burden</HD>
                <P>
                    Written comments and recommendations on the proposed information collection, including suggestions for reducing this burden, should be submitted using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or by email to 
                    <E T="03">osd.dfars@mail.mil.</E>
                     Comments can be received up to 60 days after the date of this proposed rule.
                </P>
                <P>Public comments are particularly invited on: whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of DoD, including whether the information will have practical utility; the accuracy of DoD's estimate of the public burden of this information collection; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways to minimize the burden of the information collection on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>
                    To obtain a copy of the supporting statement and associated collection instruments, please email 
                    <E T="03">osd.dfars@mail.mil</E>
                    . Include DFARS Case 2021-D002 in the subject line of the message.
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 48 CFR Parts 212, 227, and 252</HD>
                    <P>Government procurement.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jennifer D. Johnson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Editor/Publisher, Defense Acquisition Regulations System.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>Therefore, 48 CFR parts 212, 227, and 252 are proposed to be amended as follows:</P>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for 48 CFR parts 212, 227, and 252 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>41 U.S.C. 1303 and 48 CFR chapter 1.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 212—ACQUISITION OF COMMERCIAL PRODUCTS AND COMMERCIAL SERVICES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>2. Amend section 212.301 by adding new paragraphs (f)(xii)(D) and (E) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>212.301 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Solicitation provisions and contract clauses for the acquisition of commercial products and commercial services.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(f) * * *</P>
                    <P>(xii) * * *</P>
                    <P>(D) Use the provision at 252.227-70XX, Identification of Asserted Marks, as prescribed in 227.7X04(a).</P>
                    <P>(E) Use the clause at 252.227-70YY, Contractor Use of Government Designations, as prescribed in 227.7X04(b).</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 227—PATENTS, DATA, AND COPYRIGHTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>3. Add subpart 227.7X to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <CONTENTS>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUBPART 227.7X—CONTRACT-SPECIFIC DESIGNATIONS</HD>
                        <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                        <SECTNO>227.7X00 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Scope of subpart.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>227.7X01 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>227.7X02 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>General.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>227.7X03 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Procedures.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>227.7X04 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Solicitation provision and contract clause.</SUBJECT>
                    </SUBPART>
                </CONTENTS>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUBPART 227.7X—CONTRACT-SPECIFIC DESIGNATIONS</HD>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>227.7X00 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Scope of subpart.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>This subpart prescribes procedures regarding the identification and use of Government designations, such as trademarks and program names, and the identification of offerors' and contractors' asserted marks.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>227.7X01 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>As used in this subpart—</P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Asserted marks</E>
                             means all trademarks, service marks, collective marks, certification marks, or other marks used as indicators of origin or source, whether registered or not, that the offeror or contractor asserts that it owns or controls, that are associated with a specific contract or program, and that are included in the asserted marks-list made part of the contract. Such asserted marks may include but are not limited to the following: corporate names, trade names, logos, acronyms, slogans, insignia, seals, emblems, domain names, website addresses, and hashtags.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Contract-specific designation</E>
                             means any Government designation included in the contract-specific designation list, where such Government designation identifies or is intended to identify or describe the following:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Goods, systems, materiel, or products developed, manufactured, or delivered in performance of the contract.</P>
                        <P>(2) Services rendered in performance of the contract.</P>
                        <P>(3) Program names, project names, or other organizational or requiring, sponsoring, or contracting activity names related to the contract.</P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Government designations</E>
                             means—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Trademarks, service marks, collective marks, certification marks, or other marks used as indicators of origin or source, owned by, or controlled by the Government, whether registered or not; and</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) Other identifiers that the Government identified, selected, adopted, created, controlled, or managed, including but not limited to the following: mission design series designators, program names, weapon system names, popular names (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             as defined or discussed in DoD Instruction 4120.15, Designating and Naming Military Aerospace Vehicles), materiel names, names of the Armed Forces of the United States (as defined in 10 U.S.C. 101), logos, acronyms, insignia, seals, emblems, domain names, website addresses, and hashtags.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>227.7X02 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>General.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) Trademark law requires trademark owners to exercise control over the use of their marks with respect to the nature and quality of relevant goods and services to maintain enforceability of the marks. Failure to include quality control provisions in a trademark license, or “naked licensing”, can result in loss of trademark rights.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) The clause at 252.227-70YY, Contractor Use of Government Designations, paragraph (b)(5), concerns the nature and quality of goods or services associated with a contract-specific designation, or the designation itself, to avoid naked licensing and 
                            <PRTPAGE P="11807"/>
                            retain Government control over the use of contract-specific designations that are also trademarks.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>227.7X03 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Procedures.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Planning for contract-specific designations.</E>
                             Before issuing a solicitation exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold that will involve use of one or more Government designations, the contracting officer shall obtain the Government's preliminary contract-specific designation list from the requiring activity. See PGI 227.7X03(a).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Contract-specific designation list.</E>
                             The contracting officer shall include, in a solicitation that will involve use of one or more Government designations, a list of contract-specific designations relevant to the acquisition. The contracting officer shall attach the contract-specific designation list to any resulting contract. See PGI 227.7X03(b).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Asserted-marks list.</E>
                             The contracting officer shall attach to the resulting contract the asserted-marks list that the contractor submitted in response to the solicitation, as required by 252.227-70XX, Identification of Asserted Marks. See PGI 227.7X03(c).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Postaward updates to the asserted-marks list and contract-specific designation list.</E>
                             After award of the contract, based only on new information or inadvertent omission, the Government may update the contract-specific designation list, and the contractor may update the asserted-marks list, only by mutual agreement of the parties. The contracting officer shall incorporate the agreed-upon updated list(s) into the contract.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>227.7X04 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Solicitation provision and contract clause.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) Use the provision at 252.227-70XX, Identification of Asserted Marks, in solicitations, including solicitations using FAR part 12 procedures for the acquisition of commercial products and commercial services, that contain the clause at 252.227-70YY.</P>
                        <P>(b) Use the clause at 252.227-70YY, Contractor Use of Government Designations, in solicitations and contracts, including solicitations and contracts using FAR part 12 procedures for the acquisition of commercial products and commercial services, that are expected to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold and will involve use of one or more Government designations.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                </SUBPART>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 252—SOLICITATION PROVISIONS AND CONTRACT CLAUSES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>4. Add sections 252.227-70XX and 252.227-70YY to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>252.227-70XX </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Identification of Asserted Marks.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>As prescribed in 227.7X04(a), use the following provision:</P>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Identification of Asserted Marks (Date)</HD>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this provision—
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Asserted marks, contract-specific designation,</E>
                             and 
                            <E T="03">Government designation</E>
                             have the meanings provided in the clause 252.227-70YY, Contractor Use of Government Designations.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Submission of asserted-marks list.</E>
                             The Offeror shall include in its offer an asserted-marks list, complete at time of initial offer. The Offeror shall submit an updated asserted-marks list reflecting any additions or deletions in any proposal revisions. Submission of the asserted-marks list does not constitute the Government's agreement to the Offeror's assertions of rights to the asserted marks.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Format for asserted-marks list.</E>
                             The Offeror shall submit its asserted-marks list as an attachment to its offer in the following format, dated and signed by an official authorized to contractually obligate the Offeror:
                        </P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="06" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,r50,r50,r50">
                            <TTITLE>Asserted-Marks List</TTITLE>
                            <TDESC>[The Offeror asserts that it owns or controls the following marks associated with this solicitation]</TDESC>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Asserted mark 
                                    <SU>1</SU>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Goods or services 
                                    <SU>2</SU>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Basis for assertion and jurisdiction(s) in which rights are claimed 
                                    <SU>3</SU>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Date of first use, if any</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    List other related
                                    <LI>government contract or program, if any</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Is the asserted mark still in use?</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">(LIST)</ENT>
                                <ENT>(LIST)</ENT>
                                <ENT>(LIST)</ENT>
                                <ENT>(LIST)</ENT>
                                <ENT>(LIST)</ENT>
                                <ENT>(Yes/No).</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <TNOTE>
                                <SU>1</SU>
                                 For “Asserted Mark”, list (or reference in an attachment) the designation in which the Offeror asserts rights.
                            </TNOTE>
                            <TNOTE>
                                <SU>2</SU>
                                 For “Goods or Services”, list the goods and/or services in connection with which the mark from the “Asserted Mark” column is used. Do not merely list classification numbers.
                            </TNOTE>
                            <TNOTE>
                                <SU>3</SU>
                                 Indicate whether the Offeror owns a registration or has applied for registration of the mark listed in the “Asserted Mark” column. If so, include the registration or application number, including jurisdiction. This could include a Federal, State, or foreign registration, or a pending application. If the Offeror claims rights based on something other than registration or application (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 common law rights), indicate so and list the territory in which rights are claimed.
                            </TNOTE>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-DASH">Date</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-DASH">Printed Name:</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-DASH">Title:</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-DASH">Signature:</FP>
                        <FP>[End of Asserted-Marks List]</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(End of provision)</FP>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>252.227-70YY </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Contractor Use of Government Designations.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>As prescribed in 227.7X04(b), use the following clause:</P>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">Contractor Use of Government Designations (Date)</HD>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             As used in this clause—
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Asserted marks</E>
                             means all trademarks, service marks, collective marks, certification marks, or other marks used as indicators of origin or source, whether registered or not, that the offeror or contractor asserts that it owns or controls, that are associated with a specific contract or program, and that are included in the asserted-marks list made part of the contract. Such asserted marks may include but are not limited to the following: corporate names, trade names, logos, acronyms, slogans, insignia, seals, emblems, domain names, website addresses, and hashtags.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Contract-specific designation</E>
                             means any Government designation included in the contract-specific designation list, where such Government designation identifies or is intended to identify or describe the following:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Goods, systems, materiel, or products developed, manufactured, or delivered in performance of this contract.</P>
                        <P>(2) Services rendered in performance of this contract.</P>
                        <P>(3) Program names, project names, or other organizational or requiring, sponsoring, or contracting activity names related to this contract.</P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Government designation</E>
                             means—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Trademarks, service marks, collective marks, certification marks, or other marks used as indicators of origin or source, owned by, or controlled by the Government, whether registered or not; and</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) Other identifiers that the Government identified, selected, adopted, created, controlled, or managed, including but not limited to the following: mission design series designators, program names, weapon system names, popular names (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             as defined or discussed in DoD Instruction 4120.15, Designating and Naming Military Aerospace Vehicles), materiel names, names of the Armed Forces of the United States (as defined in 10 U.S.C. 101), logos, acronyms, 
                            <PRTPAGE P="11808"/>
                            insignia, seals, emblems, domain names, website addresses, and hashtags.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Contractor acknowledgement and agreement.</E>
                             The Contractor acknowledges and agrees that—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) The Government has the right and authority to use, assert rights in, license, attempt to register, and preclude others, including the Contractor, from using any contract-specific designations, unless such designations are also on the asserted-marks list included in this contract;</P>
                        <P>(2) This contract authorizes the Contractor to use any contract-specific designation solely to perform this contract except as stated in paragraph (b)(6) of this clause;</P>
                        <P>(3) Authorization granted by this contract shall terminate at the earlier of—</P>
                        <P>(i) The end of the period of performance of this contract; or</P>
                        <P>(ii) Contract termination;</P>
                        <P>(4) Contractor use of contract-specific designations, unless such designation is also on the asserted-marks list included in this contract, shall inure solely to the benefit of the Government, and the Government owns any goodwill related to the contract-specific designations; and</P>
                        <P>(5) The Contractor shall comply with all—</P>
                        <P>(i) Contract specifications, standards, and other contract requirements, regarding the nature and quality of the goods, services, or both, delivered or performed under the contract and associated with the contract-specific designation; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) Requirements for use of the contract-specific designation, unless such designation is also on the asserted-marks list included in this contract.</P>
                        <P>(6) Unless the designation is on the asserted-marks list included in this contract, the Contractor shall not take, or attempt to take, the following actions:</P>
                        <P>(i) Develop or acquire any right, title, or interest independent of the Government in any contract-specific designation.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Challenge any mark or assert any claim against the Government or its contractors and subcontractors, in any jurisdiction, based either on trademark or any other cause of action based on rights the Contractor believes it has in any contract-specific designation.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Assert any ownership rights or any interest in, contest, dispute, challenge, oppose, or seek to cancel the Government's right, title, or interest in any contract-specific designation.</P>
                        <P>(iv) Seek royalties from the Government, or its contractors or their subcontractors, for use of any contract-specific designation.</P>
                        <P>(v) Undertake any acts that will or may invalidate or jeopardize the Government's rights in any contract-specific designation.</P>
                        <P>(vi) Apply for or obtain, or assist any person in applying for or obtaining, any registration of any contract-specific designation.</P>
                        <P>(vii) Use, combine, or alter a contract-specific designation in a manner that would—</P>
                        <P>(A) Disparage the Government;</P>
                        <P>(B) Reflect adversely on the Government; or</P>
                        <P>(C) Weaken or damage any goodwill associated with any contract-specific designation.</P>
                        <P>(viii) Extend its authorization to use any contract-specific designation to any third party, other than a subcontractor performing under this contract.</P>
                        <P>(ix) Register domain names or other forms of any contract-specific designation, whether alone or as part of a domain name or other form of intellectual property owned or controlled by the Government.</P>
                        <P>(x) Use a domain name or other form of intellectual property that is confusingly similar to any contract-specific designation.</P>
                        <P>(xi) Use or incorporate any contract-specific designation in any manner unconnected with the contract, including marketing, outreach, or advertising, or as domain names, without prior written permission of the Contracting Officer.</P>
                        <P>(xii) Cause or authorize any third party to take any of the foregoing actions.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Notification of infringement or unauthorized use.</E>
                             The Contractor shall promptly notify the Contracting Officer in writing if it becomes aware of a potential infringement, or any other use not authorized by the Government, of any contract-specific designation by a third party. The Contractor shall reasonably cooperate, upon request, with the Government in connection with any action defending the Government's right to any contract-specific designation. The Contractor shall not attempt to enforce rights in any contract-specific designation, either for itself or on behalf of the Government, unless such designation is also on the asserted-marks list included in this contract.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Marks other than contract-specific designations and asserted marks.</E>
                             Nothing contained in this clause affects the Contractor's or the Government's right, title, and interest in any marks other than contract-specific designations and asserted marks.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Updates to asserted-mark list or contract-specific designation list.</E>
                             Based only on new information or inadvertent omission, the Contractor may request an update to the asserted-marks list by submitting a request to the Contracting Officer. The Government may update the contract-specific designation list, and the Contractor may update the asserted-marks list, only by mutual agreement of the parties. The same mark or designation may not be added to the contract-specific designation list and the asserted-marks list except by mutual agreement of the parties.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Subcontracts.</E>
                             The Contractor shall include this clause, including this paragraph (f), in subcontracts or similar contractual instruments, including subcontracts for commercial products and commercial services.
                        </P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(End of clause)</FP>
                </SECTION>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-02744 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6001-FR-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
    </PRORULES>
    <VOL>89</VOL>
    <NO>32</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, February 15, 2024</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Notices</UNITNAME>
    <NOTICES>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="11809"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <P>The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding: whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>
                    Comments regarding this information collection received by March 18, 2024 will be considered. Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                     Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                </P>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Rural Business-Cooperative Service</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Voluntary Labeling Program for Biobased Products.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0570-0071.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Summary of Collection:</E>
                     Section 9002(h) of the Farm Security and Rural Investment Act (FSRIA) of 2002, as amended by the Food, Conservation, and Energy Act (FCEA) of 2008 and the Agricultural Act of 2014, and the Agricultural Improvement Act of 2018, requires the Secretary of Agriculture to implement a voluntary labeling program that would enable qualifying biobased products to be certified with a “USDA Certified Biobased Product” label. The voluntary labeling program is one of the two main initiatives of the BioPreferred Program, which is currently implemented by USDA's Rural Business-Cooperative Service (RBCS). The voluntary labeling program is required to be consistent, where possible, with the guidelines implementing the preferred procurement of biobased products by Federal agencies, which is the second main initiative of the BioPreferred Program. The procurement initiative is also authorized under section 9002 of FSRIA and referred to hereafter as the Federal preferred procurement program. Under the preferred procurement program, Federal agencies are required to purchase with certain exceptions, biobased products that are identified, by rulemaking, for preferred procurement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Need and Use of the Information:</E>
                     Under the voluntary labeling program, manufacturers and vendors must complete an application for each stand-alone biobased product or biobased product family for which they wish to use the label. The application process is electronic and is accessible through the BioPreferred Program website. In addition, manufacturers and vendors whose applications have been conditionally approved must provide certain information for RBCS to post on the BioPreferred Program website. For each product approved by the Agency for use of the label, the manufacturer or vendor must keep that information for each certified product up to date. The information requested for inclusion in the application are: (1) contact information (of the manufacturer or vendor and preparer of application) and (2) product identification information, including brand name(s), the applicable designated item category or categories or equivalent, and the biobased content of the product.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description of Respondents:</E>
                     Business or other for-profit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     300.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Responses:</E>
                     Recordkeeping; Reporting: On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     1,988.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Levi S. Harrell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Departmental Information Collection Clearance Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03178 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-XY-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <P>The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding; whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>
                    Comments regarding this information collection received by March 18, 2024.will be considered. Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                     Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function. An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11810"/>
                    informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Food and Nutrition Service</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Recordkeeping for Employment and Training Program Activity Report and Requests for Additional 100 Percent Funding.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0584-0339.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Summary of Collection:</E>
                     The Balanced Budget Act of 1997 (Pub. L. 105-33), modified the Employment and Training (E&amp;T) Program so that States' efforts are now focused on a particular segment of the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) population—able-bodied adults without dependents (ABAWDs).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Requests for Additional E&amp;T Funds:</E>
                     7 CFR 273.7(d)(1)(i)(D) provides that if a State agency will not expend all of the funds allocated to it for a fiscal year, FNS will reallocate unexpended funds to other State agencies during the fiscal year or the subsequent fiscal year as FNS considers appropriate and equitable. After FNS makes initial E&amp;T allocations, under 7 CFR 273.7(d)(1)(i), State agencies may request additional E&amp;T funds if needed. FNS will reallocate available funds (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     funds that are unallocated or funds that are allocated but will not be spent) in a fair and equitable manner.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Retention and Custody of Records.</E>
                     Under 7 CFR 277.12 (1) and (2), all financial records, supporting documents, statistical records, negotiated contracts, and all other records pertinent to program funds shall be maintained for three years from the date of submission of the annual financial status report or if any litigation, claim, or audit is started before the expiration of the three-year period, the applicable records shall be retained until these have been resolved.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Need and Use of the Information:</E>
                     FNS will review requests about their E&amp;T programs so that the Department can monitor State performance to ensure that the program is being efficiently and economically operated. Without the information, FNS would be unable to make adjustments or allocate exemptions in accordance with the statute.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description of Respondents:</E>
                     State, Local, or Tribal Government.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     53.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Responses:</E>
                     Recordkeeping; Reporting: Occasionally; Annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     50.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Rachelle Ragland-Greene,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Departmental Information Collection Clearance Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03173 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-30-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Food Safety and Inspection Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FSIS-2024-0002]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>National Advisory Committee on Microbiological Criteria for Foods: Committee and Charter Renewal</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Food Safety and Inspection Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of intent to renew the Committee and its charter.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, this notice is announcing the intention of the USDA to renew the committee for the National Advisory Committee on Microbiological Criteria for Foods (NACMCF) and its charter.</P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Dr. Kristal Southern, Designated Federal Officer, U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA), Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS),1400 Independence Avenue SW, Room 1128, Washington, DC 20250-3700. Telephone number: (202) 937-4171. Email: 
                        <E T="03">NACMCF@usda.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>The NACMCF is a discretionary advisory committee that was established in 1988 by the Secretary of Agriculture after consulting with the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services in response to the recommendations of two external organizations. The National Academy of Sciences recommended an interagency approach to microbiological criteria since various federal, State, and local agencies are responsible for food safety. Also, the U.S. House of Representatives Committee on Appropriations made a similar recommendation in the Rural Development, Agriculture, and Related Agencies Appropriation Bill for fiscal year 1988.</P>
                <P>The NACMCF provides impartial scientific advice and recommendations to the Secretary of Agriculture and the Secretary of Health and Human Services on public health issues relative to the safety and wholesomeness of the U.S. food supply, including the development of microbiological criteria and review and evaluation of epidemiological and risk assessment data and methodologies for assessing microbiological hazards in foods. The Committee also provides scientific advice and recommendations to the Departments of Commerce and Defense. The Under Secretary for Food Safety, USDA, Dr. Emilio Esteban, is the Committee Chair; the Acting Director of the Food and Drug Administration's Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Dr. Donald Prater, is the Vice-Chair; and Dr. Kristal Southern, FSIS, is the Designated Federal Officer and Director of the NACMCF Secretariat.</P>
                <P>
                    The charter for the NACMCF is available for viewing on the FSIS website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fsis.usda.gov/policy/advisory-committees/national-advisory-committee-microbiological-criteria-foods-nacmcf.</E>
                </P>
                <P>NACMCF documents and comments posted on the FSIS website are electronic conversions from a variety of source formats. In some cases, document conversion may result in character translation or formatting errors. The original document is the official, legal copy. In order to meet the electronic and information technology accessibility standards in Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act, NACMCF may add alternate text descriptors for non-text elements (graphs, charts, tables, multimedia, etc.). These modifications only affect the internet copies of the documents.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Additional Public Notification</HD>
                <P>
                    Public awareness of all segments of rulemaking and policy development is important. Consequently, FSIS will announce this 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     publication online through the FSIS web page located at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fsis.usda.gov/policy/federal-register-rulemaking/federal-register-notices.</E>
                     FSIS will also make copies of this publication available through the FSIS 
                    <E T="03">Constituent Update,</E>
                     which is used to provide information regarding FSIS policies, procedures, regulations, 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notices, FSIS public meetings, and other types of information that could affect or would be of interest to our constituents and stakeholders. The 
                    <E T="03">Constituent Update</E>
                     is available on the FSIS web page. Through the web page, FSIS is able to provide information to a much broader, more diverse audience. In addition, FSIS offers an email subscription service that provides automatic and customized access to selected food safety news and information. This service is available at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fsis.usda.gov/news-events/news-press-releases/news-feeds-subscriptions.</E>
                     Options range from recalls to export information, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11811"/>
                    regulations, directives, and notices. Customers can add or delete subscriptions themselves and have the option to password protect their accounts.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">USDA Nondiscrimination Statement</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with Federal civil rights law and USDA civil rights regulations and policies, the USDA, its agencies, offices, and employees, and institutions participating in or administering USDA programs are prohibited from discriminating based on race, color, national origin, religion, sex, gender identity (including gender expression), sexual orientation, disability, age, marital status, family/parental status, income derived from a public assistance program, political beliefs, or reprisal or retaliation for prior civil rights activity, in any program or activity conducted or funded by USDA (not all bases apply to all programs). Remedies and complaint filing deadlines vary by program or incident. Persons with disabilities who require alternative means of communication for program information (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Braille, large print, audiotape, American Sign Language, etc.) should contact the responsible Agency or USDA's TARGET Center at (202) 720-2600 (voice and TTY) or contact USDA through the Federal Relay Service at (800) 877-8339. Additionally, program information may be made available in languages other than English. To file a program discrimination complaint, complete the USDA Program Discrimination Complaint Form, AD-3027, found online at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.usda.gov/oascr/how-to-file-a-program-discrimination-complaint</E>
                     and at any USDA office or write a letter addressed to USDA and provide in the letter all of the information requested in the form. To request a copy of the complaint form, call (866) 632-9992. Submit your completed form or letter to USDA by:
                </P>
                <P>
                    (1) 
                    <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                     U.S. Department of Agriculture, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Civil Rights, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20250-9410; (2) fax: (202) 690-7442; or (3) email: 
                    <E T="03">program.intake@usda.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>USDA is an equal opportunity provider, employer, and lender.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 7, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Egypt Simon,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting USDA Committee Management Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03185 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-DM-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Rural Business-Cooperative Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. RBS-23-BUSINESS-0028]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Rural Microentrepreneur Assistance Program (RMAP); OMB Control No.: 0570-0062</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Rural Business-Cooperative Service, USDA.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) Rural Business-Cooperative Service announces its' intention to request a revision of a currently approved information collection and invites comments on this information collection.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this notice must be received by April 15, 2024 to be assured of consideration.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments may be submitted through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         To comment, in the “Search” box, enter the docket number: “RBS-23-BUSINESS-0028.” You will be taken to the “Search Results” page and a link to the Notice. To submit a comment, click on the “Comments” button under the Notice document name (this will be under the “Documents” tab if not already brought there). When you comment, you must complete all the required information, and include the Agency name and docket number. When done commenting, select the “Submit Comment” button at the bottom of the page. Information on commenting is available in the “Commenter's Checklist” located at the top of the comment page or by viewing the FAQ tab. All comments submitted, from all sources, will be posted, without change to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Comments containing profanity, vulgarity, threats, or other inappropriate language or content will not be considered. The Agency requests that no business proprietary information, copyrighted information, or personally identifiable information be submitted in response to this Notice.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Crystal Pemberton, Management Analyst, Branch 1, Rural Development Innovation Center—Regulations Management Division, United States Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, South Building, Washington, DC 20250-1522. Telephone: (202) 260-8621. Email: 
                        <E T="03">Crystal.Pemberton@usda.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) regulation (5 CFR part 1320) implementing provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13) requires that interested members of the public and affected agencies have an opportunity to comment on information collection and recordkeeping activities (see, 5 CFR 1320.8(d)). This notice identifies the following information collection that Rural Business-Cooperative Service is submitting to OMB as extension to an existing collection with Agency adjustment.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Rural Microentrepreneur Assistance Program (RMAP).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     0570-0062.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Expiration Date of Approval:</E>
                     August 31, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Extension and revision of a currently approved information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimate of Burden:</E>
                     Public reporting burden for this collection of information is estimated to average 2 hours per response.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Nonprofits, Indian Tribes, and Public Institutions of Higher Education.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     40.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     11.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours on Respondents:</E>
                     1907.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The purpose of the RMAP program is to support the development and ongoing success of rural microentrepreneurs and microenterprises. Loans and grants are made to Microenterprise Development Organizations (MDOs) to provide rural microentrepreneurs with the skills necessary to establish new rural microenterprises, to provide continuing technical and financial assistance related to the successful operation of rural microenterprises, and to assist with the cost of providing other activities and services related to the successful operation of MDOs and rural microenterprises. The loans establish or augment a rural microentrepreneur revolving loan fund and the grants provide technical assistance and training to microenterprises.
                </P>
                <P>Comments are invited on:</P>
                <P>(a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>
                    (b) the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
                    <PRTPAGE P="11812"/>
                </P>
                <P>(c) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology. All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.</P>
                <P>
                    Copies of this information collection can be obtained from Crystal Pemberton, Rural Development Innovation Center—Regulations Management Division, at (202) 202-260-8621. Email: 
                    <E T="03">Crystal.Pemberton@usda.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will also become a matter of public record.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Kathryn E. Dirksen Londrigan,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrator, Rural Business-Cooperative Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03166 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3410-XY-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">COMMISSION ON CIVIL RIGHTS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meeting Notice</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>United States Commission on Civil Rights.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of Commission public business meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Friday, February 23, 2024, 10 a.m. EST.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Meeting to take place virtually and is open to the public via livestream on the Commission's YouTube page: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.youtube.com/user/USCCR/videos.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Angelia Rorison: 202-376-8371; 
                        <E T="03">publicaffairs@usccr.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the Government in Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b), the Commission on Civil Rights is holding a meeting to discuss the Commission's business for the month. This business meeting is open to the public. Computer assisted real-time transcription (CART) will be provided. The web link to access CART (in English) on Friday, February 23, 2024, is 
                    <E T="03">https://www.streamtext.net/player?event=USCCR.</E>
                     Please note that CART is text-only translation that occurs in real time during the meeting and is not an exact transcript.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Meeting Agenda</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Approval of Agenda</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Business Meeting</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">1. Presentation by State Advisory Committee Chairs on Reports and related Memorandum:</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">a. Chair Michelle Rydz, North Dakota Advisory Committee, “Civil Rights and Fair Housing in North Dakota</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">b. Chair Steven Irwin, Pennsylvania Advisory Committee, “Affirmatively Furthering Fair Housing: An Analysis of Fair Housing Access &amp; Zoning Practices in Pennsylvania”</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">c. Rev. Dr. Donnie Anderson, Member, Rhode Island Advisory Committee, “Licensing Barriers to Employment Post-Conviction in Rhode Island”</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Management and Operations</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Staff Director's Report</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Adjourn Meeting</HD>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 13, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Angelia Rorison,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>USCCR Media and Communications Director.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03268 Filed 2-13-24; 11:15 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6335-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Census Bureau</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for Review and Approval; Comment Request; High-Frequency Surveys Program/Household Pulse Survey</SUBJECT>
                <P>On January 2, 2024, the Department of Commerce received clearance from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 to conduct Phase 4.0 of the Household Pulse Survey (OMB No. 0607-1029, Exp. 01/31/27). The Department is committed to ensuring that the data collected by the Household Pulse Survey continue to meet information needs as they may evolve. This notice serves to inform of the Department's intent to request clearance from OMB to make some revisions to the Household Pulse Survey questionnaire. To ensure that the data collected by the Household Pulse Survey continue to meet information needs as they evolve over the course of the pandemic, the Department submits the following Request for Revision to an Existing Collection for a revised Phase 4.1 questionnaire to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice.</P>
                <P>Phase 4.1 includes new questions on inclusion in the arts as well as reinstated Medicaid and Unemployment Insurance items. There are also revisions to response options for the long COVID duration and food benefit receipt questions.</P>
                <P>
                    It is the Department's intention to commence data collection using the revised instrument on or about April 2, 2024. We invite the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on proposed, and continuing information collections, which helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. Public comments were previously requested via the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on October 31, 2023 (OMB No. 0607-1029) during a 30-day comment period. This notice allows for an additional 30 days for public comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     U.S. Census Bureau, Department of Commerce.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     High Frequency Surveys Program/Household Pulse Survey.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0607-1029.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number(s):</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Regular submission, Request for a Revision of a Currently Approved Collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     264,600.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Hours per Response:</E>
                     .333 (20 minutes).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Burden Hours:</E>
                     88,112.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     The High-Frequency Surveys Program was established as a natural progression from the creation of the Household Pulse Survey. The Census Bureau developed the Household Pulse Survey to produce near real-time data in a time of urgent and acute need to inform federal and state action in response to the Covid-19 pandemic. Changes in the measures over time provided insight into individuals' experiences on social and economic dimensions during the period of the pandemic. It has evolved to include content on other emergent social and economic issues facing households and is designed to supplement the federal statistical system's traditional benchmark data products with a new data source that provides relevant and timely information based on a high-quality sample frame, data integration, and cooperative expertise.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Households will be selected once to participate in a 20-minute survey.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Voluntary.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11813"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Legal Authority:</E>
                     Title 13, United States Code, Sections 8(b), 182 and 193.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This information collection request may be viewed at 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov.</E>
                     Follow the instructions to view the Department of Commerce collections currently under review by OMB.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                     Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function and entering the title of the collection.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sheleen Dumas,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Department PRA Clearance Officer, Office of the Under Secretary for Economic Affairs, Commerce Department.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03188 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-07-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[A-557-813]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Polyethylene Retail Carrier Bags From Malaysia: Final Results of the Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2021-2022</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) determines that polyethylene retail carrier bags from Malaysia were sold in the United States at less than normal value during the period of review (POR), August 1, 2021, through July 31, 2022.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicable February 15, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Katherine Sliney, AD/CVD Operations, Office III, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-2437.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On September 8, 2023, Commerce published the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results</E>
                     of this administrative review and invited parties to comment on those results.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The review covers one mandatory respondent, Euro SME Sdn. Bhd. and Euro Nature Green Sdn. Bhd. (Nature Green) (collectively, Euro SME). For a summary of the events that occurred since the 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Results,</E>
                     as well as a full discussion of the issues raised by parties for these final results, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     the Issues and Decision Memorandum.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On January 3, 2024, we extended the deadline for these final results to February 6, 2024.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Commerce conducted this administrative review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(B) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Polyethylene Retail Carrier Bags from Malaysia: Preliminary Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2021-2022,</E>
                         88 FR 62064 (September 8, 2023) (
                        <E T="03">Preliminary Results</E>
                        ), and accompanying Preliminary Decision Memorandum.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Issues and Decision Memorandum for the Final Results of the Administrative Review of the Antidumping Duty Order on Polyethylene Retail Carrier Bags from Malaysia; 2021-2022,” dated concurrently with, and hereby adopted by, this notice (Issues and Decision Memorandum).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Polyethylene Retail Carrier Bags from Malaysia: Extension of Deadline for Final Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review,” dated January 3, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Scope of the Order</HD>
                <P>
                    The merchandise covered by this order is polyethylene retail carrier bags) from Malaysia, which may be referred to as t-shirt sacks, merchandise bags, grocery bags, or checkout bags. Imports of merchandise included within the scope of this antidumping duty order are currently classifiable under statistical category 3923.21.0085 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). This subheading may also cover products that are outside the scope of this antidumping duty order. Although the HTSUS subheading is provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this antidumping duty order is dispositive. For a full description of the scope of the order, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     the Issues and Decision Memorandum.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis of the Comments Received</HD>
                <P>
                    All issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. A list of the issues that parties raised and to which we responded in the Issues and Decision Memorandum is attached as the appendix to this notice. The Issues and Decision Memorandum is a public document and is available electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic System (ACCESS). ACCESS is available to registered users at 
                    <E T="03">https://access.trade.gov.</E>
                     In addition, a complete version of the Issues and Decision Memorandum can be accessed directly at 
                    <E T="03">https://access.trade.gov/public/FRNoticesListLayout.aspx.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Changes Since the Preliminary Results</HD>
                <P>
                    Based on our analysis of the comments received from interested parties, a review of the record, and for the reasons explained in the Issues and Decision Memorandum, we made certain changes to the margin calculation for Euro SME.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For a detailed discussion of these changes, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     the Issues and Decision Memorandum. 
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         In the 2018-2019 administrative review of the order, we treated Euro SME Sdn. Bhd. and Nature Green as a single entity. Our treatment of Euro SME Sdn. Bhd. and Nature Green remains unchanged in the instant review. 
                        <E T="03">See Polyethylene Retail Carrier Bags from Malaysia: Preliminary Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2018-2019,</E>
                         85 FR 83515 (December 22, 2020), and accompanying Preliminary Decision Memorandum at 3-5, unchanged in 
                        <E T="03">Polyethylene Retail Carrier Bags from Malaysia: Final Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2018-2019,</E>
                         86 FR 22019 (April 26, 2021); 
                        <E T="03">see also Polyethylene Retail Carrier Bags from Malaysia: Final Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2019-2020,</E>
                         87 FR 12933 (March 8, 2022).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Final Results of Review</HD>
                <P>Commerce determines that the following weighted-average dumping margin exists for the period August 1, 2021, through July 31, 2022:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s25,9C">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Exporter/producer</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Weighted-
                            <LI>average</LI>
                            <LI>dumping</LI>
                            <LI>margin</LI>
                            <LI>(percent)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Euro SME Sdn. Bhd.; and Euro Nature Green Sdn. Bhd</ENT>
                        <ENT>1.61</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Disclosure</HD>
                <P>
                    Commerce intends to disclose to interested parties the calculations performed for these final results in this review within five days of the date of publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Assessment Rates</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.212(b)(1), Commerce shall determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review. Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.212(b)(1), where the respondent reported the entered value of its U.S. sales, we calculated importer-specific antidumping duty assessment rates by aggregating the total amount of dumping calculated for the examined sales of each importer and dividing each of these amounts by the total entered value associated with those sales. Where the respondent did not report entered value, we calculated a per-unit assessment rate for each importer by dividing the total 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11814"/>
                    amount of dumping calculated for the examined sales made to that importer by the total quantity associated with those sales. To determine whether an importer-specific, per-unit assessment rate is 
                    <E T="03">de minimis,</E>
                     in accordance with 19 CFR 351.106(c)(2), we also calculated an importer-specific 
                    <E T="03">ad valorem</E>
                     ratio based on estimated entered values. Where either the respondent's weighted-average dumping margin is zero or 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     within the meaning of 19 CFR 351.106(c)(1), or an importer-specific assessment rate is zero or 
                    <E T="03">de minimis,</E>
                     we will instruct CBP to liquidate the appropriate entries without regard to antidumping duties.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Commerce's “automatic assessment” will apply to entries of subject merchandise during the POR produced by Euro SME for which it did not know that the merchandise it sold to an intermediary (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     a reseller, trading company, or exporter) was destined for the United States. In such instances, we will instruct CBP to liquidate unreviewed entries at the all-others rate if there is rate for the intermediate company(ies) involved in the transaction.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Proceedings: Assessment of Antidumping Duties,</E>
                         68 FR 23954 (May 6, 2003).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Commerce intends to issue assessment instructions to CBP no earlier than 35 days after the date of publication of the final results of this review in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . If a timely summons is filed at the U.S. Court of International Trade, the assessment instructions will direct CBP not to liquidate relevant entries until the time for parties to file a request for a statutory injunction has expired (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     within 90 days of publication).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cash Deposit Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    The following cash deposit requirements will be effective for all shipments of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date of the final results of this administrative review, as provided by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) the cash deposit rate for Euro SME will be equal to the weighted-average dumping margin established in the final results of this administrative review; (2) for merchandise exported by producers or exporters not covered in this review but covered in a prior completed segment of the proceeding, the cash deposit rate will continue to be the company-specific rate published for the most recently completed segment of this proceeding in which the producer or exporter participated; (3) if the exporter is not a firm covered in this review, a prior review, or the original investigation, but the producer has been covered in a prior complete segment of this proceeding, then the cash deposit rate will be the rate established for the most recent period for the producer of the merchandise; (4) the cash deposit rate for all other manufacturers or exporters will continue to be 84.94 percent, the all-others rate established in the less-than-fair-value investigation.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These cash deposit requirements, when imposed, shall remain in effect until further notice.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Antidumping Duty Order: Polyethylene Retail Carrier Bags from Malaysia,</E>
                         69 FR 48203 (August 9, 2004).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Importers</HD>
                <P>This notice serves as a final reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in Commerce's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Administrative Protective Order</HD>
                <P>This notice serves as the only reminder to parties subject to an administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>We are issuing and publishing these final results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.221(b)(5).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 6, 2024</DATED>
                    <NAME>Ryan Majerus,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary for Policy and Negotiations, performing the non-exclusive functions and duties of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">List of Topics Discussed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Summary</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Background</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        III. Scope of the 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        IV. Changes Since the 
                        <E T="03">Preliminary Results</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Discussion of the Issues</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 1: Commerce Should Use the Most Recent Quarterly Cost File</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Comment 2: Commerce Should Correctly Apply the Cap for Freight Revenue Expenses</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Recommendation</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03142 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[A-570-158, A-301-806, A-331-804, A-533-920, A-560-840, A-475-846, A-580-918, A-557-826, A-201-860, A-583-874, A-549-847, A-489-850, A-520-810, A-552-837]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Aluminum Extrusions From the People's Republic of China, Colombia, Ecuador, India, Indonesia, Italy, the Republic of Korea, Malaysia, Mexico, Taiwan, Thailand, the Republic of Turkey, the United Arab Emirates, and the Socialist Republic of Vietnam: Postponement of Preliminary Determinations in the Less-Than-Fair-Value Investigations</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicable February 15, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Luke Caruso (the People's Republic of China (China)) at (202) 482-2081; Jose Rivera (Colombia) at (202) 482-0842; Stephanie Trejo (Ecuador) at (202) 482-4390; Alex Cipolla (India) at (202) 482-4956; Samuel Brummitt (Indonesia) at (202) 482-7851; Christopher Maciuba (the Republic of Korea (Korea)) at (202) 482-0413; Eric Hawkins (Italy) at (202) 482-1988; Benjamin Blythe (Malaysia) at (202) 482-3457; Tyler Weinhold (Mexico) at (202) 482-1121; Hermes Pinilla (Taiwan) at (202) 482-3477; Jun Jack Zhao (Thailand) at (202) 482-1396; Sean Grossnickle (the Republic of Turkey (Turkey)) at (202) 482-3818; John K. Drury (the United Arab Emirates (UAE)) at (202) 482-0195; and Katherine Smith (the Socialist Republic of Vietnam (Vietnam)) at (202) 482-0557, AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On October 24, 2023, the U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) initiated the less-than-fair-value (LTFV) investigations of imports of aluminum extrusions from China, Colombia, Ecuador, India, Indonesia, Italy, Korea, Malaysia, Mexico, Taiwan, Thailand, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11815"/>
                    Turkey, the UAE, and Vietnam.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Currently, the preliminary determinations are due no later than March 12, 2024.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Aluminum Extrusions from the People's Republic of China, Colombia, the Dominican Republic, Ecuador, India, Indonesia, Italy, the Republic of Korea, Malaysia, Mexico, Taiwan, Thailand, the Republic of Turkey, the United Arab Emirates, and the Socialist Republic of Vietnam: Initiation of Less-Than-Fair-Value Investigation,</E>
                         88 FR 74421 (October 31, 2023).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Postponement of Preliminary Determination</HD>
                <P>Section 733(b)(1)(A) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), requires Commerce to issue the preliminary determination in an LTFV investigation within 140 days after the date on which Commerce initiated the investigation. However, section 733(c)(1) of the Act permits Commerce to postpone the preliminary determination until no later than 190 days after the date on which Commerce initiated the investigation if: (A) the petitioner makes a timely request for a postponement; or (B) Commerce concludes that the parties concerned are cooperating, that the investigation is extraordinarily complicated, and that additional time is necessary to make a preliminary determination. Under 19 CFR 351.205(e), the petitioner must submit a request for postponement 25 days or more before the scheduled date of the preliminary determination and must state the reasons for the request. Commerce will grant the request unless it finds compelling reasons to deny the request.</P>
                <P>
                    On February 5, 2024, the U.S. Aluminum Extruders Coalition and the United Steel, Paper and Forestry, Rubber, Manufacturing, Energy, Allied Industrial and Service Workers International Union (collectively, the petitioners), submitted a timely request that Commerce postpone the preliminary determinations in the LTFV investigations for China, Colombia, Ecuador, India, Indonesia, Italy, Korea, Malaysia, Mexico, Taiwan, Thailand, Turkey, the UAE, and Vietnam.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The petitioners stated that they request postponement due to concerns that these investigations cover over a dozen countries and Commerce will need more time, as initial questionnaires are just starting to come in, to issue supplemental questionnaires to address deficiencies in the respondents' initial questionnaire responses.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Petitioners' Letter, “Petitioner's Request for Postponement of Preliminary Determination,” dated February 5, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at 2.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    For the reasons stated above, and because there are no compelling reasons to deny the request, Commerce, in accordance with section 733(c)(1)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(e), is postponing the deadline for the preliminary determinations by 50 days (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     190 days after the date on which these investigations were initiated). As a result, Commerce will issue its preliminary determinations no later than May 1, 2024. In accordance with section 735(a)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(b)(1), the deadline for the final determinations in these investigations will continue to be 75 days after the date of the preliminary determinations, unless postponed at a later date.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>This notice is issued and published pursuant to section 733(c)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(f)(1).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Ryan Majerus,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary for Policy and Negotiations, Performing the Non-exclusive Functions and Duties of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03145 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institute of Standards and Technology</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Manufacturing Extension Partnership Advisory Board</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Institute of Standards and Technology, Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of open meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) announces that the Manufacturing Extension Partnership (MEP) Advisory Board will hold an open meeting on Tuesday, March 5-Wednesday March 6, 2024.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting will be held on Tuesday, March 5 from 10 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. and Wednesday March 6, 2024, from 9 a.m. to 12 p.m. Eastern time.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The Tuesday, March 5 session will be held in person at the Gaithersburg Marriott Washingtonian Center: 9751 Washingtonian Boulevard, Gaithersburg, MD 20878. The Wednesday, March 6 session will be held at the Commerce Research Library: 1401 Constitution Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20230.</P>
                    <P>
                        Please note admittance instructions in the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section below. Interested parties should be sure to check the NIST MEP Advisory Board website for the most up-to-date information at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.nist.gov/mep/about/advisory-board.cfm.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Beverly R. Bobb, Manufacturing Extension Partnership Program, National Institute of Standards and Technology, 100 Bureau Drive, Mail Stop 4800, Gaithersburg, MD 20899-4800; telephone number: (301) 975-5197; email: 
                        <E T="03">Beverly.Bobb@nist.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The MEP Advisory Board is authorized under 15 U.S.C 278k(m), in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), as amended, 5 U.S.C. 1001 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                     The Hollings Manufacturing Extension Partnership Program (Program) is a unique program consisting of Centers in all 50 states and Puerto Rico with partnerships at the federal, state and local levels. By statute, the MEP Advisory Board provides the NIST Director with: (1) advice on the activities, plans and policies of the Program; (2) assessments of the soundness of the plans and strategies of the Program; and (3) assessments of current performance against the plans of the Program.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Background information on the MEP Advisory Board is available at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.nist.gov/mep/about/advisory-board.cfm.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, 5 U.S.C. 1001 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     notice is hereby given that the MEP Advisory Board will hold an open meeting on Tuesday, March 5 from 10 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. and Wednesday, March 6, 2024, from 9 a.m. to 12 p.m. Eastern time. The meeting agenda will include an update on the MEP programmatic operations, as well as provide guidance and advice on current activities related to the current MEP National Network
                    <SU>TM</SU>
                     2023-2027 Strategic Plan. The agenda may change to accommodate Board business. The final agenda will be posted on the MEP Advisory Board website at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.nist.gov/mep/about/advisory-board.cfm.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Individuals and representatives of organizations who would like to offer comments and suggestions related to the MEP Advisory Board's business are invited to request a place on the agenda. Approximately 20 minutes will be reserved for public comments at the end of the meeting. Speaking times will be assigned on a first-come, first-served basis. The amount of time per speaker will be determined by the number of requests received but is likely to be no more than three to five minutes each. Requests must be submitted by email to 
                    <E T="03">Beverly.Bobb@nist.gov</E>
                     and must be received by Wednesday, February 28, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11816"/>
                    2024, to be considered. The exact time for public comments will be included in the final agenda that will be posted on the MEP Advisory Board website at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.nist.gov/mep/about/advisory-board.cfm.</E>
                     Questions from the public will not be considered during this period. Speakers who wish to expand upon their oral statements, those who wished to speak but could not be accommodated on the agenda or those who are/were unable to attend the meeting are invited to submit written statements electronically by email to 
                    <E T="03">Beverly.Bobb@nist.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Admittance Instructions:</E>
                     All wishing to attend the MEP Advisory Board meeting must submit their name, organization, email address and phone number to Beverly Bobb (
                    <E T="03">Beverly.Bobb@nist.gov</E>
                     or 301-975-5197) no later than Wednesday, February 28, 2024, 5 p.m. Eastern time. In person seating is limited and will be available on a first-come, first-served basis. Detailed instructions on how to join the meeting via webinar or in-person will be sent to registered attendees.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Tamiko Ford,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>NIST Executive Secretariat.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03126 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-13-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XD726]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Fisheries of the Gulf of Mexico; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review (SEDAR); Public Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of SEDAR 88 SRFS (State of Florida's State Reef Fish Survey) Topical Working Group Scoping Webinar for Gulf of Mexico red grouper.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The SEDAR 88 assessment of Gulf of Mexico red grouper will consist of a series of webinars. See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The SEDAR 88 SRFS Topical Working Group Scoping Webinar will be held March 6, 2023, from 10 a.m. to 12 p.m., eastern.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The meeting will be held via webinar. The webinar is open to members of the public. Those interested in participating should contact Julie A. Neer at SEDAR (see 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         below) to request an invitation providing webinar access information. Please request webinar invitations at least 24 hours in advance of each webinar.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">SEDAR address:</E>
                         4055 Faber Place Drive, Suite 201, North Charleston, SC 29405.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Julie A. Neer, SEDAR Coordinator; (843) 571-4366; email: 
                        <E T="03">Julie.neer@safmc.net.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Gulf of Mexico, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils, in conjunction with NOAA Fisheries and the Atlantic and Gulf States Marine Fisheries Commissions have implemented the Southeast Data, Assessment and Review (SEDAR) process, a multi-step method for determining the status of fish stocks in the Southeast Region. SEDAR is a multi-step process including: (1) Data Workshop; (2) Assessment Process utilizing webinars; and (3) Review Workshop. The product of the Data Workshop is a data report that compiles and evaluates potential datasets and recommends which datasets are appropriate for assessment analyses. The product of the Assessment Process is a stock assessment report that describes the fisheries, evaluates the status of the stock, estimates biological benchmarks, projects future population conditions, and recommends research and monitoring needs. The assessment is independently peer reviewed at the Review Workshop. The product of the Review Workshop is a Summary documenting panel opinions regarding the strengths and weaknesses of the stock assessment and input data. Participants for SEDAR Workshops are appointed by the Gulf of Mexico, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils and NOAA Fisheries Southeast Regional Office, HMS Management Division, and Southeast Fisheries Science Center. Participants include data collectors and database managers; stock assessment scientists, biologists, and researchers; constituency representatives including fishermen, environmentalists, and NGO's; International experts; and staff of Councils, Commissions, and State and Federal agencies.</P>
                <P>The items of discussion in the webinar are as follows:</P>
                <P>Participants will review SRFS data available for use in the assessment of Gulf of Mexico red grouper and make recommendations on its use.</P>
                <P>Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Accommodations</HD>
                <P>
                    The meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to the Council office (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ) at least 10 business days prior to each workshop.
                </P>
                <NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Note:</HD>
                    <P>The times and sequence specified in this agenda are subject to change.</P>
                </NOTE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     16 U.S.C. 1801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 12, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Rey Israel Marquez,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03201 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Analysis for Probabilistic and Risk Reduction Decision Support Fire Weather Services</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Oceanic &amp; Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection, request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of Commerce, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on proposed, and continuing information collections, which helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment preceding submission of the collection to OMB.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>To ensure consideration, comments regarding this proposed information collection must be received on or before April 15, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Interested persons are invited to submit written comments to Adrienne Thomas, NOAA PRA Officer, at 
                        <E T="03">NOAA.PRA@noaa.gov.</E>
                         Do not submit 
                        <PRTPAGE P="11817"/>
                        Confidential Business Information or otherwise sensitive or protected information.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Requests for additional information or specific questions related to collection activities should be directed to Robyn Heffernan, National Fire Weather Services Senior Advisor, NOAA National Weather Service, 3833 S Development Ave., Boise, ID 83705, (208) 387-5089, 
                        <E T="03">robyn.heffernan@noaa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Abstract</HD>
                <P>This is a request for a new collection of information.</P>
                <P>The data collection is sponsored by DOC/NOAA/National Weather Service (NWS)/Analyze, Forecast, and Support Office (AFS), National Fire Weather Program. Under the Disaster Relief Supplemental Appropriations Act of 2022, Congress charged NOAA/NWS to improve (a) Hurricane intensity and track forecasting, including through deployment of unmanned ocean observing platforms and enhanced data assimilation; (b) precipitation and flood prediction, forecasting, and mitigation capabilities; and (c) wildfire research, prediction, detection, forecasting, monitoring, data management, and communication and engagement. Based on this directive, the NWS is conducting this project to improve decision support services for fire weather products and services. By using social science methods and risk communication expertise, the NWS seeks to identify how probabilistic weather information can most effectively influence fire-related decision-making to protect lives and property and enhance the economy. This data collection will include an on-line survey and virtual focus groups. The survey sample will be a non-representative panel that will draw primarily from the Western, Southern Plains, and Southeastern portions of the United States. The focus groups will be conducted with Public Information Officers and Fire Weather Practitioners at the national, regional, state, and local levels based on contacts known to the NWS. The insights and findings derived from this data collection will be used to develop Impact Decision Support Services' products and messages.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Method of Collection</HD>
                <P>Both the survey and the focus groups will be conducted electronically via video conferencing technology based on schedules and participant preference.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Data</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0648-XXXX.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number(s):</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Regular submission new information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals, State, local, or Tribal government.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     2,140.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     Focus group: 2 hours; Survey: 15 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     605 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Cost to Public:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Legal Authority:</E>
                     Disaster Relief Supplemental Appropriations Act of 2022.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department/Bureau to: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Evaluate ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you may ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sheleen Dumas,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Department PRA Clearance Officer, Office of the Under Secretary for Economic Affairs, Commerce Department.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03190 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-KE-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XV196]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Space Weather Advisory Group Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of public meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Space Weather Advisory Group (SWAG) will meet for a full day on March 26, 2024.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting is scheduled as follows: March 26, 2024 from 10 a.m.-5 p.m. Eastern Daylight Saving Time (EDT).</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The public meeting will be a virtual event. For details on how to connect to the webinar or to submit comments, please visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.weather.gov/swag</E>
                         or contact Amy Macpherson, National Weather Service; telephone: 816-287-1344; email: 
                        <E T="03">amy.macpherson@noaa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Amy Macpherson, National Weather Service, NOAA, 7211 NW 101st Terrace, Kansas City, MO 64153; 816-287-1344 or 
                        <E T="03">amy.macpherson@noaa.gov;</E>
                         or visit the SWAG website: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.weather.gov/swag.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to the Promoting Research and Observations of Space Weather to Improve the Forecasting of Tomorrow (PROSWIFT) Act, 51 U.S.C. 60601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     the Administrator of NOAA and the National Science and Technology Council's Space Weather Operations, Research, and Mitigation (SWORM) Subcommittee established the SWAG on April 21, 2021. The SWAG is the only Federal Advisory SWAG that advises and informs the interest and work of the SWORM. The SWAG is to receive advice from the academic community, the commercial space weather sector, and nongovernmental space weather end users to carry out the responsibilities of the SWAG set forth in the PROSWIFT Act, 51 U.S.C. 60601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The SWAG is directed to advise the SWORM on the following: facilitating advances in the space weather enterprise of the United States; improving the ability of the United States to prepare for, mitigate, respond to, and recover from space weather phenomena; enabling the coordination and facilitation of research to operations and operations to research, as described in 51 U.S.C. 60604(d); and developing 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11818"/>
                    and implementing the integrated strategy under 51 U.S.C. 60601(c), including subsequent updates and reevaluations. The SWAG shall also conduct a comprehensive survey of the needs of users of space weather products to identify the space weather research, observations, forecasting, prediction, and modeling advances required to improve space weather products, as required by 51 U.S.C. 60601(d)(3).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Matters To Be Considered</HD>
                <P>
                    The meeting will be open to the public. During the meeting, the SWAG will discuss the PROSWIFT Act, 51 U.S.C. 60601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     directed duties of the SWAG including the required 51 U.S.C. 60601(d)(3) user survey. The full agenda and meeting materials will be published on the SWAG website: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.weather.gov/swag.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Additional Information and Public Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    The meeting will be held over one full day and will be conducted in a virtual manner (for meeting details see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ). Please register for the meeting through the website: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.weather.gov/swag.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    This event is accessible to individuals with disabilities. For all other special accommodation requests, please contact 
                    <E T="03">amy.macpherson@noaa.gov.</E>
                     This webinar is a NOAA public meeting and will be recorded and transcribed. If you have a public comment, you acknowledge you will be recorded and are aware you can opt out of the meeting. Participation in the meeting constitutes consent to the recording. Both the meeting minutes and presentations will be posted to the SWAG website 
                    <E T="03">https://www.weather.gov/swag.</E>
                     The agenda, speakers and times are subject to change. For updates, please check the SWAG website 
                    <E T="03">https://www.weather.gov/swag.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Public comments directed to the SWAG members and SWAG related topics are encouraged. For other written public comments, please email 
                    <E T="03">amy.macpherson@noaa.gov</E>
                     by March 22, 2024. Written comments received after this date will be distributed to the SWAG but may not be reviewed prior to the meeting date. As time allows, public comments will be read into the public record during the meeting. Advance comments will be collated and posted to the meeting website.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Michael Farrar,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, National Centers for Environmental Prediction, National Weather Service, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03116 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-KE-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XD723]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>New England Fishery Management Council; Public Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of public meetings.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) is conducting six scoping meetings to solicit comments regarding the rang of alternatives to consider in Amendment 10 (A10) to the Atlantic Herring Fishery Management Plan to consider actions affecting New England fisheries in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ). The Council is proposing to take action through A10 to address spatial and temporal allocation and management of Atlantic herring at the management unit level to minimize user conflicts, contribute to optimum yield and support rebuilding of the resource. The Council is also proposing to take action to enhance river herring (alewife and blueback herring) and shad (American shad and hickory shad) avoidance and other catch reduction measures to better support ongoing coastwide restoration efforts for those species. The Council is scheduling the scoping meetings in accordance with the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act and the National Environmental Policy Act. A summary of public comments received will be provided to the Council for formal consideration and action, if appropriate.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        These meetings and webinars will be held between the dates of Friday, March 1, 2024 and Monday, April 22, 2024. See 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         for more details on specific dates and times.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Council address:</E>
                         New England Fishery Management Council, 50 Water Street, Mill 2, Newburyport, MA 01950.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Cate O'Keefe, Ph.D., Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>1. Friday, March 1, 2024, 1-2:30 p.m., Samoset Resort Hotel, 220 Warrenton Street, Rockport, ME 04856;</P>
                <P>2. Monday, March 4, 2024, 6-8 p.m., Urban Forestry Center, 45 Elwyn Road, Portsmouth, NH 03801;</P>
                <P>3. Tuesday, March 19, 2024, 6-8 p.m., Hampton Inn, 20 Hotel Drive, South Kingstown, RI 02879;</P>
                <P>4. Wednesday, March 27, 2024, 6-8 p.m., Hampton Inn, 12 Kendall Rae Place, Buzzards Bay, MA 02532;</P>
                <P>
                    5. Wednesday, April 17, 2024, 6-8 p.m., Hilton Hotel, 20 Coogan Boulevard, Mystic, CT 06355, also via webinar. Please register for the webinar here: 
                    <E T="03">https://attendee.gotowebinar.com/register/3372208096915656544.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. Monday, April 22, 2024, from 6-8 p.m. via webinar. Please register for the webinar here: 
                    <E T="03">https://attendee.gotowebinar.com/register/3923008446850127706.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Public comments:</E>
                     The public comment deadline is 8 a.m. EST on Tuesday, April 30, 2024. Mail to Cate O'Keefe, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council, 50 Water Street, Mill #2, Newburyport, MA 01950. Mark the outside of the envelope “Atlantic Herring Amendment 10 Scoping Comments”. Comments may also be sent via email to 
                    <E T="03">comments@nefmc.org</E>
                    —with “Atlantic Herring Amendment 10 Scoping Comments” in the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agenda </HD>
                <P>Council staff will brief the public on the A10 scoping document before receiving comments. These meetings will begin promptly at the time indicated above. If all attendees who wish to do so have provided their comments prior to the end time indicated, the meeting may conclude early. To the extent possible, the Council may extend scoping meetings beyond the end time indicated above to accommodate all attendees who wish to speak.</P>
                <P>
                    Although non-emergency issues not contained on the agenda may come before this Council for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during these meetings. Council action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency. The public also should be aware that the meeting will be recorded. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11819"/>
                    Consistent with 16 U.S.C. 1852, a copy of the recording is available upon request.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Accommodations</HD>
                <P>These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Cate O'Keefe, Executive Director, at (978) 465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     16 U.S.C. 1801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 12, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Rey Israel Marquez,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03200 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XD728]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>North Pacific Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of hybrid meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The North Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) Scallop Plan Team will meet in Alaska.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting will be held on Tuesday, March 5, 2024, from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m., AK time.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The meeting will be a hybrid meeting. Attend in person in the Chiniak room at the Kodiak Fish and Game office, 351 Research Court, Kodiak, AK 99615, or join online through the link at 
                        <E T="03">https://meetings.npfmc.org/Meeting/Details/3035.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Council address:</E>
                         North Pacific Fishery Management Council, 1007 W 3rd Ave., Ste. 400, Anchorage, AK 99501-2252; telephone: (907) 271-2809. Instructions for attending the meeting via video conference are given under 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        , below.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Sarah Rheinsmith, Council staff; phone: (907) 271-2809; email: 
                        <E T="03">sarah.rheinsmith@noaa.gov.</E>
                         For technical support, please contact our admin Council staff, email: 
                        <E T="03">npfmc.admin@noaa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agenda</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Tuesday, March 5, 2024</HD>
                <P>
                    The agenda will include: (a) 2023 state dredge survey results; (b) statewide fishery performance; (c) research updates; (d) Scallop FMP amendments; (e) stock status, OFL and ABC determination; (f) socioeconomic considerations; (g) status of assessment development; and (h) other business. The agenda is subject to change, and the latest version will be posted at 
                    <E T="03">https://meetings.npfmc.org/Meeting/Details/3035</E>
                     prior to the meeting, along with meeting materials.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Connection Information</HD>
                <P>
                    You can attend the meeting online using a computer, tablet, or smart phone, or by phone only. Connection information will be posted online at: 
                    <E T="03">https://meetings.npfmc.org/Meeting/Details/3035.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Comment</HD>
                <P>
                    Public comment letters will be accepted and should be submitted electronically to 
                    <E T="03">https://meetings.npfmc.org/Meeting/Details/3035.</E>
                </P>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>
                        16 U.S.C. 1801 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </AUTH>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 12, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Rey Israel Marquez,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Director, Office of Sustainable Fisheries, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03202 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Patent and Trademark Office</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Patent Petitions Related to Application and Reexamination Processing Fees</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>United States Patent and Trademark Office, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO), as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, invites comments on the extension and revision of an existing information collection: 0651-0059, Patent Petitions Related to Application and Reexamination Processing Fees. The purpose of this notice is to allow 60 days for public comment preceding submission of the information collection to OMB.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>To ensure consideration, comments regarding this information collection must be received on or before April 15, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written comments by any of the following methods. Do not submit Confidential Business Information or otherwise sensitive or protected information.</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Email: InformationCollection@uspto.gov.</E>
                         Include “0651-0059 comment” in the subject line of the message.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Justin Isaac, Office of the Chief Administrative Officer, United States Patent and Trademark Office, P.O. Box 1450, Alexandria, VA 22313-1450.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Request for additional information should be directed to Jeffrey West, Senior Legal Advisor, Office of Patent Legal Administration, United States Patent and Trademark Office, P.O. Box 1450, Alexandria, VA 22313-1450; by telephone at 571-272-2226; or by email at 
                        <E T="03">jeffrey.west@uspto.gov</E>
                         with “0651-0059 comment” in the subject line. Additional information about this information collection is also available at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.reginfo.gov</E>
                         under “Information Collection Review.”
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Abstract</HD>
                <P>
                    The United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) is required by 35 U.S.C. 131 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                     to examine an application for patent and, when appropriate, issue a patent. The USPTO also is required to publish patent applications, with certain exceptions, promptly after the expiration of a period of eighteen months from the earliest filing date for which a benefit is sought under Title 35, United States Code.
                </P>
                <P>USPTO petitions practice provides an opportunity for a patent applicant or owner to supply additional information that may be required in order for the USPTO to further process an application or patent. For other USPTO actions, review is in the form of administrative review obtained via submission of a petition to the USPTO. Many actions taken by the USPTO during its examination of an application for patent or for reissue of a patent, or during reexamination of a patent, are subject to review by an appeal to the Patent Trial and Appeal Board (PTAB). Appeals to PTAB are covered in other OMB approved information collections (0651-0063 and 0651-0069).</P>
                <P>
                    This information collection covers petitions filed in patent applications 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11820"/>
                    and reexamination proceedings that, when submitted to the USPTO, must be accompanied by the fee set forth in 37 CFR 1.17(f), (g), or (h). This information collection also covers the transmittals for the petitions fees.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Method of Collection</HD>
                <P>The items in this information collection can be submitted through the USPTO patent electronic filing system (Patent Center), the USPTO's online filing and viewing system for patent applications and related documents. The USPTO also will accept submissions, if applicable, by mail, hand delivery, and facsimile.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Data</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     0651-0059.
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                    <E T="03">Forms:</E>
                     (SB = Specimen Book; AIA = America Invents Act)
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• PTO/AIA/17p (Processing Fee Under 37 CFR 1.17(f), (g), &amp; (h) Transmittal)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• PTO/SB/23 (Petition for Extension of Time Under 37 CFR 1.136(b))</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• PTO/SB/24A (Petition for Express Abandonment to Avoid Publication Under 37 CFR 1.138(c))</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• PTO/SB/28 (Petition to Make Special Under Accelerated Examination Program)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• PTO/SB/140 (Petition to Withdraw an Application From Issue After Payment of the Issue Fee Under 37 CFR 1.313(c))</FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension and revision of a currently approved information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Private sector.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Required to obtain or retain benefits.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Annual Respondents:</E>
                     50,953 respondents.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     50,953 responses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     The USPTO estimates that the responses in this information collection will take the public approximately between 12 minutes (0.20 hours) and 12 hours to complete. This includes the time, depending on the complexity of the situation and item, to gather the necessary information, create the document, and submit the completed request to the USPTO.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Respondent Burden Hours:</E>
                     82,237 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Respondent Hourly Cost Burden:</E>
                     $36,759,939.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="9" OPTS="L2(,0,),nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="xs20,r50,10,10,12,9,12,8,12">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Total Burden Hours and Hourly Costs to Private Sector Respondents</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Item No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Item</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>annual</LI>
                            <LI>respondents </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Responses per
                            <LI>respondent </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>annual</LI>
                            <LI>responses </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>time for</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(hours) </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>(hour/year) </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Rate 
                            <SU>1</SU>
                            <LI>($/hour) </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>annual</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                            <LI>cost burden </LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>(a)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(b)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(a) × (b) = (c)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(d)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(c) × (d) = (e)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(f)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(e) × (f) = (g)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl">Petitions (corresponding to the fee) Under 37 CFR 1.17(f) include:</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,650</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,650</ENT>
                        <ENT>4</ENT>
                        <ENT>18,600</ENT>
                        <ENT>447</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,314,200</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi2">• Petition to Accord a Filing Date Under 1.57(a)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi2">• Petition to Accord a Filing Date Under 1.53(e)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi2">• Petition for Decision on a Question Not Specifically Provided For</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi2">• Petition to Suspend the Rules</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Petition Fee Under 37 CFR 1.17(f), (g), and (h) Transmittal</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl">Petitions (corresponding to the fee) Under 37 CFR 1.17(g) include:</ENT>
                        <ENT>17,440</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>17,440</ENT>
                        <ENT>2</ENT>
                        <ENT>34,880</ENT>
                        <ENT>447</ENT>
                        <ENT>15,591,360</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi2">• Petition to Access an Assignment Record</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi2">• Petition for Access to an Application</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi2">• Petition for Expungement and Return of Information</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi2">• Petition to Suspend Action in an Application</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Petition Fee Under 37 CFR 1.17(f), (g), and (h) Transmittal</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl">Petitions (corresponding to the fee) Under 37 CFR 1.17(h) include:</ENT>
                        <ENT>26,768</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>26,768</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>26,768</ENT>
                        <ENT>447</ENT>
                        <ENT>11,965,296</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi2">• Petition for Accepting Color Drawings or Photographs</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi2">• Petition for Entry of a Model or Exhibit</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi2">• Petition to Withdraw an Application from Issue</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi2">• Petition to Defer Issuance of a Patent</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>Petition Fee Under 37 CFR 1.17(f), (g), and (h) Transmittal</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                        <ENT>Petitions to Make Special Under Accelerated Examination Program (EFS-Web only)</ENT>
                        <ENT>133</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>133</ENT>
                        <ENT>12</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,596</ENT>
                        <ENT>447</ENT>
                        <ENT>713,412</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                        <ENT>Petitions for Express Abandonment to Avoid Publication Under 37 CFR 1.138(c)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,961</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,961</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.20</ENT>
                        <ENT>392</ENT>
                        <ENT>447</ENT>
                        <ENT>175,224</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                        <ENT>Petition for Extension of Time Under 37 CFR 1.136(b)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.50</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>447</ENT>
                        <ENT>447</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>50,953</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>50,953</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>82,237</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>36,759,939</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         2023 Report of the Economic Survey, published by the Committee on Economics of Legal Practice of the American Intellectual Property Law Association (AIPLA); pg. F-41. The USPTO uses the average billing rate for intellectual property work in all firms which is $447 per hour (
                        <E T="03">https://www.aipla.org/home/news-publications/economic-survey</E>
                        ).
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Respondent Non-hourly Cost Burden:</E>
                     $4,023,729. There are no capital start-up, maintenance, or recordkeeping costs associated with this information collection. However, there is non-hour cost burden in the form of filing files and postage costs. The total annual non-hour respondent cost burden for this 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11821"/>
                    information collection is estimated to be $4,023,729, which includes $4,018,552 in filing fees and $5,177 in postage.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Filing Fees</HD>
                <P>Some petitions in this information collection have associated filing fees listed in the table below.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2(,0,),nj,i1" CDEF="xs30,xs50,r75,10,10,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Filing Fees</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Item No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Fee code</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Item</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Estimated
                            <LI>annual</LI>
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Filing
                            <LI>fee</LI>
                            <LI>($)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Non-hourly cost burden</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT>(a)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(b)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(a) × (b) = (c)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT>1462</ENT>
                        <ENT>Petitions requiring the petition fee set forth in 37 CFR 1.17 (f) (Group I) (undiscounted)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,275</ENT>
                        <ENT>$420</ENT>
                        <ENT>$535,500</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT>2462</ENT>
                        <ENT>Petitions requiring the petition fee set forth in 37 CFR 1.17 (f) (Group I) (small entity)</ENT>
                        <ENT>880</ENT>
                        <ENT>168</ENT>
                        <ENT>147,840</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT>3462</ENT>
                        <ENT>Petitions requiring the petition fee set forth in 37 CFR 1.17 (f) (Group I) (micro entity)</ENT>
                        <ENT>170</ENT>
                        <ENT>84</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,280</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                        <ENT>1463</ENT>
                        <ENT>Petitions requiring the petition fee set forth in 37 CFR 1.17 (g) (Group II) (undiscounted)</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,870</ENT>
                        <ENT>220</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,731,400</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                        <ENT>2463</ENT>
                        <ENT>Petitions requiring the petition fee set forth in 37 CFR 1.17 (g) (Group II) (small entity)</ENT>
                        <ENT>795</ENT>
                        <ENT>88</ENT>
                        <ENT>69,960</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                        <ENT>3463</ENT>
                        <ENT>Petitions requiring the petition fee set forth in 37 CFR 1.17 (g) (Group II) (micro entity)</ENT>
                        <ENT>55</ENT>
                        <ENT>44</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,420</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT>1464</ENT>
                        <ENT>Petitions requiring the petition fee set forth in 37 CFR 1.17 (h) (Group III) (undiscounted)</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,205</ENT>
                        <ENT>140</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,288,700</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT>2464</ENT>
                        <ENT>Petitions requiring the petition fee set forth in 37 CFR 1.17 (h) (Group III) (small entity)</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,980</ENT>
                        <ENT>56</ENT>
                        <ENT>222,880</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT>3464</ENT>
                        <ENT>Petitions requiring the petition fee set forth in 37 CFR 1.17 (h) (Group III) (micro entity)</ENT>
                        <ENT>199</ENT>
                        <ENT>28</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,572</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT O="oi3">Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>24,429</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>4,018,552</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         2023 Report of the Economic Survey, publised by the Committee on Economics of Legal Practice of the American Intellectual Property Law Association (AIPLA); pg. F-41. The USPTO uses the average billing rate for intellectual property work in all firms which is $447 per hour (
                        <E T="03">https://www/aopa.org/home/news-publications/economic-survey</E>
                        ).
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Postage Costs</HD>
                <P>Although the USPTO prefers that the items in this information collection be submitted electronically, responses may be submitted by mail through the United States Postal Service (USPS). The USPTO estimates that 1% of the 50,953 items will be submitted in the mail resulting in 510 mailed items. The USPTO estimates that the average postage cost for a mailed submission, using a Priority Mail legal flat rate envelope, will be $10.15. Therefore, the USPTO estimates the total mailing costs for this information collection at $5,177.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>The USPTO is soliciting public comments to:</P>
                <P>(a) Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>(b) Evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>(c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    (d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </P>
                <P>All comments submitted in response to this notice are a matter of public record. USPTO will include or summarize each comment in the request to OMB to approve this information collection. Before including an address, phone number, email address, or other personally identifiable information (PII) in a comment, be aware that the entire comment—including PII—may be made publicly available at any time. While you may ask in your comment to withhold PII from public view, USPTO cannot guarantee that it will be able to do so.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Justin Isaac,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Information Collections Officer, Office of the Chief Administrative Officer, United States Patent and Trademark Office. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03189 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-16-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Assessment Governing Board</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Committee and Quarterly Board Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Assessment Governing Board, Department of Education.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of open and closed meetings.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This notice sets forth the agenda, time, and instructions to access the National Assessment Governing Board's (hereafter referred to as Governing Board) standing committee meetings and quarterly Governing Board meeting. This notice provides information to members of the public who may be interested in attending the meetings and/or providing written comments related to the work of the Governing Board. Notice of the meetings is required under section 1009(a)(2) of 5 U.S.C. chapter 10 (Federal Advisory Committees). The meetings will be held either in person and/or virtually, as noted below. Members of the public must register in advance to attend the meetings virtually. A registration link will be posted on the Governing Board's 
                        <PRTPAGE P="11822"/>
                        website, 
                        <E T="03">www.nagb.gov,</E>
                         five (5) business days prior to each meeting.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The Quarterly Board Meeting will be held on the following dates:</P>
                </DATES>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• February 29, 2024, from 1:00 p.m. to 5:30 p.m., CST</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• March 1, 2024, from 8:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m., CST</FP>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Hermitage Hotel, 231 6th Avenue North, Nashville, TN 37219.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Angela Scott, Designated Federal Officer (DFO) for the Governing Board, 800 North Capitol Street NW, Suite 825, Washington, DC 20002, telephone: (202) 357-7502, fax: (202) 357-6945, email: 
                        <E T="03">Angela.Scott@ed.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Statutory Authority and Function:</E>
                     The Governing Board is established under the National Assessment of Educational Progress Authorization Act (20 U.S.C. 9621). Information on the Governing Board and its work can be found at 
                    <E T="03">www.nagb.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <SU>[1]</SU>
                     Information on minimum sample size requirements for reporting NAEP data is available here: 
                    <E T="03">https://nces.ed.gov/nationsreportcard/tdw/analysis/summary_rules_minimum.aspx.</E>
                </P>
                <P>The Governing Board formulates policy for the National Assessment of Educational Progress (NAEP) administered by the National Center for Education Statistics (NCES). The Governing Board's responsibilities include:</P>
                <P>(1) selecting the subject areas to be assessed; (2) developing appropriate student achievement levels; (3) developing assessment objectives and testing specifications that produce an assessment that is valid and reliable, and are based on relevant widely accepted professional standards; (4) developing a process for review of the assessment which includes the active participation of teachers, curriculum specialists, local school administrators, parents, and concerned members of the public; (5) designing the methodology of the assessment to ensure that assessment items are valid and reliable, in consultation with appropriate technical experts in measurement and assessment, content and subject matter, sampling, and other technical experts who engage in large scale surveys; (6) measuring student academic achievement in grades 4, 8, and 12 in the authorized academic subjects; (7) developing guidelines for reporting and disseminating results; (8) developing standards and procedures for regional and national comparisons; (9) taking appropriate actions needed to improve the form, content use, and reporting of results of an assessment; and (10) planning and executing the initial public release of NAEP reports.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Standing Committee Meetings</HD>
                <P>
                    The Governing Board's standing committees will meet to conduct regularly scheduled work. Standing committee meeting agendas and meeting materials will be posted on the Governing Board's website, 
                    <E T="03">www.nagb.gov,</E>
                     no later than five (5) business days prior to the meetings. For the virtual standing committee meetings, a registration link will be posted on 
                    <E T="03">www.nagb.gov</E>
                     five (5) business days prior to the meetings. Registration is required to join the meetings virtually. Minutes of prior standing committee meetings are available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nagb.gov/governing-board/quarterly-board-meetings.html.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Standing Committee Meetings</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Tuesday, February 13, 2024</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Executive Committee (Virtual)</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">3:30 p.m.-4:00 p.m. (EST), Open Session</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">4:00 p.m.-5:00 p.m. (EST), Closed Session</FP>
                <P>The Executive Committee will meet in open session on Tuesday, February 13, 2024, from 3:30-4:00 p.m. to begin working to update the Board's Strategic Vision. It will meet in closed session from 4:00-5:00 p.m. to discuss the NAEP budget and contracts. The latter session must be closed to the public because the discussions pertain to the federal budget and acquisition process. These discussions must be kept confidential to maintain the integrity of the federal budgeting and acquisition process. Such matters are protected by exemption 9(B) of the Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Tuesday, February 20, 2024</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Reporting and Dissemination Committee (Virtual)</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">11 a.m.-1 p.m. (EST), Open Session</FP>
                <P>The Reporting and Dissemination Committee will meet in open session on Tuesday, February 20, 2024, from 11 a.m. to 1 p.m. The committee will discuss progress made on implementing the Governing Board's communications strategy and how socioeconomic status will be reported in the NAEP 2024 data.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Wednesday, February 28, 2024</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Nominations Committee (In-Person Meeting)</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">2:15 p.m.-3:30 p.m. (CST), Closed Session</FP>
                <P>The Nominations Committee will meet in closed session on Wednesday, February 28, 2024, from 2:15 p.m.-3:30 p.m., at the Hermitage Hotel, 231 6th Avenue N, Nashville, TN 37219. The committee will review and discuss nominees for 2024 Governing Board vacancies and finalize recommendations for submission to the Governing Board for action. These discussions will involve the disclosure of information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy. Such matters are protected by exemption 6 of the Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Monday, March 11, 2024</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Committee on Standards, Design and Methodology (Virtual)</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">4 p.m.-5 p.m. (EDT), Closed Session</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">5 p.m.-6 p.m. (EDT), Open Session</FP>
                <P>
                    The Committee on Standards, Design and Methodology will meet on Monday, March 11, 2024, from 4 p.m.-6 p.m. From 4 p.m. to 5 p.m., the committee will meet in closed session to receive a presentation by NCES regarding the use of rolling averages to report on subgroups with small sample sizes. This session will be closed because NCES will present data from small subgroups that are not reported out publicly because their sample sizes do not meet minimum thresholds 
                    <SU>[1]</SU>
                     to permit valid interpretations, and they may also pose privacy risks. Public disclosure of this information would significantly impede the implementation of the NAEP assessment program if conducted in open session. Such matters are protected by exemption 9(B) of the Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b. From 5 p.m. to 6 p.m., the committee will meet in open session, where the committee chair will provide updates on achievement levels activities and seek input on a report currently under development to synthesize NAEP Achievement Levels validity evidence and present the appropriate claims that can be made by them.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Friday, March 15, 2024</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Assessment Development Committee (Virtual)</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">3:30 p.m.-4:30 p.m. (EDT), Open Session</FP>
                <P>
                    The Assessment Development Committee will meet in open session on Friday, March 15, 2024, from 3:30 p.m.-4:30 p.m. The committee will review contextual variables from the NAEP Science assessment and briefly hear about other updates on committee work.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11823"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Quarterly Governing Board Meeting</HD>
                <P>The plenary sessions of the Governing Board's March 2024 quarterly meeting will be held on the following dates and times:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Thursday, February 29, 2024</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">1:00 p.m.-5:30 p.m. (CST) (Hybrid Meeting), Open Session</FP>
                <P>On Thursday, February 29, 2024, the plenary session of the quarterly Governing Board meeting will convene in open session from 1:00 p.m.-5:30 p.m. Beverly Perdue, Chair of the Governing Board, will welcome members, followed by a motion to approve the February 29-March 1, 2024, quarterly Governing Board meeting agenda and minutes from the November 16-17, 2023, Governing Board meeting. From 1:15 p.m. to 1:30 p.m., the Honorable Bill Lee, Governor of Tennessee will welcome the Governing Board to Tennessee. From 1:30 p.m. to 2 p.m., Lesley Muldoon, Executive Director of the Governing Board, will update members on ongoing work, followed by updates from NCES Commissioner, Peggy Carr from 2 p.m.-2:30 p.m., and Mark Schneider, IES Director from 2:30 p.m.-3 p.m. Thereafter, from 3 p.m.-3:30 p.m., the Board will review the priorities and progress of the current strategic vision. Following a ten-minute break, the Governing Board will meet in small groups from 3:40-4:50 p.m. to discuss updates to the strategic vision. From 5 p.m. to 5:30 p.m., the Governing Board will reconvene and debrief on the small group discussions. The Thursday, February 29, 2024, session of the Governing Board meeting will adjourn at 5:30 p.m.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Friday, March 1, 2024</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">8:00 a.m.-10:00 a.m. (CST) (Hybrid Meeting), Closed Session</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">10:10 a.m.-2:00 p.m. (CST) (Hybrid Meeting), Open Session</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">2:00 p.m.-3:00 p.m. (CST) (Hybrid Meeting), Closed Session</FP>
                <P>
                    On Friday, March 1, 2024, the Governing Board will convene in closed session from 8 a.m. to 10 a.m. From 8 a.m. to 9 a.m., the Governing Board will discuss the slate of nominees for 2024 Governing Board vacancies. This session must be closed because it will involve the disclosure of information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy. As such, the discussions are protected by exemption 6 of the Government in the Sunshine Act, 
                    <E T="03">5 U.S.C. 552b.</E>
                     From 9 a.m. to 10 a.m., the Governing Board will receive an update on the NAEP Budget from Peggy Carr, Commissioner, NCES, and Dan McGrath, Delegated Authority of Associate Commissioner, NCES. This session must be closed because discussions pertain to the federal budget and acquisition process. Public disclosure of this confidential information would significantly impede implementation of the NAEP assessment program if conducted in open session. Such matters are protected by exemption 9(B) of the Government Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b.
                </P>
                <P>Following a ten-minute break, the Governing Board will meet in open session from 10:10 a.m. to 2 p.m. From 10:10 a.m. to 10:15 a.m., the Board will take action on the 2024 Slate of Governing Board Nominees that will be sent to the U.S. Secretary of Education for consideration for appointment in categories where member terms have expired. From 10:15 a.m. to 11:15 a.m., there will be a presentation and discussion on the impact of the Imagination Library for early literacy. Following that session, from 11:15-11:45, members will have open discussion time. From 11:45 a.m. to 1:30 p.m., the Governing Board will receive a briefing from and discuss Artificial Intelligence (AI) and education with John Bailey, Senior Fellow, American Enterprise Institute. From 1:30 p.m. to 2 p.m., the Governing Board will receive reports from each standing committee. The final session of the March 1, 2024, meeting will be a closed session from 2 p.m. to 3 p.m., during which the Governing Board will receive a briefing and discuss the content of the Long-Term Trend Assessment, including reviewing assessment items. This session must be closed because the items have not been released to the public. Public disclosure of this confidential information would significantly impede implementation of the NAEP assessment program if conducted in open session. Such matters are protected by exemption 9(B) of the Government Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b(c). The meeting will adjourn at 3 p.m.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Instructions for Accessing and Attending the Meetings</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Registration:</E>
                     Members of the public may attend the February 29 and March 1, 2024, meetings of the full Governing Board either in person or virtually. A link to the final meeting agenda and information on how to register for virtual attendance for the open sessions will be posted on the Governing Board's website, 
                    <E T="03">www.nagb.gov,</E>
                     no later than five (5) business days prior to the meeting. Registration is required to join the meeting virtually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Public Comment:</E>
                     Written comments related to the work of the Governing Board and its standing committees may be submitted to the attention of the DFO no later than ten (10) business days prior to the meeting. Written comments may be submitted either via email to 
                    <E T="03">Angela.Scott@ed.gov</E>
                     or in hard copy to the address listed above. Written comments should reference the relevant agenda item.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Access to Records of the Meeting:</E>
                     Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 1009, the public may inspect the meeting materials, which will be posted no later than five (5) business days prior to each meeting, at 
                    <E T="03">www.nagb.gov.</E>
                     The public may also inspect the meeting materials and other Governing Board records at 800 North Capitol Street NW, Suite 825, Washington, DC 20002, by emailing 
                    <E T="03">Angela.Scott@ed.gov</E>
                     to schedule an appointment. The official verbatim transcripts of the open meeting sessions will be available for public inspection no later than 30 calendar days following each meeting and will be posted on the Governing Board's website. Requests for the verbatim transcriptions may be made via email to the DFO.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Reasonable Accommodations:</E>
                     The meeting location is accessible to individuals with disabilities. If you will need an auxiliary aid or service to participate in the meeting (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     interpreting service, assistive listening device, or materials in an alternate format), notify the DFO listed in this notice no later than ten working days prior to each meeting date.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Electronic Access to this Document:</E>
                     The official version of this document is the document published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Internet access to the official edition of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     and the Code of Federal Regulations is available via the Federal Digital System at: 
                    <E T="03">www.gpo.gov/fdsys.</E>
                     At this site you can view this document, as well as all other documents of this Department published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , in text or Adobe Portable Document Format (PDF). To use PDF, you must have Adobe Acrobat Reader, which is available free at the Adobe website. You may also access documents of the Department published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     by using the article search feature at: 
                    <E T="03">www.federalregister.gov.</E>
                     Specifically, through the advanced search feature at this site, you can limit your search to documents published by the Department.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Pub. L. 107-279, title III, section 301—National Assessment of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11824"/>
                    Educational Progress Authorization Act (20 U.S.C. 9621).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Lesley Muldoon,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Executive Director, National Assessment Governing Board (NAGB), U.S. Department of Education.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03096 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4000-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No.: ED-2024-SCC-0025]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; Student Assistance General Provision Subpart I Immigration Status Confirmation</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Student Aid (FSA), Department of Education (ED).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Department is proposing an extension without a change of a currently approved information collection request (ICR).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before April 15, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         by searching the Docket ID number ED-2024-SCC-0025. Comments submitted in response to this notice should be submitted electronically through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         by selecting the Docket ID number or via postal mail, commercial delivery, or hand delivery. If the regulations.gov site is not available to the public for any reason, the Department will temporarily accept comments at 
                        <E T="03">ICDocketMgr@ed.gov.</E>
                         Please include the docket ID number and the title of the information collection request when requesting documents or submitting comments. Please note that comments submitted after the comment period will not be accepted. Written requests for information or comments submitted by postal mail or delivery should be addressed to the Manager of the Strategic Collections and Clearance Governance and Strategy Division, U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Ave. SW, LBJ, Room 6W203, Washington, DC 20202-8240.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Beth Grebeldinger, (202) 377-4018.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Department, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. The Department is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Student Assistance General Provision Subpart I Immigration Status Confirmation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1845-0052.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension without change of a currently approved ICR.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Private Sector; State, Local, and Tribal Governments; Individuals or Households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     118,360.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     14,794.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     This request is for approval of an extension of the reporting requirements currently in the Student Assistance General Provisions, 34 CFR part 668, subpart I. This subpart governs the Immigration-Status Confirmation, as authorized by section 484(g) of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended (HEA) (20 U.S.C. 1091). The regulations may be reviewed at 34 CFR part 668, subpart I. The regulations are necessary to determine eligibility to receive program benefits and to prevent fraud and abuse of program funds. This collection updates the usage by individuals and schools. While the regulations refer to a secondary confirmation process and completion of the paper G-845 form these processes are no longer in use. The Department of Homeland Security/U.S. Citizen and Immigration Services (DHS/USCIS) replaced the paper secondary confirmation method with a fully electronic process, Systematic Alien Verification for Entitlements (SAVE) system and the use of the Third Step Verification Process.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 12, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Kun Mullan,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>PRA Coordinator, Strategic Collections and Clearance, Governance and Strategy Division, Office of Chief Data Officer, Office of Planning, Evaluation and Policy Development.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03193 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4000-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No.: ED-2023-SCC-0203]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Work Colleges Expenditure Report</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Student Aid (FSA), Department of Education (ED).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Department is proposing an extension without change of a currently approved information collection request (ICR).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before March 18, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for proposed information collection requests should be submitted within 30 days of publication of this notice. Click on this link 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain</E>
                         to access the site. Find this information collection request (ICR) by selecting “Department of Education” under “Currently Under Review,” then check the “Only Show ICR for Public Comment” checkbox. Reginfo.gov provides two links to view documents related to this information collection request. Information collection forms and instructions may be found by clicking on the “View Information Collection (IC) List” link. Supporting statements and other supporting documentation may be found by clicking on the “View Supporting Statement and Other Documents” link.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Beth Grebeldinger, 202-377-4018.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The Department is especially interested in public comment addressing the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11825"/>
                    following issues: (1) is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Work Colleges Expenditure Report.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1845-0152.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     An extension without change of a currently approved ICR.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Private sector. 
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     10.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     20.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Higher Education Opportunity Act, Public Law 110-315, established the allocation of Federal Work Study funds to recognize, encourage, and promote the use of comprehensive work-learning service programs as part of a financial plan which decreases reliance on grants and loans. The Work Colleges Program is one of the three Federal Work-Study Programs. The other two Federal Work-Study Programs are the Federal Work-Study (FWS) Program and the Job Location and Development (JLD) Program. This is a request for an extension without change of the current information collection. The participants are required to report expenditure of funds annually. The data collected is used by the Department to monitor program effectiveness and accountability of fund expenditures. The data is used in conjunction with institutional program reviews to assess the administrative capability and compliance of the applicant.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 12, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Kun Mullan,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>PRA Coordinator, Strategic Collections and Clearance, Governance and Strategy Division, Office of Chief Data Officer, Office of Planning, Evaluation and Policy Development.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03158 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4000-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No.: ED-2023-SCC-0204]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Work Colleges Application and Agreement</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Student Aid (FSA), Department of Education (ED).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Department is proposing an extension without change of a currently approved information collection request (ICR).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before March 18, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for proposed information collection requests should be submitted within 30 days of publication of this notice. Click on this link 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain</E>
                         to access the site. Find this information collection request (ICR) by selecting “Department of Education” under “Currently Under Review,” then check the “Only Show ICR for Public Comment” checkbox. Reginfo.gov provides two links to view documents related to this information collection request. Information collection forms and instructions may be found by clicking on the “View Information Collection (IC) List” link. Supporting statements and other supporting documentation may be found by clicking on the “View Supporting Statement and Other Documents” link.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Beth Grebeldinger, 202-377-4018.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Department is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Work Colleges Application and Agreement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1845-0153.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     An extension without change of a currently approved ICR.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Private sector.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     10.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     20.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Higher Education Opportunity Act, Public Law 110-315, established the allocation of Federal Work Study funds to recognize, encourage, and promote the use of comprehensive work-learning service programs as part of a financial plan which decreases reliance on grants and loans. The Work Colleges Program is one of the three Federal Work-Study Programs. The other two Federal Work-Study Programs are the Federal Work-Study (FWS) Program and the Job Location and Development (JLD) Program. This is request for an extension without change of the current information collection. The participants are required to apply initially and once approved and participating, must reapply annually. The data collected is used by the Department to certify the Work Colleges agreement and collect the request for funding amount and the anticipated number of students for the year. The data is used in conjunction with institutional program reviews to assess the administrative capability and compliance of the applicant. There are no other resources for collecting this data.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 12, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Kun Mullan,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>PRA Coordinator, Strategic Collections and Clearance, Governance and Strategy Division, Office of Chief Data Officer, Office of Planning, Evaluation and Policy Development.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03159 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4000-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Project No. 2361-056]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>ALLETE, Inc.; Notice of Waiver of Water Quality Certification</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    On December 20, 2021, ALLETE, Inc. (ALLETE) filed an application for a license for the Prairie River Hydroelectric Project in the above captioned docket. On December 14, 2022, Minnesota Pollution Control Agency received a complete request for 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11826"/>
                    a Clean Water Act section 401(a)(1) water quality certification from ALLETE, in conjunction with the above captioned project.
                </P>
                <P>On December 21, 2022, staff provided Minnesota Pollution Control Agency with written notice that the applicable reasonable period of time for it to act on the certification request was one (1) year from the date of receipt of the request, and that the certification requirement for the license would be waived if the certifying authority failed to act by December 14, 2023. Because Minnesota Pollution Control Agency did not act by December 14, 2023, we are notifying you pursuant to section 401(a)(1) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1341(a)(1), that waiver of the certification requirement has occurred.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03169 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Combined Notice of Filings #1</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EC24-49-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     RiverCrest Power-SOUTH, LLC, Six One Commodities LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Application for Authorization Under Section 203 of the Federal Power Act of RiverCrest Power-South, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     2/8/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20240208-5174.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 2/29/24.
                </P>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EG24-106-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     68SF 8me LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     68SF 8me LLC submits Notice of Self-Certification of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     2/8/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20240208-5162.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 2/29/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     EG24-107-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Tyson Nick Solar Project, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tyson Nick Solar Project, LLC submits Notice of Self-Certification of Exempt Wholesale Generator Status.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     2/9/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20240209-5102.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 3/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER10-1874-013; ER19-9-007.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Mankato Energy Center II, LLC, Mankato Energy Center, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Supplement to June 29, 2021, Triennial Market Power Analysis for Central Region of Mankato Energy Center, LLC, et al.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/20/23.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20231120-5228.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 3/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER20-59-004; ER20-422-003; ER20-58-003; ER20-57-003; ER16-2520-005; ER10-1874-015; ER19-9-009; ER18-97-003; ER15-1952-013; ER19-8-005; ER17-318-005; ER20-339-003.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Twiggs County Solar, LLC, Three Peaks Power, LLC, Sweetwater Solar, LLC, Pavant Solar LLC, MS Solar 3, LLC, Mankato Energy Center II, LLC, Mankato Energy Center, LLC, Grand View PV Solar Two LLC, GA Solar 3, LLC, FL Solar 4, LLC, FL Solar 1, LLC, AZ Solar 1, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Supplement to May 1, 2023, Notice of Non-Material Change in Status of AZ Solar 1, LLC, et. al.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     11/20/23. 
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20231120-5230.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 3/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-1217-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     RiverCrest Power-SOUTH, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tariff Amendment: Notice of Cancellation of Market-Based Rates Tariff and Request for Waiver to be effective 2/9/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     2/8/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20240208-5119.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 2/29/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-1218-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Public Service Company of New Mexico.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Notice of Cancellation of conforming Large Generator Interconnection Agreements of Public Service Company of New Mexico.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     2/8/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20240208-5135.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 2/29/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-1219-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PJM Interconnection, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Original NSA, Service Agreement No. 7190; Queue No. AE1-245 to be effective 4/9/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     2/8/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20240208-5145.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 2/29/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-1220-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     68SF 8me LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Baseline eTariff Filing: 68SF 8me LLC MBR Tariff to be effective 12/31/9998.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     2/9/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20240209-5075.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 3/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-1221-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Southwest Power Pool, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Compliance filing: Submission of Revisions to Revise Att AA Sec 4 Issued in Docket EL23-40. to be effective 4/10/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     2/9/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20240209-5077.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 3/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-1222-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PacifiCorp.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Deseret TSOA Rev 10 to be effective 4/10/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     2/9/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20240209-5096.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 3/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-1223-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Orange and Rockland Utilities, Inc., New York Independent System Operator, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Orange and Rockland Utilities, Inc. submits tariff filing per 35.13(a)(2)(iii: NYISO-O&amp;R Joint 205: SGIA Little Pond Solar SA2833 (CEII) to be effective 1/31/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     2/9/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20240209-5119.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 3/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-1224-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PJM Interconnection, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Amendment to ISA, Service Agreement No. 6421; AE1-155 to be effective 4/10/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     2/9/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20240209-5125.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 3/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-1225-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     California Independent System Operator Corporation.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 2024-02-09 Capacity Procurement Mechanism Soft Offer Cap to be effective 12/31/9998.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     2/9/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20240209-5150.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 3/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-1226-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PJM Interconnection, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tariff Amendment: Notice of Cancellation of WMPA, SA No. 6324; Queue No. AG2-389 re: Withdrawal to be effective 4/10/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     2/9/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20240209-5171.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 3/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-1227-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Duke Energy Florida, LLC.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11827"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Non-Conforming Large Generator Interconnection Agreement with SEPA to be effective 4/21/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     2/9/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20240209-5173.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 3/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-1228-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PJM Interconnection, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tariff Amendment: Notice of Cancellation of WMPA, SA No. 5753; Queue No. AF2-427 re: withdrawal to be effective 4/10/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     2/9/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20240209-5176.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 3/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER24-1229-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     ISO New England Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     ISO New England Inc. Capital Budget Quarterly Filing for the Fourth Quarter of 2023.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     2/9/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20240209-5185.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 3/1/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
                    <E T="03">https://elibrary.ferc.gov/idmws/search/fercgensearch.asp</E>
                    ) by querying the docket number.
                </P>
                <P>Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.</P>
                <P>
                    eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling/filing-req.pdf.</E>
                     For other information, call (866) 208-3676 (toll free). For TTY, call (202) 502-8659.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, environmental justice communities, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03172 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. CP24-47-000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Gas Transmission Northwest LLC; Notice of Request Under Blanket Authorization and Establishing Intervention and Protest Deadline</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that on January 29, 2024, Gas Transmission Northwest LLC (GTN), 700 Louisiana Street, Suite 1300, Houston, Texas 77002-2700, filed in the above referenced docket, a prior notice request pursuant to sections 157.205, 157.208, and 157.216 of the Commission's regulations under the Natural Gas Act (NGA), and GTN's blanket certificate issued in Docket No. CP82-530-000, for authorization to replace a total of 2.03 miles of 36-inch-diameter pipeline in three connecting segments on GTN's B-Line, all located in Boundary County, Idaho (GTN Moyie Class Change Project). The project will allow GTN to comply with U.S. Department of Transportation's Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration's requirement for class location changes. The estimated cost for the project is $31.8 million, all as more fully set forth in the request which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , the Commission provides all interested persons an opportunity to view and/or print the contents of this document via the internet through the Commission's Home Page (
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ) using the “eLibrary” link. Enter the docket number excluding the last three digits in the docket number field to access the document. Public access to records formerly available in the Commission's physical Public Reference Room, which was located at the Commission's headquarters, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426, are now available via the Commission's website. For assistance, contact the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission at 
                    <E T="03">FercOnlineSupport@ferc.gov</E>
                     or call toll-free, (866) 208-3676 or TTY (202) 502-8659.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Any questions concerning this request should be directed to David A. Alonzo, Manager of Project Authorizations, Gas Transmission Northwest LLC, 700 Louisiana Street, Suite 1300, Houston, Texas 77002-2700, at (832) 320-5477, or 
                    <E T="03">david_alonzo@tcenergy.com.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Participation</HD>
                <P>There are three ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project: you can file a protest to the project, you can file a motion to intervene in the proceeding, and you can file comments on the project. There is no fee or cost for filing protests, motions to intervene, or comments. The deadline for filing protests, motions to intervene, and comments is 5 p.m. eastern time on April 8, 2024. How to file protests, motions to intervene, and comments is explained below.</P>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, environmental justice communities, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Protests</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to section 157.205 of the Commission's regulations under the NGA,
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     any person 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or the Commission's staff may file a protest to the request. If no protest is filed within the time allowed or if a protest is filed and then withdrawn within 30 days after the allowed time for filing a protest, the proposed activity shall be deemed to be authorized effective the day after the time allowed for protest. If a protest is filed and not withdrawn within 30 days after the time allowed for filing a protest, the instant request for authorization will be considered by the Commission.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         18 CFR 157.205.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         Persons include individuals, organizations, businesses, municipalities, and other entities. 18 CFR 385.102(d).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Protests must comply with the requirements specified in section 157.205(e) of the Commission's regulations,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and must be submitted by the protest deadline, which is April 8, 2024. A protest may also serve as a motion to intervene so long as the protestor states it also seeks to be an intervenor.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         18 CFR 157.205(e).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="11828"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Interventions</HD>
                <P>Any person has the option to file a motion to intervene in this proceeding. Only intervenors have the right to request rehearing of Commission orders issued in this proceeding and to subsequently challenge the Commission's orders in the U.S. Circuit Courts of Appeal.</P>
                <P>
                    To intervene, you must submit a motion to intervene to the Commission in accordance with Rule 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the regulations under the NGA 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     by the intervention deadline for the project, which is April 8, 2024. As described further in Rule 214, your motion to intervene must state, to the extent known, your position regarding the proceeding, as well as your interest in the proceeding. For an individual, this could include your status as a landowner, ratepayer, resident of an impacted community, or recreationist. You do not need to have property directly impacted by the project in order to intervene. For more information about motions to intervene, refer to the FERC website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/resources/guides/how-to/intervene.asp.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.214.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         18 CFR 157.10.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>All timely, unopposed motions to intervene are automatically granted by operation of Rule 214(c)(1). Motions to intervene that are filed after the intervention deadline are untimely and may be denied. Any late-filed motion to intervene must show good cause for being late and must explain why the time limitation should be waived and provide justification by reference to factors set forth in Rule 214(d) of the Commission's Rules and Regulations. A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies (paper or electronic) of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments</HD>
                <P>Any person wishing to comment on the project may do so. The Commission considers all comments received about the project in determining the appropriate action to be taken. To ensure that your comments are timely and properly recorded, please submit your comments on or before April 8, 2024. The filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. To become a party, you must intervene in the proceeding.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">How To File Protests, Interventions, and Comments</HD>
                <P>There are two ways to submit protests, motions to intervene, and comments. In both instances, please reference the Project docket number CP24-47-000 in your submission.</P>
                <P>
                    (1) You may file your protest, motion to intervene, and comments by using the Commission's eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ) under the link to Documents and Filings. New eFiling users must first create an account by clicking on “eRegister.” You will be asked to select the type of filing you are making; first select “General” and then select “Protest”, “Intervention”, or “Comment on a Filing”; or 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         Additionally, you may file your comments electronically by using the eComment feature, which is located on the Commission's website at 
                        <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                         under the link to Documents and Filings. Using eComment is an easy method for interested persons to submit brief, text-only comments on a project.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>(2) You can file a paper copy of your submission by mailing it to the address below. Your submission must reference the Project docket number CP24-47-000.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">To file via USPS:</E>
                     Debbie-Anne Reese, Acting Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">To file via any other method:</E>
                     Debbie-Anne Reese, Acting Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission encourages electronic filing of submissions (option 1 above) and has eFiling staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or 
                    <E T="03">FercOnlineSupport@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Protests and motions to intervene must be served on the applicant either by mail or email (with a link to the document) at: David A. Alonzo, Manager of Project Authorizations, Gas Transmission Northwest LLC, 700 Louisiana Street, Suite 1300, Houston, Texas 77002-2700 or at 
                    <E T="03">david_alonzo@tcenergy.com.</E>
                     Any subsequent submissions by an intervenor must be served on the applicant and all other parties to the proceeding. Contact information for parties can be downloaded from the service list at the eService link on FERC Online.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Tracking the Proceeding</HD>
                <P>
                    Throughout the proceeding, additional information about the project will be available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC website at 
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                     using the “eLibrary” link as described above. The eLibrary link also provides access to the texts of all formal documents issued by the Commission, such as orders, notices, and rulemakings.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. For more information and to register, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/esubscription.asp.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03171 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. EL24-26-000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>PJM Interconnection L.L.C.; Notice of Institution of Section 206 Proceeding and Refund Effective Date</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    On December 20, 2023, the Commission issued an order in Docket No. EL24-26-000, pursuant to section 206 of the Federal Power Act (FPA), 16 U.S.C. 824e, instituting an investigation to determine whether PJM Interconnection L.L.C.'s Interconnection Construction Service Agreement is unjust, unreasonable, unduly discriminatory or preferential, or otherwise unlawful. 
                    <E T="03">PJM Interconnection L.L.C.,</E>
                     185 FERC ¶ 61,202 (2023).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The refund effective date in Docket No. EL24-26-000, established pursuant to section 206(b) of the FPA, will be the date of publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>Any interested person desiring to be heard in Docket No. EL24-26-000 must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate, with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, in accordance with Rule 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.214 (2023), within 21 days of the date of issuance of the order.</P>
                <PRTPAGE P="11829"/>
                <P>
                    In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , the Commission provides all interested persons an opportunity to view and/or print the contents of this document via the internet through the Commission's Home Page (
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ) using the “eLibrary” link. Enter the docket number excluding the last three digits in the docket number field to access the document. From FERC's Home Page on the internet, this information is available on eLibrary. The full text of this document is available on eLibrary in PDF and Microsoft Word format for viewing, printing, and/or downloading. To access this document in eLibrary, type the docket number excluding the last three digits of this document in the docket number field. User assistance is available for eLibrary and the FERC's website during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at 202-502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at 
                    <E T="03">ferconlinesupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                     or the Public Reference Room at (202) 502-8371, TTY (202) 502-8659. Email the Public Reference Room at 
                    <E T="03">public.referenceroom@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFile” link at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov.</E>
                     In lieu of electronic filing, you may submit a paper copy. Submissions sent via the U.S. Postal Service must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Acting Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426. Submissions sent via any other carrier must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Acting Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, environmental justice communities, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03170 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Project No. 2362-044]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>ALLETE, Inc.; Notice of Waiver of Water Quality Certification</SUBJECT>
                <P>On December 20, 2021, ALLETE, Inc. (ALLETE) filed an application for a license for the Grand Rapids Hydroelectric Project in the above captioned docket. On December 14, 2022, Minnesota Pollution Control Agency received a complete request for a Clean Water Act section 401(a)(1) water quality certification from ALLETE in conjunction with the above captioned project.</P>
                <P>On December 21, 2022, staff provided Minnesota Pollution Control Agency with written notice that the applicable reasonable period of time for it to act on the certification request was one (1) year from the date of receipt of the request, and that the certification requirement for the license would be waived if the certifying authority failed to act by December 14, 2023. Because Minnesota Pollution Control Agency did not act by December 14, 2023, we are notifying you pursuant to section 401(a)(1) of the Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. 1341(a)(1), that waiver of the certification requirement has occurred.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03168 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OPPT-2024-0038; FRL-11694-01-OCSPP]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Draft Approach for Implementation of the EPA Label Program for Low Embodied Carbon Construction Materials; Notice of Availability, Webinar and Request for Comment</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is announcing the availability of and seeking public comment on a document that describes its draft approach for implementation of the EPA label program for low embodied carbon construction materials (Draft Label Program Approach), and is announcing a webinar on February 27, 2024. The Inflation Reduction Act authorized $100 million to EPA to develop a program to identify and label construction materials and products that have substantially lower embodied carbon, in coordination with the General Services Administration (GSA) and the Department of Transportation's Federal Highway Administration (FHWA).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Webinar:</E>
                         February 27, 2024, noon-1 p.m. EST.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Registration:</E>
                         To receive the webcast meeting link and audio teleconference information before the meeting, you must register by 5 p.m. EST on February 26, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Special Accommodations:</E>
                         To allow EPA time to process your request for special accommodations, please submit your request to EPA by 5 p.m. EST on February 16, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Written comments:</E>
                         Submit your comments on or before March 18, 2024.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Webinar:</E>
                         Register online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.zoomgov.com/webinar/register/WN_UK3t7WwXToiRNIYFlml7CA#/</E>
                        registration.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Special Accommodations:</E>
                         Please contact the person listed under 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Written comments:</E>
                         Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2024-0038, through 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments. Do not submit electronically any information you consider to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Kersey Manliclic, Data Gathering and Analysis Division (4410G), Office of Chemical Safety and Pollution Prevention, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (202) 566-9981; email address: 
                        <E T="03">manliclic.kersey@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Executive Summary</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Does this action apply to me?</HD>
                <P>
                    This is directed to the public in general. This notice may be of specific interest to persons who represent federal contracting officers, construction contractors and specifiers for federal agencies. It may also be of interest to the following entities including federal 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11830"/>
                    agencies setting specifications and/or requirements for federal construction (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     GSA, FHWA, Department of Defense); manufacturers of lower embodied carbon construction materials; entities purchasing products covered by the Draft Label Program Approach for products used in federally funded construction projects; entities setting criteria for programs which provide funding for materials and products procured as part of transportation infrastructure and/or building construction projects (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     FHWA); and architects, engineers, and other procurement-adjacent professionals and organizations aiming to use lower embodied carbon construction materials and products in their projects, rating systems, and construction planning tools.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. What is the Agency's authority for taking this action?</HD>
                <P>IRA Section 60116 authorized $100 million to EPA to develop a program to identify and label construction materials and products that have substantially lower embodied carbon, in coordination with the GSA and the FHWA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. What action is the agency taking?</HD>
                <P>The Agency is requesting comment on the document titled “Draft Approach for Implementation of the EPA Label Program for Low Embodied Carbon Construction Materials” (Draft Label Program Approach), which is available in the docket. EPA is requesting information on a number of remaining questions that will help shape and refine the program. EPA is also announcing a stakeholder engagement opportunity through a webinar. During the webinar EPA will give a presentation on the Draft Label Program Approach and provide an opportunity for the public to provide comments.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. What should I consider as I prepare my comments?</HD>
                <P>
                    1. Submitting CBI. Do not submit CBI to EPA through email or 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     If you wish to include CBI in your comment, please follow the applicable instructions at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets#rules</E>
                     and clearly mark the information that you claim to be CBI. Information so marked will not be disclosed except in accordance with procedures set forth in 40 CFR parts 2 and 703, as applicable.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Tips for preparing your comments.</E>
                     When preparing and submitting your comments, see the commenting tips at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets.html.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                <P>An increasing number of U.S. federal, state, and local government procurement policies, as well as large institutional procurement policies, are aimed at driving down greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions related to construction materials. These policies often require manufacturers to disclose the embodied carbon of the materials and products they produce to be eligible for procurement. Embodied carbon refers to the amount of GHG emissions associated with the extraction, production, transport and manufacturing of materials and products.</P>
                <P>The IRA, passed by Congress and signed into law in August 2022, leverages federal procurement and funding of buildings and infrastructure to catalyze markets for American-made construction materials and products with lower embodied carbon (also known as embodied greenhouse gas emissions). IRA Section 60116 provided EPA with $100 million dollars to develop and carry out a program to identify and label construction materials and products that have substantially lower levels of embodied greenhouse gas emissions associated with all relevant stages of production, use, and disposal, as compared to estimated industry averages of similar materials or products. EPA is committed to developing a label program that creates an easy and reliable way for purchasers to identify and procure such lower embodied carbon construction materials and products.</P>
                <P>
                    The Draft Label Program Approach was developed by EPA in collaboration with stakeholders through a series of webinars announced in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     of January 26, 2023, titled “Stakeholder Engagement Opportunities on Inflation Reduction Act Programs To Reduce Embodied Greenhouse Gas Emissions Associated With Construction Materials and Products” (88 FR 5002 (FRL-10439-01-OCSPP)). These webinars requested initial feedback on establishing new grant and technical assistance programs, and a carbon labeling program for construction materials with substantially lower levels of embodied greenhouse gas emissions. The Draft Label Program Approach has been informed greatly by the input received from the Request for Information (RFI) responses submitted, and by extensive collaboration with other federal agencies, including the GSA, FHWA, and others.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Request for Public Comment</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. What feedback does EPA hope to gain from the public comments?</HD>
                <P>In the Draft Label Program Approach, the Agency has outlined the following:</P>
                <P>• An initial focus on steel construction products, asphalt mixtures, concrete mixtures, and flat glass, consistent with EPA's 2022 Interim Determination and the Federal Buy Clean Initiative;</P>
                <P>• A phased approach that all material categories will be able to follow at a cadence that aligns with that material's market maturity and data availability;</P>
                <P>• A plan to label specific construction materials and products based on the global warming potential provided via robust environmental product declarations;</P>
                <P>• A publicly accessible online registry of certified materials and products;</P>
                <P>• A tiered rating system of certification for materials and products; and</P>
                <P>
                    • A conformity assessment and verification system aligned with the existing Environmental Product Declaration (EPD) verification system, and consistent with standards and best practices within the ISO IEC 17000 series and 
                    <E T="03">EPA's Framework for Assessing Environmental Performance for Specifications, Standards, and Ecolabels for Federal Purchasing.</E>
                     For more information about EPA's Framework and related recommendations see 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/greenerproducts/framework-assessment-environmental-performance-standards-and-ecolabels-federal.</E>
                </P>
                <P>EPA is seeking public input on specific aspects of the Draft Label Program Approach. The following information and topics may help inform stakeholder input on data quality improvements, material threshold settings, certification and labeling, and the overall program approach.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">1. Data quality improvements.</E>
                     EPA has begun work to implement Phase I of the label program, which includes:
                </P>
                <P>• Development of a Vision for Improving Background Data with the Interagency Background Data Team, which will be published in the coming weeks.</P>
                <P>
                    • Development of a proposed process for ensuring datasets directed for use in Life Cycle Analysis (LCA) development in Product Category Rules (PCRs) are of sufficient quality to be used by PCR Technical Committees. EPA will issue a Dataset Quality Assessment methodology in the coming weeks.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11831"/>
                </P>
                <P>• Development of PCR criteria to be utilized under the label program to help ensure that any Environmental Product Declarations (EPDs) used to develop GWP thresholds for the label program or identify lower embodied carbon materials qualifying for the label are sufficiently robust. EPA will be releasing the draft PCR criteria for public comment in the coming weeks.</P>
                <P>To inform development of these documents and build upon input already received via the 2022 RFI, EPA welcomes additional input on ways to improve background data, enhance publicly available datasets in the LCA Data Commons, and facilitate PCR improvements.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">2. Material threshold setting.</E>
                     EPA is considering several options for addressing regional differences specific to the sourcing of materials and products in the Global Warming Potential (GWP) threshold setting process as part of Phase II of the Draft Label Program Approach. EPA welcomes specific input on what methods would be effective, feasible, and time- and cost-effective for specifying regions where necessary (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     AASHTO Climate Zones, groupings of states, market share or geological breakdowns).
                </P>
                <P>
                    EPA is interested in ensuring that GWP thresholds are based on sufficiently representative data, recognizing that what constitutes “representative” will vary by material. EPA plans to conduct proper statistical analysis on EPD availability, however, EPA is aware of the time constraints in doing so. EPA welcomes specific input on how to effectively define “representative” data for a specific material type when setting thresholds (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     at least 30-50 EPDs for each material type in each region, or X% of all EPDs for a material type in each region).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">3. Certifying and labeling materials and products.</E>
                     EPA recognizes the need for credible conformity assessment to ensure stakeholder confidence in the Draft Label Program Approach. EPA welcomes specific input on what qualifications/accreditations should be considered (or required) of EPD verifiers to demonstrate sufficient knowledge and experience. EPA is interested in stakeholder feedback on whether the conformity criteria and processes used by EPA programs (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     ENERGY STAR, WaterSense), recommended in the 
                    <E T="03">EPA Framework for the Assessment of Environmental Performance Standards and Ecolabels for Federal Purchasing,</E>
                     and/or those used for EPDs in the market today should be applied to this Draft Label Program Approach available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/greenerproducts/framework-assessment-environmental-performance-standards-and-ecolabels-federal.</E>
                </P>
                <P>Additionally, EPA is interested in hearing from EPD verifiers and Conformity Assessment Bodies (CABs) that would like to provide conformity assessment/verification services for this Draft Label Program Approach.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">4. Overall approach.</E>
                     EPA recognizes the importance of transparency and stakeholder input as we continue to develop this program. Other feedback is welcome in the form of questions, comments or additional information for consideration as we move forward.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. What is the request for information?</HD>
                <P>EPA encourages all potentially interested parties, including individuals, governmental and non-governmental organizations, non-profit organizations, community-based organizations, labor organizations, academic institutions, research institutions, community health centers and clinics, public health administration and environmental health administration programs, and private sector entities to comment on the Draft Label Program Approach. To the extent possible, the Agency asks commenters to please cite any public data related to or that supports responses, and to the extent permissible, describe any supporting data that is not publicly available.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     26 U.S.C. 55 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 8, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jennie Romer,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Administrator, Office of Chemical Safety and Pollution Prevention.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03083 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[FRL-11742-01-R6]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Clean Air Act Operating Permit Program; Petition for Objection to State Operating Permit for Commonwealth LNG, LLC, Cameron Parish, Louisiana</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of final order on petition.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Administrator signed an Order dated January 30, 2024, denying a Petition dated May 24, 2023 (the Petition), from Healthy Gulf and Sierra Club (the Petitioners). The petition requested that the EPA object to a Clean Air Act (CAA) title V operating permit issued by the Louisiana Department of Environmental Quality (LDEQ) to Commonwealth LNG, LLC, for its natural gas liquefaction and export facility located in Cameron Parish, Louisiana.</P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Jonathan Ehrhart, EPA Region 6 Office, Air Permits Section, (214) 665-2295, 
                        <E T="03">ehrhart.jonathan@epa.gov.</E>
                         The final order and petition are available electronically at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/title-v-operating-permits/title-v-petition-database.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The EPA received a Petition from Healthy Gulf and Sierra Club dated May 24, 2023, requesting that the EPA object to the issuance of operating permit no. 0560-00997-V0, issued by LDEQ to Commonwealth LNG in Cameron Parish, Louisiana. On January 30, 2024, the EPA Administrator issued an Order denying the petition. The order itself explains the basis for the EPA's decision.</P>
                <P>Sections 307(b) and 505(b)(2) of the CAA provide that a petitioner may request judicial review of those portions of an order that deny issues in a petition. Any petition for review shall be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit no later than April 15, 2024.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David Garcia,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Air and Radiation Division, Region 6.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03199 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OAR-2023-0642; FRL: 11720-01-OAR]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>
                    Notice of Opportunity To Comment on Proposed Update of PM
                    <E T="0735">2.5</E>
                     Data From T640/T640X PM Mass Monitors
                </SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is requesting comment on its plan to retroactively apply the approved modification of the Federal Equivalent Method (FEM) designation for the Teledyne Advanced Pollution Instrumentation Model T640 particulate matter (PM) mass monitor including the 640X option (hereafter T640 and T640X) to all of the PM with a diameter 2.5 micrometers or smaller (PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                        ) concentration data from the T640 and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="11832"/>
                        T640X monitors in the EPA's Air Quality System (AQS) that was reported prior to the modification. This update, which will be applied to the unmodified hourly PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         concentration data in AQS using collocated ambient temperature when available, is expected to result in a much higher number of PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         monitoring sites using the T640 and T640X FEM methods meeting the bias measurement quality objectives (MQOs). More details related to this update can be found in the document titled, “Proposal to Update PM
                        <E T="52">2.5</E>
                         Data from T640/T640X PM Mass Monitors,” located in the docket for this action and on the EPA's website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/aqs/aqs-memos-monitoring-and-policy.</E>
                         Because of the importance of this air quality data for regulatory, scientific, and public use, the EPA is providing an opportunity for the public to comment on this update and the subsequent use of the updated data in regulatory and non-regulatory applications.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before March 15, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may send comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2023-0642, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: https://www.regulations.gov/</E>
                         (our preferred method). Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Email: a-and-r-docket@epa.gov.</E>
                         Include Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2023-0642 in the subject line of the message.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, EPA Docket Center, OAQPS Docket, Mail Code 28221T, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20460.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier (by appointment only):</E>
                         EPA Docket Center, WJC West Building, Room 3334, 1301 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20004. The Docket Center's hours of operations are 8:30 a.m.-4:30 p.m., Monday-Friday (except Federal Holidays).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions received must include the Docket ID No. for this rulemaking. Comments received may be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal information provided. For detailed instructions on sending comments and additional information on the rulemaking process, see the “Public Participation” heading of the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section of this document.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Brett Gantt, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, Air Quality Assessment Division, Air Quality Analysis Group (Mail Code: C304-04), Environmental Protection Agency, 109 T.W. Alexander Drive, Research Triangle Park, NC 27711; telephone number: (919) 541-5274; email address 
                        <E T="03">gantt.brett@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Proposed Data Correction</HD>
                <P>
                    For detailed information regarding the retroactive correction of air quality data and the use of corrected data, please see the document titled, “Proposal to Update PM
                    <E T="52">2.5</E>
                     Data from T640/T640X PM Mass Monitors,” located in the docket for this action and on the EPA's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/aqs/aqs-memos-monitoring-and-policy.</E>
                </P>
                <P>The EPA seeks comment on this document, including the proposed timing for the data correction and how the EPA and other monitoring authorities may use the data once corrected. The EPA will consider comments received prior to making a final determination on the retroactive application of the approved modification to the FEM for the Teledyne T640/T640X monitoring data.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Public Participation</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Written Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2023-0642, at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     (our preferred method), or using one of the other methods identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section. Once submitted, comments cannot be edited or removed from the docket. The EPA may publish any comment received to its public docket. Do not submit to the docket at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     any information you consider to be Confidential Business Information (CBI), Proprietary Business Information (PBI), or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Multimedia submissions (audio, video, etc.) must be accompanied by a written comment. The written comment is considered the official comment and should include discussion of all points you wish to make. The EPA will generally not consider comments or comment contents located outside of the primary submission (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     on the web, cloud, or other file sharing system). Please visit 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets</E>
                     for additional submission methods; the full EPA public comment policy; information about CBI, PBI, or multimedia submissions; and general guidance on making effective comments.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Richard A. Wayland,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Air Quality Assessment Division.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-02935 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL COMMUNICATIONS COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB 3060-1198; FR ID 203005]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission Under Delegated Authority</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Communications Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees. The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before April 15, 2024. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <PRTPAGE P="11833"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Direct all PRA comments to Nicole Ongele, FCC, via email 
                        <E T="03">PRA@fcc.gov</E>
                         and to 
                        <E T="03">nicole.ongele@fcc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>For additional information about the information collection, contact Nicole Ongele, (202) 418-2991.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     3060-1198.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Section 90.525, Administration of Interoperability Channels; Section 90.529, State Licenses; and Section 90.531, Band Plan.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form No.:</E>
                     N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     State, local or Tribal government, and not-for-profit institutions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents and Responses:</E>
                     300 respondents; 300 responses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     1 hour-2 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     On occasion reporting and one-time reporting requirements; third party disclosure.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Obligation to Respond:</E>
                     Required to obtain or retain benefits. Statutory authority for this collection of information is contained in sections 4(i), 11, 303(g), 303(r), and 332(c)(7) of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 154(i), 161, 303(g), 303(r), 332(c)(7), unless otherwise noted.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Burden:</E>
                     580 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Cost:</E>
                     No Cost.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     Section 90.525 of the Commission's rules requires approval of license applications for Interoperability channels in the 769-775 MHz and 799-805 MHz frequency bands by state-level agency or organization responsible for administering emergency communications. Section 90.529 of the Commission's rules provides that each state license will be granted subject to the condition that the state certifies on or before each applicable benchmark date that it is providing or prepared to provide “substantial service.” Section 90.531 of the Commission's rules sets forth the band plan for the 769-775 MHz and 799-805 MHz public safety bands. This section covers channel designations for base and mobile use, narrowband segments, combined channels, channel pairing, internal guard band, and broadband. Narrowband general use channels, including the former narrowband reserve channels, and low power channels require regional planning committee concurrence and narrowband air-ground channels require state or regional planning committee concurrence.
                </P>
                <P>Commission staff will use the information to assign licenses for interoperability and General Use channels, as well as renewal of State licenses. The information will also be used to determine whether prospective licensees operate in compliance with the Commission's rules. Without such information, the Commission could not accommodate State interoperability or regional planning requirements or provide for the efficient use of State frequencies. This information collection includes rules to govern the operation and licensing of 700 MHz band systems to ensure that licensees continue to fulfill their statutory responsibilities in accordance with the Communications Act of 1934, as amended. Such information will continue to be used to verify that applicants are legally and technically qualified to hold licenses, and to determine compliance with Commission rules.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Federal Communications Commission.</FP>
                    <NAME>Marlene Dortch,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary, Office of the Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03161 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6712-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">FEDERAL COMMUNICATIONS COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[FR ID 202962]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Open Commission Meeting Thursday, February 15, 2024</SUBJECT>
                <P>The Federal Communications Commission will hold an Open Meeting on the subjects listed below on Thursday, February 15, 2024, which is scheduled to commence at 10:30 a.m. in the Commission Meeting Room of the Federal Communications Commission, 45 L Street NE, Washington, DC.</P>
                <P>
                    While attendance at the Open Meeting is available to the public, the FCC headquarters building is not open access and all guests must check in with and be screened by FCC security at the main entrance on L Street. Attendees at the Open Meeting will not be required to have an appointment but must otherwise comply with protocols outlined at: 
                    <E T="03">www.fcc.gov/visit.</E>
                     Open Meetings are streamed live at: 
                    <E T="03">www.fcc.gov/live</E>
                     and on the FCC's YouTube channel.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="xs36,r50,r100">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Item No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Bureau</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Subject</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                        <ENT>Public Safety and Homeland Security</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Title:</E>
                             Increasing the Accessibility of the Emergency Alert System (PS Docket No. 15-94).
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Summary:</E>
                             The Commission will consider a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking intended to simplify the process for alert originators to send multilingual emergency alerts over television and radio.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                        <ENT>Consumer and Governmental Affairs</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Title:</E>
                             Empowering Consumers to Stop Robocalls and Robotexts (CG Docket No. 02-278).
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Summary:</E>
                             The Commission will consider a Report and Order and Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking to strengthen consumers' ability to revoke consent so that it is simple and easy, codify previously adopted protections that make it simpler for consumers to revoke consent, and require that callers and texters implement requests in a timely manner. The item also proposes and seeks comment on how to apply the TCPA to robocalls and robotexts from wireless providers to their own subscribers and proposes to give consumers the ability to revoke consent and thereby stop these communications.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                        <ENT>Office of Engineering and Technology</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Title:</E>
                             Expanding Opportunities for Wireless Microphone Use (ET Docket No. 21-115).
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Summary:</E>
                             The Commission will consider a Report and Order to revise the Part 15 and 74 technical rules to permit a recently developed, and more efficient, type of wireless microphone system.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                        <ENT>Space</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Title:</E>
                             Space Innovation (IB Docket No. 22-271); Facilitating Capabilities for In-space Servicing, Assembly, and Manufacturing (IB Docket No. 22-272).
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11834"/>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Summary:</E>
                             The Commission will consider a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking that would propose a framework for licensing space stations engaged in in-space servicing, assembly, and manufacturing—or “ISAM”—operations that can support sustained economic activity in space. The goal of the proposed framework is to facilitate the development of these novel space activities and advance opportunities for innovation in the new space age.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                        <ENT>Media</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Title:</E>
                             Restricted Adjudicatory Matter.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Summary:</E>
                             The Commission will consider a restricted adjudicatory matter from the Media Bureau.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">6</ENT>
                        <ENT>Enforcement</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Title:</E>
                             Enforcement Bureau Action.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Summary:</E>
                             The Commission will consider an enforcement action.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <STARS/>
                <P>
                    The meeting will be webcast at: 
                    <E T="03">www.fcc.gov/live.</E>
                     Open captioning will be provided as well as a text only version on the FCC website. Other reasonable accommodations for people with disabilities are available upon request. In your request, include a description of the accommodation you will need and a way we can contact you if we need more information. Last minute requests will be accepted but may be impossible to fill. Send an email to: 
                    <E T="03">fcc504@fcc.gov</E>
                     or call the Consumer &amp; Governmental Affairs Bureau at 202-418-0530.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Press Access</E>
                    —Members of the news media are welcome to attend the meeting and will be provided reserved seating on a first-come, first-served basis. Following the meeting, the Chairwoman may hold a news conference in which she will take questions from credentialed members of the press in attendance. Also, senior policy and legal staff will be made available to the press in attendance for questions related to the items on the meeting agenda. Commissioners may also choose to hold press conferences. Press may also direct questions to the Office of Media Relations (OMR): 
                    <E T="03">MediaRelations@fcc.gov.</E>
                     Questions about credentialing should be directed to OMR.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Additional information concerning this meeting may be obtained from the Office of Media Relations, (202) 418-0500. Audio/Video coverage of the meeting will be broadcast live with open captioning over the internet from the FCC Live web page at 
                    <E T="03">www.fcc.gov/live.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Federal Communications Commission.</FP>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 8, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Marlene Dortch,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03048 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6712-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL MARITIME COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 24-01]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Filing of Amended Complaint and Assignment; Visual Comfort &amp; Co., Complainant V. Cosco Shipping Lines Co., Ltd., Respondent</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>Served: February 9, 2024.</DATE>
                <P>Notice is given that an amended complaint has been filed with the Federal Maritime Commission (the “Commission”) by Visual Comfort &amp; Co. (the “Complainant”) against COSCO Shipping Lines Co., Ltd. (the “Respondent”). Complainant states that the Commission has jurisdiction over the amended complaint pursuant to 46 U.S.C. 41301 through 41309 and personal jurisdiction over Respondent as an ocean common carrier as defined in 46 CFR 520.2.</P>
                <P>Complainant is a corporation organized under the laws of Texas with its principal place of business located in Houston, Texas, and is a shipper as defined in 46 U.S.C. 40102(23).</P>
                <P>Complainant identifies Respondent as a Chinese global ocean carrier located in Shanghai, People's Republic of China with an office/general agent in the United States located in Secaucus, New Jersey, and as a vessel-operating ocean common carrier as defined in 46 U.S.C. 40102(18).</P>
                <P>Complainant alleges that Respondent violated 46 U.S.C. 41102(c) and 41104(a)(10) and 46 CFR 545.5. Complainant alleges these violations arose from assessment of demurrage, detention, per diem, and yard storage charges during periods of time in which the charges were not just or reasonable because of circumstances outside the control of the Complainant and its agents and service providers, and from the acts or omissions of the Respondent that led to the assessment of these charges.</P>
                <P>An answer to the amended complaint must be filed with the Commission within 14 days after the date of service of the Administrative Law Judge's Order Granting Complainant's Motion to Amend Complaint and Substitute Respondent, and Granting Respondent's Motion to Dismiss.</P>
                <P>
                    The full text of the amended complaint can be found in the Commission's electronic Reading Room at 
                    <E T="03">https://www2.fmc.gov/readingroom/proceeding/24-01/</E>
                    . This proceeding has been assigned to Administrative Law Judge Linda S. Harris Crovella. The initial decision of the presiding judge shall be issued by January 6, 2025, and the final decision of the Commission shall be issued by July 21, 2025.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>David Eng,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03139 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6730-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Meeting of the National Advisory Council for Healthcare Research and Quality</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ), Department of Health and Human Services.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of public meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This notice announces a meeting of the National Advisory Council for Healthcare Research and Quality.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting will be held on Thursday, March 14, 2024, from 11:15 a.m. to 4 p.m.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting will be held virtually.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Jaime Zimmerman, Designated Federal Official, at the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, 5600 Fishers Lane, Mail Stop 06E37A, Rockville, Maryland 20857, (301) 427-1456. For press-related information, please contact Bruce Seeman at (301) 427-1998 or 
                        <E T="03">Bruce.Seeman@AHRQ.hhs.gov.</E>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11835"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>Closed captioning will be provided during the meeting. If another reasonable accommodation for a disability is needed, please contact the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Office of Equal Employment Opportunity and Diversity Management on (301) 827-4840, no later than Thursday, February 29, 2024. The agenda, roster, and minutes will be available from Jenny Griffith, Committee Management Officer, Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, Maryland 20857. Jenny Griffith's phone number is (240) 446-6799.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Purpose</HD>
                <P>In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, this notice announces a meeting of the National Advisory Council for Healthcare Research and Quality (the Council). 5 U.S.C. 1009. The Council is authorized by section 941 of the Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 299c. In accordance with its statutory mandate, the Council is to advise the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services and the Director of AHRQ on matters related to AHRQ's conduct of its mission including providing guidance on (A) priorities for health care research, (B) the field of health care research including training needs and information dissemination on health care quality and (C) the role of the Agency in light of private sector activity and opportunities for public private partnerships. The Council is composed of members of the public, appointed by the Secretary, and Federal ex-officio members specified in the authorizing legislation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Agenda</HD>
                <P>
                    On Thursday, March 14, 2024, NAC members will meet to conduct preparatory work prior to convening the Council meeting at 11:15 a.m., with the call to order by the Council Chair, an introduction of NAC members, and approval of previous Council summary notes. The NAC members will then receive an update from the AHRQ Director. The agenda will also include updates on the Subcommittee of the National Advisory Council (SNAC) for AHRQ's Patient-Centered Outcomes Research Trust Fund (PCORTF) Investments, the 20th Anniversary of Digital Healthcare, an update on the National Action Alliance to Advance Patient and Workforce Safety, and a discussion on diagnostic safety. The meeting is open to the public and will adjourn at 4 p.m. For information regarding how to access the meeting as well as other meeting details, including information on how to make a public comment, please go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ahrq.gov/news/events/nac/.</E>
                     The final agenda will be available on the AHRQ website no later than Thursday, March 7, 2024.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 12, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Marquita Cullom,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Director.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03155 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4160-90-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Administration for Children and Families</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Community-Based Child Abuse Prevention Program (Office of Management and Budget #: 0970-0155)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Children's Bureau, Administration on Children, Youth and Families, Administration for Children and Families, Department of Health and Human Services.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for public comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Children's Bureau, Administration for Children and Families (ACF), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), is requesting a three-year extension of the Program Instruction (PI) for the Community-Based Child Abuse Prevention (CBCAP) program (Office of Management and Budget (OMB) #: 0970-0155, expiration June 30, 2024), which outlines information collection requirements pursuant to receiving a grant award. There are no changes requested to the information collection process.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments due within 30 days of publication.</E>
                         OMB must make a decision about the collection of information between 30 and 60 days after publication of this document in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . Therefore, a comment is best assured of having its full effect if OMB receives it within 30 days of publication.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     The PI, prepared in response to the enactment of the CBCAP program, as set forth in Title II of the Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment Reauthorization Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-320) or CAPTA, provides direction to the states and territories to accomplish the purposes of (1) supporting community-based efforts to develop, operate, expand, and where appropriate to network, initiatives aimed at the prevention of child abuse and neglect, and to support networks of coordinated resources and activities to better strengthen and support families to reduce the likelihood of child abuse and neglect and (2) fostering an understanding, appreciation, and knowledge of diverse populations in order to be effective in preventing and treating child abuse and neglect. This PI contains information collection requirements that are found in CAPTA and pursuant to receiving a grant award. The information submitted will be used by the agency to ensure compliance with the statute, complete the calculation of the grant award entitlement, and provide training and technical assistance to the grantee.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     State governments, quasi-public entities, and non-profit private agencies.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Annual Burden Estimates</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Instrument</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>number of</LI>
                            <LI>responses per</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden hours</LI>
                            <LI>per response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annual
                            <LI>burden hours</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Application</ENT>
                        <ENT>52</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>40</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,080</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Annual Report</ENT>
                        <ENT>52</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>24</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,248</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>3,328</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="11836"/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     The CAPTA Reauthorization Act of 2010; Title II of the CAPTA, Pub. L. 115-271 (42 U.S.C. 5116 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Mary C. Jones,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>ACF/OPRE Certifying Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03107 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4184-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Food and Drug Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FDA-2013-D-0447]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Charging for Investigational Drugs Under an Investigational New Drug Application: Questions and Answers; Guidance for Industry; Availability</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Food and Drug Administration, HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of availability.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of a final guidance for industry entitled “Charging for Investigational Drugs Under an IND: Questions and Answers.” This guidance addresses frequently asked questions related to the implementation of FDA's regulation on charging for investigational drugs under an investigational new drug application (IND) for the purpose of either clinical trials or expanded access for treatment use. This guidance finalizes the revised draft guidance of the same title issued on August 23, 2022, and replaces the final guidance issued on June 3, 2016.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The announcement of the guidance is published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on February 15, 2024.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit either electronic or written comments on Agency guidances at any time as follows:</P>
                </ADD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Submissions</HD>
                <P>Submit electronic comments in the following way:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                      
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Follow the instructions for submitting comments. Comments submitted electronically, including attachments, to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     will be posted to the docket unchanged. Because your comment will be made public, you are solely responsible for ensuring that your comment does not include any confidential information that you or a third party may not wish to be posted, such as medical information, your or anyone else's Social Security number, or confidential business information, such as a manufacturing process. Please note that if you include your name, contact information, or other information that identifies you in the body of your comments, that information will be posted on 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Written/Paper Submissions</HD>
                <P>Submit written/paper submissions as follows:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Mail/Hand Delivery/Courier (for written/paper submissions):</E>
                     Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
                </P>
                <P>• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                     All submissions received must include the Docket No. FDA-2013-D-0447 for “Charging for Investigational Drugs Under an IND: Questions and Answers” Received comments will be placed in the docket and, except for those submitted as “Confidential Submissions,” publicly viewable at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or at the Dockets Management Staff between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, 240-402-7500.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Submit both copies to the Dockets Management Staff. If you do not wish your name and contact information to be made publicly available, you can provide this information on the cover sheet and not in the body of your comments and you must identify this information as “confidential.” Any information marked as “confidential” will not be disclosed except in accordance with 21 CFR 10.20 and other applicable disclosure law. For more information about FDA's posting of comments to public dockets, see 80 FR 56469, September 18, 2015, or access the information at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/FR-2015-09-18/pdf/2015-23389.pdf.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                     For access to the docket to read background documents or the electronic and written/paper comments received, go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and insert the docket number, found in brackets in the heading of this document, into the “Search” box and follow the prompts and/or go to the Dockets Management Staff, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500.
                </P>
                <P>You may submit comments on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)).</P>
                <P>
                    Submit written requests for single copies of this guidance to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10001 New Hampshire Ave., Hillandale Building, 4th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002; or the Office of Communication, Outreach and Development, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. 3128, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. See the 
                    <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                     section for electronic access to the guidance document.
                </P>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Dat Doan, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 3334, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-8926, 
                        <E T="03">Dat.Doan@fda.hhs.gov</E>
                        ; or James Myers, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. 7301, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-7911.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>FDA is announcing the availability of a guidance for industry entitled “Charging for Investigational Drugs Under an IND: Questions and Answers.” FDA's regulation on charging for investigational drugs under an IND (21 CFR 312.8) for the purpose of either clinical trials or expanded access for treatment use allows sponsors to charge for investigational drugs under certain circumstances.</P>
                <P>
                    FDA issued a final guidance on June 3, 2016 entitled “Charging for 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11837"/>
                    Investigational Drugs Under an IND: Questions and Answers.” FDA issued a revised draft guidance of the same title in August 2022 to include responses to stakeholder questions received since publication of the final guidance in 2016. This guidance finalizes the revised draft guidance issued on August 23, 2022 (87 FR 51679). FDA considered comments received on the revised draft guidance as the guidance was finalized. Changes from the revised draft to the final guidance address the inclusion of information about charging for investigational drugs in the informed consent document and provide the definition of intermediate-size patient population expanded access. In addition, editorial changes were made to improve clarity.
                </P>
                <P>This guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The guidance represents the current thinking of FDA on “Charging for Investigational Drugs Under an IND: Questions and Answers.” It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995</HD>
                <P>While this guidance contains no collection of information, it does refer to previously approved FDA collections of information. The previously approved collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521). The collections of information in 21 CFR part 312 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0014.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Electronic Access</HD>
                <P>
                    Persons with access to the internet may obtain the guidance at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fda.gov/drugs/guidance-compliance-regulatory-information/guidances-drugs, https://www.fda.gov/regulatory-information/search-fda-guidance-documents,</E>
                      
                    <E T="03">https://www.fda.gov/vaccines-blood-biologics/guidance-compliance-regulatory-information-biologics/biologics-guidances,</E>
                     or 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 12, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lauren K. Roth,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Commissioner for Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03186 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4164-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Food and Drug Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Statement of Organization, Functions, and Delegations of Authority</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Food and Drug Administration, HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Food and Drug Administration's (FDA), Office of the Commissioner (OC), Office of Digital Transformation (ODT) has modified their organizational structure. The new organizational structure was approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services on December 21, 2023.</P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Yashika Rahaman, Director, Office of Planning, Evaluation and Risk Management; Office of Finance, Budget, Acquisitions, and Planning; 4041 Powder Mill Road, Beltsville, MD 20705-4304; 301-796-3843.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>Part D, Chapter D-B, (Food and Drug Administration), the Statement of Organization, Functions and Delegations of Authority for the Department of Health and Human Services (35 FR 3685, February 25, 1970, 60 FR 56606, November 9, 1995, 64 FR 36361, July 6, 1999, 72 FR 50112, August 30, 2007, 74 FR 41713, August 18, 2009, 76 FR 45270, July 28, 2011, and 84 FR 22854, May 20, 2019) is revised to reflect the FDA, OC's ODT.</P>
                <P>The proposed changes to ODT's organizational structure consolidate similar functions and resources across multiple areas and align the organizational structure with federal and industry standards. This will create a more agile organization, improve resource management, enhance customer service, and better align the name of organizational components with current functions. The reorganization will maintain a reasonable span of control and clear and appropriate lines of authority and responsibilities between organizations. This will also ensure optimal resource utilization and leveraging of existing staff talent and will allow ODT more efficiency and effectiveness in the advancement of continuous improvement efforts.</P>
                <P>
                    This reorganization elevates the functions and resources of the Office of Enterprise Portfolio Management in the Office of Information Management and Technology (OIMT) to the Office of Digital Transformation; established the Division of Acquisition Innovation, Division of Technology Business Management, and the Division of Finance and Budget within OEPM; and realigned the Delivery Management Support Staff from the Office of Technology and Delivery (OTD) to OEPM, Division of Acquisition Innovation; established the Acquisitions Operations Branch, Acquisition Governance Branch, and IT Asset Management Branch within the Division of Acquisition Innovation; established the IT Governance Branch and Business Intelligence Branch within the Division of Technology Business Management; establish the Budget Formulation Branch and Budget Execution Branch within the Division of Finance and Budget; established the Office of Organizational Excellence (OEX) reporting to the ODT; established the Division of People and Culture (DPC) and the Division of Knowledge and Communications (DKC) within OEX; realigned the staff resources and functions from the OBCA Division of Management Services (DMS) to DPC in OEX; established the Talent Strategy Staff (TSS) and the Executive Services Staff (ESS) within OEX; abolished the Strategic Operations Staff (SOS) located in ODT Immediate Office and realigned staff resources and functions to DKC in OEX; realigned staff resources and functions from the Knowledge Management Staff (KMS) in the Office of Data, Analytics, and Research to DKC; realigned existing executive services functions and staff in the ODAR, OIMT, and ODT immediate offices to DKC; retitled the current Office of Business and Customer Assurance in OIMT to the Office of Customer Experience (OCX); abolished the Division of Management Services and Division of Business Partnerships and Support in the current Office of Business and Customer Assurance; established the Division of Collaboration Services, Division of Service Desk and Support, Division of Endpoint Management, Division of End User Services, and Division of Employee Information in the new OCX; established the Enterprise Architecture Staff in the OIMT Immediate Office; established the Division of Engineering (DE) in the OIMT Office of Technology and Delivery; established the Engineering Branch, Implementation Branch, Application Branch, and Database &amp; Content Services Branch within DE; retitled the Division of Infrastructure Operations (DIO) in the OTD in OIMT to the Division of Infrastructure Services (DIS); abolished the Infrastructure Management Services Staff (IMSS) within DIO and realigned 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11838"/>
                    the staff resources and functions to the DIS immediate office; abolished the DIO's Implementation Branch, Infrastructure Engineering Branch, System Operations Branch, Network and Communications Operations Branch, Systems Monitoring and Response Branch, and Systems Monitoring and Response Branch; established the Network Services Branch, Systems Services Branch, and Operations Branch in DIS; realigned staff resources based on their roles and responsibilities; abolished the Delivery Management Support Staff (DMSS) within OTD immediate office; abolished the Application Management Services Staff, Medical Products Branch, OC/CVM/CTP Branch, ORA/CFSAN/CVM Branch, Enterprise Applications Branch, Data Management and Operations Branch within OIMT/OTD/Division of Application Services (DAS); established the Regulatory Operations Branch, Scientific Operations Branch, and Business &amp; Post-Market Branch within DAS; retitled the Office of Data, Analytics, and Research (ODAR), Data Staff to the Analytics Staff; retitled the ODAR Health Informatics Staff to the Informatics Staff; established the Data and Analytics Governance Staff and Data Strategy and Services Staff within ODAR; abolished the Knowledge Management Staff (KMS) within ODAR and realigned the staff resources and functions to the Office of Organizational Excellence, Division of Knowledge &amp; Communications; established the Division of Cybersecurity Capabilities (DCC), Division of Risk &amp; Compliance (DRC), Division of Cybersecurity Operations (DCO), and the Division of Counterintelligence &amp; Insider Threat (DCIT) within the Office of Information Security (OIS); established the Vulnerability Management Branch and Identity Management Branch under OIS/DCC; established the Information System Security Branch and Risk Compliance and Audit Branch under OIS/DRMC; established the CIOCC Operations Branch and Network Security Branch under OIS/DCO; established the Program Staff within the OIS immediate office; realigned OIS staff resources and functions within OIS based on their roles and responsibilities.
                </P>
                <P>The Food and Drug Administration Office of the Commissioner's Office of Digital Transformation is headed by the Chief Information Officer and has been restructured as follows:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Office of Digital Transformation (DCAD)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Office of Information Management and Technology (DCADA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Enterprise Architecture Staff (DCADA1)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Office of Technology and Delivery (DCADAA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Division of Infrastructure Services (DCADAAA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Network Services Branch (DCADAAA1)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Systems Services Branch (DCADAAA2)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Operations Branch (DCADAAA3)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Division of Application Services (DCADAAB)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Regulatory Operations Branch (DCADAAB1)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Scientific Operations Branch (DCADAAB2)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Business and Post-Market Branch (DCADAAB3)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Division of Engineering (DCADAAC)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Engineering Branch (DCADAAC1)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Implementation Branch (DCADAAC2)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Application Branch (DCADAAC3)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Database &amp; Content Services Branch (DCADAAC4)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Office of Customer Experience (DCADAB)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Division of Collaboration Services (DCADABA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Division of Service Desk and Support (DCADABB)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Division of Endpoint Management (DCADABC)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Division of End User Services (DCADABD)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Division of Employee Information (DCADABE)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Office of Information Security (DCADB)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Program Staff (DCADB1)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Division of Cybersecurity Capabilities (DCADBA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Vulnerability Management Branch (DCADBA1)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Identity Management Branch (DCADBA2)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Division of Risk and Compliance (DCADBB)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Information System Security Branch (DCADBB1)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Risk Compliance and Audit Branch (DCADBB2)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Division of Cybersecurity Operations (DCADBC)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CIOCC Operations Branch (DCADBC1)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Network Security Branch (DCADBC2)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Division of Counterintelligence/Insider Threat (DCADBD)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Office of Data, Analytics, and Research (DCADC)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Analytics Staff (DCADC1)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Informatics Staff (DCADC2)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Data and Analytics Governance Staff (DCADC4)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Data Strategy and Services Staff (DCADC5)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Office of Enterprise Portfolio Management (DCADD)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Division of Acquisition Innovation (DCADDA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Acquisitions Operations Branch (DCADDA1)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Acquisitions Governance Branch (DCADDA2)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">IT Asset Management Branch (DCADDA3)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Division of Technology Business Management (DCADDB)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">IT Governance Branch (DCADDB1)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Business Intelligence Branch (DCADDB2)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Division of Finance and Budget (DCADDC)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Budget Formulation Branch (DCADDC1)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Budget Execution Branch (DCADDC2)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Office of Organizational Excellence (DCADE)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Talent Strategy Staff (DCADE1)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Executive Services Staff (DCADE2)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Division of People and Culture (DCADEA)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Employee Experience Branch (DCADEA1)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Learning and Development Branch (DCADEA2)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Division of Knowledge and Communications (DCADEB)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Knowledge and Innovation Branch (DCADEB1)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Communications and Outreach Branch (DCADEB2)</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Delegations of Authority</HD>
                <P>Pending further delegation, directives, or orders by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, all delegations and redelegations of authority made to officials and employees of affected organizational components will continue in them or their successors pending further redelegations, provided they are consistent with this reorganization.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Electronic Access</HD>
                <P>
                    This reorganization is reflected in FDA's Staff Manual Guide (SMG). Persons interested in seeing the complete Staff Manual Guide can find it on FDA's website at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fda.gov/AboutFDA/ReportsManualsForms/StaffManualGuides/default.htm.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     44 U.S.C. 3101.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Xavier Becerra,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary of Health and Human Services.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-02603 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4164-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Health Resources and Services Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission to OMB for Review and Approval; Public Comment Request; DATA 2000 Waiver Training Payment Program Application for Payment, OMB No. 0906-0061</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="11839"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, HRSA submitted an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. Comments submitted during the first public review of this ICR will be provided to OMB. OMB will accept further comments from the public during the review and approval period. OMB may act on HRSA's ICR only after the 30-day comment period for this notice has closed.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this ICR should be received no later than March 18, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To request a copy of the clearance requests submitted to OMB for review, email Joella Roland, the HRSA Information Collection Clearance Officer, at 
                        <E T="03">paperwork@hrsa.gov</E>
                         or call (301) 443-3983.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Information Collection Request Title:</E>
                     DATA 2000 Waiver Training Payment Program Application for Payment, OMB No. 0906-0061—Revision.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Substance Use—Disorder Prevention that Promotes Opioid Recovery and Treatment for Patients and Communities (SUPPORT) Act (Pub. L. 115-271), section 6083, amended the Social Security Act (subsections 1834(o)(3) and 1833(bb)), authorizing the Secretary of Health and Human Services (Secretary) to pay Federally Qualified Health Centers (FQHC) and Rural Health Clinics (RHC) for the average cost of training for purposes of receiving a DATA 2000 waiver for their physicians and practitioners to furnish opioid use disorder treatment services. The SUPPORT Act made $6 million available to FQHCs and $2 million available to RHCs under the DATA 2000 Waiver Training Payment Program. To receive payment, FQHCs and RHCs must submit an application in the manner specified by the Secretary. Authority to administer the DATA 2000 program has been delegated to HRSA. Further information about the program can be found in the link below which provides guidance on the requirements of the DATA 2000 program and how qualified FQHCs and RHCs can apply to the program: 
                    <E T="03">https://help.hrsa.gov/display/public/EHBSKBFG/DATA+2000+Waiver+Training+Payment+Program+FAQs.</E>
                </P>
                <P>This purpose of this revision is to update the burden estimate for the RHC application process because the funding appropriated for FQHC DATA 2000 payments has been fully expended. Therefore, no new applications for FQHC DATA 2000 payments can be accepted or approved. Only Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services certified RHCs can apply for payments through the DATA 2000 program, and pursuant to the authorizing statute and subsequent legislation eliminating the DATA 2000 waiver requirement, such RHCs may only receive payments with respect to providers who first received their DATA 2000 Waiver between January 1, 2019, and December 29, 2022.</P>
                <P>
                    Applicant entities must provide information identifying the submitting organization and the number of practitioners who have completed training and obtained a DATA 2000 waiver. The form will also require the entity to include information regarding each claimed practitioner's name, practitioner type (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     physician, physician assistant, nurse practitioner, certified nurse midwife, clinical nurse specialist, certified registered nurse, or anesthetist), National Provider Identifier number, Drug Enforcement Administration number, state license number, length of training, date the training was completed, date of waiver attainment, and DATA 2000 waiver number. Additionally, the form will require signature of an attestation statement certifying that: (1) each practitioner for which the entity is seeking payment under the application is employed by or working under contract for the applicant health facility; (2) it is the first time the entity is seeking payment on behalf of the listed practitioner(s); (3) the entity is eligible to seek payment under 42 U.S.C. 1395m(o)(3) or 42 U.S.C. 1395l(bb); (4) each practitioner is furnishing opioid use disorder treatment services; and (5) the statements herein are true, complete, and accurate to the best of the applicant's knowledge.
                </P>
                <P>
                    A 60-day notice published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on December 4, 2023, vol. 88, No. 231; pp. 84149-50. There were no public comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Need and Proposed Use of the Information:</E>
                     The Substance Use—Disorder Prevention that Promotes Opioid Recovery and Treatment for Patients and Communities Act requires RHCs to submit to the Secretary an application for payment at such time, in such manner, and containing such information as specified by the Secretary in order to receive a payment under section 6083. This form will allow RHCs to apply for such payments based on the average cost of training to obtain DATA 2000 waivers, as determined by the Secretary, for their physicians and practitioners to furnish opioid use disorder treatment services. The form will also provide HRSA with the requisite data to validate qualifying DATA 2000 waiver possessions for the purpose of ensuring accurate payments to RHCs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Likely Respondents:</E>
                     Only Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services certified RHCs are eligible to apply.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Burden Statement:</E>
                     Burden in this context means the time expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose, or provide the information requested. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install, and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating, and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information; to search data sources; to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information. The total annual burden hours estimated for this ICR are summarized in the table below.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,9,10,6">
                    <TTITLE>Total Estimated Annualized Burden Hours</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Form name</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>responses per</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(in hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>hours</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">DATA 2000 Waiver Training Payment Program Application for Payment</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT>0.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>150.0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11840"/>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>300</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>150.0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Maria G. Button,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Executive Secretariat.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03092 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4165-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.</P>
                <P>The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Special Emphasis Panel: Cardiovascular Differentiation and Development.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 6, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:30 a.m. to 7:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Sara Ahlgren, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, RM 4136, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-435-0904, 
                        <E T="03">sara.ahlgren@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; RFA: RM-23-015 Pilot Projects Enhancing Utility and Usage of Common Fund Data Sets Review.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 13, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 7:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Katherine M. Malinda, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 4140, MSC 7814, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 435-0912, 
                        <E T="03">malindakm@csr.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; RFA Panel: Animal and Biological Material Resource Centers and Resource-Related Research Projects.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 13, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Michael L. Bloom, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 6187, MSC 7804, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-451-0132, 
                        <E T="03">bloomm2@mail.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Member Conflict: Cell and Developmental Biology of Eye.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 13, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         2:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Rass M. Shayiq, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 2182, MSC 7818, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 435-2359, 
                        <E T="03">shayiqr@csr.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Small Business: Biomedical Sensing, Measurement and Instrumentation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 14-15, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         Hilton Washington/Rockville, 1750 Rockville Pike, Rockville, MD 20852.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Steven Anthony Ripp, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 594-3010, 
                        <E T="03">steven.ripp@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Small Business: Neuroscience Assays, Diagnostics, Instrumentation, and Interventions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 14-15, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         8:30 a.m. to 8:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Aurea D. De Sousa, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 5186, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 827-6829, 
                        <E T="03">aurea.desousa@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Small Business: Biological Chemistry, Biophysics, and Assay Development.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 14-15, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:00 a.m. to 7:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         John Harold Laity, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 402-8254, 
                        <E T="03">laityjh@csr.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Small Business: Health Services and Systems.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 14-15, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Michael J. McQuestion, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 3114, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-480-1276, 
                        <E T="03">mike.mcquestion@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.306, Comparative Medicine; 93.333, Clinical Research, 93.306, 93.333, 93.337, 93.393-93.396, 93.837-93.844, 93.846-93.878, 93.892, 93.893, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 12, 2024. </DATED>
                    <NAME>David W. Freeman, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Supervisory Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03197 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11841"/>
                </P>
                <P>The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases Special Emphasis Panel; Fundamental Research to Understand the Mechanisms of Neurotropic Virus-mediated Disease (R01 Clinical Trial Not Allowed).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 20-28, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, National Institutes of Health, 5601 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20852 (Video Assisted Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Yong Gao, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Scientific Review Program, Division of Extramural Activities, National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, National Institutes of Health, 5601 Fishers Lane, MSC 9834, (240) 669-5048, 
                        <E T="03">gaoL2@niaid.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.855, Allergy, Immunology, and Transplantation Research; 93.856, Microbiology and Infectious Diseases Research, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 12, 2024. </DATED>
                    <NAME>Lauren A. Fleck, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03196 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>National Institute of Mental Health; Notice of Closed Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.</P>
                <P>The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         National Institute of Mental Health Initial Review Group; Effectiveness of Mental Health Interventions Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 12-13, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         11:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Neuroscience Center, 6001 Executive Boulevard, Rockville, MD 20852.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Claudio Dario Ortiz, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Division of Extramural Activities, National Institute of Mental Health, National Institutes of Health, 6001 Executive Blvd., Bethesda, MD 20892, 240-869-9245, 
                        <E T="03">claudio.ortiz@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         National Institute of Mental Health Special Emphasis Panel; Mental Health Services Research Not Involving Clinical Trials.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 15, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         11:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Neuroscience Center, 6001 Executive Boulevard, Rockville, MD 20852.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Aileen Schulte, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Division of Extramural Activities, National Institute of Mental Health, National Institutes of Health, Neuroscience Center, 6001 Executive Blvd., Bethesda, MD 20892-9608, 301-443-1225, 
                        <E T="03">aschulte@mail.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program No. 93.242, Mental Health Research Grants, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie J. Pantoja, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03113 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.</P>
                <P>The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Small Business: Biobehavioral Processes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 14-15, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:00 a.m. to 7:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         Canopy by Hilton, 940 Rose Avenue, North Bethesda, MD 20852.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Jeanne M. McCaffery, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 594-3854, 
                        <E T="03">jeanne.mccaffery@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; PAR Panel: Fogarty Global Brain Disorders.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 14-15, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Linda MacArthur, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 4187, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-537-9986, 
                        <E T="03">macarthurlh@csr.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Fellowships: Vascular and Hematological Systems, Surgical Sciences, Biomedical Imaging, and Bioengineering.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 14-15, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:00 a.m. to 9:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Courtney Elaine Watkins, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 496-3093, 
                        <E T="03">courtney.watkins2@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Small Business: Drug Discovery for Aging, Neurodegenerative and Neurological Disorders.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 14-15, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:00 a.m. to 6:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (Hybrid Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Kathryn Partlow, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 1016D, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 594-2138, 
                        <E T="03">partlowkc@csr.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Small Business: Clinical Neurophysiology, Devices, Neuroprosthetics and Biosensors.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 14-15, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:00 a.m. to 7:00 p.m.
                        <PRTPAGE P="11842"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Cristina Backman, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 5211, MSC 7846, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 480-9069, 
                        <E T="03">cbackman@mail.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; Member Conflict: Musculoskeletal, Dental and Oral Sciences.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 14, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:30 a.m. to 8:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Chee Lim, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 4128, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 435-1850, 
                        <E T="03">limc4@csr.nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; PAR-20-131: Mammalian Models for Translational Research.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 14, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 7:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Maria Dolores Arjona Mayor, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Center for Scientific Review, National Institute of Health, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Room 806D, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 827-8578, 
                        <E T="03">dolores.arjonamayor@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel; RFA Panel: NIH Director's Early Independence Award Review.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 14-15, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Rockledge II, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Shivakumar V. Chittari, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, National Institutes of Health, Center for Scientific Review, 6701 Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-408-9098, 
                        <E T="03">chittari.shivakumar@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.306, Comparative Medicine; 93.333, Clinical Research, 93.306, 93.333, 93.337, 93.393-93.396, 93.837-93.844, 93.846-93.878, 93.892, 93.893, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie J. Pantoja,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03111 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke; Notice of Closed Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.</P>
                <P>The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke Special Emphasis Panel; HERN Review.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 5, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         11:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Neuroscience Center, 6001 Executive Boulevard, Rockville, MD 20852.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Ana Olariu, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Scientific Review Branch, Division of Extramural Activities, NINDS/NIH, NSC, 6001 Executive Blvd., Room 3208, MSC 9529, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 496-9223, 
                        <E T="03">Ana.Olariu@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke Special Emphasis Panel; Validating digital health technologies for monitoring biomarkers in ADRD.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 8, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 2:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Neuroscience Center, 6001 Executive Boulevard, Rockville, MD 20852.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Surojeet Sengupta, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Scientific Review Branch, National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke, 6001 Executive Boulevard, Room 5134, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 496-9223, 
                        <E T="03">surojeet.sengupta@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke Special Emphasis Panel; Collaborative Opportunities for Multidisciplinary, Bold, and Innovative Neuroscience (COMBINE) (RM1 Clinical Trial Optional).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 8, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Neuroscience Center, 6001 Executive Boulevard, Rockville, MD 20852.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Bo-Shiun Chen, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Scientific Review Branch, Division of Extramural Activities, NINDS/NIH, NSC, 6001 Executive Blvd., Suite 3208, MSC 9529, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 496-9223 
                        <E T="03">bo-shiun.chen@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke Special Emphasis Panel; NINDS Enhancing Experimental Rigor.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 18, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         11:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Neuroscience Center, 6001 Executive Boulevard, Rockville, MD 20852.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         DeAnna Lynn Adkins, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Scientific Review Branch, NSC Building, Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-496-9223, 
                        <E T="03">deanna.adkins@nih.gov,</E>
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.853, Clinical Research Related to Neurological Disorders; 93.854, Biological Basis Research in the Neurosciences, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lauren A. Fleck, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03108 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke; Amended Notice of Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke Special Emphasis Panel, March 07, 2024, 10:00 a.m. to March 08, 2024, 06:00 p.m., National Institutes of Health, Neuroscience Center, 6001 Executive Boulevard, Rockville, MD 20852 which was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on February 09, 2024, FR Doc. 2024-02654, 89 FR 9165.
                </P>
                <P>This notice is being amended to change this from a two-day meeting on March 7-8, 2024, to a one-day meeting on March 7, 2024. The meeting time remains the same. The meeting is closed to the public.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lauren A. Fleck, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03102 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="11843"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Request for Information (RFI) To Inform Development of the FY 2026-2030 NIH Strategic Plan for HIV and HIV-Related Research</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Institutes of Health, HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for information.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Through this Request for Information (RFI), the Office of AIDS Research (OAR) in the Division of Program Coordination, Planning, and Strategic Initiatives (DPCPSI), National Institutes of Health (NIH), invites feedback from researchers, health care professionals, advocates and health advocacy organizations, scientific or professional organizations, federal/state/local government agencies, community, and other interested constituents on the development of the fiscal year (FY) 2026-2030 NIH Strategic Plan for HIV and HIV-Related Research (the Plan). The Plan (
                        <E T="03">https://www.oar.nih.gov/sites/default/files/NIH_StrategicPlan_FY2021-2025.pdf</E>
                        ) guides the NIH investment, building on scientific progress and opportunities for advancing HIV research toward an end to the pandemic.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments on or before April 1, 2024 to ensure consideration.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submissions must be submitted electronically via the following website: 
                        <E T="03">https://rfi.grants.nih.gov/?s=65b25017cf031643470daad2.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Questions about this request for information should be directed to Rachel I. Anderson, Office of AIDS Research, 5601 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20852, 
                        <E T="03">HIVstrategicplan@nih.gov,</E>
                         (301) 496-0357.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is in accordance with the NIH Revitalization Act of 1993 that requires the Office of AIDS Research to develop a comprehensive plan, reviewed annually and revised as appropriate, that establishes HIV/AIDS research priorities and serves as a guiding framework for allocation of HIV/AIDS funding across NIH. This notice also complies with the 21st Century Cures Act, wherein NIH and its institutes, centers, and offices are required to regularly update their strategic plans.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The most recent global statistics from the Joint United Nations Programme on HIV/AIDS (
                    <E T="03">https://www.unaids.org/sites/default/files/media_asset/UNAIDS_FactSheet_en.pdf</E>
                    ) estimate that in 2022, 39 million people were living with HIV, 1.3 million people acquired HIV, and 630,000 people died from AIDS-related illnesses. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (
                    <E T="03">https://www.cdc.gov/hiv/statistics/index.html</E>
                    ) estimates that in the United States in 2021, 1.2 million people were living with HIV, with disparities by age, race, gender, and ethnicity. There were over 36,000 new HIV diagnoses documented in the U.S. in 2021, and an estimated 66% of people with diagnosed HIV achieved viral suppression. These statistics point to the need for expanded access and choice among current HIV prevention, testing, and treatment methods, as well as the need for an effective HIV vaccine and a scalable HIV cure. Global patterns of HIV epidemiology underscore the necessity for research and implementation strategies to address the intersectional nature of health disparities and social determinants of health.
                </P>
                <P>NIH OAR oversees and coordinates all HIV research activities across NIH, including both extramural and intramural research, research training, program evaluation, and HIV research infrastructure and capacity development. NIH supports a comprehensive portfolio of research representing a broad range of basic, clinical, behavioral, social, translational, and implementation science on HIV and associated coinfections and comorbidities. The Plan provides a framework for developing the NIH HIV research budget, articulates HIV research priorities, and provides information about NIH HIV research priorities to the scientific community, Congress, HIV-affected communities, and the public at large.</P>
                <P>
                    Since 2015, the NIH HIV research portfolio has been framed according to five overarching priority areas (
                    <E T="03">https://grants.nih.gov/grants/guide/notice-files/NOT-OD-20-018.html</E>
                    ): 1) Reduce the incidence of HIV; 2) Develop next-generation HIV therapies; 3) Conduct research toward HIV cure; 4) Address HIV-associated comorbidities, coinfections, and complications; and 5) Advance cross-cutting areas of research (including basic research, behavioral and social sciences research, health disparities, trainings, capacity-building and infrastructure). To capitalize on advances in HIV science that span multiple areas (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     the use of long-acting injectable ART for both prevention and treatment) and to promote a multidisciplinary and integrative approach, OAR proposes a new framework based on the HIV research-to-practice continuum for priority setting.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">A New Framework for NIH HIV Research</HD>
                <P>OAR is adopting a new framework for the next Strategic Plan (FY 2026-2030) that consists of four strategic goals:</P>
                <P>Goal 1. Enhance discovery and advance HIV science through fundamental research.</P>
                <P>Goal 2: Advance the development and assessment of novel interventions for HIV prevention, treatment, and cure.</P>
                <P>Goal 3: Optimize public health impact of HIV discoveries through translation, dissemination, and implementation of research findings.</P>
                <P>Goal 4: Build research workforce and infrastructure capacity to enhance sustainability of HIV scientific discovery.</P>
                <P>The Goals in this new framework are inclusive of scientific disciplines, individuals, communities, and populations—including women and minoritized populations experiencing health disparities. Within each Goal, specific funding priorities will be informed by public input. Priorities will be reviewed annually and updated as developments in science, the epidemic, funding, and/or policy emerge.</P>
                <P>The FY 2026-2030 Plan will be developed in accordance with the following foundational principles:</P>
                <P>• Research to identify and address HIV-related health disparities will be essential to ensure that the benefits of scientific advances reach all people and communities affected by HIV, including groups that have historically been underrepresented and underserved.</P>
                <P>• Research must address the unique needs of people with HIV across the lifespan, particularly as people, including those born with HIV, age with the virus.</P>
                <P>• Engagement and partnership with communities affected by HIV are essential at every stage of HIV research, from developing research questions and planning and conducting research to disseminating results and health information and implementing new practices.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Information Requested</HD>
                <P>
                    Respondents are invited to propose research priorities within each Goal as described below. This feedback will assist in informing the FY 2026-2030 Plan. Please note that response fields are limited to 200 words. Professional societies, advocacy organizations, and other groups are encouraged to submit a single collective response that reflects the views of their membership.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11844"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Goal 1: Enhance discovery and advance HIV science through fundamental research.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Fundamental research seeks to expand understanding of the biological, physiological, interpersonal, and social-structural mechanisms of HIV—
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     how it operates as a virus and as an infectious disease pandemic—at the molecular, cellular, individual, community, and population level. This understanding provides the foundation for the development of safe, effective, and scalable tools to prevent, treat, and ultimately cure HIV infection, as well as reduce the risk and impact of comorbid conditions and co-occurring infections. Fundamental research includes theoretical, pre-clinical, and methodological research across scientific disciplines.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Goal 2: Advance the development and assessment of novel interventions for HIV prevention, treatment, and cure.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Knowledge gleaned from fundamental, pre-clinical, and translational research to inform clinical trials and other intervention studies to test the most promising products, tools, or strategies for HIV prevention, treatment, and cure and management of its complications. Rigorous randomized control trials, observational studies, and other methodologies assess biological, behavioral, and social outcomes of novel interventions, as well as their feasibility, acceptability, effectiveness, and scalability in differing populations and across the lifespan.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Goal 3: Optimize public health impact of HIV discoveries through translation, dissemination, and implementation of research findings.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     As HIV prevention, treatment, and cure interventions are shown to be efficacious, their findings must be translated to inform practice and to connect with communities and the general public in order to maximize their public health impact. Implementation research can identify how best to facilitate effective adaptation, uptake, integration, and scale-up of evidence-based HIV interventions. Information-sharing through community partnerships, research collaborations, and dissemination activities can amplify the impact of research and promote health equity.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Goal 4: Build research workforce and infrastructure capacity to enhance sustainability of HIV scientific discovery.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Continued progress in HIV science and its application requires robust support for research tools, computational resources, instrumentation, data and physical infrastructure, and workforce development, particularly in institutions that serve underrepresented or high HIV burden populations or that historically have been underfunded in the United States and globally. Such enhanced capacity-strengthening efforts will promote diversity and inclusion in the HIV research workforce.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents are also invited to share comments on the new framework.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Responses to this RFI Notice are voluntary.</E>
                     The submitted information will be reviewed by NIH staff and may be made available to the public. Submitted information will not be considered confidential. This request is for information and planning purposes and should not be construed as a solicitation or as an obligation of the federal government or the NIH. No awards will be made based on responses to this Request for Information. The information submitted will be analyzed and may be used in reports or presentations. Those who respond are advised that the NIH is under no obligation to acknowledge receipt of your comments or provide comments on your submission. No proprietary, classified, confidential and/or sensitive information should be included in your response. The NIH and the government reserve the right to use any non-proprietary technical information in any future solicitation(s).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 5, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lawrence A. Tabak,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Principal Deputy Director, National Institutes of Health. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03122 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Office of the Secretary; Notice of Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the Muscular Dystrophy Coordinating Committee (MDCC).</P>
                <P>
                    The meeting will be held as a virtual meeting and will be open to the public as indicated below. Individuals who plan to view the virtual meeting and need special assistance or other reasonable accommodations to view the meeting, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting. The meeting can be accessed from the NIH Videocast at the following link: 
                    <E T="03">https://videocast.nih.gov/.</E>
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Muscular Dystrophy Coordinating Committee.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 18, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         12:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m. ET.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         The purpose of this meeting is to bring together committee members, representing government agencies, patient advocacy groups, other voluntary health organizations, and patients and their families to update one another on progress relevant to the Action Plan for the Muscular Dystrophies and to coordinate activities and discuss gaps and opportunities leading to better understanding of the muscular dystrophies, advances in treatments, and improvements in patients' and their families' lives. The agenda for this meeting will be available on the MDCC website: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.mdcc.nih.gov/.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Registration:</E>
                         To register, please go to: 
                        <E T="03">https://roseliassociates.zoomgov.com/meeting/register/vJItc-6hrTsuHDK-RDbVsTHLsMoFRuqyoRw#/registration.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Webcast Live: https://videocast.nih.gov/.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institutes of Health, Neuroscience Center, 6001 Executive Boulevard, Rockville, MD 20852 (Virtual Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Glen Nuckolls, Ph.D., Program Director, National Institute of Neurological, Disorders and Stroke (NINDS), NIH, 6001 Executive Blvd., Bethesda, MD 20892, 301-496-5876, 
                        <E T="03">MDCC@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person.</P>
                    <P>
                        Anyone from the public can attend the meeting virtually via the NIH Videocasting website (
                        <E T="03">https://videocast.nih.gov</E>
                        ). Please continue checking these websites, in addition to the committee website listed below, for the most up to date guidance as the meeting date approaches.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        More information can be found on the Muscular Dystrophy Coordinating Committee website: 
                        <E T="03">https://mdcc.nih.gov/.</E>
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Miguelina Perez, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03106 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.</P>
                <P>
                    The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11845"/>
                    as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases Special Emphasis Panel; NIAID New Innovators Awards (DP2 Clinical Trial Not Allowed).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 11-13, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, National Institutes of Health, 5601 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20852 (Video Assisted Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Vanitha Sundaresa Raman, Scientific Review Officer, Scientific Review Program, Division of Extramural Activities, National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, National Institutes of Health, 5601 Fishers Lane, MSC 9834, Rockville, MD 20852, 301-761-7949, 
                        <E T="03">vanitha.raman@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.855, Allergy, Immunology, and Transplantation Research; 93.856, Microbiology and Infectious Diseases Research, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 12, 2024. </DATED>
                    <NAME>Lauren A. Fleck, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03195 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Government-Owned Inventions; Availability for Licensing</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Institutes of Health, HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The invention listed below is owned by an agency of the U.S. Government and is available for licensing to achieve expeditious commercialization of results of federally-funded research and development. Foreign patent applications are filed on selected inventions to extend market coverage for companies and may also be available for licensing.</P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Licensing information may be obtained by communicating with the Technology Transfer and Intellectual Property Office, National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, 5601 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20852 by contacting Dawn Taylor-Mulneix at 301-451-8021 or 
                        <E T="03">dawn.taylor-mulneix@nih.gov.</E>
                         A signed Confidential Disclosure Agreement will be required to receive copies of unpublished information related to the invention.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Technology description follows:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Equipping Natural Killer Cells With a CD28H-Containing Chimeric Antigen Receptor To Overcome Inhibition for Cancer Immunotherapy</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Description of Technology</HD>
                <P>
                    Immunotherapy with chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) cytotoxic T cells have been successful in the clinical treatment of hematologic cancers; however adverse side effects such as severe cytokine release syndrome and neurotoxicity are associated with CAR-T cell infusion. CAR natural killer (NK) cells represent a viable alternative with demonstrated advantages over CAR-T cells for the elimination of tumor cells, but NK inhibitory cell receptors need to be reduced or overridden. To overcome this challenge, scientists at NIAID have developed CAR constructs that overcome inhibition of NK cells by receptors for human major histocompatibility complex molecules HLA-E and HLA-C, based on in vitro studies. NK cells that are expressing variants of this invention robustly overcome inhibition imposed by CD19
                    <SU>+</SU>
                     HLA-I
                    <SU>+</SU>
                     tumor cells and are cytotoxic to them.
                </P>
                <P>This technology is available for licensing for commercial development in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404, as well as for further development and evaluation under a research collaboration.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Potential Commercial Applications</HD>
                <P>• Method of adoptive cell therapy where CAR-NK cells are the effective cell.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Competitive Advantages</HD>
                <P>• CD28H CAR-NK cells induce a more robust anti-tumor cytotoxic activity compared to third generation CAR-T cells and are more potent in overcoming inhibition.</P>
                <P>• CAR-NK can be developed without the need of genetic silencing of TCR.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Developmental Stage</HD>
                <P>• Pre-clinical.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Inventors:</E>
                     Eric Long, Ph.D. and Xiaoxuan Zhuang, both of NIAID.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Publications:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Zhuang X., Long E.O., “NK cells equipped with a chimeric antigen receptor that overcomes inhibition by HLA Class I for adoptive transfer of CAR-NK Cells. Front. Immunol. 13:840844. 
                    <E T="03">https://www.frontiersin.org/articles/10.3389/fimmu.2022.840844/full.</E>
                     May 2, 2022.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Zhuang X. and Long E.O., “CD28 homolog is a strong activator of Natural Killer cells for lysis of B7H7-positive tumor cells.” Cancer Immunol. Res. 7(6):939-951. 
                    <E T="03">https://cancerimmunolres.aacrjournals.org/content/7/6/939.long.</E>
                     April 24, 2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Zhuang X, Long E.O. “Inhibition-resistant CARs for NK cell cancer immunotherapy.” Trends Immunol. 40(12):1078-1081.
                    <E T="03">https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S1471490619302133?via%3Dihub.</E>
                     November 12, 2019.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Intellectual Property:</E>
                     HHS Reference No. E-097-2020; Patent Application Nos.: PCT Application No. PCT/US2020/02498, US: 17/914,027, Australia: 2020437669, Brazil: BR112022017512-4, Canada: 3174779, Europe: 20719313.7, India: 2022170585054, Japan: 2022-557764, South Korea: 10-2022-7037236.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Licensing Contact:</E>
                     To license this technology, please contact Dawn Taylor-Mulneix at 301-451-8021 or 
                    <E T="03">dawn.taylor-mulneix@nih.gov,</E>
                     and reference E-097-2020.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Collaborative Research Opportunity:</E>
                     The National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases is seeking statements of capability or interest from parties interested in collaborative research to further develop, evaluate, or commercialize this technology. For collaboration opportunities, please contact Dawn Taylor-Mulneix at 301-451-8021 or 
                    <E T="03">dawn.taylor-mulneix@nih.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Surekha Vathyam,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Director, Technology Transfer and Intellectual Property Office, National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03121 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Office of the Director; Notice of Charter Renewal</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    In accordance with Title 41 of the U.S. Code of Federal Regulations, Section 102-3.65(a), notice is hereby given that the charter for the Cures Acceleration Network Review Board, was renewed for an additional two-year period on February 7, 2024.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11846"/>
                </P>
                <P>It is determined that the Cures Acceleration Network Review Board, is in the public interest in connection with the performance of duties imposed on the National Institutes of Health by law, and that these duties can best be performed through the advice and counsel of this group.</P>
                <P>
                    Inquiries may be directed to Claire Harris, Director, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy, Office of the Director, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Democracy Boulevard, Suite 1000, Bethesda, Maryland 20892 (Mail code 4875), Telephone (301) 496-2123, or 
                    <E T="03">harriscl@mail.nih.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie J. Pantoja,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03110 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Office of the Director; Notice of Charter Renewal</SUBJECT>
                <P>In accordance with Title 41 of the U.S. Code of Federal Regulations, Section 102-3.65(a), notice is hereby given that the charter for the National Center for Advancing Translational Sciences Advisory Council, was renewed for an additional two-year period on February 7, 2024.</P>
                <P>It is determined that the National Center for Advancing Translational Sciences Advisory Council, is in the public interest in connection with the performance of duties imposed on the National Institutes of Health by law, and that these duties can best be performed through the advice and counsel of this group.</P>
                <P>
                    Inquiries may be directed to Claire Harris, Director, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy, Office of the Director, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Democracy Boulevard, Suite 1000, Bethesda, Maryland 20892 (Mail code 4875), Telephone (301) 496-2123, or 
                    <E T="03">harriscl@mail.nih.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie J. Pantoja,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03104 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Government-Owned Inventions; Availability for Licensing</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Institutes of Health, HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The invention listed below is owned by an agency of the U.S. Government and is available for licensing to achieve expeditious commercialization of results of federally-funded research and development. Foreign patent applications are filed on selected inventions to extend market coverage for companies and may also be available for licensing.</P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Daniel Lee at 301-761-6327 or 
                        <E T="03">daniel.lee5@nih.gov.</E>
                         Licensing information may be obtained by communicating with the Technology Transfer and Intellectual Property Office, National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, 5601 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20852; tel. 301-496-2644. A signed Confidential Disclosure Agreement will be required to receive copies of unpublished information related to the invention.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Technology description follows:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">DeePlexing—Extending Imaging Multiplexity Using Machine Learning</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description of Technology:</E>
                     Spatial proteomics and transcriptomics are fast-emerging fields with the potential to revolutionize various branches of biology. In the last five years, various multiplex immunofluorescence and immunohistochemistry imaging methods have been developed to stain 5-60 different protein markers in a given tissue. Nonetheless, most of these techniques are iterative and can image a maximum of 3-8 markers in a single cycle, resulting in processing time of several hours to days.
                </P>
                <P>Scientists at National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases (NIAID) and National Cancer Institute (NCI) have developed a new method—DeePlexing—that uses a deep learning algorithm to dramatically enhance the number of markers stained in a single imaging cycle. This is accomplished with no changes or upgrades to the imaging platform itself. In the DeePlexing method, multiple antibodies/probes are conjugated to the same fluorophores and later deconvolved computationally to retrieve the multichannel signal with high accuracy. In digital spatial profiling, DeePlexing enables the user to detect seven different protein markers in a single cycle using only three fluorophores and even quadruple the number of markers in a single round without compromising the quality of RNA and protein in the sample. For multiplex protein profiling, DeePlexing can potentially stain for up to 255 different protein markets with eight fluorophores and deconvolve the signal for each of the 255 markers computationally.</P>
                <P>This technology is available for licensing for commercial development in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Potential Commercial Applications:</E>
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Imaging platforms in spatial transcriptomics</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Multiplex protein spatial imaging</FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Competitive Advantages:</E>
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Enhances the number of markers stained in a single imaging cycle</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Achieves this marker detection increase without compromising RNA or protein quality when that is part of the analytical pipeline</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Reduces the required processing time for multiplex imaging platforms</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Inexpensive and replicable</FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Development Stage:</E>
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Prototype</FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Inventors:</E>
                     Ronald N. Germain (NIAID), Spencer M. Grant (NIAID), Nishant Thakur (NIAID), Chen Zhao (NCI), and Abigail J. Wong-Rolle (NCI).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Intellectual Property:</E>
                     HHS Reference No. E-202-2021-0; Software Tool.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Licensing Contact:</E>
                     To license this technology, please contact Daniel Lee at 301-761-6327 or 
                    <E T="03">daniel.lee5@nih.gov,</E>
                     and reference E-202-2021-0.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Surekha Vathyam,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Director,Technology Transfer and Intellectual Property Office,National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03120 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Meeting for the Interdepartmental Serious Mental Illness Coordinating Committee (ISMICC)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration, Department of Health and Human Services.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="11847"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Secretary of Health and Human Services announces a meeting of the Interdepartmental Serious Mental Illness Coordinating Committee (ISMICC).</P>
                    <P>The meeting will provide information on federal efforts related to serious mental illness (SMI) and serious emotional disturbance (SED); the Olmstead Decision: 25 Years of History in the Making; SMI Advisor: A Modern Approach to Technical Assistance that Makes an Impact; and Report Outs from Focus Area 1—Data and Evaluation; Focus Area 2—Access and Engagement; Focus Area 3—Treatment and Recovery; Focus Area 4—Criminal Justice and Focus Area 5—Finance.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>March 27, 2024, 9:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m. (EST)/Open.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The meeting is open to the public and can be accessed virtually only by accessing: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.zoomgov.com/j/1611468532?pwd=b0xnU2dTbFJqQXlONkJkUzdjdzhtZz09</E>
                         or by dialing 646-828-7666, webinar ID: 161 146 8532, passcode: 127885. Agenda with call-in information will be posted on the SAMHSA website prior to the meeting at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.samhsa.gov/about-us/advisory-councils/meetings.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Pamela Foote, ISMICC Designated Federal Officer, SAMHSA, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857; telephone: 240-276-1279; email: 
                        <E T="03">pamela.foote@samhsa.hhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background and Authority</HD>
                <P>The ISMICC was established on March 15, 2017, in accordance with section 6031 of the 21st Century Cures Act, and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App., as amended, to report to the Secretary, Congress, and any other relevant federal department or agency on advances in SMI and SED, research related to the prevention of, diagnosis of, intervention in, and treatment and recovery of SMIs, SEDs, and advances in access to services and supports for adults with SMI or children with SED. In addition, the ISMICC will evaluate the effect federal programs related to SMI and SED have on public health, including public health outcomes such as: (A) rates of suicide, suicide attempts, incidence and prevalence of SMIs, SEDs, and substance use disorders, overdose, overdose deaths, emergency hospitalizations, emergency room boarding, preventable emergency room visits, interaction with the criminal justice system, homelessness, and unemployment; (B) increased rates of employment and enrollment in educational and vocational programs; (C) quality of mental and substance use disorders treatment services; or (D) any other criteria determined by the Secretary. Finally, the ISMICC will make specific recommendations for actions that agencies can take to better coordinate the administration of mental health services for adults with SMI or children with SED. Not later than one (1) year after the date of enactment of the 21st Century Cures Act, and five (5) years after such date of enactment, the ISMICC shall submit a report to Congress and any other relevant federal department or agency.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Membership</HD>
                <P>This ISMICC consists of federal members listed below or their designees, and non-federal public members.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Federal Membership:</E>
                     Members include, The Secretary of Health and Human Services; The Assistant Secretary for Mental Health and Substance Use; The Attorney General; The Secretary of the Department of Veterans Affairs; The Secretary of the Department of Defense; The Secretary of the Department of Housing and Urban Development; The Secretary of the Department of Education; The Secretary of the Department of Labor; The Administrator of the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services; the Administrator of the Administration for Community Living, and The Commissioner of the Social Security Administration.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Non-Federal Membership:</E>
                     Members include, not less than 14 non-federal public members appointed by the Secretary, representing psychologists, psychiatrists, social workers, peer support specialists, and other providers, patients, family of patients, law enforcement, the judiciary, and leading research, advocacy, or service organizations.
                </P>
                <P>The ISMICC is required to meet at least twice per year.</P>
                <P>
                    To attend virtually, submit written or brief oral comments, or request special accommodation for persons with disabilities, contact Pamela Foote. Individuals can also register at 
                    <E T="03">https://snacregister.samhsa.gov/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The public comment section will be scheduled at the conclusion of the meeting. Individuals interested in submitting a comment, must notify Pamela Foote on or before March 18, 2024, via email to: 
                    <E T="03">Pamela.Foote@samhsa.hhs.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>Up to three minutes will be allotted for each approved public comment as time permits. Written comments received in advance of the meeting will be considered for inclusion in the official record of the meeting.</P>
                <P>
                    Substantive meeting information and a roster of Committee members is available at the Committee's website: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.samhsa.gov/about-us/advisory-councils/ismicc.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 12, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos Castillo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Committee Management Officer, SAMHSA.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03165 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4162-20-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ADVISORY COUNCIL ON HISTORIC PRESERVATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Adoption of Policy Statement on Housing and Historic Preservation</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Advisory Council on Historic Preservation.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of adoption of policy statement on housing and historic preservation.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Advisory Council on Historic Preservation has adopted its Policy Statement on Housing and Historic Preservation.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The policy statement was adopted and went into effect on December 22, 2023.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Druscilla Null, (202) 517-1487, 
                        <E T="03">dnull@achp.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Advisory Council on Historic Preservation (ACHP), an independent Federal agency created by the National Historic Preservation Act (NHPA), works to promote the preservation, enhancement, and sustainable use of our nation's diverse historic resources, and advises the President and the Congress on national historic preservation policy.</P>
                <P>
                    Under the NHPA, the ACHP's duties include advising the President and Congress on matters relating to historic preservation; recommending measures to coordinate activities of Federal, state, and local agencies and private institutions and individuals related to historic preservation; and advising on the dissemination of information pertaining to those activities. In keeping with these mandates, in June 2023 the ACHP initiated discussions regarding the role that rehabilitation of historic buildings can play in alleviating America's housing shortage and how the ACHP might advise and assist Federal agencies and other stakeholders on the topic.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11848"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    ACHP staff developed a draft discussion outline that was provided to the full ACHP membership for review in July 2023. The general consensus of the members was to move forward with drafting of the policy statement using the proposed outline. Staff then developed a draft policy statement, with input from ACHP members and feedback from the Chair's Expert Advisory Committee. (For more information on this committee, see 
                    <E T="03">https://www.achp.gov/expertsadvisorycommittee.</E>
                    )
                </P>
                <P>Subsequently, the members approved providing the draft to stakeholders and the public for comment. Two consultation events were held, one for Tribal and Native Hawaiian organization leaders and the other for State Historic Preservation Officers and their staffs. General public comments also were solicited. Based on the feedback received, the draft was revised. The final version of the policy statement was adopted by vote of the ACHP members on December 22, 2023.</P>
                <P>The ACHP issues the regulations (36 CFR part 800) that implement section 106 of the NHPA, which requires Federal agencies to take into account the effects of projects they carry out, approve, or fund on historic properties. The policy statement applies to the consideration of housing issues during section 106 reviews.</P>
                <P>While the policy statement pertains to Federal agency challenges and opportunities, it also speaks broadly to nonfederal parties, including but not limited to state, Tribal, and local governments; community groups; nonprofit organizations; developers, and others in the private sector. The document defines the scope of the challenge and discusses why rehabilitating and reusing historic buildings can be so impactful in addressing the housing shortfall being experienced by many communities. The policy statement promotes streamlining and improved permitting to support reuse of historic buildings for housing. It also explicitly acknowledges and aims to address burdens historically imposed on disadvantaged and underserved communities, and communities with environmental justice concerns.</P>
                <P>The bulk of the document consists of a series of policy principles that are grouped under five general topics: reuse historic buildings; accelerate project permitting and environmental review; gather information; educate; and collaborate.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Text of the Policy Statement on Housing and Historic Preservation</HD>
                <P>The full text of the adopted policy statement is reproduced below:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">ACHP Housing and Historic Preservation Policy Statement</HD>
                <P>Many communities across America are experiencing housing shortages, especially shortages of affordable housing. Cumulatively, this problem has grown to crisis proportions. Tackling this challenge requires a multi-pronged effort, of which rehabilitation of historic buildings is a critically important component. Recognizing that facilitating rehabilitations can help boost housing supply, meet sustainability goals, and utilize community assets more effectively, the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation (ACHP) has developed this policy statement to encourage both rehabilitation of historic housing (including historic public housing) and adaptation of historic buildings not originally built for housing.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Scope of the Issue</HD>
                <P>
                    Estimates vary among studies quantifying the scope of the current housing shortage, but the overall conclusion is the same-America is facing a significant deficit in housing supply versus demand in many communities. This deficit is a major cause of rising costs. A 2023 report by the Joint Center for Housing Studies of Harvard University, 
                    <E T="03">The State of the Nation's Housing 2023,</E>
                     succinctly summarizes what many other studies have found:
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Millions of households are now priced out of homeownership, grappling with housing cost burdens, or lacking shelter altogether, including a disproportionate share of people of color, increasing the need for policies to address the national housing shortfall at the root of the affordability crisis.</E>
                </P>
                <P>While discussing the need to construct new units, the report also concludes that:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">In addition to expanding the supply of new homes, improving the existing housing supply is critical. Substantial investment will be needed to preserve the aging stock and respond to climate change. At 43 years of age, the median home in 2021 was the oldest it has ever been . . .</E>
                </P>
                <P>Rehabilitating and reusing existing buildings must be integral to addressing the housing shortage, which is not a problem America can build its way out of solely through new construction.</P>
                <P>Because approximately 40 percent of America's current building stock (residential and commercial) is at least 50 years old, rehabilitation of historic and older buildings must play an important role in addressing the housing supply shortfall. In towns, counties, and cities, and on Tribal lands throughout the country, historic buildings either are or can be rehabilitated as housing. Given that the cost of rehabilitation on a per-square-foot basis tends to be less than new construction, historic buildings are an important source of so-called “naturally occurring” affordable housing. The opportunities for housing creation and retention are immense. Further, every person should have safe, clean, and affordable options for housing and a healthy environment, and these needs are closely linked with other social determinants of health and environmental justice goals.</P>
                <P>This policy statement pertains primarily to historic properties—buildings, sites, districts, structures, and objects—which are included in or eligible for inclusion in the National Register of Historic Places (National Register), and principally to individual historic buildings and buildings within historic districts. However, it is important to recognize that many older buildings that could qualify for historic designation have not yet been designated. Others are not yet 50 years old—the usual age threshold that must be reached to be considered eligible for National Register designation. The ACHP acknowledges that many of the strategies and suggestions offered in this policy statement can apply to older buildings generally, not just those formally determined to be historic.</P>
                <P>It also is important to acknowledge that while efforts to honor and preserve the stories of all Americans are expanding, historic properties in disadvantaged and underserved communities, as well as communities with environmental justice concerns, are often underrepresented on the National Register, creating imbalances in access to preservation incentives. Disproportionately affected by the housing shortage, these communities also often lack management and decision-making authority that would help them determine where and how investments in the reuse of historic buildings for housing are made, or address any negative impacts of such determinations.</P>
                <P>
                    Projects to rehabilitate historic buildings for housing or build new housing may be subject to historic preservation review at the Federal, state, and/or local levels. The existence of these processes sometimes gives rise to an assumption that historic preservation 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11849"/>
                    reviews will complicate or be a barrier to housing development, particularly of affordable housing. This need not be the case, and when fully integrated into regular project planning and scheduling, such reviews can benefit project development without causing delay or increasing project costs. However, such reviews do need to be grounded in a flexible yet consistent approach to ensure that housing can be developed expeditiously while still preserving the historic qualities of affected historic properties. One intent of this policy statement is to encourage such flexibility.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Role of the Federal Government</HD>
                <P>
                    The National Historic Preservation Act (NHPA) states that it is the policy of the Federal government “to foster conditions under which our modern society and our historic property can exist in productive harmony and fulfill the social, economic, and other requirements of present and future generations.” 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Consistent with this, the Federal government plays a role in establishing and implementing both historic preservation and housing policy. It also directly funds both historic preservation projects and housing projects, undertaken by public and private actors alike. And finally, it sets forth standards for the treatment of historic properties that are, in turn, interpreted and applied by state, Tribal, and local governments and private parties. Thus, the Federal government has a significant role to play in the way that buildings are updated or repurposed for housing.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         54 U.S.C. 300101.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    A key player regarding historic preservation is the ACHP, an independent Federal agency created by the NHPA. It works to promote the preservation, enhancement, and sustainable use of our nation's diverse historic resources. It is the ACHP's responsibility to “advise the President and Congress on matters relating to historic preservation, recommend measures to coordinate activities of Federal, state, and local agencies and private institutions and individuals related to historic preservation, and advise on the dissemination of information pertaining to those activities.” 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The ACHP has developed this policy statement in keeping with this mandate.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         54 U.S.C. 304102.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Across the Federal government, agencies are responsible for directly managing and caring for historic properties under their control, and for fostering both nonfederal, governmental, and private preservation activities. Section 110 of the NHPA sets out these broad historic preservation responsibilities of Federal agencies and is intended to ensure that historic preservation is fully integrated into their ongoing programs.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Federal agencies with responsibilities regarding housing must consider historic properties as part of their program planning, addressing the role historic buildings can play in providing housing and the potential impacts of housing projects and programs on historic properties of all types.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         54 U.S.C. 306101-306107; 306109-306114.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Federal agencies also must consider the effects of projects—including housing projects—they carry out, approve, or fund on historic properties. This requirement has been enshrined in section 106 of the NHPA and in corresponding regulations issued by the ACHP.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Section 106 applies both to housing built directly by Federal agencies and to housing funded by Federal agencies. Many Federal agencies, including the Departments of Defense, Interior, and Agriculture build housing for their staff and for other purposes. In addition, some Federal agencies, notably the Departments of Housing and Urban Development (HUD), Agriculture, and Veterans Affairs, provide funding to and/or partner with public housing authorities, state and local governments, and private entities for the creation of housing. These Federal agencies (and funding recipients that have assumed HUD's environmental review requirements by statute) must comply with section 106.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         54 U.S.C 306108; 36 CFR part 800.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         This statement incorporates provisions of a 2006 ACHP Policy Statement on Affordable Housing and Historic Preservation (a replacement for a previous 1995 policy statement), which was designed to serve as a guide for Federal agencies and other stakeholders when making decisions about affordable housing projects during section 106 review. In recognition that the Federal government engages in undertakings triggering section 106 review for both affordable housing and other types of housing, this policy statement removes the word “affordable” from text that previously appeared in the 2006 policy statement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Influencing the physical nature and form of both public and private projects, whether subject to the section 106 review process or not, are standards for the treatment of historic properties set forth by the Department of the Interior, including the Secretary of the Interior's Standards for Rehabilitation (Secretary's Standards). These standards have been adopted by state and local governments and also influence private action.</P>
                <P>It is within this context of the Federal government's role at the intersection of housing and historic preservation that this policy statement has been developed.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Intended Audience</HD>
                <P>Given the leadership role of the Federal government in addressing both housing and historic preservation, the following policy principles seek to promote informed policy making, decision making, and responsible stewardship of historic properties by the Federal government. The ACHP also has designed this policy statement to assist Tribal, state, and local governments; community groups; and nonprofit organizations (collectively, along with Federal agencies, “public-serving institutions”); developers, and others in the private sector as they seek to reuse historic buildings for housing as a strategy to address the housing crisis.</P>
                <P>It is important to note that a wide variety of nonprofit organizations can play a role in rehabilitation of historic buildings for housing. Among these are nonprofit housing corporations, community development corporations, land banks, and heritage conservancies. Similarly, for-profit developers are central to maximizing housing creation through historic building rehabilitation, frequently creating affordable housing through the use of local, state, or Federal tax credits or subsidies. The ACHP encourages both the nonprofit and the for-profit private sectors to explore the opportunities inherent in reusing historic buildings for housing.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Policy Principles</HD>
                <P>It is the policy of the ACHP to encourage and accelerate rehabilitation of historic buildings for housing and to assist in harmonizing historic preservation and housing goals. The ACHP has developed the following principles to guide its own actions and to advise public-serving institutions and other public and private entities on these issues. The ACHP will integrate these principles into its oversight of the Federal section 106 review process and into the advice it provides to Federal agencies, Tribal, state, and local governments, and the general public.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Reuse Historic Buildings</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">The Federal government and state governments should develop additional historic tax incentives and easier ways to pair those incentives with housing and energy tax incentives.</E>
                     The existing Federal historic tax credit provides a 20 percent income tax credit for the rehabilitation of historic, income-producing buildings. As of June 2023, 39 states also have adopted state historic tax credits. Retaining and enhancing these credits and developing new 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11850"/>
                    historic tax incentives is vitally important to scaling up rehabilitation of historic buildings for housing. Policymakers should consider increasing historic tax credit percentages for rehabilitation projects that create housing, particularly affordable housing, as well as setting aside a portion of tax credit benefits for housing creation in states where the state historic tax credit has a monetary program cap.
                </P>
                <P>Tax credits for rehabilitation of older buildings that are not formally designated as historic also would contribute to housing creation while complementing and supporting efforts to rehabilitate nearby historic buildings in historic neighborhoods. Also, expanding homeowner historic tax credits should be considered. Rehabilitation of owner-occupied historic housing does not qualify for all state credits or the Federal historic tax credit. Homeowner rehabilitation tax credits would encourage preservation of existing historic housing by helping to support maintenance, rehabilitation, weatherization, and energy retrofits of historic homes.</P>
                <P>The effectiveness of Federal and state historic tax credits could be further leveraged if it were easier to couple them with housing and energy tax incentives, notably the Low-Income Housing Tax Credit (LIHTC). Legislative and/or administrative fixes should be explored to reconcile conflicts. It is particularly important to address disconnects that are making pairing of the Federal historic tax credit and LIHTC increasingly difficult, including both tax policy and application-based challenges. More states should consider giving preference points for historic preservation projects in their allocation of LIHTCs, as some already do.</P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Public-serving institutions should support existing programs and develop new programs that assist homeowners (particularly lower- and middle-income homeowners) and small-scale landlords in maintaining, repairing, and weatherizing their historic homes, and reducing their energy costs through renewable energy installation.</E>
                     While historic tax credits for homeowners and small-scale landlords are one vehicle to help preserve historic homes, other forms of assistance are needed. Support is particularly critical in the case of low- and middle-income housing and can help assist in discouraging displacement of long-term residents in established neighborhoods. Financial constraints of owners can lead to a spiral of deferred maintenance and an inability to lower utility costs through weatherization and energy retrofitting, potentially leading to eventual vacancy and demolition of buildings. Types of assistance—with an emphasis on retention and repair of historic materials—that should be considered include the following: grants and low-cost loans for repairs and hazard mitigation (remediation of lead-based paint, asbestos, mold, etc.); do-it-yourself support through materials warehouses, tool sharing programs, and training workshops; free or low-cost energy audits; and job training programs focused on historic home repair.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Public-serving institutions should support zoning code changes that encourage greater density and availability of housing in tandem with preserving historic buildings, that allow for mixed uses, and that allow housing in historic buildings in areas where it is now prohibited.</E>
                     Increasing density and expanding housing options in existing neighborhoods—including historic neighborhoods and historic districts—are potential solutions to help address the shortfall in housing supply. This and other changes to zoning to better balance competing factors—such as through the use of form-based codes—should be seriously explored.
                </P>
                <P>Taking into account the unique conditions of each community, consideration should be given to allowing and incentivizing “density without demolition” through: conversion of historic single-family dwellings to multi-family dwellings; creation of accessory dwelling units, either in rehabilitated historic structures or through compatible new construction; removal or reduction of minimum parking requirements in historic neighborhoods; enabling transfer of development rights to incentivize rehabilitation of historic buildings while allowing new development in alternative locations; adoption of procedures and permitting incentives to facilitate the reuse of existing buildings for housing; and compatible infill construction of multi-family housing on vacant parcels in historic districts. More guidelines, pattern books, best practices, and other resources are needed to help assist local governments and developers in implementing additional density in a manner most compatible with a community's historic buildings. Proactive efforts should be made, however, to ensure “density without demolition” also means “density without displacement,” so that long-term residents are not priced out of living in their historic homes and neighborhoods.</P>
                <P>Many zoning codes prohibit historic buildings in certain areas from being converted into housing. There is a significant need to rezone neighborhoods filled with office and commercial buildings for residential use. In addition, large-scale historic industrial buildings, like New England mill buildings, are often zoned for industrial purposes, even in locations where manufacturing seems unlikely to return. And finally, public-serving institutions should consider zoning for historic Main Streets, which organically developed with housing mixed with (and usually above) shops but which are too often now subject to prohibitions on residential uses enacted through ever-stricter zoning codes. Upper stories can be returned to residential use and, in some instances, first-floor commercial space could be converted to housing. This mix of uses that proved to enrich small towns and larger cities alike should be allowed again through zoning.</P>
                <P>Local historic preservation commissions can play a pivotal role in advising on zoning changes to address the issues raised above. They, as well as the planners responsible for zoning code development and revision, should have the training and resources they need to understand the options and opportunities for enabling and promoting rehabilitation of historic buildings for housing and development of compatible new infill construction.</P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Public-serving institutions should advocate for changes in building codes and interpretations of the Americans with Disabilities Act to create more flexible standards (especially for small-scale housing of four units or fewer) to facilitate conversion of nonresidential historic buildings to residential use and to prioritize design solutions for historic housing that ensure access and inclusion of disabled residents and visitors.</E>
                     Traditional building codes tend to focus on new construction to the detriment of rehabilitation of historic buildings, particularly for affordable housing. Property owners wishing to undertake renovations, regardless of their scope, are often confronted with requirements to bring a historic building into full compliance with the building code requirements for new construction. Cities and states should consider adoption of performance-based rehabilitation building codes (such as the International Existing Building Code) or other building code changes to provide needed flexibility and better relate building code requirements to the scale of projects. This also would facilitate new approaches to housing development, such as conversion of underused office and retail buildings-including those that are historic-for use as housing.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11851"/>
                </P>
                <P>The American with Disabilities Act prohibits public-serving institutions from discriminating on the basis of disability in providing or making available housing. Public-serving institutions should give full consideration of all that is needed to ensure accessibility for users of housing, including historic properties used for housing. Interpretations of the Americans with Disabilities Act by public officials should prioritize the need to provide accessible environments to all users of housing in historic buildings. Collecting successful examples of projects that promote both preservation ideals and accessibility could be useful to many different actors. It also is imperative that planners, local historic preservation commission members and staff, and building inspectors have the training and resources they need to understand the code enforcement options available for the rehabilitation of historic buildings for housing and development of compatible new infill construction.</P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">Public-serving institutions should seek to promote thoughtful energy retrofitting during rehabilitation of historic buildings for housing.</E>
                     Most states have adopted energy conservation codes to enhance creation and operation of energy efficient buildings. Widely used codes and standards often include options for exempting historic buildings in situations where full compliance would damage their historic design and materials. However, as the climate crisis becomes more acute, use of such waivers may increasingly be seen as seen as problematic, discourage reuse of historic buildings for housing, and cause disproportionate and adverse health or environmental impacts on already overburdened communities with environmental justice concerns. More guidelines, best practices, and other resources are needed to help promote energy retrofitting of historic buildings used for housing in a manner most compatible with their historic character.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Federal, state, Tribal, and local governments should lead by example through disposition or outleasing of excess or underutilized historic government buildings for housing development.</E>
                     Government building inventories often include structures that are no longer needed to facilitate agency missions and that are vacant or underutilized. Enhanced use of telework and remote work, sparked by the COVID-19 pandemic, has further increased the amount of government office space that is underused. Governments at all levels should examine the opportunities inherent in excess and underutilized government buildings-including those that are historic-to create housing through office-to-housing conversions and other adaptive use. Strategic disposal (with protective covenants) and leasing to nongovernmental partners should be considered. Section 111 of the NHPA and other agency-specific authorities allow Federal property-managing agencies to outlease historic buildings (or portions thereof) to nonfederal parties. Federal agencies should identify and remove impediments to outleasing their historic buildings, with consideration given to the recommendations of the ACHP's 2021 report, 
                    <E T="03">Leveraging Federal Historic Buildings.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">The Federal government should expand upon its guidance regarding reuse and rehabilitation of historic properties for housing and should encourage flexible yet consistent application of such guidance.</E>
                     Federal standards and guidelines significantly influence the rehabilitation of historic properties, public and private alike, because they are often adopted or adapted by state and local governments, as has been the case with the Secretary's Standards. The Federal government should add to and flexibly apply its guidance on the treatment of historic properties in ways that will incentivize housing development, particularly of affordable housing, and facilitate adapting nonresidential buildings to housing. Likewise, additional guidance is needed on remediating environmental, health, and safety hazards when rehabilitating historic buildings and providing access for persons with disabilities. The Federal government, particularly agencies that fund housing development, also should accelerate the development of guidance on the benefits of rehabilitating historic housing (including historic public housing) and of adapting historic commercial buildings for use as housing. Enhanced recommendations and training are needed to encourage reuse of historic buildings and promote project planning and review that are adaptable yet consistent.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Accelerate Project Permitting and Environmental Review</HD>
                <P>
                    8. 
                    <E T="03">Federal, state, Tribal, and local governments should expedite development of housing projects through efficient and effective permitting processes and environmental reviews while still ensuring full consideration of potential impacts to historic properties.</E>
                     Addressing the problem of insufficient housing supply will require widespread large-scale and small-scale projects, both for new construction and for rehabilitation of historic and other existing buildings. Environmental reviews and permitting processes for such projects, especially small-scale projects with limited impacts, should be managed in such a way as to proceed expeditiously. However, potential adverse effects to historic properties must be carefully addressed, whether they be physical or visual impacts to historic properties from new housing construction or effects to the historic qualities of historic buildings that are being rehabilitated. It also is important that actions not be taken that result in the damage or destruction of historic properties prior to applicants seeking tax credits and government funding, and prior to agencies completing environmental review.
                </P>
                <P>Efficient permitting and environmental review depends in large part upon the funding and staffing capacity of the government agencies at all levels participating in the reviews. It is vitally important to build capacity for historic preservation review within Federal agencies, State and Tribal Historic Preservation Offices, and local historic preservation commissions, and to provide robust training for staff. Public-serving institutions also should seek to educate communities and project sponsors on environmental review requirements; their roles in those review processes; the need to initiate environmental review early in planning; and the importance of flexible consideration of project alternatives.</P>
                <P>
                    Current housing needs pose complex challenges that need to be addressed on an increasingly accelerated timeline, and it is important that environmental reviews be rooted in flexibility and creativity. The section 106 regulations provide for development of program alternatives to tailor and expedite the review process while at the same time ensuring the consultation process is accessible, meaningful, and transparent to the wide variety of consulting parties and stakeholders.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Program alternatives already are in use for a variety of housing-related projects and programs. The ACHP will explore further opportunities to use program alternatives to expedite housing development, as should other Federal agencies. Federal agencies also should explore how best to integrate section 106 review with review under the National Environmental Policy Act, based on options available in the section 106 regulations and advice in 
                    <E T="03">
                        NEPA and NHPA: A Handbook for Integrating 
                        <PRTPAGE P="11852"/>
                        NEPA and Section 106,
                    </E>
                     issued by the ACHP and the Council on Environmental Quality in 2013. Policy Principle #9 offers further recommendations on flexibly proceeding through section 106 review specifically for housing projects.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         36 CFR 800.14.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    9. 
                    <E T="03">All participants in section 106 review of housing projects should approach the review flexibly in keeping with the following principles and any applicable implementing guidance from the ACHP.</E>
                     In keeping with section 110(f) of the NHPA,
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which requires Federal agencies to minimize harm to National Historic Landmarks to the maximum extent possible, the following provisions should not apply to National Historic Landmarks. The ACHP plans to issue implementing guidance on effect determinations under section 106, including addressing the potential adverse effects of housing projects to the interiors of historic buildings.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         54 U.S.C 306107.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    a. 
                    <E T="03">Review of effects on historic districts made up of buildings should focus on effects to exterior features.</E>
                     Section 106 review of effects focuses on potential alterations to the characteristics that qualify a property for listing in the National Register. The significance of a historic district comprised of buildings is typically associated in large part with the exterior features of the buildings, which cumulatively convey the significance of the overall district and qualify it for inclusion in the National Register. Accordingly, unless a building in a district is listed or considered eligible for listing in the National Register as an individual property or specific interior elements contribute to maintaining a historic district's character, review under section 106 should focus on proposed changes to the exteriors of the district's buildings.
                </P>
                <P>
                    b. 
                    <E T="03">Consultation should consider the overall preservation and housing goals of the community.</E>
                     When assessing, and negotiating the resolution of, the effects of housing projects on historic properties, consultation should focus not simply on individual buildings but on the historic preservation goals of the broader neighborhood or community. If the affected historic property is a historic district, the agency official should assess effects on the historic district as a whole.
                </P>
                <P>
                    c. 
                    <E T="03">When possible, plans and specifications should adhere to the Secretary's Standards, taking into account the economic and technical feasibility of the project.</E>
                     The Secretary's Standards outline a consistent national approach to the treatment of historic properties that can be applied flexibly in a way that relates to local character and needs and project requirements. Plans and specifications for rehabilitation, new construction, and abatement of hazardous conditions in housing projects associated with historic properties should strive to adhere to the recommended approaches in the Secretary's Standards when possible. However, the ACHP recognizes that there are mission-related, economic, or other circumstances when the Secretary's Standards cannot be followed and that section 106 allows for the negotiation of other outcomes.
                </P>
                <P>When assessing effects during section 106 review and seeking to avoid adverse effects for housing projects, priority should be given to consistency with the Secretary's Standards for the exterior of buildings. Adverse effects to historic interior spaces and features may more frequently need to be accepted and resolved to facilitate reuse of the buildings for housing. This especially is the case for conversions of commercial or institutional buildings to housing and to address issues such as energy retrofitting, providing access for persons with disabilities, and hazard remediation. Projects taking advantage of the Federal historic tax credit must be reviewed by the National Park Service for adherence to the Secretary's Standards in a separate and distinct process that benefits from early coordination.</P>
                <P>
                    d. 
                    <E T="03">Section 106 consultation should emphasize consensus building.</E>
                     Section 106 review strives to build consensus with affected communities in all phases of the process. Consultation with affected communities should be on a scale appropriate to that of the undertaking. Various stakeholders, including community members and neighborhood residents, should be included in the section 106 review process as consulting parties so that the full range of issues can be addressed in developing a balance between historic preservation and housing goals. See Policy Principle #10 regarding the importance on consultation with Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations, and engagement with disadvantaged and underserved communities, and communities with environmental justice concerns, including people with disabilities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    e. 
                    <E T="03">The ACHP encourages streamlining the Section 106 process to respond to local conditions.</E>
                     The ACHP encourages participants to seek innovative and practical ways to streamline the section 106 process that respond to unique local conditions related to the delivery of housing. Programmatic Agreements are one approach to enhance efficiency in section 106 reviews. Some such agreements delegate the section 106 review role of the State Historic Preservation Officer to local governments, particularly where local preservation ordinances exist and/or where qualified preservation professionals are employed to improve the efficiency of historic preservation reviews. Such agreements may also target the section 106 review process to local circumstances that warrant the creation of exempt categories for routine activities, the adoption of “treatment and design protocols” for rehabilitation and new infill construction, and the development of design guidelines tailored to a specific historic district and/or neighborhood.
                </P>
                <P>
                    f. 
                    <E T="03">Archaeological investigations should be avoided or minimized for rehabilitation projects with minimal ground disturbance.</E>
                     No archaeological investigations should be carried out for housing projects limited to rehabilitation or energy retrofitting that require no ground disturbance. In those circumstances where minimal ground disturbance may be necessary to carry out rehabilitations, archaeological investigations should be minimized and proportional to the potential effects of such disturbance. Guidance on archaeological investigations in this context can be found in the ACHP's 
                    <E T="03">section 106 Archaeology Guidance.</E>
                     For all other projects, archaeological investigation may be needed, to be determined and carried out in consultation with State and/or Tribal Historic Preservation Officers. Inadvertent discoveries related to any housing project once construction has begun should be addressed in accordance with the section 106 regulations, the ACHP's Policy Statement on Burial Sites, Human Remains, and Funerary Objects, applicable state burial laws, and the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (if applicable).
                </P>
                <P>
                    10. 
                    <E T="03">During planning, permitting, and environmental reviews (including section 106 reviews) for housing projects, Federal, state, and local governments should consult and engage—beginning early in the process—with Indian Tribes, Native Hawaiian organizations (NHOs), disadvantaged and underserved communities, and communities with environmental justice concerns, including people with disabilities, and should explore capacity building options for supporting their participation in consultation.</E>
                     The section 106 process under the NHPA already requires Federal agency 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11853"/>
                    consultation with Indian Tribes, NHOs, and other consulting parties regarding the impact of projects on historic properties. Here, the ACHP would like to emphasize the importance of consultation and engagement—whether or not section 106 applies—with Indian Tribes, NHOs, disadvantaged and underserved communities, and communities with environmental justice concerns, including people with disabilities, all of whom are disproportionately impacted by the housing supply shortfall. Soliciting and considering their views on reuse of historic buildings for housing and the impacts of housing projects on historic properties should be done proactively, early in planning, and throughout environmental reviews and permitting processes.
                </P>
                <P>In some cases, limited resources may constrain the active participation of disadvantaged and underserved communities and communities with environmental justice concerns in consultation. Federal, state, and local government entities should consider options for strategic financial investments or other assistance to help with needed capacity development. The ACHP previously has recommended capacity-building support for consulting parties pursuant to the agency's “Guidance on Assistance to Consulting Parties in the section 106 Review Process.” Since many Indian Tribes have been incorporating consideration of housing issues into their environmental reviews and permitting processes for decades, housing-related project planning should seek to adopt or align with existing practices and standards, where feasible. On trust land, Tribes should control how housing is developed and its location, whether as new construction or rehabilitation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Gather Information</HD>
                <P>
                    11. 
                    <E T="03">Public-serving institutions should work collaboratively to research and share information with each other, policymakers, the private sector, and the public about the costs, benefits, incentives, and disincentives associated with rehabilitating historic buildings for housing.</E>
                     To maximize reuse of historic buildings, ongoing research and study are needed in order to identify opportunities, document benefits, shape guidance development, and disseminate best practices. Public-serving institutions should undertake such research; recommended areas for study and dissemination of information include those below. Consistent with their missions and authorities, Federal agencies should provide funding and technical assistance to support state, Tribal, local, and nongovernmental research efforts.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Existing Government Programs</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Survey laws and financial incentives at the Federal, state, Tribal, and local levels that address rehabilitation of historic buildings for housing and assess the impact of such laws and incentives on housing supply, housing affordability, mixed-use development (including housing above ground-floor commercial), and equitably distributed development; and determine if such policies should be updated, modified, or expanded to ensure they are applied and interpreted in a flexible manner allowing for housing production.</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Study how well Federal programs are helping to meet the housing needs of Indian Tribes and disadvantaged and underserved communities, as well as communities with environmental justice concerns, while encouraging the reuse and protection of historic properties, and what changes may be needed to make the application process for Federal assistance more inclusive and easier to navigate.</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Historic Properties and Neighborhoods</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Assemble information about the location, size, condition, quality of features, and occupancy of historic buildings in localities and assess those against local housing needs.</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate any links between historic designation and housing affordability, and between historic designation and displacement of residents in disadvantaged and underserved communities, and in communities with environmental justice concerns.</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Explore impacts of institutional real estate investment in owner-occupied housing for rental use and (in some communities) an increase in short-term rentals, seasonally occupied homes, and second homes in historic neighborhoods.</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Rehabilitation of Existing Properties for Housing</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    —Study the costs of rehabilitating historic buildings for housing relative to new construction, considering intangible and environmental costs and benefits in addition to monetary cost.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </FP>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         Studies should not conflate rehabilitation and adaptive use with restoration (defined as accurately restoring a building to its appearance at a particular point in time). The latter generally is more expensive and is not necessary for effective reuse of historic buildings for housing.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Study the climate impacts of rehabilitating historic buildings for housing, including decarbonization; improved operational energy efficiency; climate resilience; decreased emissions through reduced urban sprawl; and responding to housing needs following disasters.</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Preservation Workforce</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Survey the current and anticipated future state of the public sector preservation workforce and its expertise and capacity to handle environmental reviews, including section 106 reviews, of housing projects in a timely manner.</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Survey the current and anticipated future state of the private sector preservation workforce, including its ability to rehabilitate existing buildings for housing and conduct energy efficiency retrofits.</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Educate</HD>
                <P>
                    12. 
                    <E T="03">Public-serving institutions should educate policymakers, housing advocates, developers, the media, and the public about the benefits of reusing historic buildings in housing development and debunk misperceptions regarding historic preservation as a barrier to addressing the housing supply shortfall.</E>
                     With increasing attention being paid to reusing existing buildings to help address the housing shortage, consciousness raising efforts are needed regarding the role historic buildings can play. Outreach is needed to explain: why historic building rehabilitation for housing is a sound financial investment and what incentives are available; how modern housing needs (including accessibility for people with disabilities) can be accommodated in historic buildings without sacrificing their historic qualities; and how rehabilitation of historic buildings for housing also has intangible and environmental benefits for communities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Countering misperceptions of historic preservation review as a barrier to addressing the housing shortage also is critical. Preservation regulations that require review of housing projects affecting historic properties help to preserve what makes the properties historically significant and give local citizens a voice in project planning. However, such review can be—and should be—approached flexibly, consistently, and expeditiously, taking into consideration the economic and technical feasibility of each project. Public-serving institutions overseeing preservation reviews should embrace this imperative and actively work to educate all stakeholders, the media, and the public on how the historic preservation review process balances 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11854"/>
                    consideration of housing needs and preservation of the community's historic places.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Collaborate</HD>
                <P>
                    13. 
                    <E T="03">Public-serving institutions and the private sector should cooperate and form partnerships across agencies, between levels of government, and within communities to enhance the implementation of each of the principles discussed above.</E>
                     The impacts of America's housing supply shortfall are so wide-ranging that collaboration among public-serving institutions, developers, financial institutions, philanthropic organizations, and others in the private sector is essential. Cooperation and forging of partnerships will enhance implementation of each of the principles discussed above. Federal agencies can take a leadership role in this regard through their own collaborative work and by encouraging such work through funding and technical assistance.
                </P>
                <P>Adopted December 22, 2023.</P>
                <FP>(END OF DOCUMENT)</FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     54 U.S.C. 304102(a).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 12, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Javier E. Marques,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>General Counsel.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03164 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4310-K6-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Emergency Management Agency</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket ID FEMA-2024-0002]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Changes in Flood Hazard Determinations</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Emergency Management Agency, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>New or modified Base (1-percent annual chance) Flood Elevations (BFEs), base flood depths, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundaries or zone designations, and/or regulatory floodways (hereinafter referred to as flood hazard determinations) as shown on the indicated Letter of Map Revision (LOMR) for each of the communities listed in the table below are finalized. Each LOMR revises the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and in some cases the Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports, currently in effect for the listed communities.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Each LOMR was finalized as in the table below.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Each LOMR is available for inspection at both the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the table below and online through the FEMA Map Service Center at 
                        <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW, Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email) 
                        <E T="03">patrick.sacbibit@fema.dhs.gov;</E>
                         or visit the FEMA Mapping and Insurance eXchange (FMIX) online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.floodmaps.fema.gov/fhm/fmx_main.html.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) makes the final flood hazard determinations as shown in the LOMRs for each community listed in the table below. Notice of these modified flood hazard determinations has been published in newspapers of local circulation and 90 days have elapsed since that publication. The Deputy Associate Administrator for Insurance and Mitigation has resolved any appeals resulting from this notification.</P>
                <P>
                    The modified flood hazard determinations are made pursuant to section 206 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4105, and are in accordance with the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, 42 U.S.C. 4001 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     and with 44 CFR part 65. The currently effective community number is shown and must be used for all new policies and renewals.
                </P>
                <P>The new or modified flood hazard information is the basis for the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of being already in effect in order to remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP).</P>
                <P>This new or modified flood hazard information, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities.</P>
                <P>This new or modified flood hazard determinations are used to meet the floodplain management requirements of the NFIP. The changes in flood hazard determinations are in accordance with 44 CFR 65.4.</P>
                <P>
                    Interested lessees and owners of real property are encouraged to review the final flood hazard information available at the address cited below for each community or online through the FEMA Map Service Center at 
                    <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance No. 97.022, “Flood Insurance.”)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Nicholas A. Shufro,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Administrator for Risk Management, Federal Emergency Management Agency, Department of Homeland Security.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="xl50,xl50,xl75,xl75,xs80,10">
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">State and county</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Location and case
                            <LI>No.</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Chief executive
                            <LI>officer of community</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Community map
                            <LI>repository</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Date of
                            <LI>modification</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Community
                            <LI>No.</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Colorado: </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Adams
                            <LI>(FEMA Docket No.: B-2391).</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Federal Heights (23-08-0183P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Linda S. Montoya, Mayor, City of Federal Heights, 2380 West 90th Avenue, Federal Heights, CO 80260.</ENT>
                        <ENT>City Hall, 2380 West 90th Avenue, Federal Heights, CO 80260.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 12, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>080240</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Denver
                            <LI>(FEMA Docket No.: B-2386).</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>City and County of Denver (23-08-0074P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Mike Johnston, Mayor, City and County of Denver, 1437 North Bannock Street, Room 350, Denver, CO 80202.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Department of Public Works, 201 West Colfax Avenue, Denver, CO 80202.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 19, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>080046</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">El Paso (FEMA Docket No.: B-2386).</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Colorado Springs (23-08-0612X).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Yemi Mobolade, Mayor, City of Colorado Springs, 30 South Nevada Avenue, Colorado Springs, CO 80903.</ENT>
                        <ENT>El Paso County Pikes Peak Regional Building Department, Floodplain Management Office, 2880 International Circle, Colorado Springs, CO 80910.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 22, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>080060</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11855"/>
                        <ENT I="03">El Paso (FEMA Docket No.: B-2386).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of El Paso County (23-08-0612X).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Cami Bremer, Chair, El Paso County, Board of Commissioners, 200 South Cascade Avenue, Suite 100, Colorado Springs, CO 80903.</ENT>
                        <ENT>El Paso County Pikes Peak Regional Building Department, Floodplain Management Office, 2880 International Circle, Colorado Springs, CO 80910.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 22, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>080059</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Florida: </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Miami-Dade (FEMA Docket No.: B-2376).</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Miami (23-04-1745P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Francis Suarez, Mayor, City of Miami, 444 Southwest 2nd Avenue, Miami, FL 33130.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Building Department 444, Southwest 2nd Avenue, Miami, FL 33130.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 3, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>120650</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Palm Beach (FEMA Docket No.: B-2376).</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Westlake (23-04-0749P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable John Paul O'Connor, Mayor, City of Westlake, 4001 Seminole Pratt Whitney Road, Westlake, FL 33470.</ENT>
                        <ENT>City Hall, 4001 Seminole Pratt Whitney Road, Westlake, FL 33470.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 8, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>120018</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Pasco (FEMA Docket No.: B-2376).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Pasco County (23-04-1176P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jack Mariano, Chair, Pasco County Board of Commissioners, 8731 Citizens Drive, New Port Richey, FL 34654.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pasco County Building Construction Services Department, 8731 Citizens Drive, Suite 230, New Port Richey, FL 34654.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 11, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>120230</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Pasco (FEMA Docket No.: B-2376).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Pasco County (23-04-2545P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jack Mariano, Chair, Pasco County Board of Commissioners, 8731 Citizens Drive, New Port Richey, FL 34654.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pasco County Building Construction Services Department, 8731 Citizens Drive, Suite 230, New Port Richey, FL 34654.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 4, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>120230</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Volusia (FEMA Docket No.: B-2382).</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Daytona Beach (23-04-1622P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Deric C. Feacher, Manager, City of Daytona Beach, 301 South Ridgewood Avenue, Daytona Beach, FL 32114.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Utilities Department, 125 Basin Street, Daytona Beach, FL 32114.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 15, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>125099</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Volusia (FEMA Docket No.: B-2382).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Volusia County (23-04-1622P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>George Recktenwald, Manager, Volusia County, 123 West Indiana Avenue, DeLand, FL 32720.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Thomas C. Kelly Administration Center, 123 West Indiana Avenue, DeLand, FL 32720.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 15, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>125155</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Kentucky: </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Fayette (FEMA Docket No.: B-2382).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Lexington-Fayette Urban County Government (23-04-1858P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Linda Gorton, Mayor, Lexington-Fayette Urban County Government, 200 East Main Street, Lexington, KY 40507.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Engineering Department, 101 East Vine Street, 4th Floor, Lexington, KY 40507.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 4, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>210067</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Marshall (FEMA Docket No.: B-2391).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Marshall County (23-04-0278P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Kevin Spraggs, Marshall County Judge, 1101 Main Street, Benton, KY 42025.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Marshall County Information Technology Department, 1101 Main Street, Benton, KY 42025.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 12, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>210252</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Massachusetts: Plymouth (FEMA Docket No.: B-2382).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Town of Duxbury (23-01-0101P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>René J. Read, Town of Duxbury Manager, 878 Tremont Street, Duxbury, MA 02332.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Town Hall, 878 Tremont Street, Duxbury, MA 02332.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 4, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>250263</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">North Carolina: Alamance (FEMA Docket No.: B-2382).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Alamance County (23-04-2547P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>John Paisley, Chair, Alamance County, Board of Commissioners, 124 West Elm Street, Graham, NC 27253.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Alamance County Planning Department, 201 West Elm Street, Graham, NC 27253.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 19, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>370001</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Pennsylvania: Blair (FEMA Docket No.: B-2386).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Township of Blair (22-03-1203P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Paul R. Amigh, II, Chair, Township of Blair Board of Supervisors, 375 Cedarcrest Drive, Duncansville, PA 16635.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Township Hall, 375 Cedarcrest Drive, Duncansville, PA 16635.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 18, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>421386</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Tennessee: </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Hickman (FEMA Docket No.: B-2391).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Hickman County (23-04-1242P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Jim Bates, Mayor, Hickman County, 114 North Central Avenue, Suite 204, Centerville, TN 37033.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Hickman County Administration Building, 114 North Central Avenue, Suite 101, Centerville, TN 37033.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 19, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>470091</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Maury (FEMA Docket No.: B-2391).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Maury County (23-04-1242P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Sheila K. Butt, Mayor, Maury County, 41 Public Square, Columbia, TN 38401.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Maury County Walter Harlan Building, 5 Public Square, Columbia, TN 38401.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 19, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>470123</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Texas: </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Collin and Denton (FEMA Docket No.: B-2382).</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Frisco (22-06-2393P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Jeff Cheney, Mayor, City of Frisco, 6101 Frisco Square Boulevard, Frisco, TX 75034.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Development Engineers Department, 6101 Frisco Square Boulevard, Frisco, TX 75034.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 16, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>480134</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Collin (FEMA Docket No.: B-2382).</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Plano (23-06-1026P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable John B. Muns, Mayor, City of Plano, 1520 K Avenue, Suite 250, Plano, TX 75074.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Engineering Department, 1520 K Avenue, Plano, TX 75074.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 16, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>480140</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Dallas (FEMA Docket No.: B-2386).</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Grand Prairie (23-06-0809P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Ron Jensen, Mayor, City of Grand Prairie, P.O. Box 534045, Grand Prairie, TX 75053.</ENT>
                        <ENT>City Hall, 300 West Main Street, Grand Prairie, TX 75050.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 8, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>485472</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Dallas (FEMA Docket No.: B-2386).</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Irving (23-06-0809P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Rick Stopfer, Mayor, City of Irving, 825 West Irving Boulevard, Irving, TX 75060.</ENT>
                        <ENT>City Hall, 825 West Irving Boulevard, Irving, TX 75060.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 8, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>480180</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Denton (FEMA Docket No.: B-2382).</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Fort Worth (23-06-0279P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Mattie Parker, Mayor, City of Fort Worth, 200 Texas Street, Fort Worth, TX 76102.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Transportation and Public Works, Engineering Vault, 200 Texas Street, Fort Worth, TX 76102.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 5, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>480596</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11856"/>
                        <ENT I="03"> Denton (FEMA Docket No.: B-2382).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Denton County (23-06-0279P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Andy Eads, Denton County Judge, 1 Courthouse Drive, Suite 3100, Denton, TX 76208.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Denton County Hall, 1 Courthouse Drive, Denton, TX 76208.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 5, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>480774</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Ellis (FEMA Docket No.: B-2386).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Ellis County (23-06-0581P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Todd Little, Ellis County Judge, 101 West Main Street, Waxahachie, TX 75165.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ellis County Engineering Department, 109 South Jackson Street, Waxahachie, TX 75165.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 18, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>480798</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Rockwell (FEMA Docket No.: B-2382).</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Fate (23-06-2327X).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable David Billings, Mayor, City of Fate, 1900 C.D. Boren Parkway, Fate, TX 75087.</ENT>
                        <ENT>City Hall, 1900 C.D. Boren Parkway, Fate, TX 75087.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 22, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>480544</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Grayson (FEMA Docket No.: B-2382).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Grayson County (23-06-0018P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Bruce Dawsey, Grayson County Judge, 100 West Houston Street, Sherman, TX 75090.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Grayson County Development Services/Floodplain Management, 100 West Houston Street, Suite G-1, Sherman, TX 75090.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 3, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>480829</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Medina (FEMA Docket No.: B-2376).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Medina County (23-06-0919P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Keith Lutz, Medina County Judge, 1300 Avenue M, Room 250, Hondo, TX 78861.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Medina County Old Jail Building, 1502 Avenue K, Hondo, TX 78861.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 12, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>480472</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Victoria (FEMA Docket No.: B-2382).</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Victoria (22-06-2362P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Jeff Bauknight, Mayor, City of Victoria, P.O. Box 1758, Victoria, TX 77901.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Victoria County Courthouse, 101 North Bridge Street, Victoria, TX 77901.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 8, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>480638</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Victoria (FEMA Docket No.: B-2382).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Victoria County (22-06-2362P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Ben Zeller, Victoria County Judge, 101 North Bridge Street, Room 102, Victoria, TX 77901.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Victoria County Courthouse, 101 North Bridge Street, Victoria, TX 77901.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 8, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>480637</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Utah: </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Salt Lake (FEMA Docket No.: B-2391).</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Riverton (23-08-0038P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Trent Staggs, Mayor, City of Riverton, 12830 South Redwood Road, Riverton, UT 84065.</ENT>
                        <ENT>City Hall, 12830 South Redwood Road, Riverton, UT 84065.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 18, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>490104</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Utah (FEMA Docket No.: B-2386).</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Mapleton (23-08-0221P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Dallas Hakes, Mayor, City of Mapleton, 125 West 400 North, Mapleton, UT 84664.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Public Works Department, 1405 West 1600 North, Mapleton, UT 84664.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 8, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>490156</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Virginia: Loudoun (FEMA Docket No.: B-2386).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Town of Leesburg (23-03-0038P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Kaj Dentler, Manager, Town of Leesburg, 25 West Market Street, Leesburg, VA 20176.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Town Hall, 25 West Market Street, Leesburg, VA 20176.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Jan. 22, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>510091</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03179 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-12-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Emergency Management Agency</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket ID FEMA-2024-0002; Internal Agency Docket No. FEMA-B-2407]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Changes in Flood Hazard Determinations</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Emergency Management Agency, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This notice lists communities where the addition or modification of Base Flood Elevations (BFEs), base flood depths, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundaries or zone designations, or the regulatory floodway (hereinafter referred to as flood hazard determinations), as shown on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports, prepared by the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) for each community, is appropriate because of new scientific or technical data. The FIRM, and where applicable, portions of the FIS report, have been revised to reflect these flood hazard determinations through issuance of a Letter of Map Revision (LOMR), in accordance with Federal Regulations. The currently effective community number is shown in the table below and must be used for all new policies and renewals.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>These flood hazard determinations will be finalized on the dates listed in the table below and revise the FIRM panels and FIS report in effect prior to this determination for the listed communities.</P>
                    <P>From the date of the second publication of notification of these changes in a newspaper of local circulation, any person has 90 days in which to request through the community that the Deputy Associate Administrator for Insurance and Mitigation reconsider the changes. The flood hazard determination information may be changed during the 90-day period.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The affected communities are listed in the table below. Revised flood hazard information for each community is available for inspection at both the online location and the respective community map repository address listed in the table below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at 
                        <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov</E>
                         for comparison.
                    </P>
                    <P>Submit comments and/or appeals to the Chief Executive Officer of the community as listed in the table below.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW, Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email) 
                        <E T="03">patrick.sacbibit@fema.dhs.gov;</E>
                         or visit the FEMA Mapping and Insurance eXchange (FMIX) online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.floodmaps.fema.gov/fhm/fmx_main.html.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The specific flood hazard determinations are not described for each community in this notice. However, the online location and local community map repository address where the flood hazard determination information is available for inspection is provided.</P>
                <P>
                    Any request for reconsideration of flood hazard determinations must be submitted to the Chief Executive Officer of the community as listed in the table below.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11857"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The modifications are made pursuant to section 201 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4105, and are in accordance with the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, 42 U.S.C. 4001 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     and with 44 CFR part 65.
                </P>
                <P>The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP).</P>
                <P>These flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. The flood hazard determinations are in accordance with 44 CFR 65.4.</P>
                <P>
                    The affected communities are listed in the following table. Flood hazard determination information for each community is available for inspection at both the online location and the respective community map repository address listed in the table below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at 
                    <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov</E>
                     for comparison.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance No. 97.022, “Flood Insurance.”)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Nicholas A. Shufro,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Administrator for Risk Management, Federal Emergency Management Agency, Department of Homeland Security.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,xl50,xl75,xl75,xl90,xs55,10">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">State and county</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Location and
                            <LI>case No.</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Chief executive officer of
                            <LI>community</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Community map
                            <LI>repository</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Online location of letter of
                            <LI>map revision</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Date of
                            <LI>modification</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Community
                            <LI>No.</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">California: Solano</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Solano County (23-09-0577P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bill Emlen, Solano County Administrator, 675 Texas Street, Suite 6500, Fairfield, CA 94533.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Solano County Department of Resource Management, Building and Safety Division, 675 Texas Street, Suite 6500, Fairfield, CA 94533.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Apr. 18, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>060631</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Colorado: </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Arapahoe</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Centennial (23-08-0500P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Stephanie Piko, Mayor, City of Centennial, 13133 East Arapahoe Road, Centennial, CO 80112.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Southeast Metro Stormwater Authority, 7437 South Fairplay Street, Centennial, CO 80112.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Mar. 15, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>080315</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Boulder</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Boulder (23-08-0335P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Aaron Brockett, Mayor, City of Boulder, 1777 Broadway, Boulder, CO 80302.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Municipal Building Plaza, 1777 Broadway, Boulder, CO 80302.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Mar. 18, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>080024</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Boulder</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Boulder County (23-08-0335P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Claire Levy, Chair, Boulder County Board of Commissioners, 1325 Pearl Street, 3rd Floor, Boulder, CO 80302.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Boulder County Transportation Department, 2525 13th Street, Suite 203, Boulder, CO 80304.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Mar. 18, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>080023</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Douglas</ENT>
                        <ENT>Town of Parker (22-08-0454P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Jeff Toborg, Mayor, Town of Parker, 20120 East Main Street, Parker, CO 80138.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Town Hall, 20120 East Main Street, Parker, CO 80138.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Mar. 15, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>080310</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Florida: </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Charlotte</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Charlotte County (22-04-3269P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bill Truex, Chair, Charlotte County Board of Commissioners, 18500 Murdock Circle, Suite 536, Port Charlotte, FL 33948.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Charlotte County Building Department, 18400 Murdock Circle, Port Charlotte, FL 33948.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Apr. 2, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>120061</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Charlotte</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Charlotte County (23-04-3784P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bill Truex, Chair, Charlotte County Board of Commissioners, 18500 Murdock Circle, Suite 536, Port Charlotte, FL 33948.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Charlotte County Building Department, 18400 Murdock Circle, Port Charlotte, FL 33948.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Mar. 25, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>120061</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Georgia: </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Cobb</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Smyrna (23-04-2440P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Derek Norton, Mayor, City of Smyrna, 2800 King Street, Smyrna, GA 30080.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Engineering Department, 2190 Atlanta Road, Smyrna, GA 30080.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Apr. 2, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>130057</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Fulton</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Atlanta (23-04-2440P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Andre Dickens, Mayor, City of Atlanta, 5563 Trinity Avenue Southwest, Atlanta, GA 30303.</ENT>
                        <ENT>City Hall, 5563 Trinity Avenue Southwest, Atlanta, GA 30303.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Apr. 2, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>135157</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Massachusetts: Essex</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Gloucester (23-01-0759P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Greg Varga, Mayor, City of Gloucester, 9 Dale Avenue, Gloucester, MA 01930.</ENT>
                        <ENT>City Hall, 3 Pond Road, 2nd Floor, Gloucester, MA 01930.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Apr. 8, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>250082</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">North Carolina:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11858"/>
                        <ENT I="03">Alamance</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Burlington (24-04-0520P)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable James B. Butler, Mayor, City of Burlington, P.O. Box 1358, Burlington, NC 27216.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Engineering Department, 425 South Lexington Avenue, Burlington, NC 27215.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Apr. 5, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>370002</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Gaston</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Belmont (23-04-2570P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Richard Turner, Mayor, City of Belmont, 1401 East Catawba Street, Belmont, NC 28012.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Planning and Zoning Department, 1401 East Catawba Street, Belmont, NC 28012.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Mar. 12, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>370320</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Orange</ENT>
                        <ENT>Town of Chapel Hill (23-04-0988P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Pam Hemminger, Mayor, Town of Chapel Hill, 405 Martin Luther King Jr. Boulevard, Chapel Hill, NC 27514.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Planning Department, 405 Martin Luther King Jr. Boulevard, Chapel Hill, NC 27514.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>April 11, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>370180</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Union</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Union County (23-04-3291P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>J.R. Rowell, Chair, Union County Board of Commissioners, 500 North Main Street, Suite 914, Monroe, NC 28112.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Union County Planning and Development Department, 500 North Main Street, Suite 70, Monroe, NC 28112.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Mar. 27, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>370234</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Union</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Union County (24-04-0519P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>J. R. Rowell, Chair, Union County Board of Commissioners, 500 North Main Street, Suite 914, Monroe, NC 28112.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Union County Planning and Development Department, 500 North Main Street, Suite 70, Monroe, NC 28112.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Apr. 8, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>370234</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Texas: </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Bexar</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of San Antonio (22-06-2005P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Ron Nirenberg, Mayor, City of San Antonio, P.O. Box 839966, San Antonio, TX 78283.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Transportation and Capital Improvements Department, Storm Water Division, 1901 South Alamo Street, 2nd Floor, San Antonio, TX 78204.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Mar. 18, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>480045</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Bexar</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Bexar County (23-06-1299P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Peter Sakai, Bexar County Judge, 101 West Nueva Street, 10th Floor, San Antonio, TX 78205.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bexar County Public Works Department, 1948 Probandt Street, San Antonio, TX 78214.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Mar. 11, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>480035</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Brazos</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Bryan (23-06-2310P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Bobby Gutierrez, Mayor, City of Bryan, P.O. Box 1000, Bryan, TX 77805.</ENT>
                        <ENT>City Hall, 300 South Texas Avenue, Bryan, TX 77805.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Mar. 27, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>480082</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Collin</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Plano (23-06-1831P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable John B. Muns, Mayor, City of Plano, 1520 K Avenue, Plano, TX 75074.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Engineering Department, 1520 K Avenue, Plano, TX 75074.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Apr. 15, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>480140</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Comal</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Comal County (23-06-1468P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Sherman Krause, Comal County Judge, 150 North Seguin Avenue, New Braunfels, TX 78130.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Comal County Courthouse, 150 North Seguin Avenue, New Braunfels, TX 78130.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Apr. 12, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>485463</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Denton</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Frisco (23-06-1466P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Jeff Cheney, Mayor, City of Frisco, 6101 Frisco Square Boulevard, Frisco, TX 75034.</ENT>
                        <ENT>George A. Purefoy Municipal Center, 6101 Frisco Square Boulevard, Frisco, TX 75034.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Apr. 15, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>480134</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Denton</ENT>
                        <ENT>Town of Providence Village (23-06-1251P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Linda Inman, Mayor, Town of Providence Village, 1755 Main Street, Providence Village, TX 76227.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Development Services Department, 1755 Main Street, Providence Village, TX 76227.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>May 1, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>480803</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Denton</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Denton County (23-06-1599P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Andy Eads, Denton County Judge, 1 Courthouse Drive, Suite 3100, Denton, TX 76208.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Development Services Department, 3900 Morse Street, Denton, TX 76208.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>May 6, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>480774</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Harris</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Harris County (23-06-0151P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Lina Hidalgo, Harris County Judge, 1001 Preston Street, Suite 911, Houston, TX 77002.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Harris County Permit Office, 1111 Fannin Street, 8th Floor, Houston, TX 77002.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Apr. 15, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>480287</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Travis</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Jonestown (23-06-1536P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Paul Johnson, Mayor, City of Jonestown, 18649 F.M. 1431, Suite 4A, Jonestown, TX 78645.</ENT>
                        <ENT>City Hall, 18649 F.M. 1431, Suite 4A, Jonestown, TX 78645.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Apr. 15, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>481597</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Travis</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Leander (23-06-1536P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Isaac Turner, City of Leander Interim Manager, P.O. Box 319, Leander, TX 78646.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Engineering Department, 201 North Brushy Street, Leander, TX 78646.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Apr. 15, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>481536</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11859"/>
                        <ENT I="03">Travis</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Pflugerville (23-06-0785P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Victor Gonzales, Mayor, City of Pflugerville, P.O. Box 589, Pflugerville, TX 78691.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Planning and Development Services Center, 100 West Main Street, Pflugerville, TX 78691.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Mar. 18, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>481028</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Travis</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unincorporated areas of Travis County (23-06-0785P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Andy Brown, Travis County Judge, P.O. Box 1748, Austin, TX 78767.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Travis County Transportation and Natural Resources Department, 700 Lavaca Street, 5th Floor, Austin, TX 78701.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Mar. 18, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>481026</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Webb</ENT>
                        <ENT>City of Laredo (22-06-0300P).</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Victor D. Treviño, Mayor, City of Laredo, 1110 Houston Street, 3rd Floor, Laredo, TX 78040.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Planning and Zoning Department, 1413 Houston Street, Laredo, TX 78040.</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov/portal/advanceSearch.</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Mar. 21, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>480651</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03180 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-12-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Emergency Management Agency</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket ID FEMA-2024-0002; Internal Agency Docket No. FEMA-B-2409]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Proposed Flood Hazard Determinations</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Emergency Management Agency, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are requested on proposed flood hazard determinations, which may include additions or modifications of any Base Flood Elevation (BFE), base flood depth, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundary or zone designation, or regulatory floodway on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports for the communities listed in the table below. The purpose of this notice is to seek general information and comment regarding the preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report that the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) has provided to the affected communities. The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are to be submitted on or before May 15, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location 
                        <E T="03">https://hazards.fema.gov/femaportal/prelimdownload</E>
                         and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at 
                        <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov</E>
                         for comparison.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. FEMA-B-2409, to Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW, Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email) 
                        <E T="03">patrick.sacbibit@fema.dhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW, Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email) 
                        <E T="03">patrick.sacbibit@fema.dhs.gov;</E>
                         or visit the FEMA Mapping and Insurance eXchange (FMIX) online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.floodmaps.fema.gov/fhm/fmx_main.html.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>FEMA proposes to make flood hazard determinations for each community listed below, in accordance with section 110 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4104, and 44 CFR 67.4(a).</P>
                <P>These proposed flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. These flood hazard determinations are used to meet the floodplain management requirements of the NFIP.</P>
                <P>The communities affected by the flood hazard determinations are provided in the tables below. Any request for reconsideration of the revised flood hazard information shown on the Preliminary FIRM and FIS report that satisfies the data requirements outlined in 44 CFR 67.6(b) is considered an appeal. Comments unrelated to the flood hazard determinations also will be considered before the FIRM and FIS report become effective.</P>
                <P>
                    Use of a Scientific Resolution Panel (SRP) is available to communities in support of the appeal resolution process. SRPs are independent panels of experts in hydrology, hydraulics, and other pertinent sciences established to review conflicting scientific and technical data and provide recommendations for resolution. Use of the SRP only may be exercised after FEMA and local communities have been engaged in a collaborative consultation process for at least 60 days without a mutually acceptable resolution of an appeal. Additional information regarding the SRP process can be found online at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.floodsrp.org/pdfs/srp_overview.pdf.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The watersheds and/or communities affected are listed in the tables below. The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location 
                    <E T="03">https://hazards.fema.gov/femaportal/prelimdownload</E>
                     and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables. For communities with multiple ongoing Preliminary studies, the studies can be identified by the unique project number and Preliminary FIRM date listed in the tables. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at 
                    <E T="03">https://msc.fema.gov</E>
                     for comparison.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="11860"/>
                    <FP>(Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance No. 97.022, “Flood Insurance.”)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Nicholas A. Shufro,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Administrator for Risk Management, Federal Emergency Management Agency, Department of Homeland Security.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,r100">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Community</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Community map repository address</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Georgetown County, South Carolina and Incorporated Areas</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Project: 18-04-0010S Preliminary Date: March 17, 2023</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Unincorporated Areas of Georgetown County</ENT>
                        <ENT>Georgetown County Building Department, 129 Screven Street, Room 249, Georgetown, SC 29440.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03181 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-12-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. CISA-2024-0006]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA), Department of Homeland Security (DHS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60-Day notice and request for comments; extension of information collection request: 1670-0027.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Office of the Chief Information Office (OCIO) within Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA) will submit the following Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until April 15, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments, identified by docket number Docket # CISA-2024-0006, at:</P>
                    <P>
                        ○ 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Please follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions received must include the agency name and docket number Docket # CISA-2024-0006. All comments received will be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal information provided.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         For access to the docket to read background documents or comments received, go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Benjamin Thomsen, 202-254-7179, 
                        <E T="03">CISA.PRA@hq.dhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The information collection activity provides a means to garner qualitative customer and stakeholder feedback in an efficient, timely manner, in accordance with the Administration's commitment to improving service delivery. CISA is planning to submit this collection to OMB for approval. By qualitative feedback we mean information that provides useful insights on perceptions and opinions but are not statistical surveys that yield quantitative results that can be generalized to the population of study.</P>
                <P>This feedback will provide insights into customer or stakeholder perceptions, experiences, and expectations, provide an early warning of issues with service, or focus attention on areas where communication, training or changes in operations might improve delivery of products or services.</P>
                <P>These collections will allow for ongoing, collaborative, and actionable communications between CISA and its customers and stakeholders. It will also allow feedback to contribute directly to the improvement of program management.</P>
                <P>The solicitation of feedback will target areas such as: Timeliness, appropriateness, accuracy of information, courtesy, efficiency of service delivery, and resolution of issues with service delivery. Responses will be assessed to plan and inform efforts to improve or maintain the quality of service offered to the public.</P>
                <P>If this information is not collected, vital feedback from customers and stakeholders on CISA's services will be unavailable. CISA will only submit a collection for approval under this generic clearance if it meets the following conditions:</P>
                <P>1. The collections are voluntary;</P>
                <P>2. The collections are low-burden for respondents (based on considerations of total burden hours, total number of respondents, or burden-hours per respondent) and are low-cost for both the respondents and the Federal Government;</P>
                <P>3. The collections are noncontroversial and do not raise issues of concern to other Federal agencies;</P>
                <P>4. Any collection is targeted to the solicitation of opinions from respondents who have experience with the program or may have experience with the program in the near future;</P>
                <P>5. Personally identifiable information is collected only to the extent necessary and is not retained;</P>
                <P>6. Information gathered is intended to be used only internally for general service improvement and program management purposes and is not intended for release outside of the CISA (if released, CISA must indicate the qualitative nature of the information);</P>
                <P>7. Information gathered will not be used for the purpose of substantially informing influential policy decisions; and</P>
                <P>8. Information gathered will yield qualitative information; the collections will not be designed or expected to yield statistically reliable results or used as though the results are generalizable to the population of study.</P>
                <P>
                    Feedback collected under this generic clearance will provide useful information, but it will not yield data that can be generalized to the overall population. This type of generic clearance for qualitative information will not be used for quantitative information collections that are designed to yield reliably actionable results, such as monitoring trends over time or documenting program performance. Such data uses require more rigorous designs that address: The target population to which generalizations will be made, the sampling frame, the sample design (including stratification and clustering), the precision requirements or power calculations that justify the proposed sample size, the expected response rate, methods for assessing potential nonresponse bias, the protocols for data 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11861"/>
                    collection, and any testing procedures that were or will be undertaken prior fielding the study. Depending on the degree of influence the results are likely to have, such collections may still be eligible for submission for other generic mechanisms that are designed to yield quantitative results.
                </P>
                <P>As a general matter, information collections will not result in any new system of records containing personal information and will not ask questions of a sensitive nature, such as sexual behavior and attitudes, religious beliefs, and other matters that are commonly considered private.</P>
                <P>This is an extension of an existing information collection that was initially approved by OMB on 10/05/2014. The evaluation form's most recent approval obtained on 5/14/2021 to expire on 5/31/2024. There are no substantial changes to the extension request for approval.</P>
                <P>The Office of Management and Budget is particularly interested in comments which:</P>
                <P>1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submissions of responses.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA), Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Generic Clearance for the Collection of Qualitative Feedback on Agency Service Delivery.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     1670-0027.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     State, local, Tribal, and Territorial governments and private sector.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     2,500,630.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Respondent:</E>
                     Between 0.05 hours and 1 hour.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     125,180.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annualized Respondent Cost:</E>
                     $5,273,145.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annualized Respondent Out-of-Pocket Cost:</E>
                     $0.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annualized Government Cost:</E>
                     $200,000.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Robert J. Costello,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief Information Officer, Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency, Department of Homeland Security.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03146 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-9P-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. CISA-2024-0007]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Service Request Form for Enterprise Assessment Services</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA), Department of Homeland Security (DHS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60-Day notice and request for comments; 1670-NEW.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Cybersecurity Division (CSD) within Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA) will submit the following Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until April 15, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments, identified by docket number Docket # CISA-2024-0007, at:</P>
                    <P>
                        ○ 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Please follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions received must include the agency name and docket number Docket # CISA-2024-0007. All comments received will be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal information provided.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         For access to the docket to read background documents or comments received, go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA) Cybersecurity Division (CSD) offers cybersecurity assessments to help reduce risk for Federal, State, local, Tribal, Territorial and private sector critical infrastructure partners. Information collected is used by CISA CSD staff to engage with customers and provide cybersecurity assessment services. Under 6 U.S.C. 659(c)(6), CISA provides, upon request, “. . . timely technical assistance, risk management support, and incident response capabilities to Federal and non-Federal entities with respect to cyber threat indicators, defensive measures, cybersecurity risks, and incidents, which may include attribution, mitigation, and remediation . . .”</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     CISA estimates the number of respondents will be 5,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Respondent:</E>
                     CISA assumes the majority of individuals who will complete this form are Chief Information Officers or equivalent. The estimated time to complete the form was determined to be .11 hours after user testing.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Burden Cost:</E>
                     $97,674 from Economist review.
                </P>
                <P>Annual Burden Hours: The annual burden hours is 825 hours (5,000 respondents × 1.5 responses per respondent × .11 hour per response).</P>
                <P>The Office of Management and Budget is particularly interested in comments which:</P>
                <P>1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submissions of responses.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agency:</E>
                     Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA), Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Service Request Form for Enterprise Assessment Services.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     1670-NEW.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Information is required when an organization would initially request cybersecurity assessments or requests additional cybersecurity assessments. These requests are made at the discretion of the requestor therefore the program office is not able to determine when or how often such requests will occur.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Business or other for-profit, not-for-profit institutions, Federal 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11862"/>
                    Government, State, local or Tribal government.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     5,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Respondent:</E>
                     .11 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     825 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Industry Cost:</E>
                     $97,674.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Federal Government Cost:</E>
                     $163,150.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Robert J. Costello,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief Information Officer, Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency, Department of Homeland Security.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03151 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-9P-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Bureau of Land Management</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[WAOR106084175, WAOR 056583]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Withdrawal Extension Application and Opportunity for Public Meeting, Chief Joseph Dam Additional Units Project, Washington</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Land Management, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of withdrawal extension.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The United States Department of the Army, Corps of Engineers (USACE), has filed an application with the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) requesting that the Secretary of the Interior extend Public Land Order (PLO) No. 7608 for an additional 20-year term. Subject to valid existing rights, PLO No. 7608 withdrew 400.27 acres of public lands from settlement, sale, location, or entry under the general land laws, including the United States mining laws, and transferred jurisdiction over those lands to the Department of the Army for the Chief Joseph Dam Additional Units Project for a period of 20 years. This notice advises the public of a 90-day opportunity to comment on the withdrawal extension application and to request a public meeting.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments and requests for a public meeting must be received by May 15, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>All comments and meeting requests should be sent to the BLM Oregon/Washington State Director, P.O. Box 2965, Portland, Oregon 97208. The application and case file are available for public examination by interested persons by appointment at the BLM Public Room, 1220 SW 3rd Ave., 11th Floor, Portland, Oregon 97208 during regular business hours 8:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday except holidays. Please call 503-808-6001 to make an appointment.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Luke Poff, Realty Specialist, BLM Oregon/Washington State Office, (503) 808-6249, by email at 
                        <E T="03">lpoff@blm.gov,</E>
                         or at the address noted earlier, or, Cindy Luciano, Civil Works Program Manager, USACE Seattle District, (206) 316-4376, or by email at 
                        <E T="03">Cindy.L.Luciano@usace.army.mil.</E>
                         Individuals in the United States who are deaf, blind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The USACE filed an application requesting extension of the withdrawal created by PLO No. 7608 (69 FR 48253), which will expire August 8, 2024, unless extended. The following lands are affected by this notice:</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Willamette Meridian, Washington</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">T. 29 N., R. 26 E.,</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 9, SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        ;
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Sec. 30, lot 2.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">T. 30 N., R. 26 E.,</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 25, NW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        ;
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 35, SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        .
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">T. 30 N., R. 27 E.,</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 28, SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        ;
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 29, NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        NW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        ;
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 34, SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        NW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                         and NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        .
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">T. 30 N., R. 28 E.,</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 9, SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        ;
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 14, NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        .
                    </FP>
                    <P>The areas described aggregate 400.27 acres.</P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>The use of a right-of-way, interagency agreement, or cooperative agreement would not adequately constrain non-discretionary uses, which could impede USACE's management of the Dam and reservoir. There are no suitable alternative sites since the requested withdrawal extension is associated with the Chief Joseph Dam Project.</P>
                <P>Comments will be available for public review. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personally identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you may ask the BLM in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>
                    An opportunity for a public meeting may be afforded in connection with the application for withdrawal extension. All interested persons who desire a public meeting for the purpose of being heard on the application for this withdrawal extension must submit a written request to the State Director, BLM Oregon/Washington State Office at the address in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section, within 90 days from the date of publication of this notice. If the authorized officer determines that a public meeting will be held, a notice of the date, time, and place will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     and local newspapers and posted on the BLM website at: 
                    <E T="03">www.blm.gov</E>
                     at least 30 days before the scheduled date of the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>This withdrawal extension application will be processed in accordance with the regulations set forth in 43 CFR 2310.4.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 43 U.S.C. 1714)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Dustin Webster-Wharton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Branch Chief for Lands, Minerals, and Energy Resources.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03123 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3720-58-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Bureau of Land Management</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[BLM_CA_FRN_MO4500170079]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Amended Public Meeting Dates: Central California Resource Advisory Council</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Land Management, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of amended public meeting dates.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Federal Land Policy and Management Act and the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972, the U.S. Department of the Interior's Bureau of Land Management (BLM) is hereby giving notice that it is changing the dates of the Central California Resource Advisory Council's (RAC) February field tour and meeting.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The RAC's originally scheduled February 27, 2024, field tour will be rescheduled to February 28, 2024, from 12:30 p.m. to 4 p.m. Pacific Time (PT); and the originally scheduled February 28, 2024, meeting will be rescheduled to February 29, 2024, from 8:30 a.m. to 1:30 p.m. PT. A 30-minute public comment period will be offered February 29 at 1 p.m. PT.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The February 28 field tour will begin and conclude, and the February 29 meeting will be held, at the Fairfield Inn, 2956 Mission Street, Santa Cruz, CA. Individuals who would like to virtually participate in the meeting must register in advance at 
                        <E T="03">https://ow.ly/Hwwi50QywRs.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <PRTPAGE P="11863"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Philip Oviatt, RAC Coordinator, telephone: (661) 432-4252, email at 
                        <E T="03">poviatt@blm.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>Individuals in the United States who are deaf, blind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The 12-member Central California RAC serves in an advisory capacity concerning issues relating to land use planning and the management of the public land resources located within the BLM's Central California District. Agenda items for the February 29 meeting include a briefing on the management of the Cotoni-Coast Dairies unit of the California Coastal National Monument.</P>
                <P>
                    The RAC will also receive presentations and make recommendations on fee proposals from the U.S. Forest Service for multiple sites located in the Humboldt-Toiyabe National Forest and the Stanislaus National Forest. The final meeting agenda will be available in advance of the meeting on the RAC's web page at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.blm.gov/get-involved/rac/california/central-california-rac.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     43 CFR 1784.4-2.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Erica St. Michel,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy State Director, Communications.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03125 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4331-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0037387; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology, Andover, MA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice. The human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from northwestern Tennessee and Monroe County, TN.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after March 18, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ryan J. Wheeler, Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology, 180 Main Street, Andover, MA 01810, telephone (978) 749-4490, email 
                        <E T="03">rwheeler@andover.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice. Additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the inventory or related records held by the Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description</HD>
                <P>Human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were removed from an unknown site, likely in northwestern Tennessee. Mollie Hall, a resident of Hopkinsville KY, transferred the human remains, representing one adult male, age 35 to 37, to the Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology (then called the Department of Archaeology, Phillips Academy) in 1903. No associated funerary objects are present.</P>
                <P>Human remains representing, at minimum, one individual were removed from historic Cherokee town sites in Monroe County, TN. In 1942, prior to inundation by the TVA, George Sherwood removed cultural items and Native American ancestral remains from several historic Cherokee town sites along the Little Tennessee River above Fort Loudoun. Sherwood transferred the human remains, representing one adult male, to the Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology (then called the Department of Archaeology, Phillips Academy) in 1981. The eight associated funerary objects are three ceramic fragments, one lithic flake, two chipped bifaces, and two projectile points.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>The human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice are connected to one or more identifiable earlier groups, tribes, peoples, or cultures. There is a relationship of shared group identity between the identifiable earlier groups, tribes, peoples, or cultures and one or more Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. The following types of information were used to reasonably trace the relationship: archeological information, geographical information, historical information, oral tradition, and the expert opinion of Tribal representatives.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to NAGPRA and its implementing regulations, and after consultation with the appropriate Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations, the Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of two individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The eight objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and the Cherokee Nation; Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians; and the United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the Responsible Official identified in 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>
                    Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after March 18, 2024. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11864"/>
                    Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This notice was submitted before the effective date of the revised regulations (88 FR 86452, December 13, 2023, effective January 12, 2024). As the notice conforms to the mandatory format of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     and includes the required information, the National Park Service is publishing this notice as submitted.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 7, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03090 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0037388; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intent To Repatriate Cultural Items: Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology, Andover, MA</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), the Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology intends to repatriate certain cultural items that meet the definition of unassociated funerary objects and that have a cultural affiliation with the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice. The cultural items were removed from unknown locations in Tennessee and sites along the Little Tennessee River, Monroe County, TN.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice may occur on or after March 18, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ryan J. Wheeler, Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology, Phillips Academy, 180 Main Street, Andover, MA 01810, telephone (978) 749-4490, email 
                        <E T="03">rwheeler@andover.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of the Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice. Additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the summary or related records held by the Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description</HD>
                <P>Fourteen cultural items were removed from Monroe County, TN. The 14 unassociated funerary objects are two lots of ceramic sherds (271/01 and 271/15), one antler tool (271/02), one lot of unmodified shell (271/03), one shell ornament (271/04), three lots of chipped stone tools and tool-making debitage (271/05; 271/07, and 271/08), one obsidian pestle (271/09), three lots of ground stone tools (271/11; 271/13; and 271/17), one bone flute (271/19), and one stone axe (271/16). In 1942, George Sherwood removed cultural items from several historic Cherokee town sites along the Little Tennessee River above Fort Loudoun. Sherwood transferred the cultural items to the Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology (then known as the Robert S. Peabody Foundation for Archaeology) in 1981.</P>
                <P>Ninety-six cultural items were removed from unknown sites in Tennessee, likely northwestern Tennessee. The 96 unassociated funerary objects are three lots of stone anvils, one lot of stone axes, nine lots of stone bifaces, three lots of stone celts, nine lots chipped stone tools, one lot stone choppers, one lot stone cores, two lots stone debitage, four lots stone edge tools, two lots chipped stone flakes, three lots ground stone items, four lots hammerstones, nine lots knives, three lots miscellaneous stone tools, one lot mortars, one lot stone nodules, one lot pebbles, four lots stone perforators, two lots stone pestles, 24 lots chipped stone points, eight lot scrapers, and one large animal tooth. Catalog numbers for these cultural items range from 25433 through 25530, with the exception of Catalog ID 25434, which was not assigned. In 1903, Mollie Hall, a resident of Hopkinsville, KY, transferred 96 cultural items from Tennessee to the Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology (then known as the Department of Archaeology, Phillips Academy). More detailed provenance was not given for the cultural items, though Hall may have been removing items from localities in northwestern Tennessee, near Hopkinsville, KY, where she lived.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>The cultural items in this notice are connected to one or more identifiable earlier groups, tribes, peoples, or cultures. There is a relationship of shared group identity between the identifiable earlier groups, tribes, peoples, or cultures and one or more Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. The following types of information were used to reasonably trace the relationship: anthropological information, archeological information, geographical information, historical information, and expert opinion.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to NAGPRA and its implementing regulations, and after consultation with the appropriate Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations, the Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The 110 cultural items described above are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony and are believed, by a preponderance of the evidence, to have been removed from a specific burial site of a Native American individual.</P>
                <P>• There is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the cultural items and the Cherokee Nation; Eastern Band of Cherokee Indians; and the United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians in Oklahoma.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional, written requests for repatriation of the cultural items in this notice must be sent to the Responsible Official identified in 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.
                </P>
                <P>Repatriation of the cultural items in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after March 18, 2024. If competing requests for repatriation are received, the Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the cultural items are considered a single request and not competing requests. The Robert S. Peabody Institute of Archaeology is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    This notice was submitted before the effective date of the revised regulations (88 FR 86452, December 13, 2023, effective January 12, 2024). As the notice conforms to the mandatory format of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11865"/>
                    includes the required information, the National Park Service is publishing this notice as submitted.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3004, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.9.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 7, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03091 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[NPS-PWRO-TUSK-37395; PPPWTUSK00, PPMPSPD1Z.YM0000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Tule Springs Fossil Beds National Monument Advisory Council Notice of Public Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Meeting notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, the National Park Service is hereby giving notice that the Tule Springs Fossil Beds National Monument Advisory Council (Council) will meet as indicated below.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting will be held virtually on Wednesday, March 6, 2024, at 5:00 p.m. until 7:00 p.m. (PACIFIC).</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Information on how to access the meeting will be posted by March 1, 2024, to the Council's website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nps.gov/tusk/index.htm.</E>
                         Individuals who wish to participate virtually must contact the person listed in the (
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                        ) section at least five (5) business days prior to the meeting. The format and/or location of the meeting are subject to change depending on local health restrictions or mandates.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Further information concerning the meeting may be obtained from Mike Theune, Acting Public Affairs Officer, Lake Mead National Recreation Area, 601 Nevada Way, Boulder City, Nevada 89005, via telephone at (702) 293-8691, or email at 
                        <E T="03">mike_theune@nps.gov.</E>
                         Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Council was established pursuant to section 3092(a)(6) of Public Law 113-291 and in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. ch. 10). The purpose of the Council is to advise the Secretary of the Interior with respect to the preparation and implementation of the management plan. Detailed minutes of the meeting will be available for public inspection within 90 days of the meeting.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Purpose of the Meeting:</E>
                     The Council agenda will include:
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">1. Superintendent Updates will include: General Management Plan (GMP)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">2. Resource Management Updates</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">3. Advisory Council GMP Comments</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">4. Old Business</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">5. New Business</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">6. Public Comments</FP>
                <P>
                    The meeting is open to the public. Interested persons may make oral or written presentations to the Council during the business meeting or file written statements. Requests to address the Council should be made to the Superintendent prior to the meeting. Members of the public may submit written comments by mailing them to Derek Carter, Superintendent, Tule Springs Fossil Beds National Monument, 601 Nevada Way, Boulder City, NV 89005, or by email 
                    <E T="03">derek_carter@nps.gov.</E>
                     All written comments will be provided to members of the Council. Due to time constraints during the meeting, the Council is not able to read written public comments submitted into the record. Depending on the number of people who wish to speak and the time available, the time for individual comments may be limited.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Meeting Accessibility/Special Accommodations:</E>
                     The meeting is open to the public. Please make requests in advance for sign language interpreter services, assistive listening devices, or other reasonable accommodations. We ask that you contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this notice at least seven (7) business days prior to the meeting to give the Department of the Interior sufficient time to process your request. All reasonable accommodation requests are managed on a case-by-case basis.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Public Disclosure of Comments:</E>
                     Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     5 U.S.C. ch. 10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Alma Ripps,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief, Office of Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03124 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[NPS-WASO-NAGPRA-NPS0037386; PPWOCRADN0-PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inventory Completion: Kansas State University, Manhattan, KS</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (NAGPRA), Kansas State University has completed an inventory of human remains and associated funerary objects and has determined that there is a cultural affiliation between the human remains and associated funerary objects and Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations in this notice. The human remains and associated funerary objects were removed from Saline County, MO.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice may occur on or after March 18, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Megan Williamson, Department of Sociology, Anthropology, and Social Work, Kansas State University, 204 Waters Hall, 1603 Old Claflin Place, Manhattan, KS 66506-4003, telephone (785) 532-6005, email 
                        <E T="03">mwillia1@ksu.edu.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This notice is published as part of the National Park Service's administrative responsibilities under NAGPRA. The determinations in this notice are the sole responsibility of Kansas State University. The National Park Service is not responsible for the determinations in this notice. Additional information on the determinations in this notice, including the results of consultation, can be found in the inventory or related records held by the Kansas State University.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Description</HD>
                <P>
                    Human remains representing, at minimum, two individuals were removed from Hamner Mounds, 23SA115, in Saline County, MO, four mounds on the bluff edge south of and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11866"/>
                    overlooking the Missouri River. In June and July of 1970, Dr. Patricia J. O'Brien of Kansas State University conducted excavations of three of the mounds (Mounds 1, 2, and 3) with staff and students at the Great Plains Archaeological Field School. The resulting assemblage removed from the mounds were processed and cataloged by field school students during the field school then were taken to Kansas State University for analysis, reporting, and curation, where it has since remained. The human remains consist of two human teeth removed from separate mound excavations. One of the teeth is a maxillary first premolar from Mound 2, identified as from a 9-to-12 year-old subadult of indeterminate sex. The second tooth is fragmented pieces of crown, so no aging was possible. The 360 associated funerary objects are one lot debitage (approximately 4,859 pieces), 147 worked chert, 49 hematite, six limonite, 78 stone tools (16 points, three abraders, five gravers, three choppers, six hammerstones, eight biface, three spokenshaves, three hoe fragments, three scrapers, one polished quartzite slab, and 27 miscellaneous stone tools), 62 ceramic sherds, 13 miscellaneous animal bones, two rocks, one charcoal sample, and one soil core/sample.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cultural Affiliation</HD>
                <P>The human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice are connected to one or more identifiable earlier groups, tribes, peoples, or cultures. There is a relationship of shared group identity between the identifiable earlier groups, tribes, peoples, or cultures and one or more Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations. The following types of information were used to reasonably trace the relationship: geographical and historical information.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determinations</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to NAGPRA and its implementing regulations, and after consultation with the appropriate Indian Tribes and Native Hawaiian organizations, Kansas State University has determined that:</P>
                <P>• The human remains described in this notice represent the physical remains of two individuals of Native American ancestry.</P>
                <P>• The 360 objects described in this notice are reasonably believed to have been placed with or near individual human remains at the time of death or later as part of the death rite or ceremony.</P>
                <P>• There is a relationship of shared group identity that can be reasonably traced between the human remains and associated funerary objects described in this notice and The Osage Nation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requests for Repatriation</HD>
                <P>
                    Written requests for repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice must be sent to the Responsible Official identified in 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . Requests for repatriation may be submitted by:
                </P>
                <P>1. Any one or more of the Indian Tribes or Native Hawaiian organizations identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>2. Any lineal descendant, Indian Tribe, or Native Hawaiian organization not identified in this notice who shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the requestor is a lineal descendant or a culturally affiliated Indian Tribe or Native Hawaiian organization.</P>
                <P>Repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects in this notice to a requestor may occur on or after March 18, 2024. If competing requests for repatriation are received, Kansas State University must determine the most appropriate requestor prior to repatriation. Requests for joint repatriation of the human remains and associated funerary objects are considered a single request and not competing requests. Kansas State University is responsible for sending a copy of this notice to the Indian Tribes identified in this notice.</P>
                <P>
                    This notice was submitted before the effective date of the revised regulations (88 FR 86452, December 13, 2023, effective January 12, 2024). As the notice conforms to the mandatory format of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     and includes the required information, the National Park Service is publishing this notice as submitted.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act, 25 U.S.C. 3003, and the implementing regulations, 43 CFR 10.10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 7, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Melanie O'Brien,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, National NAGPRA Program. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03089 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[NPS-WASO-NRNHL-DTS#-37306; PPWOCRADI0, PCU00RP14.R50000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>National Register of Historic Places; Notification of Pending Nominations and Related Actions</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The National Park Service is soliciting electronic comments on the significance of properties nominated before January 20, 2024, for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments should be submitted electronically by March 1, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments are encouraged to be submitted electronically to 
                        <E T="03">National_Register_Submissions@nps.gov</E>
                         with the subject line “Public Comment on &lt;property or proposed district name, (County) State&gt;.” If you have no access to email, you may send them via U.S. Postal Service and all other carriers to the National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1849 C Street NW, MS 7228, Washington, DC 20240.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Sherry A. Frear, Chief, National Register of Historic Places/National Historic Landmarks Program, 1849 C Street NW, MS 7228, Washington, DC 20240, 
                        <E T="03">sherry_frear@nps.gov,</E>
                         202-913-3763.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The properties listed in this notice are being considered for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places. Nominations for their consideration were received by the National Park Service before January 20, 2024. Pursuant to section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60, comments are being accepted concerning the significance of the nominated properties under the National Register criteria for evaluation.</P>
                <P>Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>Nominations submitted by State or Tribal Historic Preservation Officers.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Key:</E>
                     State, County, Property Name, Multiple Name(if applicable), Address/Boundary, City, Vicinity, Reference Number.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">GEORGIA</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Cobb County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lemon Street School, 350 Lemon Street, Marietta, SG100009980</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Coweta County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Brown's Mill Battlefield, 155 Millard Farmer Road, Newnan vicinity, SG100010004</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Dooly County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        Dooly County Campground, 21 Parsonage Road, Vienna vicinity, SG100009997
                        <PRTPAGE P="11867"/>
                    </FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">MARYLAND</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Baltimore INDEPENDENT CITY</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Barclay-East Baltimore-Midway Historic District, Bound by Barclay St., E North Ave., Harford Ave., E 25th St., Baltimore, SG100009978</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Chinatown Historic District (Asian American Communities in Maryland MPS), Bounded by Wilson Alley, Park Avenue, Montague Street, and Tyson Street, Baltimore, MP100009990</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Queen Anne's County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Starr Church, 1504 Starr Road, Centreville, SG100009979</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">MASSACHUSETTS</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Dukes County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">U.S. Marine Hospital at Vineyard Haven, 151 Lagoon Pond Road, Tisbury, SG100009983</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Suffolk County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lenox Street Apartments Historic District, Lenox St., Shawmut Ave., Kendall St., Ditmus Ct., Lattimore Ct., Trotter Ct., Boston, SG100009977</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">MISSISSIPPI</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Lee County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">The Raymond House, 5015 Raymond Avenue, Verona, SG100009996</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">OHIO</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Hamilton County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Mater Dei Chapel, Mount St. Joseph University, 395 Neeb Road, Cincinnati, SG100010003</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">OREGON</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Clackamas County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Camp Namanu, 10300 SE Camp Namanu, Sandy, SG100009998</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Multnomah County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Cannady, Beatrice Morrow and E.D., House (African American Resources in Portland, Oregon, from 1851 to 1973 MPS), 2516 NE 26th Avenue, Portland, MP100009989</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Rex Arms Apartments (Portland Eastside MPS), 1230 SE Morrison Street, Portland, MP100009991</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Wallowa County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Maxville, Address Restricted, Wallowa, SG100009999</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Yamhill County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Hughes Flying Boat (H-4 Hercules), 500 E Captain Michael King Smith, McMinnville, SG100009992</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIRGINIA</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appomattox County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Carver-Price School (Rosenwald Schools in Virginia MPS), 102 Carver Lane, Appomattox, MP100010001</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Bedford County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sammynick, 1108 Ashland Avenue, Bedford, SG100010002</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Lee County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Pennington Gap Commercial Historic District, W Morgan Avenue, E Morgan Street, Magnolia Street, Main Street, N Kentucky Street, Pennington Ga, SG100010000</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>Additional documentation has been received for the following resource(s):</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">NEW JERSEY</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Burlington County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Inskeep, John, Homestead (Additional Documentation), (Evesham Township MPS), 10 Madison Court, Marlton, AD93000866</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">TENNESSEE</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Marion County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Christ Episcopal Church and Parish House (Additional Documentation), 302 3rd Street, South Pittsburg, AD77001278</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Meigs County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Rymer, Bradford, Barn (Additional Documentation), (Meigs County, Tennessee MRA), 8143 TN-60, Georgetown, AD82004012</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Montgomery County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Poston Block (Additional Documentation), 126-130 Public Square, Clarksville, AD72001247</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Obion County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Confederate Monument (Additional Documentation), 911 Summer Street, Union City, AD77001286</FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Williamson County</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Montpier, 1837 Old Natchez Trace, Franklin vicinity, AD82004073</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Owen, Dr. Urban, House (Additional Documentation), (Williamson County MRA), 8730 Horton Highway, College Grove, AD88000326</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sherry A. Frear,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief, National Register of Historic Places/National Historic Landmarks Program.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03131 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">INTERNATIONAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Receipt of Complaint; Solicitation of Comments Relating to the Public Interest</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. International Trade Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has received a complaint regarding 
                        <E T="03">Certain Vehicle Telematics, Fleet Management, and Video-Based Safety Systems, Devices, and Components Thereof,</E>
                         DN 3722; the Commission is soliciting comments on any public interest issues raised by the complaint or complainant's filing pursuant to the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Lisa R. Barton, Secretary to the Commission, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. The public version of the complaint can be accessed on the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS) at 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                         For help accessing EDIS, please email 
                        <E T="03">EDIS3Help@usitc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server at United States International Trade Commission (USITC) at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov.</E>
                         The public record for this investigation may be viewed on the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS) at 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                         Hearing-impaired persons are advised that information on this matter can be obtained by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on (202) 205-1810.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Commission has received a complaint and a submission pursuant to § 210.8(b) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure filed on behalf of Samsara Inc. on February 9, 2024. The complaint alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1337) in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain vehicle telematics, fleet management, and video-based safety systems, devices, and components thereof. The complaint names as respondent: Motive Technologies Inc. of San Francisco, CA. The complainant requests that the Commission issue a limited exclusion order, cease and desist order, and impose a bond upon respondent alleged infringing articles during the 60-day Presidential review period pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1337(j).</P>
                <P>
                    Proposed respondents, other interested parties, and members of the public are invited to file comments on any public interest issues raised by the complaint or § 210.8(b) filing. Comments should address whether issuance of the relief specifically requested by the complainant in this investigation would affect the public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, or United States consumers.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11868"/>
                </P>
                <P>In particular, the Commission is interested in comments that:</P>
                <P>(i) explain how the articles potentially subject to the requested remedial orders are used in the United States;</P>
                <P>(ii) identify any public health, safety, or welfare concerns in the United States relating to the requested remedial orders;</P>
                <P>(iii) identify like or directly competitive articles that complainant, its licensees, or third parties make in the United States which could replace the subject articles if they were to be excluded;</P>
                <P>(iv) indicate whether complainant, complainant's licensees, and/or third party suppliers have the capacity to replace the volume of articles potentially subject to the requested exclusion order and/or a cease and desist order within a commercially reasonable time; and</P>
                <P>(v) explain how the requested remedial orders would impact United States consumers.</P>
                <P>
                    Written submissions on the public interest must be filed no later than by close of business, eight calendar days after the date of publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . There will be further opportunities for comment on the public interest after the issuance of any final initial determination in this investigation. Any written submissions on other issues must also be filed by no later than the close of business, eight calendar days after publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Complainant may file replies to any written submissions no later than three calendar days after the date on which any initial submissions were due, notwithstanding § 201.14(a) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure. No other submissions will be accepted, unless requested by the Commission. Any submissions and replies filed in response to this Notice are limited to five (5) pages in length, inclusive of attachments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above. Submissions should refer to the docket number (“Docket No. 3722”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. (
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Handbook for Electronic Filing Procedures, Electronic Filing Procedures 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    ). Please note the Secretary's Office will accept only electronic filings during this time. Filings must be made through the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS, 
                    <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                    ) No in-person paper-based filings or paper copies of any electronic filings will be accepted until further notice. Persons with questions regarding filing should contact the Secretary at 
                    <E T="03">EDIS3Help@usitc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Handbook for Electronic Filing Procedures: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov/documents/handbook_on_filing_procedures.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     19 CFR 201.6. Documents for which confidential treatment by the Commission is properly sought will be treated accordingly. All information, including confidential business information and documents for which confidential treatment is properly sought, submitted to the Commission for purposes of this Investigation may be disclosed to and used: (i) by the Commission, its employees and Offices, and contract personnel (a) for developing or maintaining the records of this or a related proceeding, or (b) in internal investigations, audits, reviews, and evaluations relating to the programs, personnel, and operations of the Commission including under 5 U.S.C. Appendix 3; or (ii) by U.S. government employees and contract personnel,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     solely for cybersecurity purposes. All nonconfidential written submissions will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Secretary and on EDIS.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         All contract personnel will sign appropriate nondisclosure agreements.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Electronic Document Information System (EDIS): 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>This action is taken under the authority of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and of §§ 201.10 and 210.8(c) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 201.10, 210.8(c)).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By order of the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Issued: February 12, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lisa Barton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03175 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7020-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Number 1140-0007]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Release and Receipt of Imported Firearms, Ammunition, and Defense Articles</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>30-Day notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), Department of Justice (DOJ), will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection was previously published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        , on December 8, 2023, allowing a 60-day comment period.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 30 days until March 18, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact: Victoria Kenney, FEIB/FESD by email at 
                        <E T="03">Victoria.Kenney@atf.gov,</E>
                         or by telephone at 304-616-3376.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and/or</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    —Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                      
                    <PRTPAGE P="11869"/>
                    permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </FP>
                <P>
                    Written comments and recommendations for this information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                     Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function and entering either the title of the information collection or the OMB Control Number 1140-0007. This information collection request may be viewed at 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov.</E>
                     Follow the instructions to view Department of Justice, information collections currently under review by OMB.
                </P>
                <P>DOJ seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOJ notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of This Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Revision of a previously approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Title of the Form/Collection:</E>
                     Release and Receipt of Imported Firearms, Ammunition, and Defense Articles.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department of Justice sponsoring the collection:</E>
                     ATF Form 6A (5330.3C).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Component:</E>
                     Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, U.S. Department of Justice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as a brief abstract:</E>
                     Affected Public: Private Sector-for or not for profit institutions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The information collected on the Release and Receipt of Imported Firearms, Ammunition and Implements of War—ATF Form 6A (5330.3C) is used by ATF personnel to determine if articles meet the statutory and regulatory criteria for importation, and also if the articles shown on the permit application were actually imported. The Information Collection (IC) OMB 1140-0007 is being revised to include grammatical changes (sentence rephrasing/statement modification), added checkboxes and instructions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">Obligation to Respond:</E>
                     Mandatory per title 18 U.S.C. 925(a), 22 U.S.C. 2778, and 26 U.S.C. 5844.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     25,000 respondents.
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Respondent:</E>
                     35 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    8. 
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Once annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    9. 
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Time Burden:</E>
                     14,285 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    10. 
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Other Costs Burden:</E>
                     There is no start-up cost associated with this collection. The respondents that do not file electronically must mail the form to ATF. Approximately 15% of the respondents file electronically. The costs to respondents choose not to file electronically is postage. The postage cost is based on 25,000 × .51 postage = $12,750.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">If additional information is required, contact:</E>
                     Darwin Arceo, Department Clearance Officer, Policy and Planning Staff, Justice Management Division, United States Department of Justice, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 4W-218, Washington, DC 20530.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Darwin Arceo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Department Clearance Officer for PRA, U.S. Department of Justice.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03112 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4410-FY-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Number 1140-0084]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Application/Permit for Temporary Importation of Firearms and Ammunition by Nonimmigrant Aliens</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>30-Day notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), Department of Justice (DOJ), will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection was previously published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on December 8, 2023, allowing a 60-day comment period.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 30 days until March 18, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact: Victoria Kenney, FEIB/FESD, by email at 
                        <E T="03">Victoria.Kenney@atf.gov</E>
                         or telephone at 304-616-3376.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and/or</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    —Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </FP>
                <P>
                    Written comments and recommendations for this information collection should be submitted within 30 days of the publication of this notice on the following website 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                     Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function and entering either the title of the information collection or the OMB Control Number 1140-0084. This information collection request may be viewed at 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov.</E>
                     Follow the instructions to view Department of Justice, information collections currently under review by OMB.
                </P>
                <P>DOJ seeks PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) years. OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal. The DOJ notes that information collection requirements submitted to the OMB for existing ICRs receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of This Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Revision of a previously approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Title of the Form/Collection:</E>
                     Application/Permit for Temporary 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11870"/>
                    Importation of Firearms and Ammunition by Nonimmigrant Aliens.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department of Justice sponsoring the collection:</E>
                     ATF Form 6NIA (5330.3D).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Component:</E>
                     Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, U.S. Department of Justice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as a brief abstract:</E>
                     Affected Public: State, local and tribal governments, Individuals or households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Application/Permit for Temporary Importation of Firearms and Ammunition by Nonimmigrant Aliens—ATF Form 6NIA (5330.3D) is used by nonimmigrant aliens to temporarily import firearms and ammunition into the United States for hunting or other sporting purposes. The Information Collection (IC) OMB 1140-0084 is being revised to include renumbering, removal and addition of section items, grammatical changes (sentence rephrasing/statement modification), and instruction clarification.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">Obligation to Respond:</E>
                     The obligation to respond is Mandatory per Title 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(5) (b); 27 CFR part 478.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     12,000 respondents.
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Respondent:</E>
                     30 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    8. 
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Once annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    9. 
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Time Burden:</E>
                     6,000 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    10. 
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Other Costs Burden:</E>
                     There is no public cost associated with this information collection since the completed form can be emailed to ATF for processing.
                </P>
                <P>If additional information is required, contact: Darwin Arceo, Department Clearance Officer, Policy and Planning Staff, Justice Management Division, United States Department of Justice, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 4W-218 Washington, DC 20530.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Darwin Arceo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Department Clearance Officer for PRA, U.S. Department of Justice.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03114 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4410-FY-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Number 1140-0106]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Extension of a Previously Approved Collection; The Arson and Explosives Training Registration for Non-ATF Employees</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60-Day notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), Department of Justice (DOJ), will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until April 15, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, contact: Warren Smith, NCETR, either by mail at 3750 Corporal Road, Huntsville, AL 35898, by email at 
                        <E T="03">NCETR-mailbox@atf.gov</E>
                         or telephone at 256-261-7684.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Bureau of Justice Statistics, including whether the information will have practical utility;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether and if so how the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected can be enhanced; and</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    —Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     ATF currently provides varying levels of arson and explosive training, to include techniques and procedures, to federal, state and local, military and international law enforcement investigators. The attached form is the Arson and Explosives Training Registration Request for Non-ATF Employees (ATF R 6310.1). The form is used by prospective students when applying to attend the various trainings provided by ATF.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of This Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Extension of a previously approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">The Title of the Form/Collection:</E>
                     The Arson and Explosives Training Registration for Non-ATF Employees.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">The agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department sponsoring the collection:</E>
                     Form number: ATF Form 6310.1. Component: Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, U.S. Department of Justice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as the obligation to respond:</E>
                     Affected Public: Federal Government and State, local and Tribal governments. The obligation to respond is: Required to obtain or retain benefits.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond:</E>
                     An estimated 500 respondents will use the form annually, and it will take each respondent approximately 6 minutes to complete their responses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total annual burden (in hours) associated with the collection:</E>
                     The estimated annual public burden associated with this collection is 50 hours, which is equal to 500 (total respondents) * 1 (# of response per respondent) * .1 (6 minutes).
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total annual cost burden associated with the collection, if applicable:</E>
                     $0.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11871"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Total Burden Hours</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Activity</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of 
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Frequency 
                            <LI>(annually)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total 
                            <LI>annual </LI>
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Time per 
                            <LI>response </LI>
                            <LI>(min)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total 
                            <LI>annual </LI>
                            <LI>burden </LI>
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">ATF F 6310.1</ENT>
                        <ENT>500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>500</ENT>
                        <ENT>6</ENT>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Unduplicated Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>500</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>500</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>50</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>If additional information is required contact: Darwin Arceo, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE, 4W-218, Washington, DC.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Darwin Arceo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Department Clearance Officer for PRA, U.S. Department of Justice.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03150 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4410-FY-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Number 1140-0068]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Extension of a Previously Approved Collection; Police Check Inquiry</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60-Day notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), Department of Justice (DOJ), will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until April 15, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, contact: John Dugan, Chief, Physical Security Programs Branch/Security &amp; Emergency Programs Division, either by mail at 99 New York Avenue NE, Washington, DC 20226 or by email at 
                        <E T="03">John.T.Dugan@atf.gov,</E>
                         or telephone at 202-648-7935.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Bureau of Justice Statistics, including whether the information will have practical utility;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Evaluate whether and if so how the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected can be enhanced; and</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    —Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses.
                </FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Police Check Inquiry—ATF Form 8620.42 is used to collect personally identifiable information (PII) to determine if non-ATF personnel meet the basic requirements for escorted access to ATF facilities, non-sensitive information and/or construction sites.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of This Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Extension of a previously approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">The Title of the Form/Collection:</E>
                     Police Check Inquiry.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">The agency form number, if any, and the applicable component of the Department sponsoring the collection:</E>
                     ATF Form 8620.42. Component: Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, U.S. Department of Justice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as the obligation to respond: Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals or households. The obligation to respond is voluntary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total number of respondents and the amount of time estimated for an average respondent to respond:</E>
                     An estimated 3,500 respondents will use the form annually, and it will take each respondent approximately 10 minutes to complete their responses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total annual burden (in hours) associated with the collection:</E>
                     The estimated annual public burden associated with this collection is 595 hours, which is equal to 3500 (total respondents) * 1 (# of response per respondent) * .17 (10 minutes).
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">An estimate of the total annual cost burden associated with the collection, if applicable:</E>
                     $0.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,10,xs54,10,10,10">
                    <TTITLE>Total Burden Hours</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Activity</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Frequency</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Time per
                            <LI>response</LI>
                            <LI>(min)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total annual
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>(hours)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Police Check Inquiry—8620.42</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>1/annually</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,500</ENT>
                        <ENT>10</ENT>
                        <ENT>595</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Unduplicated Totals</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,500</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>3,500</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>595</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    If additional information is required contact: Darwin Arceo, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11872"/>
                    Square, 145 N Street NE, 4W-218, Washington, DC.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Darwin Arceo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Department Clearance Officer for PRA, U.S. Department of Justice.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03103 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4410-FY-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. OSHA-2010-0026]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Mechanical Power Press Standard; Extension of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Approval of Information Collection (Paperwork) Requirements</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for public comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>OSHA solicits public comments concerning its proposal to extend the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) approval for the information collection requirements specified in its Mechanical Power Press Standard.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent, or received) by April 15, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Electronically:</E>
                         You may submit comments and attachments electronically at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         which is the Federal eRulemaking Portal. Follow the instructions online for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         To read or download comments or other material in the docket, go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Documents in the docket are listed in the 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         index; however, some information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         copyrighted material) is not publicly available to read or download through the website. All submissions, including copyrighted material, are available for inspection through the OSHA Docket Office. Contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350 (TTY (877) 889-5627) for assistance in locating docket submissions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions must include the agency name and OSHA docket number OSHA-2010-0026 for the Information Collection Request (ICR). OSHA will place all comments, including any personal information, in the public docket, which may be made available online. Therefore, OSHA cautions interested parties about submitting personal information such as social security numbers and birthdates.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For further information on submitting comments, see the “Public Participation” heading in the section of this notice titled 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Seleda Perryman, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor; telephone (202) 693-2222.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The Department of Labor, as part of the continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     employer) burden, conducts a preclearance consultation program to provide the public with an opportunity to comment on proposed and continuing information collection requirements in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). This program ensures that information is in the desired format, reporting burden (time and costs) is minimal, the collection instruments are clearly understood, and OSHA's estimate of the information collection burden is accurate. The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (OSH Act) (29 U.S.C. 651 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) authorizes information collection by employers as necessary or appropriate for enforcement of the OSH Act or for developing information regarding the causes and prevention of occupational injuries, illnesses, and accidents (29 U.S.C. 657). The OSH Act also requires that OSHA obtain such information with minimum burden upon employers, especially those operating small businesses, and to reduce to the maximum extent feasible unnecessary duplication of effort in obtaining information (29 U.S.C. 657).
                </P>
                <P>The following sections describe who use the information collected under each requirement, as well as how they use it. The purposes of these requirements are to address the burden hours associated with gathering information on inspection, maintenance, and modification of presses. Employers are expected to establish and follow an inspection program and conduct regular and periodic inspections of each power press. Additionally, employers are to maintain records of certification.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Special Issues for Comment</HD>
                <P>OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:</P>
                <P>• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for the proper performance of the agency's functions to protect workers, including whether the information is useful;</P>
                <P>• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and</P>
                <P>• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information collection, and transmission techniques.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Proposed Actions</HD>
                <P>OSHA is requesting that OMB extend the approval of the information collection requirements contained in the Mechanical Power Press Standard. The agency is requesting that there is no change in burden hours in the information collection requirements of this standard. The costs are adjusted due to updated calculations.</P>
                <P>OSHA will summarize the comments submitted in response to this notice and will include this summary in the request to OMB to extend the approval of the information collection requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Mechanical Power Press Standard.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1218-0229.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Business or other for-profits.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     104,035.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Responses:</E>
                     Monthly.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Responses:</E>
                     62,421.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Time per Response:</E>
                     20 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Burden Hours:</E>
                     20,807.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Cost (Operation and Maintenance):</E>
                     $0.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Public Participation—Submission of Comments on this Notice and Internet Access to Comments and Submissions</HD>
                <P>
                    You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) electronically at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     which is the Federal eRulemaking Portal; or (2) by facsimile (fax); if your comments, including attachments, are not longer than 10 pages you may fax them to the OSHA Docket Office at 202-693-1648. All comments, attachments, and other material must identify the agency name and the OSHA docket number for the ICR (OSHA-2010-0026). You may supplement electronic submissions by uploading document files electronically.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11873"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Comments and submissions are posted without change at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Therefore, OSHA cautions commenters about submitting personal information such as social security numbers and dates of birth. Although all submissions are listed in the 
                    <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     index, some information (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     copyrighted material) is not publicly available to read or download from this website. All submissions, including copyrighted material, are available for inspection and copying at the OSHA Docket Office. Information on using the 
                    <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     website to submit comments and access the docket is available at the website's “User Tips” link. Contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627) for information about materials not available from the website, and for assistance in using the internet to locate docket submissions.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Authority and Signature</HD>
                <P>
                    James S. Frederick, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and Secretary of Labor's Order No. 8-2020 (85 FR 58393).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Signed at Washington, DC, on February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>James S. Frederick,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03128 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-26-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">OFFICE OF MANAGEMENT AND BUDGET</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Update of Statistical Policy Directive No. 3: Compilation, Release, and Evaluation of Principal Federal Economic Indicators—Changing Timing of Public Comments by Employees of the Executive Branch</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Executive Office of the President.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of adoption of a revised Statistical Policy Directive No. 3.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) announces the adoption of a revised Statistical Policy Directive No. 3: Compilation, Release, and Evaluation of Principal Federal Economic Indicators (Directive No. 3). The procedures in Directive No. 3, published in 1985, were designed to ensure equitable, policy-neutral, and timely release and dissemination of Principal Federal Economic Indicators. The goals of Directive No. 3 remain sound; this Notice announces the adoption of procedures consistent with these goals to reflect advances in communication technologies and methods. OMB has solely modified the provision, “employees of the Executive Branch shall not comment publicly on the data until at least one hour after the official release time,” by replacing “one hour” with “thirty minutes.” This change reduces the delay after official release time before commentary from employees of the Executive Branch, while retaining a necessary time delay between policy-neutral release of the official statistics and subsequent Executive Branch interpretations of this statistical data.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Effective Date:</E>
                         The effective date of this Directive is February 19, 2024.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Please send correspondence about OMB's decision to Dominic Mancini, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503, or email 
                        <E T="03">Statistical_Directives@omb.eop.gov</E>
                         with the subject “More Info: Directive No. 3.”
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Karin Orvis, Office of Management and Budget, telephone 202-395-5989, email 
                        <E T="03">Statistical_Directives@omb.eop.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Summary:</E>
                     Under the Budget and Accounting Procedures Act of 1950 (31 U.S.C. 1104(d)) and the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3504(e)) (the PRA), the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) announces a change of one provision within Statistical Policy Directive No. 3: Compilation, Release, and Evaluation of Principal Federal Economic Indicators (50 FR 38932, Sept. 25, 1985) (Directive No. 3). In particular, OMB modifies the provision in Directive No. 3, “employees of the Executive Branch shall not comment publicly on the data until at least one hour after the official release time,” by replacing “one hour” with “thirty minutes.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Background:</E>
                     Directive No. 3's purposes are “to preserve the time value” of the Principal Federal Economic Indicators (PFEIs), “strike a balance between timeliness and accuracy,” “prevent early access to information that may affect financial and commodity markets,” and “preserve the distinction between the policy-neutral release of data by statistical agencies and their interpretation by policy officials.” Directive No. 3 also provides for the periodic evaluation of each indicator. Directive No. 3 remains a robust, comprehensive source of guidance for Federal statistical agencies and recognized statistical units producing PFEIs. The government and private sector widely watch and heavily rely upon these statistical series as indicators of the current condition and direction of the economy.
                </P>
                <P>The procedures in Directive No. 3, published in 1985, were designed to ensure equitable, policy-neutral, and timely release and dissemination of PFEIs. The goals of Directive No. 3 remain sound, and OMB has not changed them. In furtherance of these goals, OMB retains a minimum time period that Executive Branch employees must wait after the policy-neutral release of the data before Executive Branch employees can comment on those data.</P>
                <P>
                    In April 2019, OMB published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     a request for comments on a proposal to reduce the duration of the prohibition of commentary by employees of the Executive Branch following the PFEI release from one hour to something shorter, including the consideration of the option of having no delay at all (84 FR 14682, Apr. 11, 2019). OMB received sixteen in-scope comments in response to that Notice. All in-scope commenters strongly supported either a retention of the one-hour delay, or a delay of some duration, after official release time before employees of the Executive Branch could comment on the PFEI releases, with no commenters in support of removing the delay entirely.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Public comments received in response to the April 2019 FRN are available at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov/document/OMB-2019-0001-0001/comment.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In August 2023, OMB published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     a request for public comments on an updated proposal to reduce the duration of the prohibition of commentary by employees of the Executive Branch following the PFEI release from one hour to 30 minutes. OMB noted that it agreed with the previous comments on this issue submitted in 2019 and understood that maintaining some delay as part of Directive No. 3 continues to be important to maintain the bright line between the release of data and any commentary on such data by Executive Branch officials. OMB noted that it was considering this updated proposal because, while the delay is important to ensuring a bright line between the data release and the Executive Branch's policy interpretation, since 1985 there have been many changes in the way the public communicates, as well as in how the relevant statistical agencies disseminate information. For example, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11874"/>
                    in addition to more traditional means of dissemination (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     newspaper or radio), agencies now disseminate and the public interacts with data releases through the internet, including through websites, social media platforms, and other applications. These newer dissemination platforms in particular offer nearly instantaneous access to any information supplied by the agencies producing the PFEI data, including the data releases. These platforms can also offer direct attribution of the data to the agencies that produce it; these agencies are required to meet data quality standards and are trusted to implement those requirements. OMB noted that these advances in the timing and attribution of dissemination can contribute to the ability of the public to fully digest the data releases sooner than when such dissemination methods were not available.
                </P>
                <P>In addition, OMB noted that the public generally communicates and interacts differently now than in 1985. In particular, various platforms exist now that allow the public to interact seconds after a new data release comes out. This means that for these PFEI data releases, non-Executive Branch actors are engaging in dialogue almost immediately following the official release time and can be offering perspectives on the meaning of the data. Under the 1985 Directive No. 3, this dialogue lacks any Executive Branch interpretation until at least one hour after the data's official release time. OMB notes that discussion by non-Executive Branch employees about the PFEI data release starts immediately following the release, and as such, by the time 30 minutes has passed, a robust discussion is already well underway. By reducing the period to 30 minutes, Executive Branch officials could enter the dialogue earlier. OMB noted that it believes that this change is likely to lead to a more robust discussion without compromising the underlying principles of Directive No. 3, including the benefits of having some time delay. OMB did not consider any other alternatives in the August 2023 proposal.</P>
                <P>OMB sought comments from all interested parties, including data users, businesses, organizations, and the media. OMB specifically solicited comments from the public about the proposal to change the delay from one hour to 30 minutes, including whether such a change could still meet the goals of Directive No. 3 to ensure equitable, policy-neutral, and timely release and dissemination of PFEIs. OMB also requested input on whether to maintain the one-hour delay.</P>
                <P>
                    More background and history on the policies of Directive No. 3 can be found in the August 2023 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     Notice (88 FR 58316), available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.federalregister.gov/documents/2023/08/25/2023-18313/statistical-policy-directive-no-3-compilation-release-and-evaluation-of-principal-federal-economic,</E>
                     and April 2019 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     Notice (84 FR 14682) (April 2019 FRN), available at 
                    <E T="03">www.federalregister.gov/documents/2019/04/11/2019-07172/statistical-policy-directive-no-3-compilation-release-and-evaluation-of-principal-federal-economic.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Summary of Comments:</E>
                     OMB received 12 public comments in response to the August 2023 FRN. None of the 12 public comments expressed support for making the change from one hour to 30 minutes. The public comments raised different substantive points for OMB to consider. All of the public comments are viewable at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov/document/OMB-2023-0016-0001/comment.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Response to Comments:</E>
                </P>
                <P>OMB provides below responses to these comments, grouped by substantive points.</P>
                <P>
                    (1) 
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     There is a need to provide evidence that consumers of information will understand the distinction between PFEI releases and commentary from employees of the Executive Branch.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Certain commenters encouraged OMB to provide evidence that 30 minutes is a sufficient period of time to ensure understanding of the distinction between PFEI releases and commentary about those releases from employees of the Executive Branch.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         American Economic Association Committee on Economic Statistics, Comment #0009; Anonymous, Comment #0012.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Response:</E>
                </P>
                <P>It is difficult to directly measure the degree of public understanding regarding the distinction between the PFEI data releases and commentary from employees of the Executive Branch, and the potential effects on that degree of understanding that could result from reducing the time delay from one hour to 30 minutes. As discussed below, OMB reviewed existing literature and a new analysis from the Council of Economic Advisers (CEA) and conducted some original analysis to estimate the potential effects of the change on market movements, news stories, and social media dissemination of such news. One commenter suggested analyzing the timing and content of social media posts to evaluate potential impact. Given the difficulty of accessing and analyzing that data, and taking into account that the analysis would also not be capable of directly estimating the impact on public understanding, OMB did not undertake this analysis. The information available to OMB on both market movements and the timing of news stories does not provide evidence that confusion about PFEI data releases and commentary from employees of the Executive Branch would be likely to result from a reduction in the delay period.</P>
                <P>
                    OMB reviewed analysis conducted by CEA 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     on the response of market participants to PFEI releases. The CEA analysis and summary of other relevant literature reviewed by OMB suggest that markets absorb at least some of the PFEI release information quickly, in most cases within seconds of the release.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Council of Econ. Advisers, 
                        <E T="03">The Timing of Market Reactions to Data Releases,</E>
                         The White House (Feb. 14, 2024), 
                        <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/CEA-PFEI-Analysis.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    OMB also conducted some analysis of news articles.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     OMB's analysis suggests that news stories are typically posted well ahead of 30 minutes after the PFEI release. OMB did not find any evidence that a reduction in the delay for Executive Branch commentary has the potential to cause confusion.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Off. of Mgmt. &amp; Budget, 
                        <E T="03">The Timing of Press Publications After High-Profile PFEI Data Releases,</E>
                         The White House (Feb. 14, 2024), 
                        <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2024/02/OMB-PFEI-Press.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    (2) 
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Shifting to a 30-minute period before Executive Branch employees can comment on PFEI releases could lead to public concerns about political interference or manipulation of data or could reduce public trust and confidence in the Federal statistical system.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Some commenters noted that Directive No. 3 was adopted, in part, to address criticism of confusion resulting from the simultaneous release of statistical data and commentary from Executive Branch employees.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     While noting that social media and news networks can now instantly broadcast information to the public, these commenters expressed concern that narrowing the gap between the release of official PFEI data from statistical agencies and units and commentary from Executive Branch employees would lead to inferences of political interference or manipulation of data. Some commenters noted that accusations of improper political 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11875"/>
                    interference are regularly raised immediately following the release of PFEIs.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Bureau of Labor Statistics, Comment #0007; American Statistical Association, Comment #0006; Stefanie R. Schmidt, Comment #0004; Michael Ravnitzky, Comment #0002, Anonymous, Comment #0012.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         American Economic Association Committee on Economic Statistics, Comment #0009 (citing Ben Casselman, “No, the Jobs Report Wasn't Rigged. Here's What Happened.,” 
                        <E T="03">The New York Times</E>
                         (June 8, 2020), 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nytimes.com/2020/06/08/business/economy/jobs-report-data.html</E>
                        ); Population Association of America and Association of Population Centers, Comment #0011; 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         Patricia Cohen, “How Economic Data is Kept Politics-Free,” 
                        <E T="03">The New York Times</E>
                         (Nov. 3, 2016), 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nytimes.com/2016/11/04/business/economy/unemployment-labor-department-data-politics.html.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Certain commenters expressed concerns that a shift from a one-hour period to a 30-minute period that must elapse before Executive Branch employees can comment on PFEI data releases could erode public trust and confidence in Federal statistics and statistical agencies and units.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Relatedly, some of these commenters went on to express concerns that this shift could thereby reduce response rates to requests for information from Federal statistical agencies and units.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         American Statistical Association, Comment #0006; National Association for Business Economics, Comment #0008; Population Association of America and Association of Population Centers, Comment #0011; Stefanie R. Schmidt, Comment #0004, Michael Ravnitzky, Comment #0002, Anonymous, Comment #0010.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         American Statistical Association, Comment #0006; Erica L. Groshen, Comment #0003.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Response:</E>
                     OMB agrees that the failure to have a sufficient delay before Executive Branch employees comment on PFEI releases would be problematic and could lead to conflation of the statistical release and the commentary. However, OMB believes the evidence surveyed indicates that 30 minutes is a sufficient time delay for markets, the media, and members of the public to distinguish between the data release and commentary from Executive Branch employees. Whatever delay may have been necessitated by the state of technology in 1985, when Directive No. 3 was issued, OMB believes that the speed at which information is disseminated today allows for 30 minutes to be sufficient for these purposes. Conversely, OMB believes that the available evidence would not support a further reduction to a period of less than 30 minutes, and that a sufficient delay period remains critical to fulfilling the goals of Directive No. 3.
                </P>
                <P>
                    OMB appreciates concerns that changing the one-hour period before employees of the Executive Branch can comment publicly on PFEIs to a 30-minute period could exacerbate the distrust that gives rise to accusations of improper political interference immediately following the release of PFEIs. However, OMB notes that prominent accusations of improper political interference tend to either immediately follow a surprising release 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or gain traction much later on the basis of complicated technical details in the underlying reports.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Commenters provided no evidence that Executive Branch employees' commentary on PFEIs at the one-hour mark prompted such accusations. Thus, OMB does not believe that changing the time until Executive Branch employees can comment on PFEIs from one hour to 30 minutes would affect such accusations.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Joseph Plambeck, “From Jack Welch, a Conspiracy Theory,” 
                        <E T="03">The New York Times</E>
                         (Oct. 5, 2012), 
                        <E T="03">https://archive.nytimes.com/economix.blogs.nytimes.com/2012/10/05/from-jack-welch-a-conspiracy-theory/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Ben Casselman, “No, the Jobs Report Wasn't Rigged. Here's What Happened.,” 
                        <E T="03">The New York Times</E>
                         (June 8, 2020), 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nytimes.com/2020/06/08/business/economy/jobs-report-data.html.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Members of the Congress, governors and other state elected officials, associations affiliated with political parties, candidates for political office, and others all begin commenting on PFEI releases in the minutes immediately following the release of PFEIs. As a result, public commentary from employees of the Executive Branch enters an already-saturated environment whether it begins 30 minutes or one hour after the PFEI release. OMB believes that such commentary, following others by a substantial gap in time, is not confused with official data releases. Thus, OMB believes that Executive Branch employees entering this dialogue sooner does not introduce additional costs, but only a potential public benefit from the quicker participation of Executive Branch employees in this dialogue.</P>
                <P>
                    Another factor contributing to clarity is that Federal statistical agencies and units generally communicate PFEI releases directly, with links to official reports, through their websites, social media, email blasts, and other means (such as interactive dissemination tools and Application Programming Interfaces or APIs). Each of the agencies producing PFEIs post their releases on their official websites and many also operate social media accounts that post links to the PFEI data releases within minutes of their public availability, including the National Agricultural Statistics Service,
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Bureau of the Census,
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Bureau of Economic Analysis,
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Energy Information Administration,
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Bureau of Labor Statistics,
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The social media accounts have tens of thousands to millions of followers, ensuring public access to official PFEI data within moments of each data release.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., https://www.nass.usda.gov/Publications/Reports_By_Date/index.php</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">https://twitter.com/usda_nass.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., https://www.census.gov/economic-indicators/calendar-listview.html</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">https://twitter.com/uscensusbureau.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., https://www.bea.gov/news/schedule</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">https://twitter.com/BEA_News.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., https://www.eia.gov/</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">https://twitter.com/EIAgov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., https://www.bls.gov/bls/newsrels.htm</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">https://twitter.com/BLS_gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., https://www.federalreserve.gov/data.htm</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">https://twitter.com/federalreserve.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In addition, OMB is aware that there have been unexpected and unforeseen delays in the release of PFEI data before (see more information below). Such delays in the release of the PFEI data can introduce confusion with the public and Executive Branch employees about when Executive Branch employees are authorized to comment on PFEI data release, and the delays themselves can introduce perceptions of improper influence with the PFEI data simply because of the unknown reasons at the time for the delays. When such delays occur, the requirement still holds that Executive Branch employees shall not comment until at least 30 minutes after the release of the PFEI data, not the scheduled release time. However, in these instances, making sure Executive Branch employees are aware of the delay and the updated time at which they can comment is important to ensure the commentary does not precede the release of PFEI data. OMB plans to work with statistical agencies and units that produce PFEIs to ensure that the CEA Chair is aware of any significant delays in PFEI releases. The CEA Chair, consistent with Directive No. 3, plays an important role in coordinating official responses to PFEI releases, and can help to inform Executive Branch employees of such delays. All Executive Branch employees that comment on PFEI releases have an ongoing obligation to ensure that they are in compliance with Directive No. 3, including if necessary attending to the effect of a delay in the release of a PFEI before commenting on the data release.</P>
                <P>
                    For context, OMB is aware that short delays (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     of less than two minutes) in the release of PFEI data are common. However, OMB is also aware that there have been unexpected and unforeseen longer delays in releasing the PFEI data. Over the last 10 years, out of the over 3,700 PFEI data releases, OMB is aware of five that occurred unexpectedly 30 minutes or more after the scheduled release time (with the longest known 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11876"/>
                    unexpected delay being 2 hours). While a problem, this is not a fundamentally different problem regardless of whether the period before employees of the Executive Branch can comment on PFEI data releases is one hour or 30 minutes. OMB emphasizes that even in the event of an unforeseen delay in the PFEI data release the 30-minute period before employees of the Executive Branch can comment still applies. That is, the 30-minute period starts after the release of the PFEI data, not following the timing of the intended release of the PFEI.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (3) 
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     In some cases, a shift from a one-hour period to a 30-minute period will result in Executive Branch employees commenting before the stock market opens.
                </P>
                <P>
                    One commenter argued that allowing employees of the Executive Branch to comment before the stock market generally opens (in the 9:00-9:30 a.m. ET period for PFEIs that are released at 8:30 a.m. ET) may confuse markets.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         Anonymous, Comment #0005.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Response:</E>
                     Of the 35 PFEIs designated by OMB, currently 15 have release times at 8:30 a.m. ET.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As noted previously, data indicate that futures markets may fully price PFEI data releases quickly, with price jumps being completed within minutes following the release of several PFEIs. Conversely, one of the advantages of data releases in the pre-market opening period is that the price effect can be fully integrated before market opening. Conventional wisdom holds that allowing important news to be processed before markets open allows for concentrated trading in the first few minutes after market with greater liquidity, given that market makers generally unload inventory at market close to avoid exposure to the risk of overnight price shifts, and shields ordinary investors from the volatility of news integration in futures markets.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     By allowing Executive Branch employees to comment on PFEI releases in the pre-market opening period (for those PFEIs released at 8:30 a.m. ET), the market-moving effects of such commentary, should such commentary incidentally have any market-moving effects, can be fully priced in before market open. Conversely, the current one-hour period causes commentary to coincide with market open. In this way, for those 15 PFEI releases that currently release ahead of market open, shifting the period from one hour to 30 minutes could be modestly beneficial.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         One other PFEI releases before the market opens, at 9:15 a.m. ET. This means the 30-minute period would occur after the market opens.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Lei Gao, Yufeng Han, Sophia Zhengzi Li, and Guofu Zhou, “Market Intraday Momentum,” Journal of Financial Economics 129, no. 2 (2018): 394-414.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    (4) 
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Shifting to a 30-minute period before Executive Branch employees can comment on PFEI releases increases the likelihood of not catching errors in PFEI releases.
                </P>
                <P>
                    One commenter raised concerns that a shift from a one-hour to a 30-minute period that must elapse before Executive Branch employees can comment on PFEI releases could increase the likelihood of data errors or other forms of miscommunication relating to PFEIs as a result of less time for data verification or clarification.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         Michael Ravnitzky, Comment #0002.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Response:</E>
                     OMB emphasizes that this change does not affect any of the error-checking work that precedes the publication of PFEIs; it also does not affect clarifications by authorized agency personnel during the 30-minute period before other Executive Branch employees can comment on PFEI releases. Given the evidence described above that market activity may fully price PFEI releases within seconds, as discussed previously, there is no evidence to suggest that subsequent data correction or clarification is a substantial concern. Further, Federal statistical agencies and units work hard to ensure that data releases are accurate at the time of release. It is also not clear why having Federal employees comment on erroneous data before a correction as noted is worse than market, media, and other commentary on that same erroneous data before correction. The nature of correcting data is that such reactions will need to be revised, in the event that a correction occurs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (5) 
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Shifting to a 30-minute period before Executive Branch employees can comment on PFEI releases could cause confusion and lead to more noncompliant early commentary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    One comment stated that changing the delay period before Executive Branch employees can comment on PFEI releases is likely to create confusion, and lead to a greater number of Executive Branch employees commenting before the period has elapsed. The commenter reasons that this could occur if an employee is traveling or working in a different time zone or due to the effects of Daylight Savings Time.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         Michael Ravnitzky, Comment #0002.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Response:</E>
                     OMB notes that there is nothing inherently more confusing from a compliance standpoint about a 30-minute delay than a one-hour delay. Time zone differences and the effects of Daylight Savings Time could affect the appropriate local time when an Executive Branch employee is authorized to speak regardless of whether Directive No. 3 incorporated a one-hour period or a 30-minute period. As such, OMB does not believe that the potential for confusion provides a basis to prefer one period of time to another.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (6) 
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Shifting to a 30-minute period before Executive Branch employees can comment on PFEI releases would lead to wider pre-dissemination release of PFEIs within the Executive Branch.
                </P>
                <P>
                    One commenter expressed concern that shifting the period during which employees of the Executive Branch cannot comment on PFEI releases from one hour to 30 minutes after the release would result in more Executive Branch employees having pre-release access to PFEI data, and in turn, increases the risk of premature release of PFEI data.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         American Statistical Association, Comment #0006.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Response:</E>
                     OMB clarifies that it is not effectuating a change in the composition of individuals with pre-release access to PFEIs. Directive No. 3 strictly limits the pre-release dissemination of PFEI data and enumerates specific conditions under which the agency producing the PFEI may grant others access to that information. These portions of the Directive are not being amended.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (7) 
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     Shifting to a 30-minute period before Executive Branch employees can comment on PFEI releases would lead to less time for Executive Branch employees to coordinate a response to the data release.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Certain commenters expressed concern that shifting the period during which employees of the Executive Branch cannot comment on PFEI releases from one hour to 30 minutes would give Executive Branch employees less time to coordinate a response to the PFEI data prior to the expiration of this period.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         American Statistical Association, Comment #0006; National Association for Business Economics, Comment #0008.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Response:</E>
                     The President, through the CEA Chair, has access to the PFEI data as soon as it is available in advance of the publication of the PFEI, providing for time for the Chair to develop a response to the PFEI data. Typically, the Chair receives the pre-release PFEI data the afternoon before the scheduled release. OMB notes that the 30-minute period is merely a floor on how soon Executive Branch employees can comment and should 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11877"/>
                    additional discussion be necessary before commenting after 30 minutes has elapsed, employees can elect to withhold commentary until such a time as they are ready to comment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB decision:</E>
                     After reviewing the public comments, reviewing relevant literature, and examining media and market movements, OMB has determined that any costs of shifting the delay period from one hour to 30 minutes are outweighed by the benefits discussed above.
                </P>
                <STARS/>
                <P>The revised directive is published below.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Richard L. Revesz,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrator, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Statistical Policy Directive No. 3</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Compilation, Release, and Evaluation of Principal Federal Economic Indicators</HD>
                <P>Statistical series that are widely watched and heavily relied upon by government and the private sector as indicators of the current condition and direction of the economy must meet high standards of accuracy and reliability. Because such data series have significant commercial value, may affect the movement of commodity and financial markets, or may be taken as a measure of the impact of government policies, public release must be prompt and according to an established, publicly available schedule. The purpose of the procedures outlined in this directive is to assure that these data series meet specific accuracy, release, and accountability standards.</P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Designation of Principal Indicators.</E>
                     The Administrator for Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, will determine, after consultation with interested Federal agencies, the data series and estimates to be designated as principal Federal economic indicators and covered by this directive. The Administrator will review the designations annually.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Prompt Release.</E>
                     The interval between the period to which the data or estimates refer and the date when the data or estimates are released to the public shall be as short as practicable. Agencies should compile and release series that are issued quarterly or more frequently within 22 working days of the end of the reference period.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Release Schedule.</E>
                     The releasing agency is responsible for ensuring that the interested public is aware of the release time and date. The last report of each calendar year must contain the time and date of all reports in the upcoming year. In addition, each release will include an announcement of the time and date of the next release. The releasing agency shall provide a schedule of releases for the upcoming calendar year to the Statistical Policy Office, Office of information and Regulatory Affairs, by December 15. Changes in the release schedule may occur only if special, unforeseen circumstances arise. The releasing agency must announce and fully explain any schedule changes as soon as it has determined they are unavoidable.
                </P>
                <P>There should be one office in the agency that can provide the release schedule of all the agency's economic indicators. The name, address, and telephone number of this office should be readily available to the public. Agencies shall establish and maintain one or two times of day for the release of their principal economic indicators and shall only release indicators at such designated times.</P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Announcement of Changes.</E>
                     Agencies shall announce any planned change in data collection, analysis, or estimation methods that may affect the interpretation of a principal economic indicator as far in advance of the change as possible. The agency should include the announcement in a regular report of the economic indicator. When possible, a period of public comment should be provided between the announcement of an intended change and its implementation. At a minimum for quarterly and monthly series, the agency shall announce the change at least three reports before the first report affected by the change. For weekly and annual series, the announcement should precede the first report affected by the change by at least three months. In the first report affected by the change, the agency should include a complete description of the change and its impact.
                </P>
                <P>Agencies shall fully explain unforeseeable changes due to special circumstances as soon as they are known and in the first report affected by the change.</P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">Release Procedure.</E>
                     The statistical agency that produces each principal economic indicator shall issue it in a press release or other printed report. The agency shall issue a press release where this will significantly speed up the dissemination of data to the public.
                </P>
                <P>Each statistical agency shall be responsible for establishing procedures to assure that there is no premature release of information or data estimates during the time required for preparation of the public report. This includes the protection of public use data banks, which shall not receive any data or estimates until they are officially released. As soon as copies of materials for public release have been prepared, the agency shall physically secure them.</P>
                <P>Except for the authorized distribution described in this section, agencies shall ensure that no information or data estimates are released before the official release time.</P>
                <P>The agency will provide prerelease information to the President, through the Chairman of the Council of Economic Advisers, as soon as it is available. The agency may grant others prerelease access only under the following conditions:</P>
                <P>(a) The agency head must establish whatever security arrangements are necessary and impose whatever conditions on the granting of access are necessary to ensure that there is no unauthorized dissemination or use.</P>
                <P>(b) The agency head shall ensure that any person granted access has been fully informed of and agreed to these conditions.</P>
                <P>(c) Any prerelease of information under an embargo shall not precede the official release time by more than 30 minutes.</P>
                <P>(d) In all cases, prerelease access shall precede the official release time only to the extent necessary for an orderly review of the data.</P>
                <P>All employees of the Executive Branch who receive prerelease distribution of information and data estimates as authorized above are responsible for assuring that there is no release prior to the official release time. Except for members of the staff of the agency issuing the principal economic indicator who have been designated by the agency head to provide technical explanations of the data, employees of the Executive Branch shall not comment publicly on the data until at least thirty minutes after the official release time.</P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Preliminary Estimates and Revisions.</E>
                     Deciding when to release a principal economic indicator requires the balancing of accuracy and timeliness. Agencies should not withhold information needed to evaluate current economic conditions by imposing unnecessarily stringent accuracy requirements on preliminary estimates. However, agencies shall use the following guidelines when issuing and evaluating preliminary data and revisions:
                </P>
                <P>(a) Agencies shall clearly identify figures as preliminary or revised.</P>
                <P>(b) Agencies shall only release routine revisions of a principal economic indicator as part of the regular reporting schedule.</P>
                <P>
                    (c) If the difference between preliminary and final aggregate figures is large relative to average period-to-
                    <PRTPAGE P="11878"/>
                    period differences, the agency must either take steps to improve the accuracy of preliminary estimates or delay the release of estimates until a reliable estimate can be made.
                </P>
                <P>(d) If preliminary estimates show signs of a consistent bias (for example, if revisions are consistently in the same direction), the agency shall take steps to correct this bias.</P>
                <P>(e) Revisions occurring for routine reasons, such as benchmarking and updating of seasonality factors, shall be consolidated and released simultaneously.</P>
                <P>(f) Revisions occurring for other than routine reasons shall be fully explained and shall be released as soon as corrections can be completed.</P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">Granting of Exceptions.</E>
                     Prior to taking any action that may violate the provisions of this directive, the head of a releasing agency shall consult with the Administrator for Information and Regulatory Affairs. If the Administrator determines that the action is in violation of the provisions of this directive, the head of the releasing agency may apply for an exception. The Administrator may authorize exceptions to the provisions in sections 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 of this Directive. Any agency requesting an exception must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Administrator that the proposed exception is necessary and is consistent with the purposes of the Directive.
                </P>
                <P>
                    8. 
                    <E T="03">Performance Evaluation.</E>
                     Each agency that issues a principal Federal economic indicator shall submit a performance evaluation of that indicator to the Statistical Policy Office, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, every three years. A schedule for the performance evaluation of data series or estimates designated as principal Federal economic indicators will be prepared by the Statistical Policy Office. The evaluation shall address the following issues:
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) the accuracy and reliability of the series, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     the magnitude and direction of all revisions, the performance of the series relative to established benchmarks, and the proportion and effect of nonresponses or responses received after the publication of preliminary estimates;
                </P>
                <P>(b) the accuracy, completeness, and accessibility of documentation describing the methods used in compiling and revising the indicator;</P>
                <P>(c) the agency's performance in meeting the designated release schedule and the prompt release objective of this directive;</P>
                <P>(d) the agency's ability to avoid disclosure prior to the scheduled release time;</P>
                <P>(e) any additional issues that the Administrator for Information and Regulatory Affairs specifies in writing to the agency at least 6 months in advance of the scheduled submission date.</P>
                <P>The evaluation will be reviewed by the Administrator to determine whether the indicator is prepared and published in conformity with all OMB statistical policies, standards, and guidelines. A summary of the year's evaluations and their reviews will be included in the annual report to Congress required by section 3514 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-511).</P>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-02972 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3110-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">NATIONAL AERONAUTICS AND SPACE ADMINISTRATION </AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Notice: (24-010)]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>NASA Astrophysics Advisory Committee; Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Aeronautics and Space Administration.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) announces a meeting of the Astrophysics Advisory Committee. This Committee reports to the Director, Astrophysics Division, Science Mission Directorate, NASA Headquarters. The meeting will be held for the purpose of soliciting, from the scientific community and other persons, scientific and technical information relevant to program planning.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Wednesday, March 20, 2024, 10 a.m.-5 p.m.; and Thursday, March 21, 2024, 9 a.m.-5 p.m., eastern time.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Meeting will be virtual. See Webex information below.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ms. KarShelia Kinard, Science Mission Directorate, NASA Headquarters, Washington, DC 20546, (202) 358-2355 or 
                        <E T="03">karshelia.kinard@nasa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>As noted above, this meeting is virtual and will take place by dial-in and via Webex. Any interested person must use a touch-tone phone to participate in this meeting. The Webex connectivity information for each day is provided below. For audio, when you join the Webex event, you may use your computer or provide your phone number to receive a call back, otherwise, call the U.S. toll conference number listed for each day.</P>
                <P>
                    For Wednesday, March 20, 2024, the Webex information for attendees is: 
                    <E T="03">https://nasaenterprise.webex.com/nasaenterprise/j.php?MTID=mc1f44fac9dc4ce77af2322c57b0f99d7.</E>
                     The meeting number is: 2763 710 0487 and the meeting password is: Apac032024#. To join by telephone the numbers are, 1-929-251-9612 or 1-415-527-5035. (Access Code: 2763 710 0487).
                </P>
                <P>
                    For Thursday, March 21, 2024, the WebEx information for attendees is: 
                    <E T="03">https://nasaenterprise.webex.com/nasaenterprise/j.php?MTID=m6a50aa286a1ef9beacb18c8092f540be.</E>
                     The meeting number is: 2823 194 9794 and the meeting password is: Apac032124#. To join by telephone the numbers are 1-929-251-9612 or 1-415-527-5035 (Access code: 2823 194 9794).
                </P>
                <P>The agenda for the meeting includes the following topics:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Astrophysics Division Update</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Updates on Specific Astrophysics Missions</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Discussion of Reports from the Program Analysis Groups</FP>
                <P>
                    The agenda will be posted on the Astrophysics Advisory Committee web page: 
                    <E T="03">https://beta.science.nasa.gov/researchers/nac/science-advisory-committees/apac/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    The public may submit and upvote comments/questions ahead of the meeting through the website: APAC Spring Meeting—(3/19/2024)—NASA (cnf.io), or 
                    <E T="03">https://nasa.cnf.io/sessions/dxmy/#!/dashboard,</E>
                     that will be opened for input on March 10, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>It is imperative that the meeting be held on these dates to accommodate the scheduling priorities of the key participants.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Patricia Rausch, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Advisory Committee Management Officer, National Aeronautics and Space Administration.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03163 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">NATIONAL AERONAUTICS AND SPACE ADMINISTRATION </AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Notice: (24-011)]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>NASA Planetary Science Advisory Committee; Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Aeronautics and Space Administration.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) announces a meeting of the Planetary Science Advisory Committee. The meeting will be held for the purpose of soliciting, from the scientific community and other 
                        <PRTPAGE P="11879"/>
                        persons, scientific and technical information relevant to program planning.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Monday, March 4, 2024, 10:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.; and Tuesday, March 5, 2024, 10:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m. All times are Eastern Time.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ms. KarShelia Kinard, Science Mission Directorate, NASA Headquarters, Washington, DC 20546, (202) 358-2355 or 
                        <E T="03">karshelia.kinard@nasa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The meeting is virtual. The meeting will be available telephonically and via Webex.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">For Monday, March 4, 2024, the Webex information for attendees is: https://nasaenterprise.webex.com/nasaenterprise/j.php?MTID=m6030640e9cccb4672890fd4ea22f827e.</E>
                     The Webinar number is: 2827 316 2219 and the Webinar password is: PACMar-241 (72262703 from phones and video systems). To join by telephone call, use US Toll: +1-415-527-5035 (Access Code: 276 469 63398).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">For Tuesday, March 5, 2024, the Webex information for attendees is: https://nasaenterprise.webex.com/nasaenterprise/j.php?MTID=m7a5dae93838f4f7b3be94688789d2497.</E>
                     The Webinar number is: 2831 156 6022 and the Webinar password is: PACMar-242 (72262703 from phones and video systems). To join by telephone call, use US Toll: +1-415-527-5035 (Access Code: 2760 033 6624).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accessibility:</E>
                     Captioning will be provided for this meeting. We are committed to providing equal access to this meeting for all participants. If you need alternative formats or other reasonable accommodations, please contact Ms. KarShelia Kinard, Science Mission Directorate, NASA Headquarters, Washington, DC 20546, (202) 358-2355 or 
                    <E T="03">karshelia.kinard@nasa.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>The agenda for the meeting includes the following topics:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Planetary Science Division Update</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Planetary Science Division Research and Analysis Program Update</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Mars Exploration Program (MEP) and Mars Sample Return (MSR) Update</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Astrobiology Update</FP>
                <P>It is imperative that the meeting be held on these dates to accommodate the scheduling priorities of the key participants.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Patricia Rausch,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Advisory Committee Management Officer, National Aeronautics and Space Administration.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03167 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7510-13-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[NRC-2023-0082]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Information Collection: Disposal of High-Level Radioactive Wastes in a Geologic Repository at Yucca Mountain, Nevada</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of submission to the Office of Management and Budget; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has recently submitted a request for renewal of an existing collection of information to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review. The information collection is entitled, “Disposal of High-Level Radioactive Wastes in a Geologic Repository at Yucca Mountain, Nevada.”</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments by March 18, 2024. Comments received after this date will be considered if it is practical to do so, but the Commission is able to ensure consideration only for comments received on or before this date.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        David Cullison, NRC Clearance Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-2084; email: 
                        <E T="03">Infocollects.Resource@nrc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Obtaining Information</HD>
                <P>Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2023-0082 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly available information related to this action by any of the following methods:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Federal Rulemaking Website:</E>
                     Go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and search for Docket ID NRC-2023-0082.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS):</E>
                     You may obtain publicly available documents online in the ADAMS Public Documents collection at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html.</E>
                     To begin the search, select “Begin Web-based ADAMS Search.” For problems with ADAMS, please contact the NRC's Public Document Room (PDR) reference staff at 1-800-397-4209, at 301-415-4737, or by email to 
                    <E T="03">PDR.Resource@nrc.gov.</E>
                     The supporting statement is available in ADAMS under Accession No. ML23339A074.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">NRC's PDR:</E>
                     The PDR, where you may examine and order copies of publicly available documents, is open by appointment. To make an appointment to visit the PDR, please send an email to 
                    <E T="03">PDR.Resource@nrc.gov</E>
                     or call 1-800-397-4209 or 301-415-4737, between 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. eastern time (ET), Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">NRC's Clearance Officer:</E>
                     A copy of the collection of information and related instructions may be obtained without charge by contacting the NRC's Clearance Officer, David C. Cullison, Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-2084; email: 
                    <E T="03">Infocollects.Resource@nrc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Submitting Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                     Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information in comment submissions that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. All comment submissions are posted at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and entered into ADAMS. Comment submissions are not routinely edited to remove identifying or contact information.
                </P>
                <P>If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the OMB, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that comment submissions are not routinely edited to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment into ADAMS.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 35), the NRC recently 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11880"/>
                    submitted a request for renewal of an existing collection of information to OMB for review entitled, “10 CFR part 63, Disposal of High-Level Radioactive Wastes in a Geologic Repository at Yucca Mountain, Nevada.” The NRC hereby informs potential respondents that an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and that a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The NRC published a 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice with a 60-day comment period on this information collection on October 3, 2023, 88 FR 68159.
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">The title of the information collection:</E>
                     10 CFR part 63, Disposal of High-Level Radioactive Wastes in a Geologic Repository at Yucca Mountain, Nevada.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">OMB approval number:</E>
                     3150-0199.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Type of submission:</E>
                     Extension.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">The form number, if applicable:</E>
                     Not applicable.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">How often the collection is required or requested:</E>
                     One time.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Who will be required or asked to respond:</E>
                     The State of Nevada, local governments, or affected Indian Tribes, or their representatives, requesting consultation with the NRC staff regarding review of the potential high-level waste geologic repository site, or wishing to participate in a license application review for the potential geologic repository.
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">The estimated number of annual responses:</E>
                     36.
                </P>
                <P>
                    8. 
                    <E T="03">The estimated number of annual respondents:</E>
                     12.
                </P>
                <P>
                    9. 
                    <E T="03">The estimated number of hours needed annually to comply with the information collection requirement or request:</E>
                     1,452.
                </P>
                <P>
                    10. 
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Part 63 of title 10 of the 
                    <E T="03">Code of Federal Regulations,</E>
                     requires the State of Nevada, local governments, or affected Indian Tribes to submit information to the NRC that describes their request for any consultation with the NRC staff concerning review of the potential repository site, or NRC's facilitation for their participation in a license application review for the potential repository. Representatives of the State of Nevada, local governments, or affected Indian Tribes must submit a statement of their authority to act in such a representative capacity. The information submitted by the State of Nevada, local governments, or affected Indian Tribes is used by the Director of the Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards as a basis for decisions about the commitment of the NRC staff resources to the consultation and participation efforts.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 12, 2024.</DATED>
                    <P>For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                    <NAME>David C. Cullison,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>NRC Clearance Officer, Office of the Chief Information Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03154 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7590-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[NRC-2023-0159]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Information Collection: Nondiscrimination in Federally Assisted Programs or Activities Receiving Federal Financial Assistance From the Commission</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of submission to the Office of Management and Budget; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has recently submitted a request for renewal of an existing collection of information to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review. The information collection is entitled, “Nondiscrimination in Federally Assisted Programs or Activities Receiving Federal Financial Assistance from the Commission.”</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments by March 18, 2024. Comments received after this date will be considered if it is practical to do so, but the Commission is able to ensure consideration only for comments received on or before this date.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain</E>
                        . Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        David C. Cullison, NRC Clearance Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301- 415-2084; email: 
                        <E T="03">Infocollects.Resource@nrc.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Obtaining Information</HD>
                <P>Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2023-0159 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly available information related to this action by any of the following methods:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Federal Rulemaking Website:</E>
                     Go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and search for Docket ID NRC-2023-0159.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS):</E>
                     You may obtain publicly available documents online in the ADAMS Public Documents collection at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html</E>
                    . To begin the search, select “Begin Web-based ADAMS Search.” For problems with ADAMS, please contact the NRC's Public Document Room (PDR) reference staff at 1-800-397-4209, at 301-415-4737, or by email to 
                    <E T="03">PDR.Resource@nrc.gov</E>
                    . A copy of NRC Forms 781 and 782 and related instructions may be obtained without charge by accessing ADAMS Accession Nos. ML23137A372 and ML23137A371. The supporting statement is available in ADAMS under Accession No. ML24016A002.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">NRC's PDR:</E>
                     The PDR, where you may examine and order copies of publicly available documents, is open by appointment. To make an appointment to visit the PDR, please send an email to 
                    <E T="03">PDR.Resource@nrc.gov</E>
                     or call 1-800-397-4209 or 301-415-4737, between 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. eastern time (ET), Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">NRC's Clearance Officer:</E>
                     A copy of the collection of information and related instructions may be obtained without charge by contacting the NRC's Clearance Officer, David C. Cullison, Office of the Chief Information Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-2084; email: 
                    <E T="03">Infocollects.Resource@nrc.gov</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Submitting Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain</E>
                    . Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information in comment submissions that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. All comment submissions are posted at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and entered into ADAMS. Comment submissions are not routinely edited to remove identifying or contact information.
                </P>
                <P>
                    If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the OMB, then you should inform those persons not to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11881"/>
                    include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that comment submissions are not routinely edited to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment into ADAMS.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                <P>Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 35), the NRC recently submitted a request for renewal of an existing collection of information to OMB for review entitled, “10 CFR part 4, Nondiscrimination in Federally Assisted Programs or Activities Receiving Federal Financial Assistance from the Commission.” The NRC hereby informs potential respondents that an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and that a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.</P>
                <P>
                    The NRC published a 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice with a 60-day comment period on this information collection on October 25, 2023, 88 FR 73384.
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">The title of the information collection:</E>
                     10 CFR part 4, Nondiscrimination in Federally Assisted Programs or Activities Receiving Federal Financial Assistance from the Commission.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">OMB approval number:</E>
                     3150-0053.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Type of submission:</E>
                     Extension.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">The form number, if applicable:</E>
                     NRC Forms 781 and 782.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">How often the collection is required or requested:</E>
                     NRC Form 781, “SBCR Compliance Review Part A,” is submitted upon initiation or modification of a program, during the pre-award and post-award stage, periodic monitoring, and, if a complaint is being processed. NRC Form 782, “Complaint Form,” is submitted on occasion, if any person believes himself or any specific class of individuals, have been subjected to discrimination prohibited by part 4 of title 10 of the 
                    <E T="03">Code of Federal Regulations</E>
                     (10 CFR), subpart A, “Regulations Implementing Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and Title IV of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974,” on behalf of the primary funding recipient or any other recipient that received NRC Federal financial assistance through the primary funding recipient. Self-evaluations are performed throughout the duration of obligation based on 10 CFR 4.231, “Responsibility of applicants and recipients.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Who will be required or asked to respond:</E>
                     Recipients of Federal financial assistance provided by the NRC (including educational institutions, other nonprofit organizations receiving Federal assistance, and Agreement States).
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">The estimated number of annual responses:</E>
                     502.
                </P>
                <P>
                    8. 
                    <E T="03">The estimated number of annual respondents:</E>
                     200.
                </P>
                <P>
                    9. 
                    <E T="03">The estimated number of hours needed annually to comply with the information collection requirement or request:</E>
                     802. (102 hours for reporting, 650 hours for recordkeeping, and 50 hours for third-party disclosures.
                </P>
                <P>
                    10. 
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     All recipients of Federal financial assistance from the NRC are subject to the provisions of 10 CFR part 4, “Nondiscrimination in Federally Assisted Programs or Activities Receiving Federal Financial Assistance from the Commission.” Respondents must submit assurances of compliance with 10 CFR part 4 and a complete NRC Form 781, to demonstrate compliance with civil rights statutes and regulations, Executive Orders, White House education initiatives, and related provisions of the Energy Policy Act of 2005 for nondiscrimination with respect to race, color, national origin, sex, disability, or age. Respondents must also notify participants, beneficiaries, applicants, and employees of nondiscrimination practices and keep records of Federal financial assistance and of their own self-evaluations of policies and practices. In the event that discrimination is alleged in NRC-conducted and Federal financially assisted programs and activities, it may be reported using NRC Form 782.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 12, 2024.</DATED>
                    <P>For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                    <NAME>David C. Cullison,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>NRC Clearance Officer, Office of the Chief Information Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03133 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7590-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">POSTAL SERVICE</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Product Change—Priority Mail and USPS Ground Advantage® Negotiated Service Agreement</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Postal Service
                        <E T="51">TM</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date of required notice:</E>
                         February 15, 2024.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Sean Robinson, 202-268-8405.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on February 5, 2024, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a 
                    <E T="03">USPS Request to Add Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage® Contract 184 to Competitive Product List.</E>
                     Documents are available at 
                    <E T="03">www.prc.gov,</E>
                     Docket Nos. MC2024-183, CP2024-189.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sean Robinson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Attorney, Corporate and Postal Business Law.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03085 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7710-12-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">POSTAL SERVICE</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Product Change—Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, and USPS Ground Advantage® Negotiated Service Agreement</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Postal Service
                        <E T="51">TM</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date of required notice:</E>
                         February 15, 2024.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Sean C. Robinson, 202-268-8405.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on February 5, 2024, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a 
                    <E T="03">USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage® Contract 46 to Competitive Product List.</E>
                     Documents are available at 
                    <E T="03">www.prc.gov,</E>
                     Docket Nos. MC2024-182, CP2024-188.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sean C. Robinson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Attorney, Corporate and Postal Business Law.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03095 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7710-12-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">POSTAL SERVICE</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Product Change—Priority Mail and USPS Ground Advantage® Negotiated Service Agreement</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Postal Service
                        <E T="51">TM</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal 
                        <PRTPAGE P="11882"/>
                        Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date of required notice:</E>
                         February 15, 2024.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Sean Robinson, 202-268-8405.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on February 7, 2024, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a 
                    <E T="03">USPS Request to Add Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage® Contract 186 to Competitive Product List.</E>
                     Documents are available at 
                    <E T="03">www.prc.gov,</E>
                     Docket Nos. MC2024-187, CP2024-193.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sean Robinson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Attorney, Corporate and Postal Business Law.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03094 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7710-12-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">POSTAL SERVICE</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Product Change—Priority Mail and USPS Ground Advantage® Negotiated Service Agreement</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Postal Service
                        <E T="51">TM</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date of required notice:</E>
                         February 15, 2024.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Sean Robinson, 202-268-8405.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on February 6, 2024, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a 
                    <E T="03">USPS Request to Add Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage® Contract 185 to Competitive Product List.</E>
                     Documents are available at 
                    <E T="03">www.prc.gov,</E>
                     Docket Nos. MC2024-185, CP2024-191.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sean Robinson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Attorney, Corporate and Postal Business Law.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03086 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7710-12-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">POSTAL SERVICE</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Product Change—Priority Mail, USPS Ground Advantage® &amp; Parcel Select Negotiated Service Agreement</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Postal Service
                        <E T="51">TM</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date of required notice:</E>
                         February 15, 2024.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Sean Robinson, 202-268-8405.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on February 6, 2024, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a 
                    <E T="03">USPS Request to Add Priority Mail, USPS Ground Advantage® &amp; Parcel Select Contract 5 to Competitive Product List.</E>
                     Documents are available at 
                    <E T="03">www.prc.gov,</E>
                     Docket Nos. MC2024-184, CP2024-190.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sean Robinson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Attorney, Corporate and Postal Business Law.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03087 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7710-12-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">POSTAL SERVICE</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Product Change—Priority Mail and USPS Ground Advantage® Negotiated Service Agreement</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Postal Service
                        <E T="51">TM</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date of required notice:</E>
                         February 15, 2024.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Sean Robinson, 202-268-8405.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on February 8, 2024, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a 
                    <E T="03">USPS Request to Add Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage® Contract 187 to Competitive Product List.</E>
                     Documents are available at 
                    <E T="03">www.prc.gov,</E>
                     Docket Nos. MC2024-188, CP2024-194.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sean Robinson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Attorney, Corporate and Postal Business Law.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03088 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7710-12-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-99510; File No. SR-CboeEDGX-2024-012]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe EDGX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Certain Rules Related to Stock-Option Orders</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>February 9, 2024.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on February 6, 2024, Cboe EDGX Exchange, Inc. (the “Exchange” or “EDGX”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Exchange filed the proposal pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) thereunder.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>Cboe EDGX Exchange, Inc. (the “Exchange” or “EDGX Options”) proposes to amend certain Rules related to stock-option orders. The text of the proposed rule change is provided in Exhibit 5.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Exchange's website (
                    <E T="03">http://markets.cboe.com/us/options/regulation/rule_filings/edgx/</E>
                    ), at the Exchange's Office of the Secretary, and at the Commission's Public Reference Room.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>
                    In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11883"/>
                    the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to update certain of its Rules regarding the definition and execution of stock-option orders. Rule 21.20(b) defines a “stock-option order” as the purchase or sale of a stated number of units of an underlying stock or a security convertible into the underlying stock (“convertible security”) coupled with the purchase or sale of an option contract(s) on the opposite side of the market representing either (a) the same number of units of the underlying stock or convertible security or (b) the number of units of the underlying stock necessary to create a delta neutral position, but in no case in a ratio greater than eight-to-one (8.00), where the ratio represents the total number of units of the underlying stock or convertible security in the option leg(s) to the total number of units of the underlying stock or convertible security in the stock leg.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Only those stock-option orders in the classes designated by the Exchange with no more than the applicable number of legs are eligible for processing. Stock-option orders execute in the same manner as other complex orders, except as otherwise specified in Rule 21.20.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Rule 21.20(f)(2)(B) currently describes certain restrictions on executions of stock-option orders. Current Rule 21.20(f)(2)(B) provides that stock-option orders that execute electronically are subject to the following:</P>
                <P>• For a stock-option order with one option leg, the option leg may not trade at a price worse than the individual component price on the Simple Book or at the same price as a Priority Customer Order on the Simple Book.</P>
                <P>
                    • For a stock-option order with more than one option leg, the option legs must trade at prices pursuant to Rule 21.20(f)(2)(A) above.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         Rule 21.20(f)(2)(A) states the System does not execute a complex order pursuant to Rule 21.20 at a net price: (i) that would cause any component of the complex strategy to be executed at a price of zero; (ii) that would cause any component of the complex strategy to be executed at a price worse than the individual component prices on the Simple Book; (iii) worse than the price that would be available if the complex order Legged into the Simple Book; or (iv) worse than the synthetic best bid or offer (“SBBO”) or equal to the SBBO when there is a Priority Customer order on any leg comprising the SBBO and: (a) if a complex order has a ratio equal to or greater than oneto-three [sic] (.333) and less than or equal to three-to-one (3.00), at least one component of the complex order must execute at a price that improves the BBO for that component; or (b) if the complex order has a ratio less than one-to-three (.333) or greater than three-to-one (3.00), the component(s) of the complex order for the leg(s) with a Priority Customer order at the BBO must execute at a price that improves the price of that Priority Customer order(s) on the Simple Book, except AON complex orders may only execute at prices better than the SBBO.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • A stock-option order may only execute if the stock leg is executable at the price(s) necessary to achieve the desired net price.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         To facilitate the execution of the stock leg and options leg(s) of an executable stock-option order at valid increments pursuant to Rule 21.20(f)(1)(B), the legs may trade outside of their expected notional trade value by a specified amount (which the Exchange determines), unless the order has a capacity of “C”.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • The System executes the buy (sell) stock leg of a stock-option order pursuant to Rule 21.20 up to a buffer amount above (below) the NBO (NBB) for the stock leg.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.20(f)(2)(B) (the provisions off which the Exchange proposes to number as subparagraphs (i) through (iv)). The rule further provides that the execution price of the buy (sell) stock leg of a QCC with Stock Order may be any price (including outside the NBBO for the stock leg), except the price must be permitted by Regulation SHO and the Limit Up-Limit Down Plan. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         proposed Rule 21.20(f)(2)(B)(iv).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange previously amended its rules to permit complex orders of all ratios to be executed on the Exchange, subject to certain execution restrictions.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Rule 21.20(a) currently defines “complex order” as any order involving the concurrent purchase and/or sale of two or more different series in the same class (the “legs” or “components” of the complex order), for the same account, in any ratio and for the purposes of executing a particular investment strategy. Only those complex orders with no more than the applicable number of legs (determined by the Exchange) are eligible for processing.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Release No. 95321 (July 19, 2022), 87 FR 44174 (July 25, 2022) (SR-CboeEDGX-2021-033).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange first proposes to adopt definitions of “conforming” and “nonconforming” complex orders in Rule 21.20(a). The Exchange notes these proposed definitions are consistent with definitions used by other options exchanges.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, the Exchange proposes to define a “conforming complex order” as (a) a complex order with a ratio on the options legs greater than or equal to one-to-three (.333) or less than or equal to three-to-one (3.00) and (b) a stock-option order with a ratio less than or equal to eight-to-one (8.00), where the ratio represents the total number of units of the underlying stock or convertible security in the option leg(s) to the total number of units of the underlying stock or convertible security in the stock leg. The Exchange proposes to define a “nonconforming complex order” as (a) a complex order with a ratio on the options legs less than one-to-three (.333) or greater than three-to-one (3.00) and (b) a stock-option order with a ratio greater than eight-to-one (8.00), where the ratio represents the total number of units of the underlying stock or convertible security in the option leg(s) to the total number of units of the underlying stock or convertible security in the stock leg.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed definitions of conforming and nonconforming complex orders each provide that, for the purpose of applying these ratios to complex orders comprised of legs for both mini-options and standard options, ten mini-option contracts represent one standard option contract. These proposed ratio applications are consistent with the current definitions of complex order and stock-option order.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe Exchange, Inc. (“Cboe Options”) Rule 1.1 (definitions of “conforming complex order” and “nonconforming complex order”); and Miami International Securities Exchange, LLC (“MIAX”) Rule 518(a)(8) and (16) (defining “conforming ratio” and “nonconforming ratio”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         The proposed definitions of conforming and nonconforming complex order provide that, for the purpose of applying these ratios to complex orders comprised of legs for both mini-options and standard options, ten mini-option contracts represent one standard option contract.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The proposed rule change amends Rule 21.20(f)(2)(A) to incorporate the proposed definitions of conforming and nonconforming complex orders but makes no other substantive changes to this rule. These proposed changes are consistent with industry terminology regarding complex orders with these ratios.</P>
                <P>
                    Based on the definition in Rule 21.20 of complex orders, which includes stock-option orders, the Exchange's previous rule change was intended to apply to stock-option orders (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     to permit stock-option orders of any ratio to be processed).
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The reasons set forth in that rule change for expanding processing of nonconforming complex orders applies to all complex orders, including stock-option orders. However, the Exchange inadvertently did not 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11884"/>
                    update certain provisions specific to stock-option orders. Therefore, in addition to adding the proposed definitions of conforming and nonconforming complex orders, the proposed rule change updates the definition of stock-option order in Rule 21.20 to allow the Exchange to permit stock-option orders of any ratio to be processed (rather than stock-option orders in ratios no greater than eight-to-one (8.00)).
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This is consistent with the language currently included in the definition of “complex order” in Rule 21.20(a), the intent of which is to permit nonconforming complex orders (including stock-option orders) to be submitted for processing on the Exchange pursuant to Rule 21.20.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 9; and Exchange Notice, Cboe EDGX and C2 Options Introduce New Net, Leg Price Increments and Enhanced Handling for Complex Orders with Non-Conforming Ratios, dated July 1, 2022 (available at 
                        <E T="03">https://cdn.cboe.com/resources/release_notes/2022/Cboe-EDGX-and-C2-Options-Introduce-New-Net-Leg-Price-Increments-and-Enhanced-Handling-for-Complex-Orders-with-Non-Conforming-Ratios.pdf</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         The proposed rule change also amends the paragraph lettering in the definition of stock-option order to conform to the paragraph numbering and lettering scheme used throughout the Rules.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         The Exchange notes other options exchanges rules permit the electronic processing of nonconforming stock-option orders. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe Rule 5.33(b)(5) (definition of “stock-option order”); and MIAX Rule 518(a)(5) (definition of “complex order”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The proposed rule change also adds proposed Rule 21.20(f)(2)(B)(v) to state the System does not execute a stock-option order pursuant to Rule 21.20 at a net price worse than the SBBO or equal to the SBBO when there is a Priority Customer order on any leg comprising the SBBO and: (a) if a conforming stock-option order, at least one option component of the stock-option order must execute at a price that improves the BBO for that component by at least one minimum increment; or (b) if a nonconforming stock-option order, the option component(s) of the stock-option order for the leg(s) with a Priority Customer order at the BBO must execute at a price that improves the price of that Priority Customer order(s) on the Simple Book by at least one minimum increment, except AON 
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     stock-option orders may only execute at prices better than the SBBO. This is consistent with the permissible execution prices of conforming and nonconforming complex orders with only option components.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Therefore, execution of all conforming and nonconforming complex orders, including stock-option orders, continues to protect Priority Customer interest on the Exchange.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.1(d)(4) for definition of “all-or-none” or “AON” orders.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.20(f)(2)(A)(iv). This execution priority is also the same as other options exchanges. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe Options Rule 5.33(f)(2)(B); and MIAX Rule 518, Interpretation and Policy .01(c).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The proposed rule change has no impact on the requirements for stock-option orders or how they may be executed. For example, all stock-option orders (both conforming and nonconforming) must satisfy the criteria set forth in the definitions of stock-option orders in Rule 21.20(b), as set forth above. Additionally, all stock-option orders must comply with the Qualified Contingent Trade (“QCT”) exemption.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange represents that its surveillances incorporate stock-option orders with all ratios, including nonconforming ratios.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.20, Interpretation and Policy .04.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirements that the rules of an exchange be designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest. Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirement that the rules of an exchange not be designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In particular, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change to adopt definitions of conforming and nonconforming complex orders (including stock-option orders) in Rule 21.20(a), and to incorporate these proposed definitions into Rule 21.20(f)(2)(A)(iv) will protect investors, as it incorporates into the Exchange's Rules terminology generally used in the industry to refer to complex orders with ratios equal to and greater than one-to-three (0.333) and less three-to-one (3.00) (conforming) and less than one-to-three (0.333) and greater than three-to-one 3.00 (nonconforming), and stock-option orders with ratios less than or equal to eight-to-one (8.00) (conforming) and greater than eight-to-one (8.00) (nonconforming). Therefore, the Exchange believes this proposed rule change adds transparency and reduces potential confusion within the Exchange's Rules. These definitions ultimately make no substantive changes to the rules and relate merely to terminology. The Exchange notes these definitions are substantially similar to definitions used in other options exchanges' rulebooks.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe Rule 1.1 (definitions of “conforming complex order” and “nonconforming complex order”); and MIAX Rule 518(a)(8) and (16) (defining “conforming ratio” and “nonconforming ratio”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change to provide for the processing of stock-option orders with any ratio will remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest, as it will eliminate confusion regarding what types of stock-option orders are permissible for processing. As noted above, when the Exchange amended its Rules to permit the processing of nonconforming complex orders, the intent of that amendment was to permit the processing of all nonconforming complex orders, including nonconforming stock-option orders. The reasons set forth in the Exchange's prior rule filing regarding expansion of processing of nonconforming complex orders applies to all complex orders, including stock-option orders; the Exchange inadvertently omitted updates to certain provision regarding stock-option orders to incorporate that change.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed rule change merely updates the definition of stock-option order to incorporate the same change that was made to the definition of complex order with respect to processing to provide consistency and transparency in the Exchange's Rules. As noted above, the proposed rule changes regarding execution of conforming and nonconforming stock-option orders are consistent with the Exchange's previously adopted rules regarding execution of other conforming and nonconforming complex orders, as well as the rules of other options exchanges.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 9.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe Options Rule 5.33(f)(2)(B); and MIAX Rule 518, Interpretation and Policy .01(c).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The proposed rule change also adds a provision in Rule 21.20(f)(2)(B) regarding the specific permissible execution prices for conforming and nonconforming stock-option orders, consistent with the execution pricing for other conforming and nonconforming complex orders, which further adds transparency regarding the execution of these orders on the Exchange. The Exchange believes the proposed rule 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11885"/>
                    change will add clarity, transparency, and consistency to its Rules, thus eliminating potential confusion about the permissible execution prices of conforming and nonconforming complex orders, which will ultimately remove impediments to and perfect the mechanisms of a free and open market and national market system, and in general protect investors. The proposed rule change will further remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, as it is consistent with the rules of other options exchanges.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe Rules 1.1 (definitions of “conforming complex order” and “nonconforming complex order”) and Rule 5.33(f)(2)(B); and MIAX Rule 518(a)(8) and (16) (defining “conforming ratio” and “nonconforming ratio”) and Interpretation and Policy .01(c).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The proposed rule change will permit the electronic trading of nonconforming stock-option orders but has no impact on the requirements for stock-option orders or how they may be executed. Execution of all conforming and nonconforming complex orders, including stock-option orders, will continue to protect Priority Customer interest on the Exchange. All stock-option orders (both conforming and nonconforming) must satisfy the criteria set forth in the definition of stock-option orders in Rule 21.20(b), which is described above. Additionally, all stock-option orders must comply with the QCT exemption.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange represents that its surveillances incorporate stock-option orders with all ratios, including nonconforming ratios.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 21.20, Interpretation and Policy .04.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes the proposed changes to update paragraph lettering and numbering of certain subparagraphs will benefit investors, as it conforms these provisions to the lettering and numbering scheme used throughout the Rulebook, which promotes consistency throughout the Rulebook and may ultimately reduce potential investor confusion.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.</P>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on intramarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act, as the proposed rule change applies equally to all Members. Therefore, any Member may submit conforming and nonconforming stock-option orders, which will all be handled by the Exchange in a uniform manner. Further, the Exchange's proposal will continue to protect Priority Customer interest on the Exchange.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on intermarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act, as it has no impact on the requirements for stock-option orders or how they may be executed. As discussed above, the proposed rule change merely updates certain rule provisions it inadvertently did not update in connection with a previous rule change. Additionally, the proposed rule change is consistent with the offering of other options exchanges.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange believes availability of conforming and nonconforming complex orders, including stock-option orders, may promote competition, as it provides investors with multiple venues at which to execute these orders, giving investors greater flexibility and choice of where to send their orders.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe Options Rule 5.33(f)(2)(B); and MIAX Rule 518, Interpretation and Policy .01(c).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes the proposed rule change to make nonsubstantive updates to lettering and numbering of subparagraphs will have no burden on intramarket or intermarket competition, as these changes are not competitive and merely conform these subparagraphs to the lettering and numbering scheme used throughout the Rulebook.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act 
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) 
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     thereunder, the Exchange has designated this proposal as one that effects a change that: (i) does not significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) does not impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) by its terms, does not become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act 
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) thereunder.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6). In addition, Rule 19b-4(f)(6) requires a self-regulatory organization to give the Commission written notice of its intent to file the proposed rule change at least five business days prior to the date of filing of the proposed rule change, or such shorter time as designated by the Commission. The Exchange has satisfied this requirement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act normally does not become operative for 30 days after the date of its filing. However, Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii) 
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     permits the Commission to designate a shorter time if such action is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest. The Exchange has asked the Commission to waive the 30-day operative delay so that the proposal may become operative immediately upon filing. The Exchange states that waiver of the operative delay will immediately eliminate potential confusion regarding the permissibility of conforming and nonconforming stock-option orders on the Exchange and will provide investors with an additional venue for executing nonconforming stock-option orders. The Exchange further states that the proposal is not novel because other options exchanges have substantially similar definitions of conforming and nonconforming complex orders, other options exchanges permit electronic processing of nonconforming stock-option orders, and the proposed execution pricing requirements for nonconforming stock-option orders are consistent with the execution pricing requirements of other options exchanges.
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange also states that the proposed execution pricing requirements will protect Priority Customer interest on the Exchange.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe Options Rules 1.1 (definitions of “conforming complex order” and “nonconforming complex order”) and 5.33(f)(2)(B); and MIAX Rule 518(a)(8) and (16) (defining “conforming ratio” and “non-conforming ratio”) and MIAX Rule 518, Interpretation and Policy .01(c).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As discussed above, the proposed definitions of conforming and nonconforming stock-option order are substantively identical to definitions adopted by other options exchanges.
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, the proposed execution pricing requirements for stock-option orders are consistent with the rules of other options exchanges.
                    <SU>34</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposal does not raise new or novel regulatory issues and will provide investors with 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11886"/>
                    an additional venue for executing nonconforming stock-option orders electronically. For these reasons, the Commission believes that waiver of the 30-day operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest. Accordingly, the Commission waives the 30-day operative delay and designates the proposed rule change operative upon filing.
                    <SU>35</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe Rule 1.1 and MIAX Rules 518(a)(8) and (16).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe Rule 5.33(f)(2)(B)(v) and MIAX Rules 518(c)(1)(iv) and (v) and MIAX Rule 518, Interpretation and Policy .01(c).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         For purposes only of waiving the 30-day operative delay, the Commission has also considered the proposed rule's impact on efficiency, competition, and capital formation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         15 U.S.C. 78c(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission will institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include File Number SR-CboeEDGX-2024-012 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to File Number SR-CboeEDGX-2024-012. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for website viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10 a.m. and 3 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-CboeEDGX-2024-012 and should be submitted on or before March 7, 2024.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>36</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>36</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03099 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-99512; File No. SR-NASDAQ-2024-004]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Listing Rules 5815 and 5820 To Modify the Deadline To Submit the Required Fee for a Hearing Request and To Remove Obsolete Language</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>February 9, 2024.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on January 30, 2024, The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC (“Nasdaq” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I and II, below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Listing Rules 5815 and 5820 to modify the deadline to submit the required fee for a hearing request and to remove obsolete language.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://listingcenter.nasdaq.com/rulebook/nasdaq/rules,</E>
                     at the principal office of the Exchange, and at the Commission's Public Reference Room.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    The purpose of the proposed rule change is to align the deadline to request a hearing contained in Rule 5815(a)(1) with the deadline to submit the hearing fee in Rule 5815(a)(3) so that both requirements are seven calendar days. Under the current rule, a company must request a hearing within seven calendar days of a Staff Delisting Determination, Public Reprimand Letter, or written denial of an initial listing application, but is allowed 15 calendar days to submit the required hearing fee. The extended period to submit the hearing fee was adopted originally to allow time for companies to mail checks for the payment. However, technology has become more efficient, and companies now can easily and inexpensively submit the required payment by wire or other electronic means, so there is no longer a need to wait for checks to be mailed and received. As such, Nasdaq proposes to modify the rule to require payment of the required $20,000 hearing fee within seven calendar days of the Staff Delisting Determination, Public Reprimand Letter, or written denial of an initial listing application to reflect the ease and speed with which 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11887"/>
                    payments may be made by wire or other electronic means. The change also will avoid circumstances where a company benefits from remaining listed for an additional eight calendar days after a hearing request is made due to a Staff Delisting Determination if the required fee is not ever submitted.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Rule 5815(a)(2) provides that if a company fails to timely request a hearing to review a Delisting Determination, the Hearings Department will take action to suspend trading of the securities and follow procedures to delist the securities. Delisting will also commence if a timely hearing request is made but the required fee is not paid timely.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The proposed rule change would also remove from Rules 5815(a)(3) and 5820(a) obsolete language that describes the fees applicable for hearings before a Hearings Panel and appeals to the Listing Council requested before February 10, 2023.</P>
                <P>The proposed rule change will become operative for Staff Delisting Determinations, Public Reprimand Letters, or written denials of an initial listing application issued after March 1, 2024. This will help assure that all affected companies have timely notification of the change in the deadline to submit the fee.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, in that it is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general to protect investors and the public interest, by shortening the current 15-day deadline for the hearing fee payments to align with the seven-day window for a company to request a hearing. This change reflects the ease and speed with which payments may be made by wire or other electronic means. This also will avoid circumstances where a company benefits from remaining listed for an additional eight calendar days after a hearing request is made for review of a Staff Delisting Determination if the required fee is not ever submitted.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed change to eliminate obsolete language from the rules will have no substantive impact but will enhance the readability of the Exchange's rulebook.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         footnote 3, 
                        <E T="03">supra.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because the proposal does not have a competitive impact. The proposal merely aligns the time to request a hearing with the time to pay the required fee, with both being seven calendar days, and improves the readability of the Exchange's rulebook by removing obsolete language that is no longer applicable. Each of these changes will affect all listed companies in the same manner and will have no impact on intramarket competition. In addition, the proposed rule change relates only to Nasdaq's review process and will have no impact on intermarket competition because other markets are free to structure their review processes as they see fit.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were either solicited or received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and subparagraph (f)(6) of Rule 19b-4 thereunder.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A)(iii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f)(6). In addition, Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii) requires a self-regulatory organization to give the Commission written notice of its intent to file the proposed rule change, along with a brief description and text of the proposed rule change, at least five business days prior to the date of filing of the proposed rule change, or such shorter time as designated by the Commission. The Exchange has satisfied this requirement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-NASDAQ-2024-004 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NASDAQ-2024-004. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for website viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10 a.m. and 3 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NASDAQ-2024-004 and should be submitted on or before March 7, 2024.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>9</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03101 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="11888"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-99507; File No. SR-CboeBZX-2024-011]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend its Equities Fee Schedule</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>February 9, 2024.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on February 1, 2024, Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc. (the “Exchange” or “BZX”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc. (the “Exchange” or “BZX”) proposes to amend its Fee Schedule. The text of the proposed rule change is provided in Exhibit 5.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Exchange's website (
                    <E T="03">http://markets.cboe.com/us/equities/regulation/rule_filings/BZX/</E>
                    ), at the Exchange's Office of the Secretary, and at the Commission's Public Reference Room.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend its Fee Schedule applicable to its equities trading platform (“BZX Equities”) by (1) modifying the rate associated with fee code RP; (2) modifying the criteria of Add Volume Tier 3; and (3) removing certain tiers from the Fee Schedule. The Exchange proposes to implement these changes effective February 1, 2024.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange first notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily direct order flow to competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive or incentives to be insufficient. More specifically, the Exchange is only one of 16 registered equities exchanges, as well as a number of alternative trading systems and other off-exchange venues that do not have similar self-regulatory responsibilities under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”), to which market participants may direct their order flow. Based on publicly available information,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     no single registered equities exchange has more than 14% of the market share. Thus, in such a low-concentrated and highly competitive market, no single equities exchange possesses significant pricing power in the execution of order flow. The Exchange in particular operates a “Maker-Taker” model whereby it pays rebates to members that add liquidity and assesses fees to those that remove liquidity. The Exchange's Fee Schedule sets forth the standard rebates and rates applied per share for orders that provide and remove liquidity, respectively. Currently, for orders in securities priced at or above $1.00, the Exchange provides a standard rebate of $0.00160 per share for orders that add liquidity and assesses a fee of $0.0030 per share for orders that remove liquidity.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For orders in securities priced below $1.00, the Exchange provides a standard rebate of $0.00009 per share for orders that add liquidity and assesses a fee of 0.30% of the total dollar value for orders that remove liquidity.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Additionally, in response to the competitive environment, the Exchange also offers tiered pricing which provides Members opportunities to qualify for higher rebates or reduced fees where certain volume criteria and thresholds are met. Tiered pricing provides an incremental incentive for Members to strive for higher tier levels, which provides increasingly higher benefits or discounts for satisfying increasingly more stringent criteria.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe Global Markets, U.S. Equities Market Volume Summary, Month-to-Date (January 23, 2024), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cboe.com/us/equities/market_statistics/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         BZX Equities Fee Schedule, Standard Rates.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Fee Code RP</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange currently offers fee code RP, which is appended to non-displayed orders that add liquidity to the Exchange using a Supplemental Peg Order.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Currently, orders appended with fee code RP are provided a rebate of $0.00170 per share in securities priced at or above $1.00. For securities appended with fee code RP priced below $1.00 the Exchange does not provide a rebate or assess a fee. Now the Exchange proposes to lower the rebate amount associated with fee code RP from $0.00170 per share to $0.00080 per share in securities priced at or above $1.00. The Exchange does not propose to change its pricing for orders appended with fee code RP in securities priced below $1.00. The Exchange notes that this change is being made in order to align the rebate associated with fee code RP with other fee codes on the Exchange that provide a rebate for non-displayed orders.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 11.9(c)(18). A “Supplemental Peg Order” is a non-displayed limit order that posts to the BZX Book and thereafter is eligible for execution at the NBB for buy orders and NBO for sell orders against routable orders that are equal to or less than the aggregate size of the Supplemental Peg Order interest available at that price.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See e.g.</E>
                        <E T="03">,</E>
                         BZX Equities Fee Schedule, Fee Codes HB, HV, and HY. Each of the aforementioned fee codes provides a rebate of $0.00080 per share in securities priced at or above $1.00 for non-displayed orders that add liquidity in Tapes B, A, and C securities, respectively.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Add/Remove Volume Tiers</HD>
                <P>
                    Under footnote 1 of the Fee Schedule, the Exchange offers various Add/Remove Volume Tiers. In particular, the Exchange offers eight Add Volume Tiers that provide enhanced rebates for orders yielding fee codes B,
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     V 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Y 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     where a Member reaches certain add volume-based criteria. First, the Exchange proposes to modify the criteria of Add Volume Tier 3. The current criteria for Add Volume Tier 3 is as follows:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         Fee code B is appended to displayed orders that add liquidity to BZX in Tape B securities.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         Fee code V is appended to displayed orders that add liquidity to BZX in Tape A securities.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         Fee code Y is appended to displayed orders that add liquidity to BZX in Tape C securities.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • Add Volume Tier 3 provides a rebate of $0.0027 per share in securities priced at or above $1.00 to qualifying orders (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     orders yielding fee codes B, V, or Y) where a Member has an 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11889"/>
                    ADAV 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     as a percentage of TCV 
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     ≥ 0.25% or Member has an ADAV ≥ 25,000,000.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         “ADAV' means average daily added volume calculated as the number of shares added per day. ADAV is calculated on a monthly basis.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         “TCV” means total consolidated volume calculated as the volume reported by all exchanges and trade reporting facilities to a consolidated transaction reporting plan for the month for which the fees apply.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The proposed criteria for Add Volume Tier 3 is as follows:</P>
                <P>
                    • Add Volume Tier 3 provides a rebate of $0.0027 per share in securities priced at or above $1.00 to qualifying orders (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     orders yielding fee codes B, V, or Y) where a Member has an ADAV as a percentage of TCV ≥ 0.30% or Member has an ADAV ≥ 30,000,000.
                </P>
                <P>The proposed modification to Add Volume Tier 3 represents a modest increase in difficulty to achieve the applicable tier threshold while maintaining the existing rebate. The Exchange believes that the proposed criteria continues to be commensurate with the rebate received and will encourage Members to grow their volume on the Exchange. Increased volume on the Exchange contributes to a deeper and more liquid market, which benefits all market participants and provides greater execution opportunities on the Exchange.</P>
                <P>In addition to the proposed modification to Add Volume Tier 3, the Exchange now proposes to delete Add Volume Tier 8 as the Exchange does not wish to, nor is required to, maintain such tier. More specifically, the proposed change removes this tier as the Exchange would rather redirect future resources and funding into other programs and tiers intended to incentivize increased order flow.</P>
                <P>
                    Additionally, under footnote 1, the Exchange offers five Non-Displayed Add Volume Tiers which provide enhanced rebates for orders yielding fee codes HB,
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     HV,
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or HY 
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     where a Member reaches certain add volume-based criteria. The Exchange now proposes to delete Non-Displayed Add Volume Tier 6 as the Exchange does not wish to, nor is required to, maintain such tier. More specifically, the proposed change removes this tier as the Exchange would rather redirect future resources and funding into other programs and tiers intended to incentivize increased order flow.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         Fee code HB is appended to non-displayed orders that add liquidity to BZX in Tape B securities.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         Fee code HV is appended to non-displayed orders that add liquidity to BZX in Tape A securities.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         Fee code HY is appended to non-displayed orders that add liquidity to BZX in Tape C securities.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirements that the rules of an exchange be designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest. Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirement that the rules of an exchange not be designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers as well as Section 6(b)(4) 
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     as it is designed to provide for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees and other charges among its Members and other persons using its facilities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As described above, the Exchange operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily direct order flow to competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive or incentives to be insufficient. The Exchange believes that its proposal to modify Add Volume Tier 3 reflects a competitive pricing structure designed to incentivize market participants to direct their order flow to the Exchange, which the Exchange believes would enhance market quality to the benefit of all Members. Additionally, the Exchange notes that relative volume-based incentives and discounts have been widely adopted by exchanges,
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     including the Exchange,
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and are reasonable, equitable and non-discriminatory because they are open to all Members on an equal basis and provide additional benefits or discounts that are reasonably related to (i) the value to an exchange's market quality and (ii) associated higher levels of market activity, such as higher levels of liquidity provision and/or growth patterns. Competing equity exchanges offer similar tiered pricing structures, including schedules or rebates and fees that apply based upon members achieving certain volume and/or growth thresholds, as well as assess similar fees or rebates for similar types of orders, to that of the Exchange.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See e.g.</E>
                        , EDGX Equities Fee Schedule, Footnote 1, Add/Remove Volume Tiers.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See e.g.</E>
                        , BZX Equities Fee Schedule, Footnote 1, Add/Remove Volume Tiers.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In particular, the Exchange believes its proposal to modify Add Volume Tier 3 is reasonable because the revised tier will be available to all Members and provide all Members with an opportunity to receive an enhanced rebate. The Exchange further believes the proposed modification to Add Volume Tier 3 will provide a reasonable means to encourage liquidity adding displayed orders in Members' order flow to the Exchange and to incentivize Members to continue to provide liquidity adding volume to the Exchange by offering them an opportunity to receive an enhanced rebate on qualifying orders. An overall increase in activity would deepen the Exchange's liquidity pool, offer additional cost savings, support the quality of price discovery, promote market transparency and improve market quality, for all investors.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that the proposed changes to Add Volume Tier 3 are reasonable as they do not represent a significant departure from the criteria currently offered in the Fee Schedule. Further, the Exchange believes its proposed change to fee code RP is reasonable as this change does not represent a significant departure from the Exchange's general pricing structure. The Exchange notes that the proposed change to fee code RP are intended to align the rebate associated with Supplemental Peg Orders with existing rebates offered by the Exchange for other non-displayed orders adding liquidity to the Exchange.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange also believes that the proposal represents an equitable allocation of fees and rebates and is not unfairly discriminatory because all Members continue to be eligible for the proposed Add Volume Tier 3 and have the opportunity to meet the tier's criteria and receive the corresponding enhanced rebate if such criteria is met. Without having a view of activity on other markets and off-exchange venues, the Exchange has no way of knowing whether this proposed rule change would definitely result in any Members qualifying for proposed Add Volume 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11890"/>
                    Tier 3. While the Exchange has no way of predicting with certainty how the proposed changes will impact Member activity, based on the prior month's volume, the Exchange anticipates that at least one Member will be able to satisfy proposed Add Volume Tier 3. The Exchange also notes that proposed changes will not adversely impact any Member's ability to qualify for enhanced rebates offered under other tiers. Should a Member not meet the proposed new criteria, the Member will merely not receive that corresponding enhanced rebate.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Supra</E>
                         note 7.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposal to eliminate Add Volume Tier 8 and Non-Displayed Add Volume Tier 6 is reasonable because the Exchange is not required to maintain these tiers nor is it required to provide Members an opportunity to receive enhanced rebates. The Exchange believes its proposal to eliminate the tiers is also equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because it applies to all Members (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the tiers will not be available for any Member). The Exchange also notes that the proposed rule change to remove these tiers merely results in Members not receiving an enhanced rebate, which, as noted above, the Exchange is not required to offer or maintain. Furthermore, the proposed rule change to eliminate the tiers enables the Exchange to redirect resources and funding into other programs and tiers intended to incentivize increased order flow.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Rather, as discussed above, the Exchange believes that the proposed change would encourage the submission of additional order flow to a public exchange, thereby promoting market depth, execution incentives and enhanced execution opportunities, as well as price discovery and transparency for all Members. As a result, the Exchange believes that the proposed changes further the Commission's goal in adopting Regulation NMS of fostering competition among orders, which promotes “more efficient pricing of individual stocks for all types of orders, large and small.”</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes the proposed rule changes do not impose any burden on intramarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Particularly, the proposed modification to Add Volume Tier 3 and the proposed lower rebate associated with fee code RP will apply to all Members equally in that all Members are eligible for the modified tier and lower rebate, have a reasonable opportunity to meet the proposed tier's criteria and will receive the enhanced rebate on their qualifying orders if such criteria is met. The Exchange does not believe the proposed changes burden competition, but rather, enhance competition as they are intended to increase the competitiveness of BZX by amending existing pricing incentives in order to attract order flow and incentivize participants to increase their participation on the Exchange, providing for additional execution opportunities for market participants and improved price transparency. Greater overall order flow, trading opportunities, and pricing transparency benefits all market participants on the Exchange by enhancing market quality and continuing to encourage Members to send orders, thereby contributing towards a robust and well-balanced market ecosystem.</P>
                <P>Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposed elimination of Add Volume Tier 8 and Non-Displayed Add Volume Tier 6 does not impose any burden on intramarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Specifically, the proposed change to eliminate Add Volume Tier 8 and Non-Displayed Add Volume Tier 6 will not impose any burden on intramarket competition because the changes apply to all Members uniformly, as in, the tiers will no longer be available to any Member.</P>
                <P>
                    Next, the Exchange believes the proposed rule changes does not impose any burden on intermarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. As previously discussed, the Exchange operates in a highly competitive market. Members have numerous alternative venues that they may participate on and direct their order flow, including other equities exchanges, off-exchange venues, and alternative trading systems. Additionally, the Exchange represents a small percentage of the overall market. Based on publicly available information, no single equities exchange has more than 14% of the market share.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Therefore, no exchange possesses significant pricing power in the execution of order flow. Indeed, participants can readily choose to send their orders to other exchange and off-exchange venues if they deem fee levels at those other venues to be more favorable. Moreover, the Commission has repeatedly expressed its preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. Specifically, in Regulation NMS, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and SRO revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.” 
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The fact that this market is competitive has also long been recognized by the courts. In 
                    <E T="03">NetCoalition</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Securities and Exchange Commission</E>
                    , the D.C. Circuit stated as follows: “[n]o one disputes that competition for order flow is `fierce.' . . . As the SEC explained, `[i]n the U.S. national market system, buyers and sellers of securities, and the broker-dealers that act as their order-routing agents, have a wide range of choices of where to route orders for execution'; [and] `no exchange can afford to take its market share percentages for granted' because `no exchange possesses a monopoly, regulatory or otherwise, in the execution of order flow from broker dealers'. . . .”.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Accordingly, the Exchange does not believe its proposed fee change imposes any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Supra</E>
                         note 3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 51808 (June 9, 2005), 70 FR 37496, 37499 (June 29, 2005).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">NetCoalition</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">SEC</E>
                        , 615 F.3d 525, 539 (D.C. Cir. 2010) (quoting Securities Exchange Act Release No. 59039 (December 2, 2008), 73 FR 74770, 74782-83 (December 9, 2008) (SR-NYSEArca-2006-21)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act 
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and paragraph (f) of Rule 19b-4 
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     thereunder. At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11891"/>
                    the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission will institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-CboeBZX-2024-011 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-CboeBZX-2024-011. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for website viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10 a.m. and 3 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-CboeBZX-2024-011 and should be submitted on or before March 7, 2024.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>28</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>28</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03097 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-99508; File No. SR-CboeBYX-2024-005]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe BYX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend its Fee Schedule Regarding Periodic Auctions</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>February 9, 2024.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on February 1, 2024, Cboe BYX Exchange, Inc. (the “Exchange” or “BYX”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>Cboe BYX Exchange, Inc. (the “Exchange” or “BYX”) proposes to amend its Fee Schedule. The text of the proposed rule change is provided in Exhibit 5.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Exchange's website (
                    <E T="03">http://markets.cboe.com/us/equities/regulation/rule_filings/BYX/</E>
                    ), at the Exchange's Office of the Secretary, and at the Commission's Public Reference Room.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend its Fee Schedule applicable to its equities trading platform (“BYX Equities”) by modifying the rate associated with fee code AU in securities priced at or above $1.00. The Exchange proposes to implement these changes effective February 1, 2024.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange first notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily direct order flow to competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive or incentives to be insufficient. More specifically, the Exchange is only one of 16 registered equities exchanges, as well as a number of alternative trading systems and other off-exchange venues that do not have similar self-regulatory responsibilities under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”), to which market participants may direct their order flow. Based on publicly available information,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     no single registered equities exchange has more than 13% of the market share. Thus, in such a low-concentrated and highly competitive market, no single equities exchange possesses significant pricing power in the execution of order flow. The Exchange in particular operates a “Taker-Maker” model whereby it pays credits to members that remove liquidity and assesses fees to those that add liquidity. The Exchange's Fee Schedule sets forth the standard rebates and rates applied per share for orders that remove and provide liquidity, respectively. Currently, for orders in securities priced at or above $1.00, the Exchange provides a standard rebate of $0.00200 per share for orders that remove liquidity and assesses a fee of $0.00200 per share for orders that add liquidity.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For orders in securities priced below $1.00, the Exchange does not assess any fees for orders that add liquidity, and provides a rebate in the amount of 0.10% of the total dollar value for orders that remove liquidity.
                    <FTREF/>
                    <SU>5</SU>
                      
                    <PRTPAGE P="11892"/>
                    Additionally, in response to the competitive environment, the Exchange also offers tiered pricing which provides Members opportunities to qualify for higher rebates or reduced fees where certain volume criteria and thresholds are met. Tiered pricing provides an incremental incentive for Members to strive for higher tier levels, which provides increasingly higher benefits or discounts for satisfying increasingly more stringent criteria.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe Global Markets, U.S. Equities Market Volume Summary, Month-to-Date (January 26, 2024), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cboe.com/us/equities/market_statistics/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         BYX Equities Fee Schedule, Standard Rates.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Fee Code AU</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange currently offers fee code AU, which is appended to Periodic Auction Only 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or Periodic Auction Eligible 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     orders that are executed in a Periodic Auction.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Currently, the Exchange does not assess a fee or provide a rebate for any orders appended with fee code AU. Now, the Exchange proposes to modify the rate associated with fee code AU in securities priced at or above $1.00. The Exchange proposes to assess a fee of $0.00040 per share in securities priced at or above $1.00 for orders appended with fee code AU. The Exchange does not propose to implement a fee for securities appended with fee code AU in securities priced below $1.00. The purpose of introducing a fee associated with fee code AU in securities priced at or above $1.00 is for business and competitive reasons, as the Exchange has seen increased participation in Periodic Auctions and now seeks to implement a fee for Members 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     who choose to add liquidity designed to participate in a Periodic Auction. The Exchange notes that while it is adding a modest fee for securities priced at or above $1.00 appended with fee code AU, the fee remains lower than many of the fees assessed to liquidity-adding orders on the Exchange.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 11.25(b)(1). A “Periodic Auction Only Order” is a non-displayed limit order entered with an instruction to participate solely in Periodic Auctions pursuant to Rule 11.25. Periodic Auction Only Orders are not eligible for execution on the Continuous Book.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 11.25(b)(2). A “Periodic Auction Eligible Order” is a non-displayed limit order eligible to trade on the Continuous Book that is entered with an instruction to also initiate a Periodic Auction, if possible, pursuant to Rule 11.25.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         A Periodic Auction is a price forming auction that is executed at the price level which maximizes the total number of shares in both the auction book and the continuous market that are executed in the auction and does not interrupt trading on the continuous market. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 91423 (March 26, 2021), 86 FR 17230 (April 1, 2021) (SR-CboeBYX-2020-021) (“Periodic Auction Filing”). 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 94012 (January 20, 2022), 87 FR 4060 (January 26, 2022) (SR-CboeBYX-2021-024) (“Periodic Auction Amendment”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 1.5(n). The term “Member” shall mean any registered broker or dealer that has been admitted to membership in the Exchange.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         BYX Equities Fee Schedule, Standard Rates. 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         BYX Equities Fee Schedule, Fee Codes and Associated Fees.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirements that the rules of an exchange be designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest. Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirement that the rules of an exchange not be designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers as well as Section 6(b)(4) 
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     as it is designed to provide for the equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees and other charges among its Members and other persons using its facilities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(4)
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As described above, the Exchange operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily direct order flow to competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive or incentives to be insufficient. The Exchange believes the proposed amendment to the fee associated with fee code AU is reasonable as it does not represent a significant departure from the Exchange's general pricing structure. The Exchange notes that the proposed amendment to the fee associated with fee code AU represents a modest increase over existing prices and yet the proposed fee is lower than other similar fees assessed to orders that add liquidity to the BYX Book.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, the Exchange believes the proposed amendment represents an equitable allocation of fees and rebates and is not unfairly discriminatory because the fees will apply to all Members who add liquidity by submitting Periodic Auction Only or Periodic Auction Eligible orders, equally.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.</E>
                         EDGA Equity Fee Schedule, Fee Codes B, V, and Y.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Rather, as discussed above, the Exchange believes that the proposed change would encourage the submission of additional order flow to a public exchange, thereby promoting market depth, execution incentives and enhanced execution opportunities, as well as price discovery and transparency for all Members. As a result, the Exchange believes that the proposed changes further the Commission's goal in adopting Regulation NMS of fostering competition among orders, which promotes “more efficient pricing of individual stocks for all types of orders, large and small.”</P>
                <P>The Exchange believes the proposed rule changes do not impose any burden on intramarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed fees associated with fee code AU would apply to all Members equally in that all Members would be subject to the same fee for the execution of a Periodic Auction Only or Periodic Auction Eligible order during a Periodic Auction on the Exchange. Each of the Periodic Auction Only and Periodic Auction Eligible order types are available to all Members on an equal and non-discriminatory basis. As a result, any Member can decide to use (or not use) the Periodic Auction Only or Periodic Auction Eligible order type based on the benefits provided by such order types in potentially avoiding unfavorable executions, and the associated charge that the Exchange proposes to amend.</P>
                <P>
                    Next, the Exchange believes the proposed rule changes does not impose any burden on intermarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. As previously discussed, the Exchange operates in a highly competitive market. Members have numerous alternative venues that they may participate on and direct their order flow, including other equities exchanges, off-exchange venues, and alternative trading systems. Additionally, the Exchange represents a small percentage of the overall market. Based on publicly available information, no single equities exchange has more 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11893"/>
                    than 13% of the market share.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Therefore, no exchange possesses significant pricing power in the execution of order flow. Indeed, participants can readily choose to send their orders to other exchange and off-exchange venues if they deem fee levels at those other venues to be more favorable. Moreover, the Commission has repeatedly expressed its preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. Specifically, in Regulation NMS, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and SRO revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.” 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The fact that this market is competitive has also long been recognized by the courts. In NetCoalition v. Securities and Exchange Commission, the D.C. Circuit stated as follows: “[n]o one disputes that competition for order flow is `fierce.' . . . As the SEC explained, `[i]n the U.S. national market system, buyers and sellers of securities, and the broker-dealers that act as their order-routing agents, have a wide range of choices of where to route orders for execution'; [and] `no exchange can afford to take its market share percentages for granted' because `no exchange possesses a monopoly, regulatory or otherwise, in the execution of order flow from broker dealers' . . . .”.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Accordingly, the Exchange does not believe its proposed fee change imposes any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Supra</E>
                         note 1.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 51808 (June 9, 2005), 70 FR 37496, 37499 (June 29, 2005).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">NetCoalition</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">SEC</E>
                        , 615 F.3d 525, 539 (D.C. Cir. 2010) (quoting Securities Exchange Act Release No. 59039 (December 2, 2008), 73 FR 74770, 74782-83 (December 9, 2008) (SR-NYSEArca-2006-21)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act 
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and paragraph (f) of Rule 19b-4 
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     thereunder. At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission will institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-CboeBYX-2024-005 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-CboeBYX-2024-005. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for website viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10 a.m. and 3 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-CboeBYX-2024-005 and should be submitted on or before March 7, 2024.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>21</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>21</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03098 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-99511; File No. SR-NYSE-2023-36]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Order Instituting Proceedings To Determine Whether To Approve or Disapprove a Proposed Rule Change Regarding Enhancements to Its DMM Program</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>February 9, 2024.</DATE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>
                    On October 23, 2023, New York Stock Exchange LLC (“NYSE” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     a proposed rule change to amend its Designated Market Maker (“DMM”) program. The proposed rule change was published for comment in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on November 13, 2023.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 98869 (November 6, 2023), 88 FR 77625 (November 13, 2023) (SR-NYSE-2023-36) (“Notice”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On December 13, 2023, the Commission extended to February 11, 2024, the time period in which to approve the proposal, disapprove the proposal, or institute proceedings to determine whether to approve or disapprove the proposal.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission has received one comment 
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 99161 (December 13, 2023), 88 FR 87829 (December 19, 2023).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="11894"/>
                <FP>
                    on the proposal.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This order institutes proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to determine whether to approve or disapprove the proposal.
                </FP>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Letter from Thomas M. Merritt, Deputy General Counsel, Virtu Financial, Inc. (“Virtu”) dated January 29, 2024. Virtu supports the proposed rule change and states that it will: (i) level the playing field regarding access to information among different market participants; (ii) eliminate restrictions on cell phone communication from the floor and the prohibition on aggressing transactions during the close that will ensure that all participants engaging in market making are on the same footing; and (iii) attract new DMMs.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Summary of the Proposal</HD>
                <P>
                    As described in more detail in the Notice,
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Exchange proposes changes to its DMM program by (1) amending Rule 7.35B(d)(2) (DMM-Facilitated Closing Auctions); Rule 36 (Access to and Communication with Floor); Rule 76 (“Crossing” Orders); Rule 98 (Operation of a DMM Unit); Rule 103 (Registration and Capital Requirements of DMMs and DMM Units); Rule 103B (Security Allocation and Reallocation); and Rule 104 (Dealings and Responsibilities of DMMs); (2) deleting Rule 104A (DMMs—General) and Rule 106A (Taking Book or Order of Another Member); and (3) adopting a new Rule 104B establishing the DMM Unit Introductory Program in ETPs.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice, 
                        <E T="03">supra</E>
                         note 3.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 104 to eliminate DMMs' access to aggregate order information during Core Trading Hours 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     with exception for reopenings and to limit DMMs' ability to utilize and disseminate this information to other market participants on the Trading Floor 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     when it is provided by the Exchange.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, in order to facilitate openings and reopenings, the Exchange proposes to limit DMMs' access to non-public aggregate order information on an as-needed basis and only before the open or until a security opens for trading. Moreover, DMMs' access to aggregate order information to facilitate the Closing Auction 
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     would be only on an as-needed basis and outside Core Trading Hours. Further, revised Rule 104 would continue to permit DMMs to provide aggregate order information and post-trade information in response to an inquiry from a Floor broker, provided that aggregate order information can only be provided in response to an inquiry before the open or until a security opens for trading, or while trading is halted and only until a security is reopened for trading.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 1.1(d) for the definition of “Core Trading Hours.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 6A for the definition of “Trading Floor.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice, supra note 3 at 77631.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 7.35(a)(1)(C) for the definition of “Closing Auction.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange also proposes to amend Rule 76 to permit the Exchange to announce manual cross transactions. Namely, rather than perpetuating the current practice of a Floor broker verbally announcing a cross trade at a DMM post/panel and having a DMM acknowledge the Floor broker announcement, the Exchange would announce and acknowledge Floor broker cross transactions, thereby eliminating any interaction between a Floor broker and a DMM during cross transactions.</P>
                <P>
                    Based on these changes to Rules 104 and 76, the Exchange believes it would be appropriate to remove the restrictions in Rule 36 on a DMM unit's communications from the Trading Floor and the specific Rule 98 restrictions arising from the presence of Floor-based non-public order information. The Exchange also believes that these changes justify the elimination of the prohibition on Aggressing Transactions 
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in the final ten minutes of the trading day.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 104(d)(1)(A) for the definition of “Aggressing Transaction.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 36 to permit DMM units to use any telephone registered with the Exchange, including cellular or wireless telephones, to communicate with persons off the Trading Floor. A DMM would be permitted to engage in direct voice communication to an off-Floor location with any individual with whom telephone communications are permitted under Rule 98. DMM units would be required to: (i) register, prior to use any new telephone, including cellular or wireless phones, to be used on the Trading Floor; (ii) maintain records of the use of telephones and all other approved alternative communication devices, including logs of calls placed; and (iii) establish policies and procedures reasonably designed to ensure that use of telephones and alternative communication devices is consistent with all SEC rules and Exchange rules.</P>
                <P>
                    In addition, the Exchange proposes to delete current Rule 36.30 permitting DMMs to use a telephone connection or order entry terminal at the DMM's post to enter a proprietary order in an Investment Company Unit 
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or a Trust Issued Receipt 
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in another market center in either a component security of an Investment Company Unit or Trust Issued Receipt, or in an options or futures contract related to such securities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 5.2(j)(3) for the definition of “Investment Company Unit.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 8.200 for the definition of “Trust Issued Receipt.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>And related to the proposed changes to Rule 36, the Exchange also proposes to amend Rule 104(g) to permit employees of a DMM unit to communicate with a listed issuer contact from the Trading Floor via telephone or written electronic communications, consistent with Rule 36.30 and Rule 98.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange also proposes to amend Rue 98 to, among other things, delete the definition of “Floor-based non-public order,” 
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and delete the requirement to protect against the misuse of Floor-based non-public order information and the requirement to only permit access to Floor-based non-public order information to Floor-based DMM employees and individuals responsible for the direct supervision of the DMM's Floor-based operations. Instead, DMMs would be prohibited from misusing material, non-public information.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         Rule 98(b)(4) defines “Floor-based non-public order” to mean any order, whether expressed electronically or verbally, or any information regarding a reasonably imminent non-public transaction or series of transactions entered or intended for entry or execution on the Exchange and which is not publicly available on a real-time basis via an Exchange-provided datafeed, such as NYSE OpenBook® or otherwise not publicly available. Non-public orders include order information at the opening, re-openings, the close, and order information in Exchange systems that is not available via NYSE OpenBook®.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In addition, the Exchange proposes to redefine an Aggressing Transaction in Rule 104 as a purchase (sale) that reaches across the market to trade as the contra-side of the Exchange published bid (offer) priced above (below) the last consolidated trade. Currently, Rule 104 defines an Aggressing Transaction as a DMM unit transaction that is a purchase (sale) that reaches across the market to trade as the contra-side to the Exchange published offer (bid), and is priced above (below) the last differently-priced trade on the Exchange and above (below) the last differently-priced published offer (bid) on the Exchange.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange also proposes to make DMM re-entry, following an Aggressing Transaction, on the opposite side of the market at or before the applicable Price Participation Point (“PPP”) 
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     for that security to be more deterministic. Namely, rather than the current requirement that DMMs re-enter “commensurate with the size of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11895"/>
                    Aggressing Transaction,” the Exchange proposes to require re-entry to be in the same size as the Aggressing Transaction. Further, the Exchange proposes to eliminate DMMs' restriction against Prohibited Transactions—the prohibition on DMMs engaging in Aggressing Transactions during the last ten minutes prior to the scheduled close of trading.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         Rule 104(d)(3)(A) (PPP Guidelines) states that “[t]he Exchange will periodically issue PPP Guidelines that identify the price at or before which a DMM unit is expected to re-enter the market following an Aggressing Transaction. PPPs are only minimum guidelines and compliance with them does not guarantee that a DMM unit is meeting its obligations.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Finally, the Exchange proposes a DMM Unit Introductory Program in ETPs (the “Program”), which would be set forth in proposed Rule 104B(a). The Program would be open to all member organizations in good standing registered as a non-DMM Market Maker or a Supplemental Liquidity Providers on the Exchange. The Program is limited to exchange traded products and is designed to provide eligible member organizations with a 12-month ramp up period to becoming fully operational, Trading Floor-based DMM units. As proposed, during the 12-month Program period, DMM units and their DMMs would be subject to the duties and responsibilities set forth in Rules 104 and 98. Further, DMMs operating in the Program would be permitted to conduct business for the DMM unit such as entering orders and quotations for the account of the DMM unit during the Program. In addition, the proposed rule would provide that during the 12-month Program period, DMM units would not be required to comply with the requirements of Rule 35.20 
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     regarding personnel available to DMM units on the Trading Floor.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         Rule 35.20 requires each DMM unit to have (1) at least one employee approved by the Exchange for admittance to the Floor for every Post space assigned to the unit, and (2) an adequate number of additional approved employees to provide proper service during the trading day.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         The Exchange also proposes other changes, including: (1) deleting Rules 104(e) (Trading Floor Functions of DMMs) and (f) (Temporary DMMs); (2) deleting Rule 103B(III)(C) (DMM One Year Obligation); (3) deleting Rule 7.35(d)(2) (Publication of Manual Closing Imbalance); (4) deleting Rule 104A, Supplementary Material .50 (Equity Trading Reports); and (5) other technical changes described in the Notice.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Proceedings to Determine Whether To Disapprove SR-NYSE-2023-36 and Grounds for Disapproval Under Consideration</HD>
                <P>
                    The Commission is instituting proceedings pursuant to Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act 
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to determine whether the proposal should be disapproved. Institution of such proceedings is appropriate at this time in view of the legal and policy issues raised by the proposal, as discussed below. Institution of disapproval proceedings does not indicate that the Commission has reached any conclusions with respect to any of the issues involved. Rather, as described in greater detail below, the Commission seeks and encourages interested persons to provide additional comment on the proposal.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(2)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act, the Commission is providing notice of the grounds for disapproval under consideration. The Commission is instituting proceedings to allow for additional analysis of the proposed rule change's consistency with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which requires that the rules of an exchange be designed, among other things, to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest. In addition, Section 6(b)(5) of the Act prohibits the rules of an exchange from being designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers. Further, Section 6(b)(8) of the Act requires that the rules of an exchange not impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate under the Act.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(8).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange proposes a comprehensive change to its rules pertaining to the obligations of DMMs based on its contemporaneous proposal to eliminate DMMs' access to intraday aggregate order information except under certain circumstances and DMMs' interaction with Floor brokers during cross transactions. Chief among the changes, the Exchange proposes to eliminate the Prohibited Transactions rule; eliminate rules designed to mitigate concerns related to DMM communication from the Trading Floor with certain off-Floor locations; and eliminate rules designed to mitigate the misuse of Floor-based non-public order information.</P>
                <P>
                    Given the scope of changes proposed by the Exchange, the Commission analyzes the proposal in the context of the unique role played by DMMs on the Exchange, namely their role to assist in the maintenance of a fair and orderly market in securities for which they have been assigned responsibility as the DMM (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     the maintenance of price continuity with reasonable depth) and to facilitate certain transactions in their assigned securities, most notably the opening, reopening, and closing auctions.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     And because the Exchange's proposal would significantly alter the benefits and obligations of DMMs, the Commission takes into consideration questions as to whether the Exchange rules, as amended, would continue to strike an appropriate balance between such benefits and obligations, consistent with Section 6 of the Act.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         DMMs also have the affirmative obligation to maintain quotes in their assigned securities at the inside market a specified percentage of time. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Rule 104.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    One obligation that the Exchange proposes to delete is the negative obligation the Exchange currently imposes on DMMs to restrict aggressive trading in the last ten minutes before the close, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     Prohibited Transactions. This raises questions as to whether the elimination of Prohibited Transactions is both consistent with a DMM's obligation to maintain a fair and orderly market and, more generally, designed to prevent fraudulent or manipulative acts and practices. According to the Exchange, the deletion is appropriate because: removing DMMs' intraday access to aggregate order information would place DMMs on the same informational footing as all other market participants; the proposal would retain the re-entry requirement following an Aggressing Transaction; and there may be a variety of reasons related to the DMM unit's obligations to the marketplace for a DMM to quote aggressively in its assigned securities at the close. In light of the Exchange's arguments, the Commission seeks comments on whether commenters agree. Has the Exchange adequately justified how allowing DMMs to aggressively take liquidity and potentially move prices on the Exchange immediately before the closing auction is consistent with the Act and DMM obligations under Exchange rules?
                </P>
                <P>
                    Another issue raised by the Exchange's proposal is whether the changes are adequately designed to mitigate concerns related to access by DMMs to non-public information from the Trading Floor. According to the Exchange, based on its proposal to limit DMMs' access to aggregate order information intraday, and to remove DMMs from involvement in manual cross transactions, it is appropriate to delete the restrictions on DMM communications from the Trading Floor, including restrictions involving Floor-based non-public order information. Applying the same rationale, the Exchange also proposes to delete its rule prohibiting DMM communications with a listed issuer contact from the Trading Floor via 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11896"/>
                    telephone, and proposes instead to rely on the requirement that DMMs comply with current Rule 98 and the Exchange's proposed general requirement that DMM units establish policies and procedures reasonably designed to ensure that the use of communication devices is consistent with all SEC rules and Exchange rules. DMMs, however, have a unique position on the Trading Floor and would still have access to non-public aggregate order information—namely before the open or until a security opens for trading; while trading is halted and until a security is reopened for trading; and after the end of Core Trading Hours. DMMs would also continue to have the ability to observe negotiations and other interactions on the Trading Floor. Accordingly, Commission seeks comments regarding the sufficiency of the remaining Exchange rules to address concerns regarding the unique access to, and potential misuse of, non-public trading, issuer, and other information, including the Floor-based non-public order information as it is currently defined in the rules. Do the changes to remove DMMs' access to intraday aggregate order information and eliminate DMMs' involvement in cross transactions sufficiently limit DMMs ability to obtain non-public information such that prescriptive restrictions on DMM communication from the Trading Floor, including those listed issuer contact, is no longer necessary? Do they mitigate concerns that restrictions pertaining to Floor-based non-public order information are meant to address?
                </P>
                <P>In addition to the above requests for comments, the Commission also seeks comments regarding the Exchange's proposal relating to the following:</P>
                <P>1. The Exchange proposes to use the last consolidated trade rather than the last trade on the Exchange in the definition of Aggressing Transaction. The Exchange states that the last consolidated trade is a more meaningful benchmark for the underlying security. What effect would this change have for the operation of Rule 104?</P>
                <P>2. The Exchange proposes to delete Rule 104A in its entirety, including DMM recordkeeping and/or reporting obligations pertaining to securities, options, single stock futures, and foreign securities. According to the Exchange, it is appropriate to delete the rule as it is duplicative of Exchange and SEC books and recordkeeping requirements. Do commenters agree? Why or why not?</P>
                <P>3. The Exchange also proposes to delete in Rule 36.30 the provision that stipulates that DMMs can only enter proprietary order in Component Securities of Investment Company Units or Trust Issued Receipts for the purpose of hedging a position in the Investment Company Units or Trust Issued Receipts. According to the Exchange, this provision is obsolete but does not explain why. Do commenters agree with the Exchange's statement that the provision is obsolete?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Procedure: Request for Written Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    The Commission requests that interested persons provide written submissions of their views, data, and arguments with respect to the issues identified above, as well as any other concerns they may have with the proposal. In particular, the Commission invites the written views of interested persons concerning whether the proposal is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) 
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     of the Act or any other provision of the Act, or the rules and regulations thereunder. Although there do not appear to be any issues relevant to approval or disapproval that would be facilitated by an oral presentation of views, data, and arguments, the Commission will consider, pursuant to Rule 19b-4 under the Act,
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     any request for an opportunity to make an oral presentation.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         Rule 700(c)(2) of the Commission's Rules of Practice provides that “[t]he Commission, in its sole discretion, may determine whether any issues relevant to approval or disapproval would be facilitated by the opportunity for an oral presentation of views.” 17 CFR 201.700(c)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments regarding whether the proposal should be approved or disapproved by March 7, 2024. Any person who wishes to file a rebuttal to any other person's submission must file that rebuttal by March 21, 2024.</P>
                <P>Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-NYSE-2023-36 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <P>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSE-2023-36. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for website viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10 a.m. and 3 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. All comments received will be posted without change. Persons submitting comments are cautioned that we do not redact or edit personal identifying information from comment submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-NYSE-2023-36 and should be submitted by March 7, 2024. Rebuttal comments should be submitted by March 21, 2024.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>26</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>26</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03100 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice: 12332]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Individual, Corporate or Foundation, and Government Donor Letter Applications</SUBJECT>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of request for public comment and submission to OMB of proposed collection of information.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Department of State has submitted the information collection described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 we are requesting comments on this collection from all interested individuals and organizations. The 
                        <PRTPAGE P="11897"/>
                        purpose of this Notice is to allow 30 days for public comment.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments up to March 18, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Direct requests for additional information regarding the collection listed in this notice, including requests for copies of the proposed collection instrument and supporting documents, to Chanel Wallace who may be reached on (202) 647-7730 or at 
                        <E T="03">WallaceCR2@state.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Title of Information Collection:</E>
                     Individual, Corporate or Foundation and Government Donor Letter Application.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1405-0218.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Extension of a Currently Approved Collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Originating Office:</E>
                     Office of Emergencies in the Diplomatic and Consular Service (EDCS).
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     Donor Form—Individual (DS-4273), Donor Form—Corporate or Foundation (DS-4272), Donor Form—Government (DS-4271).
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Individuals, Corporations, or Foundations that make donations to the Department.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     5,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses:</E>
                     5,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Average Time per Response:</E>
                     10 minutes per response.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Burden Time:</E>
                     833 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Obligation to Respond:</E>
                     Mandatory.
                </P>
                <P>We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:</P>
                <P>• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.</P>
                <P>• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.</P>
                <P>• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.</P>
                <P>• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>Please note that comments submitted in response to this Notice are public record. Before including any detailed personal information, you should be aware that your comments as submitted, including your personal information, will be available for public review.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abstract of Proposed Collection</HD>
                <P>The Office of Emergencies in the Diplomatic and Consular Service (EDCS) manages the solicitation and acceptance of gifts to the U.S. Department of State. The information requested via donor letters is a necessary first step to accepting donations. The information is sought pursuant to 22 U.S.C. 2697, 5 U.S.C. 7324 and 22 CFR part 3, and will be used by EDCS's Gift Fund Coordinator to demonstrate the donor's intention to donate either an in-kind or monetary gift to the Department. This information is mandatory and must be completed before the gift is received by the Department.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Methodology</HD>
                <P>
                    The information collection forms are available electronically via the State Department's Intranet website (
                    <E T="03">https://myapps.servicenowservices</E>
                    ) for program offices who have authority to solicit or accept donations on behalf of the Department. Donors can also request and complete hard copies of the form if internet access is not available. After completion, the donor mails all forms to EDCS.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Crystal F. Jobe, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Gift Funds and K Fund Coordinator, CGFS/ECDS, Department of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03184 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-37-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice: 12327]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Office of the Chief of Protocol; Gifts to Federal Employees From Foreign Government Sources Reported to Employing Agencies in Calendar Year 2022</SUBJECT>
                <P>All information reported to the Office of the Chief of Protocol, including gift appraisal and donor information, is the responsibility of the employing agency, in accordance with applicable law and GSA regulations.</P>
                <P>The Office of the Chief of Protocol, Department of State, submits the following comprehensive listing of the statements which, as required by law, federal employees filed with their employing agencies during calendar year 2022 concerning gifts received from foreign government sources. The compilation includes reports of both tangible gifts and gifts of travel or travel expenses of more than minimal value, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 7432 and GSA regulations. For calendar year 2022 (January 1, 2022 through December 31, 2022), minimal value is $415.00.</P>
                <P>Pursuant to Title 22 of the Code of Federal Regulations Section 3.4, the report includes all gifts given on a single occasion when the aggregate value of those gifts exceeds minimal value. Also included are gifts received in previous years including two from 2019, three from 2020, and nineteen from 2021. These latter gifts are being reported in this year's report for calendar year 2022 because the Office of the Chief of Protocol, Department of State, did not receive the relevant information at the time of reporting to include them in earlier reports. Agencies not listed in this report either did not receive relevant gifts during the calendar year, did not transmit a listing to the Secretary of State of all statements filed during the preceding year by the employees of that agency pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 7432(f)(1), or did not respond to the State Department's Office of the Chief of Protocol's request for data. The U.S. Senate maintains an internal minimal value of $100; therefore, all gifts over the $100 limit are furnished in the U.S. Senate report.</P>
                <P>
                    Publication of this listing in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     is required by section 7342(f) of Title 5, United States Code, as added by section 515(a)(1) of the Foreign Relations Authorization Act, Fiscal Year 1978 (Pub. L. 95-105, August 17, 1977, 91 Stat. 865).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>John R. Bass,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Under Secretary for Management, U.S. Department of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <PRTPAGE P="11898"/>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,xl50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Agency: The White House—Executive Office of the President</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Report of Tangible Gifts Furnished by the White House—Executive Office of the President]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Name and title of person accepting
                            <LI>the gift on behalf of the</LI>
                            <LI>U.S. Government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Gift, date of acceptance on behalf
                            <LI>of the U.S. Government,</LI>
                            <LI>estimated value, and current</LI>
                            <LI>disposition or location</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Identity of foreign donor
                            <LI>and government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Circumstances justifying
                            <LI>acceptance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Painting titled “At Parika Stelling (Guyana).” Rec'd—3/2/2022. Est. Value—$650.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Mohamed Irfaan Ali, President of the Co-operative Republic of Guyana</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Basket made of Werregue Fiber, Handwoven Hammock. Rec'd—3/24/2022. Est. Value—$600.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Iván Duque, President of the Republic of Colombia</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>“Nekhbet Collar” Reproduction. Rec'd—4/29/2022. Est. Value—$1,530.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Abdel Fattah Al-Sisi, President of the Arab Republic of Egypt</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Gold-plated Basket. Rec'd—5/13/2022. Est. Value—$490.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Majesty Sultan Haji Hassanal Bolkiah Mu'izzaddin Waddaulah Ibni Al-Marhum Sultan Haji Omar 'Ali Saifuddien Sa'adul Khairi Waddien, Sultan and Yang Di-Pertuan of Brunei Darussalam</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Sterling Silver Plate with Wood Stand Rec'd—5/13/2022. Est. Value—$420.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Hun Sen, Prime Minister of the Kingdom of Cambodia</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Navy Blue Silk. Rec'd—5/13/2022. Est. Value—$420.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Pham Minh Chinh, Prime Minister of the Socialist Republic of Vietnam</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Footed Bowl Stamped “PAMPALONI 825” with Stand. Rec'd—5/16/2022. Est. Value—$9,585.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ms. Mareva Grabowski-Mitsotakis, Spouse of the Prime Minister of the Hellenic Republic</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Iittala Vase. Rec'd—5/19/2022. Est. Value—$425.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Sauli Niinisto, President of the Republic of Finland</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>“QATAR 2022/22 Joe Biden” Sports Jersey with “FIFA World Cup Qatar 2022” Identification Card. Rec'd—5/26/2022. Est. Value—$430.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Royal Highness Sheikh Tamim bin Hamad Al Thani, Emir of the State of Qatar</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Paper Scissor-cut Artwork. Rec'd—5/26/2022. Est. Value—$450.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Narendra Modi, Prime Minister of the Republic of India</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Painting Titled “Evening in Aranguez”. Rec'd—6/8/2022. Est. Value—$1,300.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Keith Rowley, Prime Minister of the Republic of Trinidad and Tobago</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bottle of “Appleton Estate Ruby”. Rec'd—6/8/2022. Est. Value—$1,200.00. Disposition—Perishable items retained for Official Use and/or disposed of pursuant to USSS policies.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Most Honorable Andrew Holness, Prime Minister of Jamaica</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Green Stone Sculpture. Rec'd—6/9/2022. Est. Value—$450.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Right Honorable Justin Trudeau, PC, MP, Prime Minister of Canada</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11899"/>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pottery Marked “Oscar Soteno E. Metepec. Mex.22”. Rec'd—6/10/2022. Est. Value—$700.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Marcelo Ebrard Casaubon, Foreign Secretary of Mexico</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Framed Artwork. Rec'd—6/21/2022. Est. Value—$2,180.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Pham Minh Chính, Prime Minister of the Socialist Republic of Vietnam</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>“Seoan” Reading Table. Rec'd—6/23/2022. Est. Value—$3,200.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Yoon Suk Yeol, President of the Republic of Korea</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Building Model by Royal Selangor. Rec'd—6/23/2022. Est. Value—$8,700.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Dato' Sri Ismail Sabribin Yaakob, Prime Minister of Malaysia</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Painting of Virgin Mary with Child. Rec'd—6/23/2022. Est. Value—$560.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Pedro Castillo, President of the Republic of Peru and Mrs. Lilia Paredes</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Abalone Shell Nativity Scene, Commemorative Mother-of-Pearl Plate. Rec'd—6/23/2022. Est. Value—$450.00. Disposition—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Lee Hsien Loong, Prime Minister of the Republic of Singapore</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>“Mere” Māori Battle Axe, Thomas Hansen of Tauranga Moana Area Footed Bowl. Rec'd—6/24/2022. Est. Value—$2,870.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Right Honorable Jacinda Ardern, Prime Minister and Minister of National Security and Intelligence of New Zealand</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Set of 6 Crystal Tumblers, Commemorative Coins. Rec'd—7/8/2022. Est. Value—$440.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Majesty Felipe VI, King of Spain</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Israeli Presidential Medal of Honor, Hardcover Book, Certificate. Rec'd—7/13/2022. Est. Value—$590.00. Disposition—Book and Certificate transferred to NARA, Medal of Honor official use on display in the West Wing.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Isaac Herzog, President of the State Israel</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>2 Scene Shadowbox, “State of Palestine” Photobook. Rec'd—7/15/2022. Est. Value—$2,740.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Mahmoud Abbas, President of the Palestinian Authority</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Olive Wood Nativity Scene. Rec'd—7/15/2022. Est. Value—$9,760.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mr. Hanna Hanania, Mayor of Bethlehem, Palestinian Authority</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Wool Ground Mat, Kuwaiti Drinking and Clothing Set. Rec'd—7/16/2022. Est. Value—$680.00. Disposition—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Highness, Sheikh Mishaal Al-Ahmed Al-Jaber Al-Sabah, Crown Prince of the State of Kuwait</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11900"/>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>2 Volume Book Set, 3 “AlUla” Books by Assouline, Wooden Presentation Box, 3 Bottles of Olive Oil, 2 Bags of Coffee, Cotton Washcloths, 2 Glass Serving Trays, 12 Rogaska of Slovenia Crystal Containers, Clear Glass Jar, Rogaska of Slovenia Tray and Serving Tray, Incense Burner. Rec'd—7/16/2022. Est. Value—$34,860.00. Disposition—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Royal Highness Muhammad bin Salman bin Abdulaziz Al Saud, Crown Prince, Deputy Prime Minister, and Minister of Defense of the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Wood Bowl. Rec'd—7/28/2022. Est. Value—$790.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Majesty King Abdullah II ibn Al Hussein, King of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Yellow Gold Brooch, Guyana Flag Lapel Pin. Rec'd—8/8/2022. Est. Value—$736.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Mohamed Irfaan Ali, President of the Co-operative Republic of Guyana</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>2 Coffee Table Books, Drink Set, 2 Books by Nelson Mandela, Wood Box. Rec'd—9/16/2022. Est. Value—$997.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Matamela Cyril Ramaphosa, President of the Republic of South Africa</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pair of South Sea Cufflinks. Rec'd—9/21/2022. Est. Value—$3,700.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Ferdinand R. Marcos, Jr., President of the Republic of Philippines</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Photo Album, Framed Relief of the Old City. Rec'd—10/31/2022. Est. Value—$585.00. Disposition—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Isaac Herzog, President of the State of Israel</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Metal Ankh. Rec'd—11/10/2022. Est. Value—$2,430.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>President Abdel Fattah Al-Sisi, President of the Arab Republic of Egypt</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>ASEAN 2022 Watch, Briefcase Set with Notebook and Pen. Rec'd—11/11/2022. Est. Value—$1,790.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Hun Sen, Prime Minister of the Kingdom of Cambodia</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Blue Shirt, Orange Multi-Colored Shirt by Kwong Tung, Blue Multi-Colored Shirt by Kwong Tung. Rec'd—11/12/2022. Est. Value—$710.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>ASEAN East Asia Summit 2022 Host Committee, Government of the Kingdom of Cambodia</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Traditional Dagger with Carvings. Rec'd—11/14/2022. Est. Value—$3,200.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Joko Widodo, President of the Republic of Indonesia</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Blue Batik, G20 Notebook Cover, Leather Briefcase with iPad, Silver Horn, Pin. Rec'd—11/15/2022. Est. Value—$14,344.00. Disposition—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>G20 Host Committee, Government of the Republic of Indonesia</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11901"/>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Painting Titled “Orange Patterns”. Rec'd—11/21/2022. Est. Value—$2,400.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Volodymyr Zelenskyy, President of Ukraine</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Christofle Silver Bowl, Grande Nautic Ski GMT Watch, Book “Revolution”, Bottle of Armagnac 1942 Reserve Joseph. Rec'd—11/30/2022. Est. Value—$1,016.00. Disposition—Watch Purchased, Bowl and Book pending transfer to NARA, Perishable items retained for Official Use and/or disposed of pursuant to USSS policies.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Emmanuel Macron, President of the French Republic and Mrs. Brigitte Macron</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Panama Style Hat by Signes of Ecuador, Alpaca Fur Scarf. Rec'd—Unknown. Est. Value—$570.00. Disposition—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Guillermo Lasso, President of the Republic of Ecuador</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States and Dr. Jill Biden, First Lady of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Painting Depicting Cityscape. Rec'd—1/12/2022. Est. Value—$900.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Khazar Ibrahim, Ambassador of Azerbaijan to the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Joseph R. Biden Jr., President of the United States, Dr. Jill Biden, First Lady of the United States of America</ENT>
                        <ENT>2 Rose Quartz Hummingbirds Artwork. Rec'd—6/23/2022. Est. Value—$890.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Jair Bolsonaro, President of the Federative Republic of Brazil</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Dr. Jill Biden</ENT>
                        <ENT>Table Linens with 4 Napkins, Gold Brooch and Earrings. Rec'd—5/9/2022. Est. Value—$570.00. Disposition—NARA (Linens), Retained for Personal Use (Jewelry).</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mrs. Olena Zelenska, First Lady of Ukraine</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Dr. Jill Biden</ENT>
                        <ENT>Taytta of Ecuador Hat, Painting of Dr. Biden, Tote Bag, Print of Dr. Biden. Rec'd—6/23/2022. Est. Value—$1,847.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Her Excellency Ivonne A-Baki, Ambassador of the Republic of Ecuador to the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Dr. Jill Biden</ENT>
                        <ENT>Black Shawl by Torath Shop, Long Sleeve Jacket by Torath Shop Rec'd—8/22/2022. Est. Value—$594.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Mahmoud Abbas, President of the Palestinian Authority</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Dr. Jill Biden</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pair of South Sea Pearl Earrings. Rec'd—9/21/2022. Est. Value—$3,180.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mrs. Louise Araneta-Marcos, First Lady of the Republic of the Philippines</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Dr. Jill Biden</ENT>
                        <ENT>Heden Clutch with Metal Chain. Rec'd—9/21/2022. Est. Value—$780.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Her Majesty Letizia, Queen of Spain</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Dr. Jill Biden</ENT>
                        <ENT>White Marble Dish, Diamond and Gold Bracelet. Rec'd—10/20/2022. Est. Value—$460.00. Disposition—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mrs. Mareva Mitsotakis, Spouse of the Prime Minister of the Hellenic Republic</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Dr. Jill Biden</ENT>
                        <ENT>18k Gold Pin. Rec'd—10/31/2022. Est. Value—$670.00. Disposition—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable James Marape, MP, Prime Minister of the Republic of Papua New Guinea</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Dr. Jill Biden</ENT>
                        <ENT>Gold Pin with Pearl, Scarf Set. Rec'd—11/12/2022. Est. Value—$605.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>G20 Host Committee, Government of the Republic of Indonesia</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11902"/>
                        <ENT I="01">Dr. Jill Biden</ENT>
                        <ENT>Dior handbag, Saint Jame L'Atelier Sweater, “The Plaque, The Fall, Exile, and The Kingdom, and Selected Essays” Book, “Madam Bovary” Book. Rec'd—11/30/2022. Est. Value—$5,832.00. Disposition—Handbag official Use in East Wing, Sweater—Retained for Personal Use, Books—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Emmanuel Macron, President of the French Republic and Mrs. Brigitte Macron</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Dr. Jill Biden</ENT>
                        <ENT>Silver Necklace by Patrick Mavros. Rec'd—12/16/2022. Est. Value—$675.00. Disposition—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mrs. Kobita Jugnauth, Spouse of the Prime Minister of the Republic of Mauritius</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Ronald Klain, Assistant to the President &amp; Chief of Staff</ENT>
                        <ENT>Herend Porcelain Tea Set. Rec'd—8/17/2022. Est. Value—$800.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Peter Szijjarto, Minister of Foreign Affairs and Trade to the Republic of Hungary</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Jacob Sullivan, Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs</ENT>
                        <ENT>Decorative Metal Plate. Rec'd—7/15/2022. Est. Value—$1,340.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Mahmoud Abbas, President of the Palestinian Authority</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Jacob Sullivan, Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs</ENT>
                        <ENT>Traditional Rug, Wood Plaque, Silver Filigree Box, Pashmina Wool Shawl, Leather Briefcase. Rec'd—8/12/2022. Est. Value—$450.00. Disposition—Transferred to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>General Qamar Javed Bajwa, Chief of Army Staff of the Islamic Republic of Pakistan</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Jacob Sullivan, Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs</ENT>
                        <ENT>Painting Titled “The Light Will Win”, Traditional Ukrainian Shirt, Order of Yaroslav the Wise Medal Set. Rec'd—11/4/2022. Est. Value—$1,429.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Volodymyr Zelenskyy, President of Ukraine</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Jonathan Finer, Assistant to the President &amp; Principal Deputy National Security Advisor</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ground Cover. Rec'd—11/2/2022. Est. Value—$780.00. Disposition—Transferred to U.S. Fish &amp; Wildlife Service</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Mohamed Ould Ghazouani, President of the Islamic Republic of Mauritania</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Jonathan Finer, Assistant to the President &amp; Principal Deputy National Security Advisor</ENT>
                        <ENT>Set of 2 Wristwatches. Rec'd—2022. Est. Value—$740.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Government of the Republic of Korea</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Yohannes Abraham, Deputy Assistant to the President, Chief of Staff, and Executive Secretary of the United States National Security Council</ENT>
                        <ENT>Tote Bag with 4 Silks. Rec'd—8/18/2022. Est. Value—$425.00. Disposition—Awaiting for proof of purchase before transfer to recipient.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Rosan Perkasa Roeslani, Ambassador of the Republic of Indonesia to the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Brett McGurk, National Security Council Coordinator for the Middle East and North Africa</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mother-of-Pearl Nativity Scene. Rec'd—10/26/2022. Est. Value—$450.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Mahmoud Abbas, President of the Palestinian Authority</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Edgard Kagan, Special Assistant to the President and Senior Director for East Asia and Oceania, National Security Council</ENT>
                        <ENT>Set of 2 Wristwatches. Rec'd—2022. Est. Value—$740.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Government of the Republic of Korea</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mr. Adam Farrar, Director for the Korean Peninsula and Mongolia, National Security Council</ENT>
                        <ENT>Set of 2 Wristwatches. Rec'd—2022. Est. Value—$740.00. Disposition—White House Gifts Office. Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Government of the Republic of Korea</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11903"/>
                        <ENT I="01">Unknown White House Staff</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mother-of-Pearl Nativity Scene. Rec'd—7/15/2022. Est. Value—$450.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Mahmoud Abbas, President of the Palestinian Authority</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,xl50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Agency: The Executive Office of the Vice President</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Report of Tangible Gifts Furnished by the Executive Office of the Vice President]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Name and title of person accepting
                            <LI>the gift on behalf of the</LI>
                            <LI>U.S. Government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Gift, date of acceptance on behalf
                            <LI>of the U.S. Government,</LI>
                            <LI>estimated value, and current</LI>
                            <LI>disposition or location</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Identity of foreign donor
                            <LI>and government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Circumstances justifying
                            <LI>acceptance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Kamala D. Harris, Vice President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Appleton Estate Ruby Rum. Rec'd—3/30/2022. Est. Value—$699.99. Disposition—Perishable items for official use and/or to be disposed of per United States Secret Service policy.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Most Honorable Andrew Holness, Prime Minister of Jamaica</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Kamala D. Harris, Vice President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Tanzanite and Gold Necklace and Earrings Set. Rec'd—4/15/2022. Est. Value—$1,568.00. Disposition—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Her Excellency Samia Suluhu Hassan, President of the United Republic of Tanzania</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Kamala D. Harris, Vice President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Large Silver Ornamental Box. Rec'd—5/13/2022. Est. Value—$925.00. Disposition—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Majesty Sultan Haji Hassanal Bolkiah Mu'izzaddin Waddaulah Ibni Al-Marhum Sultan Haji Omar 'Ali Saifuddien Sa'adul Khairi Waddien, Sultan and Yang Di-Pertuan of Brunei Darussalam</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Kamala D. Harris, Vice President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Beaded Blanket Depicting Colors of the South African Flag, Tea Set, Book: Tute—The Authorized Portrait, Book: Dare not Linger—The Presidential Years, and Book: Conversations with Myself. Rec'd—9/16/2022. Est. Value—$599.87. Disposition—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Matamela Cyril Ramaphosa, President of the Republic of South Africa</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Kamala D. Harris, Vice President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Rectangular Plaque of Metal Repose of Royal in River. Rec'd—11/18/2022. Est. Value—$1,100.00. Disposition—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Itthiphol Kunplome, Minister of Culture of the Kingdom of Thailand</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Kamala D. Harris, Vice President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>South Sea Pearl Necklace. Rec'd—11/22/2022. Est. Value—$2,400.00. Disposition—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Edward S. Hagedorn, Congressman, 3rd District, House of Representatives of the Republic of the Philippines</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Kamala D. Harris, Vice President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Hammer Shell Jewelry Box. Rec'd—11/28/2022. Est. Value—$485.00. Disposition—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Ferdinand R. Marcos, Jr., President of the Republic of the Philippines</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Kamala D. Harris, Vice President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Model Space Rocket and Scarf. Rec'd—12/01/2022. Est. Value—$745.00. Disposition—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Emmanuel Macron, President of the French Republic and Mrs. Brigitte Macron</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Kamala D. Harris, Vice President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Traditional Gold-Plated Bangles with Patterns &amp; Inscriptions. Rec'd—12/16/2022. Est. Value—$1,370.00. Disposition—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Mohamed Menfi, President of Libya</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11904"/>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Kamala D. Harris, Vice President of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Framed Mosaic Tile. Rec'd—12/28/2022. Est. Value—$780.00. Disposition—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Aymen Benabderrahmane, Prime Minister of the People's Democratic Republic of Algeria</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Kamala D. Harris, Vice President of the United States and Mr. Douglas Emhoff</ENT>
                        <ENT>Coin, Government House Book, Chan Soma Silk Tie, and Benjarong Style Tea Set. Rec'd—11/18/2022. Est. Value—$1,105.00. Disposition—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Prayut Chan-o-cha, Prime Minister of the Kingdom of Thailand</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mr. Douglas Emhoff</ENT>
                        <ENT>St. DuPont Gold and Blue Pen. Rec'd—12/01/2022. Est. Value—$450.00. Disposition—Transferred to NARA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Emmanuel Macron, President of the French Republic and Mrs. Brigitte Macron</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,xl50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Agency: Department of State</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Report of Tangible Gifts Furnished by the Department of State]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Name and title of person accepting
                            <LI>the gift on behalf of the</LI>
                            <LI>U.S. Government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Gift, date of acceptance on behalf
                            <LI>of the U.S. Government,</LI>
                            <LI>estimated value, and current</LI>
                            <LI>disposition or location</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Identity of foreign donor
                            <LI>and government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Circumstances justifying
                            <LI>acceptance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Antony J. Blinken, Secretary of State</ENT>
                        <ENT>Custom Guitar with Name Personalization. Rec'd—3/25/2022. Est. Value—$890.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Mohammed bin Abdulrahman Al-Thani, Deputy Prime Minister and Minister of Foreign Affairs of the State of Qatar</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Antony J. Blinken, Secretary of State</ENT>
                        <ENT>Moroccan Carpet and Green Presentation Box with Silver Desk Set. Rec'd—3/29/2022. Est. Value—$625.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Nasser Bourita, Minister of Foreign Affairs and International Cooperation of Morocco</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Antony J. Blinken, Secretary of State</ENT>
                        <ENT>2 Large Boxes of Dates and Decorative Sword with Metal Scabbard in Display Case. Rec'd—3/30/2022. Est. Value—430.88 Disposition—Perishable items discardrded. Pending Transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Abdelmadjid Tebboune, President of the People's Democratic Republic of Algeria</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Victoria Nuland, Under Secretary of State for Political Affairs</ENT>
                        <ENT>Home Fragrances and Moroccan Carpet. Rec'd—5/13/2022. Est. Value—$620.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Nasser Bourita, Minister of Foreign Affairs and International Cooperation of Morocco</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Leslie M. Tsou, United States Ambassador to Oman</ENT>
                        <ENT>Silver Arabic Coffee Pot, Rec'd—11/22/2021. Est. Value—$909.10. Disposition—Pending Transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Sheikh Abdullah bin Showain Al Hosni, Chairman Oman Human Rights Commission, Sultanate of Oman</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Steven C. Bondy, United States Ambassador to the Kingdom of Bahrain</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pearl and Gold Cufflinks from Al Mannai Jewelry of Bahrain. Rec'd—2/17/2022. Est. Value—$850.00 Disposition—Pending Transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Abdul Latif bin Rashid Al Zayani, Minister of Foreign Affairs of the Kingdom of Bahrain</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Herro Mustafa Garg, United States Ambassador to the Arab Republic of Egypt</ENT>
                        <ENT>Gift Set of Two Handmade White Wine Cups. Rec'd—8/11/2022. Est. Value—$518.75 Disposition—Retained for Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mr. Biser Borisov, Deputy Chairman, State Agency Technical Operations, The Arab Republic of Egypt</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Daniel Rosenblum, United States Ambassador to Uzbekistan</ENT>
                        <ENT>Silk Carpet. Rec'd—9/4/2022. Est. Value—$15,000.00. Disposition—Retained for Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Government of the Republic of Uzbekistan</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Yael Lempert, Acting Assistant Secretary of State for Near Eastern Affairs</ENT>
                        <ENT>Blue Box with Perfume Bottles and Appie Gift Box. Rec'd—3/29/2022. Est. Value—$490.00 Disposition—Pending Transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Nasser Bourita, Minister of Foreign Affairs and International Cooperation of Morocco</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11905"/>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Julieta Valls Noyes, Assistant Secretary of State for Population, Refugees, and Migration</ENT>
                        <ENT>Silk Carpet. Rec'd—10/11/2022. Est. Value—$1,200.00. Disposition—Retained for Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Muhammad Talha Mahmood, Member of the Senate of the Islamic Republic of Pakistan</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Asel Roberts, Acting Chief of Protocol of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Brooch. Rec'd—4/25/2022. Est. Value—$850.00 Disposition—Pending Transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mrs. Ayu Heni Rosan, Spouse of Ambassador of Republic of Indonesia to the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Cassandra Kildow, Attorney Advisor for Department of State</ENT>
                        <ENT>Rose Gold Necklace. Rec'd—10/26/2022. Est. Value—$600.00 Disposition—Pending Transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Elias Bou Saab, Deputy Speaker of Parliament, Republic of Lebanon</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,xl50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Agency: Department of Justice</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Report of Tangible Gifts and Gifts of Travel Furnished by the Department of Justice]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Name and title of person accepting
                            <LI>the gift on behalf of the</LI>
                            <LI>U.S. Government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Gift, date of acceptance on behalf
                            <LI>of the U.S. Government,</LI>
                            <LI>estimated value, and current</LI>
                            <LI>disposition or location</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Identity of foreign donor
                            <LI>and government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Circumstances justifying
                            <LI>acceptance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Merrick Garland, Attorney General of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Burberry Cashmere Scarf (Navy and Red) Rec'd—6/1/2022. Est. Value—$520.00 Disposition—Transferred to Justice Management Div for disposition.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mr. Mohamed Abdulaziz Al Nassr, Security Attache, Embassy of State of Qatar</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Bruce C. Swartz, Deputy Assistant Attorney General</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Lodging hotel room. Est. $886.64. Rec'd—11/15/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Wiesbaden German Government</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Kenneth A. Polite, Jr., Assistant Attorney General for the Criminal Division</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Lodging in kind for the G7 conference in Germany. Est. $598.00. Rec'd—10/4/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>G7 Host Committee, The Government of the Federal Republic of Germany</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mr. Cyrus T. Salamy, Assistant Special Agent in Charge, Los Angeles Field Division</ENT>
                        <ENT>Watch, Saint Honore Rec'd—5/16/2022. Est. Value—$675.00 Disposition—On Display for Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Brigadier General Ahmed Khalifa Al-Kuwari, Director of Anti-Narcotics General Administration Ministry of Interior of the State of Qatar</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mr. Christopher M. Wilson, Supervisory Special Agent, Los Angeles Field Division</ENT>
                        <ENT>Watch, Saint Honore Rec'd—5/16/2022. Est. Value—$450.00. Disposition—On Display for Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Brigadier General Ahmed Khalifa Al-Kuwari, Director of Anti-Narcotics General Administration Ministry of Interior of the State of Qatar</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mr. Kevin Adams, Assistant Special Agent in Charge, Las Vegas District Office</ENT>
                        <ENT>Watch, Movado Bold Rec'd—5/19/2022. Est. Value—$495.00 Disposition—On Display for Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Brigadier General Ahmed Khalifa Al-Kuwari, Director of Anti-Narcotics General Administration Ministry of Interior of the State of Qatar</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Brianna Brown, Assistant Special Agent-In-Charge Secretary, Las Vegas District Office</ENT>
                        <ENT>Watch, Movado Bold Rec'd—5/19/2022. Est. Value—$495.00 Disposition—On Display for Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Brigadier General Ahmed Khalifa Al-Kuwari, Director of Anti-Narcotics General Administration Ministry of Interior of the State of Qatar</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mr. Martin Lewis, Internal Revenue Service Group Supervisor Las Vegas District Office</ENT>
                        <ENT>Watch, Movado Bold Rec'd—5/19/2022. Est. Value—$495.00 Disposition—On Display for Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Brigadier General Ahmed Khalifa Al-Kuwari, Director of Anti-Narcotics General Administration Ministry of Interior of the State of Qatar</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Kristi Neilson, Intelligence Research Specialist, Las Vegas District Office</ENT>
                        <ENT>Watch, Movado Bold Rec'd—5/19/2022. Est. Value—$495.00 Disposition—On Display for Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Brigadier General Ahmed Khalifa Al-Kuwari, Director of Anti-Narcotics General Administration Ministry of Interior of the State of Qatar</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11906"/>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Katherine Harman-Stokes, Acting Director of Office of Privacy and Civil Liberties</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Two nights of lodging/two nights dinner and two days lunch. Est. $636.61. Rec'd—9/20/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Best Practices, Capacity Building and Network Initiative Project (BeCaNet); hosted by Sous-Direction Anti-Terroriste (SDAT), France; chaired by Bundeskriminalamt (BKA), Germany</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Julie Younts, Assistant Chief Inspector, Asset Forfeiture Division for the Criminal Division</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Airfare and lodging (received in kind) to attend the CARIN Steering Meeting and General Meeting in Madrid, Spain. Est. $1,662.43. Rec'd—10/21/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>European Union through the Camden Asset Recovery Inter-Agency Network (CARIN)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,xl50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Agency: Central Intelligence Agency</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Report of Tangible Gifts and Gifts of Travel Furnished by the Central Intelligence Agency]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Name and title of person accepting
                            <LI>the gift on behalf of the</LI>
                            <LI>U.S. Government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Gift, date of acceptance on behalf
                            <LI>of the U.S. Government,</LI>
                            <LI>estimated value, and current</LI>
                            <LI>disposition or location</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Identity of foreign donor
                            <LI>and government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Circumstances justifying
                            <LI>acceptance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable William Burns, Director of the Central Intelligence Agency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ceramic Statue. Rec'd—9/7/2021. Est. Value—$780.00 Disposition—Transferred to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable William Burns, Director of the Central Intelligence Agency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Red Silk Rug. Rec'd—10/4/2021. Est. Value—$1,000.00 Disposition—Transferred to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable William Burns, Director of the Central Intelligence Agency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Cufflinks with Gold Stripes. Rec'd—7/21/2021. Est. Value—$500.00 Disposition—Transferred to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable William Burns, Director of the Central Intelligence Agency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Rug and Painting. Rec'd—7/13/2022. Est. Value—$2,000.00 Disposition—Mission Display.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable William Burns, Director of the Central Intelligence Agency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pen and Necklace. Rec'd—9/20/2022. Est. Value—$800.00 Disposition—Transferred to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable William Burns, Director of the Central Intelligence Agency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Reticulated Silver Centerpiece with a Pair of Candlesticks. Rec'd—8/1/2021. Est. Value—$600.00 Disposition—Transferred to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable David Cohen, Deputy Director, Central Intelligence Agency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Men's Boutique Shirt. Rec'd—9/28/2022. Est. Value—$614.00 Disposition—Transferred to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable David Cohen, Deputy Director, Central Intelligence Agency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Men's Boutique Shirt. Rec'd—9/28/2022. Est. Value—$614.00 Disposition—Transferred to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable David Cohen, Deputy Director, Central Intelligence Agency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Women's Boutique Robe. Rec'd—9/28/2022. Est. Value—$784.00 Disposition—Transferred to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable David Cohen, Deputy Director, Central Intelligence Agency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Men's Boutique Shirt. Rec'd—9/28/2022. Est. Value—$614.00 Disposition—Transferred to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable David Cohen, Deputy Director, Central Intelligence Agency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Women's Boutique Tunic. Rec'd—9/28/2022. Est. Value—$784.00 Disposition—Transferred to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pen. Rec'd—10/26/2018. Est. Value—$815.00 Disposition—Transferred to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11907"/>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Inoperable Firearm. Rec'd—6/3/2019. Est. Value—$515.00 Disposition—Transferred to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Women's Watch. Rec'd—6/10/2020. Est. Value—$589.00 Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Inoperable Firearm. Rec'd—10/15/2020. Est. Value—$515.00 Disposition—Transferred to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Gift Set. Rec'd—1/23/2021. Est. Value—$1,600.00 Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Men's Watch. Rec'd—6/15/2021. Est. Value—$3,500.00 Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Saddle. Rec'd—7/5/2021. Est. Value—$5,000.00 Disposition—Mission Display.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Men's Watch. Rec'd—1/3/2022. Est. Value—$500.00 Disposition—Purchased.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pen. Rec'd—1/5/2022. Est. Value—$425.00 Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>190 Cookies from Upscale Bakery. Rec'd—1/18/2022. Est. Value—$700.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Silk Scarf. Rec'd—1/18/2022. Est. Value—$500.00 Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Silk Scarf. Rec'd—1/18/2022. Est. Value—$420.00 Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Men's Watch. Rec'd—1/18/2022. Est. Value—$3,000.00 Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bottle of Wine. Rec'd—1/25/2022. Est. Value—$2,300.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Gift Set. Rec'd—2/17/2022. Est. Value—$860.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>2 Bottles of Perfume. Rec'd—2/24/2022. Est. Value—$578.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Gift Set. Rec'd—2/24/2022. Est. Value—$1,649.00 Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Men's Watch. Rec'd—3/10/2022. Est. Value—$434.00 Disposition—Purchased.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Gift Set. Rec'd—7/13/2022. Est. Value—$605.00 Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ticket to Sporting Event. Rec'd—3/25/2022. Est. Value—$430.00. Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Gold and Emerald Necklace. Rec'd—4/1/2022. Est. Value—$1,500.00 Disposition—Purchased.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Framed Art/Picture. Rec'd—5/14/2022. Est. Value—$500.00 Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11908"/>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pen and Tie. Rec'd—5/15/2022. Est. Value—$860.00. Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Women's Watch. Rec'd—5/28/2022. Est. Value—$900.00 Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Under Arm Travel Portfolio Bag. Rec'd—6/3/2022. Est. Value—$515.00. Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Inoperable Fire Arm. Rec'd—6/7/2022. Est. Value—$515.00 Disposition—Pending Purchase.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Framed Original Oil Painting. Rec'd—6/7/2022. Est. Value—$527.00. Disposition—Mission Display.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Gaming Laptop. Rec'd—6/13/2022. Est. Value—$1,499.00 Disposition—Purchased.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Men's Watch. Rec'd—6/21/2022. Est. Value—$1,290.00 Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Gift Set. Rec'd—6/21/2022. Est. Value—$1,829.00. Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Gift Set. Rec'd—6/21/2022. Est. Value—$2,024.00. Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Men's Watch. Rec'd—6/27/2022. Est. Value—$500.00. Disposition—Purchased.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Women's Watch. Rec'd—6/27/2022. Est. Value—$1,475.00. Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Desk Agenda Cover. Rec'd—6/30/2022. Est. Value—$620.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Chocolate Gift Set. Rec'd—7/5/2022. Est. Value—$2,110.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pen. Rec'd—7/24/2022. Est. Value—$605.00 Disposition—Pending Purchase.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bottle of Alcohol. Rec'd—7/25/2022. Est. Value—$7,651.00 Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Men's Watch. Rec'd—8/1/2022. Est. Value—$1,000.00 Disposition—Pending Purchase.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Leather Satchel. Rec'd—8/16/2022. Est. Value—$600.00 Disposition—Pending Purchase.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Inoperable Firearm. Rec'd—8/30/2022. Est. Value—$550.00 Disposition—Mission Display.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Inoperable Firearm. Rec'd—8/30/2022. Est. Value—$555.00 Disposition—Mission Display.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Inoperable Firearm. Rec'd—8/30/2022. Est. Value—$555.00 Disposition—Mission Display.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Tickets to Sporting Event. Rec'd—9/7/2022. Est. Value—$715.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11909"/>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Two Inoperable Firearms. Rec'd—9/7/2022. Est. Value—$1,500.00 Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Tickets to Sporting Event. Rec'd—9/20/2022. Est. Value—$705.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Batik Cloth. Rec'd—9/29/2022. Est. Value—$600.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Tickets to Sporting Event. Rec'd—9/29/2022. Est. Value—$715.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Tickets to Sporting Event. Rec'd—9/29/2022. Est. Value—$1,415.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Women's Watch. Rec'd—9/29/2022. Est. Value—$2,000.00 Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Tickets to Sporting Event. Rec'd—10/3/2022. Est. Value—$3,537.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Personalized Sterling Silver Picture Frame. Rec'd—10/5/2022. Est. Value—$750.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>2′x3′ Wool/Silk Rug. Rec'd—10/6/2022. Est. Value—$700.00 Disposition—Mission Display.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ticket to Sporting Event. Rec'd—10/6/2022. Est. Value—$707.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Tickets to Sporting Event. Rec'd—10/23/2022. Est. Value—$2,830.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Tickets to Sporting Event. Rec'd—11/6/2022. Est. Value—$1,415.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bottle of Scotch. Rec'd—11/15/2022. Est. Value—$910.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ticket to Sporting Event. Rec'd—11/16/2022. Est. Value—$601.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ticket to Sporting Event. Rec'd—11/17/2022. Est. Value—$1,201.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ticket to Sporting Event. Rec'd—11/17/2022. Est. Value—$601.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Tickets to Sporting Event. Rec'd—11/18/2022. Est. Value—$601.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bottle of Scotch Whisky. Rec'd—11/19/2022. Est. Value—$2,683.00 Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11910"/>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Gift Basket of Food. Rec'd—12/12/2022. Est. Value—$533.00 Disposition—Destroyed.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">An Agency Employee</ENT>
                        <ENT>Gift Set. Rec'd—12/22/2022. Est. Value—$768.00 Disposition—Mission Display/Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>5 U.S.C. 7342(f)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,xl50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Agency: Department of Agriculture</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Report of Tangible Gifts Furnished by the Department of Agriculture]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Name and title of person accepting 
                            <LI>the gift on behalf of the U.S. Government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Gift, date of acceptance on behalf 
                            <LI>of the U.S. Government, </LI>
                            <LI>estimated value, and current </LI>
                            <LI>disposition or location</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Identity of foreign donor 
                            <LI>and government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Circumstances justifying 
                            <LI>acceptance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Thomas J. Vilsack, Secretary of Agriculture of the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Poland Oil Print—“Plock” by the Polish-“Hitchhiking”. Rec'd—7/5/2021. Est. Value—$616.54. Disposition—Purchased by the Secretary's Office for Personal Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Henryk Kowalczyk, Deputy Prime Minister and Minister of Agriculture, Ministry of Agriculture and Rural Development of the Republic of Poland</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,xl50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Agency: Department of Defense</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Report of Tangible Gifts Furnished by the Department of Defense]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Name and title of person accepting 
                            <LI>the gift on behalf of the U.S. Government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Gift, date of acceptance on behalf 
                            <LI>of the U.S. Government, </LI>
                            <LI>estimated value, and current </LI>
                            <LI>disposition or location</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Identity of foreign donor 
                            <LI>and government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Circumstances justifying 
                            <LI>acceptance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Lloyd J. Austin, Secretary of Defense</ENT>
                        <ENT>Book: “Above Two Seas: An Aerial View of the Kingdom of Bahrain” and William &amp; Son Desk Clock with Bahraini Seal in Presentation Box. Rec'd—3/2/2021. Est. Value—$435.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mr. Khaled Saad Ali Saad Almansoor, Assistant Military, Naval &amp; Air Attache, Embassy of the Kingdom of Bahrain</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Lloyd J. Austin, Secretary of Defense</ENT>
                        <ENT>A Carpet, Wool Shawl, and Letter Encased in Leather Album. Rec'd—6/25/2021. Est. Value—$589.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>General Qamar Javed Bajwa, Chief of Army Staff, Islamic Republic of Pakistan</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Lloyd J. Austin, Secretary of Defense</ENT>
                        <ENT>Plaque and 1821 Antique Pistol in Bespoke Presentation Box. Rec'd—7/18/2021. Est. Value—$485.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Nikolaos Panagiotopoulos, Minister of Defense of the Hellenic Republic</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Lloyd J. Austin, Secretary of Defense</ENT>
                        <ENT>Sterling Silver Tray and Silk Rug. Rec'd—10/4/2021. Est. Value—$3,060.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>General Qamar Javed Bajwa, Chief of Army Staff, Islamic Republic of Pakistan</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">General Mark A. Milley, Chairman of the Joint Chief of Staff</ENT>
                        <ENT>Battle Axe Replica Framed Assemblage, Book “Military Strategy of the Slovak Republic”, and Certificate. Rec'd—2/23/2022. Est. Value—$439.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>General Qamar Javed Bajwa, Chief of Army Staff, Islamic Republic of Pakistan</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">General Mark A. Milley, Chairman of the Joint Chief of Staff</ENT>
                        <ENT>Silk Rug, Leather Briefcase, and Cashmere Scarf. Rec'd—6/23/2022. Est. Value—$855.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>General Qamar Javed Bajwa, Chief of Army Staff, Islamic Republic of Pakistan</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11911"/>
                        <ENT I="01">General Mark A. Milley, Chairman of the Joint Chief of Staff</ENT>
                        <ENT>Scarf, Gold Plated Bracelet, and Tote Bag. Rec'd—9/17/2022. Est. Value—$647.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mrs. Anna-Maria Tsikrikoni, Spouse of the Chief of Defense of the Hellenic Republic</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">General Mark A. Milley, Chairman of the Joint Chief of Staff</ENT>
                        <ENT>Book: “Black Magic with Long Range Precision Rifle: Science and Art of Cold Bore Accuracy at Unknown Distances”, Shawl, Rug, and Silver-tone Tray. Rec'd—10/4/2022. Est. Value—$745.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>General Qamar Javed Bajwa, Chief of Army Staff, Islamic Republic of Pakistan</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">General Mark A. Milley, Chairman of the Joint Chief of Staff</ENT>
                        <ENT>Set of DVDs and a Bottle of “Kweichow Moutai”. Rec'd—12/20/2022. Est. Value—$685.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Major General Liu Zhan Chinese Defense Attaché, People's Republic of China</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Lt. General Scott D. Berrier, Director, Defense Intelligence Agency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Book: “Israel Skyview”, Chess Set, and Medallion. Rec'd—3/14/2022. Est. Value—$485.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Major General Aharon Haliva, Chief, Israel Defense Intelligence, State of Israel</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Dana Stroul, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Middle East</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ornate Silver Lamp in Green Presentation Box Engraved “16th US-Oman JMC”. Rec'd—3/24/2022. Est. Value—$730.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Mohammed Al-Za'abi, Secretary General, Sultanate of Oman</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Dana Stroul, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Middle East</ENT>
                        <ENT>3 Plaques. Rec'd—4/25/2022. Est. Value—$685.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bahraini Embassy Staff Member, Kingdom of Bahrain</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Vice Admiral Frank Whitworth, J2</ENT>
                        <ENT>Medallion, Plaque, and Scepter. Rec'd—7/25/2022. Est. Value—$500.00. Disposition—Awaiting Completion of Purchase Through GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Oleksii Reznikov, Minister of Defense of Ukraine</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Major General Burke Wilson, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for Cyber Policy</ENT>
                        <ENT>Sake of 12 White Porcelain Sake Cups in Leather Carrying Case. Rec'd—11/12/2019 Est. Value—$650.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Major General Chin-Pin Tsao, Air Force, Taiwan</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Lindsey Ford, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for South &amp; Southeast Asia</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pearl Necklace. Rec'd—11/11/2021 Est Value—$585.00. Disposition: Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Air Chief Marshal Shaikh Abdul Hannan, The People's Republic of Bangladesh</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Chidi Blyden, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense for African Affairs</ENT>
                        <ENT>Two Metal Horse Figurines. Rec'd—11/17/2021. Est. Value—$2,000.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Brigadier General Aime Simpore, Burkina Faso</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Admiral Christopher Grady, Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff</ENT>
                        <ENT>Steel Blade and Bottle Azerbayean Konyaki. Rec'd—11/28/2022. Est. Value—$430.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Colonel General Karim Valiyev, First Deputy Minister of Defense, Chief of the General Staff, Republic of Azerbaijan</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mr. Anthony Pascuma, Director of Middle East/Africa Commonwealth and Partner Engagement, Department of Defense</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bottle of Cologne, 5 Candles, Pearl Bracelet in Presentation Box, Tie Bar, and Metal Container with Scented Wax. Rec'd—11/30/2022. Est. Value—$660.00. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Shaykh Ali Bin Khalifa Al Khalifa, Director, Directorate of Military Intelligence, Kingdom of Bahrain</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="11912"/>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,xl50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Agency: Department of Army</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Report of Tangible Gifts Furnished by the Department of Army]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Name and title of person accepting 
                            <LI>the gift on behalf of the U.S. Government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Gift, date of acceptance on behalf 
                            <LI>of the U.S. Government, </LI>
                            <LI>estimated value, and current </LI>
                            <LI>disposition or location</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Identity of foreign donor 
                            <LI>and government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Circumstances justifying 
                            <LI>acceptance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">General Charles A. Flynn, Commanding General, United States Army Pacific</ENT>
                        <ENT>Art Painting Subhannahong Royal Brave on The River. Rec'd—9/15/2021. Est. Value—$751.00. Disposition—Official Use (Display).</ENT>
                        <ENT>General Narongpan Jittkaewtae, Royal Thai Army, Kingdom of Thailand</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,xl50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Agency: Department of the Treasury</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Report of Tangible Gifts Furnished by the Department of the Treasury]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Name and title of person accepting 
                            <LI>the gift on behalf of the U.S. Government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Gift, date of acceptance on behalf 
                            <LI>of the U.S. Government, </LI>
                            <LI>estimated value, and current </LI>
                            <LI>disposition or location</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Identity of foreign donor 
                            <LI>and government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Circumstances justifying 
                            <LI>acceptance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Janet Yellen, Secretary of the Treasury</ENT>
                        <ENT>Blue Blazer by Judith &amp; Charles. Rec'd—6/20/2022. Est. Value—495.00. Disposition—Transferred to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Chrystia Freeland, Deputy Prime Minister and Minister of Finance of Canada</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Wally Adeyemo, Deputy Secretary of the Treasury</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ceremonial sword in decorative case. Rec'd—5/31/2022. Est. Value—1,250.00. Disposition—Transferred to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Ali bin Ahmed Al Kuwari, Minister of Finance, State of Qatar</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mr. Andy Baukol, Counselor to the Secretary, Department of the Treasury</ENT>
                        <ENT>Nappa Dori laptop bag filled with gifts, including a small and large carved elephant figurine, a woven shawl, a silk necktie, an inlaid display plate, and a framed laser craved wooden mosaic. Rec'd—12/21/2022. Est. Value—$541.89. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Government of India</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mr. Jay Shambaugh, Under Secretary for International Affairs, Department of the Treasury</ENT>
                        <ENT>Nappa Dori laptop bag filled with gifts, including a turban, a carved elephant figurine, a woven shawl, a silk necktie, and a framed laser craved wooden mosaic. Rec'd—12/21/2022. Est. Value—459.65. Disposition—Pending transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Government of India</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Dr. Daniel Grodzicki, Financial Economist, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Travel and Accommodation to Economics of Payments (EOP) XI Conference in Ottawa, Canada. Rec'd—10/12-14/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Central Bank of Canada</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,xl50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Agency: U.S. Agency for International Development</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Report of Tangible Gifts Furnished by the U.S. Agency for International Development]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Name and title of person accepting 
                            <LI>the gift on behalf of the U.S. Government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Gift, date of acceptance on behalf 
                            <LI>of the U.S. Government, </LI>
                            <LI>estimated value, and current </LI>
                            <LI>disposition or location</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Identity of foreign donor 
                            <LI>and government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Circumstances justifying 
                            <LI>acceptance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Samantha Power, Administrator of the United States Agency for International Development</ENT>
                        <ENT>Large Blue and White Vietnamese Vase. Rec'd—5/13/2022. Est. Value—$972.19. Disposition—On Official Display.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Pham Minh Chinh, Prime Minister of the Socialist Republic of Vietnam</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mr. John Pennell, Director for USAID/Caucasus, United States Agency for International Development</ENT>
                        <ENT>Small Jewelry Sculpture Souvenir of Wine Making Made of Sterling Silver 925 (208.9 Gr) Enamel | Gold plated (24K) | Obsidian. Rec'd—10/3/2022. Est. Value—$650.00. Disposition—Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Otar Shamugia, Minister of Environmental Protection and Agriculture of Georgia</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11913"/>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Kathryn Stevens, Mission Director Bangladesh, United States Agency for International Development</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Transportation to Bhasan Char provided to USG (for both USAID and State's PRM)—five trips: Bhasan Char is an island where refugee housing was built. The only way to travel to Bhasan Char is through transportation provided by the GoB. Rec'd—3/16-17/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Government of the People's Republic of Bangladesh</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Kathryn Stevens, Mission Director Bangladesh, United States Agency for International Development</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Transportation to Bhasan Char provided to USG (for both USAID and State's PRM)—five trips: Bhasan Char is an island where refugee housing was built. The only way to travel to Bhasan Char is through transportation provided by the GoB. Rec'd—5/9/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Government of the People's Republic of Bangladesh</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Kathryn Stevens, Mission Director Bangladesh, United States Agency for International Development</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Transportation to Bhasan Char provided to USG (for both USAID and State's PRM)—five trips: Bhasan Char is an island where refugee housing was built. The only way to travel to Bhasan Char is through transportation provided by the GoB. Rec'd—8/28-29/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Government of the People's Republic of Bangladesh</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Kathryn Stevens, Mission Director Bangladesh, United States Agency for International Development</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Transportation to Bhasan Char provided to USG (for both USAID and State's PRM)—five trips: Bhasan Char is an island where refugee housing was built. The only way to travel to Bhasan Char is through transportation provided by the GoB. Rec'd—11/20-22/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Government of the People's Republic of Bangladesh</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Kathryn Stevens, Mission Director Bangladesh, United States Agency for International Development</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Transportation to Bhasan Char provided to USG (for both USAID and State's PRM)—five trips: Bhasan Char is an island where refugee housing was built. The only way to travel to Bhasan Char is through transportation provided by the GoB. GIFT OF TRAVEL: Rec'd—12/6/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Government of the People's Republic of Bangladesh</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="11914"/>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,xl50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Agency: U.S. House of Representatives</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Report of Gifts of Travel Furnished by the U.S. House of Representatives]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Name and title of person accepting 
                            <LI>the gift on behalf of the U.S. Government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Gift, date of acceptance on behalf 
                            <LI>of the U.S. Government, </LI>
                            <LI>estimated value, and current </LI>
                            <LI>disposition or location</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Identity of foreign donor 
                            <LI>and government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Circumstances justifying 
                            <LI>acceptance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Anna Eshoo, Member of Congress</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bottle of Ararat Brandy, Erato perfume, Artuyt scarf from Prime Minister Pashinyan; Bottle of Ararat Brandy, Megerian Brooch, Masoor scarf from Speaker Simonyan; Crystal paperweight from Defense Minister Papikyan. Rec'd—9/17/2022. Est. Value—$1,370.00. Disposition—Pending Transfer to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Government of the Republic of Armenia</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Jaya Khetarpal, Legislative Assistant and Staff Associate, United States House Foreign Affairs Committee</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Helicopter and Airplane Transportation to and from the Darien Province. Rec'd—10/4/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Government of the Republic of Panama</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Zakiya Carr Johnson, Professional Staff Member, United States House Foreign Affairs Committee</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Helicopter and Airplane Transportation to and from the Darien Province. Rec'd—10/4/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Government of the Republic of Panama</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mr. Alex Sadler, Senior Policy Analyst, United States House Foreign Affairs Committee</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Helicopter and Airplane Transportation to and from the Darien Province. Rec'd—10/4/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Government of the Republic of Panama</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Dorothy Clark, Legislative Assistant, Rep. Tom Emmer</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Transportation via chartered plane from Montreal to Raddison, Quebec. Rec'd—10/11/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Government of Canada, Hydro-Quebec</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Alexandra Heller, Legislative Assistant, Rep. Tom Emmer</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Transportation via chartered plane from Montreal to Raddison, Quebec. Rec'd—10/11/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Government of Canada, Hydro-Quebec</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Katie Morley, Senior Legislative Assistant, Rep. Adrian Smith</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Transportation via chartered plane from Montreal to Raddison, Quebec. Rec'd—10/11/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Government of Canada, Hydro-Quebec</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Leslie Shedd, Communications Director, United States House Foreign Affairs Committee</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Transportation via chartered plane from Montreal to Raddison, Quebec. Rec'd—10/11/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Government of Canada, Hydro-Quebec</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,xl50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Agency: U.S. Senate</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Report of Tangible Gifts Furnished by the U.S. Senate]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Name and title of person accepting
                            <LI>the gift on behalf of the</LI>
                            <LI>U.S. Government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Gift, date of acceptance on behalf
                            <LI>of the U.S. Government,</LI>
                            <LI>estimated value, and current</LI>
                            <LI>disposition or location</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Identity of foreign donor
                            <LI>and government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Circumstances justifying
                            <LI>acceptance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Robert Menendez, United States Senator</ENT>
                        <ENT>Silver Wallet. Rec'd—8/27/2021. Est. Value—$175.00. Disposition—Secretary of the Senate.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Nikos Dendias, Minister of Foreign Affairs of the Hellenic Republic</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Steve Daines, United States Senator</ENT>
                        <ENT>Silver Peacock with Center Jade Stone. Rec'd—11/8/2021. Est. Value—$400.00. Disposition—Secretary of the Senate.</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Honorable Shri Piyush Goyal, Minister of Commerce &amp; Industry, Consumer Affairs &amp; Food &amp; Public Distribution of Textiles, Republic of India</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Ben Sasse, United States Senator</ENT>
                        <ENT>Handcrafted Carpet. Rec'd—1/28/2022. Est. Value—$333.00. Disposition—Secretary of the Senate.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Imran Khan, Prime Minister of the Islamic Republic of Pakistan</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Kirsten E. Gillibrand, United States Senator</ENT>
                        <ENT>Tiffany &amp; Co. Tote Purse. Rec'd—4/27/2022. Est. Value—$1,680.00. Disposition—Secretary of the Senate.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Highness Sheikh Tahnoun bin Zayed Al Nahyan, National Security Advisor, United Arab Emirates</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11915"/>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Mark Kelly, United States Senator</ENT>
                        <ENT>Two Tiffany &amp; Co. Pens. Rec'd—4/19/2022. Est. Value—$400.00. Disposition—Secretary of the Senate.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Yousef Al Otaiba, Ambassador of the United Arab Emirates to the United States</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Patrick J. Leahy, United States Senator</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bao An Ceramic Vase with Luxury Gold Painting. Rec'd—5/11/2022. Est. Value—$400.00. Disposition—Secretary of the Senate.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Pham Minh Chinh, Prime Minister of the Socialist Republic of Vietnam</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">The Honorable Shivani Pampati, Policy Advisor, United States Senate Committee on Small Business and Entrepreneurship</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Local Transportation within Germany, Lodging and Meals. Rec'd—5/27-6/5/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Bernd Spangler, Division WI 4 International Exchange Programmes, Federals Republic of Germany</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,xl50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Agency:  Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Report of Tangible Gifts Furnished by the Chief of Naval Operations]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Name and title of person accepting
                            <LI>the gift on behalf of the</LI>
                            <LI>U.S. Government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Gift, date of acceptance on behalf
                            <LI>of the U.S. Government,</LI>
                            <LI>estimated value, and current</LI>
                            <LI>disposition or location</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Identity of foreign donor
                            <LI>and government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Circumstances justifying
                            <LI>acceptance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Rear Admiral Anthony Rossi, Navy International Programs</ENT>
                        <ENT>Von Estis diamond repair, Eleensila Mask, Smoother, Radiance Lift Mask. Rec'd—8/3/2022. Est. Value—$533.00. Disposition—Unknown.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Admiral Lee Jong-Ho, Chief of Naval Operations, Republic of Korea</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Admiral Michael Gilday, United States Navy</ENT>
                        <ENT>Plaque and Gold Sword. Rec'd—10/20/2022. Est. Value—$2,800.00. Disposition—Retaining for Official Use.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Prabowo Subianto, Minister of Defense Republic of Indonesia</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Admiral Michael Gilday, United States Navy</ENT>
                        <ENT>1 Osulloc Tea Set, 1 Tie, 1 Red Ginseng Set, 1 Scarf, 1 Kabuto, 1 Travel Bag, 1 Hanbok Gown, 1 Mug, 1 Von Estis Face Cream Set. Rec'd—10/20/2022. Est. Value—$655.54. Disposition—Transferred to GSA.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Admiral Lee Jong-Ho, Chief of Naval Operations, Republic of Korea, and Mrs. (first name?) Yang</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,xl50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Agency: National Aeronautics and Space Administration</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Report of Tangible Gifts Furnished by the National Aeronautics and Space Administration]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Name and title of person accepting
                            <LI>the gift on behalf of the</LI>
                            <LI>U.S. Government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Gift, date of acceptance on behalf
                            <LI>of the U.S. Government,</LI>
                            <LI>estimated value, and current</LI>
                            <LI>disposition or location</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Identity of foreign donor
                            <LI>and government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Circumstances justifying
                            <LI>acceptance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mr. James Spann, Heliophysics Space Weather Lead</ENT>
                        <ENT>Francisco Brennand Ceramic Egg. Rec'd—11/4/2022. Est. Value—$555.87. Disposition—Heliophysics—Pending Reimbursement at Market Value.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mr. Pierre Mattei, Denail Director of International Securities Association for Institutional Trade Commission</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment to donor and U.S. Government.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="11916"/>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,xl50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Agency: National Transportation Safety Board</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Report of Tangible Gifts Furnished by the National Transportation Safety Board]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Name and title of person accepting
                            <LI>the gift on behalf of the</LI>
                            <LI>U.S. Government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Gift, date of acceptance on behalf
                            <LI>of the U.S. Government,</LI>
                            <LI>estimated value, and current</LI>
                            <LI>disposition or location</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Identity of foreign donor
                            <LI>and government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Circumstances justifying
                            <LI>acceptance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ms. Sathya Silva, Marvin Frantz, Van McKenny, Aviation Accident Investigators, Office of Aviation Safety</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Air travel from Shanghai to Wuzhou to assist with aircraft crash investigation. Because of pandemic, no commercial flights were available between these locations. Rec'd—4/2/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>His Excellency Qin Gang, Ambassador of the People's Republic of China</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mr. Nicholas Worrell, Chief Safety Advocacy Division, Office of Safety Recommendations and Communications</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Air travel from Lisbon, Portugal to Sal Cape Verde on April 10 and from Sal Cape Verde on April 14: Presentation on safety advocacy at the Civil Aviation Operational Safety Workshop. Rec'd—4/10-14/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Mr. Mário Margarito Gomes Presidente do Conselho Diretivo/Chairman of The Board of Directors for Prevention and Investigation of Aeronautical and Maritime Accidents (IPIAAM)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,xl50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Agency: National Endowment for the Arts</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Report of Tangible Gifts Furnished by the National Endowment for the Arts]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Name and title of person accepting
                            <LI>the gift on behalf of the</LI>
                            <LI>U.S. Government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Gift, date of acceptance on behalf
                            <LI>of the U.S. Government,</LI>
                            <LI>estimated value, and current</LI>
                            <LI>disposition or location</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Identity of foreign donor
                            <LI>and government</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Circumstances justifying
                            <LI>acceptance</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Mr. Michael Orlove, Director of State, Regional &amp; Local Partnerships and International Activities at National Endowment for the Arts</ENT>
                        <ENT>GIFT OF TRAVEL: Transportation (airfare and local), Lodging, Meals, Conference Registration. To speak at the Abu Dhabi Culture Summit 2022. The cost of this trip would have exceeded Michael Orlove's travel budget if the NEA were to pay for the trip. Est. $3,020.00. Rec'd—10/21/2022.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ms. Rita Aoun, Executive Director, Culture Sector, Department of Culture and Tourism—Abu Dhabi, The United Arab Emirates</ENT>
                        <ENT>Non-acceptance would cause embarrassment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03129 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-20-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">SURFACE TRANSPORTATION BOARD</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FD 36755]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Union Pacific Railroad Company—Trackage Rights Exemption—Omaha Public Power District</SUBJECT>
                <P>Union Pacific Railroad Company (UP), a Class I rail carrier, has filed a verified notice of exemption under 49 CFR 1180.2(d)(7) to extend the term of its trackage rights over 54.8 miles of rail line of Omaha Public Power District (OPPD) between milepost 5.9 near Arbor, Neb., and milepost 56.3 near College View in Lincoln, Neb., and an additional 475-foot section of track extending from milepost 5.9 (the Line).</P>
                <P>
                    UP states that it originally acquired these trackage rights pursuant to an agreement dated July 25, 2003. 
                    <E T="03">See Union Pac. R.R.—Trackage Rights Exemption—Omaha Pub. Power Dist.,</E>
                     FD 34388 (STB served Aug. 22, 2003). The original agreement expired December 31, 2020; UP further states, however, that it and OPPD agreed to negotiate for an extension, and operations under the agreement continued. According to UP, it and OPPD have now executed a new agreement that provides UP with substantially similar trackage rights and will allow operations to continue as they have since 2003 without material changes.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         UP submitted a confidential version of the new agreement under seal along with a corresponding motion for protective order, which will be addressed in a separate decision.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The transaction may be consummated on or after February 29, 2024, the effective date of the exemption (30 days after the verified notice was filed).</P>
                <P>
                    As a condition to this exemption, any employees affected by the extension of the term of trackage rights will be protected by the conditions imposed in 
                    <E T="03">Norfolk &amp; Western Railway—Trackage Rights—Burlington Northern, Inc.,</E>
                     354 I.C.C. 605 (1978), as modified in 
                    <E T="03">Mendocino Coast Railway—Lease &amp; Operate—California Western Railroad,</E>
                     360 I.C.C. 653 (1980).
                </P>
                <P>If the verified notice contains false or misleading information, the exemption is void ab initio. Petitions to revoke the exemption under 49 U.S.C. 10502(d) may be filed at any time. The filing of a petition to revoke will not automatically stay the effectiveness of the exemption. Petitions for stay must be filed no later than February 22, 2024 (at least seven days before the exemption becomes effective).</P>
                <P>
                    All pleadings, referring to Docket No. FD 36755, must be filed with the Surface Transportation Board either via e-filing on the Board's website or in writing addressed to 395 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20423-0001. In addition, a copy of each pleading must be served on UP's representative, Tanya Spratt, 1400 Douglas Street, Union Pacific Railroad Company, STOP 1580, Omaha, NE 68179.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11917"/>
                </P>
                <P>According to UP, this action is categorically excluded from environmental review under 49 CFR 1105.6(c) and from historic preservation reporting requirements under 49 CFR 1105.8(b).</P>
                <P>
                    Board decisions and notices are available at 
                    <E T="03">www.stb.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Decided: February 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <P>By the Board, Mai T. Dinh, Director, Office of Proceedings.</P>
                    <NAME>Brendetta Jones,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Clearance Clerk.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03117 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4915-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2023-2266; Summary Notice No. 2023-50]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Petition for Exemption; Summary of Petition Received; Bell Textron Inc.</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of petition for exemption received.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This notice contains a summary of a petition seeking relief from specified requirements of Federal Aviation Regulations. The purpose of this notice is to improve the public's awareness of, and participation in, the FAA's exemption process. Neither publication of this notice nor the inclusion or omission of information in the summary is intended to affect the legal status of the petition or its final disposition.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this petition must identify the petition docket number and must be received on or before March 6, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2023-2266 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for sending your comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Send comments to Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT), 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         Take comments to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to Docket Operations at 202-493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                         In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.dot.gov/privacy.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Background documents or comments received may be read at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at any time. Follow the online instructions for accessing the docket or go to the Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Andrew Birkenheuer, AIR-625, Federal Aviation Administration, phone (817) 222-5246, email 
                        <E T="03">Andrew.J.Birkenheuer@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>This notice is published pursuant to 14 CFR 11.85.</P>
                    <SIG>
                        <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on February 1, 2024.</DATED>
                        <NAME>Daniel J. Commins,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Manager, Integration and Performance Branch, Policy &amp; Standards Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Petition for Exemption</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket No.:</E>
                         FAA-2023-2266
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Petitioner:</E>
                         Bell Textron Inc.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Section(s) of 14 CFR Affected:</E>
                         §§ 29.1322(b) and (d) and 29.1549(c).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Description of Relief Sought:</E>
                         Petitioner is seeking partial relief from § 29.1322(b) and (d), to allow 412EPX helicopters to identify the mast torque LO SPD range on the aircraft multifunction display unit in yellow/amber (indicating a caution) on the power situation indicator (PSI) instead of a color other than red, amber, or green. In addition, the petitioner is seeking relief from § 29.1549(c) which requires powerplant instruments, for takeoff and precautionary ranges, be marked with a yellow arc or yellow line. Petitioner requests temporary relief until May 31, 2026 in order to design and certify a compliant PSI design.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03198 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2024-0433]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Requests for Comments; Clearance of a Renewed Approval of Information Collection: Commercial Air Tour Limitations in the Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, FAA invites public comments about our intention to request the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval to renew an information collection. The FAA will use the information it collects and reviews to monitor compliance with the regulations regarding air tours in the Grand Canyon National Park.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments should be submitted by April 15, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Please send written comments:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">By Electronic Docket: www.regulations.gov</E>
                         (Enter docket number into search field).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">By mail:</E>
                         Sandra Ray, Federal Aviation Administration, AFS-260, 1187 Thorn Run Road, Suite 200, Coraopolis, PA 15108.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">By fax:</E>
                         412-239-3063.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Sandra L. Ray by email at: 
                        <E T="03">Sandra.ray@faa.gov;</E>
                         phone: 412-546-7344
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Public Comments Invited:</E>
                     You are asked to comment on any aspect of this information collection, including (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for FAA's performance; (b) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (c) ways for FAA to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (d) ways that the burden could be minimized without reducing the quality of the collected information. The agency will summarize and/or include your comments in the request for OMB's clearance of this information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2120-0653.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Commercial Air Tour Limitations in the Grand Canyon National Park Special Flight Rules Area.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Numbers:</E>
                     OMB 2120-0653.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Renewal of an information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Background:</E>
                     Each operator seeking to obtain or in possession of an air carrier 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11918"/>
                    operating certificate is mandated to comply with the requirements of 14 CFR part 135 or part 121, as appropriate. Thus, each of these operators conducting air tours in the Grand Canyon National Park is mandated to comply with the collection requirements for that airspace. The FAA will use the information it collects and reviews to evaluate compliance with the regulations and, if necessary, take enforcement action against violators of the regulations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     9.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Quarterly.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Average Burden per Response:</E>
                     Varies per Operator.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden:</E>
                     42 Hours.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on February 12, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Sandra L. Ray,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Aviation Safety Inspector, AFS-260.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03194 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Highway Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FHWA-2024-0012]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Notice of Request for Reinstatement of a Previously Approved Information Collection</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of request for reinstatement of a previously approved information collection.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The FHWA has forwarded the information collection request described in this notice to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to reinstate an information collection. We published a 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         Notice with a 60-day public comment period on this information collection on November 9, 2023. We are required to publish this notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Please submit comments by March 18, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments identified by DOT Docket ID Number 0012 by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Website:</E>
                         For access to the docket to read background documents or comments received go to the Federal eRulemaking Portal: Go to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         1-202-493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Docket Management Facility, U.S. Department of Transportation, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         U.S. Department of Transportation, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Wendy McAbee, 202-366-5658, Office of Bridge and Structures, Federal Highway Administration, Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590, between 7:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    A 60-day public comment period on this information collection was published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on November 9, 2023 at 88 FR 77416.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Highway Bridge and National Bridge Inspection Programs (National Bridge Inspection Standards).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control:</E>
                     2125-0501.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Background:</E>
                     This collection is necessary to meet legislative requirements of title 23 United States Code section 144, and the Code of Federal Regulations, title 23 Highways, part 650, subpart C—National Bridge Inspection Standards which require States, Federal agencies, and Tribal governments to: (1) perform, and report inventory data from, initial, routine, non-redundant steel tension member, underwater, damage, in-depth, and special inspections as appropriate for all highway bridges on public roads, and element level inspections for highway bridges on the National Highway System; (2) report costs associated with the replacement of highway bridges; and (3) report critical findings on highway bridges. The bridge replacement unit cost information that is provided to the FHWA is on an annual basis. The critical findings information is periodically provided to the FHWA. The bridge information is used for multiple purposes, including: (1) the determination of the condition of the Nation's bridges which is included in a biennial report to Congress on the Status of the Nation's Bridges; (2) for various additional reports to Congress on Bridge Safety; (3) the data source for executing various sections of the Federal-aid program which involve highway bridges; (4) the data source for assessing the bridge penalty provisions of title 23 United States Code section 119; (5) the data source for the evaluation of bridge performance measures established in title 23 United States Code section 150; (6) for conducting oversight of the National Bridge Inspection Program at the State, Federal agency, and Tribal government level; and (7) for strategic national defense needs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     52 State highway agencies including the District of Columbia and Puerto Rico, Federal agencies, Tribal governments, and transportation departments of United States Territories of U.S Virgin Islands and Guam. The number of inspections per respondent varies in accordance with the National Bridge Inspection Standards.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Average Burden per Response:</E>
                     The estimated average burden for each bridge inspection is 8 hours. The estimated average burden for each element level inspection is 25 minutes. The estimated average burden for each cost collection report is 16 hours. The estimated average burden for reporting critical findings is 40 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     The annual burden hours associated with this renewal is 2,773,334 hours. This estimated figure is based on 342,475 annual instances for bridge inspections multiplied by 8 hours (2,739,800 hours); plus 73,492 annual element inspections multiplied by 25 minutes (30,622 hours); plus 16 hours for each unit cost report multiplied by 52 reports (832 hours); plus 40 hours for follow up on critical findings multiplied by 52 respondents (2,080 hours) for a combined annual burden of 2,773,334 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Public Comments Invited:</E>
                     You are asked to comment on any aspect of this information collection, including: (1) Whether the proposed collection is necessary for the FHWA's performance; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burdens; (3) ways for the FHWA to enhance the quality, usefulness, and clarity of the collected information; and (4) ways that the burden could be minimized, including the use of electronic technology, without reducing the quality of the collected information. The agency will summarize and/or include your comments in the request for OMB's clearance of this information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. chapter 35, as amended; and 49 CFR 1.48.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED> Issued on: February 12, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jazmyne Lewis,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Information Collection Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03147 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="11919"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FMCSA-2017-0298]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Hours of Service of Drivers: Application for Exemption; Motion Picture Association</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of final disposition; renewal of exemption.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>FMCSA announces its final decision to grant the exemption from the electronic logging device (ELD) requirements requested by the Motion Picture Association (MPA) for all commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers providing transportation to or from a theatrical or television motion picture production site. This renewal of the exemption allows drivers to complete paper records of duty status (RODS) instead of using an ELD. FMCSA announced its decision to provisionally renew MPA's exemption on November 3, 2022, pending a review of any comments received in response to that notice. After reviewing the four comments submitted to the docket, which are discussed in this notice, the Agency believes that drivers who qualify for the exemption will likely maintain a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than, the level of safety that would be achieved by complying with the ELD requirements.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The exemption is effective January 19, 2023 and expires on January 19, 2028.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ms. Pearlie Robinson, FMCSA Driver and Carrier Operations Division; Office of Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards; 202-366-4225 or 
                        <E T="03">pearlie.robinson@dot.gov.</E>
                         If you have questions on viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Docket Services, telephone (202) 366-9826.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Public Participation; Viewing Comments and Documents</HD>
                <P>
                    To view comments, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     insert the docket number “(FMCSA-2017-0298” in the keyword box, and click “Search.” Next, sort the results by “Posted (Newer-Older),” choose the first notice listed, and click “Browse Comments.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    To view documents mentioned in this notice as being available in the docket, go to 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     insert the docket number “FMCSA-2017-0298” in the keyword box, click “Search,” and choose the document to review.
                </P>
                <P>If you do not have access to the internet, you may view the docket online by visiting Dockets Operations on the ground floor of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., ET, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting Dockets Operations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Legal Basis</HD>
                <P>FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b) and 49 CFR 381.300(b) to renew an exemption from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations for a five-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” (49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1)). FMCSA evaluated MPA's application and provisionally renewed the exemption from 49 CFR 395.8(a)(1)(i) for a five-year period on November 3, 2022 (87 FR 66362).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Background</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Current Regulatory Requirements</HD>
                <P>FMCSA's hours-of-service (HOS) regulations in 49 CFR 395.8(a)(1)(i) specify that a motor carrier subject to the requirements of part 395 must require each driver used by the motor carrier to record the driver's duty status for each 24-hour period using the method prescribed in 49 CFR 395.8(a)(1)(i) through (iv), as applicable. Subject to 49 CFR 395.8(a)(1)(ii) and (iii), a motor carrier operating CMVs must install and require each of its drivers to use an ELD to record the driver's duty status in accordance with 49 CFR part 395, subpart B.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Original Exemption</HD>
                <P>On January 19, 2018, FMCSA published a notice granting MPA an exemption from the ELD requirements in 49 CFR 395.8(a)(1)(i); the exemption expired on January 19, 2023 (83 FR 2869). In its 2018 decision, FMCSA explained that the motion picture industry's unique operational issues and special handling of driver RODS ensures a high level of accuracy to provide the equivalent level of safety.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Application for Renewal of Exemption</HD>
                <P>MPA requested a renewal of its exemption for a five-year period. MPA stated that approximately 8,300 CMV drivers operate CMVs on a full- or part-time basis for the motion picture industry and few qualify for the short-haul driver exceptions in 49 CFR 395.1(e)(1) or (e)(2). Further, MPA stated that according to HOS data developed by third party compliance services, these drivers spend two hours, on average, driving each day, and drive about 40 miles per day. The RODs they generate are often very complex, as are the driver HOS records that employing motor carriers must keep. Through close cooperation, MPA asserted that the industry has been able to manage the extensive interchange of paper RODs that this work pattern requires.</P>
                <P>MPA explained that the industry's success in HOS management is based on a system that is driver-based, rather than vehicle-based. Each time a driver operates a CMV for a different studio or production company, the motor carrier and driver must reconcile the driver's HOS record for the past week. Drivers manage the necessary paper RODS, carry them to each new CMV, and transfer paper copies to each new motor carrier as needed. When a roadside inspection occurs, a driver can produce paper RODS for review by the enforcement official.</P>
                <P>MPA also explained that the motion picture industry maintains a database of driver HOS data. Drivers are required to submit their RODS within 24 hours of the duty period to which the record pertains. The RODS are reviewed by third-party auditing companies.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Provisional Renewal of Exemption</HD>
                <P>On November 3, 2022, after review of the renewal application, FMCSA published its decision provisionally to grant a five-year renewal of the exemption effective January 19, 2023, through January 19, 2028, and requested comment (87 FR 66362).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Public Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    Four comments were submitted to the docket. DISA Global Solutions (DISA) supported the exemption and stated, “Not having this ELD exemption would adversely impact the film industry and its drivers. As in previous years, the entertainment industry will continue to exceed current regulatory requirements to achieve the primary concern for all, safety on all roads and highways.” Yellow Dragon Enterprises Ltd Co opposed the exemption renewal but provided no basis for its position. Two commenters, Scott Chapman and an individual identified as “Schneider,” opposed using ELDs but made no comments supporting or opposing the exemption renewal.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11920"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Response to Public Comments and Agency Decision</HD>
                <P>
                    FMCSA has evaluated the public comments and issues this final decision affirming its provisional decision to renew the exemption. To date, the Agency has not received any crash reports concerning drivers or motor carriers operating under MPA's exemption granted in 2018. For this reason, the Agency believes that drivers and motor carriers operating under this exemption would continue to achieve an equivalent level of safety. FMCSA also notes that Congress has recognized the unique aspects of the motion picture industry's operations and has provided statutory exceptions from some HOS regulations.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         See Section 4133 of SAFETEA-LU (119 Stat.1744) (set out as a note to 49 U.S.C. 31136).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>FMCSA acknowledges that, given the unique arrangements under which drivers in the motion picture industry routinely operate for multiple carriers over brief periods of time, paper RODS may prove more efficient than ELDs. In addition, MPA members are required to submit their RODS within 24 hours, rather than waiting for the 13-day period allowed by 49 CFR 395.8(a)(2)(ii). According to MPA, these “RODS are reviewed by a third-party auditing company, resulting in accelerated reporting of HOS compliance and an independent assessment of accuracy.” FMCSA concludes that extending the exemption for another five years, under the terms and conditions listed below, will likely maintain a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than, the level of safety that would be achieved without the exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Exemption Decision</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Grant of Exemption</HD>
                <P>FMCSA renews the exemption for a period of five years subject to the terms and conditions of this decision. The exemption from the ELD requirement under 49 CFR 395.8(a), is effective January 19, 2023, through January 19, 2028, 11:59 p.m. local time, unless renewed or rescinded.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Applicability of Exemption</HD>
                <P>The exemption allows all CMV drivers providing transportation to or from a theatrical or television motion picture production site to complete paper RODS instead of using an ELD.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Terms and Conditions</HD>
                <P>When operating under this exemption, motor carriers and drivers are subject to the following terms and conditions:</P>
                <P>1. Motor carriers and drivers must comply with all other applicable Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (49 CFR parts 350 through 399).</P>
                <P>2. Drivers operating under this exemption must submit their RODS to the motor carrier within 24 hours instead of the 13-day period otherwise allowed by 49 CFR 395.8(a)(2)(ii).</P>
                <P>3. Drivers must have a copy of this notice in their possession while operating under the terms of the exemption. The exemption document must be presented to law enforcement officials upon request.</P>
                <P>4. Drivers must not be subject to any out-of-service order or suspension of their driving privileges; and</P>
                <P>5. Carriers operating under this exemption may not have an “Unsatisfactory” rating with FMCSA or be subject to any imminent hazard or out-of-service orders.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Preemption</HD>
                <P>In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(d), as implemented by 49 CFR 381.600, during the period this exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation applicable to interstate commerce that conflicts with or is inconsistent with this exemption with respect to a firm or person operating under the exemption. States may, but are not required to, adopt the same exemption with respect to operations in intrastate commerce.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Notification to FMCSA</HD>
                <P>Motor carriers operating under this exemption must notify FMCSA within five business days of any crash (as defined in 49 CFR 390.5), involving any of their CMVs operating under the terms of the exemption. The notification must include the following information:</P>
                <P>1. Identity of Exemption: “MPA 2023,”</P>
                <P>2. Name and USDOT number of the operating motor carrier.</P>
                <P>3. Date of the crash.</P>
                <P>4. City or town, and State, in which the accident occurred, or closest to the accident scene.</P>
                <P>5. Driver's name and license number.</P>
                <P>6. Vehicle number and State license number.</P>
                <P>7. Number of individuals suffering physical injury.</P>
                <P>8. Number of fatalities.</P>
                <P>9. The police-reported cause of the crash.</P>
                <P>10. Whether the driver was cited for violation of any traffic laws or motor carrier safety regulations.</P>
                <P>11. The driver's total driving time and total on-duty time since the last ten (if operating under 49 CFR 395.3(a)) or eight (if operating under 49 CFR 395.1(p)) consecutive hours off-duty prior to the crash.</P>
                <P>
                    Reports filed under this provision shall be emailed to 
                    <E T="03">MCPSD@DOT.GOV.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Termination</HD>
                <P>Based on the safety record of drivers operating under the exemption up to this point, FMCSA has no basis to believe the drivers covered by this renewed exemption will experience any deterioration of their safety record. The exemption will be rescinded if (1) motor carriers and drivers operating under the exemption fail to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objects of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Sue Lawless,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Administrator.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03192 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-EX-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Highway Traffic Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Petition for Exemption From the Federal Motor Vehicle Theft Prevention Standard; Mazda Motor Corporation</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Grant of petition for exemption.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This document grants in full the Mazda Motor Corporation (Mazda) petition for exemption from the Federal Motor Vehicle Theft Prevention Standard (theft prevention standard) for its CX-90 vehicle line beginning in model year (MY) 2025. The petition is granted because the agency has determined that the antitheft device to be placed on the line as standard equipment is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of the theft prevention standard.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The exemption granted by this notice is effective beginning with the 2025 model year.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Carlita Ballard, Office of International Policy, Fuel Economy, and Consumer Programs, NHTSA, West Building, W43-439, NRM-310, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590. Ms. 
                        <PRTPAGE P="11921"/>
                        Ballard's phone number is (202) 366-5222. Her fax number is (202) 493-2990.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Under 49 U.S.C. chapter 331, the Secretary of Transportation (and the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) by delegation) is required to promulgate a theft prevention standard to provide for the identification of certain motor vehicles and their major replacement parts to impede motor vehicle theft. NHTSA promulgated regulations at 49 CFR part 541 (theft prevention standard) to require parts-marking for specified passenger motor vehicles and light trucks. Pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 33106, manufacturers that are subject to the parts-marking requirements may petition NHTSA, by delegation, for an exemption for a line of passenger motor vehicles equipped with an antitheft device as standard equipment that NHTSA decides is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements. In accordance with this statute, NHTSA promulgated 49 CFR part 543, which establishes the process through which manufacturers may seek an exemption from the theft prevention standard.</P>
                <P>
                    49 CFR 543.5 provides general submission requirements for petitions and states that each manufacturer may petition NHTSA for an exemption of one vehicle line per model year. Among other requirements, manufacturers must identify whether the exemption is sought under section 543.6 or section 543.7. Under section 543.6, a manufacturer may request an exemption by providing specific information about the antitheft device, its capabilities, and the reasons the petitioner believes the device to be as effective at reducing and deterring theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements. Section 543.7 permits a manufacturer to request an exemption under a more streamlined process if the vehicle line is equipped with an antitheft device (an “immobilizer”) as standard equipment that complies with one of the standards specified in that section.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         49 CFR 543.7 specifies that the manufacturer must include a statement that their entire vehicle line is equipped with an immobilizer that meets one of the following standards:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (1) The performance criteria (subsections 8 through 21) of C.R.C, c. 1038.114, 
                        <E T="03">Theft Protection and Rollaway Prevention (in effect March 30, 2011),</E>
                         as excerpted in appendix A of [part 543];
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) National Standard of Canada CAN/ULC-S338-98, 
                        <E T="03">Automobile Theft Deterrent Equipment and Systems: Electronic Immobilization</E>
                         (May 1998);
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (3) United Nations Economic Commission for Europe (UN/ECE) Regulation No. 97 (ECE R97), 
                        <E T="03">Uniform Provisions Concerning Approval of Vehicle Alarm System (VAS) and Motor Vehicles with Regard to Their Alarm System (AS)</E>
                         in effect August 8, 2007; or
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (4) UN/ECE Regulation No. 116 (ECE R116), 
                        <E T="03">Uniform Technical Prescriptions Concerning the Protection of Motor Vehicles Against Unauthorized Use</E>
                         in effect on February 10, 2009.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Section 543.8 establishes requirements for processing petitions for exemption from the theft prevention standard. As stated in section 543.8(a), NHTSA processes any complete exemption petition. If NHTSA receives an incomplete petition, NHTSA will notify the petitioner of the deficiencies. Once NHTSA receives a complete petition the agency will process it and, in accordance with section 543.8(b), will grant the petition if it determines that, based upon substantial evidence, the standard equipment antitheft device is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of part 541.</P>
                <P>
                    Section 543.8(c) requires NHTSA to issue its decision either to grant or to deny an exemption petition not later than 120 days after the date on which a complete petition is filed. If NHTSA does not make a decision within the 120-day period, the petition shall be deemed to be approved and the manufacturer shall be exempt from the standard for the line covered by the petition for the subsequent model year.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Exemptions granted under part 543 apply only to the vehicle line or lines that are subject to the grant and that are equipped with the antitheft device on which the line's exemption was based, and are effective for the model year beginning after the model year in which NHTSA issues the notice of exemption, unless the notice of exemption specifies a later year.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         49 U.S.C. 33106(d).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Sections 543.8(f) and (g) apply to the manner in which NHTSA's decisions on petitions are to be made known. Under section 543.8(f), if the petition is sought under section 543.6, NHTSA publishes a notice of its decision to grant or deny the exemption petition in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     and notifies the petitioner in writing. Under section 543.8(g), if the petition is sought under section 543.7, NHTSA notifies the petitioner in writing of the agency's decision to grant or deny the exemption petition.
                </P>
                <P>This grant of petition for exemption considers Mazda Motor Corporation's (Mazda) petition for its CX-90 vehicle line beginning in MY 2025.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Specific Petition Content Requirements Under 49 CFR 543.6</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to 49 CFR part 543, 
                    <E T="03">Exemption from Vehicle Theft Prevention,</E>
                     Mazda petitioned for an exemption for its specified vehicle line from the parts-marking requirements of the theft prevention standard, beginning in MY 2025. Mazda petitioned under 49 CFR 543.6, 
                    <E T="03">Petition: Specific content requirements,</E>
                     which, as described above, requires manufacturers to provide specific information about the antitheft device installed as standard equipment on all vehicles in the line for which an exemption is sought, the antitheft device's capabilities, and the reasons the petitioner believes the device to be as effective at reducing and deterring theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    More specifically, section 543.6(a)(1) requires petitions to include a statement that an antitheft device will be installed as standard equipment on all vehicles in the line for which the exemption is sought. Under section 543.6(a)(2), each petition must list each component in the antitheft system, and include a diagram showing the location of each of those components within the vehicle. As required by section 543.6(a)(3), each petition must include an explanation of the means and process by which the device is activated and functions, including any aspect of the device designed to: (1) facilitate or encourage its activation by motorists; (2) attract attention to the efforts of an unauthorized person to enter or move a vehicle by means other than a key; (3) prevent defeating or circumventing the device by an unauthorized person attempting to enter a vehicle by means other than a key; (4) prevent the operation of a vehicle which an unauthorized person has entered using means other than a key; and (5) ensure the reliability and durability of the device.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         49 CFR 543.6(a)(3).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In addition to providing information about the antitheft device and its functionality, petitioners must also submit the reasons for their belief that the antitheft device will be effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft, including any theft data and other data that are available to the petitioner and form a basis for that belief,
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the reasons for their belief that the agency should determine that the antitheft device is likely to be as effective as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of part 541 in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft. In support of this belief, the petitioners should include any statistical data that are available to the petitioner and form the basis for the petitioner's belief that a line of passenger motor vehicles equipped with the antitheft device is 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11922"/>
                    likely to have a theft rate equal to or less than that of passenger motor vehicles of the same, or a similar, line which have parts marked in compliance with part 541.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         49 CFR 543.6(a)(4).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         49 CFR 543.6(a)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The following sections describe Mazda's petition information provided pursuant to 49 CFR part 543, 
                    <E T="03">Exemption from Vehicle Theft Prevention.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Mazda's Petition for Exemption</HD>
                <P>In a petition dated April 21, 2023, Mazda requested an exemption from the parts-marking requirements of the theft prevention standard for its CX-90 vehicle line beginning with MY 2025.</P>
                <P>
                    In its petition, Mazda provided a detailed description and diagram of the identity, design, and location of the components of the antitheft device for the CX-90 vehicle line. Mazda stated that its MY 2025 CX-90 vehicle line will be installed with a passive, transponder based, electronic engine immobilizer antitheft device as standard equipment. Key components of its antitheft device will include a powertrain control module (PCM), immobilizer control module, security indicator light, coil antenna, transmitter with transponder key (transponder key), low frequency (LF) antenna, radio frequency (RF) receiver and a low frequency unit (LFU). The device will not provide any visible or audible indication of unauthorized vehicle entry (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     flashing lights or horn alarm) as standard equipment; however, Mazda stated that its device will incorporate a security indicator light which will provide a visual confirmation on the protection status of the antitheft device.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to section 543.6(a)(3), Mazda explained that there are two methods of initiating the antitheft device operation process. Specifically, Mazda stated that the immobilizer system monitors two codes: (1) the transponder code, which the immobilizer control module checks with the transponder located in the transmitter; and (2) the immobilizer code, which the immobilizer control module checks with the powertrain's electronic control module. Mazda also stated that there are two means of checking the transponder code: (1) when the immobilizer control module communicates with the transmitter which includes a transponder by LF antenna and receives a reply of transmitter in the RF receiver; and (2) when the immobilizer control module communicates with the transponder by coil antenna which is located in the push button start. If the transponder code matches with the immobilizer control module by either method mentioned above, and the ignition is turned to the ON position, the immobilizer control module checks the powertrain's electronic control module with immobilizer code. Mazda further stated that the vehicle's engine can only be started if the immobilizer code matches the code previously programmed into the immobilizer control module. If the immobilizer code does not match, the engine will be disabled. Communications between the immobilizer system control function and the powertrain's electronic control module are encrypted. Mazda also stated that there are more than 15 × 10
                    <SU>6</SU>
                     different transponder codes, and each transponder is hard coded with a unique code at the time of manufacture.
                </P>
                <P>
                    As required in section 543.6(a)(3)(v), Mazda provided information on the reliability and durability of its proposed device. To ensure reliability and durability of the device, Mazda conducted tests based on its own specified standards. Mazda provided a detailed list of the tests conducted (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     low/high temperature exposure operation, high temperature endurance, thermal cycling, thermal shock resistance, thermal shock endurance, humidity temperature cycling, high temperature and humidity endurance, water, dust, vibration, connector and lead/lock strength, chemical resistance, electromagnetic field, power line variations, DC stresses, electrostatic discharge and push button start strength) and stated that it believes the device is reliable and durable since it complied with its own specified requirements for each test. Additionally, Mazda stated that its device is extremely reliable and durable because it is computer-based and does not rely on any mechanical or moving parts. Mazda further stated that any attempt to slam-pull its vehicle's ignition will have no effect on a thief's ability to start the vehicle without the correct code being transmitted to the electronic control modules.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Mazda provided data from the Highway Loss Data Institute (HLDI), National Crime Information Center (NCIC), and Insurance Institute for Highway Safety (IIHS) on the effectiveness of other similar antitheft devices installed on vehicle lines in support of its belief that its device will be at least as effective as those comparable devices. Specifically, Mazda stated that its device was installed on certain MY 1996 Ford vehicles as standard equipment, (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     all Ford Mustang GT and Cobra models, Ford Taurus LX, and SHO models and Ford Sable LS models). In MY 1997, Mazda installed its immobilizer device on the entire Ford Mustang vehicle line as standard equipment. When comparing 1995 model year Mustang vehicle thefts (without immobilizers) with MY 1997 Mustang vehicle thefts (with immobilizers), Mazda referenced the National Crime Information Center's (NCIC) theft information which showed that there was a 70% reduction in theft experienced when comparing MY 1997 Mustang vehicle thefts (with immobilizers) to MY 1995 Mustang vehicle thefts (without immobilizers). Mazda recognized that NHTSA requested data for vehicle sets that are as similar as possible to the vehicle for which the petition is written; 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     however, Mazda stated that there is no comparable data for Mazda's SUV before and after the implementation of an immobilizer system, because all of Mazda's similar vehicles have been equipped with a standard immobilizer from the onset of manufacture. In light of these considerations, Mazda stated that the NCIC and HLDI data provided supported its belief that the immobilizer system described in its petition will prove to be as, if not more effective, than the parts marking requirements of part 541 in reducing vehicle theft.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         See 85 FR 55368 (Sep. 8, 2020).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Decision To Grant the Petition</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 33106 and 49 CFR 543.8(b), the agency grants a petition for exemption from the parts-marking requirements of part 541, either in whole or in part, if it determines that, based upon substantial evidence, the standard equipment antitheft device is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of part 541.</P>
                <P>NHTSA finds that Mazda has provided adequate reasons for its belief that the antitheft device for its vehicle line is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of the theft prevention standard. This conclusion is based on the information Mazda provided about its antitheft device. NHTSA believes, based on Mazda's supporting evidence, that the antitheft device described for its vehicle line is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of the theft prevention standard.</P>
                <P>
                    The agency concludes that Mazda's antitheft device will provide four of the five types of performance features listed in section 543.6(a)(3): promoting activation; preventing defeat or 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11923"/>
                    circumvention of the device by unauthorized persons; preventing operation of the vehicle by unauthorized entrants; and ensuring the reliability and durability of the device.
                </P>
                <P>The agency notes that 49 CFR part 541, appendix A-1, identifies those lines that are exempted from the theft prevention standard for a given model year. 49 CFR 543.8(f) contains publication requirements incident to the disposition of all part 543 petitions. Advanced listing, including the release of future product nameplates, the beginning model year for which the petition is granted and a general description of the antitheft device is necessary in order to notify law enforcement agencies of new vehicle lines exempted from the parts-marking requirements of the theft prevention standard.</P>
                <P>If Mazda decides not to use the exemption for its requested vehicle line, the manufacturer must formally notify the agency. If such a decision is made, the line must be fully marked as required by 49 CFR 541.5 and 541.6 (marking of major component parts and replacement parts).</P>
                <P>
                    NHTSA notes that if a manufacturer to which an exemption has been granted wishes in the future to modify the device on which the exemption is based, the company may have to submit a petition to modify the exemption. Section 543.8(d) states that a part 543 exemption applies only to vehicles that belong to a line exempted under this part and equipped with the antitheft device on which the line's exemption is based. Further, section 543.10(c)(2) provides for the submission of petitions “to modify an exemption to permit the use of an antitheft device similar to but differing from the one specified in the exemption.” 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         The agency wishes to minimize the administrative burden that section 543.10(c)(2) could place on exempted vehicle manufacturers and itself. The agency did not intend in drafting part 543 to require the submission of a modification petition for every change to the components or design of an antitheft device. The significance of many such changes could be de minimis. Therefore, NHTSA suggests that if a manufacturer with an exemption contemplates making any changes, the effects of which might be characterized as de minimis, it should consult the agency before preparing and submitting a petition to modify.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>For the foregoing reasons, the agency hereby announces a grant in full of Mazda's petition for exemption for the CX-90 vehicle line from the parts-marking requirements of 49 CFR part 541, beginning with its MY 2025 vehicles.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>Issued under authority delegated in 49 CFR 1.95, 501.5 and 501.8.</P>
                    <NAME>Raymond R. Posten,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Administrator for Rulemaking.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03105 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-59-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No: PHMSA-2023-0076]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Pipeline Safety: Information Collection Activities</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice announces that the six information collection requests abstracted below are being forwarded to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. A 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice with a 60-day comment period soliciting comments on the information collections was published on November 6, 2023.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before March 18, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The public is invited to submit comments regarding these information collection requests, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Attention: Desk Officer for the Office of the Secretary of Transportation, 725 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503. Comments can also be submitted electronically at 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Angela Hill by telephone at 202-680-2034 or by email at 
                        <E T="03">angela.hill@dot.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    Title 5, Code of Federal Regulations § 1320.8(d), requires the Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA) to provide interested members of the public and affected agencies the opportunity to comment on information collection and recordkeeping requests before they are submitted to OMB for approval. In accordance with this regulation, on November 6, 2023, PHMSA published a 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice (88 FR 76270) with a 60-day comment period soliciting comments on its intent to request OMB's renewed approval of several information collection requests that are due to expire in 2024.
                </P>
                <P>During the 60-day comment period, PHMSA received one comment from National Propane Gas Association on a matter not pertaining to the proposed renewal of the impacted information collections.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Summary of Impacted Collections</HD>
                <P>Section 1320.8(d), Title 5, Code of Federal Regulations, requires PHMSA to provide interested members of the public and affected entities an opportunity to comment on information collection and recordkeeping requests. PHMSA will request a three-year term of approval for each of the following information collection activities.</P>
                <P>The following information is provided for each information collection: (1) Title of the information collection; (2) OMB control number; (3) Current expiration date; (4) Type of request; (5) Abstract of the information collection activity; (6) Description of affected public; (7) Estimate of total annual reporting and recordkeeping burden; and (8) Frequency of collection.</P>
                <P>PHMSA requests comments on the following:</P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Pipeline Safety: Integrity Management Program for Gas Distribution Pipelines.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2137-0625.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Current Expiration Date:</E>
                     5/31/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Renewal with no change of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Federal Pipeline Safety Regulations require operators of gas distribution pipelines to develop and implement integrity management (IM) programs. The purpose of these programs is to enhance safety by identifying and reducing pipeline integrity risks. PHMSA requires that operators maintain records demonstrating compliance with these requirements for 10 years and that these records must include superseded IM plans.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Operators of gas distribution pipeline systems.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Reporting and Recordkeeping Burden:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses:</E>
                     3,882.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     723,192.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Post-Accident Drug Testing for Pipeline Operators.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2137-0632.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Current Expiration Date:</E>
                     8/31/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Renewal with no change of a currently approved information collection.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11924"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Pursuant to 49 CFR 199.227, operators are required to maintain records of its alcohol misuse prevention program. The post-accident drug testing for pipeline operators information collection pertains specifically to 49 CFR 199.227(b)(4), that requires operators to maintain records of decisions not to administer post-accident employee alcohol tests for a minimum of three years. Operators must make those records available to PHMSA upon request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Operators of PHMSA-regulated pipelines.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Reporting and Recordkeeping Burden:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     609.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     1,218.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Recordkeeping Requirements for Liquefied Natural Gas Facilities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2137-0048.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Current Expiration Date:</E>
                     11/30/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Renewal with no change of a currently approved information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Pursuant to the Federal Pipeline Safety Regulations, liquefied natural gas facility operators are required to maintain records, make reports, and provide information regarding their liquefied natural gas facilities to PHMSA upon request.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Operators of liquefied natural gas facilities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Reporting and Recordkeeping Burden:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses:</E>
                     40,400.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     12,120.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Customer-Owned Service Lines.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2137-0594.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Current Expiration Date:</E>
                     11/30/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Renewal with no change of a currently approved information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Pursuant to 49 CFR 192.16, operators of gas service lines who do not maintain their customers' buried piping between service lines and building walls or gas utilization equipment are required to send written notices to their customers prescribing the proper maintenance of these gas lines and of the potential hazards of not properly maintaining these gas lines. Operators also must maintain records that include a copy of the notice currently in use and evidence that notices were sent to customers within the previous three years. The purpose of the collection is to provide PHMSA with adequate information about how customer-owned service lines are being maintained to prevent the potential hazards associated with not maintaining the lines. Examples of sufficient notification include a prepared notification with the customer's bill.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     State and local governments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Reporting and Recordkeeping Burden:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses:</E>
                     550,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     9,167.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Periodic Underwater Inspection and Notification of Abandoned Underwater Pipelines.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2137-0618.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Current Expiration Date:</E>
                     11/30/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Renewal with no change of a currently approved information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Federal Pipeline Safety Regulations at 49 CFR 192.612 and 49 CFR 195.413 require operators of pipelines in the Gulf of Mexico and its inlets in waters less than 15 feet (4.6 meters) deep to conduct periodic underwater inspections to determine whether the pipelines are exposed underwater pipelines or pose a hazard to navigation. If an operator discovers that its underwater pipeline is exposed or poses a hazard to navigation, among other remedial actions, the operator must contact the National Response Center by telephone within 24 hours of discovery and report the location of the exposed pipeline or hazardous pipeline.
                </P>
                <P>PHMSA's regulations for reporting the abandonment of underwater pipelines can be found at 49 CFR 192.727 and 49 CFR 195.59. These provisions contain certain requirements for disconnecting and purging abandoned pipelines and require operators to notify PHMSA of each abandoned offshore pipeline facility and each abandoned onshore pipeline facility that crosses over, under, or through a commercially navigable waterway.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Operators of pipeline facilities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Reporting and Recordkeeping Burden:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses:</E>
                     92.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     1,372.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Recordkeeping for Underground Natural Gas Storage Facilities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2137-0634.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Current Expiration Date:</E>
                     11/30/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Request:</E>
                     Renewal with no change of a currently approved information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Federal Pipeline Safety Regulations at 49 CFR 192.12 require operators of underground natural gas storage facilities to maintain documentation and provide information to PHMSA upon request. Examples of the required records include operations and maintenance procedures, results of required tests, records of inspections and repairs, and notifications to the public.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Operators of underground natural gas storage facilities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Reporting and Recordkeeping Burden:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Responses:</E>
                     136.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     220.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments are invited on:</E>
                </P>
                <P>(a) The need for this information collections for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>(b) The accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>(c) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>(d) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended, and 49 CFR 1.48.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued in Washington, DC, on February 7, 2024, under authority delegated in 49 CFR 1.97.</DATED>
                    <NAME>John A. Gale,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Standards and Rulemaking Division.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03140 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-60-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Community Development Financial Institutions Fund</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Funds Availability</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Funding Opportunities:</E>
                     Capital Magnet Fund; 2024 Funding Round.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Funding Opportunity Title:</E>
                     Notice of Funds Availability (NOFA) inviting Applications for the fiscal year (FY) 2024 Funding Round of the Capital Magnet Fund (CMF).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Announcement Type:</E>
                     Announcement of funding opportunity.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Funding Opportunity Number:</E>
                     CDFI-2024-CMF.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance (CFDA) Number:</E>
                     21.011.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Dates:</E>
                    <PRTPAGE P="11925"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,xs72,xs72,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1-FY 2024 Capital Magnet Fund Funding Round Critical Deadlines for Applicants</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Description</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Deadline</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Time
                            <LI>(Eastern Time—ET)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Submission method</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Last day to create an Awards Management Information System (AMIS) Account (if Applicant does not have one)</ENT>
                        <ENT>March 14, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>11:59 p.m. ET</ENT>
                        <ENT>Electronically via Awards Management Information System (AMIS).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Last day to enter or update the Employer Identification Number (EIN) and Unique Entity Identifier (UEI) numbers in AMIS (all Applicants)</ENT>
                        <ENT>March 14, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>11:59 p.m. ET</ENT>
                        <ENT>Electronically via AMIS.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Last day to submit Title VI Compliance Worksheet in AMIS (all Applicants) *</ENT>
                        <ENT>March 14, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>11:59p.m. ET</ENT>
                        <ENT>Electronically via AMIS.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Last day to submit SF-424 Mandatory Form (Application for Federal Assistance)</ENT>
                        <ENT>March 14, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>11:59 p.m. ET</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Electronically via 
                            <E T="03">Grants.gov.</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">For Applicants using a Consortium Approach only:</E>
                             Applicants are asked to submit a Service Request in AMIS notifying the CMF Program of the organization's intent to apply as a Consortium Member using the Consortium Approach
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>March 14, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>11:59 p.m. ET</ENT>
                        <ENT>Submit Service Request via AMIS using “Capital Magnet Fund” for the program.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Last day to contact Capital Magnet Fund Staff</ENT>
                        <ENT>April 12, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>5:00 p.m. ET</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Submit Service Request via AMIS using “Capital Magnet Fund” for the program; call CDFI Fund Helpdesk: 202-653-0421; or email 
                            <E T="03">cmf@cdfi.treas.gov.</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Last day to contact CDFI Fund with questions about Compliance</ENT>
                        <ENT>April 12, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>5:00 p.m. ET</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Submit Service Request via AMIS using “Compliance and Reporting” for the program; call CCME Helpdesk: 202-653-0423; or email 
                            <E T="03">ccme@cdfi.treas.gov.</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Last day to contact CDFI Fund with questions about CDFI Certification</ENT>
                        <ENT>April 12, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>5:00 p.m. ET</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Submit Service Request via AMIS using “Certification” for the program; call CCME Helpdesk: 202-653-0423; or email 
                            <E T="03">ocpecert@cdfi.treas.gov.</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Last day to contact AMIS-IT Help Desk (regarding AMIS technical problems only)</ENT>
                        <ENT>April 16, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>5:00 p.m. ET</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Submit Service Request via AMIS using “Technical Issues” for the program; call AMIS Helpdesk: 202-630-0422; or email 
                            <E T="03">AMIS@cdfi.treas.gov.</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Last day to submit CMF Application and Required Attachments</ENT>
                        <ENT>April 16, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>11:59 p.m. ET</ENT>
                        <ENT>Electronically via AMIS.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* For Depository Institution Holding Company Applicants, the Title VI Compliance Worksheet requirement also applies to the Applicant's Subsidiary Depository Institution.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Executive Summary:</E>
                     The Capital Magnet Fund (CMF) is administered by the Community Development Financial Institutions Fund (CDFI Fund). Through the CMF, the CDFI Fund provides financial assistance grants to certified Community Development Financial Institutions (CDFIs) and to qualified Nonprofit Organizations that have the development or management of affordable housing as one of their principal purposes. All Awards provided through this Notice of Funds Availability (NOFA) are subject to funding availability.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Program Description</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">A. Authorizing Statute and Regulation:</E>
                     The CMF was established through the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008 (HERA), which added section 1339 to the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992. For a complete understanding of the program, the CDFI Fund encourages Applicants to review the CMF Interim Rule (12 CFR part 1807) as amended February 8, 2016 (the CMF Interim Rule); this NOFA; the CDFI Fund's environmental quality regulation (12 CFR part 1815); the CMF funding application (referred to hereafter as the “Application,” meaning the application submitted in response to this NOFA); and the Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards (2 CFR part 1000), which is the Department of the Treasury's codification of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) government-wide framework for grants management at 2 CFR part 200 (Uniform Administrative Requirements or UAR). Each capitalized term used in this NOFA, but not defined herein, shall have the respective meanings assigned to them in the CMF Interim Rule, the Application, or the Uniform Administrative Requirements. Details regarding Application content requirements are found in the Application and related materials at 
                    <E T="03">www.cdfifund.gov/cmf.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">B. History:</E>
                     The CDFI Fund was established by the Riegle Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994 to promote economic revitalization and community development through investment in and assistance to CDFIs. The CMF Program made its first Awards in FY 2010, with subsequent funding rounds annually from FY 2016 through FY 2021, and in FY 2023. To date, more than $1.39 billion has been awarded under the CMF Program.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">C. Programmatic Changes from the Prior Round NOFA:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">1. Introduction of Title VI Worksheet:</E>
                     The CDFI Fund is requiring all Applicants, as well as their prospective subrecipients that are not direct beneficiaries of Federal financial assistance (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     Depository Institutions Holding Company and their Subsidiary Depository Institutions) to complete a Title VI Compliance Worksheet once each calendar year to demonstrate how they are complying with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act (Pub. L. 88-352).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">2. Attestation in lieu of Management Letters:</E>
                     If no Management Letter was issued for either of the Applicant's two most recent historic fiscal years, the Applicant will complete an attestation in the Application in lieu of attaching a separate statement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">D. Definitions:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">1. Areas of Economic Distress:</E>
                     Areas of Economic Distress are census tracts: (a) where at least 20% of households that are Very Low-Income (50% of AMI or below) spend more than half of their income on housing; or (b) that are Low-Income Housing Tax Credit Qualified Census Tracts; or (c) where greater than 20% of households have incomes below the poverty rate and the rental vacancy rate is at least 10%; or (d) where greater than 20% of the households have incomes below the poverty rate and the homeownership vacancy rate is at least 10%; or (e) are Underserved Rural Areas as defined in the CMF Interim Rule. The CDFI Fund will publish a dataset on its website indicating which census tracts are designated as Areas of Economic Distress for the FY 2024 CMF Funding Round.
                    <PRTPAGE P="11926"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">2. Consortium:</E>
                     A Consortium is comprised of a group of at least two, and no more than five, eligible, and unaffiliated CDFIs or nonprofit affordable housing developers/managers, applying for a CMF Award under this NOFA. The purpose of the Consortium must be to finance and support Affordable Housing Activities and Economic Development Activities, if applicable.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">3. Consortium Approach:</E>
                     The Consortium Approach is the manner in which members of a Consortium apply for a CMF Award under this NOFA, wherein member Applications are evaluated both individually and as a Consortium.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">4. Entity Approach:</E>
                     The Entity Approach is the manner in which the Applicant will be using the CMF Award. There are two types of Entity Approaches: (a) financing entities and (b) affordable housing developers/managers. Each Applicant will be required to specify which type of Entity Approach it will be using prior to starting the Application.
                </P>
                <P>A financing entity is an entity whose predominant business activity is the provision of arm's length transactions and services to independent, unrelated parties, each acting in its own best interest. Such transactions support and promote affordable housing and/or community development through the provision of financial products that serve low-income communities, individuals, or families in underserved markets or communities.</P>
                <P>An affordable housing developer/manager is a Nonprofit Organization whose primary mission is the construction, development, redevelopment, preservation, or management of affordable housing. The affordable housing developer/manager may own the housing that it develops; may own it in part, such as a limited partnership; may sell the Homeownership or rental housing it develops once completed; or may sell but continue to manage the housing in case of rental housing.</P>
                <P>5. High Opportunity Areas (HOA):</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(A) Standard HOA Criteria:</E>
                     Shall mean the definition of High Opportunity Area (HOA) found in the Federal Housing Finance Agency's Duty to Serve Rule (12 CFR 1282.1), effective as of the date of the publication of this NOFA. This term is defined as: (a) An area designated by the Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) as a “Difficult Development Area” during any year covered by an Enterprise's Underserved Markets Plan (Plan) or in the year prior to a Plan's effective date, whose poverty rate falls below 10% (for Metropolitan areas) or below 15% (for Non-Metropolitan areas); or (b) an area designated by a State or local Qualified Allocation Plan (QAP) as a high opportunity area whose poverty rate falls below 10% (for Metropolitan areas) or 15% (for Non-Metropolitan areas). The CDFI Fund will publish a dataset on its website indicating which census tracts are designated as High Opportunity Areas for the FY 2024 CMF Funding Round.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">(B) Expanded CMF HOA Criteria:</E>
                     The CMF Program will accept an expanded definition of High Opportunity Area for areas that do not meet the Federal Housing Finance Agency definition, but instead meet a set of Expanded CMF HOA Criteria demonstrating the designated area(s) provide access to a combination of at least three of the following four criteria: (1) high-quality youth (K-12) education opportunities; (2) employment opportunities; (3) transportation opportunities; and/or (4) financial service opportunities. For a Project to qualify as being in a High Opportunity Area under the Expanded CMF HOA Criteria definition, the location of the Project must meet at least three of the four Expanded CMF HOA Criteria and cannot be located in a Food Desert as identified by the U.S. Department of Agriculture (
                    <E T="03">https://www.ers.usda.gov/data/fooddesert</E>
                    ) as of the publication date of this NOFA in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">I. CMF HOA Criteria Definitions:</E>
                     To meet the Expanded CMF HOA definition, the location must meet at least three of the following four CMF HOA Criteria:
                </P>
                <P>
                    (1) 
                    <E T="03">Access to High-Quality Youth (K-12) Education:</E>
                     To meet the high-quality youth (K-12) education criterion, the CMF-financed/supported rental unit(s) must be: (i) located in an area served by a school that, in any of the three years prior to the date of this NOFA, has been either recognized by the U.S. Department of Education as a National Blue Ribbon School, or has received the highest rating available from its State's education agency; and (ii) available to Families living in CMF-financed/supported rental units.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (2) 
                    <E T="03">Access to Employment:</E>
                     To meet the access to employment criterion, the CMF-financed/supported rental unit(s) must be located within a one-mile radius of one of the 25 largest employers in the applicable county. The largest employers in the county are measured by number of employees at the location(s) in the applicable county.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (3) 
                    <E T="03">Access to Transportation:</E>
                     To meet the access to transportation criterion, the CMF-financed/supported rental unit(s) must be within 
                    <FR>1/4</FR>
                     mile of a multi-modal transit station (includes at least two forms of public transit such as metro, light rail, bus, ferry, or trolley) if located in a Metropolitan Area. The CMF-financed/supported rental unit(s) must be within two miles of “Fixed-route Public Transportation” if located in a rural (“Non-Metropolitan”) area. “Fixed-route Public Transportation” means year-round, regularly scheduled public transportation that operates at least 5 days per week and provides regular service throughout the day.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (4) 
                    <E T="03">Access to Financial Services:</E>
                     To meet the access to financial services criterion, the CMF-financed/supported rental unit(s) must be in a census tract with a bank or credit union branch presence that is staffed to provide walk-in banking or credit union financial services (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     not simply a standalone, unstaffed, automated teller machine (ATM)).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">E. Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards (2 CFR part 1000):</E>
                     The Uniform Administrative Requirements codify financial, administrative, procurement, and program management standards that Federal award-making agencies must follow. Per the Uniform Administrative Requirements, when evaluating award Applications, awarding agencies must evaluate each Applicant's merits, eligibility, and any risks to the program posed by each Applicant. These requirements are designed to ensure that Applicants for Federal assistance receive a fair and consistent review prior to an award decision. This review will assess items such as the Applicant's financial stability, quality of management systems, history of performance, and single audit findings. In addition, the Uniform Administrative Requirements include guidance on audit requirements and other award compliance requirements for award Recipients.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">F. Priorities:</E>
                     The purpose of the CMF is to attract private capital for and increase investment in the Development, Preservation, Rehabilitation, or Purchase of Affordable Housing for primarily Extremely Low-Income, Very Low-Income, and Low-Income Families, as well as Economic Development Activities, which, In Conjunction With Affordable Housing Activities, implement a Concerted Strategy to stabilize or revitalize a Low-Income Area or Underserved Rural Area. To pursue these objectives, the CDFI Fund has established the following priorities for the FY 2024 CMF Funding Round: (i) Applications where at least 20% of all rental Affordable Housing units that 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11927"/>
                    will be financed and/or supported with FY 2024 CMF Awards are reserved for Very Low-Income Families, and/or at least 20% of all Homeownership Affordable Housing units are reserved for Low-Income Families; (ii) Applications where rental Affordable Housing units located in either Areas of Economic Distress (AED) and/or High Opportunity Areas (HOA) are reserved for Eligible-Income Families; (iii) Applications where Homeownership Affordable Housing units are for (a) Families with incomes above 80% and no greater than 120% of AMI located in an AED, (b) Low-Income Families (up to 80% of the AMI), or (c) a combination of (a) and (b); and (iv) Applications proposing to use the CMF Award to leverage private capital to finance and/or support Affordable Housing Activities and Economic Development Activities. Additionally, the CDFI Fund seeks to fund Applications serving geographically diverse Areas of Economic Distress, including Metropolitan Areas and Underserved Rural Areas. In particular, the priority for geographic diversity includes funding highly qualified Applications that serve States and Territories not included in the Service Areas of Recipients in the past two CMF rounds FY 2021 and FY 2023: American Samoa, the Northern Mariana Islands, the U.S. Virgin Islands, and Wyoming. 
                    <E T="03">G. Funding limitations:</E>
                     The CDFI Fund reserves the right to fund, in whole or in part, any, all, or none of the Applications submitted in response to this NOFA.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">II. Federal Award Information</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">A. Funding Availability:</E>
                     The CDFI Fund plans to award approximately $246.5 million in grants for the FY 2024 CMF Funding Round under this NOFA. Eligible organizations of all sizes are encouraged to apply, including new and previous Applicants, past CMF Recipients, and Applicants focused on Homeownership, rental housing, or both. HERA prohibits the CDFI Fund from obligating more than 15% of the aggregate available in CMF Awards to any Applicant, its Subsidiaries, and its Affiliates in the same funding round. In past rounds, the CDFI Fund has provided Awards smaller than the statutory cap. For example, in the last three funding rounds, Awards ranged from $750,000 to $12,000,000, with an average Award of $5.2 million. Given the administrative and compliance responsibilities for Recipients, the CDFI Fund will not accept Applications that request less than $500,000 and will not provide Awards below $500,000 to any CMF Award Recipients.
                </P>
                <P>The CDFI Fund reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to provide a CMF Award in an amount other than that which the Applicant requests. However, the Award amount will not exceed the Applicant's Award request as stated in its Application. An Applicant may receive only one Award through the FY 2024 CMF Funding Round. Affiliates of Applicants are not allowed to apply separately.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">B. Types of Awards:</E>
                     The CDFI Fund will provide CMF Awards in the form of grants. CMF Awards must be used to support the eligible activities as set forth in 12 CFR 1807.301.
                </P>
                <P>A CMF Award Recipient may not distribute the CMF Award to any Affiliate, Subsidiary, or third-party entity in any manner that would create a Subrecipient relationship (as defined in the Uniform Administrative Requirements) without the CDFI Fund's prior written consent. The Recipient of a CMF Award must retain all obligations related to the Award. This restriction does not prevent a Recipient from loaning or investing directly in an Affiliate (separate legal entity) or in a specific Project being undertaken by an Affiliate. With the exception of Depository Institution Holding Company Applicants, CMF Awards may not be passed through, transferred, or co-awarded to, third-party entities, whether Affiliates, Subsidiaries, or others, pursuant to a merger or acquisition or similar transaction, and with the CDFI Fund's prior written consent.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">C. Limitations on using CMF Awards in conjunction with other CDFI Fund Awards/allocations:</E>
                </P>
                <P>1. A CMF Award Recipient may not use its CMF Award for any Project that also receives funding from other CDFI Fund program awards or allocations the Recipient (or any of its Affiliates) has received, except when the CMF Award dollars are used to finance/support a different “phase” of development in the same Project than that financed by other CDFI Fund awards or allocations. The separate phases of development financing are: (i) Predevelopment; (ii) acquisition; (iii) site work (preconstruction); (iv) construction/rehabilitation; (v) permanent financing; or (vi) bridge financing between two or more phases. This restriction does not apply to the Recipient's prior CMF Awards. The Recipient may combine its multiple CMF Awards to provide financing on any Project, including financing the same phase of any Project.</P>
                <P>However, the Recipient may not deem the same costs as Eligible Project Costs under multiple CMF Awards and must prorate the unit production performance across its multiple CMF Awards. Recipients using a Consortium Approach (see Section III.E.1) with separate CMF Awards from the FY 2024 CMF Funding Round must use their Awards to finance the same Projects. For these Projects, Eligible Project Costs, unit production, and Leveraged Costs are prorated.</P>
                <P>
                    If providing Homeownership assistance, a CMF Award may be used in conjunction with awards/allocations from other CDFI Fund programs only if the Project can be divided into such phases (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     construction of for-sale housing) and the CMF Award is used in a different phase from the other CDFI Fund program awards/allocations. However, in the case of Homeownership purchase assistance, a CMF Award cannot be used for a Homeownership property that is permanently financed (or supported) by mortgages funded by both the Recipient's (or any of its Affiliates') CMF Award, and an award/Allocation from another CDFI Fund program, or that of another CMF Recipient.
                </P>
                <P>2. As further set forth in the Assistance Agreement, CMF Recipients shall not count or report as Leveraged Costs pursuant to this NOFA any costs financed and/or supported by a Recipient's awards/allocations from other CDFI Fund programs or awards/allocations from other CMF Recipients, including awards from prior CMF rounds. While a Recipient may combine its CMF Award pursuant to this NOFA with other CMF Awards to finance/support the same Project, each CMF Award must separately meet the program requirements as outlined in the applicable Assistance Agreement and the CMF Interim Rule (12 CFR part 1807).</P>
                <P>In all cases, the CMF Award remains subject to the following restriction imposed by the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program: award funds received under any CDFI Fund program cannot be used by any participant of the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program, including Qualified Issuers, Eligible CDFIs, and Secondary Borrowers, to pay principal, interest, fees, administrative costs, or issuance costs (including Bond Issuance Fees) related to the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program, or to fund the Risk Share Pool for a Bond Issue (all capitalized terms used in this sentence, other than “CMF Award,” shall have the meanings ascribed to them in the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program regulations and applicable guidance).</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">D. Anticipated Start Date and Period of Performance:</E>
                     The CDFI Fund anticipates the period of performance for the FY 2024 CMF Funding Round to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11928"/>
                    begin in 2024. The period of performance, which includes the five-year investment period, for each CMF Award begins on the date the CDFI Fund announces the Recipients of the FY 2024 CMF Funding Round Awards and continues until the end of the ten-year period of affordability for all Projects financed and/or supported with the CMF Award, as set forth at 12 CFR 1807.401(d) and 12 CFR 1807.402, and as further set forth in the Assistance Agreement, during which time the Recipient must meet certain Performance Goals.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">E. Eligible Activities:</E>
                     A CMF Award must support or finance activities that attract private capital for and increase investment in: (i) the Development, Preservation, Rehabilitation, or Purchase of Affordable Housing for primarily Low-, Very Low-, and Extremely Low-Income Families; and (ii) Economic Development Activities. CMF Awards may only be used as follows: (i) to provide Loan Loss Reserves; (ii) to capitalize a Revolving Loan Fund; (iii) to capitalize an Affordable Housing Fund; (iv) to capitalize a fund to support Economic Development Activities; (v) for Risk-Sharing Loans; or (vi) to provide Loan Guarantees. No more than 30% of a CMF Award may be used for Economic Development Activities. The CDFI Fund allows all Recipients to use up to 5% of their CMF Award for Direct Administrative Expenses. The amount available for Direct Administrative Expenses may only be used for direct costs (as defined by the Uniform Administrative Requirements) incurred by the Recipient and related to the financing and/or support of a Project. The CDFI Fund considers the tracking of impacts and outcomes associated with Projects financed and/or supported by a CMF Award to fall under Direct Administrative Expenses. Any portion of the amount available for Direct Administrative Expenses may be used for direct costs related to the effective tracking and evaluation of program or evidence-based outcomes for Projects.
                </P>
                <P>The CDFI Fund recognizes that some CMF Recipients, due to their business model, may need to work with a third-party originator to originate the CMF loans for mortgage financing. The CMF regulations in 12 CFR 1807.104 defines “Purchase” as “to provide direct financing to a Family for purposes of Homeownership.” The CDFI Fund hereby clarifies that under the definition of “Purchase,” a CMF Recipient may use its CMF Award to purchase CMF eligible loans from a third-party originator within 12 months of origination. The CDFI Fund deems the CMF Recipient's purchase of the CMF eligible loans as “direct” financing under the definition of “Purchase.” The CMF Recipient must work with the third-party originator to identify income eligible borrowers and ensure the loans and associated Affordable Housing meet all of the requirements of 12 CFR part 1807.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Eligibility Information</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">A. Eligible Applicants:</E>
                     In order to be eligible to apply for a CMF Award, an Applicant must either be a Certified CDFI or a Nonprofit Organization, as defined in 12 CFR 1807.104. Table 2 indicates the criteria that each category of Applicant must meet in order to be eligible for a CMF Award pursuant to this NOFA. 
                    <E T="03">Note:</E>
                     A Certified CDFI that is also a Nonprofit Organization only needs to meet the Certified CDFI eligibility criteria described in Table 2, below, to be eligible for a CMF Award. Applicants may be members applying under a Consortium Approach comprised of eligible Applicants, but each Consortium member must separately apply and be individually eligible to receive a CMF Award.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,r200">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Applicant Eligibility Requirements</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Eligibility requirements</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Certified CDFI</ENT>
                        <ENT>• An Applicant must be duly organized as a legal entity (within the United States or its territories).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• Has been in existence as a legally formed entity for at least three (3) years prior to the AMIS Application deadline under this NOFA;</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            • Has been determined by the CDFI Fund to meet the CDFI certification requirements set forth in 12 CFR 1805.201 and as verified in the CDFI's AMIS account as of the publication date of this NOFA in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                            ; and
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• Has not been notified in writing by the CDFI Fund that its certification has been terminated since the publication date of this NOFA.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• If a Certified CDFI loses its certification at any point prior to the Award announcement, the Application will be deemed ineligible and no longer be considered by the CDFI Fund. Post-Award, if a CMF Recipient loses its CDFI Certification, its compliance status with respect to the Assistance Agreement will be reviewed by the Office of Compliance Monitoring and Evaluation (OCME) in accordance with the terms of the Assistance Agreement.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• In cases where the CDFI Fund has provided a Certified CDFI with written notification that it no longer meets one or more certification standards and it has been given an opportunity to cure, the CDFI Fund will continue to deem this Applicant to be a Certified CDFI until it has received a final determination letter that its certification has been terminated. A Certified CDFI is considered eligible for an Award until a final certification determination has been made, and a final determination letter has been provided to the Applicant by the CDFI Fund.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            • Has audited financial statements encompassing its two most recent historic fiscal years prior to the publication date of this NOFA.
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             A Regulated Institution that files call reports to its regulator is exempt from this requirement and must attach call reports for its two most recent historic fiscal years in lieu of audited financial statements.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Nonprofit Organization</ENT>
                        <ENT>• An Applicant must be duly organized as a legal entity (within the United States or its territories).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• Has been in existence as a legally formed entity for at least three (3) years prior to the AMIS Application deadline under this NOFA;</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• Meets the definition of Nonprofit Organization set forth in 12 CFR 1807.104;</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• Demonstrates, through articles of incorporation, by-laws, or other board-approved documents, that the development or management of affordable housing are among its principal purposes;</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• Demonstrates by providing an attestation in the Application that at least 33.3% of its total assets are dedicated to the development or management of affordable housing; and</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            • Has audited financial statements encompassing its two most recent historic fiscal years prior to the publication date of this NOFA.
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             A Regulated Institution that files call reports to its regulator is exempt from this requirement and must attach call reports for its two most recent historic fiscal years in lieu of audited financial statements.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Debarment/Do Not Pay Verification</ENT>
                        <ENT>• The CDFI Fund will conduct a debarment check and will not consider an Application submitted by an Applicant if the Applicant (or Affiliate of an Applicant identified in AMIS) is delinquent on any Federal debt.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• The Do Not Pay Business Center was developed to support Federal agencies in their efforts to reduce the number of improper payments made through programs funded by the Federal Government. The Do Not Pay Business Center provides delinquency information to the CDFI Fund to assist with the debarment check.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">System for Award Management (SAM)</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            • Each Applicant must have its own active SAM registration in order to submit the required Application materials through 
                            <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                            .
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11929"/>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            • SAM is a web-based, government-wide application that collects, validates, stores, and disseminates business information about the Federal Government's trading partners in support of the contract awards, grants, and electronic payment processes. See 
                            <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                             for more information.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            • Applicants that have an active SAM registration have been assigned a UEI. Applicants must also have an EIN number in order to register in 
                            <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                            .
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            • Applicants must complete registration in 
                            <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                             in order to be able to complete the 
                            <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                             registration and submit an SF-424.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• The CDFI Fund reserves the right to deem an Application ineligible if the Applicant's SAM account expires during the Application evaluation period, or is set to expire before December 31, 2024, and the Applicant does not re-activate or renew (as applicable) the account within the deadlines that the CDFI Fund communicates to affected Applicants during the Application evaluation period.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Application type and submission method through 
                            <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                             and Awards Management Information System (AMIS)
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            • Each Applicant must submit the required Application documents listed in Table 4.
                            <LI>
                                • The CDFI Fund will only accept Applications that use the official Application templates provided on the 
                                <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                                 and AMIS websites. Applications submitted with alternative or altered templates will not be considered.
                            </LI>
                            <LI>
                                • Applicants undergo a two-step process that requires the submission of Application documents by two separate deadlines in two different locations: (1) the SF-424 in 
                                <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                                 and (2) all other Required Application Documents in AMIS.
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            • 
                            <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                             and the SF-424 Mandatory form:
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">
                            ○ Applicants must submit the Office of Management and Budget (OMB)-approved Standard Form (SF) 424 Mandatory (Application for Federal Assistance) form in 
                            <E T="03">Grants.gov.</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">
                            ○ All Applicants must register in the 
                            <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                             system to successfully submit an Application. The 
                            <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                             registration process can take 30 days or more to complete. The CDFI Fund strongly encourages Applicants to register as early as possible to meet the deadlines in Table 1 and Table 6.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">
                            ○ The SF-424 must be submitted in 
                            <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                             before the other Application materials are submitted in AMIS. Applicants are strongly encouraged to submit their SF-424 as early as possible via the 
                            <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                             portal.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">
                            ○ Because the SF-424 is part of the Application, if the SF-424 is not accepted by 
                            <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                             by the applicable deadline, the Applicant will not be able to submit the AMIS Application.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">○ The SF-424 must be submitted under the FY 2024 CMF Funding Round CMF Funding Opportunity Number.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">
                            ○ The CDFI Fund will not extend the SF-424 application deadline for any Applicant that started the 
                            <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                             registration process on, before, or after the date of the publication of this NOFA, but did not complete it by the deadline, except in the case of a Federal Government administrative or technological error that directly resulted in precluding an Applicant from submitting the SF-424 by the required deadline.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• AMIS:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">○ Applicants must submit all other required Application materials in AMIS.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">○ AMIS is the CDFI Fund's enterprise-wide information technology system that will be used to submit and store organization and Application information with the CDFI Fund.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">○ Applicants are only allowed one Capital Magnet Fund Application submission per funding round in AMIS.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">○ Members of a Consortium must submit every component of the Application separately and independently from other members of the Consortium.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">
                            ○ Each Application in AMIS must be signed by an Authorized Representative. The Authorized Representative is an employee or officer of the Applicant, authorized to sign legal documents on behalf of the organization. 
                            <E T="03">Consultants working on behalf of the organization may not be designated as Authorized Representatives.</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">○ Only an Authorized Representative or Application Point of Contact included in the Application may submit the Application in AMIS.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">○ All Required Application Documents must be submitted in AMIS on or before the deadline specified in Table 1.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT O="oi3">○ The CDFI Fund will not extend the deadline for any Applicant except in the case of a Federal Government administrative or technological error that directly resulted in precluding an Applicant from submitting the Application in AMIS by the required deadline.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Employer Identification Number (EIN)</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            • Each Applicant must have a unique EIN assigned by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS).
                            <LI>• The CDFI Fund will reject an Application submitted with the EIN of a parent or Affiliate of the Applicant.</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            • The EIN in the Applicant's AMIS account must match the EIN on the SF-424 submitted through 
                            <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                             and the EIN in the Applicant's System for Award Management (SAM) account. The CDFI Fund reserves the right to reject an Application if the EIN in the Applicant's AMIS account does not match the EIN on the SF-424 and/or its SAM account.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• The EIN of the Applicant must be entered into the AMIS organization profile by the applicable deadline in Table 1.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Unique Entity Identifier (UEI)</ENT>
                        <ENT>• The CDFI Fund will reject an Application submitted with the UEI number of a parent or Affiliate organization of an Applicant.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            • The UEI number in the Applicant's AMIS account must match the UEI number in the Applicant's 
                            <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                             and SAM accounts.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            • The CDFI Fund will reject an Application if the UEI number in the Applicant's AMIS account does not match the UEI number in its 
                            <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                             and SAM accounts.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• Applicants must enter their UEI number into their AMIS profile on or before the deadline specified in Table 1.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">AMIS Account</ENT>
                        <ENT>• Each Applicant, including each Consortium Member, must register as an organization in AMIS and submit all required Application materials through the AMIS portal.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• If the Applicant does not fully register its organization in AMIS by the deadline set forth in Table 1, its Application will be rejected without further consideration.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• The Authorized Representative and Application Point of Contact must be included as “users” in the Applicant's AMIS account.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• An Applicant that fails to properly register and update its AMIS account may miss important communications from the CDFI Fund or not be able to successfully submit an Application.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• In cases where a Federal Government administrative or technological error directly resulted in precluding an Applicant from creating an AMIS account by the required deadline, the Applicant must submit a written request for approval to create its AMIS account after the deadline, and include documentation of the error, no later than two business days after the AMIS account creation deadline specified in Tables 1 and 6. The CDFI Fund will not respond to requests for creating an AMIS account after that time. Applicants must submit such request via an AMIS Service Request to the CMF Program with a subject line of “AMIS Account Creation Deadline Extension Request.”</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">501(c)(4) status</ENT>
                        <ENT>• Pursuant to 2 U.S.C. 1611, any 501(c)(4) organization that engages in lobbying activities is not eligible to apply for or receive a CMF Award.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Compliance with Nondiscrimination and Equal Opportunity Statutes, Regulations, and Executive Orders</ENT>
                        <ENT>• An Applicant * may not be eligible to receive a CMF Award if proceedings were instituted against it in, by, or before any court, governmental agency, or administrative body, and a final determination was made within the time period beginning three years prior to the publication of this NOFA through the execution of the Assistance Agreement, declaring that the Applicant violated any Federal civil rights laws or regulations, including, but not limited to: Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2000d et seq.); Fair Housing Act (42 U.S.C. 3601 et seq.); Equal Credit Opportunity Act (15 U.S.C. 1691 et seq.); section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 794); and the Age Discrimination Act of 1975 (42 U.S.C. 6101-6107); and Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972 (20 U.S.C. 1681 et seq.).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="11930"/>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• Applicants * will be required to submit the Title VI Compliance Worksheet (Worksheet) once each calendar year to assist the CDFI Fund in determining whether Applicants are compliant with the Treasury regulations implementing Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (Title VI), set forth in 31 CFR part 22, Nondiscrimination on the Basis of Race, Color, or National Origin in Programs or Activities Receiving Federal Financial Assistance from the Department of the Treasury.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• In addition, an Applicant * must be compliant with Federal civil rights requirements in order to be deemed eligible to receive an award from the CDFI Fund. The CDFI Fund will consider an Application submitted by an Applicant that may have pending Title VI noncompliance issues; however, until the CDFI Fund makes a final determination that the Applicant is Title VI compliant, it will not enter into an Assistance Agreement.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• The Title VI Compliance Worksheet and program award terms and conditions do not impose antidiscrimination requirements on Tribal governments beyond what would otherwise apply under Federal law.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Depository Institution Holding Company Applicant</ENT>
                        <ENT>• If a Depository Institution Holding Company and its Certified CDFI Subsidiary Insured Depository Institution both apply for a CMF Program grant, only the Depository Institution Holding Company will receive an Award, not both. In such instances, the Subsidiary Insured Depository Institution will be deemed ineligible.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• The Authorized Representative of the Depository Institution Holding Company Applicant must certify that the information included in the Application represents that of the Subsidiary CDFI Insured Depository Institution, and that the Award will be used to support the Subsidiary CDFI Insured Depository Institution for the eligible activities outlined in the Application.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Regulated Institutions 
                            <SU>2</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>• To be eligible for an Award, each Regulated Institution Applicant must have a CAMELS/CAMEL composite rating (rating for banks and credit unions, respectively), by its Federal regulator of at least “3” or State regulator equivalent.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• Organizations with CAMELS/CAMEL composite ratings of “4” or “5” will not be eligible for Awards.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• Organizations with a Prompt Corrective Action directive from its regulator will not be eligible for Awards.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• In the case of a Depository Institution Holding Company Applicant that intends to carry out the Award through a Subsidiary Insured Depository Institution, the CAMELS/CAMEL rating eligibility requirements noted above apply to both the Depository Institution Holding Company Applicant, as well as the Subsidiary Insured Depository Institution.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• The CDFI Fund will also evaluate material concerns identified by the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency or Appropriate State Agency in determining eligibility of Regulated Institution Applicants.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* For Depository Institution Holding Company Applicants, the Title VI Compliance Worksheet requirement also applies to the Applicant's Subsidiary Depository Institution.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>Any Applicant that does not meet the criteria in Table 2 is ineligible to apply for a CMF Award under this NOFA. Further, Section III.B describes additional considerations applicable to prior Recipients and/or allocatees under any CDFI Fund program.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">B. Prior Award Recipients:</E>
                     Eligibility determinations in prior funding rounds have no bearing on and do not guarantee eligibility in this round. Prior CMF Award Recipients and prior award recipients of other CDFI Fund programs will be eligible to apply under this NOFA if they meet the eligibility criteria in Table 2, except as noted in Table 3.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,r200">
                    <TTITLE>Table 3—Eligibility Requirements for Applicants Which Are Prior Award/Allocation Recipients</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Criteria</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Description</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Pending resolution of default or noncompliance</ENT>
                        <ENT>• If an Applicant (or Affiliate of an Applicant identified in AMIS) that is a prior recipient or allocatee under any CDFI Fund program: (i) has demonstrated it has been in default or noncompliance with a previous assistance agreement, award agreement, allocation agreement, bond loan agreement, or agreement to guarantee and (ii) the CDFI Fund has yet to make a final determination as to whether the entity is in noncompliance with or default of its previous agreement, the CDFI Fund will consider the Applicant's Application under this NOFA pending full resolution, in the sole determination of the CDFI Fund, of the default or noncompliance.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Default or Noncompliance status</ENT>
                        <ENT>• The CDFI Fund will not consider an Application submitted by an Applicant that is a prior CDFI Fund Recipient or allocatee under any CDFI Fund program if, as of the AMIS Application deadline of this NOFA, the Applicant (or Affiliate of an Applicant identified in AMIS) is noncompliant or found in default with a previously executed award agreement(s), assistance agreement(s), allocation agreement(s), bond loan agreement(s) or agreement(s) to guarantee and the CDFI Fund has provided written notification that the Applicant is ineligible to apply for or receive any future awards or allocations for a time period specified by the CDFI Fund in writing.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">C. Contacting the CDFI Fund:</E>
                     Applicants that are prior Recipients and/or allocatees under any CDFI Fund program are advised to comply with requirements specified in an Assistance Agreement, allocation agreement, bond loan agreement, or agreement to guarantee, and to ensure their Affiliates are in compliance with any agreements. All outstanding reporting and compliance questions should be directed to the Office of Compliance Monitoring and Evaluation help desk by AMIS Service Requests (select “Capital Magnet Fund” for “Program”). For general questions, organizations with an AMIS account are strongly encouraged to submit a Service Request in AMIS using “Capital Magnet Fund” for the Service Request program. Members of the public that do not have AMIS accounts can contact Capital Magnet Fund staff via email at 
                    <E T="03">cmf@cdfi.treas.gov.</E>
                     The CDFI Fund will not respond to Applicants' reporting, compliance, or disbursement related telephone calls or email inquiries that are received after 5:00 p.m. ET on April 12, 2024, until after the Application deadline. The CDFI Fund will respond to technical issues related to AMIS Accounts through 5:00 p.m. ET on April 16, 2024, via AMIS Service Requests, or at 
                    <E T="03">AMIS@cdfi.treas.gov,</E>
                     or by telephone at (202) 653-0422.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">D. Cost sharing or matching funds requirements:</E>
                     Not applicable.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">E. Other Eligibility Criteria:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Consortium Approach:</E>
                     To be eligible under a Consortium Approach, individual members of a Consortium must submit individual Applications and meet the eligibility criteria defined in Table 2 on a stand-alone basis. If awarded, each Recipient will receive a separate Award, and be required to meet the terms of its individual Assistance Agreement. The CDFI Fund will require Recipients using the Consortium Approach to enter into a CMF Recipient Consortium Member Agreement, which will specify the binding commitments of each member.
                </P>
                <P>
                    All Consortium members must invest their individual Awards in the same Projects as the other Consortium members. A Consortium is not required 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11931"/>
                    to be a legally formed entity; however, each Consortium member is asked to submit a Service Request in AMIS notifying the CDFI Fund of the organization's intent to apply under this NOFA as a Consortium member by the required deadline specified in Table 1, and if awarded a CMF Award, must enter into a Recipient Consortium Member Agreement.
                </P>
                <P>If one or more members indicate an intent to apply under the Consortium Approach but fail to meet the eligibility criteria in Table 2, or are otherwise not eligible for an Award, the CDFI Fund reserves the right to review the other Applications on a stand-alone basis and not as a Consortium.</P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Affiliates:</E>
                     As part of the Application review process, the CDFI Fund considers whether Applicants are Affiliates, as defined in 12 CFR 1805.104. If an Applicant and its Affiliate(s) wish to submit an Application, they must do so through one of the Affiliated entities, in one Application; an Applicant and its Affiliates may not submit separate Applications. If Affiliates submit multiple or separate Applications, the CDFI Fund may, at its discretion, reject all such Applications received or select only one of the submitted Applications to be deemed eligible, assuming that Application meets all other eligibility criteria in Section III of this NOFA.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Minimum Leverage Multiplier:</E>
                     An Applicant will not be eligible to receive a CMF Award if the Applicant fails to demonstrate in the Application that its CMF Award would result in Eligible Project Costs (Leveraged Costs plus those costs funded by the CMF Award) that equal at least 10 times the amount of the CMF Award. Note that no costs attributable to Direct Administrative Expenses may be considered Eligible Project Costs.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Application and Submission Information</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">A. Address to Request Application Package:</E>
                     Application materials can be found on 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     and the CDFI Fund's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.cdfifund.gov/cmf.</E>
                     If an Applicant is unable to access 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     or the CDFI Fund's website, an Applicant may request a paper version of any Application material by contacting the CDFI Fund Help Desk by email at 
                    <E T="03">cmf@cdfi.treas.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">B. Content and Form of Application Submission:</E>
                     The CDFI Fund will post to its website, at 
                    <E T="03">www.cdfifund.gov/cmf,</E>
                     instructions for accessing and submitting an Application. Detailed Application content requirements are found in the Application and related guidance documents. All Applications must be prepared in English and calculations must be made in U.S. dollars. Table 4 lists the required funding Application documents. Applicants must submit all required documents for the Application to be deemed complete. Please be aware that an Applicant that fails to submit audited financial statements for its two most recent historic fiscal years will be deemed as not having a complete Application and will be considered ineligible. A Regulated Institution that submits call reports for its two most recent historic fiscal years is exempted from this requirement. The CDFI Fund reserves the right to request and review other pertinent or public information that has not been specifically requested in this NOFA or the Application. Information submitted by the Applicant that the CDFI Fund has not specifically requested will not be reviewed or considered as part of the Application. Information submitted must accurately reflect the Applicant's activities and/or its Subsidiary Insured Depository Institution, in the case where the Applicant is an Insured Depository Institution Holding Company intending to carry out the activities of the Award through its Subsidiary Insured Depository Institution.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s100,xs52,xs100">
                    <TTITLE>Table 4—Funding Application Documents</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Application document</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Submission
                            <LI>format</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Required?</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Standard Form (SF) 424 Mandatory Form</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Fillable PDF in 
                            <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Required for all Applicants.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">CMF Application</ENT>
                        <ENT>AMIS</ENT>
                        <ENT>Required for all Applicants.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Attachments to the Application:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Title VI Compliance Worksheet *</ENT>
                        <ENT>Fillable form in AMIS</ENT>
                        <ENT>Required for all Applicants.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Audited financial statements for the 
                            <E T="03">two most recent historic fiscal years.</E>
                             Regulated Institutions may submit call reports in lieu of audited financial statements
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>PDF in AMIS</ENT>
                        <ENT>Required for all Applicants.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Any Management Letters, if applicable, related to the audited financial statements for the 
                            <E T="03">two most recent historic fiscal years.</E>
                             The Management Letter is prepared by the Applicant's auditor and provides communication on internal control over financial reporting, compliance, and other matters.
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             If no Management Letter was issued for either of the Applicant's two most recent historic fiscal years, the Applicant will complete an attestation in the Application in lieu of attaching a separate statement
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>PDF in AMIS</ENT>
                        <ENT>Required for all Applicants.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">State Charter, Articles of Incorporation, authorizing statute, or other establishing documents designating that the Applicant is a nonprofit or not-for-profit entity under the laws of the organization's State of formation</ENT>
                        <ENT>PDF in AMIS</ENT>
                        <ENT>Required only for Applicants that are not Certified CDFIs.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">A certification demonstrating tax exempt status from the IRS. Only Applicants that are governmental instrumentalities and are unable to provide such determination from the IRS and meet all other eligibility requirements, must submit a legal opinion from counsel, in form and substance acceptable to the CDFI Fund, opining that the Applicant is exempt from Federal income tax</ENT>
                        <ENT>PDF in AMIS</ENT>
                        <ENT>Required only for Applicants that are not Certified CDFIs.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Articles of incorporation, by-laws, authorizing statute, or other documents demonstrating that the Applicant has a principal purpose of managing or developing affordable housing</ENT>
                        <ENT>PDF in AMIS</ENT>
                        <ENT>Required only for Applicants that are not Certified CDFIs.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* For Depository Institution Holding Company Applicants, the Title VI Compliance Worksheet requirement also applies to the Applicant's Subsidiary Depository Institution.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    C. 
                    <E T="03">Application Submission:</E>
                     The CDFI Fund has a sequential, two-step process that requires the submission of Application documents in separate systems with two separate deadlines. The SF-424 must be submitted through 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     and all other Application documents through the AMIS portal. The CDFI Fund will not accept Applications via email, mail, facsimile, or other forms of communication, except in extremely rare circumstances that have been pre-approved by the CDFI Fund. The separate Application deadlines for the SF-424 and all other Application materials are listed in Tables 1 and 6. Only the Authorized Representative for the Organization or Application Point of Contact designated in AMIS may submit the Application through AMIS. Applicants are strongly encouraged to submit the SF-424 as early as possible through 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     in order to provide sufficient time to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11932"/>
                    resolve any potential submission issues. Applicants should contact 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     directly with questions related to the registration or submission process, as the CDFI Fund does not administer the 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     system.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The CDFI Fund strongly encourages Applicants to start the 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     registration process as soon as possible, as it may take several weeks to complete (refer to the following link: 
                    <E T="03">http://www.grants.gov/web/grants/register.html</E>
                    ). An Applicant that has previously registered with 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     must verify that its registration is current and active. If an Applicant has not previously registered with 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                    , it must first successfully register in 
                    <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                    , as described in Section IV.D below.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">D. Unique Entity Identifier (UEI):</E>
                     The UEI, generated in the System for Award Management (
                    <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                    ), has become the official identifier for doing business with the Federal Government. This allows the Federal Government to streamline the entity identification and validation process, making it easier and less burdensome for entities to do business with the Federal Government. If an entity is registered in 
                    <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                     today, its UEI has already been assigned and is viewable in 
                    <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                    , including inactive registrations. New registrants will be assigned a UEI as part of their SAM registration.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">E. System for Award Management (SAM):</E>
                     Any entity applying for Federal grants or other forms of Federal financial assistance through 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     must be registered in SAM before submitting its Application materials through that platform. When accessing 
                    <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                    , users will be asked to create a 
                    <E T="03">Login.gov</E>
                     user account (if they do not already have one). Going forward, users will use their 
                    <E T="03">Login.gov</E>
                     username and password every time when logging into 
                    <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                    . The SAM registration process can take four weeks or longer to complete so Applicants are strongly encouraged to begin the registration process upon publication of this NOFA in order to avoid potential Application submission issues. An original, signed notarized letter identifying the authorized entity administrator for the entity associated with the UEI number is required by SAM and must be mailed to the Federal Service Desk. This requirement is applicable to new entities registering in SAM or on existing registrations where there is no existing entity administrator. Existing entities with registered entity administrators do not need to submit an annual notarized letter. Applicants that have previously completed the SAM registration process must verify that their SAM accounts are current and active. Applicants are required to maintain a current and active SAM account at all times during which it has an active Federal award or an application under consideration for an award by a Federal awarding agency.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The CDFI Fund will not consider any Applicant that fails to properly register or activate its SAM account and, as a result, is unable to submit the SF-424 in 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     or the Application by the applicable Application deadline. Applicants must contact SAM directly with questions related to registration or SAM account changes, as the CDFI Fund does not maintain this system. For more information about SAM, please visit 
                    <E T="03">https://www.sam.gov</E>
                     or call 866-606-8220.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r125,xs76">
                    <TTITLE>
                        Table 5—
                        <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                         Registration Timeline Summary
                    </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Step</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Agency</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Estimated minimum time to complete</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Obtain an EIN Number</ENT>
                        <ENT>Internal Revenue Service (IRS)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Two Weeks.*</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Register in 
                            <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>System for Award Management (SAM). This step will include obtaining a UEI</ENT>
                        <ENT>Four Weeks.*</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Register in 
                            <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>One Week.**</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        * Applicants are advised that the stated duration are estimates only and represent minimum timeframes. Actual timeframes may take longer. The CDFI Fund will not consider any Applicant that fails to properly register or activate its SAM account, has not yet received a UEI number, and/or fails to properly register in 
                        <E T="03">Grants.gov.</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        ** This estimate assumes an Applicant has a UEI number, an EIN number, and is already registered in 
                        <E T="03">SAM.gov.</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">F. Submission Dates and Times:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Submission Deadlines:</E>
                     Table 6 lists the deadlines for submission of the documents related to this CMF Funding Round:
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,xs56,xs72,xs80">
                    <TTITLE>Table 6—FY 2024 CMF Funding Round Deadlines for Applicants</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Document</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Deadline</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Time—Eastern Time
                            <LI>(ET)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Submission method</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">SF-424 Mandatory form</ENT>
                        <ENT>March 14, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>11:59 p.m. ET</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Electronically via 
                            <E T="03">Grants.gov.</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Create AMIS Account (if the Applicant does not already have one)</ENT>
                        <ENT>March 14, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>11:59 p.m. ET</ENT>
                        <ENT>Electronically via AMIS.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Enter or update the EIN and UEI numbers in AMIS</ENT>
                        <ENT>March 14, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>11:59 p.m. ET</ENT>
                        <ENT>Electronically via AMIS.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Title VI Compliance Worksheet *</ENT>
                        <ENT>March 14, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>11:59 p.m. ET</ENT>
                        <ENT>Electronically via AMIS.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            <E T="03">For Consortium Approach Applicants only:</E>
                             Applicants are asked to submit a Service Request in AMIS notifying the CMF Program of the organization's intent to apply as a Consortium Member using the Consortium Approach
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>March 14, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>11:59 p.m. ET</ENT>
                        <ENT>Electronically via AMIS.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">CMF Application and Required Attachments</ENT>
                        <ENT>April 16, 2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>11:59 p.m. ET</ENT>
                        <ENT>Electronically via AMIS.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* For Depository Institution Holding Company Applicants, the Title VI Compliance Worksheet requirement also applies to the Applicant's Subsidiary Depository Institution.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Confirmation of Application Submission in Grants.gov and AMIS:</E>
                     Applicants are required to submit the SF-424 Mandatory Form through the 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     system under the FY 2024 CMF Funding Round Capital Magnet Fund Funding Opportunity Number (listed at the beginning of this NOFA). All other required Application materials must be submitted through the AMIS website. Application materials submitted through each system are due by the applicable deadline listed in Tables 1 and 6. Applicants must submit the SF-424 by an earlier deadline than that of the other required Application materials in AMIS. If a valid SF-424 is not submitted through 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     by the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11933"/>
                    corresponding deadline, the Applicant will not be able to submit the additional Application materials in AMIS, and the Application will be deemed ineligible. Thus, Applicants are strongly encouraged to submit the SF-424 as early as possible in the 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     portal, given that potential submission issues may impact the ability to submit a complete Application. Applicants must also ensure that their AMIS account contains the correct EIN and UEI numbers by the deadline listed in Table 1 of this NOFA.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov Submission Information:</E>
                     Each Applicant will receive an initial email from 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     immediately after submitting the SF-424, confirming that the submission has entered the 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     system. This email will contain a tracking number for the submitted SF-424. Within 48 hours, the Applicant will receive a second email which will indicate if the submitted SF-424 was either successfully validated or rejected with errors. However, Applicants should not rely on the email notification from 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     to confirm that their SF-424 was validated. Applicants are strongly encouraged to use the tracking number provided in the first email to closely monitor the status of their SF-424 by checking 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     directly. The Application materials submitted in AMIS are not accepted by the CDFI Fund until 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     has validated the SF-424. In the 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     Workspace function, please note that the Application package has not been submitted if you have not received a tracking number.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) 
                    <E T="03">AMIS Submission Information:</E>
                     AMIS is a web-based portal where Applicants will directly enter their Application information and add required attachments listed in Table 4. Each Applicant must register as an organization in AMIS in order to submit the required Application materials through this portal. AMIS will verify that the Applicant provided the minimum information required to submit an Application. Applicants are responsible for the quality and accuracy of the information in the Application and in the attachments included in the Application submitted in AMIS. The CDFI Fund strongly encourages the Applicant to allow sufficient time to confirm the Application content, review the material submitted, and remedy any issues prior to the Application deadline. Applicants can only submit one Application in AMIS. Upon submission, the Application will be locked and cannot be resubmitted, edited, or modified in any way. The CDFI Fund will not unlock or allow multiple AMIS Application submissions.
                </P>
                <P>Prior to submission, each Application in AMIS must be signed by an Authorized Representative. An Authorized Representative is an employee or officer that has the authority to legally bind and make representations on behalf of the Applicant; consultants working on behalf of the Applicant cannot be designated as Authorized Representatives. The Applicant may include consultants as Application point(s) of contact, who will be included on any communication regarding the Application and will be able to submit the Application but cannot digitally sign the Application. The Authorized Representative and/or Application point(s) of contact must be included as “Contacts” in the Applicant's AMIS account. The Authorized Representative must also be a “user” in AMIS. An Applicant that fails to properly register and update its AMIS account may miss important communications from the CDFI Fund or fail to submit an Application successfully. Once the Application is signed by an Authorized Representative, only an Authorized Representative for the organization or an Application point of contact can submit the Application in AMIS. After submitting its Application, the Applicant will not be permitted to revise or modify its Application in any way.</P>
                <P>
                    (c) 
                    <E T="03">CMF Consortium Member Service Request:</E>
                     Applicants intending to apply using a Consortium Approach are asked to submit a Service Request in AMIS by March 14, 2024, to notify the CDFI Fund of their intent to apply as part of a Consortium. As part of the Service Request, potential Consortium members are asked to provide the names of the Consortium member organizations, the UEIs of Consortium members, and the amount of funding to be requested by each member. In the event all Consortium members do not submit an Application or a member is otherwise ineligible for an Award, the CDFI Fund reserves the right to review the Applications of the other members on a stand-alone basis and not as a Consortium.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Multiple Application Submissions:</E>
                     Each Applicant is only permitted to submit one complete Application in AMIS. However, the CDFI Fund does not administer 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                    , which does allow for multiple submissions of the SF-424. If an Applicant submits multiple SF-424 Applications in 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                    , the CDFI Fund will only review the SF-424 Application submitted in 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     that is attached to the AMIS Application. Applicants using a Consortium Approach must each separately submit an SF-424.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Late Submission:</E>
                     The CDFI Fund will not accept an Application if a valid SF-424 is not submitted by 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                     by the SF-424 deadline. Additionally, the CDFI Fund will not accept an Application if it is not signed by an Authorized Representative and submitted in AMIS by the Application deadline. The CDFI Fund will not accept an Application from an Applicant that failed to create an AMIS account or enter its EIN/UEI numbers by the deadlines specified in Table 1 and Table 6, or failed to submit the required Title VI Compliance Worksheet by the required deadline. In such cases, the CDFI Fund will not review any material submitted and the Application will be deemed ineligible, except in the case of a Federal Government administrative or technological error that directly resulted in precluding an Applicant from submitting by the deadline. This exception includes any errors associated with 
                    <E T="03">Grants.gov</E>
                    , 
                    <E T="03">SAM.gov</E>
                    , AMIS, or any other applicable government system.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) 
                    <E T="03">Creation of AMIS Account:</E>
                     In cases where a Federal Government administrative or technological error directly precluded an Applicant from creating an AMIS account by the required deadline, the Applicant must submit a written request for approval to create its AMIS account after the deadline, and include documentation of the error, no later than two business days after the AMIS account creation deadline. The CDFI Fund will not respond to requests for creating an AMIS account after that time. Applicants must submit such request via an AMIS Service Request with a subject line of “CMF—AMIS Account Creation Deadline Extension Request.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) 
                    <E T="03">Title VI Compliance Worksheet Late Submission:</E>
                     In cases where a Federal Government administrative or technological error directly precluded an Applicant from submitting the Title VI Compliance Worksheet by the required deadline, the Applicant must submit a written request for approval to submit the Title VI Compliance Worksheet after the deadline, and include documentation of the error, no later than two business days after the Title VI Compliance Worksheet submission deadline. The CDFI Fund will not respond to requests for submitting a Title VI Compliance Worksheet after that time. Applicants must submit such request via an AMIS Service Request with a subject line of “CMF—Title VI Compliance Worksheet Deadline Extension Request.”
                    <PRTPAGE P="11934"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (c) 
                    <E T="03">SF-424 Late Submission:</E>
                     In cases where a Federal Government administrative or technological error directly resulted in precluding an Applicant from submitting the SF-424 by the deadline, the Applicant must submit a Service Request in AMIS for acceptance of the late SF-424 submission and include documentation of the error no later than two business days after the SF-424 deadline. The CDFI Fund will not respond to requests for acceptance of late SF-424 submissions after that time period. Applicants must submit late SF-424 submission requests to the CDFI Fund via an AMIS Service Request to the CMF Program with a subject line of “CMF Late SF-424 Submission Request.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    (d) 
                    <E T="03">Application Late Submission:</E>
                     In cases where a Federal Government administrative or technological error directly resulted in precluding an Applicant from submitting the Application by the deadline, the Applicant must submit a Service Request in AMIS for acceptance of the late Application submission and include documentation of the error no later than two business days after the Application deadline. The CDFI Fund will not respond to requests for acceptance of late Application submissions after that time period. Applicants must submit late Application submission requests to the CDFI Fund via an AMIS Service Request to the CMF Program with a subject line of “CMF Late Application Submission Request.”
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">Intergovernmental Review:</E>
                     Not Applicable.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Funding Restrictions:</E>
                     CMF Awards are limited by the following:
                </P>
                <P>(a) A Recipient shall use CMF Award funds only for the eligible activities set forth in 12 CFR 1807.301 and as described in Section II.C and Section II.E of this NOFA and its Assistance Agreement.</P>
                <P>(b) A Recipient may not disburse CMF Award funds to an Affiliate, Subsidiary, or any other entity in any manner that would create a Subrecipient relationship (as defined in the Uniform Administrative Requirements) without the CDFI Fund's prior written approval.</P>
                <P>(c) CMF Award dollars shall only be paid to the Recipient.</P>
                <P>(d) The CDFI Fund, in its sole discretion, may pay CMF Awards in amounts, or under terms and conditions, which are different from those requested by an Applicant. However, the CDFI Fund will not grant an Award in excess of the amount requested by the Applicant.</P>
                <P>(e) With the exception of Depository Institution Holding Company Applicants, CMF Awards may not be passed through, transferred, or co-awarded to, third-party entities, whether Affiliates, Subsidiaries, or others, unless done pursuant to a merger or acquisition or similar transaction, and with the CDFI Fund's prior written consent.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Application Review Information</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">A. Criteria:</E>
                     All complete and eligible Applications will be reviewed in accordance with the criteria and procedures described in the CMF Interim Rule, this NOFA, the Application guidance, and the Uniform Administrative Requirements. As part of the review process, the CDFI Fund reserves the right to contact the Applicant by telephone, email, mail, or through an on-site visit for the sole purpose of clarifying or confirming Application information at any point during the review process. The CDFI Fund reserves the right to collect such additional information from Applicants as it deems appropriate. If contacted, the Applicant must respond within the time period communicated by the CDFI Fund or its Application may be rejected. For the sake of clarity, specific Application evaluation criteria are described in the context of the overall Application review and selection process described in Section V.B. below.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">B. Review and Selection Process:</E>
                     The CDFI Fund will evaluate each complete and eligible Application using the multi-phase review process described in this Section. For the first part of the review process, the External Review, the Applications will be grouped into two categories depending on their Entity Approach: (1) financing entities and (2) affordable housing developers/managers. All Applicants will be able to select the Entity Approach under which they are applying. However, all eligibility requirements described in Table 2, as either a Certified CDFI or Nonprofit Organization, must be met. In most cases, CDFIs will select the financing Entity Approach; however, a CDFI that is applying with a strategy to act as an affordable housing developer/manager, and has a track record as an affordable housing developer/manager, may select the affordable housing developer/manager approach. Separately, those Applicants applying using a Consortium Approach will also indicate that they are applying using the Consortium Approach. The Applications of the two Entity Approach classifications, and those using a Consortium Approach, will be evaluated based on the criteria listed in this section. Where appropriate, the CDFI Fund will use different criteria in order to evaluate the financial health, capacity, portfolio performance, and projected activities of the Applicant based on these distinct approaches. These differences are noted in the following sections and the Application Instructions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">External Review and Quantitative Assessment:</E>
                     All eligible Applications will be evaluated through a Quantitative Assessment and External Review. The Quantitative Assessment evaluates the Application's quantitative factors and is performed automatically in AMIS. In the External Review, Applications will be separately scored by two or more external non-Federal reviewers who are selected based on criteria that include a professional background in affordable housing or in community and economic development finance with affordable housing experience. These reviewers must complete the CDFI Fund's conflict of interest process and be approved by the CDFI Fund. Reviewers will be assigned a set number of Applications to review, consisting of either Applicants with a financing Entity Approach, or Applicants with an affordable housing developer/manager approach. The reviewer will provide a score for each of the Applications assessed in accordance with the scoring criteria outlined in Section V.B.2 of this NOFA and the Application materials.
                </P>
                <P>The external reviewer's evaluation, in combination with the quantitative assessment factors, will result in the Application being awarded up to 100 points for each review scorecard. The majority of the score will be based on the external reviewer's evaluation. These points will be distributed across three sections: Business and Leveraging Strategy (40 possible points), Community Impact (35 possible points), and Organizational Capacity (25 possible points). As each Application is evaluated by two external reviewers, the maximum score each Application can receive is 200 points (100 points × 2 Reviewers).</P>
                <P>
                    (a) 
                    <E T="03">Business and Leveraging Strategy (40 points):</E>
                     In the Business and Leveraging Strategy section, an Applicant will address: (i) the needs of communities and persons in the areas it proposes to serve with a CMF Award and the extent to which the proposed strategy addresses these needs; (ii) the affordable housing, economic development, and financing gaps addressed by its business strategy; (iii) the projected CMF activities and relevant track record; (iv) the role CMF will play in its project financing strategy; (v) its strategy for leveraging private capital with a CMF Award; and (vi) its strategy for leveraging its CMF Award at the Enterprise-level, through 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11935"/>
                    reinvestments, and/or at the Project-level (as applicable).
                </P>
                <P>An Applicant will generally score more favorably in the criteria evaluated by the External Review and by the quantitative assessment factors to the extent that it: (i) clearly aligns its proposed CMF Award activities with the affordable housing needs and financing gaps it identifies; (ii) demonstrates that its CMF Award activities will result in more favorable financing rates and terms for Projects; (iii) demonstrates that its projected activities are achievable based on the Applicant's strategy and track record; (iv) describes a process for selecting projects that have a clear need for CMF financing; (v) has a credible pipeline of projects or can demonstrate clear demand for its proposed financial products from borrowers; (vi) has a clear strategy for and track record of leveraging private capital resulting in a higher multiplier of private leverage; (vii) has a clear strategy for attracting capital and demonstrates a track record of leveraging funds at the Enterprise-level, through reinvestments, and/or at the Project-level (as applicable); and (viii) whether the Application is proposing to serve American Samoa, the Northern Mariana Islands, the U.S. Virgin Islands, or Wyoming.</P>
                <P>
                    (b) 
                    <E T="03">Community Impact (35 points):</E>
                     In the Community Impact Section, the Applicant will address: (i) the extent to which the Applicant's strategy is likely to result in the selected Affordable Housing and/or Economic Development Activities impacts and its plan to track relevant outcome metrics; (ii) for rental housing, (a) its strategy for and track record of financing and/or supporting rental housing units located in Areas of Economic Distress or High Opportunity Areas; and (b) its strategy for and track record of financing rental housing units targeted to Very Low-Income (VLI) Families (50% of AMI or below); (iii) for Homeownership housing, its strategy for and track record of financing Homeownership units targeted to Low-Income (LI) Families (80% of AMI or below) or units located in Areas of Economic Distress targeted to Families with incomes above 80% and no greater than 120% of AMI; (iv) if applicable, its strategy for and track record of financing and/or supporting Economic Development Activities and how the projected activities will align with a Concerted Strategy and will benefit the residents of nearby Affordable Housing; and (v) commitment to and track record of serving Rural Areas.
                </P>
                <P>An Applicant will generally score more favorably in the criteria evaluated by the external reviewer and by the quantitative assessment factors to the extent that it: (i) demonstrates a clear strategy for achieving the selected Affordable Housing and/or Economic Development Activities impacts identified in the Application and it presents a clear and effective plan to track metrics related to relevant outcomes; (ii) if rental housing is proposed, demonstrates a compelling strategy for and track record of financing and/or supporting rental housing units located in Areas of Economic Distress and/or High Opportunity Areas, with the maximum score available to Applicants that propose to locate 85% of units in these areas; (iii) if rental housing is proposed, demonstrates a compelling strategy for and track record of financing and/or supporting rental housing units targeted to Very Low-Income (VLI) Families (50% of AMI or below), with the maximum score available to Applications that propose to target at least 45% of units to Very Low-Income Families; (iv) if Homeownership is proposed, demonstrates a compelling strategy for and track record of financing and/or supporting Homeownership units either targeted to Low-Income Families (80% of AMI or below) or Homeownership units targeted to Eligible-Income Families (120% of AMI or below) located in Areas of Economic Distress, with the maximum score available to Applicants that propose to locate 100% of units in these categories; (v) if proposing Economic Development Activities, demonstrates how its proposed Economic Development Activities fit within a Concerted Strategy and will benefit the residents of the nearby Affordable Housing; and (vi) makes a commitment to invest at least 10% of the CMF Award in Rural Areas and presents a corresponding track record of serving Rural Areas.</P>
                <P>
                    (c) 
                    <E T="03">Organizational Capacity (25 points):</E>
                     In the Organizational Capacity section, the Applicant will discuss: (i) its management team and key staff; (ii) the roles and responsibilities of those staff in managing the proposed CMF Award; (iii) its past experience managing Federal awards; (iv) its financial health; and (v) lending or property portfolio (as applicable).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Applicant(s) will generally score more favorably in the criteria evaluated by the external reviewer and by the quantitative assessment factors to the extent that it demonstrates: (i) strong qualifications of its key personnel with respect to their skills and experience in identifying investments, underwriting or developing similar projects (as applicable), and managing a portfolio of similar activities and ensuring compliance with program requirements; (ii) a strong ability to successfully manage Federal awards based on experience managing prior Federal awards or administering State or local government awards, foundation grants, or other programs with complex compliance requirements; (iii) strong financial health, including but not limited to strong capitalization, sound operating performance, and strong liquidity; (iv) favorable audit results (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     opinion other than unqualified/unmodified) with no negative findings, including lack of a “going concern paragraph”, lack of repeat findings of reportable conditions, lack of material weaknesses in internal controls, lack of delinquencies on obligations to investors or lenders, and not having filed for bankruptcy or defaulted on financial obligations; and (v) solid portfolio performance (property portfolio or loan/investment portfolio, as applicable). CMF Program encourages first-time Applicants. Prior CMF Recipients will not receive a scoring advantage solely for having received a prior CMF Award.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (d) 
                    <E T="03">Scoring anomaly:</E>
                     If, in the case of a particular Application, the reviewers' total External Review scores vary significantly from each other, the CDFI Fund may, in its sole discretion, obtain the evaluation and numeric scoring of an additional reviewer to determine whether the anomalous score should be replaced with the score of the additional reviewer.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Internal Review:</E>
                     At the conclusion of the External Review phase, the CMF Program Manager will determine the overall number of Applications that will be initially forwarded for Internal Review. Each group of Applications (financing Entity Approach and affordable housing developer/manager approach) will be ranked separately based on their External Review score. The CMF Program Manager may initially forward an amount up to the highest scoring 50% of Applications from the External Review to the Internal Review, as long as the forwarded Applications reflect, within no more than 5% variance, the proportion of financing Entity Approach Applications to affordable housing developer/manager approach Applications in the overall Application Pool. Such Applications will be forwarded for Internal Review in descending order of External Review score. The forwarded Applications will be drawn from the financing Entity Approach and affordable housing developer/manager approach groups in proportion to each group's representation in the overall Application pool. This approach will ensure that the percentage of Applicants 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11936"/>
                    with a financing Entity Approach and affordable housing developer/manager approach initially forwarded to Internal Review reflects the proportion of these entity strategies within the overall Application pool, with no more than 5% variance.
                </P>
                <P>Subsequent to this step to ensure proportionality among Entity Approaches, additional Applications may be advanced to the Internal Review stage in order to further CMF statutory objectives, such as geographic diversity.</P>
                <P>These forwarded Applications will constitute the highly qualified pool. During the Internal Review, CDFI Fund staff will prioritize the Applications in the highly qualified pool for an Award based on the following criteria: (i) final External Review score; (ii) alignment with CMF statutory and policy priorities; (iii) the overall quality of the Applicant's strategy; and (iv) the Applicant's organizational capacity and financial health. The CDFI Fund will not attempt to ensure any specific balance of Applicants with a financing Entity Approach and Applicants with an affordable housing developer/manager approach in the final Award pool.</P>
                <P>In assessing the Applicant's organizational capacity, CDFI Fund staff will consider the following factors including, but not limited to, the Applicant's overall organizational and financial capacity, including: (i) its financial strength and ability, and its resources to adapt to changing market conditions and risks; (ii) its organizational strength as demonstrated by good management practices, risk management, and internal controls; (iii) key personnel with relevant experience and capacity; and (iv) relevant experience and capacity demonstrating ability to meet Federal award management standards (including performance with prior CDFI Fund awards). The CDFI Fund will also review OMB-designated repositories of government-wide eligibility qualification and financial integrity information, as part of the assessment of organizational capacity. In the case of an Applicant that has received awards from other Federal programs, the CDFI Fund reserves the right to contact officials from the appropriate Federal agency or agencies to determine whether the Recipient is in compliance with current or prior award agreements, as well as to review the results of any Federal Single Audit, and to take such information into consideration before making a CMF Award.</P>
                <P>In assessing the Application's alignment with CMF statutory and policy priorities, CDFI Fund staff will consider the following factors including, but not limited to: (i) the likelihood of the Applicant to reach a minimum overall leverage multiplier of 10 times the Award amount or more; (ii) the amount of private capital it will leverage relative to the CMF Award; (iii) if rental housing is proposed, the Applicant's approach, track record, and ability to successfully finance/support at least 45% or more of its rental housing to serve Very Low-Income Families; (iv) if rental housing is proposed, the Applicant's approach, track record, and ability to successfully finance/support at least 85% or more of its rental housing in Areas of Economic Distress (AED) and/or High Opportunity Areas (HOA) as a percentage of its CMF rental portfolio; (v) if Homeownership is proposed, the Applicant's approach, track record, and ability to successfully finance/support 100% of its Homeownership units for (a) Families with incomes in excess of 80% but not greater than 120% of Area Median Income (AMI) located in an Area of Economic Distress (AED); or (b) Low-Income Families (80% AMI or below); or (c) a combination of (a) and (b); and (vi) the number of Affordable Housing units expected to be generated as a result of the Award.</P>
                <P>In assessing the quality of the Applicant's strategy, the CDFI Fund staff will consider the following factors, including, but not limited to: (i) the effectiveness and cohesiveness of the Applicant's strategy; (ii) how well the proposed financing activities will help close the financing gaps in their market, including more favorable rates and terms than are currently available in its Service Area; (iii) the Applicant's ability to execute its strategy and support its projections; (iv) how adaptable the Applicant's strategy is to changing market conditions; (v) the alignment between the proposed activities and strategy and the selected impacts and outcomes; and (vi) for Applicants proposing Economic Development Activities (EDA), the extent the activities are part of a Concerted Strategy, whether activities will benefit Affordable Housing residents, and the track record and capacity of the Applicant to carry out EDA.</P>
                <P>In addition to the criteria outlined above, the Applicant's ability to deploy the CMF Award in a timely manner will be a key determinant in funding recommendation. Deployment considerations may include the Applicant's track record of activities compared with projections, the Applicant's progress in committing and/or deploying past CMF Awards, and whether the Applicant received other recent CDFI Fund program award(s) for a similar business strategy as the proposed use of the CMF Award. The CDFI Fund may also consider the number of geographies served when determining funding recommendations.</P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Scoring of Applicants Using a Consortium Approach:</E>
                     Applicants using a Consortium Approach will be evaluated and scored in the following manner: (a) Applicants will be evaluated as a Consortium and receive the same score on: (i) strategy; (ii) the needs and financing gaps addressed; (iii) track record; (iv) pipeline; (v) impact and metrics; (vi) geographic targets (Areas of Economic Distress and/or High Opportunity Areas); (vii) income targeting; (viii) key personnel; (ix) adaptability and community partnerships; (x) alignment with priorities; (xi) Project selection process; (xii) serving underserved areas; (xiii) resources to adapt to changing market conditions and risks; and (xiv) deployment capacity.
                </P>
                <P>(b) Applicants will be evaluated on a prorated basis and receive an individual score on: (i) Eligible Project Costs; (ii) unit production; and (iii) Leveraged Costs.</P>
                <P>(c) Applicants will be evaluated individually and receive an individual score on: (i) previous Federal award management; (ii) financial health; (iii) audit findings; (iv) portfolio performance; (v) the likelihood of reaching the minimum leverage multiplier; (vi) organizational strength; (vii) management practices; (viii) the ability to execute the strategy and projected activities; and (ix) commitment to serving Rural Areas. In the event that an Applicant(s) applying using a Consortium Approach does not sufficiently score to reach the highly qualified pool, the CDFI Fund will evaluate the remaining members of the Consortium using the Consortium Approach, provided there are at least two members remaining in the highly qualified pool. If there is only one member of the Consortium remaining in the highly qualified pool, the Applicant will be evaluated on an individual basis.</P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Selection:</E>
                     Once Applications have been internally evaluated and preliminary Award determinations have been made, the Applications will be forwarded to the selecting official(s) for a final Award determination. After preliminary Award determinations are made, the selecting official(s) will review the list of potential Recipients to determine whether the Recipient pool meets the following statutory objectives:
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) The potential Recipients' proposed Service Areas collectively represent 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11937"/>
                    broad geographic coverage throughout the United States; and
                </P>
                <P>(b) The potential Recipients' proposed activities equitably represent both Metropolitan Areas and Rural Areas. For the purposes of the FY 2024 CMF Funding Round, the term Rural Areas is defined per 12 CFR 1282.1 (Enterprise Duty To Serve Final Rule) as (i) A census tract outside of a Metropolitan Statistical Area as designated by the Office of Management and Budget; or (ii) A census tract in a Metropolitan Statistical Area as designated by the Office of Management and Budget that is outside of the Metropolitan Statistical Area's Urbanized Areas, as designated by the U.S. Department of Agriculture's (USDA) Rural-Urban Commuting Area (RUCA) Code #1, and outside of tracts with a housing density of over 64 housing units per square mile for USDA's RUCA Code #2.</P>
                <P>As Rural Areas data for the Enterprise Duty to Serve Rule is not available for American Samoa, Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands, and the U.S. Virgin Islands; all census tracts in these territories will be deemed as Rural census tracts for Awards issued under this NOFA. The CDFI Fund will publish a dataset indicating which census tracts are designated as Rural Areas for the FY 2024 CMF Funding Round on its website.</P>
                <P>In the event the preliminary Recipient pool does not reflect the geographic coverage or representation of Metropolitan and Rural Areas present in the overall Applicant pool, the CDFI Fund reserves the right to modify CMF Award amounts and/or the CMF Recipient pool if deemed necessary to achieve either of these statutory objectives. For the purposes of conducting this analysis, the CDFI Fund will classify Applications as addressing Rural Areas if they propose to use 20% or more of their Award in Rural Areas, and as addressing Metropolitan Areas if they propose to use less than 20% of their Award in Rural Areas.</P>
                <P>
                    In order to evaluate the geographic coverage of the potential CMF Recipient pool, Applicants will be asked to designate one of the following two Service Area types in their Applications: Statewide or Multi-State. These Service Area types are further defined in the Application. Applicants planning to serve communities below the State level (cities, municipalities, counties, or regions) and within one State should designate their Service Area as Statewide. Similarly, an Applicant that is planning to serve communities below the State level, but in more than one State, should designate their Service Area as Multi-State. The smallest Service Area an Applicant can request is one State or U.S. Territory; the largest Service Area an Applicant can propose is a 15-state Multi-State Service Area. Applicants should indicate in the narrative portions of their Application if they plan to concentrate their CMF activities in a subset (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     a county or a Metropolitan Area) of their broader Service Area. If necessary to achieve proportional activity in Rural Areas and/or broader geographic coverage, the CDFI Fund may award Applications not in the preliminary Recipient pool, including Applications outside of the highly qualified pool, in the order of their Internal Review scoring ranking. During the selection process, the CDFI Fund also reserves the right to modify or place restrictions on the Service Area requested in any Application in order to further these statutory objectives. In the case of Applicants using a Consortium Approach, the Service Area designated by each Consortium member in its Application will be combined with the Service Area of the other members as part of the review process. This ensures all members are serving the same areas and that all members are able to invest in all CMF financed/supported projects of the Consortium. In cases where the selecting official's award determination varies significantly from the initial CMF Award amount recommended by the CDFI Fund staff review, the CMF Award recommendation will be forwarded to a reviewing official for final determination. The CDFI Fund, in its sole discretion, reserves the right to reject an Application and/or adjust CMF Award amounts as appropriate, based on information obtained during the review process.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">Insured Depository Institution Applicants:</E>
                     In the case of Applicants that are Insured Depository Institutions or Insured Credit Unions, the CDFI Fund will consider safety and soundness information from the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency or Appropriate State Agency, as applicable. If the Applicant is a CDFI Depository Institution Holding Company, the CDFI Fund will consider information provided by the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency and Appropriate State Agency about both the CDFI Depository Institution Holding Company and the CDFI Insured Depository Institution that will expend and carry out the Award. If the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency or Appropriate State Agency identifies safety and soundness concerns, the CDFI Fund will assess whether the concerns warrant that the Applicant is incapable of undertaking the activities for which funding has been requested.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Right of Rejection:</E>
                     The CDFI Fund reserves the right to reject an Application if information (including administrative errors) comes to the attention of the CDFI Fund that adversely affects an Applicant's eligibility for an Award, adversely affects the CDFI Fund's evaluation or scoring of an Application, or indicates fraud or mismanagement on the Applicant's part, including mismanagement of another Federal award. If the CDFI Fund determines that any portion of the Application is incorrect in any material respect, the CDFI Fund reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to reject the Application. The CDFI Fund reserves the right to change its eligibility and evaluation criteria and procedures, if the CDFI Fund deems it appropriate. If said changes materially affect the CDFI Fund's Award decisions, the CDFI Fund will provide information regarding the changes through the CDFI Fund's website. In instances where an Applicant submits an Application which references the track record or projections of an Affiliate, the CDFI Fund reserves the right to review that Affiliate's principal business purpose to determine if it is consistent with the mission of the CMF Applicant, and reject the Application if it is found to be inconsistent with the mission of the CMF Applicant, as determined by the CDFI Fund, in its sole discretion. There is no right to appeal the CDFI Fund's Award decisions. The CDFI Fund's Award decisions are final.
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">Anticipated Award Announcement:</E>
                     The CDFI Fund anticipates making CMF Award announcements in calendar year 2024.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Federal Award Administration Information</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">A. Award Notification:</E>
                     Each successful Applicant will receive notification from the CDFI Fund stating that its Application has been approved for an Award. Each Applicant not selected for an Award will receive notification and be provided a debriefing document in its AMIS account.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">B. Administrative and Policy Requirements Prior to Entering into an Assistance Agreement:</E>
                     The CDFI Fund may, in its discretion and without advance notice to the Recipient, terminate the Award or take other actions as it deems appropriate if, prior to entering into an Assistance Agreement, information (including an administrative error) comes to the CDFI Fund's attention that adversely affects the following: the Recipient's eligibility 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11938"/>
                    for an Award; the CDFI Fund's evaluation of the Application; the Recipient's compliance with any requirement listed in the Uniform Requirements; or indications of fraud or mismanagement on the Recipient's part, including mismanagement of another Federal award.
                </P>
                <P>If the Recipient's CDFI certification status changes prior to entering into an Assistance Agreement, the CDFI Fund reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to re-evaluate the CMF Award, or modify the Assistance Agreement based on the Recipient's non-CDFI status.</P>
                <P>By receiving notification of a CMF Award, the Recipient agrees that, if the CDFI Fund becomes aware of any information (including an administrative error) prior to the Effective Date of the Assistance Agreement that either adversely affects the Recipient's eligibility for an CMF Award, adversely affects the CDFI Fund's evaluation of the Recipient's Application, or indicates fraud or mismanagement on the part of the Recipient, the CDFI Fund may, in its discretion and without advance notice to the Recipient, rescind the notice of award or take other actions as it deems appropriate.</P>
                <P>The CDFI Fund reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to rescind an Award if the Recipient fails to return the Assistance Agreement, signed by an Authorized Representative of the Recipient, and/or provide the CDFI Fund with any other requested documentation, within the CDFI Fund's deadlines.</P>
                <P>In addition, the CDFI Fund reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to terminate and rescind the Assistance Agreement and the Award made under this NOFA for any criteria described in Table 7:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,r200">
                    <TTITLE>Table 7—Requirements Prior To Executing an Assistance Agreement</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Requirement</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Criteria</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Failure to meet reporting requirements</ENT>
                        <ENT>• If an Applicant received a prior award or allocation under any CDFI Fund program and is not current on the reporting requirements set forth in the previously executed assistance, award, allocation, bond loan agreement(s), or agreement to guarantee, as of the date of the notice of award, the CDFI Fund reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to delay entering into an Assistance Agreement and/or to delay making a Payment of CMF Award, until said prior Recipient or allocatee is current on the reporting requirements in the previously executed assistance, award, allocation, bond loan agreement(s), or agreement to guarantee.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• If such a prior Recipient or allocatee is unable to meet this requirement within the timeframe set by the CDFI Fund, the CDFI Fund reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to terminate and rescind the notice of award and the CMF Award made under this NOFA.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• Please note that automated systems employed by the CDFI Fund for receipt of reports submitted electronically typically acknowledge only a report's receipt; such acknowledgment does not warrant that the report received was complete, nor that it met reporting requirements. If said prior Recipient or allocatee is unable to meet this requirement within the timeframe set by the CDFI Fund, the CDFI Fund reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to terminate and rescind the notice of award and the CMF Award made under this NOFA.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Failure to maintain CDFI Certification (if applicable) or eligible Nonprofit Organization status (if applicable)</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            • A Recipient must be a Certified CDFI or an eligible Nonprofit Organization, as each is defined in the CMF Interim Rule and this NOFA, prior to entering into an Assistance Agreement.
                            <LI>• If the Applicant is unable to meet this requirement, in the sole determination of the CDFI Fund, the CDFI Fund reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to delay entering into an Assistance Agreement, to delay making a Payment of CMF Award, and/or to terminate and rescind the notice of award and the CMF Award made under this NOFA.</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Pending resolution of default or noncompliance</ENT>
                        <ENT>• The CDFI Fund will delay entering into an Assistance Agreement with a Recipient that has pending default or noncompliance issues with any of its previously executed CDFI Fund award(s), allocation(s), bond loan agreement(s), or agreement(s) to guarantee.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• If said prior Recipient or allocatee is unable satisfactorily resolve the compliance issues, the CDFI Fund reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to terminate and rescind the notice of award and the CMF Award made under this NOFA.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Default or Noncompliance status</ENT>
                        <ENT>• If, at any time prior to entering into an Assistance Agreement, the CDFI Fund determines that an Applicant (or an Affiliate of the Applicant identified in AMIS) that is a prior CDFI Fund Recipient or allocatee under any CDFI Fund program is noncompliant or found in default with any previously executed award agreement(s), assistance agreement(s), allocation agreement(s), bond loan agreement(s), or agreement(s) to guarantee) and the CDFI Fund has provided written notification that the Applicant is ineligible to apply for or receive any future awards or allocations for a time period specified by the CDFI Fund in writing, the CDFI Fund may, in its sole discretion, delay entering into an Assistance Agreement with Applicant until the Recipient has cured the default or noncompliance by taking actions the CDFI Fund has specified in writing within such specified timeframe. If the Recipient is unable to cure the default or noncompliance within the specified timeframe, the CDFI Fund may modify or rescind all or a portion of the CMF Award made under this NOFA.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Compliance with Federal civil rights requirements</ENT>
                        <ENT>If, within the period starting three years prior to this NOFA and through the date of the Assistance Agreement, the Recipient received a final determination, in any proceeding instituted against the Recipient in, by, or before any court, governmental, or administrative body or agency, declaring that the Recipient violated any Federal civil rights laws or regulations, including, but not limited to: Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2000d et seq.); the Fair Housing Act (42 U.S.C. 3601 et seq.); the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (15 U.S.C. 1691 et seq.); section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 794); the Age Discrimination Act of 1975, (42 U.S.C. 6101-6107), and Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972 (20 U.S.C. 1681 et seq.), the CDFI Fund may terminate and rescind the Assistance Agreement and the Award made under this NOFA. The CDFI Fund will delay entering into an Assistance Agreement with a Recipient that has pending Title VI noncompliance issues, if the CDFI Fund has not yet made a final compliance determination.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• If the Recipient is unable to satisfactorily resolve the Title VI noncompliance issues, the CDFI Fund may terminate and rescind the Assistance Agreement and the award made under this NOFA.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• The Title VI Compliance Worksheet and program award terms and conditions do not impose antidiscrimination requirements on Tribal governments beyond what would otherwise apply under Federal law.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Debarment/Do Not Pay</ENT>
                        <ENT>• The Do Not Pay Business Center was developed to support Federal agencies in their efforts to reduce the number of improper payments made through programs funded by the Federal Government. The Do Not Pay Business Center provides delinquency information to the CDFI Fund to assist with the debarment check.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>• The CDFI Fund reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to rescind an Award if the Recipient (or Affiliate of Recipient identified in AMIS) is identified as being delinquent on any Federal debt in the Do Not Pay database.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Safety and soundness</ENT>
                        <ENT>• If it is determined that the Recipient is or will be incapable of meeting its CMF Award obligations, the CDFI Fund will deem the Recipient to be ineligible or require it to improve safety and soundness conditions prior to entering into an Assistance Agreement.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="11939"/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">C. Assistance Agreement:</E>
                     Each Applicant that is selected to receive an Award under this NOFA must enter into an Assistance Agreement with the CDFI Fund in order to become a Recipient and receive Payment. Each CMF Award under this NOFA generally will have a period of performance that begins with the announcement date of the Award and continues until the end of the period of affordability, as set forth at 12 CFR 1807.401(d) and 12 CFR 1807.402, and as further set forth in the Assistance Agreement.
                </P>
                <P>1. The Assistance Agreement will set forth certain required terms and conditions of the CMF Award, which will include, but not be limited to:</P>
                <P>(a) The amount of the Award;</P>
                <P>(b) The approved uses of the Award;</P>
                <P>(c) The approved Service Area in which the Award may be used. Applicants selected for a CMF Award will be allowed to use up to 15% of the Award amount outside of their approved Service Area at their discretion. Moreover, they will be able to reinvest Program Income from the CMF Award anywhere in the United States, including the U.S. territories.</P>
                <P>(d) Performance goals and measures;</P>
                <P>(e) Reinvestment requirements for Program Income; and</P>
                <P>(f) Reporting requirements for all Recipients.</P>
                <P>2. Prior to executing the Assistance Agreement, the CDFI Fund may, in its discretion, allow Recipients to request changes to the Service Area of the Award and certain performance goals and measures. The CDFI Fund, in its sole determination, may approve or reject these requested changes or propose other modifications, including a reduction in the Award amount. The CDFI Fund will only approve performance goals and measures or Service Area changes if it determines that such requested changes do not undermine the competitive process upon which the CMF Award determination was made. The CDFI Fund may also, in its discretion, provide Recipients the opportunity to add States to their Service Area in order to serve States not already covered in the Award pool and to further HERA's goal that the CMF serve geographically diverse areas of every State. The CDFI Fund may also, in its discretion, provide Recipients the opportunity to add States to its approved Service Area in order to serve geographies for which: (i) the President issued a “major disaster declaration,” and (ii) the major disaster declaration makes such geographies eligible for both “individual and public assistance.” The major disaster declaration must be made after the publication date of this NOFA and prior to the execution of the Recipient's Assistance Agreement. In these cases, the CDFI Fund may allow a Recipient to exceed the maximum 15 state Service Area, if applicable. Any modifications agreed upon prior to the execution of the Assistance Agreement will become a condition of the Award. Recipients may utilize up to 15% of their Award to undertake Activities outside of their Service Area at their discretion.</P>
                <P>3. The Assistance Agreement shall provide that, prior to any determination by the CDFI Fund that a Recipient has failed to comply substantially with the Act, the CMF Interim Rule, or the environmental quality regulations, the CDFI Fund shall provide the Recipient with reasonable notice and opportunity to be heard. If the Recipient fails to comply substantially with the Assistance Agreement, the CDFI Fund may:</P>
                <P>(a) Require changes in the performance goals set forth in the Assistance Agreement;</P>
                <P>(b) Reduce or terminate the CMF Award; or</P>
                <P>(c) Require repayment of any CMF Award that has been distributed to the Recipient.</P>
                <P>4. The Assistance Agreement shall also provide that, if the CDFI Fund determines noncompliance with the terms and conditions of the Assistance Agreement on the part of the Recipient, the CDFI Fund may:</P>
                <P>(a) Bar the Recipient from reapplying for any assistance from the CDFI Fund; or</P>
                <P>(b) Take such other actions as the CDFI Fund deems appropriate or as set forth in the Assistance Agreement.</P>
                <P>5. In addition to entering into an Assistance Agreement, each Applicant, that is not a Regulated Institution, selected to receive a CMF Award must furnish to the CDFI Fund a certificate of good standing from the jurisdiction in which it was formed. The CDFI Fund may, in its sole discretion or in lieu of a certificate of good standing, also require the Applicant to furnish an opinion from its legal counsel, the content of which may be further specified in the Assistance Agreement, and which, among other matters, opines that:</P>
                <P>(a) The Recipient is duly formed and in good standing in the jurisdiction in which it was formed and the jurisdiction(s) in which it transacts business;</P>
                <P>(b) The Recipient has the authority to enter into the Assistance Agreement and undertake the activities that are specified therein;</P>
                <P>(c) The Recipient has no pending or threatened litigation that would materially affect its ability to enter into and carry out the activities specified in the Assistance Agreement;</P>
                <P>(d) The Recipient is not in default of its articles of incorporation or formation, bylaws or operating agreements, other organizational or establishing documents, or any agreements with the Federal Government;</P>
                <P>(e) The CMF affordability restrictions that are required to be imposed by deed restrictions, covenants running with the land, or other CDFI Fund approved mechanisms are recordable and enforceable under the laws of the State and locality where the Recipient will undertake its CMF activities;</P>
                <P>(f) If applicable, the Recipient is exempt from Federal income taxation pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code of 1986; and</P>
                <P>(g) If applicable, the Recipient is designated as a nonprofit or not for profit entity under the laws of the organization's State of formation.</P>
                <P>As a condition of closing on the Assistance Agreement, the CDFI Fund will require a CMF Recipient Consortium Member Agreement to specify the binding commitments of each member awarded under a Consortium Approach.</P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Closing and Payment of the Award:</E>
                     Pursuant to the Assistance Agreement, there will be an initial closing at which point the Assistance Agreement and related documents will be properly executed and delivered, and a Payment of the CMF Award is made. Recipients of CMF Awards will have the option to choose Payment of the Award in a Lump Sum Payment 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                     or, in two Payments, an Initial Payment 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                     and Subsequent Payment,
                    <SU>6</SU>
                     each no more than one year apart, as set forth in the Assistance Agreement. If the Applicant elects to receive the Award in two Payments, they must specify an Initial Payment amount in the Application. The CDFI Fund reserves the right to adjust the Initial Payment amount based on the total Award amount so that no payment is less than $500,000. For example, if awarded $950,000 and the Initial Payment amount requested in the Application was $500,000, per the rule above, the CDFI Fund would disburse a single $950,000 Lump Sum Payment to the Recipient, pursuant to the Assistance Agreement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Payment option election will affect the required date of Commitment of the Award but will not affect or change any other performance goal(s) or requirement(s) set forth in the Assistance Agreement, including the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11940"/>
                    requirement that all Projects must achieve Project Completion within five years of the Effective Date of the Assistance Agreement. The Lump Sum Payment or Initial Payment must be committed for use two years after the Effective Date of the Assistance Agreement. The Subsequent Payment must be committed three years after the Effective Date of the Assistance Agreement.
                </P>
                <P>Following the initial closing of the Assistance Agreement, for those Recipients who opted for and qualify for two Payments, there will be a subsequent closing involving the additional Award payment. In addition to the Assistance Agreement, any documentation that is related to the subsequent closing and payment shall be properly executed and delivered in a timely manner by the Recipient to the CDFI Fund.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">D. Paperwork Reduction Act:</E>
                     Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35), an agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and an individual is not required to respond to a collection of information, unless it displays a valid OMB control number. If applicable, the CDFI Fund may inform Applicants that they do not need to provide certain Application information otherwise required. Pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Capital Magnet Fund Application has been assigned the following control number: 1559-0036.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">E. Reporting:</E>
                     The CDFI Fund will require each Recipient that receives a CMF Award through this NOFA to account for and report to the CDFI Fund on the use of the CMF Award. This will require Recipients to establish administrative controls, subject to the UAR and other applicable OMB guidance. The CDFI Fund will collect information from each such Recipient on its use of the CMF Award annually, following Payment, and more often if deemed appropriate by the CDFI Fund in its sole discretion. The CDFI Fund will provide guidance to Recipients outlining the format and content of the information required to be provided to describe how the Award funds were used.
                </P>
                <P>The CDFI Fund may collect information from each Recipient including, but not limited to, an annual report with the components listed in Table 8:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,r200">
                    <TTITLE>Table 8—Reporting Requirements *</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Criteria</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Description</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Single Audit (if applicable)</ENT>
                        <ENT>A non-profit Recipient must complete an annual Single Audit pursuant to the Uniform Requirements (2 CFR 200.501) if it expends $750,000 or more in Federal awards in its fiscal year, or such other dollar threshold established by OMB pursuant to 2 CFR 200.501. If a Single Audit is required, it must be submitted electronically to the Federal Audit Clearinghouse (FAC) (see 2 CFR Subpart F-Audit Requirements in the Uniform Requirements) and optionally through AMIS.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Financial Statement Audit</ENT>
                        <ENT>For-profit and nonprofit Recipients must submit a Financial Statement Audit (FSA) report in AMIS, along with the Recipient's statement of financial condition audited or reviewed by an independent certified public accountant.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Federal Financial Report/OMB Standard Form 425 (SF-425)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Recipient must submit the SF-425 Federal Financial Report to disclose how much of the Program Award funds were expended during the Federal Government's fiscal year of October 1 through September 30.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Performance Report</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            The Recipient must submit a performance report not less than annually, which is a progress report on the Recipient's use of the CMF Award towards meeting its performance goals, Affordable Housing outcomes, and the Recipient's overall performance. The CMF Performance Report covers the Announcement Date through the Investment Period for the CMF Award and the ten-year Affordability Period for each Project. The Investment Period shall mean the period beginning with the Effective Date of the Assistance Agreement and ending no earlier than the five-year anniversary of the Effective Date, or as otherwise established in the Assistance Agreement. The Affordability Period shall mean, for each Project, the period beginning on the date when the Project is placed into service and consisting of the full ten consecutive years thereafter, or as otherwise established in the Assistance Agreement.
                            <LI>If the Recipient fails to meet a performance goal or reporting requirements, it must submit an explanation of noncompliance via AMIS.</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Environmental Review</ENT>
                        <ENT>The Recipient shall submit the Environmental Review Notification Report each time the Recipient identifies a new proposed CMF Project for which (i) a categorical exclusion does not apply and/or (ii) the Recipient determines that the proposed Project does involve actions that normally require an Environmental Impact Statement, as described in 12 CFR part 1815. The Environmental Review Notification Report must be submitted to the CDFI Fund no later than one hundred eighty (180) days prior to the date that the funds are Committed to a Project.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        * Personally Identifiable Information (PII) is information, which if lost, compromised, or disclosed without authorization, could result in substantial harm, embarrassment, inconvenience, or unfairness to an individual. Although Applicants are required to enter addresses of homes and other properties in AMIS, Applicants should 
                        <E T="03">not</E>
                         include the following PII for the individuals who received the financial products or services in AMIS or in the supporting documentation (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         name of the individual, Social Security Number, driver's license or State identification number, passport number, Alien Registration Number, etc.). This information should be redacted from all supporting documentation (if applicable).
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>Each Recipient is responsible for the timely and complete submission of the annual reporting documents. The CDFI Fund will use such information to monitor each Recipient's compliance with the requirements set forth in the Assistance Agreement and to assess the impact of the CMF Award. The CDFI Fund reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to modify these reporting requirements if it determines it to be appropriate and necessary; however, such reporting requirements will be modified only after notice to Recipients.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">F. Financial Management and Accounting:</E>
                     The CDFI Fund will require Recipients to maintain financial management and accounting systems that comply with Federal statutes, regulations, and the terms and conditions of the CMF Award. These systems must be sufficient to permit the preparation of reports required by general and program specific terms and conditions, including the tracing of funds to a level of expenditures adequate to establish that such funds have been used in accordance with the Federal statutes, regulations, and the terms and conditions of the CMF Award.
                </P>
                <P>The cost principles used by Recipients must be consistent with Federal cost principles, must support the accumulation of costs as required by the principles, and must provide for adequate documentation to support costs charged to the CMF Award. In addition, the CDFI Fund will require Recipients to: maintain effective internal controls; comply with applicable statutes and regulations, the Assistance Agreement, and related guidance; evaluate and monitor compliance; take action when not in compliance; and safeguard Personally Identifiable Information (PII).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Agency Contacts</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">A. Availability:</E>
                     The CDFI Fund will respond to questions and provide support concerning this NOFA and the Application between the hours of 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. ET, starting on the date of the publication of this NOFA until the close of business on the second business day preceding the Application 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11941"/>
                    deadline. The CDFI Fund will not respond to questions or provide support concerning the Application that are received after 5:00 p.m. ET on said date, until after the Application deadline. CDFI Fund IT support will be available until 5:00 p.m. ET on date of the Application deadline. Application Instructions and other information regarding the CDFI Fund and its programs may be obtained from the CDFI Fund's website at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.cdfifund.gov/cmf.</E>
                     The CDFI Fund will post on its website responses to questions of general applicability regarding the CMF.
                </P>
                <P>B. The CDFI Fund's Contact Information is Listed in Table 9:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,16,r40">
                    <TTITLE>Table 9—Contact Information</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Type of question</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Preferred method</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Telephone number (not toll free)</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Email addresses</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">CMF Program and Application Questions</ENT>
                        <ENT>Submit a Service Request in AMIS</ENT>
                        <ENT>202-653-0421</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">cmf@cdfi.treas.gov.</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">CDFI Certification</ENT>
                        <ENT>Submit a Service Request in AMIS</ENT>
                        <ENT>202-653-0423</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">ocpecert@cdfi.treas.gov.</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Compliance Monitoring and Evaluation</ENT>
                        <ENT>Submit a Service Request in AMIS</ENT>
                        <ENT>202-653-0423</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">ccme@cdfi.treas.gov.</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Information Technology Support</ENT>
                        <ENT>Submit a Service Request in AMIS</ENT>
                        <ENT>202-653-0422</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            <E T="03">AMIS@cdfi.treas.gov.</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The preferred method of contact is to submit a Service Request within AMIS. For a CMF Application question, select “Capital Magnet Fund” for the program. For a CDFI Certification question, select “Certification.” For a Compliance question, select “Compliance &amp; Reporting.” For Information Technology, select “Technical Issues.” Failure to select the appropriate program for the Service Request could result in delays in responding to your question.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">C. Communication with the CDFI Fund:</E>
                     The CDFI Fund will use AMIS to communicate with Applicants and Recipients, using the contact information maintained in their respective AMIS accounts. Therefore, the Recipient and any Subsidiaries, signatories, and Affiliates must maintain accurate contact information (including contact persons and Authorized Representatives, email addresses, fax numbers, phone numbers, and office addresses) in its AMIS account(s). For more information about AMIS please see the Help documents posted at 
                    <E T="03">https://amis.cdfifund.gov/Training.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">D. Civil Rights and Diversity:</E>
                     Any person who is eligible to receive benefits or services from the CDFI Fund or Recipients under any of its programs or activities is entitled to those benefits or services without being subject to prohibited discrimination. The Department of the Treasury's Office of Civil Rights and Equal Employment Opportunity enforces various Federal statutes and regulations that prohibit discrimination in financially assisted and conducted programs and activities of the CDFI Fund. If a person believes that they have been subjected to discrimination and/or reprisal because of race, color, religion, national origin, age, sex, marital status, familial status, disability and/or reprisal, that person may file a complaint with: Director, Office of Civil Rights and Equal Employment Opportunity, 1500 Pennsylvania Ave, NW, Washington, DC 20220 or (202) 622-1160 (not a toll-free number).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">E. Statutory and National Policy Requirements:</E>
                     The CDFI Fund will manage and administer the Federal award in a manner so as to ensure that Federal funding is expended and associated programs are implemented in full accordance with the U.S. Constitution, Federal Law, and public policy requirements, including, but not limited to: those protecting free speech, religious liberty, public welfare, and the environment; and those prohibiting discrimination.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Public Law 110-289. 12 U.S.C. 4701, 12 CFR part 1805, 12 CFR part 1807, 12 CFR part 1815, 12 U.S.C. 4502.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Marcia Sigal,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Director, Community Development Financial Institutions Fund.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FY 2024 CMF Program NOFA Footnotes</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         (A) Applicants with a 6/30 fiscal year end date, or 9/30 fiscal year end date, and a completed FY 2023 audit will treat FY 2023 as their most recent historic fiscal year. (B) Applicants with a 6/30 fiscal year end date, or a 9/30 fiscal year end date, but without a completed FY 2023 audit will treat FY 2022 as their most recent historic fiscal year. (C) Applicants with a 3/31 fiscal year end date will treat FY 2023 as their most recent historic fiscal year. (D) Applicants with a 12/31 fiscal year end date will treat FY 2022 as their most recent historic fiscal year.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         Regulated Institutions include Insured Credit Unions, Insured Depository Institutions, State-Insured Credit Unions, and Depository Institution Holding Companies.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The Management Letter may include suggestions for improving identified weaknesses and deficiencies and/or best practice suggestions for items that may not be considered to be weaknesses or deficiencies. The Management Letter may also include items that are not required to be disclosed in the annual audited financial statements. The Management Letter is distinct from the auditor's Opinion Letter, which is required by Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP). Management Letters are not required by GAAP and are sometimes provided by the auditor as a separate letter from the audit itself.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        “Lump Sum Payment” shall mean one single payment which comprises the entire CMF Award.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         “Initial Payment” shall mean the first Payment from the CDFI Fund to the Recipient at Closing.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         “Subsequent Payment” shall mean a second Payment representing the balance of the CMF Award in the case where a Recipient exercises its option to receive the CMF Award in two Payments.
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03152 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-05-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Superfund Tax on Chemical Substances; Request To Modify List of Taxable Substances; Correction to Filing of Petition for Polyphenylene Sulfide</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Supplemental notice of filing and additional request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This supplemental notice of filing announces a correction to the stoichiometric material consumption equation in the notice of filing for the polyphenylene sulfide petition that was published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on December 30, 2022. This supplemental notice of filing also requests comments on the corrected petition. This supplemental notice of filing is not a determination that the list of taxable substances is modified.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments and requests for a public hearing must be received on or before April 15, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <PRTPAGE P="11942"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Commenters are encouraged to submit public comments or requests for a public hearing relating to this petition electronically via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         gov (indicate public docket number IRS-2022-0037 or polyphenylene sulfide) by following the online instructions for submitting comments. Comments cannot be edited or withdrawn once submitted to the Federal eRulemaking Portal. Alternatively, comments and requests for a public hearing may be mailed to: Internal Revenue Service, Attn: CC:PA:01:PR (Supplemental Notice of Filing for Polyphenylene Sulfide), Room 5203, P.O. Box 7604, Ben Franklin Station, Washington DC 20044. All comments received are part of the public record and subject to public disclosure. All comments received will be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal information provided. You should submit only information that you wish to make publicly available. If a public hearing is scheduled, notice of the time and place for the hearing will be published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Camille Edwards Bennehoff at (202) 317-6855 (not a toll-free number).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Request To Add Substance to the List</HD>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Overview.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A petition was filed pursuant to Rev. Proc. 2022-26 (2022-29 I.R.B. 90), requesting that polyphenylene sulfide be added to the list of taxable substances under section 4672(a) of the Internal Revenue Code (List). The notice of filing summarizing the polyphenylene sulfide petition and requesting comments was published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on December 30, 2022 (87 FR 80579). The Treasury Department and the IRS received no written comments in response to the original notice of filing and a public hearing was neither requested nor held. After the comment period for the notice of filing closed, an error was discovered in the stoichiometric material consumption equation for polyphenylene sulfide, and the Petitioner subsequently provided a corrected petition.
                    </P>
                    <P>This supplemental notice of filing provides the corrected stoichiometric material consumption equation for polyphenylene sulfide in paragraph (b) of this document. The stoichiometric material consumption equation is corrected to read as follows:</P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        on [2 NaOH + C
                        <E T="52">6</E>
                        H
                        <E T="52">6</E>
                         + 2 Cl
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                         + H
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        S] → [C
                        <E T="52">6</E>
                        H
                        <E T="52">4</E>
                        S]
                        <E T="52">n</E>
                         + 2n H
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        O + 2n NaCl + 2n HCl
                    </FP>
                    <P>The other petition information provided in paragraph (b) of this document is unchanged from the original notice of filing for polyphenylene sulfide. Although the only change from the original notice of filing is to the stoichiometric material consumption equation, this document also includes all of the other information presented on the corrected petition to avoid confusion and is provided for public notice and comment pursuant to section 9 of Rev. Proc. 2022-26.</P>
                    <P>The petition requesting the addition of polyphenylene sulfide to the List is based on weight and—as noted previously—contains the information detailed in paragraph (b) of this document. The publication of petition information in this supplemental notice of filing is not a determination and does not constitute Treasury Department or IRS confirmation of the accuracy of the information published.</P>
                    <P>Pursuant to section 10.02 of Rev. Proc. 2022-26, the IRS and Petitioner agreed to extend the 180-day determination period.</P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Petition Content.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (1) 
                        <E T="03">Substance name:</E>
                         Polyphenylene sulfide.
                    </P>
                    <P>According to the petition, these are the commonly used substance names for polyphenylene sulfide:</P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Polyphenylene sulfide</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">PPS</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Poly(p-phenylenesulfide)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Benzene, 1,4-dichloro-, polymer with sodium sulfide.</FP>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Petitioner:</E>
                         Celanese Ltd., an exporter of polyphenylene sulfide.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (3) 
                        <E T="03">Proposed classification numbers:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (i) 
                        <E T="03">HTSUS number:</E>
                         3911.90.2500.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) 
                        <E T="03">Schedule B number:</E>
                         3911.90.6100.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (iii) 
                        <E T="03">CAS numbers:</E>
                         25212-74-2, 26125-40-6
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (4) 
                        <E T="03">Petition filing dates:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (i) 
                        <E T="03">Petition filing date for purposes of making a determination:</E>
                         December 20, 2022.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) 
                        <E T="03">Petition filing date for purposes of section 11.02 of Rev. Proc. 2022-26:</E>
                         July 1, 2022.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (5) 
                        <E T="03">Description from petition:</E>
                         According to the petition, polyphenylene sulfide is a high-performance thermoplastic, has high heat and chemical resistance, and is used in applications such as filters, appliance, machine and automobile parts, replacing steel in some cases.
                    </P>
                    <P>In the final step of the production process, polyphenylene sulfide is manufactured by the polymerization of 1,4-dichlorobenzene (p-DCB), a taxable substance, with sodium hydrosulfide and sodium hydroxide. Sodium hydrosulfide is made from sodium hydroxide and hydrogen sulfide.</P>
                    <P>Taxable chemicals constitute 90.0 percent by weight of the materials used to produce this substance.</P>
                    <P>
                        (6) 
                        <E T="03">Process identified in petition as predominant method of production of substance:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>Three separate reactions:</P>
                    <P>(A) 1,4 dichlorobenzene is made from the reaction of benzene with 2 equivalents of chlorine.</P>
                    <P>(B) Sodium hydrogen sulfide is made from the reaction of hydrogen sulfide with sodium hydroxide.</P>
                    <P>(C) 1,4-dichlorobenzene (p-dichlorobenzene, p-DCB), sodium hydrosulfide (NaSH), and sodium hydroxide (NaOH) are reacted at high temperature and high pressure to form polyphenylene sulfide and byproduct sodium chloride.</P>
                    <P>
                        (7) 
                        <E T="03">Stoichiometric material consumption equation, based on process identified as predominant method of production:</E>
                    </P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        n [2 NaOH + C
                        <E T="52">6</E>
                        H
                        <E T="52">6</E>
                         + 2 Cl
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                         + H
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        S] → [C
                        <E T="52">6</E>
                        H
                        <E T="52">4</E>
                        S]
                        <E T="52">n</E>
                         + 2n H
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        O + 2n NaCl + 2n HCl
                    </FP>
                    <P>
                        (8) 
                        <E T="03">Tax rate calculated by Petitioner, based on Petitioner's conversion factors for taxable chemicals used in production of substance:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (i) 
                        <E T="03">Tax rate:</E>
                         $14.50 per ton.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) 
                        <E T="03">Conversion factors:</E>
                         0.74 for sodium hydroxide, 0.72 for benzene, 1.31 for chlorine.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (9) 
                        <E T="03">Public docket number:</E>
                         IRS-2022-0037.
                    </P>
                    <SIG>
                        <NAME>Michael Beker,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Senior Counsel (Passthroughs and Special Industries),IRS Office of Chief Counsel.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03141 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4830-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Request for Individual Access to Records Protected Under the Privacy Act and Consent for Disclosure of Records Protected Under the Privacy Act</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Departmental Offices, U.S. Department of the Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Department of the Treasury will submit the following information collection requests to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice. The 
                        <PRTPAGE P="11943"/>
                        public is invited to submit comments on these requests.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments should be received on or before April 15, 2024 to be assured of consideration.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send comments regarding the burden estimate, or any other aspect of the information collection, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to Treasury PRA Clearance Officer, 1750 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Suite 8100, Washington, DC 20220, or email at 
                        <E T="03">PRA@treasury.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Copies of the submissions may be obtained from Ryan Law by emailing 
                        <E T="03">Ryan.Law@treasury.gov,</E>
                         calling (202) 622-8098, or viewing the entire information collection request at 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Request for Individual Access to Records Protected under the Privacy Act and Consent for Disclosure of Records Protected under the Privacy Act.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1505-NEW.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension without change of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     The 
                    <E T="03">Request for Individual Access to Records Protected under the Privacy Act and Consent for Disclosure of Records Protected under the Privacy Act,</E>
                     was developed in accordance with the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Memorandum M-21-04, 
                    <E T="03">Modernizing Access to and Consent for Disclosure of Records Subject to the Privacy Act,</E>
                     which implements the requirements of the Creating Advanced Streamlined Electronic Services for Constituents Act of 2019 (“CASES Act”). This form is based on the mandatory OMB M-21-04 templates for individuals to submit requests for accessing and consenting to the disclosure of records protected under the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, 5 U.S.C. 552a.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The 
                    <E T="03">Request for Individual Access to Records Protected under the Privacy Act</E>
                     form is used by individuals seeking access to their records under the Privacy Act and any information pertaining to them that are maintained in Treasury's systems of records. The Privacy Act provides that “the parent of any minor, or the legal guardian of any individual who has been declared to be incompetent due to physical or mental incapacity or age by a court of competent jurisdiction, may act on behalf of the individual.” Therefore, this form may also be used by a parent or legal guardian.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Public individuals.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     316.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Annual.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     316.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     3 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     948.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Request for Comments:</E>
                     Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval. All comments will become a matter of public record. Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services required to provide information.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Melody Braswell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Treasury PRA Clearance Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03153 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-AK-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">U.S.-CHINA ECONOMIC AND SECURITY REVIEW COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Open Public Hearing</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S.-China Economic and Security Review Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of open public hearing.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Notice is hereby given of the following hearing of the U.S.-China Economic and Security Review Commission. The Commission is mandated by Congress to monitor, investigate, and report to Congress annually on “the national security implications of the economic relationship between the United States and the People's Republic of China.” Pursuant to this mandate, the Commission will hold a public hearing in Washington, DC on March 1, 2024 on “Consumer Products from China: Safety, Regulations, and Supply Chains.”</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The hearing is scheduled for Friday, March 1, 2024 at 9:30 a.m.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Members of the public will be able to attend in person at a location TBD or view a live webcast via the Commission's website at 
                        <E T="03">www.uscc.gov.</E>
                          
                        <E T="03">Visit the Commission's website for updates to the hearing location or possible changes to the hearing schedule. Reservations are not required to view the hearing online or in person.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Any member of the public seeking further information concerning the hearing should contact Jameson Cunningham, 444 North Capitol Street NW, Suite 602, Washington, DC 20001; telephone: 202-624-1496, or via email at 
                        <E T="03">jcunningham@uscc.gov</E>
                        . 
                        <E T="03">Reservations are not required to attend the hearing.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">ADA Accessibility:</E>
                         For questions about the accessibility of the event or to request an accommodation, please contact Jameson Cunningham via email at 
                        <E T="03">jcunningham@uscc.gov.</E>
                         Requests for an accommodation should be made as soon as possible, and at least five business days prior to the event.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Background:</E>
                     This is the second public hearing the Commission will hold during its 2024 reporting cycle. The hearing will initially address the safety and quality of consumer products imported from China and the extent to which U.S. consumers, firms, and regulators are able to detect and respond to risks presented by unsafe and poor-quality imports. Next, the hearing will examine how shifts in global trade patterns affect U.S. supply chain resiliency, focusing on Chinese firms moving manufacturing abroad as well as attempts by Chinese firms to circumvent U.S. tariffs via transshipment through intermediary countries. Finally, the hearing will assess the Chinese government's economic and policy support for its domestic manufacturing sector and consider the potential impact of these policies on China and the United States.
                </P>
                <P>The hearing will be co-chaired by Commissioner Robin Cleveland and Commissioner Kimberly T. Glas. Any interested party may file a written statement by March 1, 2024 by transmitting it to the contact above. A portion of the hearing will include a question and answer period between the Commissioners and the witnesses.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Congress created the U.S.-China Economic and Security Review Commission in 2000 in the National Defense Authorization Act (Pub. L. 106-398), as amended by Division P of the Consolidated Appropriations Resolution, 2003 (Pub. L. 108-7), as amended by Public Law 109-108 (November 22, 2005), as amended by Public Law 113-291 (December 19, 2014).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="11944"/>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 12, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Daniel W. Peck,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Executive Director, U.S.-China Economic and Security Review Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03174 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 1137-00-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 2900-0659]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activity Under OMB Review: Statement in Support of Claimed Mental Health Disorder(s) Due to an In-Service Traumatic Event(s)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, this notice announces that the Veterans Benefits Administration (VBA), Department of Veterans Affairs, will submit the collection of information abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The PRA submission describes the nature of the information collection and its expected cost and burden and it includes the actual data collection instrument.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function. Refer to “OMB Control No. 2900-0659.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Maribel Aponte, Office of Enterprise and Integration, Data Governance Analytics (008), 810 Vermont Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20006, (202) 266-4688 or email 
                        <E T="03">maribel.aponte@va.gov.</E>
                         Please refer to “OMB Control No. 2900-0659” in any correspondence.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     38 U.S.C. 5103(a), 38 U.S.C. 5107(a), Public Law 117-271, Public Law 117-303, 38 CFR 3.304(f).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Statement in Support of Claimed Mental Health Disorder(s) Due to an In-Service Traumatic Event(s) (VA Form 21-0781).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2900-0659.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     VA Form 21-0781 is primarily used to gather certain information about in-service stressors, so VA may assist claimants in establishing the occurrence of the claimed stressor(s). To establish a grant of service-connected compensation, there must be evidence to support the in-service stressor(s) reported by the veteran. This form is voluntary, however, without this information, VA cannot thoroughly assist certain claimants with the research of military records and other sources of information for supporting evidence about the in-service stressor(s). The form requests information that is necessary to conduct meaningful research of evidence to help substantiate the claim.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This revision combines the two previously approved forms under this collection number into 
                    <E T="03">one</E>
                     form: resulting in the discontinuance of the previously approved VA Form 21-0781a, a new title, and a total reduction overall of burden on the claimant.
                </P>
                <P>
                    An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     Notice with a 60-day comment period soliciting comments on this collection of information was published at 88 FR 86220 on December 12, 2023.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals or Households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Burden:</E>
                     87,436.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Average Burden per Respondent:</E>
                     45 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     One time.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     116, 581.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By direction of the Secretary.</P>
                    <NAME>Dorothy Glasgow,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>VA PRA Clearance Officer, (Alt), Office of Enterprise and Integration, Data Governance Analytics, Department of Veterans Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03148 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8320-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 2900-0862]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activity: Decision Review Request: Higher-Level Review</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, this notice announces that the Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, will submit the collection of information abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The PRA submission describes the nature of the information collection and its expected cost and burden and it includes the actual data collection instrument.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice by clicking on the following link 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain,</E>
                         and select “Currently under Review—Open for Public Comments”, then search the list for the information collection by Title or “OMB Control No. 2900-0862.”
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Maribel Aponte, Office of Enterprise and Integration, Data Governance Analytics (008), 810 Vermont Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20420, (202) 266-4688 or email 
                        <E T="03">maribel.aponte@va.gov</E>
                        . Please refer to “OMB Control No. 2900-0862” in any correspondence.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Public Law 115-55; 44 U.S.C. 3501-21.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Decision Review Request: Higher-Level Review (VA Form 20-0996).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2900-0862.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     VA Form 20-0996, 
                    <E T="03">Decision Review Request: Higher-Level Review</E>
                     is used by a claimant to formally request a higher-level review of a VA decision as the agency of original jurisdiction, in accordance with the Appeals Modernization Act. The information collected is used by VA to identify the issues which the claimant wishes to dispute in their request for a higher-level review. Additionally, the information collected is used to schedule a telephonic informal conference, when requested.
                </P>
                <P>This is an extension of a currently approved collection which was due for renewal. No substantive changes were made to the collection. Minor changes were made to the instructions to make the instructions easier to understand. The requirement to sign in ink was removed. Changes were made to the Optional Informal Conference and Issues For Higher-Level Review sections to make these sections easier for claimants to understand and complete.</P>
                <P>
                    An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11945"/>
                    control number. The 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     Notice with a 60-day comment period soliciting comments on this collection of information was published at 88 FR 86449 on December 13, 2023.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals and households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Burden:</E>
                     49,650 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Average Burden per Respondent:</E>
                     15 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     One time.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     198,600.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By direction of the Secretary.</P>
                    <NAME>Dorothy Glasgow,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>VA PRA Clearance Officer, (Alt), Office of Enterprise and Integration, Data Governance Analytics, Department of Veterans Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03132 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8320-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>National Research Advisory Council, Notice of Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) gives notice under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C ch. 10, that the National Research Advisory Council will hold a meeting on Wednesday, March 6, 2024, by Teams. The teleconference number is 1-872-701-0185, Phone Conference ID: 189 112 632# or the meeting link is 
                    <E T="03">https://teams.microsoft.com/l/meetup-join/19%3ameeting_YzBmZGIwMDctOGU3Zi00NjAxLTlkNmQtYTliMTU0YTgwZTUw%40thread.v2/0?context=%7b%22Tid%22%3a%22e95f1b23-abaf-45ee-821d-b7ab251ab3bf%22%2c%22Oid%22%3a%227a4935a6-e7e0-4f23-b7e9-443546f09fa8%22%7d.</E>
                </P>
                <P>The meeting will convene at 9 a.m. and end at 1 p.m. Eastern Standard Time. This meeting is open to the public and will include time reserved for public comment at the end of the meeting. The public comment period will be 30 minutes. Individual stakeholders will be afforded three to five minutes to express their comments.</P>
                <P>The purpose of the National Research Advisory Council (NRAC) is to advise the Secretary on research conducted by the Veterans Health Administration, including policies and programs targeting the high priority of Veterans' health care needs.</P>
                <P>On March 6, 2024, the agenda will include remarks from the VA Secretary; The NRAC vision for supporting the VA Research Enterprise; the VA Office of Research and Development Annual Report to NRAC; a Sensitive Species Subcommittee update; an overview of collaborations with academic partners and external entities; an overview and discussion of high priority research topics; an update on the status of Psychedelic Assisted Treatment research efforts, and a discussion of NRAC recommendations.</P>
                <P>
                    Members of the public may submit written statements for review by the NRAC in advance of the meeting. Public comments may be received no later than close of business February 23, 2024, for inclusion in the official meeting record. Please send statements to Rashelle Robinson, Designated Federal Officer, Office of Research and Development (14RD), Department of Veterans Affairs, 811 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420, at 202-443-5768, or 
                    <E T="03">Rashelle.robinson@va.gov.</E>
                     Any member of the public seeking additional information should contact Rashelle Robinson at the above phone number or email address noted above.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: February 12, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>LaTonya L. Small,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Federal Advisory Committee Management Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03182 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8320-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 2900-0830]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activity: Claim for Reimbursement of Travel Expenses</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed revision of a currently approved collection, and allow 60 days for public comment in response to the notice.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before April 15, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at 
                        <E T="03">www.Regulations.gov</E>
                         or to Nancy J. Kessinger, Veterans Benefits Administration (20M33), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420 or email to 
                        <E T="03">nancy.kessinger@va.gov</E>
                        . Please refer to “OMB Control No. 2900-0830” in any correspondence. During the comment period, comments may be viewed online through FDMS.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Maribel Aponte, Office of Enterprise and Integration, Data Governance Analytics (008), 810 Vermont Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20420, (202) 266-4688 or email 
                        <E T="03">maribel.aponte@va.gov</E>
                        . Please refer to “OMB Control No. 2900-0830” in any correspondence.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.</P>
                <P>With respect to the following collection of information, VBA invites comments on:  (1) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of VBA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of VBA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     38 U.S.C. 501(a) and 38 U.S.C. 111.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Claim for Reimbursement of Travel Expenses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2900-0830.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     VA Form 28-0968, Claim for Reimbursement of Travel Expenses serves as a request to collect information for claimants to apply for the mileage reimbursement benefit in an efficient, convenient, and accurate manner. VR&amp;E must determine the identity of the claimant; the dates and length of the trip being claimed, based on the claimant's residence and the place of initial evaluation, reevaluation, and counseling to include personal or vocational adjustment, training, and attendant travel, or other place in connection with vocational rehabilitation; and whether expenses other than mileage are being claimed. Once the information is obtained, it is entered into the case 
                    <PRTPAGE P="11946"/>
                    management system and then the form is sent to the Support Services Division (SSD) to process payment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals and households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Burden:</E>
                     27,500 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Average Burden per Respondent:</E>
                     15 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     One time.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     110,000 per year.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By direction of the Secretary.</P>
                    <NAME>Dorothy Glasgow,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>VA PRA Clearance Officer, (Alt), Office of Enterprise and Integration/Data Governance Analytics, Department of Veterans Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03136 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8320-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 2900-0061]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activity: Request and Authorization for Supplies and Direct Reimbursement (Chapter 31—Veteran Readiness and Employment)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed revision of a currently approved collection, and allow 60 days for public comment in response to the notice.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before April 15, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at 
                        <E T="03">www.Regulations.gov</E>
                         or to Nancy J. Kessinger, Veterans Benefits Administration (20M33), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420 or email to 
                        <E T="03">nancy.kessinger@va.gov</E>
                        . Please refer to “OMB Control No. 2900-0061” in any correspondence. During the comment period, comments may be viewed online through FDMS.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Maribel Aponte, Office of Enterprise and Integration, Data Governance Analytics (008), 810 Vermont Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20420, (202) 266-4688 or email 
                        <E T="03">maribel.aponte@va.gov</E>
                        . Please refer to “OMB Control No. 2900-0061” in any correspondence.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.</P>
                <P>With respect to the following collection of information, VBA invites comments on:  (1) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of VBA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of VBA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     38 U.S.C. 501(a) and 38 U.S.C. 3104(a)(7).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Request and Authorization for Supplies and Direct Reimbursement (Chapter 31—Veteran Readiness and Employment).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2900-0061.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     VA Form 28-1905m, Request and Authorization for Supplies and Direct Reimbursement (Chapter 31—Veteran Readiness and Employment) serves as a request for supplies or equipment or apply for direct reimbursement for purchases of supplies and equipment as part of a rehabilitation program under 38 U.S.C. chapter 31. The training facility the Veteran attends, or the employer for whom the Veteran works, may also need to complete the form when the facility or employer requires specific types of supplies or equipment. Veterans may access the VAF 28-1905m from VA.gov or requesting the form from their assigned Vocational Rehabilitation Counselor (VRC). Veterans may return the completed VAF 28-1905m through centralized mail, via VR&amp;E's Electronic Virtual Assistant (e-VA), in-person, or emailing the form to their assigned VRC. There are no other invitations or other communications sent to the respondent associated with the information collection. The VR&amp;E staff subsequently uses the information on this form to approve the purchase of appropriate supplies and equipment or direct reimbursement for purchases of supplies and equipment for Veterans as part of a rehabilitation program. VAF 28-1905m allows Veterans in the VR&amp;E program to receive supplies and equipment or be directly reimbursed for purchases of supplies and equipment that are necessary for the successful completion of their rehabilitation program.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals and households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Burden:</E>
                     15,312 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Average Burden per Respondent:</E>
                     30 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     One time.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     30,623 per year.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By direction of the Secretary.</P>
                    <NAME>Dorothy Glasgow,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>VA PRA Clearance Officer, (Alt), Office of Enterprise and Integration/Data Governance Analytics, Department of Veterans Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03138 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8320-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 2900-0657]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activity Under OMB Review: Conflicting Interests Certification for Proprietary Schools</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, this notice announces that the Veterans Benefits Administration (VBA), Department of Veterans Affairs, will submit the collection of information abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The PRA submission describes the nature of the information collection and its expected cost and burden, and it includes the actual data collection instrument.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice by clicking on the following link 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain, select</E>
                         “Currently under Review—Open 
                        <PRTPAGE P="11947"/>
                        for Public Comments”, then search the list for the information collection by Title or “OMB Control No. 2900-0657.”
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Maribel Aponte, Office of Enterprise and Integration, Data Governance Analytics (008), 810 Vermont Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20420, (202) 266-4688 or email 
                        <E T="03">Maribel.aponte@va.gov</E>
                        . Please refer to “OMB Control No. 2900-0657” in any correspondence.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     38 U.S.C. 3683; 38 CFR 21.4202(c); 21.5200(c); 21.7122(e)(6); and 21.7622(f)(4)(iv).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Conflicting Interests Certification for Proprietary Schools, VA Form 22-1919.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     2900-0657.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) is authorized to pay education benefits to Veterans and other eligible persons pursuing approved programs of education under chapters 30, 31, 32, 33, and 35 of title 38, U.S.C., and chapter 1606 of title 10, U.S.C., sections 903 of Public Law 96-342, the National Call to Service provision of Public Law 107-314, and the Omnibus Diplomatic Security and Antiterrorism Act of 1986.
                </P>
                <P>Schools are required to submit information necessary to determine if their programs of training are approved for the payment of VA educational assistance. This specified information is submitted either to VA or to the State Approving Agency (SAA) having jurisdiction over that school. Certain schools are considered “proprietary” schools. A proprietary educational institution, as defined in 38 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 21.4200(z), is a private institution legally authorized to offer a program of education in the state where the institution is physically located. Section 3683 of title 38, U.S.C., and sections of 38 CFR establish conflict of interest restrictions related to proprietary schools. The VA Form 22-1919 is the instrument VA has implemented to address these restrictions.</P>
                <P>(a) VA Form 22-1919 is only used to collect information on two issues:</P>
                <P>(i) Section 3683 of title 38, U.S.C., prohibits employees of VA and the SAA from owning any interest in an educational institution operated for-profit. In addition, the law prohibits VA or SAA employees from receiving any wages, salary, dividends, profits, or gifts from private for-profit schools in which an eligible person is pursuing a program of education under an educational assistance program administered by VA. In addition, the law prohibits VA employees from receiving any services from these schools. These provisions may be waived if VA determines that no detriment will result to the government, or to Veterans or eligible persons enrolled at that private for-profit school. Item 1 of VA Form 22-1919 collects the name and title of affected VA and SAA employees known by the President (or Chief Administrative Official) of the school, as well as a description of these employees' association with that school.</P>
                <P>(ii) Sections 21.4202(c), 21.5200(c), 21.7122(e)(6), and 21.7622(f)(4)(iv) of title 38 of the CFR prohibit the approval of educational assistance from VA for the enrollment of a Veteran or eligible person in any proprietary school where the trainee is an official authorized to sign certifications of enrollment. Item 2 of VA Form 22-1919 collects the following information for each certifying official, owner, or officer who receives VA educational assistance based on an enrollment in that proprietary school: the name and title of these employees; VA file numbers; and dates of enrollment at the proprietary school.</P>
                <P>(b) VA only collects this information at the time one (or more) of these events occurs:</P>
                <P>(i) The initial approval of a program or course at a proprietary for-profit school;</P>
                <P>(ii) Any change of ownership of the school (either reported by the school or found upon review of a school's records during VA's compliance survey);</P>
                <P>(iii) A change in proprietary status (from non-proprietary to proprietary, or from non-profit to profit status). When the SAA, or VA acting as the SAA, visits the school in connection with the school's request for approval of its program(s), the representative has either the school's President or chief administrative official sign VA Form 22-1919. VA's Education Liaison Representative (ELR) will associate the completed VA Form 22-1919 with the other documentation compiled for approval of the school's program(s) and will retain this information in the approval folder. The approval folder is retained until such time as the SAA or VA withdraws approval of all courses at the school. All information in the approval folder is then destroyed according to established record control schedules.</P>
                <P>
                    An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                      
                    <E T="03">Notice</E>
                     with a 60-day comment period soliciting comments on this collection of information was published at 88 FR 86732 on Thursday, December 14, 2023, Pages 86732-86733.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Institutions of Higher Learning.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Annual Burden:</E>
                     39 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Average Burden Time per Respondent:</E>
                     10 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Occasional.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     236.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By direction of the Secretary.</P>
                    <NAME>Dorothy Glasgow,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>VA PRA Clearance Officer, (Alt), Office of Enterprise and Integration, Data Governance Analytics, Department of Veterans Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-03130 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8320-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
    </NOTICES>
    <VOL>89</VOL>
    <NO>32</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, February 15, 2024</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="11949"/>
            <PARTNO>Part II</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P"> Department of Defense</AGENCY>
            <SUBAGY>Defense Acquisition Regulations System</SUBAGY>
            <HRULE/>
            <CFR>48 CFR Parts 213, 225, and 252</CFR>
            <TITLE>Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement: DFARS Buy American Act Requirements (DFARS Case 2022-D019); Final Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <RULES>
            <RULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="11950"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                    <SUBAGY>Defense Acquisition Regulations System</SUBAGY>
                    <CFR>48 CFR Parts 213, 225, and 252</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[Docket DARS-2023-0024]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 0750-AL74</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement: DFARS Buy American Act Requirements (DFARS Case 2022-D019)</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Defense Acquisition Regulations System, Department of Defense (DoD).</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Final rule.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>DoD is issuing a final rule amending the Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) to implement an Executive order addressing domestic preferences in DoD procurement.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>Effective February 15, 2024.</P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>Kimberly Bass, telephone 703-717-3446.</P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                    <P>
                        DoD published a proposed rule in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         at 88 FR 37942 on June 9, 2023, to amend the DFARS to supplement the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) implementation of Executive Order (E.O.) 14005, Ensuring the Future Is Made in All of America by All of America's Workers (86 FR 7475, January 28, 2021). E.O. 14005 contemplates a series of actions to enable the United States Government to maximize the use of goods, products, and materials produced in the United States in order to strengthen and diversify domestic supplier bases and create new opportunities for U.S. firms and workers. The rule addresses section 8 of the E.O., which requires increasing the impact of the Buy American statute.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The revisions to the DFARS in this final rule supplement the FAR final rule published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         at 87 FR 12780 on March 7, 2022, with the required conforming changes for the DoD-unique requirements. Four respondents submitted public comments in response to the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Discussion and Analysis</HD>
                    <P>DoD reviewed the public comments in the development of the final rule. A discussion of the comments is provided. There were no changes made to the proposed rule as a result of those comments.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Summary of Significant Changes From the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>The prescriptions for use of the solicitation provisions at DFARS 252.225-7000, Buy America—Balance of Payments Program Certificate, and DFARS 252.225-7035, Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate, were revised to clarity the use of the solicitation provisions when the solicitation includes the provision at FAR 52.204-7, System for Award Management. The statement in the prescriptions at DFARS 225.1101(1) and 225.1101(9), “If the solicitation includes the provision at FAR 52.204-7, do not separately list the provision 252.225-7000 in the solicitation”, was removed.</P>
                    <P>The revision allows for the required identification by the offeror of supplies that do not meet the definition of a domestic end product and an increased domestic content threshold, by separately listing qualifying country and other foreign end products in its offer. The offeror's certification provides the country of origin for those foreign end products that do exceed 55 percent domestic content, except for those that are commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) items. Moreover, the provisions at DFARS 252.225-7000 and 252.225-7035 include the DoD-unique requirements associated with the framework in the DFARS as implemented in the FAR for the future application of the enhanced price preference for a domestic product that is considered a critical item.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Analysis of Public Comments</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Support for the Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         Some respondents were supportive of the overall goal of the rule in general to strengthen the domestic industrial base and promote American manufacturing and innovation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         DoD acknowledges the respondents' support for the rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Definitions</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few respondents requested that a definition of domestic content be provided. A respondent requested clarity on how the definition of domestic content differs from domestic end product, domestic component, or domestic source.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The rule revises the definitions of domestic end product, domestic construction material, and qualifying country end product, and makes conforming revisions in the applicable DFARS solicitation provisions and contract clauses including alternates to implement the newly established schedule for domestic content threshold that a product must meet to be defined as “domestic”. The current definition of domestic end product is at DFARS 225.003. “Domestic component” and “domestic source” are not defined in this rule. However, DFARS 225.003 states, “Source, when restricted by words such as foreign, domestic, or qualifying country, means the actual manufacturer or producer of the end product or component.” Moreover, the Buy American statute, for purchases above the micro-purchase threshold, still requires that only domestic end products be acquired subject to the listed exceptions in accordance with the requirements at DFARS 225.101 to determine whether a manufactured end product is a domestic end product.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Framework for Enhanced Price Preference</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A respondent conveyed thoughts regarding the need to ensure compliance with the domestic content framework to reduce DoD supply vulnerabilities and ensure contractor compliance with the domestic content requirements for critical items, components, and the price preferences. Another respondent further expressed the need for guidance on how domestic content of critical components will be accounted for and evaluated in source selection. A respondent also requested a clear definition of critical component, with explanation of how it differs from other similar terms. A respondent also requested that a definition of critical component in coordination with industry partners be provided.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The rule includes the future application of an enhanced price preference for a domestic product that is considered a critical item or is made up of critical components. The revisions to the DFARS in this rule only supplement the FAR by making the necessary conforming changes to specifically incorporate the DoD-unique requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>The proposed policy guidance on how the domestic content of critical items will be accounted for and evaluated will be provided in a subsequent rulemaking under FAR Case 2022-004, Enhanced Price Preference for Critical Items. The definition of critical component is provided at FAR 25.003, which was established as part of the framework for the enhanced price preference to be implemented in the subsequent FAR rule for critical items.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Buy American Act Exceptions and Waivers</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A respondent relayed concerns with the use of a public 
                        <PRTPAGE P="11951"/>
                        interest exception and continued use of Reciprocal Defense Procurement (RDP) Agreements with qualifying countries for the Buy American Act requirements implemented in the rule. A respondent commented that the rule creates more bureaucracy for senior Government officials, and that bureaucracy should not extend to decisions about individual contract terms and conditions. A respondent stated the rule should balance benefits of domestic sourcing with potential risks and provide reasonable exemptions or waivers for when domestic sourcing is not feasible. A respondent recommended the rule should address potential impacts on increased domestic content on availability, quality, and affordability of end products and components essential for national security or public interest. Additionally, a respondent stated that consideration should be given to tradeoffs between domestic sourcing and other factors. The respondent further recommended clear, consistent procedures for granting waivers and exceptions to the Buy American Act, and to define roles and responsibilities of stakeholders involved in the waiver process to streamline and standardize the process.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The public interest exception to the Buy American statute and the use of RDP Agreements with qualifying countries in DoD are essential to ensure mutual military readiness, standardization, and interoperability of equipment between the armed forces of the associated allied nations and for national security interests.
                    </P>
                    <P>DFARS 225.101(d)(1) provides for a senior procurement executive to allow the application of an alternate domestic content test in defining “domestic end product” after consultation with the Office of Management and Budget's Made in America Office, a process internal to the Government. The alternate domestic content test will allow the contractor to comply with the domestic content threshold that applies at the time of contract award, for the entire period of performance for that contract.</P>
                    <P>Additionally, the nonavailability waiver determination requirements of the OMB memorandum titled “Improving the Transparency of Made in America Waivers,” dated October 26, 2021, and the associated OMB Memorandum M-21-26, Increasing Opportunities for Domestic Sourcing and Reducing the Need for Waivers from Made in America Laws, dated June 11, 2021, provide for more transparency in the Federal marketplace to support domestic sourcing and increase public trust in the Federal Government's commitment to an expanded U.S. domestic supplier base. Moreover, OMB Memorandum M-21-26 outlines the initial process management steps to help Federal agencies prepare for and support a centralized strategic nonavailability waiver determination review process as required by E.O. 14005.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Alternate Domestic Content Test</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A few respondents stated concerns with the domestic content threshold requirements to be determined in the year of delivery. A respondent recommended the rule should be clear and concise, and the content requirements should be set at the time of contract award for the life of the contract. A respondent recommended a reasonable time for transition to comply with the new content requirements and provide technical support. A respondent also stated that changing content thresholds over time will be a complicating factor for multi-year indefinite-delivery, indefinite-quantity contracts, and the year of delivery requirements for domestic content creates uncertainty.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The rule allows for industry transition and the use of the 55 percent domestic content threshold (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the fallback threshold as included in the FAR final rule), until one year after the increase of the domestic content threshold to 75 percent. This rule supplements the FAR with a consistent 55 percent fallback threshold available until January 1, 2030, for use if domestic products at a higher threshold are not available, or the cost to acquire them would be unreasonable.
                    </P>
                    <P>This rule revises the definition of “domestic end product” to authorize the use of the fallback threshold if the award is made before January 1, 2030, for a foreign end product that exceeds 55 percent domestic content (see DFARS 225.103(b)(ii)). Therefore, a nonavailability determination is not required before January 1, 2030, if there is an offer for a foreign end product that exceeds 55 percent domestic content, including qualifying country content (see DFARS 225.103(b)(ii) and 225.202(a)(2)).</P>
                    <P>There are some instances where it is not feasible for some indefinite-delivery, indefinite-quantity contracts that are subject to the Buy American statute to meet changing domestic content thresholds throughout the period of performance. The rule at DFARS 225.101(d)(1) includes a process whereby an agency senior procurement executive may allow for application of an alternate domestic content test to the definition of “domestic construction material” and “domestic end product” and require the contractor to comply only with the domestic content threshold that is in effect at contract award for the entire contract term.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Supply Chain Impacts</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A respondent stated the rule will create supply chain challenges and recommended a more efficient rule. A respondent also stated that solutions were set with supply chains identified on award and the rule creates uncertainties in supply and can impact DoD readiness.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         The rule supplements the FAR final rule, which implements section 8 of E.O. 14005, aimed to strengthen the impact of Federal procurement preferences in the Buy American statute for end products and construction materials that are domestically manufactured from substantially all domestic content. The changes to the implementation of the Buy American statute were designed to support greater domestic production of products critical to our national and economic security. The rule provides a schedule for future increases to domestic content requirements, and a fallback threshold that would allow for products meeting a specific lower domestic content threshold to qualify as domestic products under certain circumstances. The rule supplements the FAR with a consistent 55 percent fallback threshold available until January 1, 2030, for use where domestic end products at a higher threshold are not available or the cost to acquire them would be unreasonable.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Determining Reasonableness of Cost</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A respondent recommended the rule provide more clarity and guidance on how to determine domestic content of end products and components, especially items with multiple sources or origins. The respondent also recommended the rule should provide how to calculate the cost of components, and provide what evidence is required to support the claims to reduce errors and costs. The respondent further stated that a significant factor in implementation of the rule should be transactional simplicity to reduce burden on all parties.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         There were no changes made to the process for determining cost reasonableness in the rule. Also see the response in this section at comment category number 2. Definitions.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">8. Outside the Scope of the Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         A respondent specified the need for the prompt publication of FAR 
                        <PRTPAGE P="11952"/>
                        Case 2022-004, Enhanced Price Preference for Critical Components and Critical Items, on about August 23, 2023.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Response:</E>
                         FAR case 2022-004, Enhanced Price Preference for Critical Items, is intended to establish the definitive list of critical items and critical components in the FAR, along with their associated enhanced price preference(s). The publication date for the FAR rule referenced is out of the scope of the implementation of this DFARS rule. However, information on FAR case 2022-004, Enhanced Price Preference for Critical Items, is provided at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/eAgendaMain.</E>
                         For information on FAR rules, select “DoD/GSA/NASA (FAR)” from the “Select Agency” drop-down menu.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Other Changes</HD>
                    <P>At DFARS 213.302-5(d)(i) and (ii) the titles of the clauses at DFARS 252.225-7001 and 252.225-7036 are corrected to remove the word “Act”. Conforming revisions required to the definition of qualifying country end product are made to the Basic and Alternates of the clause at DFARS 252.225-7021, Trade Agreements.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Applicability to Contracts at or Below the Simplified Acquisition Threshold (SAT) and for Commercial Services and Commercial Products, Including Commercially Available Off-the-Shelf (COTS) Items</HD>
                    <P>This final rule includes amendments to the following solicitation provisions and contract clauses: DFARS 252.225-7000, Buy American and Balance of Payments Program Certificate (Basic and Alternate I); DFARS 252.225-7001, Buy American and Balance of Payments Program (Basic and Alternate I); DFARS 252.225-7021 Trade Agreements (Basic and Alternates II, III, and IV); DFARS 252.225-7035, Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate (Basic and Alternates I, II, III, IV, and V); DFARS 252.225-7036, Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program (Basic and Alternates I, II, III, IV, and V); DFARS 252.225-7044, Balance of Payments Program—Construction Material, (Basic and Alternate I); and 252.225-7045, Balance of Payments Program—Construction Material Under Trade Agreements (Basic and Alternates I, II, and III). In addition, the rule includes new alternates for the clauses at DFARS 252.225-7001, 252.225-7036, 252.225-7044, and 252.225-7045. The rule does not add any new requirements on contracts at or below the simplified acquisition threshold, for commercial products including commercially available off the-shelf items, or for commercial services.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Expected Impact of the Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        This final rule revises the DFARS to supplement the FAR's implementation of the Buy American statute in accordance with E.O. 14005, via the final FAR rule (FAR Case 2021-008, published March 7, 2022, in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         at 87 FR 12780, with an effective date of October 25, 2022). The FAR final rule provided for the following:
                    </P>
                    <P>1. An increase to the domestic content threshold that a product must meet to be defined as “domestic”; a schedule for future increases; and a fallback threshold that would allow products meeting a specific lower domestic content threshold to qualify as a domestic product under certain circumstances; and</P>
                    <P>2. A framework for the application of an enhanced price preference for a domestic product that is considered a critical product or is made up of critical components.</P>
                    <P>This final rule implements these changes in DFARS part 225 and in the solicitation provisions and contract clauses that contain DoD-unique requirements such as the inclusion of qualifying countries. A qualifying country is a country that has a reciprocal defense procurement memorandum of understanding or international agreement with the United States in which both countries agree to remove barriers to purchases of supplies produced in the other country or services performed by sources of the other country. The memorandum of understanding or agreement complies, where applicable, with the requirements of section 36 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2776) and with 10 U.S.C. 2457. The DFARS definition of “domestic end product”, for the purpose of compliance with the domestic content threshold, includes components that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and in qualifying countries. The list of qualifying countries appears in the definition of “qualifying country” at DFARS 225.003 and in certain contract clauses.</P>
                    <P>It is anticipated that those domestic industries adjusting for the increased domestic content within their supply chains to continue supplying domestic end products are more likely to benefit from a competitive advantage when the rule takes effect. Because the FAR final rule has been in effect since October 2022, potential offerors may already be making those adjustments.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Buy American statute and the Balance of Payments Program (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         certifications required of offerors to demonstrate end products are domestic) remain unchanged and continue to reflect processes that have been in place for decades. Under this final rule, as under the FAR final rule, when deciding whether to pursue a procurement and use of products (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         domestic or foreign), offerors will have to plan for the future changes to the domestic content threshold during the period of performance of an anticipated contract, unless use of an alternate domestic content threshold, in effect at time of contract award, has been authorized.
                    </P>
                    <P>As under the FAR final rule, those offerors that do not modify their supply chains to comply with the scheduled increases to the domestic content threshold will still be able to propose an offer for DoD contracts. However, the price preference may no longer be available to them.</P>
                    <P>Increased domestic sourcing of content facilitates the reduction of DoD's supply chain risk. Because the FAR final rule has been in effect since October 2022, any increased burden with regard to the timed increases to the domestic content threshold, on contractors in particular, could be minor if not de minimis.</P>
                    <P>The framework for the enhanced price preference is intended to provide a stable source of demand for domestically produced critical products. This final rule merely supplements the FAR with the DoD-unique requirements. A separate rulemaking will be undertaken to add to the FAR critical products and components to establish the associated preferences. Therefore, the associated cost impacts and benefits will be captured in the subsequent FAR rulemaking (FAR case 2022-004, Enhanced Price Preference for Critical Items).</P>
                    <P>
                        There is an information collection burden associated with offerors identifying when a domestic end product or domestic construction material contains a critical component or critical item (see section VIII of this preamble), but it is anticipated that the information collection will be fully implemented for all agencies that use the FAR in the future rulemaking for FAR Case 2022-004. Any of the associated burden should be offset by the benefits of the larger price preference received for these items. The overall cost impact of this rule is not significant, and any associated impact is anticipated to be primarily positive.
                        <PRTPAGE P="11953"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Executive Orders 12866 and 13563</HD>
                    <P>Executive Orders (E.O.s) 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This is not a significant regulatory action and, therefore, was not subject to review under section 6(b) of E.O. 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, as amended.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Congressional Review Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        As required by the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801-808) before an interim or final rule takes effect, DoD will submit a copy of the interim or final rule with the form, Submission of Federal Rules under the Congressional Review Act, to the U.S. Senate, the U.S. House of Representatives, and the Comptroller General of the United States. A major rule under the Congressional Review Act cannot take effect until 60 days after it is published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has determined that this rule is not a major rule as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        A final regulatory flexibility analysis has been prepared consistent with the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601, 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                         and is summarized as follows:
                    </P>
                    <P>This rule includes amendments to the Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) to supplement the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) implementation of Executive Order (E.O.) 14005, Ensuring the Future Is Made in All of America by All of America's Workers (86 FR 7475, January 28, 2021), by addressing DoD-unique requirements. The FAR final rule, published at 87 FR 12780 on March 7, 2022 (effective October 25, 2022), implemented section 8 of E.O. 14005, which requires the impact of the Buy American statute to be strengthened by providing—</P>
                    <P>• An increase to the domestic content threshold required to be met for an end product and construction material to be defined as “domestic” and a schedule for future increases;</P>
                    <P>• A fallback threshold that allows for end products meeting a specific lower domestic content threshold to qualify as a domestic end product under certain circumstances; and</P>
                    <P>• A framework for application of an enhanced price preference for a domestic end product that is considered a critical item or is made up of critical components.</P>
                    <P>
                        The objective of the rule is to make conforming changes associated with the FAR implementation of E.O. 14005 that incorporate the DoD-unique requirements (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         inclusion of qualifying countries). E.O. 14005 addresses a series of actions to enable the U.S. Government to maximize the use of goods, products, and materials produced in the United States in order to strengthen and diversify domestic supplier bases and create new opportunities for U.S. firms and workers.
                    </P>
                    <P>No public comments were received in response to the initial regulatory flexibility analysis.</P>
                    <P>Data was obtained from the Federal Procurement Data System for fiscal years 2019, 2020, and 2021 on awards valued over the micro-purchase threshold for construction and for supplies. Based on the data, DoD made an average of 161,686 awards for supplies per year to approximately 14,913 small entities and an average of 177 awards for construction per year to approximately 167 small entities. This rule could apply to those small entities.</P>
                    <P>The rule includes new reporting, recordkeeping, or other compliance requirements for small businesses. Prior to this rule, small businesses already had to monitor compliance with contract requirements pertaining to the increased domestic content threshold implemented in the FAR for contracted items. This final rule makes conforming changes to align the DFARS with the FAR while incorporating the DoD-unique requirements. Due to small businesses' familiarity with the FAR final rule, the increases in the domestic content threshold implemented in this rule are unlikely to result in additional disruption to existing contractor supply chains.</P>
                    <P>The rule contains a few additional reporting requirements for certain offerors, including small businesses. Small businesses who submit an offer for a solicitation subject to the Buy American statute or the Balance of Payments Program already must list the foreign end products included in their offer. This final rule requires that the offeror also identify which of these foreign end products are not commercially available off-the-shelf items, do not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, and meet or exceed the fallback domestic content threshold.</P>
                    <P>There are no known significant alternative approaches to the rule that would meet the requirements of the Executive order.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                    <P>This final rule affects the information collection requirements in the provision at DFARS 252.225-7000, Buy American—Balance of Payments Program Certificate, currently approved under Office of Management and Budget Control Number 0704-0229, entitled Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement Part 225, Foreign Acquisition, and Related Clauses at 252.225; DD Form 2139, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35). The impact, however, is negligible, because the provision already requires the offeror to identify in its proposal supplies that do not meet the definition of domestic end product, separately listing qualifying country and other foreign end products. The Buy American statute does not apply to acquisitions of commercial information technology, and therefore this provision would not apply to commercial products and commercial services.</P>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 48 CFR Parts 213, 225, and 252</HD>
                        <P>Government procurement.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <SIG>
                        <NAME>Jennifer D. Johnson,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Editor/Publisher, Defense Acquisition Regulations System.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                    <P>Therefore, 48 CFR parts 213, 225, and 252 are amended as follows:</P>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="213">
                        <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for parts 213, 225, and 252 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                            <P> 41 U.S.C. 1303 and 48 CFR chapter 1.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 213—SIMPLIFIED ACQUSITION PROCEDURES</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="213">
                        <AMDPAR>2. Amend section 213.302-5 by revising paragraph (d) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>213.302-5</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Clauses.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(d) When using the clause at FAR 52.213-4, delete the reference to the clause at FAR 52.225-1, Buy American—Supplies. Instead, if the Buy American statute applies to the acquisition, use the clause at—</P>
                            <P>(i) 252.225-7001, Buy American and Balance of Payments Program, or the appropriate alternate, as prescribed at 225.1101(2); or</P>
                            <P>
                                (ii) 252.225-7036, Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of 
                                <PRTPAGE P="11954"/>
                                Payments Program, or the appropriate alternate, as prescribed at 225.1101(10).
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 225—FOREIGN ACQUISITION</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="225">
                        <AMDPAR>3. Amend section 225.003—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. In the definition of “Domestic end product” by revising the first sentence of paragraph (1)(ii)(A) introductory text; and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. In the definition of “Qualifying country end product” by revising paragraph (2)(i) introductory text and paragraph (2)(ii).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revisions read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>225.003</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Domestic end product</E>
                                 means—
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) * * *</P>
                            <P>(ii) * * *</P>
                            <P>(A) The cost of its qualifying country components and its components that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract in accordance with FAR 25.101(d); or award is made before January 1, 2030, for a foreign end product that exceeds 55 percent domestic content (see 225.103(b)(ii)). * * *</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                 means—
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(2) * * *</P>
                            <P>(i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract:</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(ii) The end product is a COTS item.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="225">
                        <AMDPAR>4. Amend section 225.101 by—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Revising paragraph (a)(ii)(A); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Adding paragraph (d).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revision and addition read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>225.101</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>General.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) * * *</P>
                            <P>(ii)(A) Except for an end product that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, the cost of its U.S. and qualifying country components exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, but see paragraph (d) of this section. This test is applied to end products only and not to individual components.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(d)(1) In lieu of the threshold increases in FAR 25.101(a)(2)(i), use the domestic content threshold increases in paragraph (a)(ii) of this section. The senior procurement executive may approve application of an alternate domestic content test, under which the domestic content threshold in effect at the time of contract award will apply to the entire period of performance of the contract, following consultation with the Office of Management and Budget's Made in America Office. See PGI 225.101 for guidance on documentation requirements when the senior procurement executive approves application of an alternate domestic content test.</P>
                            <P>(2) When the senior procurement executive allows for application of an alternate domestic content test for the contract pursuant to FAR 25.101(d)(1) (but see paragraph (d)(1) of this section)—</P>
                            <P>(A) See 225.1101(2)(iv) for use of alternate II of the clause at 252.225-7001, Buy American and Balance of Payments Program;</P>
                            <P>(B) See 225.1101(2)(v) for use of alternate III of the clause at 252.225-7001, Buy American and Balance of Payments Program;</P>
                            <P>(C) See 225.1101(9) for use of the basic or alternate provision at 252.225-7035, Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate, or the basic or alternate clause at 252.225-7036, Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program; and</P>
                            <P>(D) See 225.1101(10)(i) for use of the basic or alternate clause at 252.225-7036, Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="225">
                        <AMDPAR>5. Amend section 225.103—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. By revising paragraph (b)(ii) introductory text; and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. In paragraph (c) by removing “Subpart” and adding “subpart” in its place.</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revision reads as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>225.103</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Exceptions.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(b) * * *</P>
                            <P>(ii) A determination is not required before January 1, 2030, if there is an offer for a foreign end product that exceeds 55 percent domestic content. Except as provided in FAR 25.103(b)(3), the determination shall be approved—</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="225">
                        <AMDPAR>6. Redesignate section 225.105 as section 225.106 and revise newly redesignated section 225.106 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>225.106</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Determining reasonableness of cost.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(b) Use an evaluation factor of 50 percent instead of the factors specified in FAR 25.106(b)(1)(i) and (c)(1)(i).</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>225.170</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="225">
                        <AMDPAR>7. Amend section 225.170 by removing “Subpart” and adding “subpart” in its place.</AMDPAR>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="225">
                        <AMDPAR>8. Revise section 225.202 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>225.202</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Exceptions.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a)(2) A nonavailability determination is not required for construction materials listed in FAR 25.104(a). For other materials, a nonavailability determination shall be approved at the levels specified in 225.103(b)(ii). Use the estimated value of the construction materials to determine the approval level. A nonavailability determination is not required before January 1, 2030, if there is an offer for foreign construction material that exceeds 55 percent domestic content (also see FAR 25.204(b)(1)(ii) and (b)(2)(ii)).</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="225">
                        <AMDPAR>9. Amend section 225.502—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. In paragraph (c)(i)(A) by removing “subject only to the Buy American or Balance of Payments Program” and adding “subject only to the Buy American statute or the Balance of Payments Program” in its place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. In paragraph (c)(i)(B) by removing “factor” and adding “factor, but see 225.106” in its place; and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. By revising paragraph (c)(ii)(C).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revision reads as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>225.502</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Application.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(c) * * *</P>
                            <P>(ii) * * *</P>
                            <P>(C) If the low offer is a foreign offer that is exempt from application of the Buy American or Balance of Payments Program evaluation factor, award on that offer. If the low offer is a qualifying country offer from a country listed at 225.872-1(b), execute a determination in accordance with 225.872-4. A qualifying country offer is subject to the domestic content requirement for end products that are wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="225">
                        <PRTPAGE P="11955"/>
                        <AMDPAR>10. Amend section 225.1101—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. In paragraph (1) introductory text removing the last sentence in the text;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. In paragraph (1)(i) by removing “basic clause” and adding “basic clause or alternate II of the clause” in its place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. In paragraph (1)(ii) by removing “alternate I of the clause” and adding “alternate I or alternate III of the clause” in its place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>d. In paragraph (2)(i) by—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. Removing “basic or the alternate” and adding “basic or an alternate” in its place; and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>ii. Removing “Act”;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>e. By adding paragraphs (2)(iv) and (v);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>f. By redesignating paragraphs (6)(iii) and (iv) as (6)(v) and (vi), respectively; and adding new paragraphs (6)(iii) and (iv);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>g. In paragraph (9) introductory text, removing the last sentence;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>h. In paragraph (9)(i) by removing “basic of the clause” and adding “basic or alternate VI of the clause” in its place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. In paragraph (9)(ii) by removing “alternate I of the clause” and adding “alternate I or alternate VII of the clause” in its place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>j. In paragraph (9)(iii) by removing “alternate II of the clause” and adding “alternate II or alternate VIII of the clause” in its place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>k. In paragraph (9)(iv) by removing “alternate III of the clause” and adding “alternate III or alternate IX of the clause” in its place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>l. In paragraph (9)(v) by removing “alternate IV of the clause” and adding “alternate IV or alternate X of the clause” in its place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>m. In paragraph (9)(vi) by removing “alternate V of the clause” and adding “alternate V or alternate XI of the clause” in its place; and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>n. In paragraph (10)(i) by adding paragraphs (G) through (L).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The additions read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>225.1101</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Acquisition of supplies.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(2) * * *</P>
                            <P>(iv) Use alternate II of the clause in lieu of the basic clause in solicitations and contracts if—</P>
                            <P>(A) The acquisition is not of end products listed in 225.401-70 in support of operations in Afghanistan; and</P>
                            <P>(B) An alternate domestic content threshold will apply to the entire period of performance as approved by the senior procurement executive (see 225.101(d)).</P>
                            <P>(v) Use alternate III of the clause in lieu of Alternate I of the clause in solicitations and contracts if—</P>
                            <P>(A) The acquisition is of end products listed in 225.401-70 in support of operations in Afghanistan; and</P>
                            <P>(B) An alternate domestic content threshold will apply to the entire period of performance as approved by the senior procurement executive (see 225.101(d)).</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(6) * * *</P>
                            <P>(iii) Use the alternate III clause in lieu of the basic clause in solicitations and contracts that are not of end products in support of operations in Afghanistan or that include the clause at 252.225-7024, Requirement for Products or Services from Afghanistan, when an alternate domestic content threshold will apply to the entire period of performance as approved by the senior procurement executive (see 225.101(d)).</P>
                            <P>(iv) Use the alternate IV clause in lieu of the alternate II clause in solicitations and contracts that do not include the clause at 252.225-7024, Requirement for Products or Services from Afghanistan, when—</P>
                            <P>(A) The acquisition is of end products in support of operations in Afghanistan; and</P>
                            <P>(B) An alternate domestic content threshold will apply to the entire period of performance as approved by the senior procurement executive (see 225.101(d)).</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(10) * * *</P>
                            <P>(i) * * *</P>
                            <P>(G) Use the alternate VI clause in lieu of the basic clause in solicitations and contracts, except if the acquisition is of end products in support of operations in Afghanistan, when—</P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) The estimated value equals or exceeds $100,000 but is less than $183,000; and
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) An alternate domestic content threshold will apply to the entire period of performance as approved by the senior procurement executive (see 225.101(d)).
                            </P>
                            <P>(H) Use the alternate VII clause in lieu of the alternate I clause in solicitations and contracts, except if the acquisition is of end products in support of operations in Afghanistan, when—</P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) The estimated value is less than $92,319; and
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) An alternate domestic content threshold will apply to the entire period of performance as approved by the senior procurement executive (see 225.101(d)).
                            </P>
                            <P>(I) Use the alternate VIII clause in lieu of the alternate II clause in solicitations and contracts when—</P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) The estimated value is less than $183,000;
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) The acquisition is of end products in support of operations in Afghanistan; and
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) An alternate domestic content threshold will apply to the entire period of performance as approved by the senior procurement executive (see 225.101(d)).
                            </P>
                            <P>(J) Use the alternate IX clause in lieu of the alternate III clause in solicitations and contracts when—</P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) The estimated value is less than $92,319;
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) The acquisition is of end products in support of operations in Afghanistan; and
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) An alternate domestic content threshold will apply to the entire period of performance as approved by the senior procurement executive in accordance with FAR 25.101(d).
                            </P>
                            <P>(K) Use the alternate X clause in lieu of the alternate IV clause in solicitations and contracts, except if the acquisition is of end products in support of operations in Afghanistan, when—</P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) The estimated value equals or exceeds $92,319 but is less than $100,000; and
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) An alternate domestic content threshold will apply to the entire period of performance as approved by the senior procurement executive (see 225.101(d)).
                            </P>
                            <P>(L) Use the alternate XI clause in lieu of the alternate V clause in solicitations and contracts when—</P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) The estimated value equals or exceeds $92,319 but is less than $100,000;
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) The acquisition is of end products in support of operations in Afghanistan; and
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">3</E>
                                ) An alternate domestic content threshold will apply to the entire period of performance as approved by the senior procurement executive (see 225.101(d)).
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="225">
                        <AMDPAR>11. Amend section 225.7503 by—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Adding paragraphs (a)(3) and (4); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Adding paragraphs (b)(5) through (8).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The additions read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>225.7503</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Contract clauses.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) * * *</P>
                            <P>(3) Use the alternate II clause in lieu of the basic clause if an alternate domestic content threshold will apply to the entire period of performance as approved by the senior procurement executive (see 225.101(d)), unless the acquisition is in support of operations in Afghanistan.</P>
                            <P>
                                (4) Use the alternate III clause in lieu of the alternate I clause if—
                                <PRTPAGE P="11956"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(i) The acquisition is in support of operations in Afghanistan; and</P>
                            <P>(ii) An alternate domestic content threshold will apply to the entire period of performance as approved by the senior procurement executive (see 225.101(d)).</P>
                            <P>(b) * * *</P>
                            <P>(5) Use the alternate IV clause in lieu of the basic clause in solicitations and contracts, unless the acquisition is in support of operations in Afghanistan, when—</P>
                            <P>(i) The estimated value is $12,001,460 or more; and</P>
                            <P>(ii) An alternate domestic content threshold will apply to the entire period of performance as approved by the senior procurement executive (see 225.101(d)).</P>
                            <P>(6) Use the alternate V clause in lieu of the alternate I clause in solicitations and contracts, unless the acquisition is in support of operations in Afghanistan, when—</P>
                            <P>(i) The estimated value is $7,032,000 or more; and</P>
                            <P>(ii) An alternate domestic content threshold will apply to the entire period of performance as approved by the senior procurement executive (see 225.101(d)).</P>
                            <P>(7) Use the alternate VI clause in lieu of the alternate II clause in solicitations and contracts when—</P>
                            <P>(i) The estimated value is $12,001,460 or more;</P>
                            <P>(ii) The acquisition is in support of operations in Afghanistan; and</P>
                            <P>(iii) An alternate domestic content threshold will apply to the entire period of performance as approved by the senior procurement executive (see 225.101(d)).</P>
                            <P>(8) Use the alternate VII clause in lieu of the alternate III clause in solicitations and contracts when—</P>
                            <P>(i) The estimated value is $7,032,000 or more but less than $12,001,460;</P>
                            <P>(ii) The acquisition is in support of operations in Afghanistan; and</P>
                            <P>(iii) An alternate domestic content threshold will apply to the entire period of performance as approved by the senior procurement executive (see 225.101(d)).</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 252—SOLICITATION PROVISIONS AND CONTRACT CLAUSES</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="252">
                        <AMDPAR>12. Amend section 252.225-7000—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. By revising the provision date and paragraphs (a) and (c); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. In Alternate I, by revising the provision date and paragraphs (a) and (c).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revisions read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>252.225-7000</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Buy American—Balance of Payments Program Certificate.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American—Balance of Payments Program Certificate—Basic (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions. Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item, component, critical component, critical item, domestic end product,  foreign end product, qualifying country, qualifying country end product,</E>
                                     and 
                                    <E T="03">United States,</E>
                                     as used in this provision, have the meanings given in the 252.225-7001, Buy American and Balance of Payments Program—Basic clause of this solicitation.
                                </P>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Certifications and identification of country of origin.</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For all line items subject to the Buy American and Balance of Payments Program—Basic clause of this solicitation, the Offeror certifies that—</P>
                                <P>(i) Each end product, except those listed in paragraphs (c)(2) or (3) of this provision, is a domestic end product and that each domestic end product listed in paragraph (c)(4) of this provision contains a critical component or a critical item; and</P>
                                <P>(ii) For end products other than COTS items, components of unknown origin are considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured outside the United States or a qualifying country. For those end products that do not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, the Offeror shall also indicate whether these foreign end products exceed 55 percent domestic content, except for those that are COTS items. If the percentage of the domestic content is unknown, select “no”.</P>
                                <P>(2) The Offeror certifies that the following end products are qualifying country end products:</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,r100">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1">Line item No.</CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1">Country of origin</CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW RUL="s">
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW RUL="s">
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <P>(3) The following end products are other foreign end products, including end products manufactured in the United States that do not qualify as domestic end products. For those foreign end products that do not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, the Offeror shall also indicate whether these foreign end products exceed 55 percent domestic content, except for those that are COTS items. If the percentage of the domestic content is unknown, select “no”.</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s75,r75,r75">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1">Line item No. </CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1">
                                            Country of origin 
                                            <LI>(If known)</LI>
                                        </CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1">
                                            Exceeds 55% domestic content 
                                            <LI>(yes/no)</LI>
                                        </CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW RUL="s">
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW RUL="s">
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <P>(4) The Offeror shall separately list the line item numbers of domestic end products that contain a critical component or a critical item (see Federal Acquisition Regulation 25.105).</P>
                                <P>
                                    Domestic end products containing a critical component or a critical item: Line Item Number [
                                    <E T="03">List as necessary</E>
                                    ]
                                </P>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Alternate I.</E>
                                     * * *
                                </P>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American—Balance of Payments Program Certificate—Alternate I (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions. Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item, component, critical component, critical item, domestic end product, foreign end product, qualifying country, qualifying country end product, South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state, South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state end product,</E>
                                     and 
                                    <E T="03">United States,</E>
                                     as used in this provision, have the meanings given in the 252.225-7001, Buy American and Balance of Payments Program—Alternate I clause of this solicitation.
                                </P>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Certifications and identification of country of origin.</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (1) For all line items subject to the Buy American and Balance of Payments 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11957"/>
                                    Program—Alternate I clause of this solicitation, the Offeror certifies that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(i) Each end product, except those listed in paragraphs (c)(2) or (3) of this provision, is a domestic end product and that each domestic end product listed in paragraph (c)(4) of this provision contains a critical component or a critical item; and</P>
                                <P>(ii) For end products other than COTS items, components of unknown origin are considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured outside the United States or a qualifying country. For those end products that do not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, the Offeror shall also indicate whether these foreign end products exceed 55 percent domestic content, except for those that are COTS items. If the percentage of the domestic content is unknown, select “no”.</P>
                                <P>(2) The Offeror certifies that the following end products are qualifying country end products or SC/CASA state end products:</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,r100">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1">Line item No.</CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1">Country of origin</CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                        <ENT>.</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <P>(3) The following end products are other foreign end products, including end products manufactured in the United States that do not qualify as domestic end products. For those foreign end products that do not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, the Offeror shall also indicate whether these foreign end products exceed 55 percent domestic content, except for those that are COTS items. If the percentage of the domestic content is unknown, select “no”.</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s75,r75,r75">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1">Line item No.</CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1">
                                            Country of origin 
                                            <LI>(if known)</LI>
                                        </CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1">
                                            Exceeds 55% domestic content 
                                            <LI>(yes/no)</LI>
                                        </CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW RUL="s">
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW RUL="s">
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                                        <ENT O="xl"/>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <P>(4) The Offeror shall separately list the line item numbers of domestic end products that contain a critical component or a critical item (see Federal Acquisition Regulation 25.105).</P>
                                <P>
                                    Domestic end products containing a critical component or a critical item: Line Item Number [
                                    <E T="03">List as necessary</E>
                                    ].
                                </P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="252">
                        <AMDPAR>13. Amend section 252.225-7001—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. By revising the clause date;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. In paragraph (a)—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. In the definition of “Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item” paragraph (1)(i) by removing “Federal Acquisition Regulation” and adding “Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR)” in its place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>ii. By adding, in alphabetical order, the definitions of “Critical component” and “Critical item”;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>iii. In the definition of “Domestic end product” by revising the first sentence of paragraph (1)(ii)(A) introductory text;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>iv. In the definition of “Qualifying country end product” by revising paragraph (2)(i) introductory text;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. By revising paragraph (b);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>d. In Alternate I—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. By revising the clause date;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>ii. In paragraph (a)—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>A. In the definition of “Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item” paragraph (1)(i) by removing “Federal Acquisition Regulation” and adding “Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR)” in its place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>B. By adding, in alphabetical order, the definitions of “Critical component” and “Critical item”;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>C. In the definition of “Domestic end product” by revising the first sentence of paragraph (1)(ii)(A) introductory text;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>D. In the definition of “Qualifying country end product” by revising paragraph (2)(i) introductory text; and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>e. By adding Alternate II and Alternate III.</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revisions and additions read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>252.225-7001</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Buy American and Balance of Payments Program.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American and Balance of Payments Program—Basic (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>(a) * * *</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means a domestic construction material or domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) * * *</P>
                                <P>(ii) * * *</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its qualifying country components and its components that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract in accordance with FAR 25.101(d), or award is made before January 1, 2030, for a foreign end product that exceeds 55 percent domestic content (see Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement 225.103(b)(ii)). * * *</P>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>(2) * * *</P>
                                <P>(i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract:</P>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>(b) This clause implements 41 U.S.C. chapter 83, Buy American. In accordance with 41 U.S.C. 1907, the component test of the Buy American statute is waived for an end product that is a COTS item (see FAR 12.505(a)(1)). Unless otherwise specified, this clause applies to all line items in the contract.</P>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Alternate I.</E>
                                     * * *
                                </P>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American and Balance of Payments Program—Alternate I (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>(a) * * *</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means a domestic construction material or domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) * * *</P>
                                <P>(ii) * * *</P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) The cost of its qualifying country components and its components that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11958"/>
                                    2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract in accordance with FAR 25.101(d), or award is made before January 1, 2030, for a foreign end product that exceeds 55 percent domestic content (see Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement 225.103(b)(ii)). * * *
                                </P>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>(2) * * *</P>
                                <P>(i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract:</P>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Alternate II.</E>
                                     As prescribed in 225.1101(2)(i) and (2)(iv), use the following clause, which includes, in the definitions of “domestic end product” at paragraph (1)(ii)(A) and “qualifying country end product” at paragraph (2)(i), the domestic content threshold that will apply to the entire contract period of performance.
                                </P>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American and Balance of Payments Program—Alternate II (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item</E>
                                    —
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>(i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of “commercial product” in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR));</P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in 46 U.S.C. 40102(4), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply incorporated directly into an end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means a domestic construction material or domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For an end product that does not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both—</P>
                                <P>(i) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) An end product manufactured in the United States if—</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its qualifying country components and its components that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components. The cost of components includes transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the end product and U.S. duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued). Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. Scrap generated, collected, and prepared for processing in the United States is considered domestic. A component is considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States (regardless of its source in fact) if the end product in which it is incorporated is manufactured in the United States and the component is of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States; or
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) It is inconsistent with the public interest to apply the restrictions of the Buy American statute; or
                                </P>
                                <P>(B) The end product is a COTS item; or</P>
                                <P>(2) For an end product that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, an end product manufactured in the United States, if the cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country constitutes less than 5 percent of the cost of all the components used in the end product (produced in the United States or a qualifying country means that all manufacturing processes of the iron or steel must take place in the United States or a qualifying country, except metallurgical processes involving refinement of steel additives). The cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country includes but is not limited to the cost of iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings, not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, utilized in the manufacture of the end product and a good faith estimate of the cost of all iron or steel components not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, excluding COTS fasteners. Iron or steel components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. If the end product contains multiple components, the cost of all the materials used in such end product is calculated in accordance with the explanation of cost of components in paragraph (1)(ii)(A) of this definition.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">End product</E>
                                     means those articles, materials, and supplies to be acquired under this contract for public use.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Foreign end product</E>
                                     means an end product other than a domestic end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                                     means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components excluding COTS fasteners.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country</E>
                                     means a country with a reciprocal defense procurement memorandum of understanding or international agreement with the United States in which both countries agree to remove barriers to purchases of supplies produced in the other country or services performed by sources of the other country, and the memorandum or agreement complies, where applicable, with the requirements of section 36 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2776) and with 10 U.S.C. 2457. Accordingly, the following are qualifying countries:
                                </P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Australia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Austria</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Belgium</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Canada</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Czech Republic</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Denmark</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Egypt</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Estonia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Finland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">France</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Germany</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Greece</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Israel</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Italy</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Japan</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Latvia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lithuania</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Luxembourg</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Netherlands</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Norway</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Poland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Portugal</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Slovenia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Spain</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sweden</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Switzerland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Turkey</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.</FP>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country component</E>
                                     means a component mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in a qualifying country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) An end product manufactured in a qualifying country if—</P>
                                <P>(i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components:</P>
                                <P>(A) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>(B) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States.</P>
                                <P>(C) Components of foreign origin of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States. Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign; or</P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) The end product is a COTS item.
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11959"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Steel</E>
                                     means an alloy that includes at least 50 percent iron, between 0.02 and 2 percent carbon, and may include other elements.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>(b) This clause implements 41 U.S.C. chapter 83, Buy American. In accordance with 41 U.S.C. 1907, the component test of the Buy American statute is waived for an end product that is a COTS item (see FAR 12.505(a)(1)). Unless otherwise specified, this clause applies to all line items in the contract.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Contractor shall deliver only domestic end products unless, in its offer, it specified delivery of other end products in the Buy American—Balance of Payments Program Certificate provision of the solicitation. If the Contractor certified in its offer that it will deliver a qualifying country end product, the Contractor shall deliver a qualifying country end product or, at the Contractor's option, a domestic end product.</P>
                                <P>(d) The contract price does not include duty for end products or components for which the Contractor will claim duty-free entry.</P>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Alternate III.</E>
                                     As prescribed in 225.1101(2)(i) and (2)(v), use the following clause, which includes, in the definitions of “domestic end product” at paragraph (1)(ii)(A) and “qualifying country end product” at paragraph (2)(i), the domestic content threshold that will apply to the entire contract period of performance; adds “South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state” and “South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state end product” to paragraph (a); and uses different paragraphs (b) and (c) than the basic clause:
                                </P>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American and Balance of Payments Program—Alternate III (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item</E>
                                    —
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>(i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of “commercial product” in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR));</P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in 46 U.S.C. 40102(4), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply incorporated directly into an end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means a domestic construction material or domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For an end product that does not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both—</P>
                                <P>(i) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) An end product manufactured in the United States if—</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its qualifying country components and its components that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components. The cost of components includes transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the end product and U.S. duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued). Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. Scrap generated, collected, and prepared for processing in the United States is considered domestic. A component is considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States (regardless of its source in fact) if the end product in which it is incorporated is manufactured in the United States and the component is of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States; or
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) It is inconsistent with the public interest to apply the restrictions of the Buy American statute; or
                                </P>
                                <P>(B) The end product is a COTS item; or</P>
                                <P>(2) For an end product that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, an end product manufactured in the United States, if the cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country constitutes less than 5 percent of the cost of all the components used in the end product (produced in the United States or a qualifying country means that all manufacturing processes of the iron or steel must take place in the United States or a qualifying country, except metallurgical processes involving refinement of steel additives). The cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country includes but is not limited to the cost of iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings, not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, utilized in the manufacture of the end product and a good faith estimate of the cost of all iron or steel components not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, excluding COTS fasteners. Iron or steel components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. If the end product contains multiple components, the cost of all the materials used in such end product is calculated in accordance with the explanation of cost of components in paragraph (1)(ii)(A) of this definition.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">End product</E>
                                     means those articles, materials, and supplies to be acquired under this contract for public use.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Foreign end product</E>
                                     means an end product other than a domestic end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                                     means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components excluding COTS fasteners.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country</E>
                                     means a country with a reciprocal defense procurement memorandum of understanding or international agreement with the United States in which both countries agree to remove barriers to purchases of supplies produced in the other country or services performed by sources of the other country, and the memorandum or agreement complies, where applicable, with the requirements of section 36 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2776) and with 10 U.S.C. 2457. Accordingly, the following are qualifying countries:
                                </P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Australia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Austria</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Belgium</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Canada</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Czech Republic</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Denmark</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Egypt</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Estonia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Finland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">France</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Germany</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Greece</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Israel</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Italy</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Japan</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Latvia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lithuania</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Luxembourg</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Netherlands</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Norway</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Poland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Portugal</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Slovenia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Spain</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sweden</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Switzerland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Turkey</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.</FP>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country component</E>
                                     means a component mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in a qualifying country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) An end product manufactured in a qualifying country if—</P>
                                <P>(i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components:</P>
                                <P>(A) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States.
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11960"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>(C) Components of foreign origin of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States. Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) The end product is a COTS item.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state</E>
                                     means Armenia, Azerbaijan, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, or Uzbekistan.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of an SC/CASA state; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in an SC/CASA state into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Steel</E>
                                     means an alloy that includes at least 50 percent iron, between 0.02 and 2 percent carbon, and may include other elements.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>(b) This clause implements the Balance of Payments Program. Unless otherwise specified, this clause applies to all line items in the contract.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Contractor shall deliver only domestic end products unless, in its offer, it specified delivery of other end products in the Buy American—Balance of Payments Program Certificate provision of the solicitation. If the Contractor certified in its offer that it will deliver a qualifying country end product or an SC/CASA state end product, the Contractor shall deliver a qualifying country end product, an SC/CASA state end product, or, at the Contractor's option, a domestic end product.</P>
                                <P>(d) The contract price does not include duty for end products or components for which the Contractor will claim duty-free entry.</P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="252">
                        <AMDPAR>14. Amend section 252.225-7021—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. By revising the clause date;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. In paragraph (a) in the definition of “Qualifying country end product” by revising paragraph (2)(i);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. In Alternate II—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. By revising the clause date; and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>ii. In paragraph (a) in the definition of “Qualifying country end product” revising paragraph (2)(i); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>d. By adding Alternate III and Alternate IV.</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revisions and additions read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>252.225-7021</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Trade Agreements.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Trade Agreements—Basic (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>(a) * * *</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                     means—* * *
                                </P>
                                <P>(2) * * *</P>
                                <P>(i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract:</P>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Alternate II.</E>
                                     * * *
                                </P>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Trade Agreements—Alternate II (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>(a) * * *</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>(2) * * *</P>
                                <P>(i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract:</P>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Alternate III.</E>
                                     As prescribed in 225.1101(6) and (6)(iii), use the following clause, which includes, in the definition of “qualifying country end product” at paragraph (2)(i), the domestic content threshold that will apply to the entire contract period of performance.
                                </P>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Trade Agreements—Alternate III (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Caribbean Basin country end product</E>
                                    —
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means an article that—</P>
                                <P>(i) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Caribbean Basin country; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Caribbean Basin country into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Excludes products, other than petroleum and any product derived from petroleum, that are not granted duty-free treatment under the Caribbean Basin Economic Recovery Act (19 U.S.C. 2703(b)). These exclusions presently consist of—</P>
                                <P>(i) Textiles, apparel articles, footwear, handbags, luggage, flat goods, work gloves, leather wearing apparel, and handloomed, handmade, or folklore articles that are not granted duty-free status in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS);</P>
                                <P>(ii) Tuna, prepared or preserved in any manner in airtight containers; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Watches and watch parts (including cases, bracelets, and straps) of whatever type, including, but not limited to, mechanical, quartz digital, or quartz analog, if such watches or watch parts contain any material that is the product of any country to which the HTSUS column 2 rates of duty (HTSUS General Note 3(b)) apply.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item</E>
                                    —
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>(i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of “commercial product” in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation);</P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in 46 U.S.C. 40102(4), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply incorporated directly into an end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>“Designated country” means—</P>
                                <P>(1) A World Trade Organization Government Procurement Agreement (WTO GPA) country (Armenia, Aruba, Australia, Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria, Canada, Croatia, Cyprus, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hong Kong, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, Korea (Republic of), Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Moldova, Montenegro, Netherlands, New Zealand, North Macedonia, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Singapore, Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Taiwan (known in the World Trade Organization as “the Separate Customs Territory of Taiwan, Penghu, Kinmen, and Matsu” (Chinese Taipei)), Ukraine, or the United Kingdom);</P>
                                <P>(2) A Free Trade Agreement country (Australia, Bahrain, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Dominican Republic, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, Korea (Republic of), Mexico, Morocco, Nicaragua, Panama, Peru, or Singapore);</P>
                                <P>(3) A least developed country (Afghanistan, Angola, Bangladesh, Benin, Bhutan, Burkina Faso, Burundi, Cambodia, Central African Republic, Chad, Comoros, Democratic Republic of Congo, Djibouti, Equatorial Guinea, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Gambia, Guinea, Guinea-Bissau, Haiti, Kiribati, Laos, Lesotho, Liberia, Madagascar, Malawi, Mali, Mauritania, Mozambique, Nepal, Niger, Rwanda, Samoa, Sao Tome and Principe, Senegal, Sierra Leone, Solomon Islands, Somalia, South Sudan, Tanzania, Timor-Leste, Togo, Tuvalu, Uganda, Vanuatu, Yemen, or Zambia); or</P>
                                <P>(4) A Caribbean Basin country (Antigua and Barbuda, Aruba, Bahamas, Barbados, Belize, Bonaire, British Virgin Islands, Curacao, Dominica, Grenada, Guyana, Haiti, Jamaica, Montserrat, Saba, St. Kitts and Nevis, St. Lucia, St. Vincent and the Grenadines, Sint Eustatius, Sint Maarten, or Trinidad and Tobago).</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Designated country end product</E>
                                     means a WTO GPA country end product, a Free Trade 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11961"/>
                                    Agreement country end product, a least developed country end product, or a Caribbean Basin country end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">End product</E>
                                     means those articles, materials, and supplies to be acquired under this contract for public use.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Free Trade Agreement country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Free Trade Agreement country into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Least developed country end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a least developed country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a least developed country into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Nondesignated country end product</E>
                                     means any end product that is not a U.S.-made end product or a designated country end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country</E>
                                     means a country with a reciprocal defense procurement memorandum of understanding or international agreement with the United States in which both countries agree to remove barriers to purchases of supplies produced in the other country or services performed by sources of the other country, and the memorandum or agreement complies, where applicable, with the requirements of section 36 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2776) and with 10 U.S.C. 2457. Accordingly, the following are qualifying countries:
                                </P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Australia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Austria</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Belgium</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Canada</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Czech Republic</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Denmark</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Egypt</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Estonia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Finland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">France</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Germany</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Greece</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Israel</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Italy</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Japan</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Latvia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lithuania</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Luxembourg</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Netherlands</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Norway</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Poland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Portugal</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Slovenia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Spain</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sweden</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Switzerland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Turkey</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.</FP>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in a qualifying country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) An end product manufactured in a qualifying country if—</P>
                                <P>(i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components:</P>
                                <P>(A) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>(B) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States.</P>
                                <P>(C) Components of foreign origin of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) The end product is a COTS item.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">U.S.-made end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(2) Is substantially transformed in the United States into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">WTO GPA country end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a WTO GPA country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a WTO GPA country into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>(b) Unless otherwise specified, this clause applies to all items in the Schedule.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Contractor shall deliver under this contract only U.S.-made, qualifying country, or designated country end products unless—</P>
                                <P>(1) In its offer, the Contractor specified delivery of other nondesignated country end products in the Trade Agreements Certificate provision of the solicitation; and</P>
                                <P>(2)(i) Offers of U.S.-made, qualifying country, or designated country end products from responsive, responsible offerors are either not received or are insufficient to fill the Government's requirements; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) A national interest waiver has been granted.</P>
                                <P>(d) The contract price does not include duty for end products or components for which the Contractor will claim duty-free entry.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (e) The HTSUS is available at 
                                    <E T="03">http://www.usitc.gov/tata/hts/bychapter/index.htm.</E>
                                     The following sections of the HTSUS provide information regarding duty-free status of articles specified in the definition of “Caribbean Basin country end product” within paragraph (a) of this clause:
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) General Note 3(c), Products Eligible for Special Tariff Treatment.</P>
                                <P>(2) General Note 17, Products of Countries Designated as Beneficiary Countries Under the United States-Caribbean Basin Trade Partnership Act of 2000.</P>
                                <P>(3) Section XXII, Chapter 98, Subchapter II, Articles Exported and Returned, Advanced or Improved Abroad, U.S. Note 7(b).</P>
                                <P>(4) Section XXII, Chapter 98, Subchapter XX, Goods Eligible for Special Tariff Benefits Under the United States-Caribbean Basin Trade Partnership Act.</P>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Alternate IV.</E>
                                     As prescribed in 225.1101(6) and (6)(iv), use the following clause, which (i) includes, in the definition of “qualifying country end product” at paragraph (2)(i), the domestic content threshold that will apply to the entire contract period of performance; (ii) adds “South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state” and “South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state end product” to paragraph (a); (iii) uses a different paragraph (c) than the basic clause; (iv) adds a new paragraph (d); and (v) includes paragraphs (e) and (f) which are the same paragraphs (d) and (e) of the basic clause:
                                </P>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Trade Agreements—Alternate IV (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Caribbean Basin country end product—</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means an article that—</P>
                                <P>(i) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Caribbean Basin country; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Caribbean Basin country into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself; and</P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) Excludes products, other than petroleum and any product derived from petroleum, that are not granted duty-free treatment under the Caribbean Basin 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11962"/>
                                    Economic Recovery Act (19 U.S.C. 2703(b)). These exclusions presently consist of—
                                </P>
                                <P>(i) Textiles, apparel articles, footwear, handbags, luggage, flat goods, work gloves, leather wearing apparel, and handloomed, handmade, or folklore articles that are not granted duty-free status in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS);</P>
                                <P>(ii) Tuna, prepared or preserved in any manner in airtight containers; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Watches and watch parts (including cases, bracelets, and straps) of whatever type, including, but not limited to, mechanical, quartz digital, or quartz analog, if such watches or watch parts contain any material that is the product of any country to which the HTSUS column 2 rates of duty (HTSUS General Note 3(b)) apply.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item—</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>(i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of commercial product in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation);</P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in 46 U.S.C. 40102(4), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply incorporated directly into an end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Designated country</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) A World Trade Organization Government Procurement Agreement (WTO GPA) country (Armenia, Aruba, Australia, Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria, Canada, Croatia, Cyprus, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hong Kong, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, Korea (Republic of), Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Moldova, Montenegro, Netherlands, New Zealand, North Macedonia, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Singapore, Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Taiwan (known in the World Trade Organization as “the Separate Customs Territory of Taiwan, Penghu, Kinmen, and Matsu” (Chinese Taipei)), Ukraine, or the United Kingdom);</P>
                                <P>(2) A Free Trade Agreement country (Australia, Bahrain, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Dominican Republic, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, Korea (Republic of), Mexico, Morocco, Nicaragua, Peru, or Singapore);</P>
                                <P>(3) A least developed country (Afghanistan, Angola, Bangladesh, Benin, Bhutan, Burkina Faso, Burundi, Cambodia, Central African Republic, Chad, Comoros, Democratic Republic of Congo, Djibouti, East Timor, Equatorial Guinea, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Gambia, Guinea, Guinea-Bissau, Haiti, Kiribati, Laos, Lesotho, Liberia, Madagascar, Malawi, Maldives, Mali, Mauritania, Mozambique, Nepal, Niger, Rwanda, Samoa, Sao Tome and Principe, Senegal, Sierra Leone, Solomon Islands, Somalia, Tanzania, Togo, Tuvalu, Uganda, Vanuatu, Yemen, or Zambia); or</P>
                                <P>(4) A Caribbean Basin country (Antigua and Barbuda, Aruba, Bahamas, Barbados, Belize, Bonaire, British Virgin Islands, Curacao, Dominica, Grenada, Guyana, Haiti, Jamaica, Montserrat, Saba, St. Kitts and Nevis, St. Lucia, St. Vincent and the Grenadines, Sint Eustatius, Sint Maarten, or Trinidad and Tobago).</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Designated country end product</E>
                                     means a WTO GPA country end product, a Free Trade Agreement country end product, a least developed country end product, or a Caribbean Basin country end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">End product</E>
                                     means those articles, materials, and supplies to be acquired under this contract for public use.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Free Trade Agreement country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Free Trade Agreement country into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Least developed country end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a least developed country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a least developed country into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Nondesignated country end product</E>
                                     means any end product that is not a U.S.-made end product or a designated country end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country</E>
                                     means a country with a reciprocal defense procurement memorandum of understanding or international agreement with the United States in which both countries agree to remove barriers to purchases of supplies produced in the other country or services performed by sources of the other country, and the memorandum or agreement complies, where applicable, with the requirements of section 36 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2776) and with 10 U.S.C. 2457. Accordingly, the following are qualifying countries:
                                </P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Australia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Austria</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Belgium</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Canada</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Czech Republic</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Denmark</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Egypt</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Estonia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Finland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">France</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Germany</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Greece</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Israel</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Italy</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Japan</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Latvia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lithuania</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Luxembourg</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Netherlands</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Norway</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Poland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Portugal</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Slovenia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Spain</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sweden</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Switzerland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Turkey</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.</FP>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in a qualifying country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) An end product manufactured in a qualifying country if—</P>
                                <P>(i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components:</P>
                                <P>(A) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>(B) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States.</P>
                                <P>(C) Components of foreign origin of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) The end product is a COTS item.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state</E>
                                     means Armenia, Azerbaijan, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, or Uzbekistan.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of an SC/CASA state; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in an SC/CASA state into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">U.S.-made end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11963"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(2) Is substantially transformed in the United States into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">WTO GPA country end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a WTO GPA country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a WTO GPA country into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>(b) Unless otherwise specified, this clause applies to all items in the Schedule.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Contractor shall deliver under this contract only U.S.-made, qualifying country, SC/CASA state, or designated country end products unless—</P>
                                <P>(1) In its offer, the Contractor specified delivery of other nondesignated country end products in the Trade Agreements Certificate provision of the solicitation; and</P>
                                <P>(2)(i) Offers of U.S.-made, qualifying country, SC/CASA state, or designated country end products from responsive, responsible offerors are either not received or are insufficient to fill the Government's requirements; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) A national interest waiver has been granted.</P>
                                <P>(d) If the Contractor is from an SC/CASA state, the Contractor shall inform its government of its participation in this acquisition and that it generally will not have such opportunity in the future unless its government provides reciprocal procurement opportunities to U.S. products and services and suppliers of such products and services.</P>
                                <P>(e) The contract price does not include duty for end products or components for which the Contractor will claim duty-free entry.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (f) The HTSUS is available at 
                                    <E T="03">http://www.usitc.gov/tata/hts/bychapter/index.htm.</E>
                                     The following sections of the HTSUS provide information regarding duty-free status of articles specified in the definition of “Caribbean Basin country end product” within paragraph (a) of this clause:
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) General Note 3(c), Products Eligible for Special Tariff Treatment.</P>
                                <P>(2) General Note 17, Products of Countries Designated as Beneficiary Countries Under the United States—Caribbean Basin Trade Partnership Act of 2000.</P>
                                <P>(3) Section XXII, Chapter 98, Subchapter II, Articles Exported and Returned, Advanced or Improved Abroad, U.S. Note 7(b).</P>
                                <P>(4) Section XXII, Chapter 98, Subchapter XX, Goods Eligible for Special Tariff Benefits Under the United States—Caribbean Basin Trade Partnership Act.</P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="252">
                        <AMDPAR>15. Amend section 252.225-7035—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. By revising the provision date;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. In paragraph (a) by removing “ “component,” ” and “Buy American” and adding “ “component,” “critical component,” “critical item,” ” and “252.225-7036, Buy American” in their places, respectively;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. By revising paragraph (c);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>d. By adding “(End of provision)” at the end of the provision;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>e. In Alternate I—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. By revising the introductory text;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>ii. By revising the provision date;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>iii. In paragraph (a) by removing “ “component,” ” and “Buy American” and adding “ “component,” “critical component,” “critical item,” ” and “252.225-7036, Buy American” in their places, respectively;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>iv. By revising paragraph (c);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>f. In Alternate II—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. By revising the provision date;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>ii. In paragraph (a) by removing “ “component,” ” and “Buy American” and adding “ “component,” “critical component,” “critical item,” ” and “252.225-7036, Buy American” in their places, respectively;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>iii. By revising paragraph (c);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>g. In Alternate III—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. By revising the provision date;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>ii. In paragraph (a) by removing “ “component,” ” and “Buy American” and adding “ “component,” “critical component,” “critical item,” ” and “252.225-7036, Buy American” in their places, respectively;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>iii. By revising paragraph (c);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>h. In Alternate IV—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. By revising the provision date;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>ii. In paragraph (a) by removing “ “component,” ” and “Buy American” and adding “ “component,” “critical component,” “critical item,” ” and “252.225-7036, Buy American” in their places, respectively;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>iii. By revising paragraph (c); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. In Alternate V—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. By revising the provision date;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>ii. In paragraph (a) by removing “ “component,” ” and “Buy American” and adding “ “component,” “critical component,” “critical item,” ” and “252.225-7036, Buy American” in their places, respectively; and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>iii. By revising paragraph (c).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revisions read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>252.225-7035</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate—Basic (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Certifications and identification of country of origin.</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For all line items subject to the Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program—Basic clause of this solicitation, the Offeror certifies that—</P>
                                <P>(i) Each end product, except the end products listed in paragraph (c)(2) of this provision, is a domestic end product;</P>
                                <P>(ii) Each domestic end product listed in paragraph (c)(3) of this provision contains a critical component or a critical item; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Components of unknown origin are considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured outside the United States or a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>(2) The Offeror shall identify all end products that are not domestic end products.</P>
                                <P>(i) The Offeror certifies that the following supplies are qualifying country (except Australian) end products:</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L0,tp0,p0,8/9,g1,t1,i1" CDEF="10C,10C">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Line item No.</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Country of origin</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <P>(ii) The Offeror certifies that the following supplies are Free Trade Agreement country end products other than Bahraini end products, Moroccan end products, Panamanian end products or Peruvian end products:</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L0,tp0,p0,8/9,g1,t1,i1" CDEF="10C,10C">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Line item No.</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Country of origin</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <P>(iii) The following supplies are other foreign end products, including end products manufactured in the United States that do not qualify as domestic end products. For those foreign end products that do not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, the Offeror shall also indicate whether these foreign end products exceed 55 percent domestic content, except those that are COTS items. If the percentage of the domestic content is unknown, select “no”.</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s75,r75,r75">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1">Line item No.</CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1">
                                            Country of origin
                                            <LI>(if known)</LI>
                                        </CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1">
                                            Exceeds 55% domestic content
                                            <LI>(yes/no)</LI>
                                        </CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW RUL="s">
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW RUL="s">
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <PRTPAGE P="11964"/>
                                <P>(3) The Offeror shall list the line item numbers of domestic end products that contain a critical component or a critical item (see section 25.105 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation).</P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-DASH">Line Item Number: </FP>
                                <FP>
                                    <E T="03">[List as necessary]</E>
                                </FP>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of provision)</HD>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Alternate I.</E>
                                 As prescribed in 225.1101(9) and (9)(ii), use the following provision, which does not use the phrases “Bahraini end product,” “Free Trade Agreement country,” “Free Trade Agreement country end product,” “Moroccan end product,” “Panamanian end product,” and “Peruvian end products” in paragraph (a); does not use “Free Trade Agreement country end products other than Bahraini end products, Moroccan end products, Panamanian end products, or Peruvian end products” in paragraphs (b)(2) and (c)(2)(ii); does not use “Australian or” in paragraph (c)(2)(i); and includes “that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States” in paragraph (c)(2)(ii):
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate—Alternate I (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Certifications and identification of country of origin.</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For all line items subject to the Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program—Alternate I clause of this solicitation, the Offeror certifies that—</P>
                                <P>(i) Each end product, except the end products listed in paragraph (c)(2) of this provision, is a domestic end product;</P>
                                <P>(ii) Each domestic end product listed in paragraph (c)(3) of this provision contains a critical component or a critical item; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Components of unknown origin are considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured outside the United States or a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>(2) The Offeror shall identify all end products that are not domestic end products.</P>
                                <P>(i) The Offeror certifies that the following supplies are qualifying country end products:</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L0,tp0,p0,8/9,g1,t1,i1" CDEF="10C,10C">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Line item No.</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Country of origin</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <P>(ii) The following supplies are other foreign end products, including end products manufactured in the United States that do not qualify as domestic end products. For those foreign end products that do not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, the Offeror shall also indicate whether these foreign end products exceed 55 percent domestic content, except those that are COTS items that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States. If the percentage of the domestic content is unknown, select “no”.</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s75,r75,r75">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1">Line item No.</CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1">
                                            Country of origin
                                            <LI>(if known)</LI>
                                        </CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1">
                                            Exceeds 55% domestic content
                                            <LI>(yes/no)</LI>
                                        </CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW RUL="s">
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW RUL="s">
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <P>(3) The Offeror shall list the line item numbers of domestic end products that contain a critical component or a critical item (see section 25.105 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation).</P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-DASH">Line Item Number: </FP>
                                <FP>
                                    <E T="03">[List as necessary]</E>
                                </FP>
                                <STARS/>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate—Alternate II (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Certifications and identification of country of origin.</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For all line items subject to the Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program—Alternate II clause of this solicitation, the Offeror certifies that—</P>
                                <P>(i) Each end product, except the end products listed in paragraph (c)(2) of this provision, is a domestic end product;</P>
                                <P>(ii) Each domestic end product listed in paragraph (c)(3) of this provision contains a critical component or a critical item; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Components of unknown origin are considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured outside the United States or a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>(2) The Offeror shall identify all end products that are not domestic end products.</P>
                                <P>(i) The Offeror certifies that the following supplies are qualifying country (except Australian) or SC/CASA state end products:</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L0,tp0,p0,8/9,g1,t1,i1" CDEF="10C,10C">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Line item No.</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Country of origin</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <P>(ii) The Offeror certifies that the following supplies are Free Trade Agreement country end products other than Bahraini end products, Moroccan end products, Panamanian end products, or Peruvian end products:</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L0,tp0,p0,8/9,g1,t1,i1" CDEF="10C,10C">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Line item No.</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Country of origin</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <P>(iii) The following supplies are other foreign end products, including end products manufactured in the United States that do not qualify as domestic end products. For those foreign end products that do not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, the Offeror shall also indicate whether these foreign end products exceed 55 percent domestic content, except those that are COTS items. If the percentage of the domestic content is unknown, select “no”.</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s75,r75,r75">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1">Line item No.</CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1">
                                            Country of origin
                                            <LI>(if known)</LI>
                                        </CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1">
                                            Exceeds 55% domestic content
                                            <LI>(yes/no)</LI>
                                        </CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW RUL="s">
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW RUL="s">
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <P>(3) The Offeror shall list the line item numbers of domestic end products that contain a critical component or a critical item (see section 25.105 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation).</P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-DASH">Line Item Number: </FP>
                                <FP>
                                    <E T="03">[List as necessary]</E>
                                </FP>
                                <STARS/>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate—Alternate III (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>(c) Certifications and identification of country of origin.</P>
                                <P>(1) For all line items subject to the Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program—Alternate III clause of this solicitation, the Offeror certifies that—</P>
                                <P>(i) Each end product, except the end products listed in paragraph (c)(2) of this provision, is a domestic end product;</P>
                                <P>(ii) Each domestic end product listed in paragraph (c)(3) of this provision contains a critical component or a critical item; and</P>
                                <P>
                                    (iii) Components of unknown origin are considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured outside the United States or a qualifying country.
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11965"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>(2) The Offeror shall identify all end products that are not domestic end products.</P>
                                <P>(i) The Offeror certifies that the following supplies are qualifying country or SC/CASA state end products:</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L0,tp0,p0,8/9,g1,t1,i1" CDEF="10C,10C">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Line item No.</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Country of origin</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <P>(ii) The Offeror certifies that the following supplies are Free Trade Agreement country end products other than Bahraini end products, Moroccan end products, Panamanian end products, or Peruvian end products:</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L0,tp0,p0,8/9,g1,t1,i1" CDEF="10C,10C">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Line item No.</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Country of origin</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <P>(iii) The following supplies are other foreign end products, including end products manufactured in the United States that do not qualify as domestic end products. For those foreign end products that do not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, the Offeror shall also indicate whether these foreign end products exceed 55 percent domestic content, except those that are COTS items. If the percentage of the domestic content is unknown, select “no”.</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s75,r75,r75">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1">Line item No.</CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1">
                                            Country of origin
                                            <LI>(if known)</LI>
                                        </CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1">
                                            Exceeds 55% domestic content
                                            <LI>(yes/no)</LI>
                                        </CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW RUL="s">
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW RUL="s">
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <P>(3) The Offeror shall list the line item numbers of domestic end products that contain a critical component or a critical item (see section 25.105 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation).</P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-DASH">Line Item Number: </FP>
                                <FP>
                                    <E T="03">[List as necessary]</E>
                                </FP>
                                <STARS/>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate—Alternate IV (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Certifications and identification of country of origin.</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For all line items subject to the Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program—Alternate IV clause of this solicitation, the Offeror certifies that—</P>
                                <P>(i) Each end product, except the end products listed in paragraph (c)(2) of this provision, is a domestic end product;</P>
                                <P>(ii) Each domestic end product listed in paragraph (c)(3) of this provision contains a critical component or a critical item; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Components of unknown origin are considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured outside the United States or a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>(2) The Offeror shall identify all end products that are not domestic end products.</P>
                                <P>(i) The Offeror certifies that the following supplies are qualifying country (except Australian) end products:</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L0,tp0,p0,8/9,g1,t1,i1" CDEF="10C,10C">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Line item No.</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Country of origin</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <P>(ii) The Offeror certifies that the following supplies are Free Trade Agreement country end products other than Bahraini end products, Korean end products, Moroccan end products, Panamanian end products, or Peruvian end products:</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L0,tp0,p0,8/9,g1,t1,i1" CDEF="10C,10C">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Line item No.</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Country of origin</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <P>(iii) The following supplies are other foreign end products, including end products manufactured in the United States that do not qualify as domestic end products. For those foreign end products that do not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, the Offeror shall also indicate whether these foreign end products exceed 55 percent domestic content, except those that are COTS items. If the percentage of the domestic content is unknown, select “no”.</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s75,r75,r75">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1">Line item No.</CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1">
                                            Country of origin
                                            <LI>(if known)</LI>
                                        </CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1">
                                            Exceeds 55% domestic content
                                            <LI>(yes/no)</LI>
                                        </CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW RUL="s">
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW RUL="s">
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <P>(3) The Offeror shall list the line item numbers of domestic end products that contain a critical component or a critical item (see section 25.105 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation).</P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-DASH">Line Item Number:</FP>
                                <FP>
                                    <E T="03">[List as necessary]</E>
                                </FP>
                                <STARS/>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate—Alternate V (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Certifications and identification of country of origin.</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For all line items subject to the Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program—Alternate V clause of this solicitation, the Offeror certifies that—</P>
                                <P>(i) Each end product, except the end products listed in paragraph (c)(2) of this provision, is a domestic end product;</P>
                                <P>(ii) Each domestic end product listed in paragraph (c)(3) of this provision contains a critical component or a critical item; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Components of unknown origin are considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured outside the United States or a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>(2) The Offeror shall identify all end products that are not domestic end products.</P>
                                <P>(i) The Offeror certifies that the following supplies are qualifying country (except Australian) or SC/CASA state end products:</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L0,tp0,p0,8/9,g1,t1,i1" CDEF="10C,10C">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Line item No.</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Country of origin</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <P>(ii) The Offeror certifies that the following supplies are Free Trade Agreement country end products other than Bahraini end products, Korean end products, Moroccan end products, Panamanian end products, or Peruvian end products:</P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L0,tp0,p0,8/9,g1,t1,i1" CDEF="10C,10C">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="01">Line item No.</ENT>
                                        <ENT>Country of origin</ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <P>
                                    (iii) The following supplies are other foreign end products, including end products manufactured in the United States that do not qualify as domestic end products. For those foreign end products that do not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, the Offeror shall also indicate whether these foreign end products exceed 55 percent domestic content, except those that are COTS items. If the percentage of the domestic content is unknown, select “no”.
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11966"/>
                                </P>
                                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s75,r75,r75">
                                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                                    <BOXHD>
                                        <CHED H="1">Line item No.</CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1">
                                            Country of origin
                                            <LI>(if known)</LI>
                                        </CHED>
                                        <CHED H="1">
                                            Exceeds 55% domestic content
                                            <LI>(yes/no)</LI>
                                        </CHED>
                                    </BOXHD>
                                    <ROW RUL="s">
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW RUL="s">
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                    <ROW>
                                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    </ROW>
                                </GPOTABLE>
                                <P>(3) The Offeror shall list the line item numbers of domestic end products that contain a critical component or a critical item (see section 25.105 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation).</P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-DASH">Line Item Number: </FP>
                                <FP>
                                    <E T="03">[List as necessary]</E>
                                </FP>
                                <STARS/>
                            </EXTRACT>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="252">
                        <AMDPAR>16. Revise and republish section 252.225-7036 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>252.225-7036</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program.</SUBJECT>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>252.225-7036</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Basic.</E>
                                 As prescribed in 225.1101(10)(i) and (10)(i)(A), use the following clause:
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program—Basic (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Bahraini end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Bahrain; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Bahrain into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item—</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>(i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of “commercial product” in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR));</P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in 46 U.S.C. 40102(4), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply incorporated directly into an end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For an end product that does not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both—</P>
                                <P>(i) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) An end product manufactured in the United States if—</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its qualifying country components and its components that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract in accordance with Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) 225.101(d); or award is made before January 1, 2030, for a foreign end product that exceeds 55 percent domestic content (see DFARS 225.103(b)(ii)). The cost of components includes transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the end product and U.S. duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued). Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. Scrap generated, collected, and prepared for processing in the United States is considered domestic. A component is considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States (regardless of its source in fact) if the end product in which it is incorporated is manufactured in the United States and the component is of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States; or
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) It is inconsistent with the public interest to apply the restrictions of the Buy American statute; or
                                </P>
                                <P>(B) The end product is a COTS item; or</P>
                                <P>(2) For an end product that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, an end product manufactured in the United States, if the cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country constitutes less than 5 percent of the cost of all the components used in the end product (produced in the United States or a qualifying country means that all manufacturing processes of the iron or steel must take place in the United States or a qualifying country, except metallurgical processes involving refinement of steel additives). The cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country includes but is not limited to the cost of iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings, not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, utilized in the manufacture of the end product and a good faith estimate of the cost of all iron or steel components not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, excluding COTS fasteners. Iron or steel components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. If the end product contains multiple components, the cost of all the materials used in such end product is calculated in accordance with the explanation of cost of components in paragraph (1)(ii)(A) of this definition.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">End product</E>
                                     means those articles, materials, and supplies to be acquired under this contract for public use.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Foreign end product</E>
                                     means an end product other than a domestic end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country</E>
                                     means Australia, Bahrain, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Dominican Republic, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, Korea (Republic of), Mexico, Morocco, Nicaragua, Panama, Peru, or Singapore.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Free Trade Agreement country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Free Trade Agreement country into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Moroccan end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Morocco; or</P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Morocco into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11967"/>
                                    calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Panamanian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Panama; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Panama into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Peruvian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Peru; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Peru into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                                     means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components excluding COTS fasteners.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country</E>
                                     means a country with a reciprocal defense procurement memorandum of understanding or international agreement with the United States in which both countries agree to remove barriers to purchases of supplies produced in the other country or services performed by sources of the other country, and the memorandum or agreement complies, where applicable, with the requirements of section 36 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2776) and with 10 U.S.C. 2457. Accordingly, the following are qualifying countries:
                                </P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Australia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Austria</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Belgium</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Canada</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Czech Republic</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Denmark</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Egypt</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Estonia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Finland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">France</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Germany</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Greece</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Israel</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Italy</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Japan</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Latvia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lithuania</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Luxembourg</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Netherlands</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Norway</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Poland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Portugal</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Slovenia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Spain</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sweden</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Switzerland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Turkey</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.</FP>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country component</E>
                                     means a component mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in a qualifying country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) An end product manufactured in a qualifying country if—</P>
                                <P>(i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract:</P>
                                <P>(A) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>(B) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States.</P>
                                <P>(C) Components of foreign origin of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States. Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) The end product is a COTS item.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Steel</E>
                                     means an alloy that includes at least 50 percent iron, between 0.02 and 2 percent carbon, and may include other elements.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>(b) Unless otherwise specified, this clause applies to all items in the Schedule.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Contractor shall deliver under this contract only domestic end products unless, in its offer, it specified delivery of qualifying country end products, Free Trade Agreement country end products other than Bahraini end products, Moroccan end products, Panamanian end products, or Peruvian end products, or other foreign end products in the Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate—Basic provision of the solicitation. If the Contractor certified in its offer that it will deliver a qualifying country end product or a Free Trade Agreement country end product other than a Bahraini end product, a Moroccan end product, a Panamanian end product, or a Peruvian end product, the Contractor shall deliver a qualifying country end product, a Free Trade Agreement country end product other than a Bahraini end product, a Moroccan end product, a Panamanian end product, or a Peruvian end product, or, at the Contractor's option, a domestic end product.</P>
                                <P>(d) The contract price does not include duty for end products or components for which the Contractor will claim duty-free entry.</P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Alternate I.</E>
                                 As prescribed in 225.1101(10)(i) and (10)(i)(B), use the following clause, which uses a different paragraph (c) than the basic clause:
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program—Alternate I (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Bahraini end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Bahrain; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Bahrain into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item—</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of 
                                    <E T="03">commercial product</E>
                                     in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR));
                                </P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in 46 U.S.C. 40102(4), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply incorporated directly into an end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For an end product that does not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (i) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in the United States; or
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11968"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>(ii) An end product manufactured in the United States if—</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its qualifying country components and its components that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract in accordance with Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) 225.101(d); or award is made before January 1, 2030, for a foreign end product that exceeds 55 percent domestic content (see DFARS 225.103(b)(ii)). The cost of components includes transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the end product and U.S. duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued). Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. Scrap generated, collected, and prepared for processing in the United States is considered domestic. A component is considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States (regardless of its source in fact) if the end product in which it is incorporated is manufactured in the United States and the component is of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States; or
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) It is inconsistent with the public interest to apply the restrictions of the Buy American statute; or
                                </P>
                                <P>(B) The end product is a COTS item; or</P>
                                <P>(2) For an end product that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, an end product manufactured in the United States, if the cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country constitutes less than 5 percent of the cost of all the components used in the end product (produced in the United States or a qualifying country means that all manufacturing processes of the iron or steel must take place in the United States or a qualifying country, except metallurgical processes involving refinement of steel additives). The cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country includes but is not limited to the cost of iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings, not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, utilized in the manufacture of the end product and a good faith estimate of the cost of all iron or steel components not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, excluding COTS fasteners. Iron or steel components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. If the end product contains multiple components, the cost of all the materials used in such end product is calculated in accordance with the explanation of cost of components in paragraph (1)(ii)(A) of this definition.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">End product</E>
                                     means those articles, materials, and supplies to be acquired under this contract for public use.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Foreign end product</E>
                                     means an end product other than a domestic end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country</E>
                                     means Australia, Bahrain, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Dominican Republic, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, Korea (Republic of), Mexico, Morocco, Nicaragua, Panama, Peru, or Singapore.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Free Trade Agreement country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Free Trade Agreement country into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Moroccan end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Morocco; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Morocco into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Panamanian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Panama; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Panama into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Peruvian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Peru; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Peru into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                                     means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components excluding COTS fasteners.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country</E>
                                     means a country with a reciprocal defense procurement memorandum of understanding or international agreement with the United States in which both countries agree to remove barriers to purchases of supplies produced in the other country or services performed by sources of the other country, and the memorandum or agreement complies, where applicable, with the requirements of section 36 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2776) and with 10 U.S.C. 2457. Accordingly, the following are qualifying countries:
                                </P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Australia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Austria</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Belgium</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Canada</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Czech Republic</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Denmark</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Egypt</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Estonia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Finland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">France</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Germany</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Greece</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Israel</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Italy</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Japan</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Latvia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lithuania</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Luxembourg</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Netherlands</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Norway</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Poland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Portugal</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Slovenia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Spain</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sweden</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Switzerland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Turkey</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.</FP>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country component</E>
                                     means a component mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in a qualifying country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) An end product manufactured in a qualifying country if—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11969"/>
                                    percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract:
                                </P>
                                <P>(A) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>(B) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States.</P>
                                <P>(C) Components of foreign origin of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States. Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) The end product is a COTS item.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Steel</E>
                                     means an alloy that includes at least 50 percent iron, between 0.02 and 2 percent carbon, and may include other elements.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>(b) Unless otherwise specified, this clause applies to all items in the Schedule.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Contractor shall deliver under this contract only domestic end products unless, in its offer, it specified delivery of qualifying country, or other foreign end products in the Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate—Alternate I provision of the solicitation. If the Contractor certified in its offer that it will deliver a qualifying country end product, the Contractor shall deliver a qualifying country end product or, at the Contractor's option, a domestic end product.</P>
                                <P>(d) The contract price does not include duty for end products or components for which the Contractor will claim duty-free entry.</P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Alternate II.</E>
                                 As prescribed in 225.1101(10)(i) and (10)(i)(C), use the following clause, which adds South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state and South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state end product to paragraph (a), and uses a different paragraph (c) than the basic clause:
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program—Alternate II (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Bahraini end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Bahrain; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Bahrain into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item—</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of 
                                    <E T="03">commercial product</E>
                                     in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR));
                                </P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in 46 U.S.C. 40102(4), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply incorporated directly into an end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For an end product that does not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both—</P>
                                <P>(i) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) An end product manufactured in the United States if—</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its qualifying country components and its components that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract in accordance with Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) 225.101(d); or award is made before January 1, 2030, for a foreign end product that exceeds 55 percent domestic content (see DFARS 225.103(b)(ii)). The cost of components includes transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the end product and U.S. duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued). Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. Scrap generated, collected, and prepared for processing in the United States is considered domestic. A component is considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States (regardless of its source in fact) if the end product in which it is incorporated is manufactured in the United States and the component is of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States; or
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) It is inconsistent with the public interest to apply the restrictions of the Buy American statute; or
                                </P>
                                <P>(B) The end product is a COTS item; or</P>
                                <P>(2) For an end product that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, an end product manufactured in the United States, if the cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country constitutes less than 5 percent of the cost of all the components used in the end product (produced in the United States or a qualifying country means that all manufacturing processes of the iron or steel must take place in the United States or a qualifying country, except metallurgical processes involving refinement of steel additives). The cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country includes but is not limited to the cost of iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings, not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, utilized in the manufacture of the end product and a good faith estimate of the cost of all iron or steel components not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, excluding COTS fasteners. Iron or steel components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. If the end product contains multiple components, the cost of all the materials used in such end product is calculated in accordance with the explanation of cost of components in paragraph (1)(ii)(A) of this definition.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">End product</E>
                                     means those articles, materials, and supplies to be acquired under this contract for public use.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Foreign end product</E>
                                     means an end product other than a domestic end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country</E>
                                     means Australia, Bahrain, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Dominican Republic, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, Korea (Republic of), Mexico, Morocco, Nicaragua, Panama, Peru, or Singapore.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Free Trade Agreement country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Free Trade Agreement country into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Moroccan end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Morocco; or</P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Morocco into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11970"/>
                                    services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Panamanian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Panama; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Panama into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Peruvian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Peru; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Peru into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                                     means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components excluding COTS fasteners.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country</E>
                                     means a country with a reciprocal defense procurement memorandum of understanding or international agreement with the United States in which both countries agree to remove barriers to purchases of supplies produced in the other country or services performed by sources of the other country, and the memorandum or agreement complies, where applicable, with the requirements of section 36 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2776) and with 10 U.S.C. 2457. Accordingly, the following are qualifying countries:
                                </P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Australia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Austria</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Belgium</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Canada</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Czech Republic</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Denmark</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Egypt</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Estonia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Finland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">France</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Germany</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Greece</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Israel</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Italy</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Japan</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Latvia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lithuania</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Luxembourg</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Netherlands</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Norway</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Poland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Portugal</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Slovenia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Spain</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sweden</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Switzerland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Turkey</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.</FP>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country component</E>
                                     means a component mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in a qualifying country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) An end product manufactured in a qualifying country if—</P>
                                <P>(i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract:</P>
                                <P>(A) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>(B) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States.</P>
                                <P>(C) Components of foreign origin of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States. Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) The end product is a COTS item.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state</E>
                                     means Armenia, Azerbaijan, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, or Uzbekistan.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of an SC/CASA state; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in an SC/CASA state into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Steel</E>
                                     means an alloy that includes at least 50 percent iron, between 0.02 and 2 percent carbon, and may include other elements.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>(b) Unless otherwise specified, this clause applies to all items in the Schedule.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Contractor shall deliver under this contract only domestic end products unless, in its offer, it specified delivery of qualifying country end products, SC/CASA state end products, Free Trade Agreement country end products other than Bahraini end products, Moroccan end products, Panamanian end products, or Peruvian end products, or other foreign end products in the Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate—Alternate II provision of the solicitation. If the Contractor certified in its offer that it will deliver a qualifying country end product, SC/CASA state end products, or a Free Trade Agreement country end product other than a Bahraini end product, a Moroccan end product, a Panamanian end product, or a Peruvian end product, the Contractor shall deliver a qualifying country end product, an SC/CASA state end product, a Free Trade Agreement country end product other than a Bahraini end product, a Moroccan end product, a Panamanian end product, or a Peruvian end product or, at the Contractor's option, a domestic end product.</P>
                                <P>(d) The contract price does not include duty for end products or components for which the Contractor will claim duty-free entry.</P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Alternate III.</E>
                                 As prescribed in 225.1101(10)(i) and (10)(i)(D), use the following clause, which adds 
                                <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state</E>
                                 and 
                                <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state end product</E>
                                 to paragraph (a) and uses a different paragraph (c) than the basic clause:
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance Of Payments Program—Alternate III (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Bahraini end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Bahrain; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Bahrain into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item—</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of 
                                    <E T="03">
                                        commercial 
                                        <PRTPAGE P="11971"/>
                                        product
                                    </E>
                                     in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR));
                                </P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in 46 U.S.C. 40102(4), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply incorporated directly into an end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For an end product that does not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both—</P>
                                <P>(i) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) An end product manufactured in the United States if—</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its qualifying country components and its components that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract in accordance with Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) 225.101(d); or award is made before January 1, 2030, for a foreign end product that exceeds 55 percent domestic content (see DFARS 225.103(b)(ii)). The cost of components includes transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the end product and U.S. duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued). Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. Scrap generated, collected, and prepared for processing in the United States is considered domestic. A component is considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States (regardless of its source in fact) if the end product in which it is incorporated is manufactured in the United States and the component is of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States; or
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) It is inconsistent with the public interest to apply the restrictions of the Buy American statute; or
                                </P>
                                <P>(B) The end product is a COTS item; or</P>
                                <P>(2) For an end product that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, an end product manufactured in the United States, if the cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country constitutes less than 5 percent of the cost of all the components used in the end product (produced in the United States or a qualifying country means that all manufacturing processes of the iron and steel must take place in the United States or a qualifying country, except metallurgical processes involving refinement of steel additives). The cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country includes but is not limited to the cost of iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings, not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, utilized in the manufacture of the end product and a good faith estimate of the cost of all iron or steel components not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, excluding COTS fasteners. Iron or steel components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. If the end product contains multiple components, the cost of all the materials used in such end product is calculated in accordance with the explanation of cost of components in paragraph (1)(ii)(A) of this definition.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">End product</E>
                                     means those articles, materials, and supplies to be acquired under this contract for public use.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Foreign end product</E>
                                     means an end product other than a domestic end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country</E>
                                     means Australia, Bahrain, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Dominican Republic, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, Korea (Republic of), Mexico, Morocco, Nicaragua, Panama, Peru, or Singapore.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Free Trade Agreement country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Free Trade Agreement country into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Moroccan end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Morocco; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Morocco into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Panamanian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Panama; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Panama into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Peruvian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Peru; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Peru into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                                     means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components excluding COTS fasteners.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country</E>
                                     means a country with a reciprocal defense procurement memorandum of understanding or international agreement with the United States in which both countries agree to remove barriers to purchases of supplies produced in the other country or services performed by sources of the other country, and the memorandum or agreement complies, where applicable, with the requirements of section 36 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2776) and with 10 U.S.C. 2457. Accordingly, the following are qualifying countries:
                                </P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Australia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Austria</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Belgium</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Canada</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Czech Republic</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Denmark</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Egypt</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Estonia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Finland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">France</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Germany</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Greece</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                                    Israel
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11972"/>
                                </FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Italy</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Japan</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Latvia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lithuania</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Luxembourg</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Netherlands</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Norway</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Poland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Portugal</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Slovenia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Spain</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sweden</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Switzerland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Turkey</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.</FP>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country component</E>
                                     means a component mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in a qualifying country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) An end product manufactured in a qualifying country if—</P>
                                <P>(i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract:</P>
                                <P>(A) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>(B) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States.</P>
                                <P>(C) Components of foreign origin of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States. Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) The end product is a COTS item.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state</E>
                                     means Armenia, Azerbaijan, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, or Uzbekistan.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of an SC/CASA state; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in an SC/CASA state into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Steel</E>
                                     means an alloy that includes at least 50 percent iron, between 0.02 and 2 percent carbon, and may include other elements.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>(b) Unless otherwise specified, this clause applies to all items in the Schedule.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Contractor shall deliver under this contract only domestic end products unless, in its offer, it specified delivery of qualifying country end products, SC/CASA state end products, or other foreign end products in the Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate—Alternate III provision of the solicitation. If the Contractor certified in its offer that it will deliver a qualifying country end product or SC/CASA state end products, the Contractor shall deliver a qualifying country end product, an SC/CASA state end product, or, at the Contractor's option, a domestic end product.</P>
                                <P>(d) The contract price does not include duty for end products or components for which the Contractor will claim duty-free entry.</P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Alternate IV.</E>
                                 As prescribed in 225.1101(10)(i) and (10)(i)(E), use the following clause, which adds 
                                <E T="03">Korean end product</E>
                                 to paragraph (a), and uses a different paragraph (c) than the basic clause:
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program—Alternate IV (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Bahraini end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Bahrain; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Bahrain into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item—</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of 
                                    <E T="03">commercial product</E>
                                     in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR));
                                </P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in 46 U.S.C. 40102(4), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply incorporated directly into an end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For an end product that does not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both—</P>
                                <P>(i) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) An end product manufactured in the United States if—</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its qualifying country components and its components that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract in accordance with Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) 225.101(d); or award is made before January 1, 2030, for a foreign end product that exceeds 55 percent domestic content (see DFARS 225.103(b)(ii)). The cost of components includes transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the end product and U.S. duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued). Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. Scrap generated, collected, and prepared for processing in the United States is considered domestic. A component is considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States (regardless of its source in fact) if the end product in which it is incorporated is manufactured in the United States and the component is of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States; or
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) It is inconsistent with the public interest to apply the restrictions of the Buy American statute; or
                                </P>
                                <P>(B) The end product is a COTS item; or</P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) For an end product that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, an end product manufactured in the United States, if the cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country constitutes less than 5 percent of the cost of all the components used in the end product (produced in the United States or a qualifying country means that all manufacturing processes of the iron or steel must take place in the United States or a qualifying country, except metallurgical processes involving refinement of steel additives). The cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country includes but is not limited to the cost of iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings, not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, utilized in the manufacture of the end product and a good faith estimate of the cost of all iron or steel components not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, excluding 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11973"/>
                                    COTS fasteners. Iron or steel components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. If the end product contains multiple components, the cost of all the materials used in such end product is calculated in accordance with the explanation of cost of components in paragraph (1)(ii)(A) of this definition.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">End product</E>
                                     means those articles, materials, and supplies to be acquired under this contract for public use.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Foreign end product</E>
                                     means an end product other than a domestic end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country</E>
                                     means Australia, Bahrain, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Dominican Republic, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, Korea (Republic of), Mexico, Morocco, Nicaragua, Panama, Peru, or Singapore.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Free Trade Agreement country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Free Trade Agreement country into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Korean end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Korea; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Korea (Republic of) into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product, includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Moroccan end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Morocco; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Morocco into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Panamanian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Panama; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Panama into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Peruvian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Peru; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Peru into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                                     means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components excluding COTS fasteners.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country</E>
                                     means a country with a reciprocal defense procurement memorandum of understanding or international agreement with the United States in which both countries agree to remove barriers to purchases of supplies produced in the other country or services performed by sources of the other country, and the memorandum or agreement complies, where applicable, with the requirements of section 36 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2776) and with 10 U.S.C. 2457. Accordingly, the following are qualifying countries:
                                </P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Australia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Austria</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Belgium</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Canada</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Czech Republic</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Denmark</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Egypt</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Estonia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Finland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">France</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Germany</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Greece</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Israel</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Italy</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Japan</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Latvia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lithuania</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Luxembourg</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Netherlands</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Norway</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Poland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Portugal</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Slovenia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Spain</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sweden</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Switzerland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Turkey</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.</FP>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country component</E>
                                     means a component mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in a qualifying country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) An end product manufactured in a qualifying country if—</P>
                                <P>(i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract:</P>
                                <P>(A) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>(B) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States.</P>
                                <P>(C) Components of foreign origin of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States. Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) The end product is a COTS item.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Steel</E>
                                     means an alloy that includes at least 50 percent iron, between 0.02 and 2 percent carbon, and may include other elements.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>(b) Unless otherwise specified, this clause applies to all items in the Schedule.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Contractor shall deliver under this contract only domestic end products unless, in its offer, it specified delivery of qualifying country end products, Free Trade Agreement country end products other than Bahraini end products, Korean end products, Moroccan end products, Panamanian end products, or Peruvian end products, or other foreign end products in the Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate—Alternate IV provision of the solicitation. If the Contractor certified in its offer that it will deliver a qualifying country end product or a Free Trade Agreement country end product other than a Bahraini end product, a Korean end product, a Moroccan end product, a Panamanian end product, or a Peruvian end product, the Contractor shall deliver a qualifying country end product, a Free Trade Agreement country end product other than a Bahraini end product, a Korean end product, a Moroccan end product, a Panamanian end product, or a Peruvian end product, or, at the Contractor's option, a domestic end product.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) The contract price does not include duty for end products or components for 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11974"/>
                                    which the Contractor will claim duty-free entry.
                                </P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Alternate V.</E>
                                 As prescribed in 225.1101(10)(i) and (10)(i)(F), use the following clause, which adds 
                                <E T="03">Korean end product, South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state,</E>
                                 and 
                                <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state end product</E>
                                 to paragraph (a), and uses a different paragraph (c) than the basic clause:
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program—Alternate V (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Bahraini end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Bahrain; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Bahrain into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item—</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of 
                                    <E T="03">commercial product</E>
                                     in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR));
                                </P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in 46 U.S.C. 40102(4), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply incorporated directly into an end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For an end product that does not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both—</P>
                                <P>(i) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) An end product manufactured in the United States if—</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its qualifying country components and its components that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract in accordance with Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) 225.101(d); or award is made before January 1, 2030, for a foreign end product that exceeds 55 percent domestic content (see DFARS 225.103(b)(ii)). The cost of components includes transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the end product and U.S. duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued). Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. Scrap generated, collected, and prepared for processing in the United States is considered domestic. A component is considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States (regardless of its source in fact) if the end product in which it is incorporated is manufactured in the United States and the component is of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States; or
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) It is inconsistent with the public interest to apply the restrictions of the Buy American statute; or
                                </P>
                                <P>(B) The end product is a COTS item; or</P>
                                <P>(2) For an end product that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, an end product manufactured in the United States, if the cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country constitutes less than 5 percent of the cost of all the components used in the end product (produced in the United States or a qualifying country means that all manufacturing processes of the iron or steel must take place in the United States or a qualifying country, except metallurgical processes involving refinement of steel additives). The cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country includes but is not limited to the cost of iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings, not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, utilized in the manufacture of the end product and a good faith estimate of the cost of all iron or steel components not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, excluding COTS fasteners. Iron or steel components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. If the end product contains multiple components, the cost of all the materials used in such end product is calculated in accordance with the explanation of cost of components in paragraph (1)(ii)(A) of this definition.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">End product</E>
                                     means those articles, materials, and supplies to be acquired under this contract for public use.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Foreign end product</E>
                                     means an end product other than a domestic end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country</E>
                                     means Australia, Bahrain, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Dominican Republic, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, Korea (Republic of), Mexico, Morocco, Nicaragua, Panama, Peru, or Singapore.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Free Trade Agreement country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Free Trade Agreement country into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Korean end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Korea; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Korea (Republic of) into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product, includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Moroccan end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Morocco; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Morocco into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Panamanian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Panama; or</P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Panama into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11975"/>
                                    services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Peruvian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Peru; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Peru into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                                     means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components excluding COTS fasteners.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country</E>
                                     means a country with a reciprocal defense procurement memorandum of understanding or international agreement with the United States in which both countries agree to remove barriers to purchases of supplies produced in the other country or services performed by sources of the other country, and the memorandum or agreement complies, where applicable, with the requirements of section 36 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2776) and with 10 U.S.C. 2457. Accordingly, the following are qualifying countries:
                                </P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Australia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Austria</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Belgium</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Canada</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Czech Republic</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Denmark</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Egypt</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Estonia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Finland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">France</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Germany</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Greece</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Israel</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Italy</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Japan</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Latvia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lithuania</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Luxembourg</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Netherlands</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Norway</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Poland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Portugal</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Slovenia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Spain</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sweden</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Switzerland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Turkey</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.</FP>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country component</E>
                                     means a component mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in a qualifying country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) An end product manufactured in a qualifying country if—</P>
                                <P>(i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract:</P>
                                <P>(A) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>(B) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States.</P>
                                <P>(C) Components of foreign origin of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States. Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) The end product is a COTS item.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state</E>
                                     means Armenia, Azerbaijan, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, or Uzbekistan.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of an SC/CASA state; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in an SC/CASA state into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product, includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Steel</E>
                                     means an alloy that includes at least 50 percent iron, between 0.02 and 2 percent carbon, and may include other elements.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>(b) Unless otherwise specified, this clause applies to all items in the Schedule.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Contractor shall deliver under this contract only domestic end products unless, in its offer, it specified delivery of qualifying country end products, SC/CASA state end products, Free Trade Agreement country end products other than Bahraini end products, Korean end products, Moroccan end products, Panamanian end products, or Peruvian end products, or other foreign end products in the Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate—Alternate V provision of the solicitation. If the Contractor certified in its offer that it will deliver a qualifying country end product, SC/CASA state end products, or a Free Trade Agreement country end product other than a Bahraini end product, a Korean end product, a Moroccan end product, a Panamanian end product, or a Peruvian end product, the Contractor shall deliver a qualifying country end product, an SC/CASA state end product, a Free Trade Agreement country end product other than a Bahraini end product, a Korean end product, a Moroccan end product, a Panamanian end product, or a Peruvian end product or, at the Contractor's option, a domestic end product.</P>
                                <P>(d) The contract price does not include duty for end products or components for which the Contractor will claim duty-free entry.</P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Alternate VI.</E>
                                 As prescribed in 225.1101(10)(i) and (10)(i)(G), use the following clause, which includes, in the definitions of “domestic end product” at paragraph (1)(ii)(A) and “qualifying country end product” at paragraph (2)(i), the domestic content threshold that will apply to the entire contract period of performance:
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program—Alternate VI (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Bahraini end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Bahrain; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Bahrain into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item—</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>(i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of “commercial product” in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR));</P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in 46 U.S.C. 40102(4), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply incorporated directly into an end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11976"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For an end product that does not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both—</P>
                                <P>(i) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) An end product manufactured in the United States if—</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its qualifying country components and its components that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components. The cost of components includes transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the end product and U.S. duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued). Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. Scrap generated, collected, and prepared for processing in the United States is considered domestic. A component is considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States (regardless of its source in fact) if the end product in which it is incorporated is manufactured in the United States and the component is of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States; or
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) It is inconsistent with the public interest to apply the restrictions of the Buy American statute; or
                                </P>
                                <P>(B) The end product is a COTS item; or</P>
                                <P>(2) For an end product that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, an end product manufactured in the United States, if the cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country constitutes less than 5 percent of the cost of all the components used in the end product (produced in the United States or a qualifying country means that all manufacturing processes of the iron or steel must take place in the United States or a qualifying country, except metallurgical processes involving refinement of steel additives). The cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country includes but is not limited to the cost of iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings, not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, utilized in the manufacture of the end product and a good faith estimate of the cost of all iron or steel components not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, excluding COTS fasteners. Iron or steel components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. If the end product contains multiple components, the cost of all the materials used in such end product is calculated in accordance with the explanation of cost of components in paragraph (1)(ii)(A) of this definition.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">End product</E>
                                     means those articles, materials, and supplies to be acquired under this contract for public use.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Foreign end product</E>
                                     means an end product other than a domestic end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country</E>
                                     means Australia, Bahrain, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Dominican Republic, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, Korea (Republic of), Mexico, Morocco, Nicaragua, Panama, Peru, or Singapore.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Free Trade Agreement country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Free Trade Agreement country into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Moroccan end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Morocco; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Morocco into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Panamanian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Panama; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Panama into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Peruvian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Peru; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Peru into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                                     means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components excluding COTS fasteners.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country</E>
                                     means a country with a reciprocal defense procurement memorandum of understanding or international agreement with the United States in which both countries agree to remove barriers to purchases of supplies produced in the other country or services performed by sources of the other country, and the memorandum or agreement complies, where applicable, with the requirements of section 36 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2776) and with 10 U.S.C. 2457. Accordingly, the following are qualifying countries:
                                </P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Australia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Austria</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Belgium</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Canada</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Czech Republic</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Denmark</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Egypt</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Estonia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Finland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">France</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Germany</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Greece</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Israel</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Italy</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Japan</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Latvia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lithuania</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Luxembourg</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Netherlands</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Norway</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Poland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Portugal</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Slovenia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Spain</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sweden</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Switzerland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Turkey</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.</FP>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country component</E>
                                     means a component mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in a qualifying country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) An end product manufactured in a qualifying country if—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds, for the entire period of 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11977"/>
                                    performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components:
                                </P>
                                <P>(A) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>(B) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States.</P>
                                <P>(C) Components of foreign origin of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States. Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) The end product is a COTS item.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Steel</E>
                                     means an alloy that includes at least 50 percent iron, between 0.02 and 2 percent carbon, and may include other elements.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>(b) Unless otherwise specified, this clause applies to all items in the Schedule.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Contractor shall deliver under this contract only domestic end products unless, in its offer, it specified delivery of qualifying country end products, Free Trade Agreement country end products other than Bahraini end products, Moroccan end products, Panamanian end products, or Peruvian end products, or other foreign end products in the Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate—Basic provision of the solicitation. If the Contractor certified in its offer that it will deliver a qualifying country end product or a Free Trade Agreement country end product other than a Bahraini end product, a Moroccan end product, a Panamanian end product, or a Peruvian end product, the Contractor shall deliver a qualifying country end product, a Free Trade Agreement country end product other than a Bahraini end product, a Moroccan end product, a Panamanian end product, or a Peruvian end product, or, at the Contractor's option, a domestic end product.</P>
                                <P>(d) The contract price does not include duty for end products or components for which the Contractor will claim duty-free entry.</P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Alternate VII.</E>
                                 As prescribed in 225.1101(10)(i) and (10)(i)(H), use the following clause, which includes, in the definitions of “domestic end product” at paragraph (1)(ii)(A) and “qualifying country end product” at paragraph (2)(i), the domestic content threshold that will apply to the entire contract period of performance and uses a different paragraph (c) than the basic clause:
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program—Alternate VII (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Bahraini end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Bahrain; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Bahrain into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item—</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>(i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of “commercial product” in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR));</P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in 46 U.S.C. 40102(4), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply incorporated directly into an end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For an end product that does not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both—</P>
                                <P>(i) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) An end product manufactured in the United States if—</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its qualifying country components and its components that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components. The cost of components includes transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the end product and U.S. duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued). Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. Scrap generated, collected, and prepared for processing in the United States is considered domestic. A component is considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States (regardless of its source in fact) if the end product in which it is incorporated is manufactured in the United States and the component is of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States; or
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) It is inconsistent with the public interest to apply the restrictions of the Buy American statute; or
                                </P>
                                <P>(B) The end product is a COTS item; or</P>
                                <P>(2) For an end product that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, an end product manufactured in the United States, if the cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country constitutes less than 5 percent of the cost of all the components used in the end product (produced in the United States or a qualifying country means that all manufacturing processes of the iron or steel must take place in the United States or a qualifying country, except metallurgical processes involving refinement of steel additives). The cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country includes but is not limited to the cost of iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings, not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, utilized in the manufacture of the end product and a good faith estimate of the cost of all iron or steel components not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, excluding COTS fasteners. Iron or steel components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. If the end product contains multiple components, the cost of all the materials used in such end product is calculated in accordance with the explanation of cost of components in paragraph (1)(ii)(A) of this definition.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">End product</E>
                                     means those articles, materials, and supplies to be acquired under this contract for public use.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Foreign end product</E>
                                     means an end product other than a domestic end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country</E>
                                     means Australia, Bahrain, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Dominican Republic, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, Korea (Republic of), Mexico, Morocco, Nicaragua, Panama, Peru, or Singapore.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Free Trade Agreement country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Free Trade Agreement country into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Moroccan end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Morocco; or
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11978"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Morocco into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Panamanian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Panama; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Panama into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Peruvian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Peru; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Peru into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                                     means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components excluding COTS fasteners.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country</E>
                                     means a country with a reciprocal defense procurement memorandum of understanding or international agreement with the United States in which both countries agree to remove barriers to purchases of supplies produced in the other country or services performed by sources of the other country, and the memorandum or agreement complies, where applicable, with the requirements of section 36 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2776) and with 10 U.S.C. 2457. Accordingly, the following are qualifying countries:
                                </P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Australia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Austria</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Belgium</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Canada</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Czech Republic</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Denmark</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Egypt</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Estonia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Finland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">France</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Germany</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Greece</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Israel</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Italy</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Japan</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Latvia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lithuania</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Luxembourg</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Netherlands</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Norway</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Poland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Portugal</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Slovenia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Spain</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sweden</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Switzerland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Turkey</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.</FP>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country component</E>
                                     means a component mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in a qualifying country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) An end product manufactured in a qualifying country if—</P>
                                <P>(i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components:</P>
                                <P>(A) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>(B) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States.</P>
                                <P>(C) Components of foreign origin of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States. Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) The end product is a COTS item.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Steel</E>
                                     means an alloy that includes at least 50 percent iron, between 0.02 and 2 percent carbon, and may include other elements.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>(b) Unless otherwise specified, this clause applies to all items in the Schedule.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Contractor shall deliver under this contract only domestic end products unless, in its offer, it specified delivery of qualifying country or other foreign end products in the Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate—Alternate I provision of the solicitation. If the Contractor certified in its offer that it will deliver a qualifying country end product, the Contractor shall deliver a qualifying country end product or, at the Contractor's option, a domestic end product.</P>
                                <P>(d) The contract price does not include duty for end products or components for which the Contractor will claim duty-free entry.</P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Alternate VIII.</E>
                                 As prescribed in 225.1101(10)(i) and (10)(i)(I), use the following clause, which includes, in the definitions of “domestic end product” at paragraph (1)(ii)(A) and “qualifying country end product” at paragraph (2)(i), the domestic content threshold that will apply to the entire contract period of performance; adds “South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state” and “South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state end product” to paragraph (a); and uses a different paragraph (c) than the basic clause:
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program—Alternate VIII (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Bahraini end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Bahrain; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Bahrain into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item—</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>(i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of “commercial product” in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR));</P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in 46 U.S.C. 40102(4), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply incorporated directly into an end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11979"/>
                                    deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For an end product that does not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both—</P>
                                <P>(i) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) An end product manufactured in the United States if—</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its qualifying country components and its components that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components. The cost of components includes transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the end product and U.S. duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued). Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. Scrap generated, collected, and prepared for processing in the United States is considered domestic. A component is considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States (regardless of its source in fact) if the end product in which it is incorporated is manufactured in the United States and the component is of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States; or
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) It is inconsistent with the public interest to apply the restrictions of the Buy American statute; or
                                </P>
                                <P>(B) The end product is a COTS item; or</P>
                                <P>(2) For an end product that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, an end product manufactured in the United States, if the cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country constitutes less than 5 percent of the cost of all the components used in the end product (produced in the United States or a qualifying country means that all manufacturing processes of the iron or steel must take place in the United States or a qualifying country, except metallurgical processes involving refinement of steel additives). The cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country includes but is not limited to the cost of iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings, not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, utilized in the manufacture of the end product and a good faith estimate of the cost of all iron or steel components not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, excluding COTS fasteners. Iron or steel components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. If the end product contains multiple components, the cost of all the materials used in such end product is calculated in accordance with the explanation of cost of components in paragraph (1)(ii)(A) of this definition.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">End product</E>
                                     means those articles, materials, and supplies to be acquired under this contract for public use.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Foreign end product</E>
                                     means an end product other than a domestic end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country</E>
                                     means Australia, Bahrain, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Dominican Republic, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, Korea (Republic of), Mexico, Morocco, Nicaragua, Panama, Peru, or Singapore.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Free Trade Agreement country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Free Trade Agreement country into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Moroccan end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Morocco; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Morocco into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Panamanian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Panama; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Panama into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Peruvian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Peru; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Peru into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                                     means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components excluding COTS fasteners.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country</E>
                                     means a country with a reciprocal defense procurement memorandum of understanding or international agreement with the United States in which both countries agree to remove barriers to purchases of supplies produced in the other country or services performed by sources of the other country, and the memorandum or agreement complies, where applicable, with the requirements of section 36 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2776) and with 10 U.S.C. 2457. Accordingly, the following are qualifying countries:
                                </P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Australia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Austria</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Belgium</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Canada</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Czech Republic</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Denmark</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Egypt</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Estonia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Finland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">France</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Germany</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Greece</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Israel</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Italy</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Japan</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Latvia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lithuania</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Luxembourg</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Netherlands</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Norway</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Poland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Portugal</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Slovenia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Spain</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sweden</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Switzerland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Turkey</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland</FP>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country component</E>
                                     means a component mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in a qualifying country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) An end product manufactured in a qualifying country if—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds, for the entire period of 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11980"/>
                                    performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components:
                                </P>
                                <P>(A) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>(B) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States.</P>
                                <P>(C) Components of foreign origin of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States. Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) The end product is a COTS item.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state</E>
                                     means Armenia, Azerbaijan, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, or Uzbekistan.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of an SC/CASA state; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in an SC/CASA state into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Steel</E>
                                     means an alloy that includes at least 50 percent iron, between 0.02 and 2 percent carbon, and may include other elements.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>(b) Unless otherwise specified, this clause applies to all items in the Schedule.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Contractor shall deliver under this contract only domestic end products unless, in its offer, it specified delivery of qualifying country end products, SC/CASA state end products, Free Trade Agreement country end products other than Bahraini end products, Moroccan end products, Panamanian end products, or Peruvian end products, or other foreign end products in the Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate—Alternate II provision of the solicitation. If the Contractor certified in its offer that it will deliver a qualifying country end product, SC/CASA state end products, or a Free Trade Agreement country end product other than a Bahraini end product, a Moroccan end product, a Panamanian end product, or a Peruvian end product, the Contractor shall deliver a qualifying country end product, an SC/CASA state end product, a Free Trade Agreement country end product other than a Bahraini end product, a Moroccan end product, a Panamanian end product, or a Peruvian end product or, at the Contractor's option, a domestic end product.</P>
                                <P>(d) The contract price does not include duty for end products or components for which the Contractor will claim duty-free entry.</P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Alternate IX.</E>
                                 As prescribed in 225.1101(10)(i) and (10)(i)(J), use the following clause, which includes in the definitions of “domestic end product” at paragraph (1)(ii)(A) and “qualifying country end product” at paragraph (2)(i) the domestic content threshold that will apply to the entire contract period of performance; adds “South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state” and “South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state end product” to paragraph (a); and uses a different paragraph (c) than the basic clause:
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program—Alternate IX (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Bahraini end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Bahrain; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Bahrain into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item—</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>(i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of “commercial product” in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR));</P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in 46 U.S.C. 40102(4), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply incorporated directly into an end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For an end product that does not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both—</P>
                                <P>(i) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) An end product manufactured in the United States if—</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its qualifying country components and its components that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components. The cost of components includes transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the end product and U.S. duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued). Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. Scrap generated, collected, and prepared for processing in the United States is considered domestic. A component is considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States (regardless of its source in fact) if the end product in which it is incorporated is manufactured in the United States and the component is of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States; or
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) It is inconsistent with the public interest to apply the restrictions of the Buy American statute; or
                                </P>
                                <P>(B) The end product is a COTS item; or</P>
                                <P>(2) For an end product that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, an end product manufactured in the United States, if the cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country constitutes less than 5 percent of the cost of all the components used in the end product (produced in the United States or a qualifying country means that all manufacturing processes of the iron and steel must take place in the United States or a qualifying country, except metallurgical processes involving refinement of steel additives). The cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country includes but is not limited to the cost of iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings, not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, utilized in the manufacture of the end product and a good faith estimate of the cost of all iron or steel components not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, excluding COTS fasteners. Iron or steel components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. If the end product contains multiple components, the cost of all the materials used in such end product is calculated in accordance with the explanation of cost of components in paragraph (1)(ii)(A) of this definition.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">End product</E>
                                     means those articles, materials, and supplies to be acquired under this contract for public use.
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11981"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Foreign end product</E>
                                     means an end product other than a domestic end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country</E>
                                     means Australia, Bahrain, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Dominican Republic, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, Korea (Republic of), Mexico, Morocco, Nicaragua, Panama, Peru, or Singapore.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Free Trade Agreement country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Free Trade Agreement country into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Moroccan end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Morocco; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Morocco into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Panamanian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Panama; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Panama into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Peruvian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Peru; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Peru into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                                     means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components excluding COTS fasteners.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country</E>
                                     means a country with a reciprocal defense procurement memorandum of understanding or international agreement with the United States in which both countries agree to remove barriers to purchases of supplies produced in the other country or services performed by sources of the other country, and the memorandum or agreement complies, where applicable, with the requirements of section 36 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2776) and with 10 U.S.C. 2457. Accordingly, the following are qualifying countries:
                                </P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Australia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Austria</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Belgium</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Canada</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Czech Republic</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Denmark</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Egypt</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Estonia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Finland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">France</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Germany</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Greece</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Israel</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Italy</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Japan</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Latvia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lithuania</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Luxembourg</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Netherlands</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Norway</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Poland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Portugal</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Slovenia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Spain</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sweden</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Switzerland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Turkey</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.</FP>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country component</E>
                                     means a component mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in a qualifying country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) An end product manufactured in a qualifying country if—</P>
                                <P>(i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components:</P>
                                <P>(A) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>(B) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States.</P>
                                <P>(C) Components of foreign origin of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States. Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) The end product is a COTS item.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state</E>
                                     means Armenia, Azerbaijan, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, or Uzbekistan.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of an SC/CASA state; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in an SC/CASA state into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Steel</E>
                                     means an alloy that includes at least 50 percent iron, between 0.02 and 2 percent carbon, and may include other elements.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>(b) Unless otherwise specified, this clause applies to all items in the Schedule.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Contractor shall deliver under this contract only domestic end products unless, in its offer, it specified delivery of qualifying country end products, SC/CASA state end products, or other foreign end products in the Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate—Alternate III provision of the solicitation. If the Contractor certified in its offer that it will deliver a qualifying country end product or SC/CASA state end products, the Contractor shall deliver a qualifying country end product, an SC/CASA state end product, or, at the Contractor's option, a domestic end product.</P>
                                <P>(d) The contract price does not include duty for end products or components for which the Contractor will claim duty-free entry.</P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Alternate X.</E>
                                 As prescribed in 225.1101(10)(i) and (10)(i)(K), use the following clause, which includes, in the definitions of “domestic end product” at paragraph (1)(ii)(A) and “qualifying country end product” at paragraph (2)(i), the domestic content threshold 
                                <PRTPAGE P="11982"/>
                                that will apply to the entire contract period of performance; adds “Korean end product” to paragraph (a); and uses a different paragraph (c) than the basic clause:
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program—Alternate X (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Bahraini end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Bahrain; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Bahrain into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item—</P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>(i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of “commercial product” in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR));</P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in 46 U.S.C. 40102(4), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply incorporated directly into an end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For an end product that does not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both—</P>
                                <P>(i) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) An end product manufactured in the United States if—</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its qualifying country components and its components that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components. The cost of components includes transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the end product and U.S. duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued). Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. Scrap generated, collected, and prepared for processing in the United States is considered domestic. A component is considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States (regardless of its source in fact) if the end product in which it is incorporated is manufactured in the United States and the component is of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States; or
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) It is inconsistent with the public interest to apply the restrictions of the Buy American statute; or
                                </P>
                                <P>(B) The end product is a COTS item; or</P>
                                <P>(2) For an end product that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, an end product manufactured in the United States, if the cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country constitutes less than 5 percent of the cost of all the components used in the end product (produced in the United States or a qualifying country means that all manufacturing processes of the iron or steel must take place in the United States or a qualifying country, except metallurgical processes involving refinement of steel additives). The cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country includes but is not limited to the cost of iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings, not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, utilized in the manufacture of the end product and a good faith estimate of the cost of all iron or steel components not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, excluding COTS fasteners. Iron or steel components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. If the end product contains multiple components, the cost of all the materials used in such end product is calculated in accordance with the explanation of cost of components in paragraph (1)(ii)(A) of this definition.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">End product</E>
                                     means those articles, materials, and supplies to be acquired under this contract for public use.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Foreign end product</E>
                                     means an end product other than a domestic end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement coun</E>
                                    try means Australia, Bahrain, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Dominican Republic, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, Korea (Republic of), Mexico, Morocco, Nicaragua, Panama, Peru, or Singapore.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Free Trade Agreement country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Free Trade Agreement country into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Korean end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Korea; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Korea (Republic of) into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product, includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Moroccan end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Morocco; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Morocco into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Panamanian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Panama; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Panama into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Peruvian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Peru; or</P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Peru into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11983"/>
                                    distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                                     means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components excluding COTS fasteners.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country</E>
                                     means a country with a reciprocal defense procurement memorandum of understanding or international agreement with the United States in which both countries agree to remove barriers to purchases of supplies produced in the other country or services performed by sources of the other country, and the memorandum or agreement complies, where applicable, with the requirements of section 36 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2776) and with 10 U.S.C. 2457. Accordingly, the following are qualifying countries:
                                </P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Australia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Austria</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Belgium</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Canada</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Czech Republic</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Denmark</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Egypt</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Estonia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Finland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">France</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Germany</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Greece</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Israel</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Italy</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Japan</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Latvia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lithuania</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Luxembourg</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Netherlands</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Norway</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Poland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Portugal</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Slovenia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Spain</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sweden</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Switzerland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Turkey</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.</FP>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country component</E>
                                     means a component mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in a qualifying country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) An end product manufactured in a qualifying country if—</P>
                                <P>(i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components:</P>
                                <P>(A) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>(B) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States.</P>
                                <P>(C) Components of foreign origin of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States. Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) The end product is a COTS item.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Steel</E>
                                     means an alloy that includes at least 50 percent iron, between 0.02 and 2 percent carbon, and may include other elements.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>(b) Unless otherwise specified, this clause applies to all items in the Schedule.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Contractor shall deliver under this contract only domestic end products unless, in its offer, it specified delivery of qualifying country end products, Free Trade Agreement country end products other than Bahraini end products, Korean end products, Moroccan end products, Panamanian end products, or Peruvian end products, or other foreign end products in the Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate—Alternate IV provision of the solicitation. If the Contractor certified in its offer that it will deliver a qualifying country end product or a Free Trade Agreement country end product other than a Bahraini end product, a Korean end product, a Moroccan end product, a Panamanian end product, or a Peruvian end product, the Contractor shall deliver a qualifying country end product, a Free Trade Agreement country end product other than a Bahraini end product, a Korean end product, a Moroccan end product, a Panamanian end product, or a Peruvian end product, or, at the Contractor's option, a domestic end product.</P>
                                <P>(d) The contract price does not include duty for end products or components for which the Contractor will claim duty-free entry.</P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Alternate XI.</E>
                                 As prescribed in 225.1101(10)(i) and (10)(i)(L), use the following clause, which includes, in the definitions of “domestic end product” at paragraph (1)(ii)(A) and “qualifying country end product” at paragraph (2)(i), the domestic content threshold that will apply to the entire contract period of performance; adds “Korean end product,” “South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state,” and “South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state end product” to paragraph (a); and uses a different paragraph (c) than the basic clause:
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program—Alternate XI (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Bahraini end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Bahrain; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Bahrain into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item—</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>(i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of “commercial product” in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR));</P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in 46 U.S.C. 40102(4), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply incorporated directly into an end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For an end product that does not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both—</P>
                                <P>(i) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) An end product manufactured in the United States if—</P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) The cost of its qualifying country components and its components that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components. The cost of components includes transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the end product and U.S. duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued). Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. Scrap generated, collected, and prepared for processing in the United States is considered domestic. A component is considered to have been mined, produced, or manufactured in 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11984"/>
                                    the United States (regardless of its source in fact) if the end product in which it is incorporated is manufactured in the United States and the component is of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States; or
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) It is inconsistent with the public interest to apply the restrictions of the Buy American statute; or
                                </P>
                                <P>(B) The end product is a COTS item; or</P>
                                <P>(2) For an end product that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, an end product manufactured in the United States, if the cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country constitutes less than 5 percent of the cost of all the components used in the end product (produced in the United States or a qualifying country means that all manufacturing processes of the iron or steel must take place in the United States or a qualifying country, except metallurgical processes involving refinement of steel additives). The cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States or a qualifying country includes but is not limited to the cost of iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings, not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, utilized in the manufacture of the end product and a good faith estimate of the cost of all iron or steel components not produced in the United States or a qualifying country, excluding COTS fasteners. Iron or steel components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. If the end product contains multiple components, the cost of all the materials used in such end product is calculated in accordance with the explanation of cost of components in paragraph (1)(ii)(A) of this definition.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">End product</E>
                                     means those articles, materials, and supplies to be acquired under this contract for public use.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Foreign end product</E>
                                     means an end product other than a domestic end product.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country</E>
                                     means Australia, Bahrain, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Dominican Republic, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, Korea (Republic of), Mexico, Morocco, Nicaragua, Panama, Peru, or Singapore.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Free Trade Agreement country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Free Trade Agreement country into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Korean end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Korea; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Korea (Republic of) into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product, includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Moroccan end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Morocco; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Morocco into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Panamanian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Panama; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Panama into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Peruvian end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Peru; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Peru into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                                     means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components excluding COTS fasteners.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country</E>
                                     means a country with a reciprocal defense procurement memorandum of understanding or international agreement with the United States in which both countries agree to remove barriers to purchases of supplies produced in the other country or services performed by sources of the other country, and the memorandum or agreement complies, where applicable, with the requirements of section 36 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2776) and with 10 U.S.C. 2457. Accordingly, the following are qualifying countries:
                                </P>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Australia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Austria</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Belgium</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Canada</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Czech Republic</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Denmark</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Egypt</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Estonia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Finland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">France</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Germany</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Greece</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Israel</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Italy</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Japan</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Latvia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Lithuania</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Luxembourg</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Netherlands</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Norway</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Poland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Portugal</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Slovenia</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Spain</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Sweden</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Switzerland</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">Turkey</FP>
                                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.</FP>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country component</E>
                                     means a component mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Qualifying country end product</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) An unmanufactured end product mined or produced in a qualifying country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) An end product manufactured in a qualifying country if—</P>
                                <P>(i) The cost of the following types of components exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components:</P>
                                <P>(A) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in a qualifying country.</P>
                                <P>(B) Components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) Components of foreign origin of a class or kind for which the Government has determined that sufficient and reasonably available commercial quantities of a 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11985"/>
                                    satisfactory quality are not mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States. Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign; or
                                </P>
                                <P>(ii) The end product is a COTS item.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state</E>
                                     means Armenia, Azerbaijan, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, or Uzbekistan.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state end product</E>
                                     means an article that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of an SC/CASA state; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of an article that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in an SC/CASA state into a new and different article of commerce with a name, character, or use distinct from that of the article or articles from which it was transformed. The term refers to a product offered for purchase under a supply contract, but for purposes of calculating the value of the end product, includes services (except transportation services) incidental to its supply, provided that the value of those incidental services does not exceed the value of the product itself.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Steel</E>
                                     means an alloy that includes at least 50 percent iron, between 0.02 and 2 percent carbon, and may include other elements.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>(b) Unless otherwise specified, this clause applies to all items in the Schedule.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Contractor shall deliver under this contract only domestic end products unless, in its offer, it specified delivery of qualifying country end products, SC/CASA state end products, Free Trade Agreement country end products other than Bahraini end products, Korean end products, Moroccan end products, Panamanian end products, or Peruvian end products, or other foreign end products in the Buy American—Free Trade Agreements—Balance of Payments Program Certificate—Alternate V provision of the solicitation. If the Contractor certified in its offer that it will deliver a qualifying country end product, SC/CASA state end products, or a Free Trade Agreement country end product other than a Bahraini end product, a Korean end product, a Moroccan end product, a Panamanian end product, or a Peruvian end product, the Contractor shall deliver a qualifying country end product, an SC/CASA state end product, a Free Trade Agreement country end product other than a Bahraini end product, a Korean end product, a Moroccan end product, a Panamanian end product, or a Peruvian end product or, at the Contractor's option, a domestic end product.</P>
                                <P>(d) The contract price does not include duty for end products or components for which the Contractor will claim duty-free entry.</P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="252">
                        <AMDPAR>17. Amend section 252.225-7044—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. In Alternate I—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. By revising the clause title and date;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>ii. In paragraph (a)—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>A. In the definition of “Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item” in paragraph (1)(i) by removing “Federal Acquisition Regulation” and adding “Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR)” in its place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>B. By adding, in alphabetical order, the definitions of “Critical component” and “Critical item”;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>C. In the definition of “Domestic construction material” by revising the first sentence of paragraph (1)(ii)(A); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. In the Basic clause:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. By revising the clause title and date;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>ii. In paragraph (a)—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>A. In the definition of “Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item” in paragraph (1)(i) by removing “Federal Acquisition Regulation” and adding “Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR)” in its place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>B. By adding, in alphabetical order, the definitions of “Critical component” and “Critical item”;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>C. In the definition of “Domestic construction material” by revising the first sentence of paragraph (1)(ii)(A);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. By adding Alternates II and III.</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revisions and additions read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>252.225-7044</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Balance of Payments Program—Construction Material.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Balance of Payments Program—Construction Material—Basic (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>(a) * * *</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic construction material</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) * * *</P>
                                <P>(ii) * * *</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract in accordance with FAR 25.201(c). * * *</P>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Alternate I.</E>
                                     * * *
                                </P>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Balance of Payments Program—Construction Material—Alternate I (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>(a) * * *</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic construction material</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) * * *</P>
                                <P>(ii) * * *</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract in accordance with FAR 25.201(c). * * *</P>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Alternate II.</E>
                                     As prescribed in 225.7503(a) and (a)(3), use the following clause, which includes, in the definition of “domestic construction material” at paragraph (1)(ii)(A), the domestic content threshold that will apply to the entire contract period of performance:
                                </P>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Balance of Payments Program—Construction Material—Alternate II (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item—</P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>(i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of “commercial product” in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR));</P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in 46 U.S.C. 40102(4), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means any article, material, or supply incorporated directly into construction material.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Construction material</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply brought to the construction site by the Contractor or a subcontractor for incorporation into the building or work. The term also includes an item brought to the site preassembled from articles, materials, or supplies. However, emergency life safety systems, such as emergency lighting, fire alarm, and audio evacuation systems, that are discrete systems incorporated into a public building or work and that are produced as complete systems, are evaluated as a single and distinct construction material regardless of when or how the individual parts or components of those systems are delivered to the construction site. Materials purchased directly by the Government are supplies, not construction material.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Cost of components</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For components purchased by the Contractor, the acquisition cost, including transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the end product (whether or not such costs are paid to a domestic firm), and any applicable duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued); or</P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) For components manufactured by the Contractor, all costs associated with the manufacture of the component, including transportation costs as described in 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11986"/>
                                    paragraph (1) of this definition, plus allocable overhead costs, but excluding profit. Cost of components does not include any costs associated with the manufacture of the construction material.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic construction material</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For construction material that does not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both—</P>
                                <P>(i) An unmanufactured construction material mined or produced in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) A construction material manufactured in the United States, if—</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components. Components of foreign origin of the same class or kind for which nonavailability determinations have been made are treated as domestic. Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign; or</P>
                                <P>(B) The construction material is a COTS item; or</P>
                                <P>(2) For construction material that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, a construction material manufactured in the United States if the cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States (excluding fasteners) as estimated in good faith by the contractor, constitutes less than 5 percent of the cost of all the components used in such construction material (produced in the United States means that all manufacturing processes of the iron or steel must take place in the United States, except metallurgical processes involving refinement of steel additives). The cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States includes but is not limited to the cost of iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings, not produced in the United States, utilized in the manufacture of the end product and a good faith estimate of the cost of all iron or steel components not produced in the United States, excluding COTS fasteners. Iron or steel components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. If the construction material contains multiple components, the cost of all the materials used in such construction material is calculated in accordance with the definition of “cost of components” in this clause.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                                     means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components excluding COTS fasteners.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Steel</E>
                                     means an alloy that includes at least 50 percent iron, between 0.02 and 2 percent carbon, and may include other elements.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Domestic preference.</E>
                                     This clause implements the Balance of Payments Program by providing a preference for domestic construction material. The Contractor shall use only domestic construction material in performing this contract, except for—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Construction material valued at or below the simplified acquisition threshold in FAR part 2;</P>
                                <P>(2) Information technology that is a commercial product; or</P>
                                <P>(3) The construction material or components listed by the Government as follows:</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">[Contracting Officer to list applicable excepted materials or indicate “none”].</E>
                                </P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Alternate III.</E>
                                 As prescribed in 225.7503(a) and (a)(4), use the following clause, which includes, in the definition of “domestic construction material” at paragraph (1)(ii)(A), the domestic content threshold that will apply to the entire period of performance; adds definitions for “South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state” and “SC/CASA state construction material” to paragraph (a); and uses “domestic construction material or SC/CASA state construction material” instead of “domestic construction material” in the second sentence of paragraph (b):
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Balance of Payments Program—Construction Material—Alternate III (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item—</P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>(i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of “commercial product” in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR));</P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in 46 U.S.C. 40102(4), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means any article, material, or supply incorporated directly into construction material.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Construction material</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply brought to the construction site by the Contractor or a subcontractor for incorporation into the building or work. The term also includes an item brought to the site preassembled from articles, materials, or supplies. However, emergency life safety systems, such as emergency lighting, fire alarm, and audio evacuation systems, that are discrete systems incorporated into a public building or work and that are produced as complete systems, are evaluated as a single and distinct construction material regardless of when or how the individual parts or components of those systems are delivered to the construction site. Materials purchased directly by the Government are supplies, not construction material.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Cost of components</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For components purchased by the Contractor, the acquisition cost, including transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the end product (whether or not such costs are paid to a domestic firm), and any applicable duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued); or</P>
                                <P>(2) For components manufactured by the Contractor, all costs associated with the manufacture of the component, including transportation costs as described in paragraph (1) of this definition, plus allocable overhead costs, but excluding profit. Cost of components does not include any costs associated with the manufacture of the construction material.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic construction material</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For construction material that does not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both—</P>
                                <P>(i) An unmanufactured construction material mined or produced in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) A construction material manufactured in the United States, if—</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components. Components of foreign origin of the same class or kind for which nonavailability determinations have been made are treated as domestic. Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign; or</P>
                                <P>(B) The construction material is a COTS item; or</P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) For construction material that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, a construction material manufactured in the United States if the cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States (excluding fasteners) as estimated in good faith by the contractor, constitutes less than 5 percent of the cost of all the components used in such construction material (produced in the United States means that all manufacturing processes of the iron or steel must take place in the United States, except metallurgical processes involving refinement of steel additives). The 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11987"/>
                                    cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States includes but is not limited to the cost of iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings, not produced in the United States, utilized in the manufacture of the construction material and a good faith estimate of the cost of all iron or steel components not produced in the United States, excluding COTS fasteners. Iron or steel components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. If the construction material contains multiple components, the cost of all the materials used in such construction material is calculated in accordance with the definition of “cost of components” in this clause.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                                     means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components excluding COTS fasteners.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state</E>
                                     means Armenia, Azerbaijan, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, or Uzbekistan.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">SC/CASA state construction material</E>
                                     means construction material that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of an SC/CASA state; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of a construction material that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in an SC/CASA state into a new and different construction material distinct from the material from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Steel</E>
                                     means an alloy that includes at least 50 percent iron, between 0.02 and 2 percent carbon, and may include other elements.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Domestic preference.</E>
                                     This clause implements the Balance of Payments Program by providing a preference for domestic construction material. The Contractor shall use only domestic construction material or SC/CASA state construction material in performing this contract, except for—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Construction material valued at or below the simplified acquisition threshold in FAR part 2;</P>
                                <P>(2) Information technology that is a commercial product; or</P>
                                <P>(3) The construction material or components listed by the Government as follows:</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">[Contracting Officer to list applicable excepted materials or indicate “none”].</E>
                                </P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="48" PART="252">
                        <AMDPAR>18. Amend section 252.225-7045—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. In the Basic clause:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. By revising the clause date;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>ii. In paragraph (a)—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>A. In the definition of “Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item” in paragraph (1)(i) by removing “Federal Acquisition Regulation” and adding “Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR)” in its place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>B. By adding, in alphabetical order, the definitions of “Critical component” and “Critical item”;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>C. In the definition of “Domestic construction material” by revising the first sentence of paragraph (1)(ii)(A);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. In Alternate I—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. By revising the clause date;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>ii. In paragraph (a)—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>A. In the definition of “Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item” in paragraph (1)(i) by removing “Federal Acquisition Regulation” and adding “Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR)” in its place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>B. By adding, in alphabetical order, the definitions of “Critical component” and “Critical item”;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>C. In the definition of “Domestic construction material” by revising the first sentence of paragraph (1)(ii)(A);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. In Alternate II—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. By revising the clause date;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>ii. In paragraph (a)—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>A. In the definition of “Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item” in paragraph (1)(i) by removing “Federal Acquisition Regulation” and adding “Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR)” in its place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>B. By adding, in alphabetical order, the definitions of “Critical component” and “Critical item”;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>C. In the definition of “Domestic construction material” by revising the first sentence of paragraph (1)(ii)(A);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>d. In Alternate III—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>i. By revising the clause date;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>ii. In paragraph (a)—</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>A. In the definition of “Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item” in paragraph (1)(i) by removing “Federal Acquisition Regulation” and adding “Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR)” in its place;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>B. By adding, in alphabetical order, the definitions of “Critical component” and “Critical item”;</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>C. In the definition of “Domestic construction material” by revising the first sentence of paragraph (1)(ii)(A); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>e. By adding Alternates IV through VII.</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revisions and additions read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>252.225-7045</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Balance of Payments Program—Construction Material Under Trade Agreements.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Balance of Payments Program—Construction Material Under Trade Agreements—Basic (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>(a) * * *</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic construction material</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) * * *</P>
                                <P>(ii) * * *</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract in accordance with FAR 25.201(c). * * *</P>
                                <STARS/>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Alternate I.</E>
                                 * * *
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Balance of Payments Program—Construction Material Under Trade Agreements—Alternate I (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>(a) * * *</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic construction material</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) * * *</P>
                                <P>(ii) * * *</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract in accordance with FAR 25.201(c). * * *</P>
                                <STARS/>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Alternate II.</E>
                                 * * *
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Balance of Payments Program—Construction Material Under Trade Agreements—Alternate II (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>(a) * * *</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic construction material</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) * * *</P>
                                <P>(ii) * * *</P>
                                <P>
                                    (A) The cost of its components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11988"/>
                                    will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract in accordance with FAR 25.201(c). * * *
                                </P>
                                <STARS/>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Alternate III.</E>
                                 * * *
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Balance of Payments Program—Construction Material Under Trade Agreements—Alternate III (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>(a) * * *</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <STARS/>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic construction material</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) * * *</P>
                                <P>(ii) * * *</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds 60 percent of the cost of all its components, except that the percentage will be 65 percent for items delivered in calendar years 2024 through 2028 and 75 percent for items delivered starting in calendar year 2029, unless an alternate percentage is established for a contract in accordance with FAR 25.201(c). * * *</P>
                                <STARS/>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Alternate IV.</E>
                                 As prescribed in 225.7503(b) and (b)(5), use the following clause, which includes, in the definition of “domestic construction material” at paragraph (1)(ii)(A), the domestic content threshold that will apply to the entire contract period of performance:
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Balance of Payments Program—Construction Material Under Trade Agreements—Alternate IV (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Caribbean Basin country construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Caribbean Basin country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of a construction material that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Caribbean Basin country into a new and different construction material distinct from the materials from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item</E>
                                    —
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>(i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of “commercial product” in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR));</P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in section 3 of the Shipping Act of 1984 (46 U.S.C. 40102), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means any article, material, or supply incorporated directly into construction material.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Construction material</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply brought to the construction site by the Contractor or a subcontractor for incorporation into the building or work. The term also includes an item brought to the site preassembled from articles, materials, or supplies. However, emergency life safety systems, such as emergency lighting, fire alarm, and audio evacuation systems, that are discrete systems incorporated into a public building or work and that are produced as complete systems, are evaluated as a single and distinct construction material regardless of when or how the individual parts or components of those systems are delivered to the construction site. Materials purchased directly by the Government are supplies, not construction material.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Cost of components</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For components purchased by the Contractor, the acquisition cost, including transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the end product (whether or not such costs are paid to a domestic firm), and any applicable duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued); or</P>
                                <P>(2) For components manufactured by the Contractor, all costs associated with the manufacture of the component, including transportation costs as described in paragraph (1) of this definition, plus allocable overhead costs, but excluding profit. Cost of components does not include any costs associated with the manufacture of the construction material.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Designated country</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) A World Trade Organization Government Procurement Agreement (WTO GPA) country (Armenia, Aruba, Australia, Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria, Canada, Croatia, Cyprus, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hong Kong, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, Korea (Republic of), Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Moldova, Montenegro, Netherlands, New Zealand, North Macedonia, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Singapore, Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Taiwan (known in the World Trade Organization as “the Separate Customs Territory of Taiwan, Penghu, Kinmen, and Matsu” (Chinese Taipei)), Ukraine, or the United Kingdom);</P>
                                <P>(2) A Free Trade Agreement country (Australia, Bahrain, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Dominican Republic, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, Korea (Republic of), Mexico, Morocco, Nicaragua, Panama, Peru, or Singapore);</P>
                                <P>(3) A least developed country (Afghanistan, Angola, Bangladesh, Benin, Bhutan, Burkina Faso, Burundi, Cambodia, Central African Republic, Chad, Comoros, Democratic Republic of Congo, Djibouti, Equatorial Guinea, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Gambia, Guinea, Guinea-Bissau, Haiti, Kiribati, Laos, Lesotho, Liberia, Madagascar, Malawi, Mali, Mauritania, Mozambique, Nepal, Niger, Rwanda, Samoa, Sao Tome and Principe, Senegal, Sierra Leone, Solomon Islands, Somalia, South Sudan, Tanzania, Timor-Leste, Togo, Tuvalu, Uganda, Vanuatu, Yemen, or Zambia); or</P>
                                <P>(4) A Caribbean Basin country (Antigua and Barbuda, Aruba, Bahamas, Barbados, Belize, Bonaire, British Virgin Islands, Curacao, Dominica, Grenada, Guyana, Haiti, Jamaica, Montserrat, Saba, St. Kitts and Nevis, St. Lucia, St. Vincent and the Grenadines, Sint Eustatius, Sint Maarten, or Trinidad and Tobago).</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Designated country construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that is a WTO GPA country construction material, a Free Trade Agreement country construction material, a least developed country construction material, or a Caribbean Basin country construction material.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic construction material</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For construction material that does not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both—</P>
                                <P>(i) An unmanufactured construction material mined or produced in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) A construction material manufactured in the United States, if—</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components. Components of foreign origin of the same class or kind for which nonavailability determinations have been made are treated as domestic. Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign; or</P>
                                <P>(B) The construction material is a COTS item; or</P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) For construction material that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, a construction material manufactured in the United States if the cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States (excluding fasteners) as estimated in good faith by the contractor, constitutes less than 5 percent of the cost of all the components used in such construction material (produced in the United States means that all manufacturing processes of the iron or steel must take place in the United States, except metallurgical processes involving refinement of steel additives). The cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States includes but is not limited to the cost of iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings, not produced in the United States, utilized in the manufacture of the construction material and a good faith estimate of the cost of all iron or steel 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11989"/>
                                    components not produced in the United States, excluding COTS fasteners. Iron or steel components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. If the construction material contains multiple components, the cost of all the materials used in such construction material is calculated in accordance with the definition of “cost of components” in this clause.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Free Trade Agreement country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of a construction material that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Free Trade Agreement country into a new and different construction material distinct from the material from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Least developed country construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a least developed country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of a construction material that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country has been substantially transformed in a least developed country into a new and different construction material distinct from the materials from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                                     means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components excluding COTS fasteners.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Steel</E>
                                     means an alloy that includes at least 50 percent iron, between 0.02 and 2 percent carbon, and may include other elements.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">WTO GPA country construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a WTO GPA country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of a construction material that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a WTO GPA country into a new and different construction material distinct from the materials from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>(b) This clause implements the Balance of Payments Program by providing a preference for domestic construction material. In addition, the Contracting Officer has determined that the WTO GPA and Free Trade Agreements apply to this acquisition. Therefore, the Balance of Payments Program restrictions are waived for designated country construction materials.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Contractor shall use only domestic or designated country construction material in performing this contract, except for—</P>
                                <P>(1) Construction material valued at or below the simplified acquisition threshold in FAR part 2;</P>
                                <P>(2) Information technology that is a commercial product; or</P>
                                <P>(3) The construction material or components listed by the Government as follows:</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">[Contracting Officer to list applicable excepted materials or indicate “none”].</E>
                                </P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Alternate V.</E>
                                 As prescribed in 225.7503(b) and (b)(6), use the following clause, which includes, in the definition of “domestic construction material” at paragraph (1)(ii)(A), the domestic content threshold that will apply to the entire contract period of performance; adds “Bahraini or Mexican construction material” to paragraph (a); and uses different paragraphs (b) and (c) than the basic clause:
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Balance of Payments Program—Construction Material Under Trade Agreements—Alternate V (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Bahraini or Mexican construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of Bahrain or Mexico; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of a construction material that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in Bahrain or Mexico into a new and different construction material distinct from the materials from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Caribbean Basin country construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Caribbean Basin country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of a construction material that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Caribbean Basin country into a new and different construction material distinct from the materials from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item</E>
                                    —
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>(i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of “commercial product” in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR));</P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in section 3 of the Shipping Act of 1984 (46 U.S.C. 40102), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means any article, material, or supply incorporated directly into construction material.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Construction material</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply brought to the construction site by the Contractor or a subcontractor for incorporation into the building or work. The term also includes an item brought to the site preassembled from articles, materials, or supplies. However, emergency life safety systems, such as emergency lighting, fire alarm, and audio evacuation systems, that are discrete systems incorporated into a public building or work and that are produced as complete systems, are evaluated as a single and distinct construction material regardless of when or how the individual parts or components of those systems are delivered to the construction site. Materials purchased directly by the Government are supplies, not construction material.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Cost of components</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For components purchased by the Contractor, the acquisition cost, including transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the end product (whether or not such costs are paid to a domestic firm), and any applicable duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued); or</P>
                                <P>(2) For components manufactured by the Contractor, all costs associated with the manufacture of the component, including transportation costs as described in paragraph (1) of this definition, plus allocable overhead costs, but excluding profit. Cost of components does not include any costs associated with the manufacture of the construction material.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Designated country</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) A World Trade Organization Government Procurement Agreement (WTO GPA) country (Armenia, Aruba, Australia, Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria, Canada, Croatia, Cyprus, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hong Kong, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, Korea (Republic of), Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Moldova, Montenegro, Netherlands, New Zealand, North Macedonia, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Singapore, Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Taiwan (known in the World Trade Organization as “the Separate Customs Territory of Taiwan, Penghu, Kinmen, and Matsu” (Chinese Taipei)), Ukraine, or the United Kingdom);</P>
                                <P>(2) A Free Trade Agreement country (Australia, Bahrain, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Dominican Republic, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, Korea (Republic of), Mexico, Morocco, Nicaragua, Panama, Peru, or Singapore);</P>
                                <P>(3) A least developed country (Afghanistan, Angola, Bangladesh, Benin, Bhutan, Burkina Faso, Burundi, Cambodia, Central African Republic, Chad, Comoros, Democratic Republic of Congo, Djibouti, Equatorial Guinea, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Gambia, Guinea, Guinea-Bissau, Haiti, Kiribati, Laos, Lesotho, Liberia, Madagascar, Malawi, Mali, Mauritania, Mozambique, Nepal, Niger, Rwanda, Samoa, Sao Tome and Principe, Senegal, Sierra Leone, Solomon Islands, Somalia, South Sudan, Tanzania, Timor-Leste, Togo, Tuvalu, Uganda, Vanuatu, Yemen, or Zambia); or</P>
                                <P>
                                    (4) A Caribbean Basin country (Antigua and Barbuda, Aruba, Bahamas, Barbados, 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11990"/>
                                    Belize, Bonaire, British Virgin Islands, Curacao, Dominica, Grenada, Guyana, Haiti, Jamaica, Montserrat, Saba, St. Kitts and Nevis, St. Lucia, St. Vincent and the Grenadines, Sint Eustatius, Sint Maarten, or Trinidad and Tobago).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Designated country construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that is a WTO GPA country construction material, a Free Trade Agreement country construction material, a least developed country construction material, or a Caribbean Basin country construction material.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic construction material</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For construction material that does not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both—</P>
                                <P>(i) An unmanufactured construction material mined or produced in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) A construction material manufactured in the United States, if—</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components. Components of foreign origin of the same class or kind for which nonavailability determinations have been made are treated as domestic. Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign; or</P>
                                <P>(B) The construction material is a COTS item; or</P>
                                <P>(2) For construction material that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, a construction material manufactured in the United States if the cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States (excluding fasteners) as estimated in good faith by the contractor, constitutes less than 5 percent of the cost of all the components used in such construction material (produced in the United States means that all manufacturing processes of the iron or steel must take place in the United States, except metallurgical processes involving refinement of steel additives). The cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States includes but is not limited to the cost of iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings, not produced in the United States, utilized in the manufacture of the construction material and a good faith estimate of the cost of all iron or steel components not produced in the United States, excluding COTS fasteners. Iron or steel components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. If the construction material contains multiple components, the cost of all the materials used in such construction material is calculated in accordance with the definition of “cost of components” in this clause.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Free Trade Agreement country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of a construction material that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Free Trade Agreement country into a new and different construction material distinct from the material from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Least developed country construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a least developed country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of a construction material that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country has been substantially transformed in a least developed country into a new and different construction material distinct from the materials from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                                     means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components excluding COTS fasteners.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Steel</E>
                                     means an alloy that includes at least 50 percent iron, between 0.02 and 2 percent carbon, and may include other elements.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">WTO GPA country construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a WTO GPA country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of a construction material that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a WTO GPA country into a new and different construction material distinct from the materials from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>(b) This clause implements the Balance of Payments Program by providing a preference for domestic construction material. In addition, the Contracting Officer has determined that the WTO GPA and all Free Trade Agreements except United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement and the Bahrain Free Trade Agreement apply to this acquisition. Therefore, the Balance of Payments Program restrictions are waived for designated country construction material other than Bahraini or Mexican construction material.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Contractor shall use only domestic or designated country construction material other than Bahraini or Mexican construction material in performing this contract, except for—</P>
                                <P>(1) Construction material valued at or below the simplified acquisition threshold in FAR part 2; or</P>
                                <P>(2) Information technology that is a commercial product; or</P>
                                <P>(3) The construction material or components listed by the Government as follows:</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">[Contracting Officer to list applicable excepted materials or indicate “none”].</E>
                                </P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Alternate VI.</E>
                                 As prescribed in 225.7503(b) and (b)(7), use the following clause, which includes, in the definition of “domestic construction material” at paragraph (1)(ii)(A), the domestic content threshold that will apply to the entire contract period of performance; adds “South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state” and “SC/CASA state construction material” to paragraph (a); uses a different paragraph (b) and introductory text for paragraph (c) than the basic clause; and adds paragraph (d):
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Balance of Payments Program—Construction Material Under Trade Agreements—Alternate VI (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Caribbean Basin country construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Caribbean Basin country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of a construction material that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Caribbean Basin country into a new and different construction material distinct from the materials from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item</E>
                                    —
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>(i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of “commercial product” in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR));</P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in section 3 of the Shipping Act of 1984 (46 U.S.C. 40102), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means any article, material, or supply incorporated directly into construction material.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Construction material</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply brought to the construction site by the Contractor or a subcontractor for incorporation into the building or work. The term also includes an item brought to the site preassembled from articles, materials, or supplies. However, emergency life safety systems, such as emergency lighting, fire alarm, and audio evacuation systems, that are discrete systems incorporated into a public building or work and that are produced as complete systems, are evaluated as a single and distinct construction material regardless of when or how the individual parts or components of those systems are delivered to the construction site. Materials purchased directly by the Government are supplies, not construction material.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Cost of components</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (1) For components purchased by the Contractor, the acquisition cost, including transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the end product (whether or not such costs are paid to a domestic firm), and any applicable duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued); or
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11991"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>(2) For components manufactured by the Contractor, all costs associated with the manufacture of the component, including transportation costs as described in paragraph (1) of this definition, plus allocable overhead costs, but excluding profit. Cost of components does not include any costs associated with the manufacture of the construction material.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Designated country</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) A World Trade Organization Government Procurement Agreement (WTO GPA) country (Armenia, Aruba, Australia, Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria, Canada, Croatia, Cyprus, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hong Kong, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, Korea (Republic of), Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Moldova, Montenegro, Netherlands, New Zealand, North Macedonia, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Singapore, Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Taiwan (known in the World Trade Organization as “the Separate Customs Territory of Taiwan, Penghu, Kinmen, and Matsu” (Chinese Taipei)), Ukraine, or the United Kingdom);</P>
                                <P>(2) A Free Trade Agreement country (Australia, Bahrain, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Dominican Republic, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, Korea (Republic of), Mexico, Morocco, Nicaragua, Panama, Peru, or Singapore);</P>
                                <P>(3) A least developed country (Afghanistan, Angola, Bangladesh, Benin, Bhutan, Burkina Faso, Burundi, Cambodia, Central African Republic, Chad, Comoros, Democratic Republic of Congo, Djibouti, Equatorial Guinea, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Gambia, Guinea, Guinea-Bissau, Haiti, Kiribati, Laos, Lesotho, Liberia, Madagascar, Malawi, Mali, Mauritania, Mozambique, Nepal, Niger, Rwanda, Samoa, Sao Tome and Principe, Senegal, Sierra Leone, Solomon Islands, Somalia, South Sudan, Tanzania, Timor-Leste, Togo, Tuvalu, Uganda, Vanuatu, Yemen, or Zambia); or</P>
                                <P>(4) A Caribbean Basin country (Antigua and Barbuda, Aruba, Bahamas, Barbados, Belize, Bonaire, British Virgin Islands, Curacao, Dominica, Grenada, Guyana, Haiti, Jamaica, Montserrat, Saba, St. Kitts and Nevis, St. Lucia, St. Vincent and the Grenadines, Sint Eustatius, Sint Maarten, or Trinidad and Tobago).</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Designated country construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that is a WTO GPA country construction material, a Free Trade Agreement country construction material, a least developed country construction material, or a Caribbean Basin country construction material.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic construction material</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For construction material that does not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both—</P>
                                <P>(i) An unmanufactured construction material mined or produced in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) A construction material manufactured in the United States, if—</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components. Components of foreign origin of the same class or kind for which nonavailability determinations have been made are treated as domestic. Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign; or</P>
                                <P>(B) The construction material is a COTS item; or</P>
                                <P>(2) For construction material that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, a construction material manufactured in the United States if the cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States (excluding fasteners) as estimated in good faith by the contractor, constitutes less than 5 percent of the cost of all the components used in such construction material (produced in the United States means that all manufacturing processes of the iron or steel must take place in the United States, except metallurgical processes involving refinement of steel additives). The cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States includes but is not limited to the cost of iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings, not produced in the United States, utilized in the manufacture of the construction material and a good faith estimate of the cost of all iron or steel components not produced in the United States, excluding COTS fasteners. Iron or steel components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. If the construction material contains multiple components, the cost of all the materials used in such construction material is calculated in accordance with the definition of “cost of components” in this clause.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Free Trade Agreement country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of a construction material that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Free Trade Agreement country into a new and different construction material distinct from the material from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Least developed country construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a least developed country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of a construction material that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a least developed country into a new and different construction material distinct from the materials from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                                     means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components excluding COTS fasteners.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state</E>
                                     means Armenia, Azerbaijan, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, or Uzbekistan.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">SC/CASA state construction material</E>
                                     means construction material that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of an SC/CASA state; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of a construction material that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in an SC/CASA state into a new and different construction material distinct from the material from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Steel</E>
                                     means an alloy that includes at least 50 percent iron, between 0.02 and 2 percent carbon, and may include other elements.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">WTO GPA country construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a WTO GPA country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of a construction material that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a WTO GPA country into a new and different construction material distinct from the materials from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>(b) This clause implements the Balance of Payments Program by providing a preference for domestic construction material. In addition, the Contracting Officer has determined that the WTO GPA, Free Trade Agreements, and other waivers relating to acquisitions in support of operations in Afghanistan apply to this acquisition. Therefore, the Balance of Payments Program restrictions are waived for SC/CASA state and designated country construction materials.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Contractor shall use only domestic, SC/CASA state, or designated country construction material in performing this contract, except for—</P>
                                <P>(1) Construction material valued at or below the simplified acquisition threshold in FAR part 2;</P>
                                <P>(2) Information technology that is a commercial product; or</P>
                                <P>(3) The construction material or components listed by the Government as follows:</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">[Contracting Officer to list applicable excepted materials or indicate “none”].</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(d) If the Contractor is from an SC/CASA state, the Contractor shall inform its government of its participation in this acquisition and that it generally will not have such opportunity in the future unless its government provides reciprocal procurement opportunities to U.S. products and services and suppliers of such products and services.</P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <PRTPAGE P="11992"/>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                            <P>
                                <E T="03">Alternate VII.</E>
                                 As prescribed in 225.7503(b) and (b)(8), use the following clause, which includes, in the definition of “domestic construction material” at paragraph (1)(ii)(A), the domestic content threshold that will apply to the entire contract period of performance; adds “South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA state)” and “SC/CASA state construction material” to paragraph (a); uses a different paragraph (b) and introductory text for paragraph (c) than the basic clause; and adds paragraph (d):
                            </P>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Balance of Payments Program—Construction Material Under Trade Agreements—Alternate VII (Feb 2024)</HD>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                     As used in this clause—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Caribbean Basin country construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Caribbean Basin country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of a construction material that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Caribbean Basin country into a new and different construction material distinct from the materials from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Commercially available off-the-shelf (COTS) item</E>
                                    —
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Means any item of supply (including construction material) that is—</P>
                                <P>(i) A commercial product (as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of “commercial product” in section 2.101 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR));</P>
                                <P>(ii) Sold in substantial quantities in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(iii) Offered to the Government, under a contract or subcontract at any tier, without modification, in the same form in which it is sold in the commercial marketplace; and</P>
                                <P>(2) Does not include bulk cargo, as defined in section 3 of the Shipping Act of 1984 (46 U.S.C. 40102), such as agricultural products and petroleum products.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Component</E>
                                     means any article, material, or supply incorporated directly into construction material.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Construction material</E>
                                     means an article, material, or supply brought to the construction site by the Contractor or a subcontractor for incorporation into the building or work. The term also includes an item brought to the site preassembled from articles, materials, or supplies. However, emergency life safety systems, such as emergency lighting, fire alarm, and audio evacuation systems, that are discrete systems incorporated into a public building or work and that are produced as complete systems, are evaluated as a single and distinct construction material regardless of when or how the individual parts or components of those systems are delivered to the construction site. Materials purchased directly by the Government are supplies, not construction material.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Cost of components</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For components purchased by the Contractor, the acquisition cost, including transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the end product (whether or not such costs are paid to a domestic firm), and any applicable duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued); or</P>
                                <P>(2) For components manufactured by the Contractor, all costs associated with the manufacture of the component, including transportation costs as described in paragraph (1) of this definition, plus allocable overhead costs, but excluding profit. Cost of components does not include any costs associated with the manufacture of the construction material.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical component</E>
                                     means a component that is mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States and deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical components is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Critical item</E>
                                     means domestic construction material or a domestic end product that is deemed critical to the U.S. supply chain. The list of critical items is at FAR 25.105.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Designated country</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) A World Trade Organization Government Procurement Agreement (WTO GPA) country (Armenia, Aruba, Australia, Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria, Canada, Croatia, Cyprus, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hong Kong, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, Korea (Republic of), Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Moldova, Montenegro, Netherlands, New Zealand, North Macedonia, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Singapore, Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Taiwan (known in the World Trade Organization as “the Separate Customs Territory of Taiwan, Penghu, Kinmen, and Matsu” (Chinese Taipei)), Ukraine, or the United Kingdom);</P>
                                <P>(2) A Free Trade Agreement country (Australia, Bahrain, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Dominican Republic, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, Korea (Republic of), Mexico, Morocco, Nicaragua, Panama, Peru, or Singapore);</P>
                                <P>(3) A least developed country (Afghanistan, Angola, Bangladesh, Benin, Bhutan, Burkina Faso, Burundi, Cambodia, Central African Republic, Chad, Comoros, Democratic Republic of Congo, Djibouti, Equatorial Guinea, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Gambia, Guinea, Guinea-Bissau, Haiti, Kiribati, Laos, Lesotho, Liberia, Madagascar, Malawi, Mali, Mauritania, Mozambique, Nepal, Niger, Rwanda, Samoa, Sao Tome and Principe, Senegal, Sierra Leone, Solomon Islands, Somalia, South Sudan, Tanzania, Timor-Leste, Togo, Tuvalu, Uganda, Vanuatu, Yemen, or Zambia); or</P>
                                <P>(4) A Caribbean Basin country (Antigua and Barbuda, Aruba, Bahamas, Barbados, Belize, Bonaire, British Virgin Islands, Curacao, Dominica, Grenada, Guyana, Haiti, Jamaica, Montserrat, Saba, St. Kitts and Nevis, St. Lucia, St. Vincent and the Grenadines, Sint Eustatius, Sint Maarten, or Trinidad and Tobago).</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Designated country construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that is a WTO GPA country construction material, a Free Trade Agreement country construction material, a least developed country construction material, or a Caribbean Basin country construction material.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Domestic construction material</E>
                                     means—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) For construction material that does not consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both—</P>
                                <P>(i) An unmanufactured construction material mined or produced in the United States; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) A construction material manufactured in the United States, if—</P>
                                <P>(A) The cost of its components mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States exceeds, for the entire period of performance for a contract awarded in: calendar year 2023, 60 percent of the cost of all its components; calendar years 2024 through 2028, 65 percent of the cost of all its components; or calendar year 2029 or later, 75 percent of the cost of all its components. Components of foreign origin of the same class or kind for which nonavailability determinations have been made are treated as domestic. Components of unknown origin are treated as foreign; or</P>
                                <P>(B) The construction material is a COTS item; or</P>
                                <P>(2) For construction material that consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, a construction material manufactured in the United States if the cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States (excluding fasteners) as estimated in good faith by the contractor, constitutes less than 5 percent of the cost of all the components used in such construction material (produced in the United States means that all manufacturing processes of the iron or steel must take place in the United States, except metallurgical processes involving refinement of steel additives). The cost of iron and steel not produced in the United States includes but is not limited to the cost of iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings, not produced in the United States, utilized in the manufacture of the construction material and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components not produced in the United States, excluding COTS fasteners. Iron or steel components of unknown origin are treated as foreign. If the construction material contains multiple components, the cost of all the materials used in such construction material is calculated in accordance with the definition of “cost of components” in this clause.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Free Trade Agreement country construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a Free Trade Agreement country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of a construction material that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a Free Trade Agreement country into a new and different construction material distinct from the material from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Least developed country construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a least developed country; or</P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) In the case of a construction material that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="11993"/>
                                    transformed in a least developed country into a new and different construction material distinct from the materials from which it was transformed.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                                     means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components excluding COTS fasteners.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">South Caucasus/Central and South Asian (SC/CASA) state</E>
                                     means Armenia, Azerbaijan, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, or Uzbekistan.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">SC/CASA state construction material</E>
                                     means construction material that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of an SC/CASA state; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of a construction material that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in an SC/CASA state into a new and different construction material distinct from the material from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Steel</E>
                                     means an alloy that includes at least 50 percent iron, between 0.02 and 2 percent carbon, and may include other elements.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">United States</E>
                                     means the 50 States, the District of Columbia, and outlying areas.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">WTO GPA country construction material</E>
                                     means a construction material that—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Is wholly the growth, product, or manufacture of a WTO GPA country; or</P>
                                <P>(2) In the case of a construction material that consists in whole or in part of materials from another country, has been substantially transformed in a WTO GPA country into a new and different construction material distinct from the materials from which it was transformed.</P>
                                <P>(b) This clause implements the Balance of Payments Program by providing a preference for domestic construction material. In addition, the Contracting Officer has determined that the WTO GPA, all Free Trade Agreements except United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement and the Bahrain Free Trade Agreement, and other waivers relating to acquisitions in support of operations in Afghanistan apply to this acquisition. Therefore, the Balance of Payments Program restrictions are waived for SC/CASA state and designated country construction material other than Bahraini or Mexican construction material.</P>
                                <P>(c) The Contractor shall use only domestic, SC/CASA state, or designated country construction material other than Bahraini or Mexican construction material in performing this contract, except for—</P>
                                <P>(1) Construction material valued at or below the simplified acquisition threshold in FAR part 2;</P>
                                <P>(2) Information technology that is a commercial product; or</P>
                                <P>(3) The construction material or components listed by the Government as follows:</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">[Contracting Officer to list applicable excepted materials or indicate “none”].</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>(d) If the Contractor is from an SC/CASA state, the Contractor shall inform its government of its participation in this acquisition and that it generally will not have such opportunity in the future unless its government provides reciprocal procurement opportunities to U.S. products and services and suppliers of such products and services.</P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <HD SOURCE="HD3">(End of clause)</HD>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-01220 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6001-FR-P</BILCOD>
            </RULE>
        </RULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>89</VOL>
    <NO>32</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, February 15, 2024</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="11995"/>
            <PARTNO>Part III</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Department of Health and Human Services </AGENCY>
            <SUBAGY>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</SUBAGY>
            <HRULE/>
            <CFR>42 CFR Parts 488 and 489</CFR>
            <TITLE>Medicare Program; Strengthening Oversight of Accrediting Organizations (AOs) and Preventing AO Conflict of Interest, and Related Provisions; Proposed Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <PRORULES>
            <PRORULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="11996"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                    <SUBAGY>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</SUBAGY>
                    <CFR>42 CFR Parts 488 and 489</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[CMS-3367-P]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 0938-AU88</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Medicare Program; Strengthening Oversight of Accrediting Organizations (AOs) and Preventing AO Conflict of Interest, and Related Provisions</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS), HHS.</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>This proposed rule would set forth a number of provisions to strengthen the oversight of accrediting organizations (AOs) by addressing conflicts of interest, establishing consistent standards, processes and definitions, and updating the validation and performance standards systems. Additionally, this proposed rule would revise the psychiatric hospital survey process, add a limitation on terminated deemed providers and suppliers when reentering the program, and provides technical corrections for End-Stage Renal Disease facilities and Kidney Transplant Programs. This proposed rule also solicits comments from stakeholders and AOs to refine and revise the AO oversight standards and processes. In addition, this proposed rule includes a request for information on the timeframes and expectations for the submission of AO applications.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>To be assured consideration, comments must be received at one of the addresses provided below, no later than 5 p.m. on April 15, 2024.</P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <ADD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                        <P>In commenting, refer to file code CMS-3367-P.</P>
                        <P>Comments, including mass comment submissions, must be submitted in one of the following three ways (please choose only one of the ways listed):</P>
                        <P>
                            1. 
                            <E T="03">Electronically.</E>
                             You may submit electronic comments on this regulation to 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                             Follow the “Submit a comment” instructions.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            2. 
                            <E T="03">By regular mail.</E>
                             You may mail written comments to the following address ONLY: Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, Department of Health and Human Services, Attention: CMS-3367-P, P.O. Box 8010, Baltimore, MD 21244-8010.
                        </P>
                        <P>Please allow sufficient time for mailed comments to be received before the close of the comment period.</P>
                        <P>
                            3. 
                            <E T="03">By express or overnight mail.</E>
                             You may send written comments to the following address ONLY: Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, Department of Health and Human Services, Attention: CMS-3367-P, Mail Stop C4-26-05, 7500 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21244-1850.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            For information on viewing public comments, see the beginning of the 
                            <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                             section.
                        </P>
                    </ADD>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>Caroline Gallaher, (410) 786-8705 or Beth Chalick-Kaplan, (410) 786-6550.</P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Inspection of Public Comments:</E>
                         All comments received before the close of the comment period are available for viewing by the public, including any personally identifiable or confidential business information that is included in a comment. We post all comments received before the close of the comment period on the following website as soon as possible after they have been received: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the search instructions on that website to view public comments. CMS will not post on 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                         public comments that make threats to individuals or institutions or suggest that the commenter will take actions to harm an individual. CMS continues to encourage individuals not to submit duplicative comments. We will post acceptable comments from multiple unique commenters even if the content is identical or nearly identical to other comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Plain Language Summary:</E>
                         In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4), a plain language summary of this rule may be found at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Severability of Provisions</HD>
                    <P>To the extent a court may enjoin any part of the rule as finalized, the Department intends that other provisions or parts of provisions should remain in effect. Any provision of the rule as finalized held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, shall be construed so as to continue to give maximum effect to the provision permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event the provision shall be severable from this section and shall not affect the remainder thereof or the application of the provision to persons not similarly situated or to dissimilar circumstances.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents </HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Executive Summary</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Purpose</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Summary of the Major Provisions</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Background</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Legislative History</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Regulatory Overview of CMS's Rules Regarding AO Programs</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Congressional Report on the Oversight of National AOs and CMS Approved Accreditation Programs</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. CMS Validation Survey Pilot</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Overview of Transparency and Oversight of Accrediting Organizations</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Prior Rulemaking—Accrediting Organizations Conflict of Interest Request for Information (RFI)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. Conflict of Interest—The AO Owner's, Surveyor's and Other Employee's Interest in or Relationship With a Health Care Facility That the AO Accredits</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Request for Public Comment on Whether It Is a Conflict of Interest for AO Board Members or Advisors To Have an Interest in or Relationship With a Health Care Facility That the AO Accredits</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Provisions of the Proposed Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Proposal To Add Definition of “Unannounced Surveys” to § 488.1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Conflict of Interest</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Proposal To Require the AOs That Accredit Medicare-Certified Providers and Suppliers To Use the Medicare Conditions; and Strengthened Survey Process Comparability (Proposed § 488.4(a)(1) and (2))</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Proposal To Revise the AO Crosswalk Requirements at § 488.5(a)(3)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Proposal To Strengthen the Comparability of the Survey Process Between the AOs and the States</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Proposal To Revise the AO Application Documentation Requirements Related to the Survey Processes (§ 488.5(a)(4); § 488.5(a)(4)(iii); § 488.5(a)(4)(v); § 488.5(a)(4)(vii); § 488.5(a)(4)(xi); § 488.5(a)(5); § 488.5(a)(6); § 488.5(a)(12); § 488.5(a)(13))</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. Proposal To Require AOs To Provide CMS With Survey Findings (§ 488.5(a)(4)(viii))</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">H. Proposal To Require That AO Surveyors Must Take the CMS Online Surveyor Basic Training</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">(§ 488.5(a)(8)(ii)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">I. Proposal To Establish Criteria for “National in Scope” to § 488.1</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">J. Proposal To Revise the Definition of “Rate of Disparity” and To Use the Process and Outcome Disparity Rates as Performance Measures (§ 488.1)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">K. Proposal To Require AOs To Submit a Publicly Reportable Plan of Correction for Unacceptable Performance Measure Scores (§ 488.8(a)(2))</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">L. Proposal To Revise the AO Survey Validation Program (§ 489.9)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">M. Proposal To Revise the Psychiatric Hospital Survey Process</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">N. Limitation on Terminated Deemed Providers/Suppliers Seeking Re-Entry Into Medicare/Medicaid (§ 489.57, § 488.4(b) &amp; § 488.5(a)(21))</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">O. Proposal for Technical Correction for End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) Facilities and Kidney Transplant Programs (§ 488.4(a)(4))</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Request for Information Regarding Timeframes and Expectation for the Submission of AO Applications</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            VI. Collection of Information Requirements
                            <PRTPAGE P="11997"/>
                        </FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. ICR Related to Conflict of Interest Proposals</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. ICRs Associated With the Requirement That AOs Incorporate the Medicare Conditions</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. ICRs Associated With the Requirement That AOs Use Survey Processes That Are Comparable to That Used by CMS and the SAs</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. ICR Related to Requirement That the AO Surveyors Take the CMS Online Surveyor Training</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. ICR Associated With the Establishment of a Definition for “National in Scope”</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. ICR Associated With the Proposed Revision of the AO Performance Measures and To Require a Publically Reportable Plan of Correction</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. ICR Associated With the Revision of the Definition of “Disparity Rate</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">H. Burden Reduction Associated With the Revision of the AO Validation Program</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">I. ICR Associated With the Revision of the Psychiatric Hospital Accreditation Process</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">J. Burden Associated With Limitations to Terminated Deemed Providers Seeking Re-Enrollment and Certification in Medicare/Medicaid Programs</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">K. Summary of Estimated Burden</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VII. Response to Comments</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VIII. Regulatory Impact Analysis</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Statement of Need</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Overall Impact</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Detailed Economic Analysis</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Alternatives Considered</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. Federalism</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Regulations Text</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Executive Summary</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Purpose</HD>
                    <P>The Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS) seeks to protect the health and safety of patients that receive services from Medicare and Medicaid-participating providers that are accredited by CMS-approved accrediting organizations (AOs). We continue to review and revise our health and safety requirements and survey processes to ensure that they are effective in driving quality of care for beneficiaries receiving services from these accredited providers and suppliers.</P>
                    <P>
                        In 2015, we published a final rule in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         entitled, “Medicare and Medicaid Programs: Revisions to Deeming Authority Survey, Certification, and Enforcement Procedures” (80 FR 29795), hereinafter referred to as the “2015 AO final rule” to clarify and strengthen the oversight of AOs, specifically to provide additional criteria for AOs that apply for, and are granted, recognition and approval of an accreditation program (see section II “Background” of this proposed rule for additional background information). Over the past 5 years, CMS has continued to evaluate the effectiveness of these regulatory changes and the performance of AOs. This proposed rule proposes multiple provisions to further strengthen our oversight and enforcement capabilities of the AOs. The need for these provisions is based on multiple factors, which include: (1) direct observation and review of the AOs' accreditation programs for those AOs with CMS-approved deeming programs; (2) media reports and complaints against facilities that are deemed; (3) the CMS validation program and analysis of disparity rates between state survey agency (SAs) and the AOs; and (4) our performance evaluations of AOs. The preamble discusses each of the proposed provisions (see section IV “Provisions of the Proposed Rule”) in this proposed rule. More specifically, the preamble provides background and analysis of why CMS is proposing additional provisions and revisions to existing requirements. CMS is responsible for the oversight of the national AOs' Medicare accreditation programs, and for ensuring that providers or suppliers under CMS-approved deeming programs by the AOs meet the minimum quality and patient safety standards required by the Medicare conditions (refer to section II of this proposed rule for additional information). Based on several years' experience and data analysis, we are proposing the following provisions as described in the preamble to strengthen our oversight of AOs.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Summary of the Major Provisions</HD>
                    <P>• We propose at § 488.1 to add the definitions of “geographic regions”, “national in scope,” “outcome disparity rate,” “process disparity rate,” and “unannounced survey”. In addition, we propose to revise the definition of “national accrediting organization,” and remove the definition of “rate of disparity.”</P>
                    <P>• We propose to establish a new requirement at § 488.4(a)(1) that would require the AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers to incorporate the language of the applicable Medicare Conditions of Participation (CoPs), Conditions for Coverage (CfCs), conditions for certification, or requirements (collectively referred to as “Medicare conditions”) set forth in the applicable CMS regulations for each provider and supplier type as their minimum accreditation requirements. However, the AOs would be free to establish additional accreditation requirements that exceed Medicare conditions, as permitted by section 1865(a)(1) of the Social Security Act (the Act).</P>
                    <P>• We propose to add language at § 488.4(a)(2) regarding use of a comparable survey process approved by CMS, as outlined and contemplated in § 488.5.</P>
                    <P>• We propose to add a new regulation at § 488.4(b) that would state that if Medicare terminates the participation agreement of a Medicare-certified provider or supplier, then CMS would no longer recognize the facility's AO accreditation for deemed compliance. At proposed § 488.4(b)(2), we would require a terminated provider or supplier to meet all requirements set forth at § 489.57 before their new agreement for participation in the Medicare/Medicaid program can be approved.</P>
                    <P>• We propose to require AOs to develop a crosswalk between their accreditation standards and the Medicare conditions, at proposed § 488.5(a)(3).</P>
                    <P>• We propose to revise the existing language at § 488.4(a)(4) to strengthen our process of evaluating the comparability of survey processes of AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers with the SAs' survey processes.</P>
                    <P>• We propose to strengthen the requirements at § 488.5(a)(4), § 488.5(a)(4)(iii), § 488.5(a)(4)(v), § 488.5(a)(4)(vii), § 488.5(a)(4)(xi), § 488.5(a)(5) and § 488.5(a)(6) related to the comparability of survey processes as mentioned above. We also propose changes under § 488.5(a)(5)(viii) related to survey reports. These strengthened requirements would be applicable to their initial and renewal applications provided to CMS one year after the effective date of the rule.</P>
                    <P>• We propose at § 488.5(a)(8)(i) through § 488.5(a)(8)(iv) to require AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers have their surveyors complete the CMS online surveyor training.</P>
                    <P>• We propose to add a requirement at § 488.5(a)(10) that the AOs must provide, as part of their initial and renewal applications, specific policies and procedures that would address how the AOs prevent and address conflicts of interest. We propose that AOs provide information on a number of specific policies and procedures.</P>
                    <P>• We propose to also revise requirements under § 488.5(a)(12) related to the AO procedures for investigating and responding to complaints against accredited facilities.</P>
                    <P>
                        • We propose revisions to § 488.5(a)(13) related to the AO's accreditation status decision-making 
                        <PRTPAGE P="11998"/>
                        process, in order to strengthen the comparability of the survey processes.
                    </P>
                    <P>• We propose to add a new requirement at § 488.5(a)(21) that would require the AOs to submit a statement with its initial or renewal application certifying that, in response to a written notice from CMS notifying the AO that one of its accredited providers or suppliers has been involuntarily terminated from the Medicare/Medicaid program, the AO agrees to terminate or revoke its accreditation of the terminated provider or supplier within 5-business days from receipt of said written notice.</P>
                    <P>• We propose at § 488.5(a)(22) to require the AOs to submit a declaration from each surveyor disclosing any interests or relationships the surveyor may have in or with another survey agency or health care facility the AO accredits (as defined in § 488.5(a)(10)).</P>
                    <P>• We propose at § 488.8(a)(2) to expand the types of validation activities included in the performance review.</P>
                    <P>• We propose at § 488.8(a)(4) to require AOs to submit a plan of correction that would be subject to a public reporting requirement, when the AO's performance on survey activities identify disparity concerns, either through the outcome disparity rates or process disparity rates.</P>
                    <P>• We propose at new subsection § 488.8(i) to place restrictions on the fee-based consulting services provided by AOs to the health care providers and suppliers they accredit. At § 488.8(i)(1), we propose that an accrediting organization or its associated fee-based consulting division or company may not provide fee-based consulting services to any health care provider or supplier prior to an initial accreditation survey. At § 488.5(i)(2), we propose to prohibit AOs from providing fee-based consulting services to health care providers and suppliers they accredit within 12 months prior to the next scheduled re-accreditation survey of that provider or supplier. At § 488.5(i)(3), we propose that AOs may not provide fee-based consulting services to a health care provider or supplier in response to a complaint received by the AO regarding that provider or supplier.</P>
                    <P>• At § 488.8(i)(4), we set forth circumstances in which the restrictions to the provision of AO fee-based consulting services would not apply.</P>
                    <P>• We propose at § 488.8(i)(5) to require AOs to provide specific information to CMS on a bi-annual basis about the fee-based consulting services they provide.</P>
                    <P>• We propose at § 488.8(i)(6) to impose penalties on AOs for the provision of prohibited fee-based consulting services.</P>
                    <P>• We propose at § 488.8(k) that when an AO owner, surveyor, or other employee, currently or within the previous 2 years, has an interest in or relationship with a health care facility that the AO accredits, the AO would be required to take steps to prevent the surveyor from having any involvement with the survey of that facility, having input into the results of the survey and accreditation for that facility; having involvement with the pre and post survey activities for that facility; or having contact with or access to the records for the survey of that health care facility.</P>
                    <P>• We propose at § 488.9(b) to revise the types of validation programs by adding a new type of validation survey to be conducted by SA or CMS surveyors.</P>
                    <P>• We propose a new paragraph (z) at § 489.20 to require as a basic commitment of the provider if they are terminated and then seek a new provider agreement, they would follow the terms of proposed new § 489.57(b) noted below.</P>
                    <P>• We propose to add a new paragraph (b) at § 489.57, to require that Medicare-certified providers or suppliers that have been involuntarily terminated from the Medicare and/or Medicaid program must meet several requirements before their new agreement for Medicare participation will be approved. Proposed § 489.57(b)(1) would require the terminated provider or supplier to be under the oversight of the SA for a reasonable assurance period for a length of time to be determined by CMS for the purpose of demonstrating compliance with the Medicare conditions. Proposed § 489.57(b)(2) would require the provider or supplier to remain under the exclusive oversight of the SA until the SA has certified and/or CMS has determined its full compliance with all Medicare conditions and the new agreement for participation in the Medicare/Medicaid program has been approved. Proposed § 489.57(b)(3) would require that during the time period in which a provider or supplier is terminated from the Medicare program, is under the oversight of the SA, and during the time the new agreement for Medicare participation is pending, CMS will not accept or recognize deeming accreditation from a CMS-approved accrediting organization.</P>
                    <P>• We also propose to remove the reference at § 488.4(a)(4) that currently excludes ESRD facilities from the opportunity for accreditation, to reflect a change included in the Bipartisan Budget Act of 2018 (Pub. L. 115-123). Consistent with this same provision, we also propose to remove the reference restricting transplant programs from an accreditation option.</P>
                    <P>• We are soliciting comments on whether CMS should limit the number of times an AO can submit an incomplete initial application for a new accreditation program. We seek comment on this question because we recently received several incomplete applications which required multiple pass backs due to the applicant's failure to provide information about issues, such as their financial viability, survey processes which appeared not to be operationalized, or similar concerns.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Legislative History</HD>
                    <P>To participate in the Medicare program, providers and suppliers of health care services must, among other things, be in substantial compliance with the applicable statutory requirements of the Social Security Act (the Act), as well as CMS' regulatory requirements related to the health and safety of patients. These health and safety requirements are generally called Conditions of Participation (CoPs) for most providers; Requirements for Participation for skilled nursing facilities (SNFs) and Medicaid Nursing Facilities (NFs) (collectively, long-term care facilities); and Conditions for Coverage or Conditions for Certification (CfCs) for Ambulatory Surgical Centers (ASCs), Rural Health Clinics (RHCs), Federally Qualified Health Centers (FQHCs), dialysis facilities (or End-Stage Renal Disease [ESRD] facilities), and some types of suppliers (collectively referred herein as Medicare conditions). A Medicare-certified provider or supplier that does not comply with the Medicare conditions risks having its Medicare provider or supplier agreement terminated. Medicaid service providers or suppliers that are required by CMS or the State to have Medicare approval would also be affected.</P>
                    <P>
                        In accordance with section 1864 of the Act, the SAs or other appropriate local agencies, under an agreement with the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services (the Secretary), perform surveys of health care providers and suppliers to assess their compliance with the applicable Medicare conditions for the purpose of certification for participation in the Medicare/Medicaid program. There are several types of surveys conducted, including initial certification, recertification, and complaint surveys. The SAs and CMS also perform surveys 
                        <PRTPAGE P="11999"/>
                        in certain circumstances for the providers and suppliers that are accredited by an AO and deemed to meet Medicare requirements. For example, the SA performs complaint surveys for health care providers that are accredited by an AO, if the complaint was received by the SA directly. The SA also performs surveys of AO-accredited health care providers that have had their participation in the Medicare program terminated, that wish to be surveyed by the SA instead of an AO, and for the purpose of validation of the results of an AO's surveys. Rules, regulations, and guidance for the certification process performed by the Sas are discussed in the CMS State Operations Manual (SOM) 
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         or communicated via Quality, Safety &amp; Oversight (QSO) policy memorandums.
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             CMS Internet Only Manual, Pub. 100-07, available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/Regulations-and-Guidance/Guidance/Manuals/Internet-Only-Manuals-IOMs-Items/CMS1201984.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/Medicare/Provider-Enrollment-and-Certification/SurveyCertificationGenInfo/Policy-and-Memos-to-States-and-Regions.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Some provider types may only be surveyed by the SA and cannot use AOs while others cannot be surveyed by SAs pursuant to statute but can only be accredited by a CMS-approved AO. We refer readers to section IV, “Provisions of this Proposed Rule” for additional information. Based on the SA's certification of a provider's compliance or noncompliance and recommendation, CMS determines whether the provider or supplier qualifies, or continues to qualify, for participation in the Medicare program. Additionally, section 1865(a) of the Act allows most health care facilities to demonstrate their compliance with the Medicare conditions through accreditation by a CMS-approved program of an AO, in lieu of being surveyed by SAs for certification. This is referred to as “deeming” accreditation. This is because CMS-approved AOs are recognized by the Secretary as having accreditation programs with accreditation standards that meet or exceed those of Medicare. Therefore, any provider or supplier that is accredited by an AO under a CMS approved accreditation program is deemed by CMS to have also complied with the applicable Medicare conditions or requirements. The AOs perform initial, re-accreditation, follow-up, and certain complaint surveys.</P>
                    <P>In December, 2020, Division CC, section 407 of the Consolidated Appropriations Act of 2021 (CAA 2021), amended Part A of Title XVIII of Act to add a new section 1822 to the Act, and amended sections 1864(a) and 1865(b) of the Act, establishing new hospice program survey and enforcement requirements. CMS issued implementing regulations for SAs and AOs in the CY 2022 Home Health Prospective Payment System Rate Update (HH PPS) final rule (86 FR 62240). The HH PPS rule finalized changes to increase and improve transparency, oversight, and enforcement for hospice programs under SA and AO oversight. Additionally, the HH PPS final rule in part requires hospice programs to measure and reduce inconsistency in the application of survey results among all surveyors. The HH PPS final rule requires: (1) AOs with CMS-approved hospice programs to use the same survey deficiency reports as the SAs (Form CMS-2567, “Statement of Deficiencies” or a successor form) to report survey findings; (2) comprehensive training and testing of SA and AO hospice program surveyors; and (3) prohibits SA and AO surveyors from surveying hospice programs for which they have worked in the last 2 years from which they would have a perceived or actual conflict of interest.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">CMS is responsible for:</E>
                         (1) providing ongoing oversight of the AOs' accreditation programs to ensure that providers or suppliers accredited by the AOs meet the required Medicare conditions; (2) ensuring that the AOs have formalized procedures to determine whether the health care facilities deemed under their accreditation programs meet the AO's accreditation standards (which must meet or exceed the applicable Medicare program requirements); and (3) ensuring that the AO's accreditation standards and practices for surveying providers and suppliers meet or exceed the Medicare conditions and practices for granting approval.
                    </P>
                    <P>For some provider and supplier types, accreditation is voluntary and seeking deemed status through an accreditation organization is an option, not a requirement for these Medicare-certified providers and suppliers. A provider or supplier has the choice to seek deeming status and accreditation from an AO with a CMS-approved program or certification through the SA survey process. A nationally-recognized AO may have accreditation services which are not specifically related to Medicare-participation or Medicare conditions and an AO may offer accreditation services to a provider or supplier which Medicare does not recognize for deeming status, such as long-term care facilities. The AO may also provide accreditation with a deeming option, which is that their deemed program is recognized and approved by CMS to meet or exceed the Medicare program requirements. We refer readers to section IV.C “Proposal to Require the AOs that Accredit Medicare-Certified Providers and Suppliers to Use Medicare Conditions; and Strengthened Survey Process Comparability” of this proposed rule for additional context.</P>
                    <P>AOs typically charge health care facilities a fee for the accreditation services they provide. AOs generally offer at least two accreditation options, which include non-CMS approved accreditation, and accreditation for the purpose of participating in the Medicare program. By “non-CMS approved accreditation” we mean accreditation that is offered by the AOs with an accreditation program that is not approved by Medicare and which is not used for Medicare purposes. Such accreditation could be used for individual State accreditation purposes or additional professional accreditations that a provider or supplier seeks for business purposes, such as the Joint Commission's (TJC's) Nursing Care Center accreditation for skilled nursing facilities, which is not recognized by CMS as an option for deemed status.</P>
                    <P>This proposed rule would apply only to the AOs with CMS-approved programs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers and those entities they accredit. The provisions of this proposed rule would not apply to the following parties: (1) health care providers and suppliers that are not accredited by AOs, such as but not limited to, nursing homes and comprehensive outpatient rehabilitation facilities (CORFs); (2) health care providers and suppliers that are certified by the SAs, such as those who elect not to be deemed through an AO; (3) AOs that accredit non-certified suppliers; (4) non-certified suppliers; and (5) AOs that accredit laboratories (under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA)).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Regulatory Overview of CMS's Rules Regarding AO Programs</HD>
                    <P>The current regulations at 42 CFR 488.4 set forth the general provisions for CMS approved accreditation programs for Medicare-certified providers and suppliers. Section 488.5 sets out application and re-application procedures for national AOs that seek to obtain CMS approval of their accreditation programs, often called “deeming authority.”</P>
                    <P>
                        The AO application and re-application procedures set forth at § 488.5 for Medicare-certified providers and suppliers task CMS with the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12000"/>
                        responsibilities of approval and oversight of the AOs' accreditation programs while ensuring that the accredited providers and suppliers meet or exceed the Medicare conditions.
                    </P>
                    <P>CMS conducts a thorough review of each accreditation program application that is submitted by an AO for CMS approval. This review establishes the “comparability” of the AOs accreditation standards with Medicare, to determine whether the AO's standards meet or exceed the Medicare conditions. The application review process also includes a review of the AO's survey processes and procedures, the AO's surveyor training, and their policies and procedures for the oversight and enforcement of provider or supplier entities they accredit. The application review team also reviews the qualifications of the AO surveyor staff. In addition, CMS reviews the AO's financial status, to determine their solvency and potential for longevity of operations.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 488.5(e)(1) requires that we publish a notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         when we receive a complete initial or renewal application from a national AO seeking CMS approval of its accreditation program. The 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice identifies the organization and the type of providers or suppliers to be covered by the accreditation program and provides a 30-day public comment period. CMS has 210 days from the receipt of a complete application to publish notice of approval or denial of the application. Upon approval, any provider or supplier subsequently accredited by the AO's approved program would be deemed by CMS to have met the applicable Medicare conditions and would be referred to as having “deemed status.”
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Congressional Report on the Oversight of National AOs and CMS Approved Accreditation Programs</HD>
                    <P>
                        We are required by section 1875(b) of the Act to submit an annual Report to Congress 
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         on CMS' oversight of national AOs and their CMS-approved accreditation programs. This report contains information related to the AOs' activities in a fiscal year (FY) and provides a comparison of these activities to the activities of previous years. Within this report, we also measure the “disparity rate,” which is a comparison rate based on AO findings of non-compliance during an accreditation survey and the SA findings of non-compliance for the same facilities found during a look-back validation survey.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             The most recent Report to Congress may be accessed at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/files/document/qso-22-06-ao-clia.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>There are three levels of adverse findings on a SA survey, which include immediate jeopardy (IJ), condition-level and standard-level deficiencies. Sections 488.1 and 489.3 define immediate jeopardy as a situation in which the provider's or supplier's non-compliance with one or more of Medicare requirements, conditions of participation, conditions of coverage or certification “has caused or is likely to cause, serious injury, harm, impairment, or death to a resident or patient.” When investigating a potential immediate jeopardy situation, surveyors must find that there is non-compliance by the provider or supplier, that serious harm has occurred or is likely to occur, and that immediate action needs to be taken by the provider/supplier. (See Appendix Q of the SOM for additional guidance.) A condition-level deficiency means that for that particular Medicare condition of participation, also known as a CoP, the facility's noncompliance is such that it substantially limits the provider or supplier's capacity to furnish adequate care or which adversely affects the health and safety of patients (§ 488.24). There can be noncompliance with a Medicare condition at a regulatory standard level that does not rise to the level of noncompliance with the condition. For example, a hospital may fail to have written policies and procedures regarding the evacuation of patients during an emergency (as required at § 482.15(b)(3)) but complies with the remaining standards set forth at § 482.15 (a) through (f) such as having policies and procedures for alternate source power, provisions, tracking of patients and staff and has a communication plan and training and testing program. In this situation, the hospital generally would not be cited at a condition-level deficiency for the entire Emergency Preparedness Medicare condition (at § 482.15). The manner and degree of the noncompliance is considered to determine whether there is substantial compliance or not. A standard-level deficiency means that the provider may be out of compliance with one or more aspects of a regulatory condition or requirement, but is considered less severe than a condition-level deficiency. A condition-level deficiency, however, is considered more serious in nature and could lead to a facility being terminated from the Medicare and Medicaid programs for non-compliance. Immediate jeopardy citations are condition-level deficiencies that pose immediate jeopardy to patient health and safety.</P>
                    <P>On a validation survey, when the SA cites a condition-level deficiency for which the AO has not cited a comparable deficiency, the deficiency is considered by CMS to have been missed by the AO and is a factor in determining the AO's “disparity rate” for each facility type. The identification of one missed condition-level deficiency by the AO results in the entire survey being counted toward the disparity rate. The number of disparate surveys is divided by the total number of validation surveys performed with respect to that AO by various States' SAs, in order to determine the AO's disparity rate.</P>
                    <P>
                        According to the most recent report, the FY 2020 Report to Congress,
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         disparity rates for all CMS approved AO programs for the following facility types for the most recent year in the report (FY 2019) are: Hospitals (42 percent); Psychiatric hospitals (45 percent); Critical Access Hospitals (46 percent); Home Health Agencies (8 percent); Hospices (19 percent) and Ambulatory Surgical Centers (34 percent). From FY 2018 to FY 2019, hospitals, HHAs and ASCs had the only decreases in disparity rates, with a decrease of 5-percentage points, 11-percentage points, and 7-percentage points, respectively. The disparity rates for psychiatric hospitals increased by seven percentage points from FY 2018 to FY 2019. The disparity rates for CAHs and hospices increased by five percentage points and three percentage points respectively from FY 2018 to FY 2019. The findings and other information are consistent with previous reports, and no notable changes were observed in the FY 2020 RTC covering the FY 2019 period of activities.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/Medicare/Provider-Enrollment-and-Certification/SurveyCertificationGenInfo/Downloads/QSO-19-17-AO-CLIA.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. CMS Validation Survey Pilot</HD>
                    <P>
                        As part of our ongoing efforts to enhance transparency and our oversight of the AOs, in 2018, CMS began a pilot for integrated validation surveys for accredited hospitals, known as the Validation Redesign Program (VRP) pilot. In a VRP pilot survey, the SA teams accompany the AO survey teams on a reaccreditation survey for an accredited facility for the purpose of evaluating the AO surveyors' competency at performing surveys and overall effectiveness during the survey process. The initial findings of the VRP pilot will be discussed further later in this preamble at sections IV.J and IV.L.3. CMS plans to continue to refine the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12001"/>
                        validation process over the next several years in an effort to enhance AO oversight, and verify that providers/suppliers under deemed status are in compliance with the Medicare conditions, and focus surveys on key quality concerns while reducing provider burden.
                    </P>
                    <P>A national AO seeking approval of its accreditation programs in accordance with section 1865(a) of the Act must apply for and be approved by CMS for a period not to exceed 6 years. (See § 488.5(e)(2)(i)). An AO must submit a renewal application seeking re-approval of its accreditation program(s) before the expiration date of its current CMS approval. Review of the AO's renewal application in a timely manner allows CMS to ensure that there would not be a lapse in accreditation for the providers and suppliers accredited by the AO. Requiring the AO to submit a renewal application periodically allows CMS to ensure that the accreditation provided by the AO continues to ensure that the providers or suppliers accredited by that AO meet or exceed the Medicare conditions.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Overview of Transparency and Oversight of Accrediting Organizations</HD>
                    <P>
                        In September 2017, an article in the Wall Street Journal 
                        <SU>5</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         raised concerns regarding the performance and transparency of AO surveys, and noted potential conflicts of interest between an AO's accreditation services and its consulting services. As a result of this article, CMS initiated an investigation into these allegations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             The Wall Street Journal, “Watchdog Awards Hospitals Seal of Approval Even After Problems Emerge” Stephanie Armour (September 8, 2017) 
                            <E T="03">https://www.wsj.com/articles/watchdog-awards-hospitals-seal-of-approval-even-after-problems-emerge-1504889146.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Prior Rulemaking—Accrediting Organizations Conflict of Interest Request for Information (RFI)</HD>
                    <P>CMS is aware, from the information submitted with their applications, that some AOs with CMS-approved accreditation programs are also providing fee-based consultative services to Medicare-participating health care facilities. Our understanding is that typical AO fee-based consultative services include, but are not limited to the following:</P>
                    <P>• Assistance for clinical and non-clinical leaders (including administrators) in understanding the AO and Medicare conditions for compliance;</P>
                    <P>• Review of facility standards and promised early intervention and action through simulation of a real survey, such as a mock survey with comprehensive written reports of findings;</P>
                    <P>• Review of a facility's processes, policies and functions;</P>
                    <P>• Identification of and technical assistance for changing and sustaining areas in need of improvement; and,</P>
                    <P>• Educational consultative services.</P>
                    <P>CMS acknowledges that independent fee-based consulting is a valuable resource that can help providers and suppliers improve the quality and safety of the care they provide. This does not mean that the providers or suppliers who elect not to receive fee-based consulting from an AO that offers it, or that providers or suppliers that are accredited by an AO that does not offer this service would not provide safe, quality care.</P>
                    <P>There are many third-party consultants that offer fee-based consulting across all provider and supplier types. The availability of third-party fee-based consultants give providers and suppliers access to this educational service, if their AO does not provide fee-based consulting. If a provider's/supplier's AO already offers fee-based consulting, third-party consultants can offer such providers and suppliers, with an alternative, allowing providers and suppliers to compare the effectiveness and quality of consultants to address their needs within their cost limitations. The provider or supplier may also be able to negotiate a price for educational services provided by a third-party consultant, while this may not be an option with the AOs that offer fee-based consulting. It is important to note there would be no conflict of interest associated with the use of third-party fee-based consultants because these consultants do not also make compliance determinations about the provider or supplier.</P>
                    <P>Fee-based consulting services are not prohibited by law or regulation. However, CMS is concerned that an AO's provision of such fee-based consulting results in perceived or actual conflicts of interests because of the contractual and financial relationship that exists between the health care provider and the AO, which is a private entity that profits from the performance of the inherently governmental function of regulating health care providers through accreditation.</P>
                    <P>
                        Because of this, on December 20, 2018, we published a Request for Information (RFI) in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         entitled, “Medicare Program: Accrediting Organizations Conflict of Interest and Consulting Services; Request for Information” (83 FR 65331) hereinafter referred to as “2018 AO Conflict of Interest RFI”, in response to increasing concern about potential conflicts of interest created by the accreditation and consultative activities of the AOs. Specifically, we solicited public comments to determine whether offering consultative services to the same entities an AO accredits may create actual or perceived conflicts of interest between an AO's accreditation program and its consultative program. We stated that this dual function may undermine, or appear to undermine, the integrity of the accreditation programs and could erode public trust in the safety of providers and suppliers that have been accredited by CMS-approved AOs. We further acknowledged that certain consulting services offered by some of the AOs, such as quality improvement work and training of facility staff, may be beneficial to some facilities and result in improvements in operations or the quality of care furnished and may be provided with the best of intentions. We stated that circumstances could arise where an AO has recommended a facility for deemed status through their accreditation service, while the consultancy service of the AO was generating revenue assisting the same facility in passing the AO's own accreditation surveys. Some AOs have indicated that they establish firewalls between the arms of their businesses, but we stated that these firewalls may not be sufficient to ensure that no conflicts of interest result from these activities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We further stated that, similar to quality improvement organization (QIO) and external quality review organization (EQRO) programs, any AO with a Medicare-approved accreditation program has assumed a position of public trust and is responsible for acting on behalf of the public, because the AO is performing a function that assists in the federal government's enforcement programs. We also expressed our view that AOs voluntarily take on this position and responsibility when they seek accreditation approval from CMS to accredit providers and suppliers for participation in Medicare. Because of the responsibility to maintain public trust and public health, we continually ensure that all entities and programs, including AOs and their accreditation programs that require CMS approval, be held to high standards of ethical conduct so that everyone can have complete confidence in the integrity of federal government certification. We stated that the AOs' decisions to accredit facilities must be made without regard to any additional services that a Medicare provider or supplier might 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12002"/>
                        obtain through the AO or its subsidiaries. We stated that this policy would ensure and maintain public trust in the Medicare certification program.
                    </P>
                    <P>In the 2018 AO Conflict of Interest RFI, we solicited public comments to gather information for potential future rulemaking and to obtain insight on mechanisms to address this potential conflict of interest. We were specifically interested in ways to potentially modify § 488.5(a), which sets out the required information to be submitted with an AO's application. For example, § 488.5(a)(10) states that the application information from the AO include the organization's policies and procedures to avoid conflicts of interest, including the appearance of conflicts of interest, involving individuals who conduct surveys or participate in accreditation decisions.</P>
                    <P>We stated that potentially expanding § 488.5(a)(10) by adding provisions that would require the AOs to disclose information about any consultative services they offer to facilities could further enhance our oversight of AOs.</P>
                    <P>In addition, we solicited comments on the following issues:</P>
                    <P>• With respect to fee-based consultative services provided by AOs to the facilities they accredit—</P>
                    <P>++ How are these services provided and communicated to the facilities?</P>
                    <P>++ Are potential conflicts of interest disclosed?</P>
                    <P>• Are there other entities that could provide this training besides the AOs?</P>
                    <P>• Whether commenters perceive a conflict of interest in AOs providing fee-based consultative services to the facilities they accredit.</P>
                    <P>• Whether the ability of an AO to collect fees for consultation services from entities they accredit could degrade the public trust inherent in an AO's CMS approved accreditation programs.</P>
                    <P>• What the appropriate consequences or impacts should be, if a conflict does exist.</P>
                    <P>• What firewalls may exist within an AO between accreditation and consultation services, or what firewalls would be prudent, to avoid potential and actual conflicts of interest.</P>
                    <P>• Examples of positive and negative effects which may be as a result of a conflict of interest.</P>
                    <P>• What the potential impact, financially and overall would be if CMS were to finalize rulemaking which would restrict certain activities that might give rise to a real or perceived conflict of interest.</P>
                    <P>• When and/or under what circumstances it would be appropriate for AOs to provide fee-based consultative services to the facilities which they accredit.</P>
                    <P>• Whether, and if so, under what specific circumstances CMS should review a potential conflict of interest, and what factors CMS should look at to determine if a conflict of interest exists.</P>
                    <P>• A list describing under what circumstances the AOs or stakeholders would believe there to be a conflict; and under which circumstances conflict does not exist.</P>
                    <P>• The type of information which would be considered necessary, useful and/or appropriate in proving or refuting our hypothesis of a connection between the use of consultative services and preferential treatment of accredited providers and suppliers. (See 83 FR 65336.)</P>
                    <P>We received approximately 128 public comments in response to the 2018 AO Conflict of Interest RFI. Approximately half of the commenters, (consisting primarily of AOs and health care facilities that use consulting services) supported the use of AO consulting services and stated that there is no conflict of interest associated with fee-based consulting. The other half of commenters (consisting of individuals, provider associations, medical advocacy groups and one AO) stated that the provision of fee-based consulting by the AOs creates a conflict of interest.</P>
                    <P>Several commenters stated that the benefits derived from AO fee-based consulting far outweighs any potential or actual conflict of interest that may result. Many commenters believe that AO consulting services allow the facility to seek information and guidance that helps them understand, interpret and comply with the Medicare conditions and regulatory requirements. These commenters stated that use of the AO's fee-based consulting services helped to improve the safety and quality of the care provided by the health care facility.</P>
                    <P>
                        Many commenters stated that there are already-implemented checks and balances between CMS and the AOs that are sufficient to ensure that no conflicts of interest occur between the AOs and their accredited facilities. These commenters stated that the AOs have robust firewall policies and procedures in place to prevent conflicts of interest related to fee-based consulting. Many commenters also stated that CMS has a specific AO fee-based consulting firewall policy in place and that this policy is adequate to prevent any conflicts of interest. However, CMS does not currently have such a policy.
                        <SU>6</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             In section IV.B.6 of this rule, we propose to require any AO that provides fee-based consulting services or its associated fee-based consulting division or company to have written fee-based consulting “firewall” policies and procedures.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Several commenters stated that AOs are commissioned to ensure compliance with the Medicare conditions. These commenters stated that a big part of compliance is not only being punitive but informational/educational. One commenter suggested that AOs are in a unique position to provide this education and technical assistance because they understand the complexity of the Medicare conditions. One commenter stated that if AO fee-based consulting services were not provided, facilities could see additional deficiencies cited due to misinterpretation of requirements and multiple rounds of surveys, generating still more cost to the facility.</P>
                    <P>Several commenters stated that the financial benefit derived by the AOs from providing fee-based education is not significant. Some of these commenters also stated that the AOs gained no benefit from the success or results of accreditation whether they had assisted the provider to deliver better services or not.</P>
                    <P>One commenter stated that they were are not aware of other organizations who would be capable of educating and advising health care providers in a similar fashion as the AOs' consulting services. Several other commenters expressed concern about having fee-based consulting services provided by an independent third-party. These commenters stated that, while there are other entities beside the AOs, such as QIOs that could provide training, the focus would solely be on quality rather than the outcome of an accreditation.</P>
                    <P>Many commenters stated that the integrity of the accreditation process is of utmost concern for regulators, providers and patients alike and that AOs should position themselves to be above reproach in regard to overseeing patient care and quality of services that health care facilities provide, so as to retain the trust of patients and the public. Several commenters suggested that anything that may undermine the integrity of accreditation programs or the public trust in CMS accredited providers and suppliers be considered and addressed. One commenter stated that the ability of AOs to provide both survey services and consulting services is a conflict of interest, which results in a decreased level of trust among providers, Medicare, and the public.</P>
                    <P>
                        Many commenters expressed concern about the financial and contractual relationship that exists between AOs and the health care facilities they accredit. These commenters expressed 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12003"/>
                        concern that the existence of a financial relationship between AOs and health care providers casts a veil of doubt over the entire CMS hospital accreditation process, eroding the public trust in CMS to maintain the standard of care at our nation's hospitals and to ensure that Medicare patients are receiving safe, therapeutic care. One commenter stated the belief that the business connection between the provider and the AO creates a relationship that the AO could have an incentive to manipulate.
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition, several commenters expressed concern about the significant financial interest the AOs have in the provision of fee-based consulting. One commenter stated that since AOs are being paid by the health care facilities for both accreditation services as well as consulting services, it is obviously in their financial interest to keep the health care facilities accredited and not to create too much dissatisfaction to incite the organization to seek another AO. Several commenters expressed concern that this financial relationship might provide the incentive for the AOs to ignore or downplay deficiencies during the survey of a consultative client in order to increase the apparent efficacy of its consulting services. Or, perhaps more undetectably, an AO could exaggerate the deficiencies on surveys in order to increase the apparent value of the consulting services to providers. Because of the above-stated concerns, several commenters suggested that CMS prohibit the AOs from providing fee-based consulting to the health care providers and suppliers they accredit.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Conflict of Interest—The AO Owner's, Surveyor's and Other Employee's Interest in or Relationship With a Health Care Facility That the AO Accredits</HD>
                    <P>It is typical for an individual health care professional, such as a physician or nurse, to have concurrent employment relationships with more than one health care provider. Many health care professionals, such as physicians, physician assistants, and nurse practitioners have multi-setting practices or are employed at more than one health care facility. For example, a registered nurse (RN) may work on staff at a hospital but also work at other hospitals through a medical staffing agency. In addition, as employees of a health care facility, these health care professionals could possibly gain a financial interest in the health care facility through means such as being a contributor to the construction costs of a new wing of the facility or buying stock in the facility or its parent corporation. Management employees could be awarded stock or stock options for the facility or its parent corporation as part of their compensation and benefits package.</P>
                    <P>AOs frequently hire surveyors that are also employed at one or more outside health care settings because the professional associations, expertise, knowledge and skills held by these health care practitioners make them an asset as a surveyor. This might include, for example, a RN who is employed by a hospital and also works as a surveyor for an AO. This employment scenario does not generally violate CMS policy or regulations. Furthermore, an AO surveyor having other employment does not, in and of itself, necessarily create a conflict of interest. However, if the AO provides accreditation services to the health care facility that employs the AO surveyor, this would cause a conflict of interest if that surveyor is permitted to have any involvement in the survey process for that health care facility.</P>
                    <P>CMS has recently encountered two situations in which an AO's surveyor was also employed by the health care facility that was being accredited by the AO. In one of these situations, an AO surveyor was also employed in an administrative position at a rehabilitation facility that was being surveyed by the AO. This situation was not disclosed to CMS by the AO. Currently CMS has no specific regulations that would prohibit a conflict of interest related to an AO surveyor's relationship with a health care facility that the AO accredits, except for home health agencies and hospice programs.</P>
                    <P>Section 488.5(a)(10) of our regulations requires that an AO provide, with its application seeking CMS approval of its accreditation program, “the organization's policies and procedures to avoid conflicts of interest, including the appearance of conflicts of interest, involving individuals who conduct surveys or participate in accreditation decisions.” However, § 488.5(a)(10) does not provide requirements for specific types of information or requirements that should be contained in the AO's conflict of interest policy and procedures. This regulation does not specifically prohibit or define conflicts of interest and, based on the comments to the 2018 AO Conflict of Interest RFI, CMS proposes to revise this regulation to more specifically address situations that should be included in the AO's conflict of interest policy.</P>
                    <P>
                        As noted above, the SAs and AOs perform similar work. Section 4008 of the SOM describes examples of scenarios that would be conflicts of interest for SA surveyors who have an outside relationship with a facility that is surveyed by the SA.
                        <SU>7</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Currently, section 4008 of the SOM applies only to the SA surveyors and not AO surveyors.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/Regulations-and-Guidance/Guidance/Manuals/Downloads/som107c04pdf.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Scenarios in which an AO surveyor has a relationship with a health care facility that their AO accredits could represent a conflict of interest. As CMS has no specific regulations that would proactively address such conflicts of interest for AOs that accredit healthcare providers other than home health agencies and hospice programs, we propose to establish several requirements to help mitigate such conflicts of interest in section IV.B.7 of this proposed rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Request for Public Comment on Whether It Is a Conflict of Interest for AO Board Members or Advisors To Have an Interest in or Relationship With a Health Care Facility That the AO Accredits</HD>
                    <P>
                        As previously stated, it could be a conflict of interest when an AO surveyor is involved with the survey of a facility with which that surveyor has an employment, financial, business or other interest or relationship. We note that in most cases, the AO board members do have interests in or relationships with the health care facilities the AO accredits. In many cases, the board members of the AOs frequently hold upper management positions of a health care facility the AO accredits, such as chief executive officer (CEO), director, or President. In an article published in the Wall Street Journal on September 8, 2017,
                        <SU>8</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         it was stated that “[t]wenty of the Joint Commission's 32 board members are executives at health systems it accredits or else work at parent organizations of such health systems. Some other board members are named by healthcare lobbying groups, such as the American Hospital Association and the American Medical Association. This article compared this situation to “Big Pharma setting up its own accrediting organization” and stated that “if you look beneath the surface, there are conflicts and problems.”
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>8</SU>
                             S. Armour, Hospital Watchdog Gives Seal of Approval, Even After Problems Emerge, 
                            <E T="03">Wall Street Journal,</E>
                             September 8, 2017.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        We seek public comment as to whether it would be a conflict of interest for an AO board member, AO advisor, or CEO or other executive team members to also have a relationship with a health care organization accredited by such AO. An AO advisor 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12004"/>
                        would be an advisory committee member, advisor to the CEO, or an advisor to the board of directors. We refer readers to proposals related to an AO owner's, surveyor's, or other employee's interest in or relationship with a health care facility the AO accredits in section IV.B.7 of this proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Provisions of the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>We establish health and safety standards, known as the Conditions of Participation, Conditions for Coverage, or Requirements for Participation for different types of health care providers and suppliers, and these standards are based on specific statutory authorities for the different provider and supplier types. Pursuant to such authorities, each specific type of Medicare-certified provider and supplier must meet our health and safety standards. As part of the CMS certification process, compliance with these standards is evaluated by SAs under agreement at section 1864 of the Act, through the survey and certification process. However, CMS makes the final Medicare certification determination. In the alternative, we can deem these providers and suppliers to have met those standards if they are accredited by the CMS-approved AOs that are the subject of this proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>CMS is using the authority established by Congress under section 1865 of the Act to establish certain requirements for AOs in this proposed rule. Section 1865(a)(2) of the Act establishes a process for the Secretary to make a finding with respect to approval of an accrediting organization. In making this finding, the Secretary must consider, among other factors, the AO's requirements for accreditation, its survey procedures, its ability to provide adequate resources for conducting required surveys and supplying information for use in enforcement activities, its monitoring procedures for provider entities found out of compliance with the conditions or requirements, and its ability to provide the Secretary with necessary data for validation.</P>
                    <P>In addition, “Non-certified” suppliers are a statutory category for which CMS does not set health and safety standards, even though they must obtain accreditation in accordance with statute. Because we have not set health and safety standards for these facility types, we are not applying these provisions to non-certified supplier types at this time. These suppliers include (1) Advanced Diagnostic Imaging (ADI) suppliers; (2) home infusion therapy (HIT) suppliers; (3) diabetes self-management training (DSMT) suppliers; and (4) durable medical equipment prosthetics, orthotics supplies (DMEPOS). We are also not proposing to extend any of the provisions set forth in this proposed rule to AOs that accredit non-certified suppliers.</P>
                    <P>Non-certified suppliers are those suppliers that are required to be accredited by a CMS-approved AO for Medicare payment, do not enter into a Medicare agreement but are enrolled in the Medicare program, and do not receive a CMS certification number (CCN). These non-certified suppliers are a smaller, discrete group that are not under the jurisdiction of the SAs and do not undergo validation surveys. For example, there are no health and safety regulations for advanced diagnostic imaging (ADI) suppliers and only minimal such standards for DMST suppliers. Also, many ADI suppliers are physician's practices that provide an ADI service, such as computerized tomography (CT) scans in their office. CMS has not yet developed a survey process and health and safety requirements for these supplier types, however we reserve the right to do so in the future. CMS does a review of the applications for AOs that accredit non-certified programs. The provisions proposed in this rule would not align to these programs at this time.</P>
                    <P>As stated in section I “Executive Summary” and section II “Background” of this proposed rule, since issuing the 2015 AO final rule, there are several provisions related to oversight of AOs that require strengthening. Throughout the last several years, we have worked closely with the AOs, provided guidance and instituted an AO Liaison program in which CMS meets with each AO at least on a quarterly basis. These meetings and discussions have provided an avenue for CMS to also receive feedback on existing Medicare conditions, our interpretive guidelines and allowed for an opportunity for CMS to clarify expectations for the AOs. This experience has helped us to identify areas of our regulations in need of revision to more clearly articulate the requirements for all AOs with a CMS-approved accreditation program. Furthermore, as we have taken actions to exercise more oversight of existing CMS-approved AO programs, we have become aware of the need to clarify, reorganize, and amend our regulations to support a more efficient and effective oversight process.</P>
                    <P>The below proposal outlines the background behind each proposal and what led to CMS' development of this proposed rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Proposal To Add Definition of “Unannounced Survey” to § 488.1</HD>
                    <P>We propose to add a new definition of “unannounced survey” to § 488.1. The definition of “unannounced survey” would be consistent with the definition of “unannounced” contained in the Merriam-Webster dictionary, which is “without previous notice or arrangement and therefore unexpected.” Adding this definition of “unannounced survey” would support the existing requirements set out at § 488.5(a)(4)(i) and in our sub-regulatory guidance. This proposal clarifies and codifies existing requirements under § 488.5(a)(4)(i), which requires that surveys must be unannounced, which means that the facility must be unaware of the survey until the time that the survey team arrives, and that the provider or supplier would not receive notice of the survey until the survey team arrives at the facility. Our long standing policy behind the term “unannounced survey” has been within section 2700A, chapter 2 of the SOM, outlining the expectation that all surveys of providers and suppliers (other than clinical laboratories) must be unannounced to the provider or supplier being surveyed. This means that the provider or supplier to be surveyed would not receive notice of the survey until the survey team arrived at the facility for the survey, as is also currently the AO's process for complaint surveys. The proposed definition for “unannounced survey” would also state that unannounced surveys must be scheduled by the AO in a manner so that their timing and occurance will not be predictable to the healthcare facility being surveyed.</P>
                    <P>
                        One of the primary reasons surveys conducted by either the SA or the AO are required to be unannounced is to prevent the provider or supplier from making unusual preparations for the survey that would not represent the ongoing typical condition of the provider and true nature and quality of care provided. Examples of these activities would include unusual cleaning activities, painting, clearing obstructions from halls and entrances, denying leave to staff during that time or calling staff back to inflate staffing availability, and re-reviewing medical records outside of what is normally done. If a provider or supplier knows the exact time a surveyor will be onsite, it may temporarily adjust its typical practices such as staffing, which would provide an unrepresentative picture to surveyors of the quality of care typically provided to patients or residents. A notice to facility leadership via 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12005"/>
                        organizational websites, emails, or phone calls prior to surveyors arriving onsite is considered a violation with CMS regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In 2009, CMS clarified this expectation in the Survey &amp; Certification Policy Memorandum 09-41,
                        <SU>9</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         to advise that announcing of surveys was in conflict with CMS regulations. In the effort to align AO survey processes with CMS survey processes (which are followed by the SA surveyors), as outlined in section IV.C of this proposed rule, additional clarity regarding this prohibition is needed. Defining the term “unannounced survey” within the regulation as opposed to our SOM (subregulatory guidance) would provide clarity regarding our expectations, and would mirror the processes used by our SAs, who do not announce their surveys (except for clinical laboratories); as noted, any AO practice of announcing surveys could undermine the integrity of the survey process. While we recognize AOs may have provided up to a 60-minute advance notice of the survey team arriving onsite for initial and reaccreditation survey activities, this is inconsistent with the processes followed by our SAs, and is inconsistent with the AOs' own survey processes for complaint surveys (which are always unannounced).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/Medicare/Provider-Enrollment-and-Certification/SurveyCertificationGenInfo/Policy-and-Memos-to-States-and-Regions-Items/CMS1223113.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Therefore, in accordance with § 488.5(a)(4)(i), which requires unannounced surveys, as well as our long-standing policy in section 2700A, chapter 2 of the SOM, we propose that all surveys of providers and suppliers (other than clinical laboratories) must be unannounced and any advance notice to facilities would be prohibited. This proposed requirement would apply to AOs as well as SAs and further support our initiative to bring consistency to survey practices as outlined in section IV.C of this proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>Furthermore, the definition of “unannounced survey” must ensure that the recertification surveys are unpredictable. AOs generally complete comprehensive re-accreditation surveys of their client providers and suppliers every 32 to 36 months. However, some providers or suppliers have informed us that they know when an AO is scheduled to survey the facility—the AO may schedule the facility for survey within the same week or month every survey cycle, or has narrowed its schedule via the use of blackout days, or informed the facility close to the time of the survey via administrative contact from the AO, such as payment collection, confirmation or change of address notification or other facility-AO specific information. All of these practices undermine the integrity of the unannounced survey process.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Conflict of Interest</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Proposal for Information To Be Submitted With the AOs' Conflict of Interest Policies and Procedures (Proposed Revisions to § 488.5(a)(10))</HD>
                    <P>Section 488.5(a)(10) currently requires that the AO submit “the organization's policies and procedures to avoid conflicts of interest, including the appearance of conflicts of interest, involving individuals who conduct surveys or participate in decisions.” This requirement does not require the AO to address any specific areas or issues in their conflict of interest policies and procedures. In addition, the AOs only need to submit this information to CMS with their initial and renewal applications, which is currently every 6 years or less, as established by CMS.</P>
                    <P>We propose to revise § 488.5(a)(10) by adding a requirement that AOs must provide CMS with more specific conflict of interest policies and procedures. We propose at § 488.5(a)(10)(i) to require the AOs to provide CMS with their policies and procedures for separation of their fee-based consulting services from their accreditation services (that is, fee-based consulting “firewall” policies and procedures). We propose at § 488.5(a)(10)(ii) to require the AOs to provide their policies and procedures for protecting the integrity of the AOs' accreditation program, including the requirements of proposed § 488.8(i) and (j) noted below. Section 488.8(i) pertains to restrictions on certain fee-based consulting services provided by AOs, and § 488.8(k) pertains to conflicts of interest which arise due to AO owners, surveyors, and other employees having a business, employment, financial or other type of relationship with a health care facility accredited by the AO.</P>
                    <P>At § 488.5(a)(10)(iii), we propose to require the AOs to provide policies and procedures for the prevention and handling potential or actual conflicts of interest that could arise from situations in which an AO owner, surveyor, or other employee has a business, employment or financial interest in or relationship with another survey agency or health care facility to which the AO provides accreditation services.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 488.5(a)(10)(iii) would further state that such interests or relationships would include but not be limited to: (1) being employed as a SA surveyor; (2) being employed in a health care facility that is accredited by the AO; (3) having an ownership, financial or investment interest in a health care facility that is accredited by the AO; (4) serving as a director of or trustee for a health care facility that is accredited by the AO; (5) serving on a utilization review committee of a health care facility that is accredited by the AO; (6) accepting fees or payments from a health facility or group of health facilities that is/are accredited by the AO; (7) accepting fees for personal services, contract services, referral services, or for furnishing supplies to a health care facility that is accredited by the AO; (8) providing consulting services to a health care facility that the AO accredits; (9) having members of their immediate family engaged in any of the stated activities, other than being a non-managerial employee of a health facility that is accredited by the AO; and (10) engaging in any activities during the course of the survey of the facility that would be or cause a conflict of interest.</P>
                    <P>In proposed § 488.5(a)(10)(iii)(I), we have defined the term “immediate family member” as a husband or wife, birth or adoptive parent, child, or sibling; stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, or stepsister; father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law; grandparent or grandchild; and spouse of a grandparent or grandchild. This is also consistent with the definition of “immediate family member” used for the hospice program conflict of interest regulations at § 488.1115.</P>
                    <P>We further propose at § 488.5(a)(10)(iv) to require AOs to provide policies and procedures for providing notification to CMS when such a conflict of interest is discovered.</P>
                    <P>
                        We propose at § 488.5(a)(10)(v) to define “conflict of interest” as a situation in which an AO, its owner(s), surveyors, or other employees, or the AO's successors, transferees, or assigns, or the immediate family members of the AO owners(s), surveyors and other employees have an employment, business, financial or other type of interest in or relationship with a health care facility the AO accredits. We would deem a conflict of interest to have occurred if one of the above-stated parties either knowingly or unknowingly exploited their interest in or relationship with that provider or supplier. We remind readers that in the CY 2022 Home Health Prospective Payment System Rate Update (86 FR 62368) that we finalized similar conflict of interest regulations for hospice 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12006"/>
                        programs at § 488.1115(b). The proposed requirements of this rule for accrediting organizations are consistent with, and build upon, the current conflict of interest regulation for hospice programs at § 488.1115(b). For additional discussion on the Hospice final rule see 86 FR 62368.
                    </P>
                    <P>We are proposing changes to § 488.5(a)(10) to require the AO to have policies and procedures for the prevention, handling of and notification of CMS when conflicts of interest arise, because on several occasions, AOs have failed to notify CMS of such conflicts of interest. These changes would broaden our oversight of the AOs' handling and reporting of conflicts of interests. Additionally, by requiring the AOs to provide CMS with more specific information about their conflict-of-interest policies and procedures, CMS would be afforded a more comprehensive look at how the AOs plan to handle specific scenarios that CMS would deem to be conflicts of interest. These proposed requirements would require those AOs that did not have policies and procedures to prevent, address and handle conflicts of interests to develop and use them.</P>
                    <P>The proposed requirements at § 488.5(a)(10)(iii), for the conflict of interest and information that must be submitted with the AOs' conflict of interest policies and procedures, are more detailed than the requirements currently set forth in section 4008 of the SOM, which provide examples of possible scenarios that could be conflicts of interest for the SA surveyors. Section 4008 of the SOM leaves it to the discretion of the SA management to decide how to identify and address these conflicts of interest.</P>
                    <P>A more detailed conflict of interest requirement is not necessary for the SA surveyors because SA surveyors, who are state employees, are generally required to report incidences of conflicts of interest to the SA management, who is tasked with taking the appropriate action.</P>
                    <P>Unlike the SAs, the AOs are more likely to encounter scenarios with conflicts of interest. For example, AO owners, board members, surveyors and other employees might also be employed by health care facilities that are surveyed and accredited by that AO. Therefore, the proposed requirements for AOs must be more detailed and prescriptive than SAs because of the likelihood of them encountering conflicts of interest.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Proposal To Require AOs To Obtain and Submit Surveyor Declarations of Any Interest in and Relationships With Health Care Providers the AO Accredits to CMS on an Annual Basis (Proposed § 488.5(a)(22))</HD>
                    <P>A conflict of interest may exist when an AO surveyor has interest(s) in or relationship(s) with a health care facility the AO accredits. Requiring AOs to obtain and submit declarations detailing such interests and relationships would ensure that CMS is notified of potential or actual conflicts of interest AO surveyors might have with the providers and suppliers the AO accredits. Such notice would allow CMS to be aware of the existence of these potential or actual conflicts of interest, some of which would preclude a surveyor from participating in survey activities (see § 488.8(j) discussion at section IV.B.6 of this proposed rule) and some of which would not.</P>
                    <P>We propose to add a new provision at § 488.5(a)(22) that would require the AO to obtain declarations from all surveyors employed or contracted to the AO regarding any employment, business, financial or other interests in or relationships they have with the health care facilities the AO accredits. We propose that AOs would initially be required to submit the surveyor declarations with their initial application for CMS approval of their accreditation programs. We further propose to require the AOs to update the surveyor declarations on an annual basis, and that the information from the annual updated surveyor declarations be submitted to CMS no later than December 31st each year. Annual updates would be necessary because a surveyor's interests in and relationships with health care facilities the AO accredits could change over time. This requirement would ensure that the information contained in the surveyor declarations remains up-to-date and accurate. This provision at paragraph (a)(22) would be implemented 1 year after the effective date of the final rule (which would be 60 days after publication of the final rule). We further propose to require the AOs to begin submitting their surveyor declaration information on or before the December 31st that occurs after the implementation date of this requirement.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Proposal To Place Restrictions on Fee-Based Consulting Services Provided by AOs to the Medicare-Certified Providers and Suppliers They Accredit (Proposed § 488.8(i))</HD>
                    <P>CMS recognizes the value of fee-based consulting by independent, third-party consultants who provide insight or expertise to assist facilities in achieving or maintaining compliance with AO and/or Medicare's health and safety standards. These interventions are beneficial and often tailored to meet a facility's specific compliance needs. Consulting services also may assist a provider or supplier in identifying quality concerns, whether based on a Medicare requirement or standards of practice, and therefore these services may improve the safety of patient care. AO fee-based consulting activities are not prohibited by federal law and there are no current CMS regulations prohibiting AOs from providing fee-based consulting services.</P>
                    <P>However, AOs assume a public trust role when voluntarily applying to CMS for deeming authority. This authority, once granted, conveys Medicare certification for those entities accredited by the AO and it is essential that the integrity of their oversight process be above question. A number of AOs with CMS-approved accreditation programs currently provide AO fee-based consulting services to the Medicare-participating health care facilities they accredit. When an AO provides fee-based consulting services to a provider or supplier it accredits it could create a conflict of interest for several reasons.</P>
                    <P>First, AOs provide deeming surveys to providers or suppliers on behalf of CMS. AOs are required to use accreditation standards that are comparable to or exceed the Medicare standards and survey processes in the performance of deeming surveys. A potential or actual conflict of interest arises from allowing a CMS-approved AO with deeming authority, the ability to charge a provider or supplier to conduct a deeming survey to identify non-compliance (for Medicare participation), and also charge for providing AO fee-based consulting services to help the provider meet Medicare requirements.</P>
                    <P>
                        Second, providers and suppliers often choose AO fee-based consulting specifically for the additional resources and assistance provided. Some AOs publicly advertise the ability of their fee-based consulting to simulate what to expect from the actual AO survey. It is possible that Providers and suppliers found to be non-compliant by their AO may assume that the most direct path to compliance is to hire the AO's fee-based 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12007"/>
                        consulting services. Such an assumption would provide AOs with fee-based consulting services with an unfair advantage over other, third-party consulting services.
                    </P>
                    <P>Finally, by charging for accreditation services (for example, deeming surveys) and also for the subsequent fee-based consulting services, for the purpose of remediating deficiencies identified by the same AO, there may be an expectation from providers and suppliers that the AO demonstrate the effectiveness their consulting services on subsequent compliance surveys. In other words, the provider or supplier may expect to receive a favorable survey report because they have paid the AO not only for accreditation but also for fee-based consulting services which are promoted by the AOs to help the provider or supplier do well on their survey. In addition, this expectation may push AOs to ignore significant deficiencies found during survey of its fee-based consulting clients in order to demonstrate the efficacy of its fee-based consulting and promote these services.</P>
                    <P>In short, an AO's business model is geared toward retention of its accredited providers and suppliers. AOs that provide both regulatory oversight through Medicare deeming surveys and also fee-based consulting services, which are geared towards assisting clients comply with the requirements required to pass the surveys, invites concerns about the integrity of their final compliance determinations.</P>
                    <P>CMS issued an AO Conflict of Interest RFI (83 FR 65331) in 2018 to gather feedback related to AO conflict of interest practices. We received 128 public comments in response to the RFI. Many commenters stated that fee-based consulting provided by an AO or its associated consulting division or company to the health care facilities it accredits is a conflict of interest. These commenters stated that this conflict of interest arises from granting the inherently governmental function of monitoring patient safety, by regulating health care providers through accreditation, to a private entity, especially when that private entity profits from those who are regulated.</P>
                    <P>Several commenters alleged that AOs that provide fee-based consulting may have the incentive to ignore deficiencies detected during the accreditation survey, in order to provide a “good” survey report to demonstrate the apparent efficacy of their AO fee-based consulting services and also to keep the paying customer(s) happy. Many commenters also suggested that if an AO provides poor survey results to a health care facility that has paid a significant fee for accreditation, it is unlikely that the facility would continue to retain that AO as a service provider.</P>
                    <P>After careful review and analysis of the public comments received in response to the RFI, we agree that a conflict of interest arises from the contractual and financial relationship between the health care provider and the AO, which is a private entity that profits from the performance of regulating health care providers through accreditation. AOs that provide fee-based consulting services generate additional revenue beyond the fees realized for accreditation services by providing fee-based consulting services to the same facilities they accredit.</P>
                    <P>We propose at § 488.8(i) several restrictions on fee-based consulting provided by these AOs, their consulting divisions, or separate business entities. By “fee-based consulting division,” we mean a separate division within the AO that provides fee-based consulting services. This division of the AO would have a separate manager and staff. By “separate business entity,” we mean a business entity, such as a company or corporation, that is separate and apart from the AO and that has been established by the AO, either under a similar or different name, for the purpose of the providing fee-based consulting services.</P>
                    <P>The proposed regulation at § 488.5(i) would still allow AOs to provide fee-based consulting services to the providers and suppliers they accredit with restrictions that address the conflict of interest issues associated with this service.</P>
                    <P>We propose at § 488.8(i)(1) that, unless excepted under proposed § 488.8(i)(4), AOs and their associated consulting divisions or companies would be prohibited from providing fee-based consulting services to any health care provider or supplier to which the AO provides accreditation services prior to an initial accreditation survey. However, the health care provider or supplier may seek fee-based consulting services from an entity entirely uninvolved in that provider or supplier's accreditation process. This option allows these providers and suppliers support they may believe necessary to meet Medicare standards and requirements prior to serving patients while eliminating any conflict of interest for their AO.</P>
                    <P>For purposes of proposed § 488.8(i)(1), the term “initial survey” would mean the first accreditation survey of a health care provider or supplier performed by an AO. The term “prior to the initial accreditation survey” would mean the time period beginning on the day the provider or supplier enters into a contract with the AO to provide accreditation services and continuing until the date that the initial accreditation survey is completed. The survey completion date would include the completion of any required plans of correction by the provider or supplier. In addition, if a health care provider or supplier was terminated or withdrew from the AO's accreditation and later retained the services of that AO, the first survey of the returning health care provider or supplier performed by the AO would be considered an initial accreditation survey.</P>
                    <P>The requirement of proposed § 488.8(i)(1), which would prohibit an AO from providing fee-based consulting or coaching to a health care provider or supplier prior to the initial accreditation survey, would provide a more accurate assessment of the provider's or supplier's baseline operating conditions and deficiencies on the initial survey. Such a raw assessment would not be possible if the provider or supplier receives AO fee-based consulting prior to the initial accreditation survey.</P>
                    <P>In addition, such a baseline assessment of deficiencies would be useful to the AO in assessing areas needing improvement, developing a plan of correction and areas of focus for the fee-based consulting. This proposed restriction would also remove the financial incentive on the part of the AO to ignore deficiencies during the initial survey of providers and suppliers that paid for fee-based consulting prior to an initial survey.</P>
                    <P>We note that this proposal only restricts an AO with deeming authority and a fee-based consulting practice from providing fee-based consulting services to its accredited providers and suppliers prior to the initial accreditation survey. It does not prohibit providers and suppliers from hiring third-party fee-based consulting services prior to their initial AO survey, in other words, this proposal does not prohibit other consulting services from being used during this period.</P>
                    <P>
                        We do not anticipate that this proposal would cause a negative impact on the patient care provided by the provider or supplier for several reasons. First, providers or suppliers would be able to obtain AO fee-based consulting during the first 24 months of the 36-month reaccreditation cycle which occurs after the initial survey. This education could be tailored to address the deficiencies found during the initial survey. If the AO were to provide fee-based consulting prior to the initial survey, the AO would not know what 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12008"/>
                        deficiencies exist and would only be able to provide generalized fee-based education to the provider or supplier. Second, the provider and supplier could always seek fee-based education prior to the initial survey from a third -party consultant. The purpose of our proposal to prohibit AO fee-based consulting prior to the initial survey and during the 12-month period prior to each reaccreditation survey is to reduce or remove any potential or actual conflict of interest. However, if a provider or supplier were to seek fee-based consulting from a third-party consultant, that has no relationship to the AO that accredits that provider or supplier, no conflict of interest would exist.
                    </P>
                    <P>We also propose at § 488.8(i)(2) to prohibit AOs from providing fee-based consulting services to a health care provider or supplier it accredits within 12 months prior to the next scheduled re-accreditation survey of that provider or supplier. For purposes of proposed § 488.8(i)(2), the term “re-accreditation survey” would mean any subsequent accreditation surveys performed by the AO after the initial survey.</P>
                    <P>The accreditation cycle for most Medicare-certified providers and suppliers is 36 months (3 years), which means that the AOs perform an accreditation survey of these providers and suppliers no less than every 36 months. The proposed language at § 488.8(i)(2) would allow AOs to provide fee-based consulting during the first 24 months (2 years) of the accreditation cycle, but not during the 12-month (1-year) period preceding the re-accreditation survey. For example, with this proposal, if the initial survey was completed on June 1, 2025, the provider's or supplier's reaccreditation survey would be due by June 2, 2028. The AO could provide fee-based consulting to the provider or supplier from June 2, 2025, to June 2, 2027. The AO would be prohibited from providing AO fee-based consulting to the provider or supplier from June 2, 2027, to June 2, 2028. An accredited provider or supplier would retain the ability to use consultants not affiliated with their AO at any time, including any timeframe prior to or after an accreditation survey for Medicare compliance.</P>
                    <P>The proposed requirement would provide the accredited provider or supplier ample time to obtain the education they need in order to understand the CMS requirement, the AO's accreditation standards and survey process, and 1-year period, prior to their next accreditation survey, in which to implement the AO's accreditation standards and CMS standards (CoPs) in their facility and rectify any deficiencies found during the initial survey.</P>
                    <P>The proposed requirement at § 488.8(i)(2) would address the actual or potential conflicts of interest associated with AO fee-based consulting because it creates a 1-year time period prior to the re-accreditation survey in which the AO is prohibited from providing any type of additional teaching or “coaching” that would help the provider or supplier “pass” or obtain better scores on the upcoming accreditation survey.</P>
                    <P>We further propose at § 488.8(i)(3) that the AOs or their associated consulting divisions or companies be prohibited from providing fee-based consulting services to a health care provider or supplier in response to a complaint received by the AO regarding that provider or supplier. Our rationale for this requirement is that AOs are required by CMS regulation to investigate and resolve complaints received regarding their accredited providers and suppliers (that is, 42 CFR 488.5(a)(4)(ix); 42 CFR 488.5(a)(12)). This regulatory requirement includes investigating the complaint and working with the accredited provider or supplier to help them resolve any deficient practices identified in the complaint. AOs charge a significant fee for their fee-based consulting. AOs should not profit by providing fee-based consulting to a provider and supplier in response to a complaint that they are regulatorily required to investigate and resolve. This proposed regulation would prevent this from occurring.</P>
                    <P>We propose at § 488.8(i)(4)(i) to (iv) that the restrictions upon AO fee-based consulting would not apply to the following situations: (1) AO fee-based consulting services provided during the 24-month period after the date the initial or re-accreditation survey is performed (proposed § 488.8(i)(4)(i)); (2) AO fee-based consulting services provided to address complaints received and investigated by the SA regarding an AO's accredited provider or supplier in which one or more condition-level or immediate jeopardy deficiencies are identified, provided however that, the fee-based consulting must occur after the complaint investigation and survey has been completed and must only address those issues identified by the complaint survey (proposed § 488.8(i)(4)(ii)); (3) AO fee-based consulting services provided to health care providers or suppliers to which the AO has never provided accreditation services (proposed § 488.8(i)(4)(iii)); and (4) no-cost consulting or general education provided by the AO about their accreditation program (proposed § 488.8(i)(4)(iv)).</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 488.8(i)(4)(ii) would allow AOs to provide AO fee-based consulting services in response to complaints received by the SA regarding an AO's accredited provider or supplier. However, this fee-based consulting must be provided by the AO after completion of the SA investigation and complaint survey. We would permit AO fee-based consulting services after a complaint is received by the SA, because the SA, not the AO, would perform an investigational survey. Therefore, the affected provider or supplier should be permitted to seek fee-based consulting from its AO, in accordance with the restrictions stated above, to address the issues identified in the SA complaint and complaint survey, if appropriate.</P>
                    <P>It is important to note that AO fee-based consulting should only be provided when serious deficiencies have been identified in the SAs complaint investigation report. By serious deficiencies, we mean deficiencies that would be considered condition level by the SA and the AO. However, the AO should first work directly with the provider or supplier, as part of their accreditation services package, to resolve the issues identified in the SAs complaint investigation report and only provide AO fee-based consulting if these issues cannot be resolved successfully, through other methods. It has always been the duty of the AOs to address and resolve complaints received regarding its accredited providers and suppliers, whether said complaint is received by the AO or the SA. An AO receives a significant fee for the accreditation services provided. We believe that the investigation and resolution of complaints falls squarely under these paid accreditation services. We do not believe it appropriate for AOs to offer fee-based consulting/educational services in response to each and every complaint received regarding one of its accredited providers or suppliers. In other words, the AOs should not realize additional profit from its paying customers, when it has already been paid to perform the task at hand.</P>
                    <P>
                        More specifically, we would expect that an AO not offer fee-based consulting to an accredited provider or supplier in response to a complaint, unless the deficiency(ies) identified in the complaint are substantiated by the investigation, and found to be systemic, widespread, and ingrained in the culture of the organization. We would also expect to find that the AO first attempted to work with the provider or supplier, as part of the accreditation services provided, to resolve the deficiencies identified in the complaint, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12009"/>
                        before resorting to fee-based consulting. Finally, we would expect to find that if an AO offers fee-based consulting/educational services to the provider or supplier, they do so after trying all non-cost options available, and that the fee-based consulting/education was reasonably expected to resolve the deficiencies identified in the compliant.
                    </P>
                    <P>Proposed § 488.8(i)(4)(ii) requires that the AO fee-based consulting cannot be provided until after completion of the SA's investigation and complaint survey. By “completion of the SA's investigation”, we mean the date upon which the SA has completed all work required to investigate the complaint and has issued its findings. This restriction is necessary because if the affected provider or supplier were to receive fee-based consulting from the AO prior to the completion of the SA's investigation and complaint survey, the affected provider or supplier potentially could alter processes, operations or documentation, all of which could compromise the SAs investigation of the complaint. In such a scenario, the investigation and complaint survey report would not be an accurate reflection of the issues identified in the complaint. While it may seem counter-productive for the affected provider or supplier to obtain AO-fee-based consulting after completion of the SA's investigation and complaint survey, we believe that it would actually be helpful to the affected provider or supplier. After completion of the SA's complaint survey and investigation, the affected provider or supplier will receive a complaint investigation report, which will allow the AO to tailor the fee-based consulting services or other educational activities to address any deficiencies identified in said report. Also, through AO fee-based consulting services, the AO could work with the affected provider or supplier, at their own pace, to implement long-lasting and sustainable changes that address the deficiencies identified, as opposed to the implementation of quick temporary solutions or corrective action prior to completion of the complaint investigation. A quick temporary solution would be one that the provider or supplier implements on a short-term basis, typically only during the time that the surveyors are present. By contrast, a long-lasting and sustainable solution would be one in which the provider or supplier implements the solution, orients the staff to its requirements, regularly monitors for compliance with the requirements and corrects non-compliance on a continual basis.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 488.8(i)(4)(iii) would further allow AOs to provide fee-based consulting services to health care providers or suppliers the AO does not accredit at the time the consulting services are furnished. If the AO has not provided accreditation services to a provider or supplier at the time fee-based consulting services are provided, the AO would not have a preexisting financial relationship with that provider or supplier. Thus, no conflict of interest would exist.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 488.8(i)(5) would require AOs to report information about the fee-based consulting provided to the providers and suppliers they accredit to CMS. See section IV.B.4 for information about this proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 488.8(i)(6) provides for penalties for AOs that provide fee-based consulting in violation of the restrictions set forth on proposed § 488.8(i)(1) to § 488.8(i)(3). See section IV.B.5 of this proposed rule for a discussion of this proposed section.</P>
                    <P>We propose at § 488.8(i)(7) that the requirements at § 488.8(i) would become applicable 1 year from the effective date of the final rule to allow for an appropriate time of transition. We believe that this would provide ample time for the AOs to prepare for and implement the proposed requirements at § 488.8(i).</P>
                    <P>The conflict inherent in AO fee-based consulting on accreditation standards while an AO is also performing surveys to determine compliance with those same standards is what the proposed restrictions on AO fee-based consulting seek to address. An entity that collects fees to remedy findings or prepare for a survey performed by another arm of the same entity creates a perceived conflict of interest that undermines the integrity of the health and safety oversight process. These proposals seek to allow continuance of independent consulting activities while addressing concerns related to fee-based consulting performed by the AOs, themselves.</P>
                    <P>We note that this proposed restriction on AO fee-based consulting services at §§ 488.8(i)(1), 488.8(i)(2), and § 488.8(i)(3) would not prohibit the AOs from providing no-cost education, such as general education about the AO's accreditation and survey process and mock surveys. The restrictions on AO fee-based consulting would also not prohibit AOs from providing education about the Medicare conditions, AO standards, or survey process, to its accredited health care providers and suppliers, as long as this education is provided completely free of charge. This means that the AO would not be allowed to raise the price of their accreditation services because of the provision of this education, or do anything else that would cause the provider or supplier to incur any additional costs for the education provided by the AO, its consulting division or separate consulting company to the providers or suppliers it has contracted with to provide accreditation services. We believe that it is important that health care providers and suppliers receive education that would assist them in compliance, so long as it is not provided on a fee basis, which would introduce another financial relationship between the AO and the provider or supplier that could cause a conflict of interest.</P>
                    <P>We also note that other CMS programs have established similar conflict of interest and independence provisions for organizations that have a public trust role in assessing the quality of services provided. For example, in the Medicaid program, CMS has established regulatory standards with respect to the independent judgment of any External Quality Review Organization that reviews the quality of the Medicaid managed care organization for the state (42 CFR 438.354). These regulations establish, among other requirements, that an External Quality Review Organization may not review any managed care entity for which that organization has also conducted a private accreditation review within the previous 3 years.</P>
                    <P>Our proposal to place restrictions on the provision of fee-based consulting by AOs to their current accredited providers and suppliers is authorized by section 1865(a)(2) of the Act, which gives CMS the broad power of oversight over the activities of AOs. The provision of AO fee-based consulting is one of the factors in section 1865(a)(2) of the Act that should be considered in determining whether a national accreditation body demonstrates that all of the applicable conditions or requirements of this title are met or exceeded.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Proposal To Require AOs To Provide CMS With Information About the Fee-Based Consulting They Provide (Proposed § 488.8(i)(5))</HD>
                    <P>We proposed at § 488.8(i)(1), § 488.8(i)(2), and § 488.8(i)(3) to place restrictions on the fee-based consulting services provided by AOs. In order to enforce our proposals, we propose at § 488.8(i)(5) to require the AOs that provide fee-based consulting services to submit information to CMS, on a calendar year bi-annual basis, about the fee-based consulting services they provide.</P>
                    <P>
                        We propose to add a requirement at § 488.8(i)(5) that would require the AOs 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12010"/>
                        that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers to provide CMS with information regarding the fee-based consulting services no later than 15 days after the end of each calendar year bi-annual (6-month) period.
                    </P>
                    <P>More specifically, this proposal would require these AOs to submit a document which contains the following information to CMS:</P>
                    <P>• Whether the AO or an associated consulting division or company established by the AO provides fee-based consulting services.</P>
                    <P>• The names and CMS Certification Number (CCN) numbers of all health care providers and suppliers to which the AO or its associated consulting division or company has provided fee-based consulting services during the previous calendar year quarter.</P>
                    <P>• The dates the AO fee-based consulting services were provided to each provider and supplier listed.</P>
                    <P>• Whether the accrediting organization has, at any time in the past provided, or is currently providing accreditation services to each health care provider or supplier listed in said document, and if so, the date the accreditation services were provided.</P>
                    <P>• The date of the most recent accreditation survey performed, and the date the next re-accreditation survey is due to be performed for each health care provider and supplier listed in said document.</P>
                    <P>• A description of the AO fee-based consulting services provided to each health care provider or supplier listed in said document.</P>
                    <P>We are further proposing that the two bi-annual reporting periods would consist of January 1st to June 30th and July 1st to December 31st each year. The submission deadline for the first period would be July 15th each year. The submission deadline for the second period would be January 15th each year. This would ensure that AOs are not providing fee-based consulting services to providers and suppliers prior to an initial survey, within 12 months prior to a re-accreditation survey, or in response to a complaint received regarding an accredited provider or supplier. In addition, this information would also allow CMS to see the number of providers and suppliers to which the AOs are providing fee-based consulting services.</P>
                    <P>We propose that these provisions would become applicable 1 year from the effective date of final rule to allow for an appropriate time of transition. We believe that this would provide the AOs with ample time to prepare for and implement this requirement.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Proposal for Penalties for AOs Found To Be Providing AO Fee-Based Consulting Services to the Health Care Providers or Suppliers They Accredit in Violation of the Restrictions in 42 CFR 488.5(i)(1) Through § 488.5(i)(3) (Proposed § 488.8(i)(6))</HD>
                    <P>In section IV.B.3 of this proposed rule, we propose to implement regulations that place restrictions on the fee-based consulting services AOs provide to the health care providers and suppliers that they accredit. In order to enforce these regulations, we propose at § 488.8(i)(6) to implement penalties for the violation of the restrictions on AO fee-based consulting.</P>
                    <P>We propose at § 488.8(i)(6)(i) that if an AO is found to be in violation of the restrictions set forth in paragraphs § 488.8(i)(1), (2) and (3), CMS may initiate penalties against the AO. These penalties are set forth in proposed § 488.8(i)(6)(i) and § 488.8(i)(6)(ii) and include placing the AO on a program review, and involuntary termination of the CMS-approved AO's accreditation program(s).</P>
                    <P>Whether or not we impose the penalties provided in § 488.8(i)(6)(i) and (ii) would depend on the severity of the violation and the facts and circumstances surrounding the violation. Such facts might include the number of providers and suppliers that contracted for prohibited AO fee-based consulting services, the number of times the AO violated the restrictions of § 488.8(i).</P>
                    <P>The purpose of these proposed provisions is to discourage AOs from violating the proposed restrictions on the provision of fee-based consulting to the providers and suppliers they accredit.</P>
                    <P>We propose that these provisions would become applicable 1 year from the effective date of the final rule. We believe that this would provide ample time for the AOs to prepare for the implementation of the requirements of this rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Proposal To Require Accrediting Organizations To Have Written Fee-Based Consulting Firewall Policies and Procedures (§ 488.8(j))</HD>
                    <P>We propose at § 488.8(j) to require any AO that provides fee-based consulting services or its associated fee-based consulting division or company to have written fee-based consulting “firewall” policies and procedures. We have defined the terms “consulting division” and “associated company” in section IX.B.3 of this proposed rule. We define the term “firewall” as the complete and total separation between the AO's accreditation activities and its fee-based consulting services.</P>
                    <P>We propose that these firewall policies and procedures must, at a minimum, include the following provisions: at paragraph (j)(1)(i) the AO's fee-based consulting services must be provided by a separate division of the AO or separate business entity (that is company or corporation) from the AO; at paragraph (j)(1)(ii) the AO's fee-based consulting division or separate company must maintain separate staff from that of the AO's accreditation division(s) to ensure that the fee-based consulting division staff do not perform AO's accreditation division functions and that the AO's accreditation division staff do not perform fee-based consulting division functions; and at paragraph (j)(1)(iii), the AO's accreditation staff and surveyors would be prohibited from marketing the AO's fee-based consulting services to the AO's accreditation clients.</P>
                    <P>
                        The purpose of the provisions of proposed § 488.8(j) is to ensure that the AO maintains a complete division between their fee-based consulting program and their accreditation program. In other words, we seek to require the AOs to prevent any co-mingling of fee-based consulting activities and staff with their accreditation activities and staff. These requirements are necessary because several commenters to our 2018 AO Conflict of Interest RFI, noted concern that while some AOs that provide fee-based consulting have such firewall policies in place, they have been breached. For example, one commenter stated that one AO's accreditation staff aggressively marketed that AO's fee-based consulting services to his health care facility. In addition, during a CMS validation pilot joint survey with an AO, a SA surveyor witnessed the AO's surveyors providing detailed education about the survey process to the healthcare facility staff prior to the start of the survey. This is inappropriate because surveys are to be unannounced to prevent the facility from preparing for the survey. At the beginning of a survey, a brief entrance conference is held for the purpose of introducing the survey team, providing the survey agenda to the facility staff, and telling the facility what records the surveyors will be reviewing during the survey. However, providing detailed information about the survey process and what areas the AO is going to focus on during the survey gives the facility an advantage and time to prepare for the survey. This negates the purpose of requiring surveys to be unannounced and could allow the facility staff time to clean up and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12011"/>
                        remove deficiencies that would normally be present. In addition, providing such education to a health care facility prior to a survey could assist that facility in getting a better survey report.
                    </P>
                    <P>We do not currently have any regulations that provide oversight of the fee-based consulting services provided by AOs or their separate divisions or companies. Likewise, we do not currently have any regulations that specifically require AOs that provide fee-based consulting services to have written firewall policies or regulations that provide requirements for such policies. Regulations are needed so that CMS may ensure that an AO's fee-based consulting remains separate from an AO's accreditation activities. This division is necessary to reduce the conflict on interest associated with the provision of AO fee-based consulting services.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Proposal To Prohibit AO Owners, Surveyors, and Other Employees From Involvement With the Survey and Accreditation Process for Health Care Facilities With Which They Have an Interest or Relationship (Proposed § 488.8(k))</HD>
                    <P>Surveyors must rely on their professional judgment, in addition to federal rules and guidelines, to determine compliance. An AO surveyor, owner, or other employees' interest in or relationship with a health care facility that the AO accredits could present a conflict of interest that could affect the results of a survey in several ways. For example, an AO owner, surveyor, or other AO employee involved in the survey of a healthcare facility with which the individual has an interest or relationship could have compromised judgment, consciously or unconsciously, regarding that facility. For example, a surveyor with an interest in or relationship with the health care facility being surveyed could be inclined to minimize or ignore deficiencies, possibly because he or she believes these deficiencies are not representative of the facility. A surveyor who has an interest in or relationship with the facility being surveyed could possibly influence the findings made by other members of the survey team by asking them to give the facility credit for things not observed, since he or she can “vouch” for the facility.</P>
                    <P>Even if the AO employee with the interest in or relationship with the facility being surveyed is not part of the survey team for the facility, he or she could still potentially influence the members of the survey team prior to or after the survey. For example, attempting to influence the survey decision making process, or the AO's survey follow-up activities by attempting to discuss the facility with the survey team, such as explaining the facility's policies and procedures to the survey team, or even actively advocating on the facility's behalf, potentially influencing their analysis of observed survey results.</P>
                    <P>An AO surveyor, owner, or other employee that has an interest in or relationship with a health care facility the AO accredits might have additional motivation to improperly give that health care facility notice about the survey ahead of the scheduled survey date. Surveys are required to be unannounced to prevent the facility from preparing for the survey by activities such as unusual cleaning activities, painting, clearing obstructions from halls and entrances, covering up and hiding deficiencies, coaching staff, and otherwise preparing in advance for the survey. If the survey is unannounced, the health care facility is not able to make advance preparations so that the survey team is able to assess the facility in its usual condition and observe the typical standard of care provided.</P>
                    <P>We propose to add a new requirement at § 488.8(k)(1) to prohibit AOs from allowing AO owners, surveyors, or other employees from participating in the survey and accreditation process for health care facilities with which they have had an interest or relationship within the previous 2 years. At proposed § 488.8(k)(1) we would require that if an AO owner, surveyor or other employee has an interest in or relationship with a health care facility accredited by the AO, they would be prohibited from: (1) participating in the survey of that health care facility (proposed § 488.8(k)(1)(i)); (2) having input into the results of the survey and accreditation for that health care facility (proposed § 488.8(k)(1)(ii)); (3) having involvement with the pre- or post-survey activities for that health care facility (proposed § 488.8(k)(1)(iii)); or (4) having contact with or access to the records for the survey and accreditation of that health care facility (proposed § 488.8(k)(iv)). Proposed § 488.5(a)(10)(iii) lists proposed prohibited interests in or relationships with a health care facility accredited by the AO, which would include, but not be limited to, the following situations: (1) being employed as a SA surveyor; (2) being employed in a health care facility that is accredited by the AO; (3) having an ownership interest in a health care facility that is accredited by the AO; (4) serving as a director of or trustee for a health care facility that is accredited by the AO; (5) serving on a utilization review committee of a health care facility that is accredited by the AO; (6) accepting any fees or payments from a health care facility or group of health care facilities that is/are accredited by the AO; (7) accepting fees for personal services, contract services, referral services, or for furnishing supplies to a health care facility that is accredited by the AO; (8) providing consulting services to a health care facility that the AO accredits; (9) having members of an immediate family engaged in any of the above activities; or (10) engaging in any activities during the course of the survey of the facility that would be or cause a conflict of interest.</P>
                    <P>We propose at § 488.8(k)(2) to define the term “immediate family member” as any person that has a lineal familial or marital relationship with the AO owner, surveyor or other employee. Immediate family members would include a husband or wife, birth or adoptive parent, child, or sibling; stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, or stepsister; father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law; grandparent or grandchild; and spouse of a grandparent or grandchild. This definition is consistent with the definition used for the home health and hospice conflict of interest requirements. This definition is required for the purposes of § 488.8(k)(1), which states that a conflict of interest can also exist when an AO owner, surveyor or other employee has an interest in or relationship with a health care facility the AO accredits.</P>
                    <P>Allowing an AO owner, surveyor or other employee that has an interest in or relationship with a health care facility the AO accredits would not only be inappropriate but could result in inaccurate survey results and/or preferential treatment of the facility.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Proposal To Require the AOs That Accredit Medicare-Certified Providers and Suppliers To Use Medicare Conditions; and Strengthened Survey Process Comparability (Proposed § 488.4(a)(1) and (2))</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 1865(a)(1) of the Act requires that if the Secretary finds that the requirements for accreditation from an accreditation organization demonstrates that a provider entity meets or exceeds all applicable conditions, the Secretary must deem such requirements to be met by the provider entity. However, the statutory language of “meets or exceeds” currently allows AOs to develop standards that are more stringent than those of Medicare. When an AO applies for “deeming authority”, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12012"/>
                        we determine whether those standards meet or exceed ours. In accordance with § 488.5(e), CMS publishes a proposed rule when CMS receives a complete application from a national accrediting organization seeking CMS's approval of an accreditation program. The proposed notice identifies the organization and the type of providers or suppliers to be covered by the accreditation program and provides 30 calendar days for the public to submit comments to CMS. CMS subsequently publishes a final notice, rendering its decision to either approve or disapprove a national accrediting organization's application, within 210 calendar days from the date CMS determines the AO's application was complete. The final notice outlines a summary of the findings of CMS's review and any corrective action which was required to be taken by the AO in order to be considered to meet or exceed our standards, or comparable survey processes. When CMS approves or reapproves an accrediting organization for deemed status, the approval may not exceed 6 years.
                    </P>
                    <P>We are concerned that the current application review processes under § 488.5 does not go far enough. Some of our concerns with the efficacy of the AO application review process are based on the results of the initial and renewal applications and the SA findings, as noted below:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">AO Application Reviews:</E>
                         Between 2017 to September 2021, we received a total of 22 AO applications for review. After review of these applications, we returned all 22 applications to the AOs because we found that the AOs' standards were not comparable to ours. AO most common standards requiring revisions to meet or exceed Medicare conditions included: governing body, physical environment, emergency preparedness patient rights, medical/clinical records and care planning. Additionally, AO standards regarding coordination of services; skilled professional services; infection control; staff responsibilities and quality improvement assessment programs (QAPI) all required revisions by the AOs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">SA Findings:</E>
                         In FY 2019, CMS conducted 119 hospital surveys (including psychiatric hospitals) and 196 non-hospital surveys totaling 315 validation surveys. In FY 2019, the SAs found serious “condition-level” instances of non-compliance 60 times in accredited hospitals (including psychiatric hospitals), and 51 instances in which the AO missed the deficiencies. In these instances, even though the AOs did not find comparable levels of non-compliance, this non-compliance was sufficient to start enforcement proceedings against the subject hospitals. These results demonstrated that the AOs may have failed to ensure their facilities were meeting Medicare's minimum standards. In total, between FY 2017 and FY 2019, CMS conducted 363 hospital (including psychiatric hospitals) validation surveys, with SAs identifying condition-level non-compliance a total of 185 times and 158 instances in which the AOs missed comparable deficiencies. Between FY 2017 and FY 2019, CMS also conducted a total of 369 validation surveys for HHAs and Hospices, with SAs identifying condition-level non-compliance a total of 57 times and 50 instances in which the AOs missed comparable deficiencies.
                        <SU>10</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This data has amplified CMS' concerns related to the comparability of survey processes as well as the need for increased AO oversight.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>10</SU>
                             FY 2020 Report to Congress (RTC): Review of Medicare's Program Oversight of Accrediting Organizations (AOs) and the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA) Validation Program 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/files/document/qso-22-06-ao-clia.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Therefore, under the statutory authority granted to us under section 1865(a)(1) of the Act, we propose revisions at § 488.4(a)(1) to require that the AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers use the applicable Medicare conditions as their minimum accreditation standards. This means that the AOs must incorporate the Medicare conditions identical to our regulations within their accreditation standards for their deeming programs. However, AOs would be allowed to use additional accreditation standards that exceed the Medicare conditions, as permitted under section 1865(a)(1) of the Act. We would, however, require the AOs' to clearly delineate their additional accreditation standards that exceed the Medicare conditions when seeking CMS approval for deeming authority.</P>
                    <P>The requirement that the AOs identify the Medicare conditions as their accreditation standards would also allow providers and suppliers to know what the minimum Medicare deeming standards are and where the AO standards exceed these standards through its accreditation program, as permitted under section 1865(a)(1) of the Act. Facilities are expected to comply with regulatory requirements of CMS and the accreditation standards of the AO, however we have found that in certain circumstances, the facilities were more familiar with AO standards and did not fully understand the AO standards are more stringent than the Medicare conditions. There were several instances in which our comparability review of AO standards under § 488.5 resulted in the need for AOs to correct deficiencies in their survey standards and processes, because we determined that the minimum Medicare conditions would have not been adhered to. Despite these frequent reviews, the regulations only require AO standards to be comparable, not exact to the Medicare conditions, therefore increasing the likelihood of gaps in interpretation.</P>
                    <P>This proposed requirement would increase the likelihood that AO standards and processes would meet or exceed our regulatory requirements and transparency for providers to understand when the AO has more stringent standards, further explained in sections IV.D of this proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>We also propose to strengthen our process for comparability review of the AOs survey processes at proposed § 488.4(a)(2), further explained in sections IV.E and IV.F of this proposed rule. More specifically, we propose to re-designate existing paragraph (a)(1) as (a)(3) and re-designate existing paragraph (a)(2) as (a)(4) with revisions, and add a new requirement at § 488.4(a)(1). This provision would require the AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers to use the exact text of the applicable Medicare conditions set forth in the applicable CMS regulations for each provider and supplier type as their minimum accreditation requirements. However, the AOs would be free to establish additional accreditation requirements that exceed Medicare conditions as permitted by section 1865(a)(1) of the Act. We propose to add language at § 488.4(a)(2) that AOs use a survey process comparable to the processes set out for SAs in the SOM and approved by CMS, as outlined throughout § 488.5(a)(4). We also propose that these requirements and changes at paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) would be applicable beginning 1 year from the effective date of the final rule.</P>
                    <P>These proposed changes to § 488.4(a)(1) and § 488.4 (a)(2) would align national health and safety standards across all AOs and strengthen the survey processes used by the AOs. We further believe that our proposal would ensure uniformity and transparency of the surveys performed by the AOs for deeming purposes and improve CMS' ability to accurately evaluate an AO's performance.</P>
                    <P>
                        We propose to re-designate the current § 488.4(a)(1) and (a)(2) to § 488.4(a)(3) and (a)(4). We also propose 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12013"/>
                        to add requirements at paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) that AOs incorporate the Medicare conditions and use survey processes comparable to those of the SA. We also refer readers to additional proposed changes made to § 488.4(a)(4) in section VI.O of this proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>The proposal to require AOs to incorporate the Medicare conditions (as defined in § 488.1) as their minimum accreditation standards would become applicable 1 year after the effective date of the final rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Proposal To Revise the Crosswalk Requirements at § 488.5(a)(3)</HD>
                    <P>As a result of our proposal at § 488.4(a)(1) to require the AOs to incorporate the Medicare conditions (as defined in § 488.1) into their accreditation standards for their deeming programs, we would also modify the regulations at § 488.5 that would be affected by this requirement. Section 488.5(a)(3) requires the AOs to submit with their initial and renewal application, “[a] detailed crosswalk (in table format) that identifies, for each of the applicable Medicare conditions or requirements, the exact language of the organization's comparable accreditation requirements and standards.” Because section 1865(a) of the Act allows AOs to have accreditation standards for their deeming programs that meet or exceed the Medicare conditions, the content, format, and wording of AOs' accreditation standards frequently differ significantly from that of the Medicare conditions. Therefore, we require the AOs to provide a crosswalk which identifies the applicable Medicare conditions that corresponds to each of the AO's accreditation standards. The purpose of this crosswalk is to help us determine to which Medicare condition each AO accreditation standard corresponds.</P>
                    <P>Since we proposed at § 488.4(a)(1) to require the AOs to incorporate the Medicare conditions into their accreditation standards, it would no longer be necessary to require the AOs to submit a crosswalk that provides “comparable” standards. Instead, we propose that AOs would need to provide a crosswalk which demonstrates that the AO has incorporated the language of the Medicare conditions, as well as provide the AO standards which exceed the Medicare conditions (see Table 2 in section VI.B.I of this proposed rule for an example). Similar to the existing process for submission of the AO's crosswalk during an application, we propose to revise § 488.5(a)(3) to require a crosswalk that demonstrates the AO's use of CMS's requirements and standards. AOs would provide additional or exceeding standards under their use of the required exact language and annotate the exceeding standards. This would further allow providers and suppliers to know what the minimum Medicare deeming standards are and where the AO standards exceed these standards through its accreditation program.</P>
                    <P>We propose to revise § 488.5(a)(3) to first remove the requirement that the AO provide a “comparable” standard for each of the applicable Medicare conditions or requirements and replace it with the ” incorporation of the CMS requirements in the AO accreditation standards for any deeming program.” Second, in the application that is submitted to CMS for review, the AO would have to submit a detailed crosswalk. We would not expect the AOs to use the same survey tags (a letter/number identifier, for example, A-0001) as used by SA surveyors. For example, CMS' regulatory requirement at § 482.11(c) requires hospitals to “assure that personnel are licensed or meet other applicable standards that are required by State or local laws.” In this example and aligned with our proposed provisions, the AO would be required to have an accreditation standard for its hospital deeming program which would state “The hospital must assure that personnel are licensed or meet other applicable standards that are required by State or local laws,” with the AOs applicable standard number. Using Table 2 in section VI.B.1 of this proposed rule for this example, the crosswalk would appear as follows:</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="138">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.000</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>As seen in this example, the AO standard number identification may vary from CMS' CFR regulatory citation. Additionally, as previously described, CMS is not restricting AOs from exceeding the Medicare conditions. Therefore, if an AO believes that additional accreditation standards would need to apply to their deemed facilities, an AO would submit the exceeding requirements under the particular standard. Using the same example, the AO would submit a crosswalk similar to the example below. As seen, AO Standard Number XX.001 would be exceeding the Medicare conditions.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="210">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12014"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.001</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Establishing a consistent standard across all AOs would bring transparency to the accreditation process. This would allow providers and suppliers to know what the minimum Medicare deeming conditions are and where the AO standards exceed these Medicare conditions through its accreditation program. It would also provide greater uniformity between an AO certification survey at a facility and a state survey that may be subsequently performed at that same facility, which could include a complaint survey or a validation survey.</P>
                    <P>Additionally, from CMS' oversight perspective of the AO applications for deeming authority and review of the crosswalks over the last several years, we have also identified that AOs have inadvertently omitted certain standards in their crosswalk submissions. Therefore, while the impression that requiring a crosswalk for AOs may seem unnecessary as we would be requiring AOs to incorporate the Medicare conditions into their accreditation standards, it is imperative that CMS be able to ensure the AO has standards for each Medicare condition. The review of the exceeding standards is also critical for CMS to ensure that any additional requirements established under accreditation for deemed providers or suppliers do not conflict with the Medicare conditions.</P>
                    <P>We propose that the proposed provision would be applicable 1 year after the effective date of the final rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Proposal To Strengthen the Comparability of the Survey Process Between the AOs and the States</HD>
                    <P>An AO must demonstrate to CMS that it has the ability to effectively evaluate a health care facility's compliance with the Medicare conditions using survey processes that are comparable to those survey methods, procedures, and forms required by CMS and as implemented by the SAs. A general description of SAs' survey processes are set out at § 488.26 and specified in the SOM.</P>
                    <P>As part of the application process as set out at § 488.5, CMS is required to complete a survey processes review as part of the AO application review process. The purpose of the survey processes review is to determine whether the AO's survey processes are comparable to the CMS survey processes. The survey process comparability review is done by reviewing information in the application, such as, the AO's survey activity guides, organizational procedures for surveyors, surveyor training materials and AO survey requirements. CMS also conducts an in-person observation of an AO survey (carried out by a CMS survey observation team) as part of CMS' review of an AO's application. The purpose of the survey observation is to ensure that the AO surveyors follow the processes set out in the application and to ensure that the AO surveyors evaluate all Medicare requirements.</P>
                    <P>
                        Sections 1865(a)(1) and 1865(a)(2) of the Act require us, when making this finding, to consider a national AO's “survey procedures” and “. . . its ability to provide adequate resources for conducting required surveys and supplying information for use in enforcement activities, its monitoring procedures for provider entities found out of compliance with the conditions or requirements. . . .” Our longstanding requirements at § 488.4(a)(3) implemented this statutory provision by requiring AOs to provide us with detailed information on their survey processes, and our regulations at § 488.5 and § 488.8 set out the procedures for comparability review. We further discussed AO survey procedures' comparability to our SA survey processes and the SOM in the May 22, 2015 final rule published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        , entitled “Medicare and Medicaid Programs: Revisions to Deeming Authority Survey, Certification, and Enforcement Procedures” (80 FR 29795) (hereinafter referred to as the “2015 AO final rule”). We assess comparability by reviewing the information in the AO's application in light of the SOM survey process requirements for SAs, which implements the survey process requirements found in parts 488 and 489 of our regulations. The role of the SOM is to provide explicit guidance on the process to assess providers' and suppliers' compliance with our regulatory requirements. We do however note, that the AOs are already required to submit the documentation and that most AOs provide this within their applications, therefore we do not believe this imposes any additional burden on the AOs, as this has been a long-standing expectation as described in the preamble of this proposed rule and the 2015 AO final rule (80 FR 29795) which stated that while the explicit reference to the SOM was removed, “this will not change our practice of assessing comparability in light of the SOM survey process requirements for SAs, which implement survey process requirements found in parts 488 and 489 of our regulations governing certification and provider agreements.
                        <PRTPAGE P="12015"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>As previously noted, CMS received 22 AO applications between January 2017 and August 2021. Of those 22 applications, 14 were returned to the AO for revisions to the AO's survey processes and policies, distinct from the finding that all 22 AO's standards were not initially comparable with the Medicare conditions. These required survey process revisions included ensuring all surveys were unannounced in accordance with § 488.5(a)(1)(i), which we discuss in section IV.A of this proposed rule. Other applications were returned for inconsistencies with our patient or representative complaint processing guidance set out in chapter 5 of the SOM. Additionally, among these 22 applications, we identified concerns within the AO survey processes during the on-site survey observations, as authorized under § 488.8(h). The following concerns were noted during the survey observations for these 22 applications:</P>
                    <P>• The survey citations and rationales for citing or not citing “Governing Body” Medicare condition violations (for example, 42 CFR 482.12) were inconsistent with CMS' SA survey methodologies;</P>
                    <P>• The AO's failure to enforce the deadlines by which facilities must come into compliance after receiving adverse survey results;</P>
                    <P>• Conflicting timeframe(s), such as the required number of days required to conduct follow-up activities, including follow-up surveys, for facilities that have previously demonstrated non-compliance at the condition-level; and</P>
                    <P>• Incorrect number of medical records reviews during a survey. (CMS requires that AO surveyors review a specific number of medical records, based on the facilities' patient volume, to ensure the surveyor have an accurate picture of patient care services provided within the facility).</P>
                    <P>CMS' concerns about the failures of AOs to conduct in-depth investigations; the lack of consistency and comparability exhibited by our having to return all received AO applications for corrections in survey standards and processes; the excessive frequency of disparate findings between AOs and SAs, as further explained in section IV.I of this proposed rule; and the failure to review medical records, as required by SA procedures, all strengthen our resolve to ensure consistency in AO performance. Our initial and renewal application reviews are the foundation for our oversight of AOs to determine the AO's ability to ensure facilities adhere to minimum Medicare conditions.</P>
                    <P>Because of these disparities, we propose to strengthen our requirements under § 488.5. We refer readers to our discussion of these proposals found in section IV.F of this proposed rule, that would require AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers to use a survey process that is comparable to the survey processes and procedures used by CMS and the SA. We note that this has been the expectation under the existing requirements, as a condition of obtaining and retaining deeming authority. We propose to increase the specificity of our application and reapplication requirements for national AOs to improve documentation that would demonstrate this comparability.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Proposal To Revise the AO Application Documentation Requirements Related to the Survey Processes (§ 488.5(a)(4); § 488.5(a)(4)(iii); § 488.5(a)(4)(v); § 488.5(a)(4)(vii); § 488.5(a)(4)(xi); § 488.5(a)(5); § 488.5(a)(6); § 488.5(a)(12); § 488.5(a)(13))</HD>
                    <P>To achieve our goal to require the AOs to use a survey process that is comparable to that used by CMS and the SAs (and in alignment with our proposal at § 488.4(a)(2) regarding comparable survey processes), we propose the following revisions and additions to the existing AO application regulation requirements.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Proposed Revisions to § 488.5(a)(4)(Description of Survey Process)</HD>
                    <P>At § 488.5(a)(4), we propose to add language which includes what we believe to be the core fundamental activities of the survey process, such as pre survey preparation; offsite preparation; entrance interview and activities; information gathering and investigation, analysis of information; exit conference; post-survey activities; and statement of deficiencies-related activities. These are processes used by the SA which are needed to ensure that a Medicare-participating provider or supplier receives an unbiased, independent survey.</P>
                    <P>We have observed, both in our on-site observation of AOs during the existing process set out at § 488.8(h), as well as during the VRP pilot conducted 2018 through 2019, that AOs often provided daily briefings to and had frequent discussions with the management of the surveyed facility whose purpose was not clearly described in the AO's applications. We noted that these “meetings” with facility management impeded or did not allow for sufficient time for the survey team to complete survey activities, such as direct observations or interviews.</P>
                    <P>Therefore, the proposal to add the core activities, as well as the revisions outlined below, would further strengthen comparability between SAs and AOs, while continuing to allow for flexibilities in the survey processes used by AOs. These requirements, as revised, shall become applicable beginning [date 1 year after the effective date of the final rule].</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Proposed Revisions to § 488.5(a)(4)(iii) (Documentation of Surveyor Forms and Guidance)</HD>
                    <P>Section 488.5(a)(4)(iii) currently requires that AOs applying for deeming authority provide, among other documentation, copies of the organizations survey forms, guidelines and instructions to surveyors. We propose to be more specific about the level of detail we require from the survey instructions and guidance the AO provides to us when seeking our approval. Specifically, we propose to require detailed information regarding how the AO surveys for facility compliance with the following core activities or standards within the Medicare Conditions, such as: Governing Body; Patient Rights; Emergency Preparedness; Quality Assessment and Performance Improvement; Medical Staff; Nursing Services; Medical Records Services; and Infection Control. These core activities and standards are part of every state survey and based on Medicare Conditions. With respect to each of these survey subject areas, we would require the applying AO to provide documentation on the instructions it provides for surveying these Medicare conditions, including survey probes, interview questions, and methods for their own review of facility documentation pertaining to these Medicare conditions.</P>
                    <P>
                        It has become evident through our validation and comparability reviews of AOs that the documentation we currently request from them no longer suffices to adequately determine whether the AO surveyors are investigating these Medicare conditions sufficiently to ensure the health and safety of Medicare beneficiaries and other patients. AOs have failed to survey adequately for facility compliance with their respective documentation requirements, including specific standards or survey processes. We also propose that AOs submit their patient and staff interview questions. By having access to these questionnaires, we would be able to determine whether there are gaps in the survey processes 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12016"/>
                        which are leading to the disparity findings, as we have seen in our validation surveys.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Proposed Revisions to § 488.5(a)(4)(v) (Survey Review Process)</HD>
                    <P>At § 488.5(a)(4)(v), we propose to add additional areas clarifying and strengthening the requirement that AOs provide a description of their document review processes in their approval applications. We propose to add that AOs must describe processes and surveyor procedures related to the review of medical records, medical staff credentialing procedures; personnel files (including staff competency); and the number of patient observations, patient interviews and staff and facility interviews.</P>
                    <P>We have noticed that many AOs fail to review adequate numbers of records for the provider/supplier type involved. In the review of the 22 AO applications received between 2017 and September 2021, a total of nine AOs were identified to have not reviewed the adequate number or records. Additionally, we have observed that some AO survey practices, such as interviewing patients in non-confidential settings, and deficient complaint investigations, undermine the integrity and accuracy of AO surveys. We are concerned that staff or patients may not be honest and candid if another facility staff member or supervisor is present during interviews. The expectations are that interviews are conducted privately with staff. For example, in Appendix A of the SOM, we explicitly require surveyors to “Explain that all interviews will be conducted privately with patients, staff, and visitors, unless requested otherwise by the interviewee.” Privacy in interviews with staff is important and encourages the likelihood of honest feedback about an organization. Additionally, we also identified a few (three of 22 applications) during our survey observations of AOs onsite, instances in which the AO did not observe actual performance of medication administration, wound care or other services provided by the accredited facility, and most observations within the hospital setting were surgical time-outs (part of the Universal Protocol and performed in the operating room, immediately before the planned procedure is initiated). In one instance, the AO failed to ask the facility for any patient/representative complaint information, which indicates that the AO failed to conduct any investigation as to how the facility manages complaints and grievances. These specific examples raise concern in that the AO survey process does not sufficiently ensure safe practices for patients.</P>
                    <P>Furthermore, as noted in our discussion of proposed § 488.5(a)(4)(iii), we have also identified multiple instances in which the AOs have conducted limited review of facilities' staff credentialing and competency testing activities. For instance, in one survey observation, we observed that the AO reviewed the personnel files of only one licensed practical nurse (LPN) and one phlebotomist, and did not review any personnel files for RNs, pharmacists, or dietitians, as outlined in Appendix A of the SOM, which we consider to be critical staff for this provider setting. In another survey, the AO determined that nursing staff were not documenting chains of custody of narcotic medications, but failed to review the facility's pharmaceutical policies and procedures, and conducted no interviews of pharmacy staff. In such circumstances where a category of documentation was missing from the facility's record, we would mandate that the AO or SA conduct further investigations to determine the reason for the lapse.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Proposed Revision to § 488.5(a)(4)(vii) (Correction of Identified Non-Compliance)</HD>
                    <P>At § 488.5(a)(4)(vii), we propose to add additional language to the existing requirement that the AO must provide us with descriptions of their procedures and timelines for monitoring the provider's or supplier's correction of identified non-compliance with the accreditation program's standards. We believe this requirement is not specific enough for enforcement; we have regularly had to request revisions of documents submitted by AOs during our review of applications and re-applications over the years. We propose to clarify this language by adding the requirement that AOs must also include documentation related to dates established by the AO and how those accreditation dates are determined by the AO when deficiencies may be found during initial and reaccreditation surveys, as well as the AOs process for accreditation decisions based on survey findings. We also propose to require the AOs to provide as part of this standard, their investigative and organizational process which the AO uses to make determinations on accreditation or the removal of accreditation and recommendation to the Survey Operations Group (based out of the various CMS Survey and Enforcement Division Locations) to remove deemed status of the non-compliant facility. We have also proposed additional changes at § 488.5(a)(4)(viii) and refer readers to section IV.G “Proposal to Require AOs to Provide CMS with Survey Findings”, of this proposed rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Proposed Revisions to § 488.5(a)(4)(xi) (AO Training and Education Programs)</HD>
                    <P>At § 488.5(a)(4)(xi), we propose to add a new requirement to require AOs to provide CMS with documentation summarizing their staff training programs, whether web-based or via methods such as Power Point presentations or hard-copy materials, which would provide an overview of how they train surveyors to follow their survey processes, and, where applicable, highlight differences from CMS survey processes. Currently, CMS receives limited training materials the AO provides to its surveyors; therefore, when conducting survey observations as under our authority at § 488.8(h), it is often challenging to understand differences in survey processes. We may receive an AO's printed materials for training and/or downloaded versions of electronic surveyor training platforms; however, these materials vary. These materials indicate that some AOs collect employees' oral evidence for a survey, as opposed to a more document-focused review done by the SAs. AOs' applications do not always provide us with the entire scope of surveyor education the AO provides to its surveyors, therefore challenging our review of comparability. The current regulation at § 488.5(a)(8) only requires the AO to give us “[a] description of the content and frequency of the organization's in-service training it provides to survey personnel.” CMS frequently asks AOs to submit additional training and education materials during the application review processes. Requesting the AOs' staff training programs and documentation as outlined in the proposal will provide CMS with greater enforcement capabilities and allow CMS to assess the AOs' consistency in training against those of required by the SAs. Additionally, because we review AO applications for comparability to CMS survey processes, this additional information would be invaluable to CMS' better understanding of the AOs' survey processes prior to conducting a survey or during the validation or proposed direct observation process, as discussed in sections II.D and IV.K.3 of this proposed rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Proposed Revisions to § 488.5(a)(5) (Composition of Survey Team)</HD>
                    <P>
                        At § 488.5(a)(5), we propose to add requirements which describe the AOs' 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12017"/>
                        minimum criteria for determining the size and composition of survey teams for the facilities they accredit. We propose to require the AO to provide us with documentation describing the criteria or process by which the AOs determines the makeup of their survey teams, based on: (1) the size of the facility to be surveyed, based on average daily census; (2) the complexity of services offered, including outpatient services; (3) the type of survey to be conducted; (4) Whether the facility has special care units or off-site clinics or locations; (5) Whether the facility has a historical pattern of serious deficiencies or complaints; and, (6) Whether new surveyors are to accompany a team as part of their training.
                    </P>
                    <P>Our on-site survey observation of AO surveyors has found some concerning practices. For example, we understand some AOs use time limits on the length of their investigations, which can limit the depth and accuracy of the investigation. One AO also only permitted a 2-day period in which to conduct a survey of a critical access hospital (CAH), whereas the policy of the SA is based on the scope of services provided by the provider, type of survey to be conducted, complexity of services offered and whether the facility has off-site locations. The AO's policies did not allow for flexibility to have the survey exceed 2 days, which would likely not allow for all departments to be surveyed, or in the event of an immediate jeopardy or condition-level non-compliance finding, for an investigation to be conducted. While fortunately no condition-level no-compliance was identified, the strict AO policy on timeframe of survey conflicts with the intent to complete the investigative process and did not allow for flexibility in survey length. It appears based on this example that at least one AO may not be giving considerations to the size and number of outpatient departments or provider-based locations per facility and the need to investigate immediate jeopardy or condition-level non-compliance when deciding on time limits for surveys. Additionally, some AOs have not always ensured surveys are conducted on all off-site locations that are still certified under the main campus or facility CCN as is required for SAs in accordance with Appendix A of the SOM—Survey Protocol, Regulations and Interpretive Guidelines for Hospitals, Survey Protocol, Task 3 (“Information Gathering/Investigation”). This proposed provision would be effective one year following the publication of the final rule.</P>
                    <P>Clarifying these minimum expectations would help AOs meet Medicare conditions and create more consistency between the approaches used by AOs and the SAs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Proposed Revisions to § 488.5(a)(6) (Adequate Number of Surveyors for Size of Facility)</HD>
                    <P>At § 488.5(a)(6), we propose to add language to the existing requirement that requires the AO to provide documentation demonstrating the overall adequacy of the number of the organization's surveyors, including how the organization will increase the size of the overall survey staff to match growth in the number of accredited facilities while maintaining regular re-accreditation intervals for existing accredited facilities. We propose to add language demonstrating that the AO has enough surveyors to ensure that a sufficient amount of time can be allotted to its clients to complete all survey activities.</P>
                    <P>Through our direct observations as part of the application process, we identified several instances in which the scope of document reviews was limited and the content of medical records was not thoroughly reviewed, because it seems the AO surveyors did not have enough time to review records. This may be a systemic issue across AOs. This proposed provision would be effective 1 year following the publication of the final rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">8. Proposed Revisions to § 488.5(a)(12) (Complaint Survey Documentation Requirements)</HD>
                    <P>At § 488.5(a)(12), we propose to add additional elements critical to the AOs' effective investigation of complaints about their client facilities. Specifically, we propose that the AO in its application documents for CMS approval of its deeming authority would also have to include: (1) a description of its process for triaging and categorizing complaints about the surveyed facility; (2) timeframes for responding to complaints and a method to track and trend complaints (for example, frequency of similar complaints, complaint type, etc.) received with respect to the AOs accredited facilities; (3) procedures and persons responsible for the review of plans of corrections; and procedures for follow up if the plans of corrections are not adequate; (4) AO requirements for plans of corrections for standard level deficiencies; (5) follow up survey procedures and monitoring of condition-level findings; (6) procedures for addressing immediate jeopardy deficiencies; and (7) sharing of previous deficiency findings or complaints with survey teams. The existing regulatory requirement for the AO to provide procedures for responding to, and investigating, complaints against accredited facilities, including policies and procedures regarding referrals is insufficient. Of our 19 AO initial and renewal applications received in the past years, CMS has requested additional AO documentation for this particular standard in order to adequately assess the comparability of survey processes. Strengthening the language will bring greater clarity as to the expectations for documents to the AO submitting an initial or renewal application.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">9. Proposed Revisions to Accreditation Decision-Making Policies and Reporting § 488.5(a)(13)</HD>
                    <P>
                        At § 488.5(a)(13), we propose to re-designate existing paragraph (ii) to (iii) and add two new paragraphs at (ii) and (iv). The section currently requires an AO applying or re-applying for deeming authority to provide CMS with a description of its processes for accreditation status decision making. The proposed revision would require the AO to document its specific policies and procedures for reporting accreditation decisions to CMS, including timeframes for notification. Additionally, we propose to require the AO to submit specific documentation describing how it will inform us when one of the facilities they accredit withdraws from accreditation. This communication is necessary since it alerts us that such facility will need to be surveyed by the SA next time. By requesting this additional information related to accreditation decisions made by the AOs, as well as reviewing documentation on how the AO notifies their facilities and CMS and our SAs of a facility withdrawing from the AO, CMS will strengthen the existing requirements and would create a more consistent, uniform review of the AO survey process for comparability. We also believe by requiring this information, we will be able to review the AOs' processes for reporting. Additionally, we will also be able to identify under what circumstances an AO maintains accreditation of a facility versus the potential CMS decision to drop deeming authority. We have found in several instances that even in light of serious health and safety deficiencies and CMS's removal of deeming authority, a facility can still remain accredited, which may provide an untrustworthy perception to the public that the facility has no health and safety concerns. When CMS provides deeming 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12018"/>
                        authority to an AO, the expectation is that its standards meet or exceed Medicare conditions and that surveys are comparable to those of the SAs, which is not the case for accreditation versus deeming. Facilities may voluntarily end their deeming and accreditation from an AO or be involuntarily removed from deeming authority. When this occurs under the deeming process, the facility is placed under the SA's jurisdiction, meaning the SA will survey and monitor the facility for compliance with federal requirements. However, in situations where the facility's deemed status is removed involuntarily for non-compliance, yet the AO continues to accredit the provider, CMS believes the public perception is that these facilities are still meeting or exceeding the requirements for Medicare, which may not be true.
                    </P>
                    <P>Through the establishment of a more rigorous and comprehensive survey process review during the required application and renewal process, our concerns regarding insufficient compliance would be addressed. The proposed additional and revised requirements would ensure a more uniform assessment and improve our evaluation of AO performance to ensure that surveys conducted by AOs are comprehensive and fully examine all Medicare conditions. We also believe that codifying these detailed documentation requirements in regulation would establish a consistent standard across all AOs and would bring uniformity and transparency to the accreditation process.</P>
                    <P>We propose that the provisions clarifying the existing requirements to require AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers to provide us with more detailed descriptions of their survey processes and procedures would become applicable 1 year from the effective date of final rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Proposal To Require AOs To Provide CMS With Survey Findings (§ 488.5(a)(4)(viii))</HD>
                    <P>General AO survey findings are entered into a CMS database known as the Accrediting Organization System for Storing User Recorded Experiences (ASSURE). This database collects general information about the accreditation survey, such as, date, survey findings and severity of problems indicated by the findings. It generally does not include actual survey reports. Currently AOs provide a limited set of data for surveys within the ASSURE database. We use this information in addressing administrative program elements, and in assessing AO performance. While we have the authority to request this information from the AO, we generally do so only when we determine that it is necessary for follow-up. To date, we have not consistently required the AOs to submit copies of their survey reports and related information.</P>
                    <P>We propose to modify § 488.5(a)(4)(viii) to require that AOs provide all survey reports to CMS, which would not be disclosed except as permissible by statute, pursuant to subsection 1865(b) of the Act. AOs would be required to submit a statement that organization agrees to provide with a copy of all survey reports, including but not limited to, initial, re-survey, and complaint survey reports, and/or any other information related to survey activities as CMS may require (including corrective action plans) as part of its initial and renewal applications, or upon CMS request. The proposed revision to § 488.5(a)(4)(viii) would expand the requirement from the current requirement that AOs provide survey reports from applicants seeking initial participation in Medicare (with other surveys only upon request). Under our proposal, we would have access to any survey reports, including initial, reaccreditation, complaint surveys, and corrective action plans that CMS may require. These reports, like those of survey agencies, would assist CMS in program analysis of tracking citations issued to accredited facilities to determine whether there is a concern with an AO's performance. Similarly, these reports would assist in reviewing disparate findings in which the SA may have cited a deficiency within an accredited facility that the AO failed to recognize.</P>
                    <P>Current §§ 488.5(a)(4)(viii) and 488.5(a)(11)(ii) allow CMS to receive copies of the AOs' survey reports. However, CMS is prohibited by section 1865(b) of the Act as well as § 488.7(b) from disclosing these surveys to the public, with the exception that CMS may disclose such a survey and related information to the extent that they are from home health agencies, or hospice programs, or pertain to an enforcement action taken by CMS. Furthermore, the stem statement of § 488.7 requires that a Medicare participating provider or supplier, in accordance with § 488.4, must authorize its respective AO to release to CMS a copy of its most current accreditation survey including corrective action plans and any information related to the survey that CMS may require.” Section 488.7(b) further provides that CMS may publicly disclose an accreditation survey and information related to the survey, upon written request, but only to the extent that the accreditation survey and survey information are related to an enforcement action taken by CMS.</P>
                    <P>CMS has the authority under section 1875(b) of the Act as well as regulations at § 488.8(a)(1) to evaluate the performance of the AOs through review of the organizations' survey activity. Through consistent access to AO survey findings CMS would enhance our ability to analyze survey findings and process, identify emerging quality of care issues and patterns in AO survey findings, and, ultimately, improve care for our beneficiaries.</P>
                    <P>As the proposal for revision to § 488.5(a)(4)(viii) is being made in connection with our proposal to require the AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers to use the proposed revised comparable survey processes and procedures, we propose that the revisions to § 488.5(a)(4)(viii) become applicable 1 year from the effective date of the final rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Proposal To Require That AO Surveyors Must Take the CMS Online Surveyor Basic Training</HD>
                    <P>Prior to 2006, CMS offered basic surveyor training courses in a traditional in-person classroom setting. Over time, we began providing online basic surveyor training courses for each provider and supplier type (ambulatory surgical centers (ASCs), hospitals, home health agencies (HHAs), etc.), as well as training specific to writing skills for surveyor documentation.</P>
                    <P>Basic training online courses are designed to provide surveyors with the basic knowledge and skills needed to survey the respective provider or supplier type for compliance with the Medicare conditions. The online courses also help develop and refine surveying skills, foster an understanding of the survey process, and enhance surveyors' overall ability to conduct and document surveys. Courses are self-paced web-based training. Users may access the online courses at any time and have ongoing access to the course. This affords surveyors the opportunity to refresh knowledge regarding Medicare conditions and processes whenever necessary. The numbers of learners trained in online courses have been steadily increasing since their inception.</P>
                    <P>
                        Currently, the trainings are publicly available through the CMS Quality, Safety &amp; Education Portal (QSEP) website at 
                        <E T="03">https://qsep.cms.gov.</E>
                         These trainings are free of charge for AO surveyors and the public at large.
                        <PRTPAGE P="12019"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>SA surveyors are required to take CMS program-specific trainings along with SA-led orientation, field survey observations, and mentoring as part of a comprehensive training and education program to assure an adequately trained, effective surveyor workforce.</P>
                    <P>SAs perform validation surveys on a sample of providers and suppliers (such as hospitals, CAHs, ASCs, and HHAs) accredited by the AOs. Validation surveys compare the survey findings of the AO to those of the SA to see if there are any disparities. The disparities found between an AO's surveys and an SA's surveys is used in a performance measure called the “disparity rate” and is tracked by CMS as an indication of the quality of the surveys performed by the AO as described earlier in this proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        The disparity findings between AO surveyors and SA surveyors may, in part, be attributed to differences in surveyor training and education, which varies from AO to AO, and may be inconsistent with the CMS-provided SA surveyor training discussed earlier in this proposed rule.
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         We further believe that uniform surveyor training would increase the consistency between the results of the surveys performed by SAs and AOs, and have a positive impact on the historically high disparity rates. The Fiscal Year 2020 “Report to Congress: Review of Medicare's Program Oversight of Accrediting Organizations (AOs) and the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA) Validation Program,” 
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         showed variation in overall disparity rates, by provider type, as well as by the AO. For example, the disparity rate from FY 2018 to FY 2019, hospitals, HHAs and ASCs had the only decreases in disparity rates of all the program types, with a 5-percentage point, 11-percentage point and 7-percentage point decrease respectively. The disparity rates for psychiatric hospitals increased by 7-percentage points from FYs 2018 to 2019. The disparity rates for CAHs and hospices increased by 5-percentage points and 3-percentage points respectively from FY 2018 to FY 2019. On November 4, 2021, we published a final rule in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        , entitled, “Medicare and Medicaid Programs; CY 2022 Home Health Prospective Payment System Rate Update” (86 FR 62240). In that final rule, we finalized implementing regulations to require AO surveyors to have successfully completed the relevant CMS-sponsored basic hospice surveyor training prior to conducting any hospice program surveys in accordance with Division CC, section 407 of the Consolidated Appropriations Act of 2021 (CAA 2021) .
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://qsep.cms.gov</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             The most recent Report to Congress may be accessed at: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/files/document/qso-22-06-ao-clia.pdf</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In addition to the recent hospice program surveyor training requirements, we propose to amend the provision at § 488.5(a)(8) by adding new paragraphs (a)(8)(i) to (a)(8)(iv), which would impose a new training requirement on those surveyors working for AOs that accredit Medicare-certified provider and suppliers. We note that we had previously made a similar proposal in the calendar year (CY) 2019 Home Health Prospective Payment System Rate Update proposed rule (83 FR 32470, July 12, 2018). However, we did not finalize this proposal, due to commenters' concerns with course enrollment access and the amount of time we estimated it would require for an AO surveyor to complete the course.</P>
                    <P>CMS believes the concerns raised by interested parties during the previous proposed rule comment period have been addressed by narrowing the scope of the required training and providing additional details regarding implementation. Therefore, we are again making this proposal to address the consistency of surveyor knowledge and interpretation, since we propose to require the AOs to use Medicare conditions and survey processes. We describe the courses required as well as the estimated time for each in section VI of this proposed rule. We propose at § 488.5(a)(8) a description of the content and frequency of the organization's in-service training it provides to survey personnel and we would also require AOs to submit their training materials to CMS as part of the application process. We additionally propose at § 488.5(a)(8)(i) to require that all AO surveyors complete two CMS mandatory courses which instruct surveyors, for all facility types, how to document their findings in the standardized survey materials. We would also require AO surveyors to complete all relevant CMS online program-specific basic surveyor training, which we have already established for state and federal surveyors. For example, AO hospital surveyors would be required to take the following CMS online courses: (1) Principles of Documentation for Non-Long-Term Care; (2) Basic Writing Skills for Surveyor Staff; (3) and, Hospital Basic Training. A hospice surveyor would take the Principles of Documentation for Non-Long-Term Care; Basic Writing Skills for Surveyor Staff; and Hospice Basic Training courses. If an AO surveyor participates in both hospital and hospice surveys they would take the two documentation courses and the two basic training courses. These courses would be the minimum mandatory requirements for AO surveyors. In addition, we would also require that all AO surveyors would be required to take any updates to the CMS online surveyor courses when necessary. Any training above and beyond the minimum CMS online surveyor courses would be at the AO's discretion.</P>
                    <P>We propose at § 488.5(a)(8)(ii), that AO surveyors hired after the date of implementation of this provision would be required to complete the required CMS online surveyor training courses prior to serving on a survey team (except as a trainee). A time requirement is necessary to ensure that the AO surveyors take the CMS online surveyor training in a timely manner and is consistent with the existing hospice program surveyor training requirements at 42 CFR 488.1115(a).</P>
                    <P>We propose at § 488.5(a)(8)(iii) that AOs would also be required to document that the CMS online surveyor training courses were completed and the date of completion in the surveyor's staff personnel records. The purpose of this requirement would be to allow the AO and CMS to have records that document that the requirements had been met by each surveyor. We would review these training records during our onsite visit to the AO's office that is performed as part of the initial and renewal application process. We further propose at § 488.5(a)(8)(iii) to require that the AOs maintain this documentation of course completion by each surveyor for no less than one accreditation cycle, so we can verify that AO surveyors had completed the online courses as part of the AO's next renewal application process. One accreditation cycle would be defined as the period of time during which the AOs' CMS approval is in effect, starting from the date of application approval and continuing until the date of approval of the next renewal application.</P>
                    <P>This proposed requirement aligns with and expands upon recent regulations that require hospice program AO surveyors to successfully complete the CMS online Basic Hospice Surveyor Training prior to performing any hospice program surveys.</P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, we propose at § 488.5(a)(8)(iv) that the provisions proposed at §§ 488.5(a)(8)(i) through (a)(8)(iv) would be applicable beginning 1 year after the effective date of the final rule.
                        <PRTPAGE P="12020"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Proposal To Establish Criteria for “National in Scope” (§ 488.1)</HD>
                    <P>
                        On April 5, 2013, we published a proposed rule in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         entitled, “Medicare and Medicaid Programs; Survey, Certification, and Enforcement Procedures” (78 FR 20564), hereinafter referred to as “2013 AO oversight proposed rule”, which proposed modifications to the CMS AO oversight regulations. In the 2013 AO oversight proposed rule, we stated that the demonstration of “national in scope” by an AO must be specific to each accrediting program for which new or renewed CMS approval is sought. We also proposed to define “national accreditation organization” in § 488.1 to specify that CMS requires an AO program seeking initial approval to “already be fully implemented and operational nationally” (78 FR 20566). However, in the 2015 AO final rule (80 FR 29796), we finalized the policy that we would not require an AO to reach facility minimums or meet specific geographic distribution requirements to be deemed “national in scope” (80 FR 29802). We did this because we believed AOs should be able to demonstrate the ability to scale over time.
                    </P>
                    <P>Currently, we require that an AO's accreditation program be national in scope in order to receive CMS approval. However, we have never specified objective criteria for “national in scope” in regulations. Therefore, as the number of AOs (and the number of applications from AOs) grow, it is in the best interest of CMS and the AOs to establish specific criteria to define “national in scope.” Establishing a specific definition and criteria for what CMS would consider to constitute widely located geographically across the United States (U.S.) would ensure that CMS is objective and consistent during the AO application review process when making a determination as to whether an AO's accreditation program is, in fact, national in scope. This would further ensure that new AOs, submitting applications for deeming authority, are represented across the nation and not clustered within one area of the country. Furthermore, this also provides an opportunity for facilities to choose any AO with a CMS-recognized accreditation program for its provider/supplier type, versus only having one AO to choose.</P>
                    <P>Therefore, we propose to add a definition for “National in scope,” to the CMS regulations at § 488.1 to establish criteria for determining when an AO's accreditation program meets the requirement. We propose that the definition, “National in scope” would mean that the providers and suppliers accredited by an AO under a specific accreditation program, must be widely located geographically across the U.S. The proposed requirement for “national in scope” would have two components. First, the AO would be required to have accredited at least five providers or suppliers under the accreditation program in question. Second, the five providers or suppliers accredited by the AO under that accreditation program would have to be geographically located in at least five out of the six geographic regions.</P>
                    <P>The addition of the proposed definition of “National in scope”, requires that we also define the term “geographic regions of the U.S.”, because this is a component of the definition of “National in scope.” Therefore, we propose to add a definition for “Geographic regions” at § 488.1.</P>
                    <P>The proposed six geographic regions consist of six groups of states that cover the northeast, southeast, mid-west, central, south, and western areas of the United States which provide six possible areas in which an AO could accredit a provider or supplier to meet the second part of the “national in scope” test. In contrast, the use of a simple north, south, east and west geographical division of the U.S. would only provide four possible regions in which an AO have accredited providers and suppliers.</P>
                    <P>
                        We believe that use of these six geographic regions as the geographical test for “national in scope” would provide a standard by which CMS could measure whether an AO has accredited the required number of health care providers or suppliers in varying geographical areas of the U.S. We further believe the requirement that an AO have one provider or supplier in at least five of the six geographic regions would demonstrate the AO's ability to scale up and develop a national presence over time and align with CMS' current consortiums or regions.
                        <SU>13</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         AOs would need to be able to demonstrate this standard in their initial applications for deeming authority, as well as continue to meet this definition, which would be evaluated within their renewal applications.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>13</SU>
                             CMS Organizational Chart, Page 17, Survey Operations Group 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/About-CMS/Agency-Information/CMSLeadership/Downloads/CMS_Organizational_Chart.pdf</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>We also believe that this proposed definition of “Geographic regions” would ensure that we are impartial and consistent during the application review process. We also believe that this proposed definition would provide the AOs with objective criteria for the definition of “national in scope” that they can strive to meet prior to submitting an application, especially for possible new accrediting programs.</P>
                    <P>We note that § 488.1 currently defines “national accrediting organization” as “an organization that accredits provider entities (as that term is defined in section 1865(a)(4) of the Act) under a specific program and whose accredited providers and suppliers are widely located geographically across the U.S.” Because we proposed to add a specific definition for “National in scope” to § 488.1, that requires a two-part test, it is also necessary to update the definition of “National accrediting organization” to add the requirement that the AO must be national in scope.</P>
                    <P>This would ensure that new AOs submitting applications for Medicare approval of their accreditation programs, would be required to show that they have the ability to provide accreditation services to providers and suppliers across the nation and not just those clustered within one area of the country. Making it a requirement that AOs be capable of providing accreditation services throughout the U.S. provides the opportunity to health care providers and suppliers in all regions of the U.S. to obtain deeming accreditation from the AO of their choice.</P>
                    <P>
                        Therefore, we propose to revise the existing definition of “National accrediting organization” at § 488.1. The proposed new definition of “National accrediting organization” would read as follows “
                        <E T="03">National accrediting organization</E>
                         means an accrediting organization that is national in scope and accredits provider or suppliers, under a specific accreditation program.”
                    </P>
                    <P>We propose to add the new definition for “National accrediting organization” so that we can include the phrase “is national in scope” within the said definition. The purpose for revising the definition of “National accrediting organization” is to enforce national in scope requirement for AOs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">J. Proposal To Revise the Definition of “Rate of Disparity” and To Use the Process and Outcome Disparity Rates and Performance Measures (§ 488.1)</HD>
                    <P>
                        In section IV.L of this proposed rule, we propose to revise the validation program by using two different types of validation surveys, which are: (1) the 60-day “look-back” validation survey and, (2) and a direct survey observation approach, to evaluate the performance of the AOs. Validation surveys are full surveys performed for a representative 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12021"/>
                        sample of accredited facilities. Look-back validation surveys are completed by the SA within 60 days of an AO's full accreditation survey for the same facility. In some cases, representative sample “mid-cycle validation surveys” may be conducted whether or not there has been a preceding AO survey.
                    </P>
                    <P>The analysis of the validation survey findings are reported as a “disparity rate.” As previously discussed in section II.C of this proposed rule, this rate of disparity is currently defined at § 488.1 as the percentage of all sample validation surveys for which a SA finds noncompliance with one or more Medicare conditions and where no comparable condition-level deficiency was cited by the AO and it is reasonable to conclude that the deficiencies were present at the time of the AO's most recent survey of that provider or supplier. The goal of the validation process is to determine whether the findings of the two surveys are comparable.</P>
                    <P>In calculating the current rate of disparity, the numerator is the number of surveys in which the AO missed at least one condition-level deficiency found by the SA and the denominator is the number of surveys in the validation sample. The result is the percentage of validation surveys where the AO missed finding a significant deficiency identified by the SA. If the AO missed at least one serious deficiency in a third of the validation surveys, the disparity rate would be 33 percent. A lower disparity rate indicates better AO performance.</P>
                    <P>The existing definition of “rate of disparity” is not applicable to the direct observation validation survey because it focuses on the survey process as opposed to outcome of the survey. Therefore, we propose to revise the current definition of “rate of disparity” located at § 488.1 and replace this definition with two new definitions, which are “outcome disparity rate” and “process disparity rate.”</P>
                    <P>The outcome disparity rate would be applicable to the look-back validation survey, which is the current method of validation. We propose that the new definition of “outcome disparity rate” would generally remain as the existing definition of “rate of disparity” at § 488.1, but would be revised and retitled as “outcome disparity rate” to distinguish it from the “process disparity rate.”</P>
                    <P>When calculating the process disparity rate, the numerator for one provider or supplier for which the direct observation validation survey is done would be the number of observed survey process findings and the denominator would be the number of expected survey process findings for all direct observation validation surveys. The observed survey process findings are the actual number of Medicare conditions that were observed being surveyed for by the AO. The expected survey process findings are the total number of Medicare conditions that the AO should have surveyed for during the survey observation. The result would be reported as a percentage. A high percentage indicates greater disparity between the expected AO performance on direct observation validation survey and the actual AO performance on the direct observation validation survey. For example, a direct observation validation survey with 75 observed process findings out of 100 expected process findings would yield a process disparity rate of 25 percent [((100−75) ÷ 100) * 100], indicating a 25 percent difference between what is observed and what is expected (See Figure 1).</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="190">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.002</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>The proposed process disparity rate would be applicable to the direct observation validation survey and would be defined as the difference between the observed survey process findings and the expected survey process findings.</P>
                    <P>The overall process disparity rate for a particular AO would be calculated by taking the average of the process disparity rate for each direct observation validation survey performed for an accreditation program of an AO. Preliminary results obtained from the VRP pilot during the period of June 2018 to July 2019 are shown in Figure 2. While we will analyze and explain the pilot data when more is available, we share preliminary data here as a sample of how the process disparity rate would be calculated if this proposed rule is finalized as proposed.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="202">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12022"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.003</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>The outcome disparity rate measure would also be a component of evaluating AO performance. We have been measuring the outcome disparity rate as a performance measure for years and have historical data to share. This measure would comprise any look-back validation survey condition level findings made by the SA that had not been identified by the AO during their reaccreditation survey, where it is reasonable to conclude that these deficiencies were present when the AO performed the survey (see Figure 3). </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="235">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.004</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>In addition to reporting the overall disparity between the outcomes found by both the AO and SA, the differences between the observed and expected survey processes would also be reported as the process disparity rate.</P>
                    <P>In FY 2019, we found that 42 percent of the state validation look-back validation surveys performed for hospitals, the AO did not cite a comparable deficiency to those cited by the SA. The proposed definition of new process disparity rate would showcase the average percent difference between the observed survey process findings and the expected survey process findings, by provider type.</P>
                    <P>Figure 4 provides the FY 2020 outcome disparity rate for Medicare provider types as reported in the January 2021 Report to Congress. </P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12023"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.005</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>
                        We note that the average disparity rate across all Medicare provider types is 32 percent, based on the most recent data, with the largest disparity rate being 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12024"/>
                        CAHs' accreditation surveys, at 46 percent. By continuing to monitor outcome disparities, and further investment in our methodologies for measuring process disparities would help to bring AOs up to the standards of SAs.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">K. Proposal To Require AOs To Submit a Publicly Reportable Plan of Correction for Unacceptable Performance Measure Scores (§ 488.8(a)(2))</HD>
                    <P>In section IV.J of this proposed rule, we proposed to revise the definition of “disparity rate” to include a process and outcome disparity rates. We noted that the proposed definition of outcome disparity rate generally remains the same as the currently defined definition of disparity rate. We further noted that we have been measuring the outcome disparity rate as a performance measure for years. We would note that we would use the new process disparity rate as a performance measure.</P>
                    <P>To monitor an AO's ongoing performance as provided by section 1875(b) of the Act and § 488.8, we propose in paragraph (a)(2) to expand the types of validation activities included in the performance review. We also propose in paragraph (a)(4) to require AOs to submit a plan of correction that would be publicly reported, when the AO's performance on survey activities identify disparity concerns either through the outcome disparity rates or process disparity rates.</P>
                    <P>We propose to revise § 488.8(a)(2) to broaden activities that CMS would evaluate in our ongoing review of AOs. Specifically, we would monitor the results of our outcome disparity rate, the look-back validation surveys, complaint surveys and the process disparity rate as determined by the direct observation survey.</P>
                    <P>We propose to revise § 488.8(a)(4) to require that when an AO's outcome disparity or process disparity performance measure scores, as determined from look-back and direct observation validation surveys, reveal that the AO's accreditation survey activities do not meet an acceptable performance threshold established by CMS, the AO would be required to submit an acceptable plan of correction to CMS which identified corrective action the AO proposed to take to correct their performance.</P>
                    <P>We propose at § 488.8(a)(4)(i), to require that the plan of correction be submitted to CMS for review within 10 business days the AO being notified by CMS of not meeting the acceptable performance threshold. We also propose that in order to be acceptable, the AO's plan of correction would have to: (1) document specific actions being taken by the AO to address improving performance (proposed § 488.8(a)(4)(i)(A); (2) document the timeframe for implementation of the plan (proposed § 488.8(a)(4)(i)(B)); (3) plan for ongoing monitoring of the plan of correction toward achieving an acceptable level of performance (proposed § 488.8(a)(4)(i)(C); and, (4) identify the individual responsible for implementation and monitoring of the acceptable plan of correction (§ 488.8(a)(4)(i)(D)).</P>
                    <P>CMS would subsequently communicate with the AO on the acceptability of the plan of correction and would provide oversight of implementation. We propose at § 488.8(a)(4)(ii) that upon review and approval of the submitted plan of correction, CMS would provide ongoing evaluation of the progress of plan implementation.</P>
                    <P>Finally, we propose at § 488.8(a)(4)(iii) that the AO's plan of correction be made subject to public reporting by CMS. Once approved, the plan of correction would be publicly available for review. This means that the acceptable plan of correction would be displayed publicly by CMS once approved. This plan of correction would be utilized to increase an AO's accountability for maintaining performance standards.</P>
                    <P>The purpose of this oversight is to improve AO survey activity outcome and processes with the presumption that improvements toward acceptable performance would improve the health and safety of patients receiving services in Medicare-participating facilities. This is an effort to strengthen AO oversight by requiring AOs to address issues and take corrective action to improve to an acceptable level of performance. Previously, this was handled verbally or through written correspondence between the AO and CMS staff without a specific plan of correction.</P>
                    <P>The proposed publicly reportable plan of correction would be based on both an analysis of data to identify the outcome and process disparity performance measure(s) for which the AO did not meet acceptable performance as well as significant instances of disparity. An analysis matrix would outline both outcome performance and process performance areas of successful achievement and those areas for which achievement was less than acceptable as demonstrated by the outcome and process disparity rate data. An example of what a plan of correction matrix might look like is indicated in Figure 5.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="298">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12025"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.006</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>The matrix in Figure 5 is representative of FY 2018 data collected during the direct observation validation surveys, look-back validation surveys, and complaint surveys (which investigates specific allegations) conducted by the SA at AO facilities. If deficiencies were cited first by the AO and validated by the SA during a look-back or complaint survey this is considered an outcomes match. If the AO survey process under direct observation by the SA did not raise concerns, this indicates a positive outcome and positive process, which are represented in the top left box. The top right and bottom left boxes indicate where improvements need to be made in either the process or outcome of the respective Medicare condition, also known as CoP, while the bottom right box shows where improvements in both measures should be made.</P>
                    <P>The AO would be able to use this matrix to identify if the less than acceptable performance is either outcome-focused, process-focused, or both. The proposed plan of correction would be required to be submitted to CMS within 10-business days following CMS' notification to the AO of less than acceptable performance, and would have to address the areas of improvement and the specific actions to be taken by the AO to improve those areas on a sustainable basis.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">L. Proposal To Revise the AO Survey Validation Program (§ 488.9)</HD>
                    <P>Prior to discussing our proposed changes below, the following provides (1) background on validation surveys, (2) background on look-back validation surveys, and (3) background on additional approaches to conduct validation surveys, before (4) introducing CMS' proposed changes.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Background on Validation Surveys</HD>
                    <P>Section 1864(c) of the Act permits the SAs to perform validation surveys of provider and supplier types deemed for Medicare participation under section 1865(a) of the Act as a means of validating the AOs' accreditation processes. The accreditation validation program is one component of CMS' oversight of AOs with approved Medicare accreditation programs, and consists of two types of validation surveys:</P>
                    <P>• Complaint surveys—focused surveys based on complaints, which, if substantiated, could indicate serious non-compliance with one or more Medicare conditions; and</P>
                    <P>• Validation surveys—full surveys, which are routinely performed for a representative sample of deemed facilities as part of the annual CMS-AO representative sample validation survey program. These surveys are completed by the SA within 60 days of an AO full accreditation survey for the same facility.</P>
                    <P>
                        Prior to 2007, section 1875 of the Act required CMS to report to Congress annually only on the Joint Commission's (TJC's) hospital accreditation program.
                        <SU>14</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In FY 2007, we expanded this oversight and began conducting 60-day representative sample validation surveys for selected non-hospital facility types (CAHs, HHAs and ASCs), in addition to those already being performed for deemed status hospitals. In FY 2010, hospice look-back validation surveys were added, and in FY 2011, psychiatric hospital 60-day validation surveys were added. In FY 2019, we conducted a total of 315 representative sample look-back validation surveys for six facility types across AOs.
                        <SU>15</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This total comprised of 119 hospital surveys (including 20 psychiatric hospitals) and 196 non-hospital validation surveys. (See Graph 1.)
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>14</SU>
                             Section 125(b)(4) of Public Law 110-275 (2008), which was subsequently revised to apply to all AOs.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>15</SU>
                             Outpatient physical therapy and rural health clinics were not part of the validation sample.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="226">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12026"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.007</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="260">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.008</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Since 2007, CMS has worked to strengthen its oversight of AOs and increase the number of validation surveys. The recent history of validation survey samples is as follows:</P>
                    <P>2015: 118 hospital and 240 non-hospital surveys totaling 358 surveys.</P>
                    <P>2016: 119 hospital and 254 non-hospital surveys totaling 373 surveys.</P>
                    <P>2017: 116 hospital and 244 non-hospital surveys totaling 360 surveys.</P>
                    <P>2018: 128 hospital and 188 non-hospital surveys totaling 316 surveys.</P>
                    <P>2019: 119 hospital and 196 non-hospital surveys totaling 315 surveys.</P>
                    <P>These numbers represent a 250 percent increase in the overall number of validation surveys conducted, from 90 in FY 2007 to 315 in FY 2019. During the same time period, the number of non-hospital validation surveys conducted increased by 460 percent, from 35 surveys in FY 2007 to 196 surveys in FY 2019. The number of hospital validation surveys conducted increased by 116 percent, from 55 surveys in FY 2007 to 119 surveys in FY 2019.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Background on Look-Back Validation Surveys</HD>
                    <P>
                        The purpose of look-back validation surveys of deemed providers or suppliers is to assess the AO's ability to ensure compliance with Medicare conditions. These surveys are on-site full surveys completed by SA surveyors no later than 60 days after the end date of an AO's Medicare accreditation program full survey. The SA performs these surveys without any knowledge of the findings of the AO's accreditation survey. CMS determines the number of look-back validation surveys to perform 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12027"/>
                        for each AO based on its total number of facilities, as well as the overall budgeted validation survey targets, by state and facility type.
                    </P>
                    <P>The proportion of look-back surveys completed for deemed facilities is calculated by dividing the number of look-back validation surveys conducted by the total number of deemed facilities. The proportion of deemed facilities that received a look-back validation survey in FY 2019 is as follows:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hospitals:</E>
                         Three percent of deemed hospitals received a validation survey in FY 2019 (99 validation surveys conducted out of 3,332 deemed facilities).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Psychiatric Hospitals:</E>
                         Four percent of deemed psychiatric hospitals received a validation survey in FY 2019 (20 validation surveys conducted out of 466 deemed facilities).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">CAHs:</E>
                         Three percent of deemed CAHs received a validation survey in FY 2019 (13 validation surveys conducted out of 449 deemed facilities).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">HHAs:</E>
                         Two percent of deemed HHAs received a validation survey in FY 2019 (84 validation surveys conducted out of 4,034 deemed facilities).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hospices:</E>
                         One percent of deemed hospices received a validation survey in FY 2019 (32 validation surveys conducted out of 2,458 deemed facilities).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">ASCs:</E>
                         Four percent of deemed ASCs received a validation survey in FY 2019 (67 validation surveys conducted out of 1,803 deemed facilities).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Background on Additional Approaches To Conducting Validation Surveys</HD>
                    <P>Over the years, we have looked for ways to improve the validation survey process and the disparity rate methodology. As discussed earlier in this proposed rule, the disparity rate for various provider types ranged between 8 percent for HHAs and 46 percent for CAHs.</P>
                    <P>To address concerns about high disparity rates, CMS has been testing a VRP pilot since 2018. In the VRP pilot, instead of the separate look-back validation survey, a direct observation of the AOs survey by is performed. During the direct observation validation survey, the SA surveyors are present when the AO surveyors perform an accreditation survey, so that they can directly observe and evaluate the ability to the AO surveyors to assess compliance with the Medicare conditions. The purpose of this direct observation is to evaluate, in real time, the AO performance on the survey process. The real time observation of the survey allows the SA surveyors to make suggested improvements and address any concerns with AOs immediately.</P>
                    <P>From June 2018 through August 2019, CMS conducted a total of 30 VRP pilot surveys in 17 states in the acute care hospital program (11), ASC program (10), psychiatric hospital program (3), HHA program (5) and hospice program (1). This proposed direct observation validation process has yielded additional information about the extent to which the AO's process meets or exceeds the survey process used by the SA surveyors. Our preliminary findings from our VRP pilot surveys include the following:</P>
                    <P>• Certain AOs have rigid survey schedules that prove to be burdensome to the SA observers while onsite.</P>
                    <P>• AOs have strict timeframes for each section of the survey to which they adhere, regardless of the findings or need to further investigate an issue within a facility.</P>
                    <P>• Not all AOs survey offsite locations consistently for all portions of the survey.</P>
                    <P>• Certain AO survey methodology favored a “yes/no,” “have/don't have” format versus a more in-depth investigative approach.</P>
                    <P>• Verbal assertion was considered adequate evidence of compliance without verification via observations and/or document review.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Proposal To Revise the Existing AO Survey Validation Program (Proposed Revisions to § 488.9)</HD>
                    <P>We propose to revise the validation program by using two different types of validation surveys, which are: (1) the look-back validation survey and, (2) and a direct observation validation survey approach, to evaluate the performance of the AOs. We propose that direct observation surveys can be performed by the SA or CMS surveyors.</P>
                    <P>We will also be looking at programmatic adjustments to the look-back validation survey to address some of the concerns stakeholders have raised, to focus on key quality concerns, and to reduce provider burden. These programmatic changes do not require a regulatory change and are under development.</P>
                    <P>Specifically, we propose at § 488.9(b) to revise the types of validations surveys. We will continue using the existing look-back validation survey, through use of a sample of facilities in each program type, which would take place within 60 days following the AO surveys. These 60-day validation surveys are referred to as look-back-validation surveys. As discussed above, we are planning to make additional programmatic adjustments to the existing look-back validation survey process to address the scope of the review and provider burden. Those adjustments would not require a regulatory change and are under development.</P>
                    <P>We propose at § 488.9(b)(2) to require validation using the direct observation validation survey, which focuses on real-time observation and evaluation of the AOs survey process. At § 488.9(c) we propose the rules for look-back validation surveys. At § 488.9(d) we propose the rules for selection for look-back validation surveys. More specifically, proposed § 488.9(d)(1) would provide that “a provider or supplier selected for a look-back validation survey must cooperate with the SA that performs the look-back validation survey.” We propose at § 488.9(d)(2) that “if a provider or supplier selected for a look-back validation survey fails to cooperate with the SA, it will no longer be deemed to meet the Medicare conditions or requirements, will be subject to a review in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, and may be subject to termination of its provider agreement under § 489.53 of this chapter.”</P>
                    <P>
                        At § 488.9(e), we propose the rules for the direct observation validation surveys. These rules would include the following: (1) All direct observation validation surveys will be unannounced to the AO and the facility being surveyed (proposed § 488.9(e)(1)); (2) The SA or CMS surveyors will generally be assigned to the AO surveyors on a 1:1 basis, matching the experience of the accreditation surveyor where possible, and using the CMS approved standards and processes to determine compliance with the Medicare conditions (proposed § 488.9(e)(2)); (3) the SA surveyors will observe the AO survey in accordance with CMS established policies and procedures and will report the findings directly to CMS (proposed § 488.9(e)(3)); and, (4) where the SA or CMS surveyors disagree with the findings of the AO surveyors, and these differences cannot be reconciled, CMS will render a final decision (proposed § 488.9(e)(4)). This finding would not be appealable pursuant to 42 CFR 498.3(d)(1), which provides that administrative actions that are not initial determination (and therefore not subject to appeal under this part) are not appealable. Specifically, the findings that a provider or supplier determined to be in compliance with the conditions or requirements for participation or for coverage has deficiencies is such a non-appealable administrative action.
                        <PRTPAGE P="12028"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>At proposed § 488.9(f), we propose circumstances in which an accredited provider or supplier would be deemed to have not met the applicable Medicare conditions or requirements, such as if: (1) the provider or supplier refuses to authorize its AO to release a copy of their current accreditation survey to CMS (proposed § 488.9(f)(1)); (2) the provider or supplier refuses to allow a validation survey (for either look-back or direct observation validation surveys) (proposed § 488.9(f)(2)); or (3) CMS finds that the provider or supplier does not meet the applicable Medicare condition (also known as CoP, CfC, conditions of certification, or requirements) (proposed § 488.9(f)(3)).</P>
                    <P>At § 488.9(g), we propose the consequences for non-compliance. At § 488.9(g)(1), we propose that if a CMS validation look-back or direct observation validation survey results in a finding that the provider or supplier is out of compliance with one or more Medicare conditions, deemed status may be removed by CMS and the provider or supplier will be subject to ongoing review by the SA or CMS (in accordance with § 488.10(d)) until the provider or supplier demonstrates compliance. At proposed § 488.9(g)(2), we propose that CMS may take actions for the deficiencies identified in the in accordance with § 488.24, or may first direct the SA or CMS surveyors to conduct another survey of the provider's or supplier's compliance with specified Medicare conditions or requirements before taking the enforcement actions provided for at § 488.24. At proposed § 488.9(g)(3), we propose that if CMS determines that a provider or supplier is not in compliance with applicable Medicare conditions or requirements, the provider may be subject to termination of the provider agreement and any other applicable intermediate sanctions and remedies.</P>
                    <P>At proposed § 488.9(h), we propose the re-instatement of the deemed status of a provider or supplier. An accredited provider or supplier would be deemed to meet the applicable Medicare conditions or requirements in accordance with this section if any of the requirements are met, as applicable:</P>
                    <P>• It withdraws any prior refusal to authorize its AO to release a copy of the provider's or supplier's current accreditation survey (proposed § 488.9(h)(1)).</P>
                    <P>• It withdraws any prior refusal to allow a look-back or direct observation validation survey, if applicable (proposed § 488.9(h)(2)).</P>
                    <P>• CMS finds that the provider or supplier meets all applicable Medicare CoP, CfC, conditions of certification, or requirements (proposed § 488.9(h)(3)).</P>
                    <P>At proposed § 488.9(i), we propose that the existence of any performance review, comparability review, deemed status review, probationary period, or any other action by CMS, does not affect or limit CMS in conducting any subsequent validation survey.</P>
                    <P>By providing a flexible approach to the validation process, this could reduce provider burden by reducing the frequency with which CMS would perform validation using the look-back validation survey method in which CMS performs a look-back validation survey within 60 days of the end date of the AOs accreditation survey. This would reduce the number of times that health care providers would have to undergo two full surveys within a 60-day period. We further believe this approach broadens the validation program activities and would be welcomed by both the AOs and the providers and suppliers.</P>
                    <P>We propose that our proposals to revise the validation process by adding direct observation validation surveys and our proposed revisions to § 488.9 would be applicable 60 days after the effective date of the final rule.</P>
                    <P>We also propose that the direct observation surveys may be performed by not only the SA but also by CMS surveyors. This allows for flexibility and expediency in the performance of these validation surveys.</P>
                    <P>The proposal to revise the validation process by adding look-back and direct observation validation surveys and our proposed revisions to § 488.9 would not apply to laboratories, as they are subject to the provisions under part 493.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">M. Proposal To Revise the Psychiatric Hospital Survey Process</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under section 1861(f) of the Act, psychiatric hospitals are a defined provider type. This statutory provision requires psychiatric hospitals to comply with most hospital Medicare conditions, known as CoPs, but includes a few provisions applicable exclusively to them. In 1986, special Medicare conditions for psychiatric hospitals were published and included, as part of the hospital Medicare conditions, as provisions of 42 CFR part 482. At that time, psychiatric hospital surveys were performed by either SA personnel or Health Care Financing Administration 
                        <SU>16</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         (HCFA) mental health surveyors (board-certified psychiatrists, masters prepared psychiatric nurses, masters prepared psychiatric social workers, doctorally prepared clinical psychologists, and doctorally prepared clinical psychopharmacologists) who were under contract with HCFA. This extensive experience requirement was beyond what is required for other types of hospital services. This requirement limited the number of SAs with qualified surveyors. Therefore, a CMS contractor with specially-trained and/or experienced psychiatric surveyors assisted the SAs in performing such surveys. This has resulted in a bifurcated survey process, as most psychiatric hospitals were subjected to two survey teams for each accreditation survey: the hospital survey team and the psychiatric component survey team.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>16</SU>
                             Health Care Financing Administration was the former name for CMS, which was changed on June 14, 2001.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>However, in the FY 2014 QSOG Mission and Priority Document, the restrictive requirement for extensive education and/or experience for psychiatric surveyors was removed. CMS developed online psychiatric surveyor training, provided on-site psychiatric surveyor training through contractors and offered partnership training for surveyors who did not have extensive psychiatric education or experience. This training became the standard and expectation for qualification to survey to the psychiatric Medicare conditions.</P>
                    <P>The special Medicare conditions applying to psychiatric hospitals are set forth in § 482.60 through § 482.62. The special provisions at § 482.60 require the following: (a) that the hospital be primarily engaged in providing, by or under the supervision of a doctor of medicine or osteopathy, psychiatric services for the diagnosis and treatment of mentally ill persons; (b) meet the conditions of participation specified in §§ 482.1 through 482.23 and §§ 482.25 through 482.57; (c) maintain clinical records on all patients, including records sufficient to permit CMS to determine the degree and intensity of treatment furnished to Medicare beneficiaries, as specified in § 482.61; and (d) meet the staffing requirements specified in § 482.62. As noted earlier, participating psychiatric hospitals must also meet the Medicare conditions for acute-care hospitals.</P>
                    <P>
                        In March 2020, we eliminated the contract for separate psychiatric hospital surveyors and provided comprehensive online training for all SAs. This training focused on the specific psychiatric hospital Medicare conditions so that the SA surveyors would be fully trained to conduct all aspects of a complete psychiatric hospital inspection. At this time, we also combined the interpretive guidance at Appendix AA for psychiatric hospital 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12029"/>
                        surveys into the Appendix A for hospital surveys to provide a single location for all of the Medicare conditions during a full psychiatric survey.
                    </P>
                    <P>At this time, TJC and DNV are the only AOs that have CMS-approved psychiatric hospital accreditation programs. They conduct one complete survey of the entire psychiatric hospital, to include inspection of the regular hospital Medicare conditions and the psychiatric hospital Medicare conditions. Any AO is eligible to submit an application for consideration for accreditation to survey psychiatric hospitals.</P>
                    <P>We propose to integrate the acute care hospital and psychiatric hospital survey processes for SAs to ensure that there is a systematic, and integrated look at psychiatric hospital quality. Therefore, AOs that currently survey only hospitals would need to expand their hospital accreditation programs to include Medicare conditions to survey for psychiatric hospitals as well.</P>
                    <P>We believe that consolidating psychiatric and acute-care hospital Medicare condition oversight will improve the overall quality of the care by ensuring that systemic issues are more easily identified. With a single survey team conducting the survey for the entire facility, inconsistencies, trends, and subtle discrepancies can be connected more easily and provide a more comprehensive overview of underlying systemic issues. We believe that this comprehensive approach to survey both the psychiatric and acute-care hospital will enhance patient health and safety by ensuring the system as a whole is evaluated to meet the applicable Medicare requirements. Moreover, a single survey team decreases the team's physical imprint on the facility which minimizes any facility disruption resulting from the survey. When revisits are required related to deficiencies in the psychiatric Medicare conditions, only one survey team will return for re-inspection, which will reduce coordination time and resources as well as impact on individual facilities. Finally, we have determined that combining the survey process for psychiatric hospital Medicare conditions into the hospital program would improve the cost efficiency of CMS's survey and certification activities and simplify the survey process for SAs and AOs alike.</P>
                    <P>For SAs, we would consolidate the deficiency report from psychiatric hospital survey activity into one Form CMS-2567, reporting on compliance with both the hospital Medicare conditions as well as the psychiatric services Medicare conditions. The survey process for inpatient psychiatric units located in acute care hospitals would not change, and this change would not require any revisions to our regulations.</P>
                    <P>
                        To ensure that surveys of psychiatric hospitals and units located in hospitals are performed properly by the SA surveyors, they have been provided online training on the psychiatric hospital Medicare conditions. CMS developed this online training and released it in March 2020. It is now available to all SA and AO surveyors at 
                        <E T="03">https://qsep.cms.gov/</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>We would expand the acute care hospital accreditation program for AOs to include current psychiatric hospital accreditation standards. As per § 488.8(b), CMS assesses the equivalency of the AOs programs to the CMS-approved program requirements, and, as such, this proposal to combine acute care and psychiatric hospital surveys necessarily required that we also propose to revise the hospital accreditation program application process for AOs that have an approved hospital program, so as to include psychiatric hospital accreditation in their hospital programs. Those AOs who currently have an approved hospital program would be required to resubmit their standards, survey process and surveyor training (which may include as part of CMS' training) to include review of the psychiatric Medicare conditions for psychiatric hospitals for CMS approval. This means that an AO that is seeking approval of a hospital accreditation program would be required to file one application that includes how they will assess for the two special Medicare conditions for psychiatric hospitals within their hospital accreditation program, whether or not they are currently accrediting psychiatric hospitals or have plans do to so in the future.</P>
                    <P>As part of this proposal, we would also require that the AOs that already have an existing CMS-approved hospital program expand their existing hospital programs to include survey activities of psychiatric services in psychiatric hospitals. Those AOs who currently have an approved hospital program would be required to resubmit their standards, survey process and surveyor training for CMS approval in accordance with § 488.8(b) by no later than 30-calendar days from CMS notice to the hospital AOs using the existing process described in § 488.5(a)(19)(i). That process also permits CMS to give due consideration to a request for extension.</P>
                    <P>We hope that this would encourage additional AOs to participate in deeming psychiatric hospitals. Overall, the intent of these proposals is to ensure that psychiatric services are evaluated in the context of the larger hospital program evaluation so that systemic quality issues are not missed. A single, comprehensive and focused survey team will be able to identify and connect individual issues and trends which may be occurring under two separate programs. Combining the two programs provides a more global view of the facility's potential deficiencies and is more likely to ensure the overall safety and quality of care delivered. For example, if there were significant issues with staff supervision of patients, one team of surveyors would be investigating areas which now cross the two sets of requirements and survey teams including patient-specific care planning, staff training, patient rights, and potentially governing body. Integrating the survey activities for hospital and psychiatric standards would also provide an avenue for additional AOs to participate in deeming psychiatric hospitals, which would produce more competition and provide facilities with more options for surveying authorities.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">N. Limitation on Terminated Deemed Providers/Suppliers Seeking Re-Entry Into Medicare/Medicaid (§ 489.57, § 488.4(b) &amp; § 488.5(a)(21))</HD>
                    <P>
                        Involuntary termination of the Medicare provider agreement is the ultimate sanction for non-compliance with Medicare's basic health and safety requirements. On average, less than ten involuntary terminations occur each year. From January 2015 through September 2023, a total of fifty-eight accredited providers and suppliers, including ASCs, ESRD facilities, HHAs, Hospices, Hospitals, RHCs, and OPTs, were involuntarily terminated from the Medicare program for unresolved health and safety concerns. These providers currently have the option of seeking re-approval to participate in Medicare/Medicaid through an AO with a CMS-approved program. We remain concerned that providers who have been involuntarily terminated from the Medicare program may continue to remain accredited by an AO, and hold their continued accreditation out to the public as a marker of high-quality care. Most consumers, due to branding and advertising by the accredited community, associate quality of care with accreditation, rather than CMS certification. Therefore, involuntarily terminated providers who retain their AO accreditation status convey that they continue to meet high quality of care standards, despite their termination 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12030"/>
                        from Medicare. This situation could weaken public trust in accreditation as a marker of patient quality and safety. Since AO standards are required to meet or exceed those of Medicare, we are proposing at § 488.5(a)(21)) that termination by Medicare represents a prima facie case that the facility similarly fails to meet accreditation standards.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        These concerns were highlighted in media reports that noted psychiatric hospitals whose provider agreements under Medicare were terminated for harm to patients. These psychiatric hospitals nonetheless retained their accreditation despite serious health and safety concerns.
                        <E T="51">17 18</E>
                        <FTREF/>
                         An article published in the Wall Street Journal (WSJ) on September 8, 2017 
                        <SU>19</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         discussed patient-safety problems at a hospital accredited by one of the AOs that provides fee-based consulting. These safety issues were so severe that Medicare considered terminating the hospital's Medicare participation agreement. The AO that accredited the hospital made no changes in the hospital's accreditation status and allowed it to continue promoting itself as fully accredited, despite being out of compliance with the Medicare safety requirements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>17</SU>
                             S. Armour, Psychiatric Hospitals With Safety Violations Still Get Accreditation, 
                            <E T="03">Wall Street Journal,</E>
                             December 26, 2018.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>18</SU>
                             D. Gilbert Behind Joint Commission's `Gold Seal of Approval,' a history of missed safety violations at psychiatric hospitals, 
                            <E T="03">Seattle Times,</E>
                             October 9, 2019.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>19</SU>
                             S. Armour, Hospital Watchdog Gives Seal of Approval, Even After Problems Emerge, 
                            <E T="03">Wall Street Journal,</E>
                             September 8, 2017.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The WSJ article reinforced concerns CMS had previously identified regarding the very small number of facilities which we terminated for failing to meet our basic health and safety regulations, but which nonetheless retained their AO accreditation. Continued accreditation of these outlier facilities which receive the ultimate sanction CMS may impose based on their ongoing failure to meet basic health and safety requirements raises serious concerns about the survey integrity and public trust attached to AO accreditation. Therefore, we would propose to explicitly prohibit AOs from allowing terminated facilities to retain their accreditation, in order to reduce confusion for patients and families about the continued health and safety of terminated entities.</P>
                    <P>To address the issue of terminated providers or suppliers remaining accredited by an AO, we propose to add a new regulatory requirement at § 488.4(b) (currently reserved). More specifically, proposed § 488.4(b)(1) would provide that if CMS terminates the participation agreement of a Medicare-certified provider or supplier, under our authority at section 1865(c) of the Act, we would no longer recognize the accreditation provided by an AO as evidence that Medicare standards had been met or exceeded for that terminated provider or supplier.</P>
                    <P>In support of the proposed requirements at § 488.4(b), we also propose to add a new requirement at § 488.5(a)(21) that would require AOs to provide, with their initial and subsequent renewal applications, a statement certifying that, in response to a written notice from CMS notifying the AO that one of its accredited providers or suppliers has been terminated from the Medicare/Medicaid program, the AO agrees to terminate or revoke its accreditation of the terminated provider or supplier within 5-business days from receipt of said written notice.</P>
                    <P>The Medicare-approved deeming accreditation provided to Medicare-certified providers and suppliers by AOs permits Medicare participation in lieu of certification by the SA. Therefore, if a Medicare-certified provider or supplier chooses to obtain deeming accreditation from an AO, and then their Medicare participation is involuntarily terminated after failing to meet the Medicare conditions, we would no longer recognize the validity of the AO's accreditation with respect to that provider/supplier under our oversight authority at section 1865 of the Act. We do not believe that it is appropriate for a terminated provider or supplier's AO deeming accreditation to remain effective for CMS purposes after we have terminated this provider or supplier for significant deficiencies that the AO may not have cited, discovered, or fully recognized. A terminated provider or supplier may attempt to use the AO's accreditation as a quality marker, when in fact their practices are severely deficient, unsafe and non-compliant with the CMS conditions.</P>
                    <P>Under section 1865 of the Act, we may involuntarily terminate CMS approval of an AO's overall deeming authority if they miss egregious deficiencies in one of their accredited providers or suppliers' practices. However, we would prefer to withdraw our recognition of the individual provider's or supplier's deeming accreditation instead, and separately work with the AO to determine why such deficiencies went undiscovered.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 488.4(b)(2) would provide that if CMS terminates the participation agreement of a Medicare certified provider or supplier, that terminated provider or supplier would be required to meet the requirements set forth at § 489.57 before a new agreement for Medicare participation will be approved. We also propose a new paragraph at § 489.20(z) that reinstatement of a terminated provider or certified supplier agreement is subject to the proposed revision to § 489.57.</P>
                    <P>The introductory text to § 489.57 states that when CMS has terminated a provider agreement under § 489.53, or by the OIG under § 489.54, a new agreement with that provider will not be accepted unless CMS or the OIG, as appropriate, finds that said provider or supplier meets the requirements set forth in sections § 489.57(a) and (b). We propose to redesignate § 489.57(a) and (b) as § 489.57(a)(1) and § 489.57(a)(2) without any change to the text. Redesignated § 489.57(a)(1) requires a provider or supplier that has been terminated from the Medicare program to demonstrate that the reason for termination of the previous Medicare provider agreement has been removed and provide reasonable assurance that it will not recur. Redesignated § 489.57(a)(2) requires the terminated provider or supplier to fulfill, or make satisfactory arrangements to fulfill, all of the statutory and regulatory responsibilities of its previous agreement.</P>
                    <P>We also propose to add a new paragraph (b) at § 489.57. Proposed § 489.57(b) would provide that before a new agreement for Medicare participation of the terminated provider or supplier is approved, such terminated provider or supplier would have to meet the requirements of proposed § 489.57(b)(1) through (b)(3).</P>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 489.57(b)(1) would require that the terminated provider or supplier be under the exclusive oversight of the SA for the purposes of the initial certification survey, initial certification and demonstration of compliance with the Medicare conditions. Proposed § 489.57(b)(2) would require that the terminated provider or supplier remain under the exclusive oversight of the SA until the SA had certified the provider's/supplier's full compliance with all applicable Medicare conditions and their application for participation in the Medicare/Medicaid program had been approved. Finally, proposed § 489.57(b)(3) would provide that CMS would not recognize accreditation from a CMS-approved accrediting organization for deeming purposes while the terminated provider or supplier was under the oversight of the SA and its new agreement for Medicare participation was pending.
                        <PRTPAGE P="12031"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>Our intent for proposing the new requirements at § 489.57(b) is to ensure that the SA would have the initial survey and certification oversight authority over terminated providers and suppliers seeking re-entry into the program about which we had significant health and safety concerns. The terminated provider or supplier would remain under the oversight of the SA for a reasonable assurance (RA) period of a duration to be determined by CMS. During the RA period, the terminated provider or supplier would be required to provide reasonable assurance to the SA and CMS that the deficiencies that caused the termination have been rectified and that they are not likely to recur. This means that a terminated provider or supplier would have to use the SA, as opposed to an accrediting organization, to perform their initial participation survey and assessment of compliance before a new agreement for Medicare participation is approved. If, after completion of the reasonable assurance period, the SA found that the provider or supplier met all of the applicable Medicare conditions, it would certify said provider or supplier's compliance and notify CMS of its findings. CMS would consider the SA's survey findings (certification) in deciding whether to approve or deny the provider's or supplier's new initial certification request for participation in the Medicare program. However, if the SA were to find deficiencies and determine that the provider or supplier did not meet the CMS conditions, the SA could take several courses of action, depending on the severity of the deficiencies. The SA could require the provider or supplier to submit a plan of correction and give the provider or supplier time to correct the deficiencies. The SA would then perform a subsequent survey to see if the deficiencies have been removed and compliance with all requirements has been achieved. If the deficiencies found during the initial SA survey were significant or egregious, the SA may not approve a plan of correction, notify CMS of its findings and recommendation, and CMS may deny the provider's or supplier's request for new participation in the Medicare program.</P>
                    <P>The SA cannot recommend certification of a previously terminated provider or supplier that has significant condition or immediate jeopardy level deficiencies, unless these deficiencies are properly and promptly addressed and removed by the provider or supplier. Therefore, the proposed new requirements at § 489.57(b) would help to provide reasonable assurance to CMS that the significant health and safety concerns that warranted termination of the provider or supplier's Medicare agreement have been corrected and compliance with all applicable requirements and conditions have been achieved before a new agreement for participation in the Medicare program is approved. We believe that SA oversight during a reasonable assurance period of a length to be determined by CMS, and survey and certification that the terminated provider or supplier now meets the Medicare conditions is a safer alternative to accepting AO deeming of that terminated provider or supplier. This is because in the majority of cases of terminated providers and suppliers, the SA discovered the egregious deficiencies that caused terminations during a validation or complaint survey that took place within 60 days of an AO reaccreditation survey. The AOs that accredited the terminated providers and suppliers had not detected or cited these deficiencies during their surveys.</P>
                    <P>Section 1865(b) of the Act prohibits public disclosure of surveys performed by AOs (with the exception of HHAs, hospice programs, and surveys that relate to an enforcement action taken by the Secretary). However, the proposed new requirements at § 489.57(b) will allow the findings from the compliance surveys performed by the SA to be made publicly available under our authority at subpart B, 42 CFR 401.133(a) and section 1864(a) of the Act states: “within 90 days following the completion of each survey of any health care facility, ambulatory surgical center, rural health clinic, comprehensive outpatient rehabilitation facility, laboratory, clinic, agency, or organization by the appropriate State or local agency described in the first sentence of this subsection, the Secretary shall make public in readily available form and place, and require (in the case of skilled nursing facilities) the posting in a place readily accessible to patients (and patients' representatives), the pertinent findings of each such survey relating to the compliance of each such health care facility, ambulatory surgical center, rural health clinic, comprehensive outpatient rehabilitation facility, laboratory, clinic, agency, or organization with (1) the statutory conditions of participation imposed under this title and (2) the major additional conditions which the Secretary finds necessary in the interest of health and safety of individuals who are furnished care or services by any such health care facility, ambulatory surgical center, rural health clinic, comprehensive outpatient rehabilitation facility, laboratory, clinic, agency, or organization.”</P>
                    <P>Thus, the proposed new requirements at § 489.57(b) would allow for greater transparency regarding the current compliance of terminated health care providers and suppliers seeking re-entry into the program.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">O. Proposal for Technical Correction for End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) Facilities and Kidney Transplant Programs (§ 488.4(a)(4)) </HD>
                    <P>Section 1865(a)(1) of the Act had historically excluded dialysis facilities from participating in Medicare via a CMS-approved accreditation program; however, section 50403 of the Bipartisan Budget Act of 2018 amended section 1865(a) of the Act to include renal dialysis facilities as provider entities allowed to participate in Medicare through a CMS-approved accreditation program. In addition, the Bipartisan Budget Act of 2018 also amended section 1865(a) of the Act to remove a reference to section 1881(b) of the Act, which had prevented kidney transplant programs from being accredited via CMS-approved accreditation programs. CMS' existing regulations at § 488.4(a)(4), requires that when a national AO has applied for and has received CMS-approval of a provider or supplier accreditation program, then when a provider or supplier demonstrates full compliance with all of the accreditation program requirements of the accrediting organization's CMS-approved accreditation program, the accrediting organization may recommend that CMS grant deemed status to the provider or supplier. Further, the regulation at § 488.4(a)(4) states that “CMS may deem the provider or supplier, excluding kidney transplant centers within a hospital and ESRD facilities, to be in compliance with the applicable Medicare conditions or requirements.” The CMS regulatory language of “excluding kidney transplant” programs is therefore in direct conflict with the Bipartisan Budget Act of 2018 amendment. We therefore propose to remove the exclusion specifically in our accreditation regulations under § 488.4(a)(4) to align with the statutory changes implemented the Bipartisan Budget Act of 2018.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Request for Information Regarding Timeframes and Expectation for the Submission of AO Applications</HD>
                    <P>
                        We are requesting public comments on the timeframes and expectation for the submission of applications submitted by AOs, because our existing 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12032"/>
                        AO oversight regulations do not restrict how many times an AO may submit an initial application to CMS for review. Based on our initial review of an application for completeness, which verifies the AO has submitted all required elements under § 488.5, we often find the application to be incomplete and must return it to the AO for additional clarifications, missing items or revisions. CMS also receives applications, which require multiple pass backs due to the applicant's failure to provide information about issues, such as their financial viability, survey processes which appeared not to be operationalized, or similar concerns. However, our existing regulations do not limit the number of times an AO may submit an application for review by CMS. Therefore, it is possible that incomplete application could be submitted an unlimited number of times.
                    </P>
                    <P>Therefore, we are soliciting public comments on the following possible future limitations to the submission of applications by the AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers:</P>
                    <P>• An AO may only re-submit an application for CMS re-review two additional times after CMS initially deems the application to be “incomplete”.</P>
                    <P>• If the AO's application is found by CMS to be incomplete after the third submission, the AO must wait a minimum of 2 years before resubmitting the entire application for CMS consideration.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Collection of Information Requirements</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we are required to provide 60-day notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         and solicit public comment before a collection of information requirement is submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. In order to fairly evaluate whether an information collection should be approved by OMB, section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 requires that we solicit comment on the following issues:
                    </P>
                    <P>• The need for the information collection and its usefulness in carrying out the proper functions of our agency.</P>
                    <P>• The accuracy of our estimate of the information collection burden.</P>
                    <P>• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.</P>
                    <P>• Recommendations to minimize the information collection burden on the affected public, including the use of automated collection techniques.</P>
                    <P>We are soliciting public comment on each of these issues stated in sections III and IV of this proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        If you comment on these information collections, that is, reporting, recordkeeping or third-party disclosure requirements, please submit your comments electronically as specified in the 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                         section of this proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>Comments must be received on April 15, 2024.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Wage Data</HD>
                    <P>
                        To derive average costs, we used data from the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics' May 2021 National Occupational Employment and Wage Estimates for all salary estimates (
                        <E T="03">http://www.bls.gov/oes/current/oes_nat.htm</E>
                        ). In this regard, Table 1 presents the mean hourly wage, the cost of fringe benefits and overhead (calculated at 100 percent of salary), and the adjusted hourly wage.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="533">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12033"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.009</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. ICRs Related to Conflict of Interest Proposals</HD>
                    <P>In this proposed rule, we made several proposals related to AO and AO surveyor conflicts of interest. We will address the cost and time burden associated with each of these proposals separately below.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. ICR Related to Proposed Conflict of Interest Policies &amp; Procedures AOs Must Submit to CMS (§ 488.5(a)(10))</HD>
                    <P>
                        We proposed to modify § 488.5(a)(10) to add a requirement that the AOs must provide specific information with their conflict of interest policies and procedures with the application they submit to CMS. Specifically, the AO must submit the following policies and procedures: (1) the AO's policies and procedures for separation of its fee-based consulting services from its accreditation services; (2) policies and procedures for protecting the integrity of the AO's accreditation program, including the requirements of § 488.8(k)(3) policies and procedures for the prevention and handling potential or actual conflicts of interest that could arise from situations in which an AO owner, surveyor, or other employee has a direct interest in or relationship with another survey agency or health care facility to which the AO provides 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12034"/>
                        accreditation services, including being employed as a SA surveyor or having an ownership interest in a health care facility, etc., and (4) policies and procedures for notification of CMS when a conflict of interest is discovered.
                    </P>
                    <P>The AO would need to modify their current conflict of interest policy and procedures to include the above-stated information required under the proposed revisions to § 488.5(a)(10). We estimate that this task would be performed by a team of at least two AO staff members. The AO staff that would most likely perform this task would be a person whose background is a RN or a health or medical services manager. According to the U.S Bureau of Labor statistics, the mean hourly wages for an RN is $39.78. This wage adjusted for the employer's fringe benefits and overhead would be $79.56. According to the U.S Bureau of Labor statistics, the mean hourly wages for a medical or health services manager is $57.61. This wage adjusted for the employer's fringe benefits and overhead would be $115.22.</P>
                    <P>We estimate that it would that at least two persons working in a full-time basis for 3 days for the AO staff to revise their conflict of interest policies and procedures to add the required information. Therefore, we estimate that the total time required for the two team members to perform this task would be 48 hours (8 hours × 3 days = 24 hours per each person) + (24 hours per person × 2 persons = 48 hours).</P>
                    <P>As of February 4, 2020, there are 11 AOs, that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers. We estimate that the total time burden across these 11 AOs would be 528 hours (48 hours × 11 AOs).</P>
                    <P>We estimate that the cost burden related to the work performed by the RNs on the team would be $1,909.44 (24 hours × $79.56). We estimate that the cost burden related to the work performed by the medical or health services manager on the team would be $2,765.28 (24 hours × $115.22). Finally, we estimate that the total burden costs related to the requirements for proposed § 488.8(i)(1) would be $4,674.72 per AO ($1,909.44 + $2,765.28). The total cost across the 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers is $51,421.92 (11 AOs × $4,674.72).</P>
                    <P>We believe that the stated burden would be incurred by the AO once prior to the time that they submit their first application after this requirement becomes effective. However, we believe that after the AOs have made required modifications to their conflict of interest policies, they will not have to revise them again, but will submit the same revised conflict of interest policies every 6 years with their renewal applications, so this burden would not be incurred again. We do not count the burden related to the submission of the application because the AO would be required to submit the application every 6 years to renew the CMS approval for their accreditation programs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. ICR Related to Requirement That the AOs Submit Surveyor Declarations to CMS on an Annual Basis (§ 488.5(a)(22))</HD>
                    <P>We propose to add a new paragraph (22) to § 488.5(a), which would require that the AO submit a declaration by each surveyor of any outside interests or relationships with the health care facilities that the AO accredits. This section would also require that the surveyor declarations must be updated on an annual basis and submitted to CMS no later than December 31st each year.</P>
                    <P>There would be a time and cost burden to the AO for having to collect declarations from each of their surveyors annually. There would also be a time and cost burden to the AO for the submission of the surveyor declarations to CMS.</P>
                    <P>We estimate that it would take at least two persons working on a full-time basis for 3 days (8 hours per day) to prepare the surveyor declarations, get each AO surveyor to complete a declaration and submit them to CMS. This would equate to 24 hours per person or 48 hours across both staff performing this task.</P>
                    <P>We believe that the AO staff that would be performing these tasks would be an RN and a management staff person, whose job duties meets the description of the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics job of category of health and medical services manager. As stated previously, the adjusted mean hourly wage for an RN is $79.56. The adjusted mean hourly wage for a medical and health services manager is $115.22.</P>
                    <P>We estimate that the time burden for this task per each AO would be 48 hours (24 hours × 2 staff persons). We further estimate that the total time burden across all 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and supplier would be 528 hours (48 hours × 11 AOs).</P>
                    <P>We estimate that the cost burden related to the work performed by the RN would be $1,909.44 (24 hours × $79.56). We estimate that the cost burden related to the work performed by the medical or health services manager would be $2,765.28 (24 hours × $115.22).</P>
                    <P>Finally, we estimate that the cost burden associated with the requirements for proposed § 488.5(a)(22) per each AO would be $4,674.72 ($1,909.44 + $2,765.28. The total annual cost burden across the 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and supplier is estimated to be $51,421.92 (11 AOs × $4,674.72).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. ICRs Related to Proposal To Place Restrictions on AO Fee-Based Consulting Services Provided by AOs to the Medicare-Certified Providers and Suppliers They Accredit (Proposed § 488.8(i)(1) through (3))</HD>
                    <P>In section IV.B.3 of this proposed rule, we propose restrictions on AO fee-based consulting provided by accrediting organizations or their associated consulting divisions or companies. We believe the proposed regulations at § 488.5(i) would still allow AOs to provide fee-based consulting services to the providers and suppliers they accredit with restrictions that address the conflict of interest issues associated with this service.</P>
                    <P>This proposal would require the AOs that provide fee-based consulting to modify their fee-based consulting to revise their fee-based consulting business documents, such as their business charter, business documents, employee training information, informational documents that are distributed to prospective clients, and their as policies and procedures.</P>
                    <P>We believe that the AO staff that would be performing these tasks would be an RN and a management staff person that has a job that meets the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics job of category of health and medical services manager. The adjusted mean hourly wage for an RN is $79.56. The adjusted mean hourly wage for a medical and health services manager is $115.22.</P>
                    <P>We estimate that this proposal would require the above-stated two AO staff member to work on a full-time basis for 1 week (that is, 40 hours per person) to complete the required revisions to the AO's fee-based consulting business documents. Therefore, we estimate that the time burden per each AO for the two AO staff members to perform the required tasks would be 80 hours (2 team members × 40 hours).</P>
                    <P>At this time, there are only four AOs that provide fee-based consulting. Therefore, the total annual time burden would be 320 hours (80 hours × 4 AOs).</P>
                    <P>The cost burden related to the work performed by the RN on this task would be $3,182.40 (40 hours × $79.56). The cost burden related to the work performed by the medical or health services manager on this task would be $4,608.80 (40 hours × $115.22).</P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, we estimate that the annual cost burden per each AO related to the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12035"/>
                        requirements for proposed § 488.8(i)(1) would be $7,791.20 ($3,182.40 + $4,608.80). We estimate that the total annual cost burden to the four AOs that provide fee-based consulting would be $31,164.80 ($7,791.20 × 4 AOs).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. ICR Related to Proposed Requirement for Submission of Information About AO Fee-Based Consulting Services Provided (§ 488(i)(5))</HD>
                    <P>We propose to add a requirement at § 488.8(i)(5) that would require the AOs to provide CMS with the following information about the fee-based consulting services they provide to CMS on a bi-annual basis: (1) whether the AO or its fee-based consulting division or separate business entity (such as a company or corporation, that provides fee-based consulting) provides fee-based consulting services; (2) the names and CCN numbers of all health care providers and suppliers to which the accrediting organization or its associated consulting division or company has provided fee-based consulting services during the previous 6-month period; (3) the dates the AO fee-based consulting services were provided to each provider and supplier; (4) whether the accrediting organization has, at any time in the past provided, or is currently providing accreditation services to each health care provider or supplier listed in said document; (5) for each health care provider and supplier listed in said document, the date of the most recent accreditation survey performed, and the date the next re-accreditation survey is due to be performed; and, (6) a description of the AO fee-based consulting services provided to each health care provider or supplier listed in said document.</P>
                    <P>This proposed regulation further requires that statement containing the information require by § 488.8(i)(5)(i) through (i)(5)(iv) must be submitted to CMS every 6 months. We proposed that the document containing this information must be submitted to CMS by no later than 15 days after the end of each calendar bi-annual period which consist of January 1st to June 30th and July 1st (period #1) through December 31st (period #2) each year. This means that the submission deadline for period #1 would be July 15th and the submission deadline for period #2 would be January 15th each year.</P>
                    <P>We estimate that the burden associated with this proposed requirement would include the time and costs associated with the gathering of the information necessary to prepare the required document, the time required to prepare the document and the time required to send the document to CMS. This burden would occur on a continuing bi-annual basis.</P>
                    <P>We believe that the burden would be greater for the preparation of the first report. Thereafter, the AOs would have already prepared and formatted this report and would simply have to update the information every 6 months.</P>
                    <P>We estimate that it would that at least two persons working on a full-time basis for 3 days to prepare and submit the first required statement to be submitted CMS. We further estimate that this team would consist of one RN and one Medical or Health Service Manager. Therefore, we estimate that the total hourly time burden for each team member would be 24 hours (3 days × 8 hours per).</P>
                    <P>We estimate that the time burden per each AO per for the work performed by the two AO staff members to prepare each report would be 48 hours (2 team members × 8 hours × 3 days). The total annual time burden per each AO would be 96 hours (2 reports × 48 hours).</P>
                    <P>There are four AOs that provide fee-based consulting. However, we propose that this provision would apply to all 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers because it would require each AO to, at a minimum, respond to question #1 which asks whether the AO or an associated consulting division or company established by the AO provides fee-based consulting services. Those AOs that do not provide fee-based consulting would simply respond in the negative to this question and would not have to provide any further information.</P>
                    <P>The time and cost burden to the AOs that do not provide fee-based consulting would be negligible because they would send this notice to CMS via email. This task would take an AO staff member less than a minute to complete every 6 months. Therefore, as this task is so minimal, we have not assessed burden for this task for the AOs that do not provide fee-based consulting.</P>
                    <P>The estimated total annual time burden across all AOs that do provide fee-based consulting would be 384 hours (96 hours per 2 reports annually × 4 AOs). The estimated total time burden across these 11 AOs would be 384 hours (96 hours × 4 AOs).</P>
                    <P>The cost burden related to the work performed by RNs on the team would be $1,909.44 (24 hours × $79.56 per hour). The cost burden for the work performed by the medical or health services manager would be $2,765.28 per each AO (24 hours × $115.22). The total estimated cost burden per each AO would be $4,674.72. ($1,909.44 + $2,765.28) The total estimated cost burden across the 4 AOs that provide fee-based consulting services would be $18,698.88 ($4,674.72 × 4 AOs).</P>
                    <P>We believe that the above stated time and cost burdens would be incurred by the AOs that provide fee-based consulting only the first time that they prepare the required document and send it to CMS. We believe that after the AO has prepared their first report, they would have this report in an electronic format on their computers. Therefore, for the second and all subsequent report, we estimate that the related to the preparation and submission of this report would be reduced by at least two-thirds. This means that it would take only one RN a period of 8 hours to prepare the required statement and submit it to CMS. We estimate that the total time burden across the four AOs that provide fee-based consulting, would be 32 hours (8 hours × 4 AOs).</P>
                    <P>We estimate that the cost burden per each AO related to the work performed by an RN to prepare the second or subsequent report would be $636.48 (8 hours × $79.56). The total cost burden across the four AOs that provide fee-based consulting would be $2,545.92 ($636.48 × 4 AOs).</P>
                    <P>We are requesting comments from the public on our estimated burden for this activity and whether the frequency of bi-annual (every six months) is appropriate.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. ICR Related to Proposed Requirement That Accrediting Organization Establish Fee-Based Consulting Firewall Policies and Procedures (Proposed § 488.8(j))</HD>
                    <P>We propose at § 488.8(j) to require any AO that provides fee-based consulting services or its associated fee-based consulting division or company to have robust, written AO fee-based consulting firewall policies and procedures. These firewall polices and procedure must, at a minimum, include the following provisions: (1) the AO's fee-based consulting services must be provided by a separate division or company from the AO's accreditation division; (2) the AO's fee-based consulting division or separate company must maintain separate staff from that of the AO's accreditation divisions to ensure that the fee-based consulting division staff do not perform AO's accreditation division functions and that the AO's accreditation division staff do not perform fee-based consulting division functions; and, (3) the AO's accreditation staff and surveyors are prohibited from marketing the AO's fee-based consulting services to the AO's accreditation clients.</P>
                    <P>
                        This proposed requirement would only apply to the AOs that provide fee-
                        <PRTPAGE P="12036"/>
                        based consulting and would require these AOs that establish new fee-based consulting firewall policies or revise their policies and procedures to meet the proposed requirements. It is our understanding, from review of the comments received on the submitted by the AOs in response to the AO Conflict of Interest RFI, that these AOs already have such fee-based consulting firewall policies in place. If this is the case, then the time and cost burden associated with revising these policies and procedures would not be extensive.
                    </P>
                    <P>In section VI.A.5 of this proposed rule, we estimated that it would take each AOs that provide fee-based consulting services 80 hours to revise their fee-based consulting business documents, such as their business charter, business documents, employee training information, informational documents that are distributed to prospective clients, and their as policies and procedures.</P>
                    <P>We have included the burden associated with the revision of AO fee-based consulting firewall policies and procedures. We believe that the burden associated with the revision of the AO's fee-based consulting policies and procedures would fall under the time and cost burden estimated in section VI.A.5 of this proposed rule. As such, we will not assess a separate burden here.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. ICR Related to Proposed Regulation To Prevent Conflicts of Interest Caused by AO Owners, Surveyors or Other Employees Interest In or Relationship With a Health Care Facility Accredited by the AO (Proposed § 488.8(k))</HD>
                    <P>We propose to avoid conflicts of interest related to employment relationships between AO surveyors and health care facilities that are accredited by the AO, the AO's shall do the following: (1) AOs shall not allow its surveyors to participate in the survey of facilities with which they have a relationship; (2) AOs shall not allow its surveyors to have any input into or influence the outcome of any survey performed for facilities with which they have a relationship; (3) AOs shall not allow its surveyors to have any involvement with the pre or post survey activities for the health care facilities with which they have a relationship; and, (4) AOs shall not allow its surveyors to have any contact with the records from the surveys for any health care facilities with which they have a relationship.</P>
                    <P>We believe that this in exempt from the PRA in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.3(b)(2). We believe that this should already be a usual and customary practice of the AOs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. ICRs Associated With the Requirement That AOs Incorporate the Medicare Conditions</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. ICRs Associated With the Requirement That the AOs Provide Detailed Crosswalks Identifying Incorporation of the CMS Standards</HD>
                    <P>As proposed under § 488.5(a)(3), we would require AOs to incorporate the language of the CMS' Medicare conditions and provide CMS with a detailed crosswalk. While AOs are required to provide a similar crosswalk under the existing process, CMS previously only required a “comparable” standard, therefore through this proposal, AOs would need to recreate their AO standards to incorporate the Medicare condition language into their accreditation standards for their deemed programs. We also note that this proposal would require a one-time overhaul of AO standards and burden would be imposed for the first year following the effective date of this rule and not be a reoccurring annual burden. Burden costs subsequent to changes would remain as current practice with updates required to be reviewed and approved as outlined in existing § 488.5.</P>
                    <P>We would expect that the AOs use the existing CFR language they are required to crosswalk currently and assign an AO standard number or realign their existing AO standards in a manner which would allow for a one-to-one comparison to ensure their accreditation standards incorporate the CFR language. Aforementioned, CMS is not restricting the AOs from exceeding the Medicare conditions, however if exceeded the AO would need to provide additional language or clearly delineate the exceeding language. For example, we would only anticipate that the format used be similar to the one seen in Table 2.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="211">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.010</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <PRTPAGE P="12037"/>
                    <P>We anticipate that the AOs for each program type (that is, hospice, home health, outpatient physical therapy, hospitals, ESRD facilities, RHC, CAH, ASCs, psychiatric hospitals) for which the AO has deeming authority would be required to review and revise their existing crosswalk and standards into the required format. We further anticipate that the review and updating of AO standards crosswalk would be done by AO staff consisting of at least one RNs and a medical secretary.</P>
                    <P>We estimate that the RN would spend 2 hours performing this task. We further estimate that a medical secretary would spend 198 hours performing this task. Therefore, the total time burden per each AO for this task would be 200 hours. (2 hours per 1 RN + 198 hours per 1 medical secretary).</P>
                    <P>This requirement applies only to those AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers. There are 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers. Therefore, the total time burden for this task would be 2,200 hours (200 hours × 11 AOs).</P>
                    <P>The adjusted mean hourly wage for an RN is $79.56. We estimate that the cost for the work performed by the RN to perform the work on this task would be $159.12 (2 hours × $79.56 per hour).</P>
                    <P>The adjusted mean hourly wage for a medical secretary is $38.22. We estimate that the cost burden for the work performed by the medical secretary on this task would be $7,567.56 (198 hours × $38.22 per hour). The total estimated cost burden for all work performed on this task would be $7,726.68 ($159.12 + $7,567.56).</P>
                    <P>There are currently 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers. Therefore the annual burden cost for all 11 AOs for one program only would be $84,993.48 ($7,726.68 × 11 AOs).</P>
                    <P>However, the majority of our AOs have multiple accreditation programs, therefore this cost would increase based on the number of programs. For example, one of the AOs has deeming authority for six program types, therefore this AO would be subject to a burden cost of $46,360.08 ($7,726.68 × 6 programs).</P>
                    <P>CMS has 24 approved accreditation programs across 11 AOs (as of February 15, 2022) which are accredited, and so the total cost across all AOs and their programs would be $185,440.32 ($7,726.68 × 24).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. ICRs Related to AO Providing Their New Accreditation Standards to Their Accredited Providers and Suppliers</HD>
                    <P>In addition to changing the survey standards as proposed under § 488.5(a)(3), the AOs would be required to provide the newly revised AO standards to the facilities they accredit. There are approximately 14,904 accredited facilities across the program types. We anticipate that a Medical Secretary (see Table 1 in section VI of this proposed rule for wage estimates) would provide all accredited facilities a copy of the revised standards for accreditation. We believe that the majority of AOs have a website portal which standards are available to their facilities, therefore we anticipate the estimated time to upload and notify facilities of the revisions to take 2 hours per program type. Between the 11 AOs we have 24 programs which are accredited.</P>
                    <P>As noted above, we estimate that this task would take approximately 2 hours to complete per each program. We also estimate that the total burden hours for this task would be 48 hours (2 hours × 24 programs).</P>
                    <P>We estimate that the cost burden per each program would be $76.22 ($38.22 × 2 hours). We further estimate that the total cost associated with uploading the AOs revised standards across the 24 accreditation programs would be $1,829.28 ($76.22 × 24 AO programs).</P>
                    <P>In addition, we believe the AOs would also notify their individual facilities impacted. We believe this would be done by an AO staff person with a job that falls under the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics job category of medical secretary. The adjusted mean hourly wage for a medical secretary is $38.22.</P>
                    <P>We estimate this task would take 15 minutes per each facility notified. There are 14,904 facilities that must be notified. Therefore, the total time required to notify all of these facilities would be 3,726 hours (.25 hours × 14,904 facilities).</P>
                    <P>We estimate that the annual cost burden per each AO for notifying the facility would be $9.55 per each facility (60 minutes divided by 15 minutes = 4) and ($38.22 divided by 4 = $9.55). We estimate that the total annual cost across all of these facilities would be $142,333.20 ($9.55 × 14,904 facilities).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. ICRs Related to Education to Providers and Suppliers Regarding New Standards</HD>
                    <P>We believe the AOs would be required to provide education to their deemed facilities related to the new standards (standards incorporating the CMS Medicare condition language). As part of this education, the AOs would provide an overview of the changes in the AOs accreditation standards to the healthcare facilities accredited by the AO. We further believe that the regulations to persons from the health care facility that would take this training would be staff such as a regulatory compliance specialist (general manager) at the health care facilities the AO accredits. We further believe the AO would generally send an education specialist or RN to provide this overview of the revised standards, or have an online platform of training for the facilities to use.</P>
                    <P>The adjusted mean hourly wage for a general and operations manager is $60.45. This wage adjusted for the employer's fringe benefits and overhead would be $120.90 (see Table 1). According to the U.S Bureau of Labor Statistics, the mean hourly wage for a RN is $39.78. This wage adjusted for the employer's fringe benefits and overhead would be $79.56 (see Table 1).</P>
                    <P>We anticipate that the training to be provided by the AOs about the new regulations would take approximately 1 hour to complete. We believe that each facility would send at least two persons to this training. We believe that the persons that would be likely to attend this training would be a general or services operation manager at the facility and an RN, who is a regulatory compliance manager.</P>
                    <P>There are approximately 14,904 deemed facilities. Therefore, we estimate that the total time burden to each health care facility for the completion of the AO training would be 2 hours. The total estimated time burden for the accredited facilities would be 29,808 hours (2 hours × 14,904 facilities).</P>
                    <P>We estimate that the cost burden for the time spent for the RN to attend the training would be $79.56. RN (1 hour × $79.56 per hour). We further estimate that the cost burden for the general or services manager from the facility to attend the training would be $120.90 (1 hour × $120.90 per hour). We estimate that the total cost burden per each accredited facility for the completion of this training by the two facility staff persons would be $200.46 ($79.56 per RN + $120.90 per general or services manager). We further estimate that the total annual cost burden across all 14,904 accredited facilities would be $2,987,655.84 ($200.46 × 14,904 facilities).</P>
                    <P>
                        The burden associated with these requirements will be submitted to OMB 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12038"/>
                        under OMB control number (0938-NEW).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. ICRs Associated With the Requirement That AOs Use Survey Processes That are Comparable to That Used by CMS and the SAs</HD>
                    <P>Our proposal to § 488.5(a)(4) through (13), would require the AOs to submit revised initial and renewal application information supporting comparability in the survey processes and guidance established by CMS and used by the SA. However, we note that while additional regulatory language changes are being made under § 488.5(a)(4) through (13), AOs are already required to submit this type of documentation. Our intent is to clarify in regulation the minimum standards and required documentation that AOs show comparability to CMS survey process, forms, guidelines and instructions to surveyors.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. ICR Related to Revised Documentation Submission Requirements Imposed by Requirements That AOs Use Comparable Survey Process at § 488.5(a)(4), § 488.5(a)(4)(iii), § 488.5(a)(4)(v), and § 488.5(a)(4)(vii)</HD>
                    <P>The requirements under(§ 488.5(a)(4), § 488.5(a)(4)(iii), § 488.5(a)(4)(v), and § 488.5(a)(4)(vii)) would require AOs to ensure that with the submission for an initial or renewal application for deeming authority, in addition to what is required in the existing regulations, that the AO includes: (1) core principals of the survey process; (2) comparable survey guidance and instructions, including specific processes for certain survey activities; and, (3) description of the organizations survey review process, including the accreditation decisions and investigative and organizational processes used to make determinations of non-compliance. We do however note, that the AOs are already required to submit the documentation and that most AOs provide this within their applications, therefore we do not believe this imposes any additional burden on the AOs, as this has been a long-standing expectation as described in the preamble of this proposed rule and the 2015 AO Final Rule, (80 FR 29795, May 22, 2015), which stated that while the explicit reference to the SOM was removed, “this will not change our practice of assessing comparability in light of the SOM survey process requirements for Sas, which implement survey process requirements found in parts 488 and 489 of our regulations governing certification and provider agreements. Therefore, we believe no additional burden is imposed through these proposed provisions.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. ICR Related to Revised Documentation Submission Requirements Imposed by Requirements That AOs Use Comparable Survey Process at § 488.5(a)(5), § 488.5(a)(6), and § 488.5(a)(12)).</HD>
                    <P>As described above related to the clarified and strengthened proposed requirements under § 488.5(a)(4), § 488.5(a)(4)(iii), § 488.5(a)(4)(v), and § 488.5(a)(4)(vii), we further propose to require additional information under § 488.5(a)(5), § 488.5(a)(6), and § 488.5(a)(12). As also mentioned above, we believe that the AOs currently submit this information with their initial and renewal applications, however by codifying the requirements within regulation, we are clarifying the requirements which are instrumental to maintaining the integrity of the survey process, whether conducted by the SA or the AO. Therefore, we do not believe these clarifications to what our expectations are within regard to the survey process documentation would impose any additional burden on the AOs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. ICR Related to Revised Documentation Submission Requirements Imposed by Requirements That AOs Use Comparable Survey Process at § 488.5(a)(13)</HD>
                    <P>The proposed requirements under § 488.5(a)(13) would require AOs to submit specific information on the AOs' notification procedures, including timeframes for notification, to CMS in regards to a facility which the AO accredits if the facility fails to meet accreditation standards or its accreditation status is affected, as part of the documentation currently required under § 488.5(a)(13). Furthermore, the existing requirements currently require the AOs to have: (1) procedures for responding and investigating complaints; and (2) a process for decision-making as it relates to accrediting status. In addition to the above added proposed requirement, we also propose to add that AOs must submit documentation regarding the AO's process for facilities that withdraw from accreditation, including notification procedures.</P>
                    <P>We believe this review and revision would be conducted by a one RN, one general health care support member, one medical secretary and the CEO to develop these procedures, review and approve all changes. The adjusted mean hourly wage for an RN is $79.56. The adjusted mean hourly wage for a health care support staff person is $32.04. The adjusted mean hourly wage for a medical secretary is $38.22. The adjusted mean hourly wage for a CEO is $204.82.</P>
                    <P>We anticipate it would take approximately 5 hours for the AO staff to review the new requirements set forth in the final rule and to determine what changes need to be made to their standards, policies and procedures. We also estimate that it would take an additional 5 hours for the AO staff to make the revisions required to align their accreditation standards and policies and procedures with our proposed revisions. Therefore, the total estimated time burden per each AO would be 10 hours.</P>
                    <P>This requirement applies to the 11 AOs (as of February 15, 2022) that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers. Therefore, the total time burden across these 11 AOs would be 110 hours (10 hours × 11 AOs).</P>
                    <P>As stated above, we believe that the AO staff that would perform this task would consist of an RN, a health care support staff person, a medical secretary and the AO's CEO to review and approve all changes. We estimated that the cost burden for the work performed by the RN would be $198.90 (2.5 hours × $79.56 per hour). We estimate that the cost burden for the work performed by the health care support staff person would be $80.10 (2.5 hours × $32.04). We estimate that the cost burden for the work performed by the medical secretary would be $95.55 (2.5 hours × $38.22). We estimate that the cost burden for the work performed by the CEO would be $512.05 (2.5 hours × $204.82).</P>
                    <P>We estimate that the total cost burden per each AO for this task would be $886.60 ($198.90 + $80.10 + $95.55 + $512.05). The burden across the 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers would be $9,752.60 ($886.60 × 11 AOs).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. ICR Associated With the Requirement That the AOs Prepare a Training for CMS About Its Revised Survey Process (Proposed § 488.5(a)(4)(xi))</HD>
                    <P>The proposed requirement at § 488.5(a)(4)(xi) would require the AOs to submit a presentation or web-based training materials to CMS, in a format to be chosen at the discretion of the AO, which would provide CMS with an overview of the AOs survey process and demonstrate how the AO's survey process is comparable to that of CMS. We would require the AOs to provide this presentation to CMS prior to the performance of any direct observation surveys as provided for at § 488.8(h).</P>
                    <P>
                        As the AOs currently have existing training for its surveyors on the survey process, we believe that the preparation 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12039"/>
                        of this presentation would only require the AOs to extrapolate what they believed are the core differences within CMS survey process and that of their organization.
                    </P>
                    <P>We believe it would take approximately 5 hours for the review of the current AO processes and approximately 25 hours to develop an abbreviated course of their survey processes for their accredited programs. We believe that the persons at the AO who would perform these tasks would be two RNs and a medical secretary. We estimate that each RN would spend approximately 25 hours performing the required work. We further estimate that the medical secretary would spend 5 hours performing work on this task. The adjusted mean hourly wage for an RN is $79.56. The adjusted mean hourly wage for a medical secretary is $38.22.</P>
                    <P>We estimate that the total time burden per each AO would be 55 hours. This provision would apply to all 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers. Therefore, the estimated total annual time burden for these tasks would be 605 hours (55 hours × 11 AOs).</P>
                    <P>We estimate that the cost burden to each AO for the work performed by the RNs would be $3,978 ($79.56 × 50 hours). We further estimate that the cost burden to each AO for the work performed by the medical secretary would be $191.10 ($38.22 × 5 hours). The total estimated cost burden per each AO for this task would be $4,169.10 ($3,978 + $191.10).</P>
                    <P>This requirement would apply to all 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers. Therefore, we estimate that the total cost would be $45,860.10 ($4,169.10 × 11).</P>
                    <P>Across these 11 AOs there are 24 different types of accreditation programs. We estimate that the burden associated with this task would be $100,058.40 ($4,169.10 × 24 accreditation programs).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. ICR Related to Requirement for AO To Submit Survey Findings/Reports</HD>
                    <P>As mentioned in section IV.C of this proposed rule, we also propose to require the AOs as part of their application under § 488.5(a)(4)(viii) to acknowledge that it will submit any requested survey findings and reports, to include complaint survey reports to CMS for internal use.</P>
                    <P>This requirement would not cause the AOs to incur any new additional burden as the submission of this information is already required by this regulation and is therefore a usual and customary component of initial and renewal applications. AOs are also already required to submit the deficiencies and facility non-compliance in a roll up format. Therefore, this proposed requirement for a full survey report could potentially be seen as a burden reduction as CMS would not require a specific new entry or format and reduce time spent by the AO summarizing the survey activity.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. ICR Related to Documentation Requirements for Submission to CMS for Approval of the AOs' Revised Accreditation Standards and Survey Process as Required by § 488.8(b)</HD>
                    <P>The AOs would be required to resubmit their new survey processes and standards for a comparability review as required by § 488.8(b)(1).</P>
                    <P>We believe that the AO staff that would work on this task would be a medical secretary. We believe that the medical secretary would gather all required documents, complete the compilation of documents and verification. The adjusted mean hourly wage for a medical secretary is $38.22.</P>
                    <P>We anticipate the total burden hours for each AOs to compile each accrediting program and the revisions as proposed within § 488.4(a)(1) and § 488.4(a)(2) for a resubmission to CMS for review and approval would be 80 hours.</P>
                    <P>This requirement would apply to the 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers. Therefore, we estimate that the total annual would be 880 hours (80 hours × 11 AOs).</P>
                    <P>The total estimated cost burden for each AO is $3,057.60 (80 hours × $38.22). The total annual cost burden s is $33,633.60 ($3,057.60 × 11 AOs).</P>
                    <P>There are 24 accreditation programs across the 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers. We estimate that the total annual cost burden across all 24 accreditation programs would be $73,382.40 ($3,057.60 × 24 accredited programs).</P>
                    <P>As mentioned in section IV.C of this proposed rule, the proposed changes would not implement a reoccuring annual burden, but rather have a one-time burden on the AOs until the survey processes and activities are aligned with our proposed changes. CMS would resume the current process for approval and re-approval of AOs and their accrediting programs as outlined within the revised proposed § 488.5.</P>
                    <P>We note, there is no direct burden associated with these changes to the deemed provider or supplier, and there is no cost burden or reporting burden associated with the proposed addition of the definition of unannounced under § 488.1.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. ICR Related to Requirement That the AO Surveyors Take the CMS Online Surveyor Training</HD>
                    <P>We proposed at § 488.5(a)(8), to add a new requirement that would require AOs to state in their application for CMS approval, that all AO surveyors have completed or will complete two CMS mandatory documentation courses and the relevant program specific CMS online trainings established for SA surveyors, initially, and thereafter.</P>
                    <P>There are a total of 163 online training programs that are available to SA surveyors on the CMS QSEP website. These courses are self-paced and the person taking the course can take the courses over a period of time. The amount of time required to complete each of these training course varies depending on the pace at which the surveyor completes the training. The basic surveyor training courses for specific programs range in time from 16-82 hours for completion. We estimate the average time it takes for completion of one of the basic surveyor courses is 27 hours. This could be more or less depending upon the specific program that AO surveyors need to take.</P>
                    <P>We propose that each AO surveyor take the two mandatory documentation courses (that is “Principles of Documentation for Non-Long-Term Care” and “Basic Writing Skills for Surveyor Staff”) and the basic surveyor course for the care setting for which they perform surveys. We further estimate that it would take approximately 4 hours to complete each of the documentation courses, however, these courses are self-paced and could take less or longer. Therefore, an AO surveyor would incur a time burden of approximately 35 hours for the completion of these CMS surveyor training courses (27 hours for the basic surveyor course + 4 hours for “Principles of Documentation for Non-Long-Term Care” course + 4 hours for “Basic Writing Skills for Surveyor Staff” course).</P>
                    <P>Each AO had different numbers of surveyors, depending on its size and the number of accreditation programs it has. Therefore, for the purposes of this burden estimate, we will estimate that each AO has an average of 75 surveyors. This would equate to an estimated time burden to each AO associated with this requirement would be 2,625 hours. (35 hours × 75 surveyors).</P>
                    <P>
                        As of February 15, 2022, there are 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers. We estimate that the time burden across all of these AOs associated with the requirement that their surveyors take the CMS online 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12040"/>
                        surveyor training would be 28,875 hours (2,625 hours × 11 AOs).
                    </P>
                    <P>The adjusted mean hourly wage for an RN is $79.56. We estimate that each AO would incur wages in the amount of $2,784.60 per each surveyor that completes the CMS online surveyor training (35 hours × $79.56). Each AO would incur a total cost burden in the amount of $208.845 for all 75 surveyors that take the CMS online surveyor training (75 surveyors × $2,784.60).</P>
                    <P>The estimated cost burden across all AOs (that accredits Medicare-certified providers and supplies) associated with this requirement would be $2,297,295. ($208.845 × 11 AOs). The burden associated with this requirement will be submitted to OMB under OMB control number 0938-NEW.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. ICR Associated With the Establishment of a Definition for “National in Scope”</HD>
                    <P>As proposed at § 488.1, we would require the AO to provide documentation for meeting the definition of “national in scope” within their initial and reapplication process. As currently required by § 488.1, the AO must provide documentation that demonstrates the organization meets the definition of a “national accrediting organization” as it relates to the accreditation program. Therefore, we estimate the burden on AOs to be minimal as they are already required to provide documentation to this effect. Therefore, we estimate the following:</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. ICR Related to Documentation Requirements for “National in Scope”</HD>
                    <P>We anticipate that a CEO of an AO would compile and verify that the AO meets the proposed definition of “national in scope”.</P>
                    <P>Since CMS is not requiring a specific format for this documentation, but suggests the AO provide a list which identifies the accredited facilities meeting the definition, we anticipate the compiling of this information would take approximately 40 minutes (0.66 hour) per each AO. For existing CMS approved AOs, the general re-application cycle is not to exceed 6 years. Therefore, we anticipate this burden to be applicable every 4 to 6 years. Therefore, we estimate that the total time burden across all 11 AOs would be 7.33 hours (or 7 hours &amp; 20 minutes) every 4 to 6 years.</P>
                    <P>The average hourly wage of the AOs CEO is $204.82. Therefore, we estimate that the total cost burden for this task per each AO would be is $136.52 ($204.82 divided by 60 minutes = $3.413 per min.) and ($3.413 × 40 min. = $136.52 per 40 min.)). We further estimate that the total cost burden across the 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers would be $1,501.72 ($136.52 × 11 AOs).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. ICR Related to Incorporation of the “National in Scope” Requirements Into the AO's Application</HD>
                    <P>We anticipate that a medical secretary would finalize and package/send the application for CMS approval.</P>
                    <P>We believe this additional document of meeting “national in scope” would take approximately 5 minutes (0.083 hours) per each AO to be included in the package which is already required under § 488.5. This requirement would apply only to the 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers. We estimate that the total time burden associated with this task across these 11 AOs would be 55 minutes (0.91 hour) (5 minutes per each AO × 11 AOs).</P>
                    <P>The adjusted mean hourly wage for a medical secretary is $38.22. Therefore, we estimate that the cost burden per each AO for this task would be $3.18 (5 minutes (0.083 hour) × $38.22). We further estimate that the total cost burden would be $35.03 ($38.22/60 min. per hour = $0.637 per min.) and ($0.637 per min. × 55 min. = $35.03 per 55 min.) or ($3.185 × 11 AOs = $35.03).</P>
                    <P>We would anticipate that this burden would be imposed to ensure AOs submit verification of meeting the new definition. However, this burden would only be incurred by the AOs during the submission of their initial or renewal applications which would only take place every 4 to 6 years. The burden associated with these requirements will be submitted to OMB under OMB control number 0938-NEW.</P>
                    <P>We do note, there is no direct burden associated with these changes to the deemed provider or supplier.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. ICR Associated With the Proposed Revision of the AO Performance Measures and To Require a Publically Reportable Plan of Correction</HD>
                    <P>SAs perform validation surveys on a sample of providers and suppliers (such as hospitals, CAHs, ASCs, and HHAs) accredited by the AOs. Validation surveys compare the survey findings of the AO to those of the SA to see if there are any disparities. The disparities found between an AO's surveys and an SA's surveys is used in a performance measure called the “disparity rate” and is tracked by CMS as an indication of the quality of the surveys performed by the AO as described earlier in this proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>We proposed to revise the validation process for Medicare-certified providers and suppliers by adding a new type of validation survey know as direct observation validation survey. As a result of the revisions made to the validation process, we have necessarily been required to propose a new two-part definition for “disparity rate” to revise the definition of disparity rate.</P>
                    <P>At § 488.8(a)(4), we propose that the AO submit a publicly reportable plan of correction for performance that is less than an acceptable threshold for established performance measures.</P>
                    <P>This is a new requirement and therefore would be a new burden for AOs to complete. The plan of correction will be completed and submitted to CMS within 10-business days following the notification of the AO of their less than acceptable performance. It will address the areas of improvement and the specific actions to be taken to improve those areas on a sustainable basis, the process for ongoing monitoring of progress of the toward acceptable performance, as well as the individuals responsible for overseeing the plan of correction and the anticipated implementation dates of the proposed actions.</P>
                    <P>We believe that this task would be performed by the AO's CEO. We also anticipate that each AO would prepare approximately 123 plans of correction per year. We further estimate that it would take 80 hours of time by the AO's CEO to prepare each plan of correction. This is using the overall average disparity rate of 33 percent. There are approximately 374 annual validation surveys performed across all provider types (374 × 0.33 total plans of correction). We further estimate that the total annual time burden per each AO for the completion of POCs would be 9,840 hours (80 hours × 123). We further estimate that the total annual time burden for the completion of all POCs across all 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers would be 108,240 hours (9,840 hours × 11 AOs).</P>
                    <P>
                        We estimate that the cost burden to each AO for the completion of each POC would be $16,385.60 (80 hours × $204.82). We further estimate that the annual cost burden per each AO for the completion of the estimated 123 POCs per year would be $2,015,428.80 (9,840 hours × $204.82). We further estimate that the total annual cost burden across all 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers for the completion of all POCs annually would be $22,169,716.80 ($2,015,428.80 × 11 AOs).
                        <PRTPAGE P="12041"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. ICR Associated With the Revision of the Definition of “Disparity Rate”</HD>
                    <P>In the proposal for the definition of disparity rate as dicussed in section IV.I of this proposed rule, there is no associated burden as look-back validation surveys are a usual and customary part of the existing validations program. Direct observation validation surveys are already being performed under current regulatory authority § 488.8(a)(2) and are a usual and customary part of the VRP. AO will continue to perform survey activities as required, the revised and expanded definition of disparity would impact data collection by CMS, but no additional burden to the AO or provider.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Burden Reduction Associated With the Revision of the AO Validation Program</HD>
                    <P>At § 488.9, we propose to revise the AO validation program to include the additional component of a direct observation of the AO's survey process by SA or CMS surveyors. This would be called a direct observation validation survey. There is no associated burden to the AO or SA. Currently, CMS funds validation surveys. We do not anticipate additional costs.</P>
                    <P>However, there are associated burden reductions to the provider community since half of the traditional validation survey will be replaced by direct observation validation surveys. To determine the amount of burden reduction on the provider community, it would be assumed that providers undergoing a traditoinal validation survey assign facility liaison staff to accompany and assist SA surveyors during their on-site validation survey. We believe that this task would be performed by RNs and other medical administrative staff. We estimate that the time burden for this task would be 8 hours per day for an average of 3 days. Therefore, we estimate that the time burden per each direct observation surveys would be 24 hours.</P>
                    <P>We anticipate a burden reduction based on our proposed changes because the implementation of the direct observation validation surveys would decrease the number of look-back validation validation surveys to be performed by at least 50 percent.</P>
                    <P>The anticipated annual burden reduction calcualtions are based on our FY 2019 look-back validation survey data collection. In FY 2019, we conducted approximately 315 surveys.</P>
                    <P>We estimate that at least a 50 percent reduction in the look-back validation surveys would reduce the provider and supplier burden by 144 hours per survey (3 days × 8 hours × 6 liaison staff) for a total of 25,920 hours (144 hours × 180 look-back validation surveys) across all programs that receive validation surveys. This figure assumes on average a look-back validation on-site survey of 3 days with three SA surveyors and a total of six provider facility staff as provider liaisons. Total annual burden reduction to providers and supplier nationwide would be −$2,062,195.20 (25,920 hours × $79.56).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. ICR Associated With the Revision of the Psychiatric Hospital Accreditation Process</HD>
                    <P>As discussed in section IV.L of this proposed rule, we propose to require AOs which have a CMS-approved hospital accreditation program to expand their programs to include the three special conditions for psychiatric hospitals and provide CMS with a detailed crosswalk which identifies the inclusion of the psychiatric standards that meet or exceed CMS psychiatric Medicare conditions. While these AOs already have approved hospital programs, we note that this proposal would require a one-time overhaul of the AO's hospital program standards to be expanded to include the psychiatric standards and burden would be imposed for the first year following the effective date of this rule and not be a reoccurring annual burden. Burden costs subsequent to changes would remain as current practice with updates required to be reviewed and approved as outlined in existing § 488.5. As proposed in multiple sections of this proposed rule, we propose to require the AOs to use Medicare conditions, more comparable survey processes through clarifications of what CMS considers “core survey processes” with the ability to delineate where they exceed and take the CMS online surveyor training courses. Therefore, we believe burden would be minimal and most of the burden would be in areas in which the AO would “exceed” Medicare requirements.</P>
                    <P>As of December 7, 2022, there are four CMS-approved AOs which have established hospital accreditation programs. Two of these four AOs already have an established CMS approved psychiatric accreditation program.</P>
                    <P>We anticipate that this requirement would be of moderate burden for AOs, however we anticipate the burden to be a one-time burden for two of four hospital AOs, because two of these AOs already have a CMS-approved psychiatric accreditation program and, therefore, would not be required to submit a new application to CMS. This requirement would be part of the initial and renewal application process as defined in § 488.5, therefore would not impose annual reoccurring burden to any AOs initially applying or reapplying. We would expect that the AOs use the existing CFR language they are required to crosswalk currently in the regular hospital program and expand it to assign an AO standard number to the psychiatric standards with language which meets or exceeds the Medicare conditions.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. ICR Associated With the Requirement That AOs Develop a Psychiatric Hospital Accreditation Program</HD>
                    <P>We anticipate that the AOs would be required to review and revise their existing hospital program crosswalk and standards to include the psychiatric standards. We believe this review and revision would be conducted by a cadre of AO professionals consisting of two RNs, one physician, one medical secretary and the CEO to review and approve all changes.</P>
                    <P>We believe the two RNs would develop the initial psychiatric standards incorporated under the AOs hospital program. We estimate that this task would take approximately 150 hours to complete. The adjusted mean hourly wage for an RN is $79.56.</P>
                    <P>We believe the AO's CEO would review and approve the revised standards and that this task would take approximately 45 hours. The adjusted mean hourly wage for a CEO is $204.82.</P>
                    <P>We believe the medical secretary would process the AO's revised application and send it to CMS. We estimate that this task would take 5 hours. The adjusted mean hourly wage for a medical secretary is $38.22.</P>
                    <P>We estimate that the time burden for each AO would be 200 hours (150 hours for the two RNs + 45 hours by the CEO and 5 hours by the medical secretary).</P>
                    <P>There are currently three AOs that would need to revise their hospital programs to incorporate the three psychiatric special standards. We estimate that the total time burden across these three AOs would be 600 hours (200 hours × 3 AOs).</P>
                    <P>We estimate that the cost burden for the work performed by the RNs would be $11,934 ($79.56 × 150 hours), the CEO would be $9,216.90 ($204.82 × 45 hours), the medical secretary would be $191.10 ($38.22 × 5 hours). Therefore, the total estimated cost burden per AO for these tasks would be $21,342 ($11,934 + $9,216.90 + $191.10).</P>
                    <P>
                        We further estimate that the total cost burden across the three AOs which 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12042"/>
                        would need to revise their hospital programs to incorporate the three psychiatric special standards into their hospital accreditation programs would be $64,026 ($21,342 × 3 AOs).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. ICR Associated With Accrediting Facilities Under the Revised Psychiatric Hospital Accreditation Program</HD>
                    <P>As aforementioned, there are four existing AOs which have a CMS approved hospital accreditation program; however, two of four AOs would need to resubmit their applications for CMS-approval based on the proposed provisions for the psychiatric standards as well as meeting the definition and criteria of national in scope. The scope of the CMS approved hospital programs would not change with this proposed expansion of the program to include the psychiatric special conditions. Once the hospital program is approved as national in scope, the addition of the three special conditions does not change the overall scope of the entire program. Therefore, there would be no additional burden associated with this requirement.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">J. Burden Associated With Limitations to Terminated Providers Seeking Re-Enrollment and Certification in Medicare/Medicaid Programs</HD>
                    <P>We propose to add a new policy at § 488.4(b) which would withdraw CMS recognition of the “deeming authority” accreditation of any Medicare certified provider or supplier that is involuntarily terminated from the Medicare/Medicaid program, if such provider/supplier subsequently applies to re-enter the Medicare program. We also propose adding a new requirement at § 488.4(b)(2) that would require a terminated provider or supplier to have to meet all of the requirements of § 489.57 before a new agreement with that provider or supplier into the Medicare program will be approved.</P>
                    <P>In support of proposed § 488.4(b), we also propose to add a new requirement at § 488.5(a)(21) that would require AOs to provide, with their initial and subsequent renewal applications, a statement certifying that, in response to a written notice from CMS notifying the AO that one of its accredited providers or suppliers has been terminated from the Medicare/Medicaid program, the AO agrees to terminate or revoke its accreditation of the terminated provider or supplier within 5-business days from receipt of said written notice.</P>
                    <P>We have also made revisions and added proposed new requirements at § 489.57(b) that would require a terminated provider or supplier to meet the requirements set forth at §§ 489.57(b)(1) to (b)(3) before their new agreement for Medicare participation will be approved.</P>
                    <P>Proposed new § 489.57(b)(1) would require that a terminated provider or supplier must be under the exclusive oversight of the SA for the purpose of the initial survey, certification and demonstration of compliance with the Medicare conditions before their new agreement for Medicare participation can be approved. Proposed new § 489.57(b)(2) would require that the previously terminated provider or supplier must remain under the exclusive oversight of the SA until the SA or the applicable CMS Location (formerly called CMS Regional Office) has performed a reasonable assurance survey, determined that the terminated provider or supplier has corrected the deficiencies that caused the termination and that they are unlikely to recur and has certified its full compliance with all applicable Medicare conditions. The previously terminated provider's or supplier's new agreement for participation in the Medicare/Medicaid program may not be approved until such certification has been provided by the SA or CMS Location. Finally, our proposal at new § 489.57(b)(3) would require that during the time period in which the terminated provider or supplier is under the exclusive oversight of the SA and while the new agreement for Medicare participation is pending, CMS will not accept or recognize accreditation from a CMS-approved accrediting organization.</P>
                    <P>We believe that there would be no additional cost or time burden associated these proposed requirements for several reasons. First, the terminated providers and suppliers would have to undergo periodic, unannounced surveys performed by the SA or CMS. We believe that this is exempt from the PRA in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.3(b)(2) because these surveys are a usual and customary practice of accreditation. Therefore, the terminated provider or supplier would incur no additional time or cost burden related to the SA survey process.</P>
                    <P>Also, considering that as a result of the above-stated proposals, CMS would not recognize deeming accreditation from an AO while a provider or supplier is terminated from the Medicare program, the AOs would be required to terminate or revoke accreditation for terminated providers and suppliers; and that during the time that a new agreement for Medicare participation is pending, would be under the exclusive oversight of the SA, they would not incur any fees for SA's services. If they remained accredited by the AO, they would pay fees for this accreditation.</P>
                    <P>In addition, all prospective providers and suppliers, including those that were terminated and seeking re-entry into the Medicare/Medicaid program are already required to submit an initial Form CMS-855 provider enrollment application to CMS. The provider or supplier would therefore not incur any new time or cost burden related to the submission of this application.</P>
                    <P>The burden associated with all requirements stated above will be submitted to OMB for approval under OMB control number (0938-NEW).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">K. Summary of Estimated Burden</HD>
                    <P>The Table 3 provides a summary of the estimated burden related to the proposals being made in this proposed rule.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="458">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12043"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.011</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="614">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12044"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.012</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="607">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12045"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.013</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="403">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12046"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.014</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-C</BILCOD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Response to Comments</HD>
                    <P>
                        Because of the large number of public comments, we normally receive on 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         documents, we are not able to acknowledge or respond to them individually. We will consider all comments we receive by the date and time specified in the 
                        <E T="02">DATES</E>
                         section of this preamble, and, when we proceed with a subsequent document, we will respond to the comments in the preamble to that document.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Regulatory Impact Analysis</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Statement of Need</HD>
                    <P>
                        We seek to strengthen the public trust in CMS-approved AOs' findings and to protect the health and safety of patients that seek services from Medicare and Medicaid-participating providers that are accredited by CMS-approved AOs. We believe that AOs that voluntarily seek approval for “deeming purposes” are taking on a critical quality assurance role for the American people. Patients need to be able to rely on the strength of that accreditation to be assured that their health care services will be safe and of high quality. Where there are gaps in that accreditation process, or where quality issues are not fully identified or investigated by the AO, it means that current and future patients may experience unnecessary harm or quality issues. Therefore, we are seeking to strengthen our oversight of AOs by revising existing regulations or implementing new regulations that would address the following issues: (1) place limitations on the fee-based consulting services AOs offer to the providers and suppliers they accredit; (2) implement penalties for violation of the prohibition against AO fee-based consulting; (3) require AOs to report information to CMS on a bi-annual basis about the fee-based consulting services they provide; (4) require AOs to report specific conflict of interest information to CMS with their initial and renewal applications; (5) require AOs to submit surveyor conflict of interest declarations to CMS on an annual basis; (6) prohibit AO owners, surveyors and other employees, that currently or within the previous 2 years have had an interest in or relationship with a health care facility the AO accredits from doing the following: (a) participating in the survey of that health care facility; (b) having input into the results of the survey and accreditation for that health care facility; (c) having involvement with the pre- or post-survey activities for that health care facility, or (d) having contact with or access to the records for the survey and accreditation of that health care facility; (7) require AOs to incorporate the CMS conditions into their accreditation standards for its deeming programs; (8) use a comparable survey processes; (9) revise the validation process, implement new performance measures and the use of plans of correction for unacceptable performance measure scores; (10) revise 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12047"/>
                        the hospital application process for AOs that have an approved hospital accreditation program to incorporate surveys of psychiatric hospitals into their hospital programs; (11) add new definitions for the terms “unannounced survey”, “national in scope”, “geographic regions”, “process disparity rate”, and “outcome disparity rate”; and (12) place limitations on terminated providers or suppliers seeking re-entry into the Medicare program. In addition, we are soliciting comments from the public on whether CMS should limit the number of times an AO can submit an incomplete initial application for a new accreditation program and soliciting comments regarding other opportunities to improve the public transparency of quality of care findings at facilities surveyed by AOs; recognizing that under section 1865(b) of the Act, surveys performed by AOs may not be disclosed except for hospices, home health agencies, and surveys related to enforcement activity.
                    </P>
                    <P>We continue to review and revise our health and safety requirements and survey processes to ensure they are effective in driving quality of care for our accredited providers and suppliers.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Overall Impact</HD>
                    <P>We have examined the impact of this rule as required by Executive Order 12866 on Regulatory Planning and Review (September 30, 1993), Executive Order 13563 on Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review (January 18, 2011), Executive Order 14094 entitled “Modernizing Regulatory Review” (April 6, 2023), the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (September 19, 1980, Pub. L. 96-354), section 1102(b) of the Social Security Act, section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (March 22, 1995; Pub. L. 104-4), Executive Order 13132 on Federalism (August 4, 1999).</P>
                    <P>Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). The Executive Order 14094 entitled “Modernizing Regulatory Review” (hereinafter, the Modernizing E.O) amends section 3(f)(1) of Executive Order 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review). The amended section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866 defines a “significant regulatory action” as an action that is likely to result in a rule: (1) having an annual effect on the economy of $200 million or more in any 1 year (adjusted every 3 years by the Administrator of OIRA for changes in gross domestic product), or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, territorial, or tribal governments or communities; (2) creating a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfering with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) materially altering the budgetary impacts of entitlement grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) raise legal or policy issues for which centralized review would meaningfully further the President's priorities or the principles set forth in this Executive Order as specifically authorized in a timely manner by the Administrator of OIRA in each case.</P>
                    <P>A regulatory impact analysis (RIA) must be prepared for major rules with significant regulatory action/s and/or with significant effects as per section 3(f)(1) of Executive Order 12866 ($200 million or more in any 1 year). Based on our estimates, OMB's Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has determined that this rulemaking is “significant”.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Detailed Economic Analysis</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Benefits</HD>
                    <P>In developing this proposed regulation, we carefully considered its potential effects including both costs and benefits. The overall benefit of this rule would be to improve CMS' oversight of the AOs and to improve the overall quality and safety of healthcare. More specifically, the benefits of this rule include the prevention and removal of potential and actual conflicts of interest, the improvement of the validation process and anticipated reductions in the validation disparity rate, the additional performance measure and the implementation of plans of correction that would help AOs that have low performance measure scores to prepare a plan for how to improve their performance. We note that the generation of benefits is contingent upon behavior change, which entails costs; provisions that are discussed, below, as having negligible costs would therefore be anticipated to have minimal benefits.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Provision-Specific Costs, Benefits and Transfers</HD>
                    <P>We have identified the direct costs associated with this proposed rule as the costs associated with reporting, recordkeeping, and other costs. These costs are discussed below.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Impact Related to Conflict of Interest Proposals</HD>
                    <P>In this proposed rule, we have made several proposals related to AO and AO surveyor conflicts of interest. In the 2018 AO Conflict of Interest RFI, many commenters stated that AOs tend to ignore deficiencies during surveys in order to promote the efficacy of their consulting services. These commenters also stated the belief that the AOs may ignore deficiencies to avoid giving poor survey results to their clients, who have paid substantial fees for both accreditation and AO fee-based consulting services. These commenters further stated the belief that the financial relationship between the AO and the health care facilities they accredit causes a conflict of interest. We believe that the proposed restrictions on AO fee-based consulting would reduce this conflict of interest and hopefully remove the incentive for AOs to ignore deficiencies during surveys. We further believe that the conflict of interest proposals we have made would prevent potential and new conflicts of interests from occurring. We will address the financial impacts associated with each of these proposals separately below.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(1) Impact Related to Proposed Conflict of Interest Policies &amp; Procedures AOs Must Submit to CMS (Proposed Revisions to § 488.5(a)(10))</HD>
                    <P>We proposed to modify § 488.5(a)(10) to add a requirement that the AOs must provide specific information with their conflict of interest policies and procedures with the application they submit to CMS. Specifically, the AO must submit the following policies and procedures: (1) for separation of its fee-based consulting services from its accreditation services; (2) policies and procedures for protecting the integrity of the AO's accreditation program, including the requirements of § 488.8(j); and, (3) for the prevention and handling potential or actual conflicts of interest that could arise from situations in which an AO owner, surveyor, or other employee has a direct interest in or relationship with another survey agency or health care facility to which the AO provides accreditation services, including a surveyor's outside interest, abuse of influence or disclosures of privileged information, etc.</P>
                    <P>
                        The AO would need to modify their current conflict of interest policy and procedures to include the above-stated information required under the proposed revisions to § 488.5(a)(10). We estimate that this task would be performed by a team of at least two AO staff members which would be a RN and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12048"/>
                        a health services manager. We estimate that the total burden costs related to the requirements for proposed § 488.8(i)(1) would be $4,674.72. We estimate that the cost across all AOs would be $51,421.92.
                    </P>
                    <P>We believe that the above stated burden impact would be incurred by the AO once prior to the time that they submit their first application after this requirement becomes effective. However, we believe that after the AOs have made required modifications to their conflict of interest policies, they will not have to revise them again, but will submit the same revised conflict of interest policies every 6 years with their renewal applications, so this burden would not be incurred again. We do not count the burden related to the submission of the application because the AO would be required to submit the application every 6 years to renew the CMS approval for their accreditation programs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(2) Impact Related to Requirement That the AOs Submit Surveyor Conflict of Interest Declarations to CMS on an Annual Basis (Proposed § 488.5(a)(22))</HD>
                    <P>We proposed to add a new paragraph (a)(22) to § 488.5, which would require that the AO must submit a declaration by each surveyor of any outside interests or relationships with the health care facilities that the AO accredits. This section would also require that the surveyor declarations must be updated on an annual basis and submitted to CMS by no later than December 31st each year.</P>
                    <P>We believe that the AOs would incur time and cost burdens for having to collect declarations from each of their surveyors annually. There would also be a time and cost burden to the AO for the submission of the surveyor declarations to CMS.</P>
                    <P>We estimate that the total burden costs related to the requirements for proposed § 488.8(i)(1) would be $4,674.72. We further estimate that the total cost across the 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and supplier, would be $51,421.92.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(3) Impacts Related to Proposed Restrictions on Fee-Based Consulting Provided by AOs to the Health Care Providers and Suppliers They Accredit (§ 488.8(i)(1), § 488.8(i)(2), and § 488.8(i)(4)</HD>
                    <P>In this proposed rule, we propose to modify the AO oversight regulations § 488.8(i) by adding a new provision which would add restrictions on the fee-based consulting services provided by the AOs to the same health care providers and suppliers they accredit for Medicare deeming purposes.</P>
                    <P>At proposed § 488.8(i)(1), an AO or its associated fee-based consulting division or company would not be permitted to provide fee-based consulting services to any health care provider or supplier prior to an initial accreditation survey. For purposes of this requirement, the term “initial survey” means the first accreditation survey performed of a health care provider or supplier by an accrediting organization. If a health care provider or supplier is terminated or withdraws from the services of an accrediting organization and then, a later time, again retains the services of that accrediting organization, the first survey performed by the accrediting organization of the returning health care provider or supplier would be considered an initial accreditation survey.</P>
                    <P>At proposed § 488.8(i)(2), an AO or its associated fee-based consulting division or company may not provide fee-based consulting services to a health care provider or supplier the accrediting organization accredits within 12 months prior to the next scheduled re-accreditation survey of that provider or supplier. For purposes of this paragraph, the term “re-accreditation survey” means the any subsequent accreditation surveys performed by the accrediting organization following the initial survey.</P>
                    <P>At proposed § 488.8(i)(4), an AO or its associated fee-based consulting division or company may not provide fee-based consulting services to a health care provider or supplier, to which the accrediting organization provides accreditation services, in response to a complaint received by the AO regarding that provider or supplier.</P>
                    <P>At proposed § 488.8(i)(4)(i) through § 488.8(i)(4)(iv) the restriction upon AO fee-based consulting shall not apply to the following situations: AO fee-based consulting services provided during the 24-month period after an initial or re-accreditation survey is performed; AO fee-based consulting services provided to address complaints received and investigated by the SA regarding an accrediting organization's accredited provider or supplier in which one or more condition-level or immediate jeopardy deficiencies are identified, provided however that, the AO fee-based consulting must occur after the complaint investigation and survey has been completed and must only address those issues identified by the complaint survey; AO fee-based consulting services provided to health care providers or suppliers to which the accrediting organization has never provided accreditation services; no-cost consulting or general education provided by the accrediting. Also, as we stated in the preamble, the proposed restriction on AO fee-based consulting services at § 488.8(i)(1) through (3) would not prohibit the AOs from providing fee-based consulting services to health care providers and suppliers the AO is accrediting such as mock surveys, education about the Medicare conditions or the survey process. This proposal would also not prohibit the general education provided by the AO about their accreditation program. This proposal would apply only to the four AOs that provide fee-based accreditation,</P>
                    <P>We believe that there would be two types of impact related to the proposals for § 488.8(i). First, the AOs would incur time and cost burden to the AOs related to having to make changes to their fee-based consulting program standards and policies. Second, we recognize that there would be a financial impact to the AOs due to the loss of revenue that would have been realized from the fee-based consulting services they currently provide that would now be prohibited. We will address these two burdens separately below.</P>
                    <P>As a result of our proposals at § 488.8(i)(1) through (3), the AOs will no longer be allowed to provide fee-based consulting services to a health care provider or supplier prior to an initial survey, within 12-months prior to a provider's or supplier's re-accreditation survey or in response to a complaint received in response to an accredited provider or supplier. We believe that this limitation on the AOs' fee-based consulting model will require the AOs to revise their fee-based consulting business documents, such as their business charter, business documents, employee training information, informational documents that are distributed to prospective clients, and their policies and procedures as well as potentially restructure their staffing.</P>
                    <P>We estimate that these changes would cause each AO to incur a total time burden of 80 hours and a total cost burden of $7,791.20. We further estimate that the total impact across the four AOs that provide fee-based-consulting would be a time burden of 320 hours and a cost burden of $31,164.80. (See section VI.A.3 of this proposed rule for the details of how these time and cost burdens were calculated.)</P>
                    <P>
                        We also believe that there will be a financial impact to the four AOs that provide fee-based consulting from the proposed restrictions on of fee-based consulting. Although the 2018 AO 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12049"/>
                        Conflict of Interest RFI gathered information about the nature of these relationships, they did not provide enough information for us to accurately calculate the financial impact that the requirements of proposed § 488.8(i)(1) would have on the AO. We do estimate that the AOs would have a decrease in approximately 25 percent of the fee-based consulting business due to the restriction on providing fee-based consulting prior to initial surveys. We say this because AOs perform accreditation on a 3-year cycle, following the initial survey. We estimate that 25 percent of the fee-based consulting performed by an AO on an annual basis would be for new clients prior to their initial survey. We further estimate that the remaining 75 percent of the AOs fee-based consulting business would be provided to providers and suppliers prior to a reaccreditation survey.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        According to IRS financial disclosure statements filed by the AO that provides the most fee-based consulting through an associated fee-based consulting, this AO realized gross revenue from fee-based consulting services in the amount of $44,960,143 in 2020 and $55,970,543 in 2021.
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This equates to an average annual revenue of $50,465,298 from fee-based consulting.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.jcrinc.com/-/media/jcr/jcr-documents/about-jcr/financial-statements/2021-jcr-form-990-redacted-pdc.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>We estimate that new accreditation clients make up approximately 33 percent of an AOs client base and that the remaining 66 percent consist of existing clients that require reaccreditation surveys. We further estimate that, currently, only 25 percent (out of the 33 percent) of an AO's new clients elect to have fee-based consulting prior to the initial survey. Therefore, if the AOs are restricted from performing fee-based consulting prior to the initial survey of new clients, they would lose 25 percent of the revenue they receive from their fee-based consulting business. We estimate that the proposed restrictions on fee-based consulting would cause the AO that provides the most fee-based consulting services to incur lost revenue in the amount of $12,616,324 per year ($50,465,298 divided by 4).</P>
                    <P>While we do not have any independent information about the amount of profits the other AOs realize from their fee-based consulting services, we presume that these three AOs do not realize as much revenue from the provision of fee-based consulting as this large AO. We say this for several reasons. First, the other AOs are smaller businesses and have a smaller client base than does this large AO. It is our understanding that these AOs provide fee-based consulting on a smaller scale because they have less clients and some that are smaller businesses that may not have the funds to pay for fee-based consulting services. Therefore, we are not able to provide an accurate estimate of how much loss in revenue will result from the restrictions in AO fee-based consulting.</P>
                    <P>We estimate that the AOs charge between $100,000 and $500,000 for the fee-based consulting they provide to each healthcare provider or supplier. We do not know how many providers or suppliers currently use the fee-based consulting services of their AO prior to their initial survey. Therefore, we are not able to provide an accurate estimate of the total amount of consulting services shifting to new consultants and away from AOs no longer permitted to provide such services to the providers and suppliers for whom they conduct initial surveys.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(4) Impact Related to Proposed Requirement for Submission of Information About AO Fee-Based Consulting Services Provided (Proposed § 488(i)(5))</HD>
                    <P>
                        We propose to add a requirement at § 488.8(i)(5) that would require the AOs to provide CMS with the following information about the fee-based consulting services they provide to CMS on a bi-annual basis: (1) whether the AO or an associated consulting division or company established by the AO provides fee-based consulting services; (2) a list which contains the names and CCN numbers of 
                        <E T="03">all</E>
                         health care providers and suppliers to which the AO or its associated consulting division or company has provided fee-based consulting services during the previous 6 months; (3) whether the AO has provided accreditation services to each health care provider or supplier on said list, and if so, the date the accreditation services were provided; and (4) a general description of the AO fee-based consulting services provided to each health care provider or supplier on said list. This proposed regulation further requires that statement containing the above-stated information must be submitted to CMS no later than 15 days after the end of each 6-month period.
                    </P>
                    <P>We estimate that the impact associated with this proposed requirement would include the time and costs associated with the gathering of the information necessary to prepare the required statement, the time required to prepare the statement and the time required to send the statement to CMS. This impact would occur on a bi-annual basis, although, we believe that the burden would be greater for the preparation of the first report. Thereafter, the AOs would have already prepared and formatted this report and would simply have to update the information on a quarterly basis.</P>
                    <P>We estimate that the total hourly time burden per each AO for these tasks would be 96 hours and the total estimated cost burden would be $4,674.72. The impact across the four AOs that provide fee-based consulting would be 96 hours and $18,698.88.</P>
                    <P>We believe that the above stated burden would be incurred only the first time that the AO would be required to prepare the required statement and send it to CMS. We believe that after the AO has prepared their first report, they would have this report in an electronic format on their computers. Therefore, for the second and all subsequent reports, we estimate that the cost related to the preparation and submission of this report would be reduced by at least 25 percent.</P>
                    <P>We estimate that the financial impact to each AO for preparation of the second or subsequent report would be $636.48 and to all AOs that provide fee-based consulting would be $2,545.92.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(5) Impact Related to Proposed Requirement That Accrediting Organization Establish Fee-Based Consulting Firewall Policies and Procedures (Proposed § 488.8(j))</HD>
                    <P>At § 488.8(j) we proposed to require any AO that provides fee-based consulting services or its associated fee-based consulting division or company to have robust, written fee-based consulting firewall policies and procedures. We would require that these firewall polices and procedure at a minimum, include the following provisions: (1) the AO's fee-based consulting services must be provided by a separate division or company from the AO's accreditation division; (2) the AO's fee-based consulting division or separate company must maintain separate staff from that of the AO's accreditation divisions to ensure that the fee-based consulting division staff do not perform AO's accreditation division functions and that the AO's accreditation division staff do not perform fee-based consulting division functions; and, (3) the AO's accreditation staff and surveyors are prohibited from marketing the AO's fee-based consulting services to the AO's accreditation clients.</P>
                    <P>
                        This proposed requirement would only apply to the AOs that provide fee-based consulting and would require 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12050"/>
                        these AOs that establish new fee-based consulting firewall policies or revise their policies and procedures to meet the proposed requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>We believe that the burden associated with the revision of the AO's fee-based consulting policies and procedures would fall under the time and cost burden estimated in section VI.A.5 of this proposed rule. As such, we will not assess a separate burden here.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(6) Impact Related to Proposed Regulation To Prevent AO Owners, Surveyors or Other Employees That Have an Interest In or Relationship With a Health Care Facility Accredited by the AO From Participating in Survey Activities for That Facility (Proposed § 488.8(k))</HD>
                    <P>We propose to avoid conflicts of interest related to employment relationships between AO surveyors and health care facilities that are accredited by the AO. At proposed § 488.8(k) we would require the AO's to prohibit their owners, surveyors and other employees from doing the following: (1) participating in the survey of facilities with which they have a relationship; (2) having input into or influence the outcome of any survey performed for facilities with which they have a relationship; (3) having any involvement with the pre or post survey activities for the health care facilities with which they have a relationship; or, (4) having any contact with the records from the surveys for any health care facilities with which they have a relationship. We believe that this should already be a usual and customary practice of the AOs and therefore there should be no additional burden to the AOs to comply with the requirements of this section.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Impacts Associated With the Requirement That AOs Incorporate the Medicare Conditions (§ 488.4(a)(1))</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(1) Impacts Associated With the Requirement That the AOs Provide Detailed Crosswalks Identifying the Incorporation of CMS Standards</HD>
                    <P>We propose at § 488.4(a)(1) to require AOs to incorporate the CMS' health and safety standards. Currently, the AOs are required to provide a similar crosswalk under the existing process, CMS previously only required a “comparable” standard. Therefore, we propose to revise § 488.5(a)(3) to require the AOs to submit “A detailed crosswalk (in table format, as specified by CMS) that identifies each of the applicable Medicare conditions (as defined in § 488.1) incorporating the language of CMS requirements and standards.”</P>
                    <P>As a result of this proposal, AOs would need to recreate their AO standards to match CMS'. We also note that this proposal would require a one-time overhaul of AO standards and burden would be imposed for the first year following the effective date of this rule and not be a reoccurring annual burden. Incremental costs subsequent to changes would be minimal, as our proposal reflect current practice) with updates required to be reviewed and approved as outlined in existing § 488.5).</P>
                    <P>We anticipate the impact to AOs for the revision of their existing crosswalk and standards into the required format would be $159.12 per AO. We estimate that the total cost impact across the 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers would be $84,993.48 for one accreditation program each.</P>
                    <P>However, the majority of our AOs have multiple accreditation programs, therefore this cost impact would increase based on the number of programs. CMS has 24 approved accreditation programs across the 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers. We estimate that the total financial impact across all of these accreditation programs would be $185,440.32.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(2) Impacts Related to AO Providing Notice of the Revised Accreditation Standards to Their Accredited Providers and Suppliers Via Their Website</HD>
                    <P>In addition to changing the survey standards as proposed under § 488.4(a)(1), the AOs would be required to provide the newly revised AO standards to the facilities they accredit. There are approximately 14,904 accredited facilities across all program types. We believe that the majority of AOs have a website portal on which they make their standards available to their accredited providers and suppliers.</P>
                    <P>We estimated that the total impact across the 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers for providing notice of their revised accreditation standards on their website would be $1,829.28.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(3) Impact Related to Providing Notice of the Revised Accreditation Standards to the Accredited Providers and Suppliers via Email</HD>
                    <P>We also believe the AOs would provide notice of their revised accreditation standards to their accredited providers and suppliers directly via email. We believe this would be a group email that would be sent out via group text to all of the AOs accredited providers and suppliers. We estimate that it would take only 15 minutes to prepare this email and there are approximately 14,904 accredited providers and suppliers across all 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers. Therefore, the total estimated financial impact across all these 11 AOs for providing notice of the AOs revised accreditation standards via email would $142,333.20.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(4) Impacts Related to Education of Providers and Suppliers Regarding New Standards</HD>
                    <P>We believe that the AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers would be required to provide education to their accredited providers and suppliers about their new Medicare accreditation standards, which must be revised to be the same as the CMS standards, or more stringent. We believe that this training would most likely be provided by webinar.</P>
                    <P>There are approximately 14,904 deemed facilities. We estimate that the cost impact to each facility would be $200.46 ($79.56 per RN + $120.90 per general or services manager). We further estimate that the total annual cost burden across all 14,904 accredited facilities would be $2,987,655.84.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Impacts Associated With the Requirement That AOs Use a Survey Process That Is Comparable to That Used by CMS and the SAs</HD>
                    <P>We propose to require the AOs to use the strengthened and revised requirements for initial and renewal applications for deeming authority, which includes revisions specifically to the documentation submitted related to the AO survey processes and guidance and its comparability to those survey processes used by the SA. We also propose to require the AOs to state in their survey reports, to identify the specific Medicare condition that corresponds with each finding of non-compliance.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(1) Impact Related to Documentation Associated With Requirements That AOs Use Comparable Survey Processes (§ 488.5(a)(4), § 488.5(a)(4)(iii), § 488.5(a)(4)(v), and § 488.5(a)(4)(vii))</HD>
                    <P>
                        We believe that impact of the changes to the require specific information related AOs' survey processes; surveyor guidance and instructions; survey forms and survey review process would vary depending on the AO because there are three out of the eleven AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers that already use survey 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12051"/>
                        processes and guidance that are very similar to that used by the SA. Therefore, the impact to these three AOs would be much less than the impact to the remaining AOs, which use a different survey process which are causing more concern related to the comparability of survey activities and the ability to maintain the integrity of the survey process. For the purposes of this impact analysis we have provided our estimates based on an AO that would require the most changes to their existing documentation provided to show AO comparability to CMS survey processes, guidance and documentation.
                    </P>
                    <P>The requirements under § 488.5(a)(4), § 488.5(a)(4)(iii), § 488.5(a)(4)(v), and § 488.5(a)(4)(vii)) would require AOs to ensure documentation submitted supported the already existing expectations under the regulatory requirements and only added additional clarity within these proposed provisions. Therefore, we estimate that there is no impact on each AO for providing these requirements, as further explained in section VI.C.1 of this proposed rule, that AOs Use Comparable Survey Process (§ 488.5(a)(4), § 488.5(a)(4)(iii), § 488.5(a)(4)(v), and § 488.5(a)(4)(vii)).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(2) Impact Related to Documentation Requirements Imposed by Requirement That AOs Submit a Training for CMS About Its Revised Survey Process (§ 488.5(a)(4)(xi))</HD>
                    <P>The proposed requirements under § 488.5(a)(4)(xi) would require the development of a presentation, such as an abbreviated web-based training or related training materials, for CMS about the AOs revised survey processes, specifically highlighting areas which vary from the survey processes and activities used by the SA. We believe while this would require development of new material, the content of such material is already available and would be extrapolated from the AOs training to new surveyors.</P>
                    <P>We believe that development of the training would be $4,169.10 per AO and $45,860.10 across all 11 AOs. However, we further determined that we would consider the total across all 24 accredited programs to be $100,058.40 as survey processes used by the AO may vary based on the provider or supplier.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(3) Impact Related to Documentation Related to Requirements That AOs Use Comparable Survey Process (§ 488.5(a)(5), § 488.5(a)(6), and § 488.5(a)(12))</HD>
                    <P>Aforementioned in the Impact Related to Documentation Imposed by Requirements that AOs Use Comparable Survey Process (§ 488.5(a)(4), § 488.5(a)(4)(iii), § 488.5(a)(4)(v), and § 488.5(a)(4)(vii)), the proposed requirements under § 488.5(a)(5), § 488.5(a)(6), and § 488.5(a)(12) also clarify existing and longstanding standard practices on the survey processes and do not impose additional burden to the AOs. Therefore, we estimate these proposed requirements would have no financial impact on the AOs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(4) Impact Related to Documentation Requirements Imposed by Requirement That AOs Use Comparable Survey Process (§ 488.5(a)(13))</HD>
                    <P>The requirements at § 488.5(a)(13) currently require the AOs to have: (1) procedures for responding and investigating complaints and, (2) a process for decision-making as it relates to accrediting status. We propose to add two new requirements which would require the AO to provide CMS with its organizational policies and procedures related to the AOs notification procedures, including timeframes for notification, to CMS in regards to a facility which the AO accredits when the facility fails to meet accreditation standards or its accreditation status is affected, as well as its processes and timelines for notification to CMS when one of its accredited facilities withdraws from accreditation. We estimate the total burden to be $886.60 per AO or $9,752.60 across all 11 AOs.</P>
                    <P>We estimate that the total financial impact for these tasks would be $109,650.20 across all 11 AOs and the 24 programs currently recognized under AO deeming authority.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(5) Impact Related to the Requirement for AO To Submit Survey Findings/Reports</HD>
                    <P>As mentioned in the preamble, we also propose to require the AOs as part of their application under § 488.5(a)(4)(viii) to acknowledge that it will submit any requested survey findings and reports, to include complaint survey reports to CMS for internal use.</P>
                    <P>This requirement would not cause the AOs to incur any new additional burden as the submission of this information is already required by this regulation and is therefore is a usual and customary part requirement for initial and renewal applications. AOs are also already required to submit the deficiencies and facility non-compliance in a roll up format. Therefore, this proposed requirement for a full survey report would not cause any additional burden as CMS would not require a specific new entry or format and reduce time spent by the AO summarizing the survey activity.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(6) Impact Related to the Requirement That the AOs Submit Their Revised Accreditation Standards and Survey Processes to CMS for Review and Approval</HD>
                    <P>Finally, in addition to the burden estimates above, the AOs would be required to resubmit their new survey processes and standards for CMS review as required under § 488.8(b)(2). We anticipate the total financial impact associated with the requirement at § 488.8(b)(2) that an AO submit any proposed changes in its accreditation requirements or survey process to CMS for review and approval would be $3,057.60 per AO per accrediting program type. We estimate that the financial impact across the 11 AOs would be $33,633.60. Finally, we estimate that the total financial impact across the 24 accredited programs is estimated at $73,382.40.</P>
                    <P>As mentioned within the preamble, the proposed changes would not implement a reoccuring annual burden, but rather have a one-time burden on the AOs until the survey processes and activities are aligned with our proposed changes. CMS would resume the current process for approval and re-approval of AOs and their accrediting programs as outlined within the new proposed § 488.5.</P>
                    <P>We do note, there is no direct burden associated with these changes to the deemed provider or supplier.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Impact Related to the Requirement That the AO Surveyors Take the CMS Online Surveyor Training</HD>
                    <P>We proposed at § 488.5(a)(8), to add a new requirement that would require AO to state in their application for CMS approval, that AOs that who accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers must include a statement acknowledging that all AO surveyors have completed or will complete two CMS mandatory documentation courses and the relevant program specific CMS online trainings established for SA surveyors, initially, and thereafter.</P>
                    <P>CMS provides a number of online surveyor training modules that are available to the SA surveyors. We proposed to require the AO surveyors to take this training in an attempt to decrease the historically high disparity rate between the AOs survey results and those of the validation surveys performed by the SA surveyors.</P>
                    <P>
                        There are a total of 163 online training programs that are available the SA surveyors on the CMS Quality, Safety and Education Portal (QSEP) website. 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12052"/>
                        This website provides courses that are general in nature such as “Principles of Documentation for Non-Long Term Care” and “Basic Writing Skills for Surveyor Staff”, infection control, patient safety, Emergency Preparedness. The CMS QSEP website also offers courses related to specific health care settings such as hospitals, CAHs, ASCs, Laboratories, Community Mental Health Centers, EMTALA, Federally Qualified Health Centers (FQHCs), Home Health Agencies and OASIS, Hospices, Nursing Homes and the MDS, Outpatient Physical Therapy/Outpatient Speech Therapy. These courses are self-paced and the person taking the course can take the courses over a period of time. The amount of time required to complete each of these training course varies depending on the pace at which the trainee completes the training. The basic surveyor training courses for specific programs range in time from 16-82 hours for completion. We estimate the average time it takes to take one of the basic surveyor courses is 27 hours. This could be more or less depending upon the specific program that AO surveyors need to take.
                    </P>
                    <P>We would require that each AO surveyor takes the 2 mandatory documentation courses (that is “Principles of Documentation for Non-Long-Term Care” and “Basic Writing Skills for Surveyor Staff”) and the basic surveyor course for the care setting for which they perform surveys. We further estimate that it would take approximately 4 hours to complete each of these courses, however, these courses are self-paced and could take less or longer. Therefore, an AO surveyor would incur a time burden of approximately 35 hours for the completion of all of the required CMS surveyor training courses.</P>
                    <P>Based upon this information we estimate that the financial impact to the AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers would $2,784.60 per each surveyor that completes the CMS online surveyor training.</P>
                    <P>We are not able to accurately estimate to total time and cost burden to each AO for the wages incurred for the time spent by all surveyors from each AO to take the CMS online surveyor training courses, because we do not know exactly how many surveyors each AO has. However, if we estimate that each AO has 75 surveyors, the estimated financial impact to each AO associated with this requirement would be $208.845.</P>
                    <P>As of February 4, 2020, there are currently 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers. We estimate that the total estimated financial impact across these 11 AOs would be $2,297,295.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Impact Associated With the Establishment of a Definition for “National in Scope”</HD>
                    <P>As proposed under § 488.1, we would require the AO to provide documentation for meeting the definition of “national in scope” within their initial and reapplication process. As currently required under § 488.5(a)(1), the AO must provide documentation that demonstrates the organization meets the definition of a “national accrediting organization” under § 488.1 as it relates to the accreditation program. Therefore, we estimate the burden on AOs to be minimal as they are already required to provide documentation to this effect. Therefore, we estimate the following:</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(1) Impact Related to the Documentation Requirements for “National in Scope”</HD>
                    <P>We anticipate that a CEO of an AO would compile and verify that the AO meets the proposed definition of “national in scope”. According to the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, the mean hourly wage for a CEO is $102.41. This wage adjusted for the employer's fringe benefits and overhead would be $204.82. (See Table 1 in section IV “Collection of Information Requirements” of this proposed rule.)</P>
                    <P>CMS is not requiring to use a specific format for the documentation they submit to show that their accreditation program is national in scope. However, we suggest that the AO provides a list, which lists the accredited facilities and which would show the geographic locations for these accredited facilities. For existing CMS-approved AOs, the general re-application cycle is not to exceed 6 years. Therefore, we anticipate this below burden to apply every 4 to 6 years.</P>
                    <P>We anticipate the compiling of this information would take approximately 40 minutes (0.66 hours). Currently, there are 11 approved AOs and we anticipate no more than two new AOs per year to apply for deeming authority. We estimate that the total financial impact to each AO for completion of this task would be $136.55 every 6 years ($204.82 per hour × 0.66 hours). We further estimate that the financial impact across the 11 AOs that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers would be $1,501.72.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(2) Impact Related to Incorporation of the “National in Scope” Requirements Into the AO's Application</HD>
                    <P>When preparing an initial application of CMS approval of its accreditation programs, an AO must include documentation that their accreditation programs meet the definition of “national in scope.” We anticipate that would be performed by a Medical Secretary with an hourly wage of $38.22 and would take 5 minutes (0.083 hour) to complete. We estimate that the financial impact for this requirement would be a $3.18.</P>
                    <P>There are 11 AOs. We estimate that the total financial impact for this work across all AOs would be $35.03.</P>
                    <P>We do note, there is no direct burden associated with these changes to the deemed provider or supplier.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Impact Associated With the Proposed Revision of the AO Performance Measures</HD>
                    <P>As proposed in this rule, we are requiring that AO submit a publicly reportable plan of correction for performance measure scores that are under an acceptable threshold for established performance.</P>
                    <P>This is a new requirement and therefore would be a new burden for AOs to complete. The plan of correction must be completed and submitted to CMS within 10-business days follow the notification of the AO of their less than acceptable performance. The plan of correction must address the areas of improvement and the specific actions to be taken to improve those areas on a sustainable basis, the process for ongoing monitoring of progress of the toward acceptable performance, as well as the individuals responsible for overseeing the plan of correction and the anticipated implementation dates of the proposed actions.</P>
                    <P>We estimate that it would take 80 hours for the AO staff to prepare each plan of correction. We believe that the financial impact to the AO for this task would be $15,395, based on the preparation of 123 plans of correction per year. We estimate the the total annual impact per each AO for the complation of 123 POCs per year would be $2,015,428.80 per each AO for completion of 123 POCs per year. The total financial impact across all 11 AOs that accredit Medicare providers and suppliers would be $22,169,716.80.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">g. Impact Associated With the Revision of the Definition of “Disparity Rate”</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the proposed definition of disparity rate there is no associated burden as look-behind validation surveys are a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12053"/>
                        usual and customary part of the existing validations program. Direct observation validation surveys are already being performed under current regulatory authority § 488.8(a)(2) and have become a usual and customary part of the validation program. AO will continue to perform survey activities as required, the revised and expanded definition of disparity will impact data collection by CMS, but no additional burden to the AO or provider.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">h. Impact for the Revision of the AO Validation Program</HD>
                    <P>In the proposed revision and expansion of § 488.9, we propose to revise the validation program to include the additional component of a direct observation of the AO's survey process by the SA or CMS surveyors. There would be no associated impact to the AO or SA as a result of the additional validation method. Currently, CMS funds validation surveys. We do not anticipate additional costs. However, there are associated burden reductions to the provider community since half of the traditional validation survey will be replaced by direct observation validation surveys.</P>
                    <P>We anticipate a burden reduction based on our proposed changes. The anticipated annual burden reduction to providers and suppliers is based on our FY 2019 look-behind validation survey data collection. In FY 2019, we conducted approximately 315 surveys. The anticipated burden reduction with our new proposed changes are based on the look-behind validation surveys, which allows a reduction by at least 50 percent (180 look-back surveys) through replacing them with the direct observation validation survey. This burden reduction occurs because during direct observation surveys, the SA surveyors observe the AO surveyors during the performance of a reaccreditation survey instead of performing a separate validation survey within 60 days of the AO's reaccreditation survey. As only one survey is performed, the burden to providers and suppliers undergoing validation using the direct observation validation method is reduced by at least 50 percent. We determined that the use of the direct observation validation surveys would reduce the burden related to the look-back validation surveys to providers and supplier by at least 50 percent because with direct observation validation surveys, the SA surveyors observe the AO surveyors during the performance of their survey. This requires only one survey to be performed. Whereas, with 60-day look-back validation surveys, the SA surveyors perform a validation survey within 60 days of the AO's reaccreditation survey. This requires the provider or supplier selected for validation to undergo two surveys within a 60-day period. Half of the validation surveys to be performed with the revised validation program will use the direct observation method. Therefore, we estimate that provider/supplier burden would be reduced by 50 at least percent. We believe this, in turn, would reduce the financial impact of the validation program to provider and supplier burden or in other words result in a cost savings of $2,062,195.20.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Impact Associated With the Revision of the Psychiatric Hospital Accreditation Process</HD>
                    <P>As discussed in this proposed rule, we propose to require AOs which have a CMS-approved hospital accreditation program to expand their programs to include the three special conditions for psychiatric hospitals and provide CMS with a detailed crosswalk which identifies the inclusion of the psychiatric standards which meet or exceed CMS psychiatric Medicare conditions. While these AOs already have approved hospital programs, we note that this proposal would require a one-time overhaul of the hospital program standards to expand the program to include the psychiatric standards and burden would be imposed for the first year following the effective date of this rule and not be a reoccurring annual burden. Burden costs subsequent to changes would remain as current practice with updates required to be reviewed and approved as outlined in existing § 488.5. As proposed in multiple sections of this proposed rule, we propose to require the AOs to use Medicare conditions, more comparable survey processes with the ability to delineate where they exceed and take the CMS online surveyor training courses. Therefore, we believe burden would be minimal and most of the burden would be in areas in which the AO would “exceed” Medicare requirements.</P>
                    <P>Currently, there are four CMS-approved AOs which have established hospital accreditation programs. One of these four AOs which already has an established CMS-approved psychiatric accreditation program.</P>
                    <P>We anticipate that this requirement be of moderate burden for AOs, however we anticipate the burden to be a one-time burden for 3 of 4 hospital AOs. Once effective by the date of the final rule, or as specified by CMS, this would be part of the initial and renewal application process as defined in § 488.5, therefore would not imposed annual reoccurring burden to any AOs initially applying or reapplying. We would expect that the AOs use the existing CFR language they are required to crosswalk currently in the regular hospital program and expand it to assign an AO standard number to the psychiatric standards with language which meets or exceeds the Medicare standards.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(1) Impact Associated With the Requirement That the AOs Develop a Psychiatric Hospital Accreditation Program</HD>
                    <P>We anticipate the burden for AOs to review and revise their existing hospital program crosswalk and standards to include the psychiatric standards would cause a financial impact to each affected AO in the amount of $21,342.</P>
                    <P>There are currently three AOs which would need to revise their hospital programs to incorporate these standards. We estimate that the total financial impact across these 3 AOs would be $64,026.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(2) Impact Associated With Accrediting Facilities Under the Revised Psychiatric Hospital Accreditation Program</HD>
                    <P>As aforementioned, there are four existing AOs which have a CMS-approved hospital accreditation program, however three of four AOs would need to resubmit their applications for CMS-approval based on the proposed provisions for the psychiatric standards as well as meeting the definition and criteria of national in scope. The scope of the CMS-approved hospital programs would not change with this proposed expansion of the program to include the psychiatric special conditions. Once the hospital program is approved as national in scope, the addition of the three special conditions does not change the overall scope of the entire program. Therefore, we believe this burden would be incorporated into the burden required with the new proposed changes of this rule. Therefore, please see the impact section for comparability to the CMS survey processes as required by § 488.4(a)(2).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">j. Impact Associated With Limitations to Terminated Deemed Providers and Suppliers Seeking Re-Approval Into Medicare/Medicaid</HD>
                    <P>
                        We proposed to add a new policy at § 488.4(b) which would withdraw CMS recognition of the “deeming authority” accreditation of any Medicare certified provider or supplier that is terminated from the Medicare/Medicaid program, if such terminated provider/supplier 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12054"/>
                        subsequently applies to re-enter Medicare and seek initial certification. We also proposed to add new requirement at § 488.4(b)(2) that would require that before a terminated provider or supplier would be eligible for participation in the Medicare program, they would have to meet all of the requirements of § 489.57.
                    </P>
                    <P>In support of our proposal at § 488.4(b), we also propose to add a new requirement at § 488.5(a)(21) that would require AOs to provide, with their initial and renewal applications, a statement certifying that, in response to a written notice from CMS notifying the AO that one of its accredited providers or suppliers has been terminated from the Medicare/Medicaid program, the AO agrees to terminate or revoke its accreditation of the terminated provider or supplier within 5-business days from receipt of that written notice.</P>
                    <P>Section 1865(c) of the Act states that if the Secretary finds that a provider or supplier has significant deficiencies, then it is no longer deemed to meet the requirements the entity has been treated as meeting pursuant to subsection (a)(1) for such period as may be prescribed in regulations. As further explained below, our proposed revised regulations at § 489.57 governs the process that terminated providers and suppliers must follow to be allowed to submit a new request for Medicare participation. Specifically, § 489.57, as revised, would require that when a provider agreement has been terminated by CMS or OIG, a new agreement with that provider would not be accepted unless CMS or the OIG finds the following: (1) that the reason for termination of the previous agreement has been removed and there was reasonable assurance that it would not recur; and (2) that the provider has fulfilled, or has made satisfactory arrangements to fulfill, all of the statutory and regulatory responsibilities of its previous agreement. Also, the terminated provider or supplier would have to meet the following requirements before a new agreement with that provider or supplier could be approved: (1) the terminated provider or supplier would have to submit to, and remain under, the exclusive oversight of the state survey agency for a reasonable assurance period of a length of time to be determined by CMS, for the purposes of the initial survey, certification and demonstration of compliance with the Medicare conditions; (2) the terminated provider or supplier would have to remain under the exclusive oversight of the SA until the SA or CMS certified that the provider or supplier was in compliance with all applicable Medicare conditions, and CMS approved the new agreement for participation in the Medicare/Medicaid program; and (3) during the time period in which a terminated provider or supplier was not certified to participate in the Medicare program, while the prospective provider or supplier was under the oversight of the SA, and while the new agreement for Medicare participation was pending, CMS could not deem the provider to have met CMS standards via accreditation until the SA determined that the applicable Medicare requirements have been met or exceeded, as described in § 488.4.</P>
                    <P>The intended purpose of these proposed new and revised regulations is to further clarify the existing process for terminated providers and suppliers and also prevent providers and suppliers that have been terminated from the Medicare/Medicaid program from mischaracterizing their continued AO accreditation as proof that they meet the Medicare standards and provide safe and effective care, when in fact they were terminated from the Medicare program for egregious deficiencies that had, in many instances, not been detected by the AO. Currently CMS does not have explicit regulatory authority to withdraw recognition of an AO's deeming accreditation when a provider or supplier has been terminated from the Medicare/Medicaid program. Nor does CMS currently have a regulation requiring AOs to withdraw or revoke their accreditation of providers or suppliers that have been terminated from the Medicare/Medicaid programs. These proposed new and revised regulations will provide this regulatory authority for CMS. We are also proposing additional requirements at § 489.57(b) that would require that if a terminated provider or supplier filed a new application for participation in the Medicare/Medicaid program, said terminated provider or supplier would have to meet the requirements set forth at § 489.57(b)(1) to (b)(3) before their new agreement for Medicare participation could be approved.</P>
                    <P>Proposed new § 489.57(b)(1) would require that a terminated provider or supplier be under the exclusive oversight of the SA for the purpose of the initial survey, certification and demonstration of compliance with the Medicare conditions. Proposed new § 489.57(b)(2) would require that the terminated provider or supplier seeking re-entry must remain under the exclusive oversight of the SA until the SA has certified its full compliance with all applicable Medicare conditions and the agreement for participation in the Medicare/Medicaid program has been approved. Finally, proposed new § 489.57(b)(3) would require that during the time period in which the terminated provider or supplier was under the oversight of the SA and while the new agreement for Medicare participation was pending, CMS would not accept or recognize accreditation from a CMS-approved accrediting organization.</P>
                    <P>We believe that there would be no additional cost or time burden associated with these proposed requirements because the terminated providers and suppliers would have to undergo periodic, unannounced surveys performed by the SA. If these providers and suppliers had not been terminated, they would have had to undergo surveys by the AO. Therefore, the provider or supplier would incur no additional time or cost burden related to the SA survey process. Also, there would be no increase in the time required for survey of these terminated providers or suppliers to become newly certified or participate in the Medicare program.</P>
                    <P>Also, considering that as a result of the above-stated proposals, CMS would not recognize accreditation from an AO while a provider or supplier is terminated from the Medicare program, the AOs would be required to terminate or revoke accreditation for terminated providers and suppliers; and that during the time that a new agreement for Medicare participation is pending, the prospective Medicare provider or supplier would be under the exclusive oversight of the SA, they would not incur any fees for SA's services.</P>
                    <P>In addition, terminated providers seeking re-entry into the Medicare/Medicaid program would be required to submit an initial enrollment application to CMS. The provider or supplier would not incur any new time or cost burden related to the preparation and submission of the application because the preparation and submission of this application is a usual and customary requirement for any entity seeking initial certification as a provider or supplier in the Medicare/Medicaid program.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Financial Impact Caused by the Proposals in This Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>Table 4 summarizes the financial impact of the proposals that we are making in this proposed rule.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="372">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12055"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.015</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="638">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12056"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.016</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="341">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12057"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.017</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-C</BILCOD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Regulatory Review Cost Estimation</HD>
                    <P>If regulations impose administrative costs on private entities, such as the time needed to read and interpret this proposed rule, we should estimate the cost associated with regulatory review. Due to the uncertainty involved with accurately quantifying the number of entities that will review the rule, we assume that the total number of unique commenters to the 2018 AO Conflict of Interest Request for Information (December 20, 2018, 83 FR 65331) will be the number of reviewers of this proposed rule. We acknowledge that this assumption may understate or overstate the costs of reviewing this rule. It is possible that not all commenters reviewed the 2018 AO Conflict of Interest Request for Information in detail, and it is also possible that some reviewers chose not to comment on the published rule. For these reasons we thought that the number of past commenters would be a fair estimate of the number of reviewers of this rule. We welcome any comments on the approach in estimating the number of entities which will review this proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        We believe that persons reviewing this rule would consist of AO management staff, healthcare association management staff, and health care facility management staff. We believe all of these persons would have positions that fall under the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics job category of medical and health services manager. Assuming an average reading speed, we estimate that it would take approximately 2 hours for the staff to review this proposed rule. Using the wage information from the BLS for Medical and Health Service Managers (Code 11-9111), we estimate that the cost of reviewing this rule is $230.44 ($115.22 per hour × 2 hours).
                        <SU>21</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>21</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/oes/current/oes119111.htm.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Alternatives Considered</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Proposed Changes to AO Fee-Based Consulting</HD>
                    <P>We considered proposing a complete ban on AO fee-based consulting because of the conflict of interest associated with the provisions of this service by the AOs to the health care providers and suppliers they accredit. However, we presume the financial impact to the AOs associated with a complete ban on fee-based consulting would be larger. For example, the AO that provides the most fee-based consulting realized over $50 million dollars annually from providing these services. A complete or almost complete ban on the provision of AO fee-based consulting services would eliminate or severely limit this revenue source.</P>
                    <P>Therefore, we decided to propose more limited restrictions on AO fee-based consulting services that would address the conflicts of interest.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Proposed Changes to the Validation Program</HD>
                    <P>
                        We considered several alternatives for changes to the validation program. First, we considered making no changes to the validations program, which would mean that we would continue performing only look-back surveys. We also considered performing only direct observation surveys. After considering the alternative, we decided to propose performing a combination of both look-back and direct observation surveys because this would result in a cost savings to providers and suppliers. If we were to continue the validation program as is, there would be no change in 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12058"/>
                        provider burden. If we modify the validation program by performing only direct observation validation surveys, burden to providers and suppliers would be reduced significantly, however, the workload on the SAs would be increased significantly. The SAs have indicated during the pilot program that they would not be able to handle such an increased workload. Therefore by using the direct observation method for at least 50 percent of the validation surveys performed annually this would provide a significant decrease in provider and supplier burden while placing a manageable and acceptable workload on the SAs.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA)</HD>
                    <P>The RFA requires agencies to analyze options for regulatory relief of small entities. For purposes of the RFA, small entities include small businesses, nonprofit organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions. Most hospitals and most other providers and suppliers are small entities, either by nonprofit status or by having revenues of less than $8.0 million to $41.5 million in any 1 year. Individuals and states are not included in the definition of a small entity. We are not preparing an analysis for the RFA because we have determined, and the Secretary certifies, that this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. (See the Table 2 in section VI.B.1 of this proposed rule.)</P>
                    <P>In addition, section 1102(b) of the Act requires us to prepare a regulatory impact analysis if a rule may have a significant impact on the operations of a substantial number of small rural hospitals. This analysis must conform to the provisions of section 603 of the RFA. For purposes of section 1102(b) of the Act, we define a small rural hospital as a hospital that is located outside of a metropolitan statistical area and has fewer than 100 beds. We are not preparing an analysis for section 1102(b) of the Act because we have determined, and the Secretary certifies, that this proposed rule would not have a significant impact on the operations of a substantial number of small rural hospitals.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA)</HD>
                    <P>Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) also requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule whose mandates require spending in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. In 2023, that threshold is approximately $177 million. This proposed rule would not impose a mandate that will result in the expenditure by State, local, and Tribal Governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of more than $177 million in any 1 year.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Federalism</HD>
                    <P>Executive Order 13132 establishes certain requirements that an agency must meet when it promulgates a proposed rule (and subsequent final rule) that imposes substantial direct requirement costs on state and local governments, preempts state law, or otherwise has Federalism implications. Since this regulation does not impose any costs on State or local governments, the requirements of Executive Order 13132 are not applicable.</P>
                    <P>Chiquita Brooks-LaSure, Administrator of the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, approved this document on May 23, 2023.</P>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                        <CFR>42 CFR Part 488</CFR>
                        <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Health facilities, Medicare, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                        <CFR>42 CFR Part 489</CFR>
                        <P>Health facilities, Medicare, and Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <P>For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services proposes to amend 42 CFR chapter IV, as set forth below:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 488 SURVEY, CERTIFICATION, AND ENFORCEMENT PROCEDURES</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 488 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 42 U.S.C. 1302; and 1395hh.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <AMDPAR>2. Section 488.1 is amended by—</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Adding the definition of “Geographic regions”;</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Revising the definition of “National accrediting organization”;</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>c. Adding the definitions of “National in scope”, “Outcome disparity rate” and “Process disparity rate”;</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>d. Removing the definition of “Rate of disparity”; and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>e. Adding the definition of “Unannounced survey”.</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The additions and revisions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 488.1</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Geographic regions</E>
                            —CMS uses specified geographic regions of the Unites States to measure whether an accrediting organization's accreditation program meets the definition of “national in scope.” For this purpose, the United States is divided into the following five geographic regions:
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Northeast:</E>
                             Delaware, District of Columbia, Maryland, Pennsylvania, Virginia, West Virginia, New York, New Jersey, Puerto Rico, Virgin Islands, Connecticut, Maine, Massachusetts, New Hampshire, Rhode Island, and Vermont;
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Southeast:</E>
                             Alabama, Florida, Georgia, Kentucky, Mississippi, North Carolina, South Carolina, and Tennessee;
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Midwest:</E>
                             Illinois, Indiana, Michigan, Minnesota, Ohio, Wisconsin;
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Central:</E>
                             Iowa, Kansas, Missouri, and Nebraska; Colorado, Montana, North Dakota, South Dakota, Utah, Wyoming;
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">South:</E>
                             Arkansas, Louisiana, New Mexico, Oklahoma, and Texas;
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (6) 
                            <E T="03">Western:</E>
                             American Samoa, Arizona, California, Hawaii, Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, Alaska, Idaho, Nevada, Oregon, Washington
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">National accrediting organization</E>
                             means an accrediting organization that is national in scope and accredits provider or suppliers, under a specific accreditation program.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">National in scope</E>
                             means that the providers and suppliers accredited by an accrediting organization under a specific accreditation program, are widely located geographically across the United States. The requirement for “national in scope” has two components. First, the accrediting organization must have accredited at least five providers or suppliers under the accreditation program in question. Second, the five providers or suppliers accredited by the accrediting organization under that accreditation program must be geographically located in at least five out of the six geographic regions.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Outcome disparity rate</E>
                             means the percentage of all look-back validation surveys for an accrediting organization's program for which the state survey agency finds noncompliance with one or more Medicare conditions and no comparable condition level deficiency was cited by the accrediting organization, where it is reasonable to conclude that the deficiencies were present at the time of the accrediting organization's most recent survey of that provider or supplier.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Process disparity rate</E>
                             means, for a direct observation validation survey, the 
                            <PRTPAGE P="12059"/>
                            difference between the observed survey process findings and the expected survey process findings expressed as a percentage.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Unannounced survey</E>
                             means a survey that is conducted without any prior notice of any type, through any means of communication or forums, to the facility to be surveyed, and therefore, is unexpected to the facility until the arrival onsite by surveyors. This also means that the accrediting organizations must schedule their surveys so that the facility is unable to predict when they will be performed.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>3. Revise § 488.4 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 488.4</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> General rules for a CMS approved accreditation program for providers and suppliers.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) The following requirements apply when a national accrediting organization has applied for CMS approval of a provider or supplier accreditation program and CMS has found that the program provides reasonable assurance to providers or suppliers accredited under the program:</P>
                        <P>(1) The accrediting organizations that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers shall incorporate the applicable Medicare conditions language as their minimum accreditation standards, which are applicable beginning [date 1 year after the effective date of the final rule].</P>
                        <P>(2) The accrediting organizations that accredit Medicare-certified providers and suppliers shall use a survey process comparable to the processes set out in the State Operations Manual, or as issued via policy memorandums, and approved by CMS, as defined in § 488.5, applicable beginning [date 1 year from the effective date of the final rule].</P>
                        <P>(3) When a provider or supplier demonstrates full compliance with all of the accreditation program requirements of the accrediting organization's CMS-approved accreditation program, the accrediting organization may recommend that CMS grant deemed status to the provider or supplier.</P>
                        <P>(4) CMS may deem the provider or supplier to be in compliance with the applicable Medicare conditions or requirements. The deemed status provider or supplier is subject to validation surveys as provided at § 488.9.</P>
                        <P>(b) The following requirements apply for termination of a provider's or supplier's Medicare participation agreement on CMS recognition of its accreditation provider by an Accrediting Organization:</P>
                        <P>(1) If CMS terminates the participation agreement of a provider or supplier, CMS will no longer recognize or accept the accreditation provided by an accreditation organization to that provider or supplier as demonstrating that the Medicare requirements have been met by such provider or supplier; and,</P>
                        <P>(2) If CMS terminates the participation agreement of a provider or supplier, the terminated provider or supplier must meet all requirements set forth at 42 CFR 489.57 before a new agreement with that provider or supplier for Medicare participation will be approved.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>4. Section 488.5 is amended by—</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Revising paragraphs (a)(3), (4), (5), (6), (8), (10), (12) and (13); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Adding paragraphs (a)(21) and (22)</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The revisions and additions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 488.5</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Application and re-application procedures for national accrediting organizations. (a) * * *</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(3) A detailed crosswalk (in table format, as specified by CMS) that identifies each of the applicable Medicare conditions (as defined in § 488.1) incorporating the language of the CMS requirements and standards, and those accreditation standards that exceed the CMS conditions. This requirement, as revised, shall become applicable beginning [DATE 1 YEAR AFTER THE EFFECTIVE DATE OF THE FINAL RULE].</P>
                        <P>(4) A detailed description of the organization's survey process including, but not limited to, the core activities of the survey process such as, but not limited to, documentation supporting Pre Survey Preparation/Offsite Preparation, Entrance Interview/Activities, Information Gathering/Investigation, Analysis of Information, Exit Conference, Post Survey Activities/Statement of Deficiencies activities, to confirm that a provider or supplier meets or exceeds the Medicare program requirements, and maintains the integrity of the survey process, which is intended to be a non-biased evaluation of a facility's ability to provide safe care and protect the health and safety of patients. This description must include all of the following information:</P>
                        <P>(i) Frequency of surveys performed and an agreement by the organization to re-survey every accredited provider or supplier, through unannounced surveys, no later than 36 months after the prior accreditation effective date, including an explanation of how the accrediting organization will maintain the schedule it proposes. If there is a statutorily mandated survey interval of less than 36 months, the organization must indicate how it will adhere to the statutory schedule.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Documentation demonstrating the comparability of the organization's survey process and surveyor guidance to those required for state survey agencies conducting federal Medicare surveys for the same provider or supplier type, in accordance with the applicable requirements or conditions of participation or conditions for coverage or certification.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Copies of the organization's survey forms, guidelines, and instructions to surveyors, including but not limited to specific processes of how surveyors' survey facilities for the core survey activities: Governing Body, Patient Rights, Emergency Preparedness, Quality Assessment and Performance Improvement, Medical Staff, Nursing Services, Medical Records Services, and Infection Control. This would also include interpretive guidelines and survey probes, including patient and staff interview questions, and processes used by surveyors when interviewing facilities for compliance based on each of the specific survey standards, comparable to those instructions required for state survey agencies.</P>
                        <P>(iv) Documentation demonstrating that the organization's survey reports identify, for each finding of non-compliance with accreditation standards, the comparable Medicare CoP, CfC, conditions for certification, or requirements.</P>
                        <P>(v) Description of the organization's accreditation survey review process, to include but not limited to processes for review of medical records, medical staff credentialing procedures based on services provided; staff record review to review for competency and personnel files; adequate number of patient observations; and confidential patient interviews and staff interviews.</P>
                        <P>(vi) Description of the organization's procedures and timelines for notifying surveyed facilities of non-compliance with the accreditation program's standards.</P>
                        <P>(vii) Description of the organization's procedures and timelines for monitoring the provider's or supplier's correction of identified non-compliance with the accreditation program's standards, including the deadlines for initial and reaccreditation surveys, accreditation decisions, as well as the investigative and organizational process which the accrediting organization uses to make these determinations.</P>
                        <P>
                            (viii) A statement acknowledging that, as a condition for CMS approval of a national accrediting organization's accreditation program, the organization 
                            <PRTPAGE P="12060"/>
                            agrees to provide CMS with the following information as part of its initial and renewal applications and, upon request from CMS, and as part of the data submissions required under paragraph (a)(11)(ii) of this section:
                        </P>
                        <P>(A) a copy of all survey reports, including but not limited to, initial, re-survey, and complaint survey reports, and</P>
                        <P>(B) any other information related to survey activities as CMS may require (including corrective action plans).</P>
                        <P>(ix) A statement acknowledging that the accrediting organization will provide timely notification to CMS when an accreditation survey or complaint investigation identifies an immediate jeopardy as that term is defined at § 498.3 of this chapter. Using the format specified by CMS, the accrediting organization must notify CMS within 2-business days from the date the accrediting organization identifies the immediate jeopardy.</P>
                        <P>(x) For accrediting organizations applying for approval or re-approval of CMS-approved hospice programs, a statement acknowledging that the accrediting organization (AO) will include a statement of deficiencies (that is, the Form CMS-2567 or a successor form) to document findings of the hospice Medicare conditions of participation in accordance with section 1822(a)(2)(A)(ii) of the Act and will submit such in a manner specified by CMS.</P>
                        <P>(xi) Documentation summarizing the AOs staff training programs, whether web-based electronic or hard-copy materials, on how the AO provides training or education to surveyors on the AOs survey processes, and, where applicable, highlight differences from CMS survey processes.</P>
                        <P>(xii) The requirements of paragraph (a)(4), shall become applicable beginning [DATE 1 YEAR AFTER THE EFFECTIVE DATE OF THE FINAL RULE].</P>
                        <P>(5) Beginning [DATE 1 YEAR AFTER THE EFFECTIVE DATE OF THE FINAL RULE], the criteria the accrediting organization uses in determining the size and composition of the organization's survey teams for the type of provider or supplier to be accredited, these criteria at a minimum should address survey team size and composition based on:</P>
                        <P>(i) The size of the facility to be surveyed, based on average daily census;</P>
                        <P>(ii) The complexity of services offered, including outpatient services;</P>
                        <P>(iii) The type of survey to be conducted;</P>
                        <P>(iv) Whether the facility has special care units or off-site clinics or locations;</P>
                        <P>(v) Whether the facility has a historical pattern of serious deficiencies or complaints; and</P>
                        <P>(vi) Whether new surveyors are to accompany a team as part of their training.</P>
                        <P>(6) Beginning [DATE 1 YEAR AFTER THE EFFECTIVE DATE OF THE FINAL RULE], the overall adequacy of the number of the organization's surveyors to ensure sufficient amount of time is allotted to complete all survey activities, including how the organization will increase the size of the survey staff to match growth in the number of accredited facilities while maintaining re-accreditation intervals for existing accredited facilities.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(8) A description of the content and frequency of the organization's in-service training it provides to survey personnel, including the training materials provided, and, with respect to CMS training, a statement acknowledging that:</P>
                        <P>(i) The accrediting organization will ensure all of its surveyors complete two mandatory CMS online documentation courses and the relevant program-specific CMS online basic surveyor training course (established for state survey agency surveyors), initially, and thereafter when updates are necessary;</P>
                        <P>(ii) The required CMS online surveyor training will be completed by each existing surveyor before serving on a survey team (except as a trainee); and</P>
                        <P>(iii) The accrediting organization must document in the staff personnel records for each surveyor, that the CMS online surveyor documentation and basic training courses were completed and the date of completion. The statement must acknowledge that the accrediting organization will maintain this documentation for no less than one accreditation cycle.</P>
                        <P>(iv) These requirements shall become applicable beginning [DATE 1 YEAR AFTER THE EFFECTIVE DATE OF THE FINAL RULE].</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(10) The organization's policies and procedures to avoid conflicts of interest, (as defined in paragraph (a)(10)(v) of this section) including the appearance of conflicts of interest, involving individuals who conduct surveys or participate in accreditation decisions. These policies and procedures will include the following:</P>
                        <P>(i) The accrediting organization's policies and procedures for separation of its fee-based consulting services from its accreditation services;</P>
                        <P>(ii) The accrediting organization's policies and procedures for protecting the integrity of the accrediting organization's accreditation program, including the requirements of § 488.8(i) and (k),</P>
                        <P>(iii) The accrediting organization's policies and procedures for the prevention and handling potential or actual conflicts of interest that could arise from situations in which an accrediting organization owner, surveyor, or other employee has an interest in or relationship with another state survey agency or health care facility to which the accrediting organization provides accreditation services. Such interests or relationships include but are not limited to:</P>
                        <P>(A) Being employed as a state survey agency surveyor;</P>
                        <P>(B) Being employed in a health care facility that is accredited by the accrediting organization;</P>
                        <P>(C) Having an ownership, financial or investment interest in a health care facility that is accredited by the accrediting organization;</P>
                        <P>(D) Serving as a director of or trustee for a health care facility that is accredited by the accrediting organization;</P>
                        <P>(E) Serving on a utilization review committee of a health care facility that is accredited by the accrediting organization;</P>
                        <P>(F) Accepting fees or payments from a health facility or group of health facilities that is/are accredited by the accrediting organization;</P>
                        <P>(G) Accepting fees for personal services, contract services, referral services, or for furnishing supplies to a health care facility that is accredited by the accrediting organization;</P>
                        <P>(H) Providing consulting services to a health care facility that the accrediting organization accredits;</P>
                        <P>(I) Having members of their immediate family engaged in any of the above stated activities. The term “immediate family member” is defined as any person with which the accrediting organization owner(s), surveyors or other employees have a lineal or immediate familial or marital relationship, including a husband or wife, birth or adoptive parent, child, or sibling; stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, or stepsister; father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law; grandparent or grandchild; and spouse of a grandparent or grandchild.</P>
                        <P>
                            (J) Engaging in any activities during the course of the survey of the facility that would be or cause a conflict of interest.
                            <PRTPAGE P="12061"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>(iv) The accrediting organization's policies and procedures for notification of CMS when a conflict of interest is discovered.</P>
                        <P>(v) For the purposes of this section, a conflict of interest exists when an accrediting organization, the accrediting organization's successors, transferees, or assigns, the accrediting organization owner(s), surveyors, or other employees, or the immediate family members of the accrediting organization owners(s), surveyors and other employees have an employment, business, financial or other type of interest in or relationship with a health care facility the accrediting organization accredits.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(12) Beginning [DATE 1 YEAR AFTER THE EFFECTIVE DATE OF THE FINAL RULE], the organization's procedures for responding to, and investigating, complaints against accredited facilities, including policies and procedures regarding referrals to appropriate licensing bodies and ombudsman programs, when applicable. This would also include:</P>
                        <P>(i) Accrediting organization's process for triaging and categorizing complaints about the surveyed facility;</P>
                        <P>(ii) Timeframes for responding to complaints and a method to track and trend complaints received with respect to the accrediting organization's accredited facilities;</P>
                        <P>(iii) Procedures and persons responsible for the review of plans of corrections and procedures for follow up if the plans of corrections are not adequate;</P>
                        <P>(iv) Accrediting organization requirements for plans of corrections for standard level deficiencies;</P>
                        <P>(v) Follow up survey procedures and monitoring of condition-level findings;</P>
                        <P>(vi) Procedures for addressing immediate jeopardy deficiencies and,</P>
                        <P>(vii) Sharing of previous deficiency findings or complaints with survey teams.</P>
                        <P>(13) The organization's accreditation status decision-making process, including its policies and procedures for granting, withholding, or removing accreditation status for facilities that fail to meet the accrediting organization's standards or requirements, assignment of less than full accreditation status or other actions taken by the organization in response to non-compliance with its standards and requirements. The organization must furnish the following:</P>
                        <P>(i) A description of all types and categories of accreditation decisions associated with the program for which approval is sought, including the duration of each.</P>
                        <P>(ii) The accrediting organization's general notification procedures to notify CMS, including the timeframes for notification of any decision to revoke, withdraw, or revise the accreditation status of a specific deemed status provider or supplier. Such notification must be made within three business days from the date the organization takes an action.</P>
                        <P>(iii) A statement acknowledging that the organization agrees to notify CMS (in a manner CMS specifies) of any decision to revoke, withdraw, or revise the accreditation status of a specific deemed status provider or supplier, within three business days from the date the organization takes an action.</P>
                        <P>(iv) The organizations process for facilities that withdraw from accreditation, to include timeframes for notification to CMS and include the process for surveying facilities which may require an upcoming survey.</P>
                        <P>(v) These requirements of this paragraph (a)(13) become applicable beginning [DATE 1 YEAR AFTER THE EFFECTIVE DATE OF THE FINAL RULE].</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(21) A statement certifying that, in response to a written notice from CMS notifying the organization that one of its accredited providers or suppliers has been terminated from the Medicare/Medicaid program, the accrediting organization agrees to terminate or revoke its accreditation of the terminated provider or supplier within 5-business days from receipt of said written notice, and not re-accredit the provider until CMS has approved the provider or supplier for participation in Medicare.</P>
                        <P>(22) A declaration by each surveyor of any employment, business, financial or other interests in or relationships with a State Survey Agency or a health care facility the accrediting organization accredits as described in paragraph (a)(10)(iii) of this section, which must be updated on an annual basis and submitted to CMS no later than December 31st each year. This provision will become applicable beginning [DATE 1 YEAR AFTER THE EFFECTIVE DATE OF THE FINAL RULE].</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>5. Section 488.8 is amended by—</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Revising paragraph (a)(2); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Adding new paragraphs (a)(4), (i), (j) and (k).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The revision and additions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 488.8</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Ongoing review of accrediting organizations.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) * * *</P>
                        <P>(2) Analysis of the results of the validation surveys under § 488.8(a)(4), including the outcome disparity rate as determined from look-back validation surveys, surveys from substantial allegations of noncompliance, and the process disparity rate as determined from direct observation validation surveys.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(4) When an accrediting organization's performance measure scores as determined from look-back and direct observation validation surveys, reveal that the accrediting organization's accreditation survey activities do not meet an acceptable performance threshold established by CMS, the accrediting organization will be required to submit an acceptable plan of correction that meets the requirements set forth below:</P>
                        <P>(i) The accrediting organization's acceptable plan of correction must be submitted to CMS for review within 10 business days of CMS notification of not meeting acceptable performance. An acceptable plan of correction must:</P>
                        <P>(A) Document specific actions being taken by the accrediting organization to address improving performance.</P>
                        <P>(B) Document the timeframe for implementation of this plan.</P>
                        <P>(C) Plan for ongoing monitoring of the plan of correction toward achieving an acceptable level of performance.</P>
                        <P>(D) Identify the individual responsible for implementation and monitoring of the acceptable plan of correction.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Upon review and approval of the plan of correction, CMS will provide ongoing evaluation of the progress of plan implementation.</P>
                        <P>(iii) The accrediting organization's plan of correction is subject to public reporting by CMS.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Restrictions on fee-based consulting provided by accrediting organizations or their fee-based consulting divisions or separate fee-based business entities.</E>
                             (1) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(4) of this section, an accrediting organization or its fee-based consulting division or separate business entity (such as a company or corporation, that provides fee-based consulting), may not provide fee-based consulting services to any new health care provider or supplier before the initial accreditation survey has been completed. For purposes of this paragraph, the term “initial survey” means the first accreditation survey performed of a health care provider or supplier by an accrediting organization that has not previously received accreditation services from that 
                            <PRTPAGE P="12062"/>
                            accrediting organization. If a health care provider or supplier is terminated or withdraws from the services of an accrediting organization and later retains the services of the same or a new accrediting organization, the first survey performed by the same or new accrediting organization of that health care provider or supplier would be considered an initial accreditation survey;
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(4) of this section, an accrediting organization, its fee-based consulting division or separate business entity, such as a company or corporation, that provides fee-based consulting, may not provide fee-based consulting services to a health care provider or supplier the accrediting organization accredits within 12 months prior to the next scheduled re-accreditation survey of that provider or supplier. For purposes of this paragraph, the term “re-accreditation survey” means the any subsequent accreditation surveys performed by the accrediting organization following the initial survey;</P>
                        <P>(3) Except as provided in paragraph (i)(4), an accrediting organization, its fee-based consulting division, or separate business entity, such as company or corporation that provides fee-based consulting, may not provide fee-based consulting services to a health care provider or supplier, to which the accrediting organization provides accreditation services, in response to a complaint received by the accrediting organization regarding that provider or supplier.</P>
                        <P>(4) An accrediting organization, its fee-based consulting division, or separate business entity, such as a company or corporation that provides fee-based consulting, may provide fee-based consulting to the health care providers and suppliers it accredits only under the following circumstances:</P>
                        <P>(i) During the 24-month period after an initial or re-accreditation survey is performed.</P>
                        <P>(ii) To address complaints received and investigated by the State Survey Agency regarding an accrediting organization's accredited provider or supplier in which one or more condition level or immediate jeopardy deficiencies are identified. Such fee-based consulting by an accrediting organization may occur only after the State Survey Agency complaint investigation and survey has been completed and must only address those issues identified by the complaint survey.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Fee-based consulting services provided to health care providers or suppliers the accrediting organization does not accredit at the time the consulting services are furnished.</P>
                        <P>(iv) Non fee-based consulting or general education provided by the accrediting organization about their accreditation program.</P>
                        <P>(5) The accrediting organization must provide to CMS, on a biannual basis, a document which contains the following information:</P>
                        <P>(i) Whether the accrediting organization or an associated consulting division or company established by the accrediting organization provides fee-based consulting services;</P>
                        <P>(ii) The names and CCN numbers of all health care providers and suppliers to which the accrediting organization or its associated consulting division or company has provided fee-based consulting services during the previous 6-month period;</P>
                        <P>(iii) The dates the fee-based consulting services were provided to each provider and supplier;</P>
                        <P>(iv) Whether the accrediting organization has, at any time in the past provided, or is currently providing accreditation services to each health care provider or supplier listed in said document; and</P>
                        <P>(v) For each health care provider and supplier listed in said document, the date of the most recent accreditation survey performed, and the date the next re-accreditation survey is due to be performed; and</P>
                        <P>(vi) A description of the fee-based consulting services provided to each health care provider or supplier listed in said document.</P>
                        <P>(6) If an accrediting organization provides fee-based consulting services to a health care provider or supplier it accredits, in violation of the restrictions set forth in paragraphs (i)(1), (2) and (3) of this section, CMS may take the following actions:</P>
                        <P>(i) CMS may place the accrediting organization on a CMS approved accreditation program review in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section; or</P>
                        <P>(ii) CMS may involuntarily terminate the CMS approval for the accreditation programs in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(7) The provisions at paragraph (i) of this section will become applicable beginning [DATE 1 YEAR FROM THE EFFECTIVE DATE OF THE FINAL].</P>
                        <P>
                            (j) 
                            <E T="03">Accrediting organization fee-based consulting firewall policies and procedures.</E>
                             (1) An accrediting organization, its fee-based consulting division, or separate business entity, such as a company or corporation that provides fee-based consulting services to the health care providers and suppliers the accrediting organization accredits, must have written fee-based consulting firewall policies and procedures, which, at a minimum, include the following provisions:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The accrediting organization's fee-based consulting services must be provided by a separate division of the accrediting organization or separate business entity, such as a company or corporation, that is separate from the accrediting organization's accreditation division;</P>
                        <P>(ii) An accrediting organization's fee-based consulting division or separate business entity must maintain separate staff from that of the accrediting organization's accreditation divisions to ensure that the fee-based consulting division staff do not perform accrediting organization's accreditation division functions and that the accrediting organization's accreditation division staff do not perform fee-based consulting division functions; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) An accrediting organization's accreditation staff and surveyors are prohibited from marketing the accrediting organization's fee-based consulting services to the accrediting organizations accreditation clients.</P>
                        <P>(2) An accrediting organization that provides fee-based consulting must submit its written fee-based consulting firewall policies and procedures to CMS by a date specified by CMS and with each application submitted seeking renewal of the CMS approval for their accreditation programs.</P>
                        <P>
                            (k) 
                            <E T="03">Conflict of interest due to accrediting organization owner, surveyor or other accrediting organization employee relationship with a health care facility accredited by the accrediting organization.</E>
                             (1) If an accrediting organization owner, surveyor or other employee, currently or within the previous 2 years, has an interest in or relationship (as defined in § 488.5(a)(10)(iii)(B) to 488.5(a)(10)(iii)(J)) with a health care facility, accredited by the accrediting organization, the accrediting organization owner, surveyor or other employee shall not be permitted to:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Participate in the survey of that health care facility,</P>
                        <P>(ii) Have input into the results of the survey and accreditation for that health care facility,</P>
                        <P>(iii) Have involvement with the pre-or post-survey activities for that health care facility, or</P>
                        <P>(iv) Have contact with or access to the records for the survey and accreditation of that health care facility.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) For the purposes of this section, “immediate family member” is defined 
                            <PRTPAGE P="12063"/>
                            as any person that has a lineal familial or marital relationship with the accrediting organization owner, surveyor or other employee. Immediate family members would include a husband or wife, birth or adoptive parent, child, or sibling; stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, or stepsister; father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law; grandparent or grandchild; and spouse of a grandparent or grandchild.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>6. Revise § 488.9 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 488.9</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Validation surveys.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Basis for survey.</E>
                             CMS may require a survey of an accredited provider or supplier to validate the accrediting organization's CMS-approved accreditation process. These surveys are conducted on a representative sample basis, or in response to substantial allegations of non-compliance.
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) For a representative sample, the survey may be comprehensive and address all Medicare conditions or requirements, or it may be focused on a specific condition(s) as determined by CMS.</P>
                        <P>(2) For a substantial allegation of noncompliance, the SA surveys for any condition(s) or requirement(s) that CMS determines is related to the allegations.</P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Types of validation surveys.</E>
                             (1) Look-back Validation Surveys are performed by the state survey agency on a sample of health care facilities accredited by CMS approved accrediting organization that are scheduled for survey by the accrediting organization, and are performed within 60 days after the accrediting organization has performed its survey.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) Direct observation validation surveys are performed on a sample of the accrediting organization's surveys and are performed concurrently by the accrediting organization and the state survey agency or CMS. The state survey agency or CMS surveyors are present to observe the accrediting organization's survey process.</P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Rules for state look-back validation surveys.</E>
                             (1) All look-back validation surveys will be unannounced to the accrediting organization and the facility being surveyed.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) The look-back validation survey may address compliance with all Medicare conditions or requirements, or it may be focused on a specific condition(s) or requirement(s) as determined by CMS.</P>
                        <P>(3) For a look-back validation survey that addresses a substantial allegation of non-compliance, the state survey agency surveys for any condition(s) or requirement(s) that CMS determines is related to the allegations.</P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Selection for look-back validation survey.</E>
                             (1) A provider or supplier selected for a look-back validation survey must cooperate with the state survey agency that performs the look-back validation survey.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) If a provider or supplier selected for a look-back validation survey fails to cooperate with the state survey agency, it will no longer be deemed to meet the Medicare conditions or requirements, will be subject to a review in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, and may be subject to termination of its provider agreement under § 489.53 of this chapter.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Rules for direct observation validation surveys.</E>
                             (1) All direct observation validation surveys will be unannounced to the accrediting organization and the facility being surveyed.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) The state survey agency or CMS surveyors will generally be assigned to the accrediting organization surveyors on a 1:1 basis, matching the experience of the accreditation surveyor where possible, and using the CMS approved standards and processes to determine compliance with the Medicare conditions.</P>
                        <P>(3) The state survey agency or CMS surveyors will observe the accrediting organization survey in accordance with CMS established policies and procedures and will report the findings directly to CMS.</P>
                        <P>(4) Where the state survey agency or CMS surveyors disagree with the findings of the accrediting organization surveyors, and these differences cannot be reconciled, CMS will render a final decision. Such decision would not be appealable under part 498 of this chapter.</P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Provider or supplier not in compliance.</E>
                             A provider or supplier will be deemed non-compliant with the validation process, in accordance with this section, if any of the following conditions are present:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) The provider or supplier refuses to authorize its accrediting organization to release a copy of their current accreditation survey to CMS;</P>
                        <P>(2) The provider or supplier refuses to allow a validation survey (for either look-back or direct observation validation surveys); or,</P>
                        <P>(3) CMS finds that the provider or supplier does not meet the applicable Medicare Conditions of Participation, Conditions for Coverage, conditions of certification, or requirements.</P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Consequences for a finding of non-compliance.</E>
                             (1) If a CMS validation look-back or direct observation validation survey results in a finding that the provider or supplier is out of compliance with one or more Medicare conditions or requirements, deemed status may be removed by CMS and the provider or supplier will be subject to ongoing review by the state survey agency (in accordance with § 488.10(d)) until the provider or supplier demonstrates compliance.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) CMS may take actions for the deficiencies identified in the look-back validation survey or direct observation survey in accordance with § 488.24, or may first direct the state survey agency to, or CMS may, conduct another survey of the provider's or supplier's compliance with specified Medicare conditions or requirements before taking the enforcement actions provided for at § 488.24.</P>
                        <P>(3) If CMS determines that a provider or supplier is not in compliance with applicable Medicare conditions or requirements, they may be subject to termination of their provider agreement with CMS under § 489.53 of this chapter and any other applicable intermediate sanctions and remedies.</P>
                        <P>
                            (h) 
                            <E T="03">Re-instating deemed status.</E>
                             An accredited provider or supplier will be deemed to meet the applicable Medicare conditions or requirements in accordance with this section, if the following requirements are met, as applicable:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) It withdraws any prior refusal to authorize its accrediting organization to release a copy of the provider's or supplier's current accreditation survey.</P>
                        <P>(2) It withdraws any prior refusal to allow a look-back or direct observation validation survey, if applicable.</P>
                        <P>(3) CMS finds that the provider or supplier meets all applicable Medicare Conditions of Participation, Conditions for Coverage, conditions of certification, or other requirements.</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Impact of adverse actions.</E>
                             The existence of any performance review, comparability review, deemed status review, probationary period, or any other action by CMS, does not affect or limit conducting any validation survey.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 489—PROVIDER AGREEMENTS AND SUPPLIER APPROVAL</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>7. The authority citation for part 489 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 42 U.S.C. 1302, 1395i-3, 1395x, 1395aa(m), 1395cc, 1395ff, and 1395(hh).</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <AMDPAR>8. Section 489.20 is amended by adding paragraph (z) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 489.20</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Basic commitments.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (z) In the case of a provider that has been involuntarily terminated by CMS 
                            <PRTPAGE P="12064"/>
                            under § 489.53, or by the OIG under § 489.54, reinstatement of the provider agreement is subject to § 489.57(b).
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>9. Revise § 489.57 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 489.57</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Reinstatement after termination.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>When a provider agreement has been terminated by CMS under § 489.53, or by the OIG under § 489.54, a new agreement with that provider will not be accepted unless:</P>
                        <P>(a) CMS or the OIG, as appropriate, finds—</P>
                        <P>(1) That the reason for termination of the previous agreement has been removed and</P>
                        <P>there is reasonable assurance that it will not recur; and</P>
                        <P>(2) That the provider has fulfilled, or has made satisfactory arrangements to fulfill, all of the statutory and regulatory responsibilities of its previous agreement.</P>
                        <P>(b) The terminated provider or supplier that had deemed status meets the following requirements before a new agreement with that provider or supplier may be approved:</P>
                        <P>(1) The terminated provider or supplier must become and remain under the exclusive oversight of the state survey agency for a reasonable assurance period of a length of time to be determined by CMS, for the purposes of the initial survey, certification and demonstration of compliance with the Medicare conditions.</P>
                        <P>(2) The terminated provider or supplier must remain under the exclusive oversight of the state survey agency until the state survey agency or CMS has certified that the provider or supplier is in compliance with all applicable Medicare conditions and the agreement for participation in the Medicare/Medicaid program has been approved.</P>
                        <P>(3) During the time period in which a terminated provider or supplier is not certified to participate in the Medicare program, while the prospective provider or supplier is under the oversight of the state survey agency, and while the new agreement for Medicare participation is pending, CMS will not accept or recognize deeming accreditation from a CMS-approved accrediting organization until the applicable Medicare requirements have been met or exceeded, as described in § 488.4 of this chapter.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SIG>
                        <NAME>Xavier Becerra,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-02137 Filed 2-8-24; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
            </PRORULE>
        </PRORULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>89</VOL>
    <NO>32</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, February 15, 2024</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="12065"/>
            <PARTNO>Part IV</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Department of Defense</AGENCY>
            <SUBAGY>Department of the Army, Corps of Engineers</SUBAGY>
            <HRULE/>
            <CFR>33 CFR Part 234</CFR>
            <TITLE>Corps of Engineers Agency Specific Procedures To Implement the Principles, Requirements, and Guidelines for Federal Investments in Water Resources; Proposed Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <PRORULES>
            <PRORULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="12066"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                    <SUBAGY>Department of the Army, Corps of Engineers</SUBAGY>
                    <CFR>33 CFR Part 234</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[Docket ID: COE-2023-0005]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 0710-AB41</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Corps of Engineers Agency Specific Procedures To Implement the Principles, Requirements, and Guidelines for Federal Investments in Water Resources</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (Corps), Department of Defense (DoD).</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>This proposed rule establishes Agency Specific Procedures (ASPs) for the Corps' implementation of the Principles, Requirements, and Guidelines for water resources investments. It provides a framework to govern how the Corps would evaluate proposed water resource investments, including identification of which Corps programs and activities are subject to the Principles, Requirements, and Guidelines. The Corps is proposing this rule in response to congressional direction provided in authorizing language in the Water Resources Development Act of 2020.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>Comments must be received on or before April 15, 2024.</P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <ADD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                        <P>You may submit comments, identified by docket number COE-2023-0005, using any of these methods:</P>
                        <P>
                            1. 
                            <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                            . Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            2. 
                            <E T="03">Email: stacey.m.jensen.civ@army.mil</E>
                             and include the docket number, COE-2023-0005, in the subject line of the message.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            3. 
                            <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                             Stacey M. Jensen, 108 Army Pentagon, Room 3E474, Washington, DC 20310-0108.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            4. 
                            <E T="03">Hand Delivery/Courier:</E>
                             Due to security requirements, we cannot receive comments by hand delivery or courier.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                             Direct your comments to docket number COE-2023-0005. The public docket will include all comments exactly as submitted and without change and may be made available on-line at 
                            <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                            . This will include any personal information provided, unless the commenter indicates that the comment includes information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information where disclosure is restricted by statute. Do not submit information that you consider to be CBI, or otherwise protected, through 
                            <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                             or email. The 
                            <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                             website is an anonymous access system, which means we will not know your identity or contact information unless you provide it in the body of your comment. If you send an email directly to the Corps without going through 
                            <E T="03">regulations.gov,</E>
                             your email address will be automatically captured and included as part of the comment placed in the public docket and made available on the internet. If you submit an electronic comment, we recommend that you include your name and other contact information in the body of your comment and with any disk or CD-ROM you submit. If we cannot read your comment because of technical difficulties and cannot contact you for clarification, we may not be able to consider your comment. Electronic comments should avoid the use of any special characters, any form of encryption, and be free of any defects or viruses.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                             For access to the docket to read background documents or comments received, go to 
                            <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                            . All documents in the docket are listed. Although listed in the index, some information is not publicly available, such as CBI or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Certain other material, such as copyrighted material, is not placed on the internet and will be publicly available only in hard copy form.
                        </P>
                    </ADD>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>
                            Ms. Stacey M. Jensen, Acting Director for Policy and Legislation, Office of the Assistant Secretary of the Army (Civil Works), 108 Army Pentagon, Washington, DC 20310-0108, at (703) 459-6026 or 
                            <E T="03">stacey.m.jensen.civ@army.mil</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">A. Background</HD>
                    <P>Since the Rivers and Harbors Appropriations Act of 1903 (Pub. L. 57-154), the Corps has been required to consider the benefits of water resources investments in relation to their costs. The Flood Control Act of 1936 (Pub. L. 74-738) called for the Federal government to improve navigable waters or their tributaries for flood control purposes if the benefits to whomever they may accrue are in excess of the estimated costs. Since then, the Corps has been developing tools and methods for developing and evaluating water resource plans and projects.</P>
                    <P>Multi-objective water resource planning concepts on a comprehensive and nationally coordinated basis were central to the Water Resources Planning Act of 1965 (Pub. L. 89-80) and were reflected in Federal guidance, the Principles and Standards for Planning Water and Related Land Resources (P&amp;S), issued by the Water Resources Council in 1973 (38 FR 24778). The Water Resources Council was established by the Water Resources Planning Act of 1965 (Pub. L. 89-90) to assess and make recommendations on national water-related matters and policies (further information can be found at 18 CFR 701.3). The P&amp;S reflected two Federal objectives for water resources planning, which were to enhance national economic development and to enhance the quality of the environment.</P>
                    <P>
                        Federal water policy moved away from this dual-objective concept with the 1983 Economic and Environmental Principles and Guidelines for Water and Related Land Resources Implementation Studies (P&amp;G).
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The P&amp;G combined the two objectives of the P&amp;S into a single, integrated Federal objective, which was “to contribute to national economic development consistent with protecting the Nation's environment, pursuant to national environmental statutes, applicable executive orders, and other planning requirements”. The Water Resources Council developed the P&amp;G to guide the formulation and evaluation of alternatives in the project planning studies of four of the Federal water resources agencies, including the Corps. The Corps has implemented the P&amp;G since 1983. The P&amp;G provides that contributions to national economic development (NED) are the increases in net value of the national output of goods and services, expressed in monetary units. It also provides that contributions to NED are the direct net benefits that accrue in the planning area and the rest of the Nation.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://planning.erdc.dren.mil/toolbox/library/Guidance/Principles_Guidelines.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed on January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In the P&amp;G, four accounts were established to facilitate evaluation and display of effects of alternative plans. The only required account is the NED account. The other three accounts were: the environmental quality account, which displays nonmonetary effects on significant natural and cultural resources; the regional economic development (RED) account, which registers changes in the distribution of regional economic activity that result from each alternative plan; and the other social effects account, which registers plan effects from those other perspectives that are relevant to the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12067"/>
                        planning process, but are not reflected in the other accounts. Under the P&amp;G, the Assistant Secretary of the Army for Civil Works (ASA(CW)) may grant an exception to allow the Corps to recommend a plan that is not the NED plan. In addition, each alternative plan must be formulated in consideration of four criteria: completeness, effectiveness, efficiency, and acceptability.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In 1981, the Water Resources Council chairman requested reduced Council funding. The action was consistent with the Reagan Administration's position that states should play a more active role in water policy activities. All the organizational and staff planning functions of the Council and basin commissions were disbanded, and the revised set of “Principles and Guidelines” were issued in 1983 as one of the last formal actions of the Council. Although the Water Resources Planning Act has not been repealed and thus authorization of the Council remains statutorily, no funding for the Council has been appropriated since 1983 (CRS Report, May 11, 2009.) 
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://aquadoc.typepad.com/files/crs_report_35_years_water_policy_1973nwc_challenges_11may2009.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed on January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Section 2031 of the Water Resources Development Act of 2007 (WRDA 2007) (Pub. L. 110-114 section 2031, 42 U.S.C. 1962-3) established a National Water Resources Planning Policy. The National Water Resources Planning Policy states that all water resource projects should reflect national priorities, encourage economic development, and protect the environment by: (1) seeking to maximize sustainable economic development; (2) seeking to avoid the unwise use of floodplains and flood-prone areas and minimizing adverse impacts and vulnerabilities in any case in which a floodplain or flood-prone area must be used; and, (3) protecting and restoring the functions of natural systems and mitigating any unavoidable damage to natural systems.</P>
                    <P>Section 2031 of WRDA 2007 also called for the Secretary of the Army to revise the 1983 P&amp;G for use by the Corps in the formulation, evaluation, and implementation of water resources projects. WRDA 2007 required that these revisions to the P&amp;G address the following: the use of best available economic principles and analytical techniques, including techniques in risk and uncertainty analysis; the assessment and incorporation of public safety in the formulation of alternatives and recommended plans; assessment methods that reflect the value of projects for low-income communities and projects that use nonstructural approaches to water resources development and management; the assessment and evaluation of the interaction of a project with other water resources projects and programs within a region or watershed; the use of contemporary water resources paradigms, including integrated water resources management and adaptive management; and evaluation methods that ensure that water resources projects are justified by public benefits.</P>
                    <P>In 2014, the Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ) completed an interagency effort to update the 1983 P&amp;G, which became effective on June 15, 2015 (79 FR 77460). This effort resulted in the Principles, Requirements and Guidelines (PR&amp;G). CEQ developed the PR&amp;G through this interagency process to improve Federal decisions on investments in water resources by giving more prominence to ecological, public safety, environmental justice, and related concerns.</P>
                    <P>
                        The PR&amp;G, which govern how Federal agencies evaluate proposed water resource developments, include the following three components: (1) Principles and Requirements for Federal Investments in Water Resources (P&amp;R, 2013,
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                        ) providing the overarching concepts that the Federal Government seeks to achieve through policy implementation and requirements for inputs into analysis of Federal investment alternatives; (2) Interagency Guidelines (IG, 2014,
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                        ) providing more detailed guidance for affected Federal agencies, including the Departments of the Interior, Agriculture, and Commerce, Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), the Corps, the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA), and the Tennessee Valley Authority, for determining the applicability of the P&amp;R; and (3) agency specific procedures (ASPs) providing agency specific guidance for identifying which programs and activities are subject to the PR&amp;G. The Corps has not issued final ASPs to implement the 2013 PR&amp;G.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://obamawhitehouse.archives.gov/sites/default/files/final_principles_and_requirements_march_2013.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://obamawhitehouse.archives.gov/sites/default/files/docs/prg_interagency_guidelines_12_2014.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Section 110 of the Water Resources Development Act of 2020 (WRDA 2020) (Division AA of Pub. L. 116-260) directs the Army to issue its final ASPs necessary for the Corps' Civil Works program to implement the PR&amp;G. Section 110 of WRDA 2020 also provides that the Army must develop Corps projects in accordance with the PR&amp;G as well as Section 2031 of WRDA 2007. The WRDA 2020 directs Army to provide notice and opportunities for engagement and public comments on the development of the ASPs. The Army is pursuing this rulemaking to provide codified direction for the Corps project planning process, which will achieve the purposes of the PR&amp;G, with input from a robust and meaningful Tribal and public engagement. This proposed rule follows the general framework laid out in the PR&amp;G. The Corps also reviewed and considered the ASPs developed by other Federal agencies in developing this proposed rule. This rulemaking seeks to formalize the planning framework of the Corps under the PR&amp;G in a transparent manner, by providing the public an opportunity to comment on the proposed new planning paradigm and its requirements. The proposed ASPs would apply to plans, projects, or programs that are initiated after any final rule may take effect. The Corps would also apply the ASPs to plans, projects, or programs that have not yet issued a Draft Environmental Impact Statement or similar level of documentation on or before any final rule effective date. Note that Army, through the Assistant Secretary of the Army for Civil Works, is responsible for policy direction and oversight of the Army's Civil Works program, whereas the Corps has the lead in implementing the program. Hence this document refers both to the Army (for policy direction) and the Corps (for implementation responsibility). Although the proposed rule uses the language “water resources development project”, which is consistent with the statutory language of section 110 of the Water Resources Development Act of 2020, and is the terminology generally used in Corps statutes and regulations, the Corps does acknowledge that its role has evolved over the years to include developing, managing, restoring, and protecting water resources. A more appropriate term to use throughout would be “water resources projects” rather than “water resources development projects.” Consistent with this approach, section 2031 of the Water Resources Development Act of 2007, the 2013 P&amp;R, and the 2014 Interagency Guidelines (IG) refer to “water resources projects”. The proposed rule uses “water resources development projects,” which is the term that the Corps traditionally has used. The Army solicits comment on this issue.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Army received input from Tribes, Federal and State agencies, stakeholders, and other interested 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12068"/>
                        parties through the issuance of the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         Notice of Virtual Public and Tribal Meetings Regarding the Modernization of Army Civil Works Policy Priorities; Establishment of a Public Docket; Request for Input (Modernize Civil Works) that was published on June 3, 2022 (87 FR 33756). This Notice solicited public comment on topics including the ASPs being considered for this proposed rulemaking. In response to the Notice, we received generally supportive comments on the policy revision concepts outlined in the Notice and the comments recognized the value of using more modern approaches for decision making. Many commenters mentioned the need to consider a broader set of benefits than can be captured by the Corps' traditional NED account, and many endorsed the effort to more fully incorporate climate change, to increase collaboration with Tribal, state, and local organizations, and to better incorporate the potential ecosystem costs and benefits of water resources investments.
                        <SU>5</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             Summary document of comments received in response to the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                             Notice can be found at 
                            <E T="03">https://api.army.mil/e2/c/downloads/2022/12/01/d5bd08a7/written-comment-summary-for-prg-for-frn-to-modernize-civil-works.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        For ease of comment review and consideration, commenters should consider referencing a specific section or paragraph of the proposed rule and preamble when providing comments. In addition to solicitation on specific areas identified in the preamble, the Corps solicits comments in general on issues or concerns related to this proposed rule which are not specifically identified in the proposal. For these comments, the commenter should clearly state the issue or concern, provide or reference any supporting documentation (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         reports, statistical data, and studies), and make a proposal or recommendation about how to improve the proposed regulation.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">B. Overview of Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>To promote alignment across the Federal government in the implementation of the PR&amp;G, Army opted to use the Department of Interior's (DOIs) ASPs as a basis for development of the Corps' ASPs. DOIs ASPs were released in 2015 and guide the Bureau of Reclamation in water resources investments that have similarities to Corps water resources investments. Other agencies with approved ASPs such as EPA, FEMA, and the Natural Resources Conservation Service make investments in water infrastructure that are less similar, although Army did review those agencies' ASPs for background and for areas where consistency would be appropriate.</P>
                    <P>Two key concepts in the PR&amp;G are “Federal investment” and “public benefit.” While the P&amp;G applied to the planning and evaluation of alternative plans in the formulation and evaluation of water and related land resources implementation studies, the PR&amp;G does not merely apply to studies, but rather focuses on Federal water resources investments, including projects, plans, and programs that the Federal government undertakes whose purposes either directly or indirectly alter water quantity, quality, ecosystems, or related land management. The level of a given Federal investment would be determined on a present value basis over the life of the Federal investment and the net public benefits of an investment would be assessed and used to guide Federal decision making. Federal water resources investments should strive to achieve water resources goals and maximize discounted net public benefits, with appropriate considerations laid out in the PR&amp;G. These concepts are described in further detail in this preamble. The proposed rule ASPs provide a framework for the Corps to be used for projects, plans, and programs, and in the planning process, in implementing the PR&amp;G for water resources investments.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">C. Proposed Sections</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.1 General. This section of the proposed rule describes the background on development of the PR&amp;G as well as the authority for the development of the Corps' ASPs as described in the Background section of this preamble. Nothing in this proposed rule would change any other legal requirements to which the Corps is subject (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         applicable WRDA provisions).
                    </P>
                    <P>Section 234.2 Definitions. This section provides proposed definitions for relevant terms used in the ASPs. The Army solicits input on additional terms that need to be defined or whether the definitions proposed require additional clarity.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.2(a) Acceptability. This paragraph provides a definition for acceptability. This definition is provided in the P&amp;R. Acceptability is one of four criteria to be considered when formulating an alternative. Acceptability takes into consideration the general public's perspectives in the determination of an alternative's viability and appropriateness and ensures consistency with existing Federal laws, authorities, and public policies.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.2(b) Adaptive management. This paragraph provides a definition for adaptive management. This definition is provided in the P&amp;R and describes the process to address changes, uncertainty, and maximization of goals over time. Adaptive management should be incorporated into alternatives, where warranted, to address risk and uncertainty.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.2(c) Completeness. This paragraph provides a definition for completeness. This definition is provided in the P&amp;R and describes when an alternative is complete enough to realize the planned effects. Completeness does not equate to a particular scope or scale to be considered complete. Completeness is one of four criteria to be considered when formulating an alternative.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.2(d) Effectiveness. This paragraph provides a definition for effectiveness. This definition is provided in the P&amp;R and describes that an alternative is effective when it alleviates the specific problems and achieves the specified opportunities. Effectiveness is one of four criteria to be considered when formulating an alternative.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.2(e) Efficiency. This paragraph provides a definition for efficiency. This definition is provided in the P&amp;R and describes the extent to which a Federal investment is efficient such that an alternative may alleviate the specified problems and realizes the specific opportunities at the least cost. Efficiency is similar to effectiveness with the additional element of cost consideration. The P&amp;R also describes how the Federal investment should promote water efficiency to the extent possible when considering water use. Efficiency is one of the four criteria to be considered when formulating an alternative.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.2(f) Federal investment. This paragraph provides a definition for Federal investment. The ASPs for implementing the PR&amp;G are intended to assist in designing and evaluating potential Corps investments in water resources. Federal investments as used in PR&amp;G is broad and intended to capture a wide array of activities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         projects, programs, and plans) that the Federal government directly undertakes relating to water resources. This proposed definition is specific to the Corps' potential Federal investments. The P&amp;R does not define Federal investments. The P&amp;R includes Federal investments that affect water quality or water quantity. However, using this language may result in confusion. The Corps has three main Civil Works mission areas (commercial navigation, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12069"/>
                        flood and storm risk reduction, and aquatic ecosystem restoration) and generally will not propose a project whose primary purpose is outside of these main missions. Many Corps flood risk management projects can be said to affect “water quantity” indirectly, insofar as they alter the timing and way that water flows in a flood. Similarly, many of the dams that the Corps has constructed (primarily to reduce flood risks or facilitate commercial navigation) also can be said to affect “water quantity” insofar as they store water to serve ancillary purposes such as hydropower, fish and wildlife, recreation, and water supply. With this in mind, the Army invites comments on whether the language provided in the P&amp;R or other language on this issue should be included in the rule definition.
                    </P>
                    <P>Section 234.2(g) Federal objective. This paragraph provides a definition for Federal objective, which is the conceptual goal of Federal investments in water resources. This basic definition is provided in the P&amp;R but originates in the WRDA 2007 where it is further detailed in Section 2031 and can be found in this proposed regulation at section 234.1(b). The Corps would develop investment alternatives based on the Federal objective. The Federal objective should result in investments which provide various public benefits, including community resilience.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.2(h) Indigenous Knowledge. This paragraph provides a definition for Indigenous Knowledge based on the Guidance for Federal Departments and Agencies on Indigenous Knowledge 
                        <SU>6</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                        . Indigenous Knowledge shall be considered in and used to inform all aspects of the Corps' ASPs, where relevant and applicable.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2022/12/OSTP-CEQ-IK-Guidance.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.2(i) Nature-based alternatives. This paragraph provides a definition for nature-based alternatives. The proposed definition aligns with and generally adopts the definition provided in the Opportunities to Accelerate Nature-based Solutions: A Roadmap for Climate Progress, Thriving Nature, Equity, &amp; Prosperity 
                        <SU>7</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         issued by the Council on Environmental Quality, the Office of Domestic Climate Policy, and the Office of Science and Technology Policy. Consistency with this document is important to ensure the Corps approach aligns with the other Federal water resources agencies involved in nature-based solutions. Section 1184 of WRDA 2016 provided definitions of “natural feature” and “nature-based feature” specific to providing risk reduction. This authorization requires the Corps to consider such features, as appropriate, in its feasibility studies for flood risk management, hurricane and storm damage reduction, and ecosystem restoration projects, with the consent of the non-Federal interest. Section 1149 of WRDA 2018 modified Section 1184 of WRDA 2016 to include additional direction to the Corps on the inclusion of such features in flood risk management, hurricane and storm damage reduction, and aquatic ecosystem restoration projects. Section 116 of WRDA 2020 requires the Corps to document the consideration of natural and nature-based alternatives in the study of flood risk management and hurricane and storm damage reduction, including estimates of long-term costs and benefits of such alternatives. Under the proposed regulation, a nature-based alternative is entirely comprised of nature-based features. The Corps would include for consideration in the final array of alternatives a nature-based alternative, if feasible. Where a nature-based alternative is not feasible or would not be fully effective, the Corps would consider including in the final array an alternative that includes nature-based solutions along with other features. The Army recognizes that nature-based solutions have an important place for consideration in Civil Works projects but may not be appropriate in all circumstances as a way to address the subject water resources problems. For example, other considerations in the proposed ASPs may result in the maximization of public benefits being achieved through an alternative method. The Corps would focus on results-driven solutions as opposed to dictating one specific method over another for addressing the water resources solution at hand, with appropriate consideration of the net benefits. In addition, nature-based solutions as components of the other alternatives included in the final array and as part of any final recommendation as part of a comprehensive solution are encouraged.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2022/11/Nature-Based-Solutions-Roadmap.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.2(j) Non-Federal interest. This paragraph provides a definition for the non-Federal interest. The proposed definition is taken from 42 U.S.C. 1962d-5(b). The P&amp;R uses the term “local interest” and does not define “non-Federal interest.” The P&amp;R definition of local interest is a non-Federal entity with some level of oversight or implementation responsibility associated with a water resources investment. Under the P&amp;R, the local interest could be a community or a state or local government agency, for example. For Corps projects, this generally would be the non-Federal interest. For clarity on the Corps Civil Works process and consistency with who can legally be a partner on Corps projects and/or be responsible for operation and maintenance, as well as to tailor the PR&amp;G to the Corps processes, the Army is proposing to use the term “non-Federal interest” rather than “local interest” in the proposed regulation. However, the Army intends for the non-federal interest to fill the role of the local interest as identified in the PR&amp;G. For many of the flood risk management projects that the Corps constructs, the non-federal interest owns the project and is responsible for its operation and maintenance after construction. The non-federal interest generally also is the cost-share partner on the project, which includes having a level of oversight and implementation responsibility as envisioned in the P&amp;R definition of local interest. The Army solicits comments on whether equating the non-federal interest with the local interest is an appropriate approach for implementation of this provision of the PR&amp;G. The P&amp;R provides that an alternative plan, strategy, or action that is preferred by a local interest with oversight or implementation responsibilities must be included in the final analysis. Similarly, this proposed regulation provides that an alternative that is locally preferred (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the alternative preferred by the non-federal interest) must be included in the final array of alternatives. The Army also recognizes that the planning process is shared with the non-Federal interest and solicits recommendations on how best the ASPs can incorporate and identify the role of the non-Federal interest in the process.
                    </P>
                    <P>Section 234.2(k) Nonstructural alternative. This paragraph provides a definition for nonstructural alternative. A nonstructural alternative is entirely comprised of nonstructural approaches. The proposed regulation would require the Corps to include for consideration in the final array of alternatives a nonstructural solution, if feasible. Where a nonstructural solution is not feasible or would not be fully effective, the Corps would include for consideration in the final array an alternative that is primarily nonstructural, if feasible.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.2(l) Nonstructural approaches. This paragraph provides a definition for nonstructural approaches. This definition is provided in the P&amp;R; however, illustrative examples were 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12070"/>
                        added for clarity. These examples are not intended to be limiting but instead provide a sense of the types of actions which fall under nonstructural approaches. The Army solicits comment on whether these are appropriate examples and context for the term “nonstructural” or whether modifications should be made to any final definition or list. The nonstructural approaches are intended to apply across the Corps missions and activities that are subject to the PR&amp;G. Nonstructural approaches are methods and practices employed to alter the use of existing infrastructure through human activities as opposed to altering physical interaction of water and land. Nonstructural approaches can include things like policy modifications or floodproofing of existing infrastructure. Alternatively, structural approaches would include things such as new construction of water resources infrastructure or structural modification to enlarge an existing dam or levee. As referenced under the nature-based alternative definition discussion in the preamble, various WRDA provisions require the Corps to incorporate nonstructural and nature-based solutions in plan formulation. Army solicits comment on whether this proposed definition best meets or enables the implementation of the PR&amp;G to achieve long-term planning goals and objectives of the PR&amp;G, including the avoidance of the unwise use of floodplains and the Guiding Principle of healthy and resilient ecosystems.
                    </P>
                    <P>Section 234.2(m) Public benefits. This paragraph provides a definition for public benefits. Public benefits encompass economic, environmental, and social benefits, and include those that can currently be quantified in monetary terms, as well as those that can be quantified or described qualitatively. The PR&amp;G provides for the maximization of public benefits relative to costs. This definition is provided in the P&amp;R. In comparison, the P&amp;G Federal objective of water and related land resources project planning is to contribute to national economic development (NED) (or national ecosystem restoration (NER) for aquatic ecosystem restoration), consistent with protecting the Nation's environment, pursuant to national environmental statutes, applicable executive orders, and other Federal planning requirements. Contributions to NED under P&amp;G are increases in the net value of the national output of goods and services, expressed in monetary units and are the direct net benefits that accrue in the planning area and the rest of the Nation. Contributions to NED include increases in the net value of those goods and services that are marketed, and also of those that are not marketed.</P>
                    <P>
                        A particular alternative may create changes that result in benefits in more than one benefit category; however, the Corps would assign the benefits to the most appropriate category and thereby avoid double counting. The definition is not intended to be construed as privately driven benefits, but rather for the general public reflecting the goals of the nation. Typically, public benefits (like public goods) are available to all (nonexcludable) and are non-rivalrous. Generally, these benefits are intended to accrue to society as a whole and not solely for the benefit of certain private persons or entities, although private persons or entities may ultimately benefit (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         reduction in private property damages as a result of a coastal storm risk management project). Cost-savings to industry as a whole (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         navigation industry), for example, benefit society and therefore would be accounted for in the analysis. In addition, avoided property damages and life safety would also be accounted for as public benefits although they benefit individuals as well. Benefits which may be viewed as more local in nature are reflected in the ASPs through the use of the watershed-based approach that considers the benefits of water resources for a wide range of stakeholders within and around the watershed, through collaboration and coordination with communities and local governments, as well as including the locally preferred alternative identified in the final array. The Army solicits comment on how benefits to Tribal Nations should be described, such as whether benefits to Tribal Nations should be considered as a Federal trust responsibility, and whether Tribal Nation benefits should be called out separately from the overarching “public benefits.”
                    </P>
                    <P>Section 234.2(n) Regulatory. This paragraph provides a definition for regulatory. This definition is provided in the P&amp;R and is a general definition of actions which are regulatory in nature promulgated by the Federal government. Regulatory can include the promulgation of regulations as well as other activities such as permit decisions.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.2(o) Resilience. This paragraph provides a definition for resilience. This definition is provided in the P&amp;R and can be applied to many different areas within the proposed rule such as climate resilience, including grid resilience when relevant, ecosystem resilience, and water resilience, regarding how climate, ecosystems, and water responds to changes. The resilience of a water resource solution should be considered in alternatives analysis and tradeoffs discussion. The Corps implements four principles related to resilience: prepare, absorb, recover, and adapt. There is also a definition provided for resilience in Executive Order 13653 (78 FR 66817), which the Corps currently uses in its Resilience Initiative.
                        <SU>8</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The definition provides that resilience is the ability to anticipate, prepare for, and adapt to changing conditions and withstand, respond to, and recover rapidly from disruptions. This definition can have application to both natural and human-made entities. In addition, there is a definition of resilience provided in the National Climate Resilience Framework 
                        <SU>9</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         as well as in M-24-03, Advancing Climate Resilience through Climate-Smart Infrastructure Investments and Implementation Guidance for the Disaster Resiliency Planning Act.
                        <SU>10</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Army solicits comment on whether the resilience definition provided in the Executive Order or the National Climate Resilience Framework or M-24-03 should be included in the regulation instead of or in addition to the proposed definition. The Army also solicits comment on whether additional concepts from these documents should be included in the rule, and if so, in what manner related to the use of resilience in the rule. The usage of the Corps' definition would be more efficient in implementation as it is familiar to the Corps and more directly relates to Corps missions; however, the proposed definition would be consistent with the PR&amp;G and would apply resilience in a broader sense. There are areas discussed in the PR&amp;G related to resilience that go beyond climate-related resilience.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>8</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2022/11/Nature-Based-Solutions-Roadmap.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/National-Climate-Resilience-Framework-FINAL.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>10</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/M-24-03-Advancing-Climate-Resilience-through-Climate-Smart-Infrastructure-Investments.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.2(p) Sustainable. This paragraph provides a definition for sustainable. This definition is provided in the P&amp;R and refers to the conditions where humans and nature are able to coexist. The P&amp;R generally uses the term “sustainable” in the context of seeking to maximize sustainable economic development, which is one component to achieve the Federal objective. Investments in sustainable economic 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12071"/>
                        development contribute to the Nation's resilience. The P&amp;R also provides that alternative solutions should improve the economic well-being of the Nation through the sustainable use and management of water resources ensuring both water supply and water quantity. Sustainability would also incorporate the maximization of net benefits while fully considering the option of, and value of, preserving resources for future uses or non-uses, and fully considering the preferences of future generations through appropriate analytical timeframes and discount rates.
                    </P>
                    <P>Section 234.2(q) Tribal Nation. This paragraph provides a definition for Tribal Nation. This definition is consistent with the Federal government's definition and identification of a Tribal Nation by the Secretary of Interior. This definition is also used and applied to other Corps programs, such as the Tribal Partnership Program. The Army recognizes that there are other Indigenous populations, Native Hawaiian Organizations, and non-federally recognized Tribes which may not meet the definition as proposed, and solicits comments on whether these populations should be defined separately for purposes of the PR&amp;G. Regardless of definitions and legal authorities applied to the Civil Works programs, the Corps would ensure full outreach and coordination occurs with all Tribal Nations, Indigenous populations, Native Hawaiian Organizations, and non-federally recognized Tribes as relevant to a particular water resources investment as described in the preamble discussion under paragraph 234.6(d). Such outreach and coordination would be separate from government-to-government consultation requirements. Many of these include communities having environmental justice concerns. Environmental justice is one of the Guiding Principles of the PR&amp;G and this proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.2(r) Unwise use of floodplain. This paragraph provides a definition for unwise use of floodplain. This definition is provided in the P&amp;R and describes conditions which result in a floodplain that is no longer self-sustaining. Seeking to avoid the unwise use of floodplains is also a component of how to achieve the Federal objective. The appropriate floodplain per this definition and application under the proposed ASPs is case-specific and should consider the scope and scale of the problem and potential benefits when determining the geographic boundary. Per the P&amp;R, Federal actions should seek to reduce the Nation's vulnerability to floods and storms. Unwise uses include those that would significantly increase or shift flood risks to other populated areas, or otherwise would result in net adverse impacts to human health, safety, welfare, property, natural resources, or the natural and beneficial functions of floodplains (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         natural water storage, water filtration, groundwater infiltration, sediment retention). The Army solicits comment on how evaluations of self-sustainment may occur in occupied or inhabited floodplains.
                    </P>
                    <P>Section 234.2(s) Watershed. This paragraph provides a definition for watershed. This general definition for watershed is provided in the P&amp;R and does not go into detail regarding a specific method or size to identify a watershed. Using a watershed approach is a Principle under P&amp;R to ensure a more holistic view of the problem and potential solutions. The appropriate size of watershed to assess is case-specific and should consider the scope and scale of the problem and potential benefits when determining the geographic boundary.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.3 Exceptions. The proposed ASPs describe a way to request an exception to the rules or policies contained in the Corps' proposed ASPs. The exception must be submitted in writing and the decision-maker is the ASA(CW). As there are already proposed exemptions for the application of the PR&amp;G laid out in the proposed rule as well as different levels of analysis proposed based on specific thresholds, the Army believes that exception requests would be a rare circumstance. In addition, since Army intends for PR&amp;G to apply to those non-exempt programs and areas specified in the proposed rule, the ASA(CW) is the appropriate decision-maker level for approving exceptions.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.4 Objectives and applicability.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.4(a) Introduction. This paragraph of the proposed rule states the goals and objectives of the Corps' ASPs. The proposed rule would help ensure consistency and transparency in implementation of the PR&amp;G by the Corps. The common framework provided in the ASPs will drive that consistency and codifying the ASPs in regulation would ensure transparency for the public, as well as an opportunity for review and comment prior to finalization through the rulemaking process. The Corps has various guidance documents for its water resources development project planning process, but the proposed ASPs would ensure all projects, plans, and programs subject to the PR&amp;G are using the same Guiding Principles and considerations in developing alternatives and recommendations. Upon finalization of any rule regarding the Corps' ASPs, the Corps would review its existing guidance documents and rescind, modify, or develop new guidance as needed to comport with and further the objectives of the Corps' ASPs. However, these proposed ASPs are intended to stand on their own regarding the overall framework and provide the guideposts for the Corps when implementing the PR&amp;G. Comments are solicited which may help identify where additional details may be warranted in any final rule and preamble and where additional specific technical tools or methodologies may be warranted in follow-on Corps guidance documents.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.4(b) Objectives for Federal water resources investments. This paragraph of the proposed rule provides the Federal objective for Federal water resources investments as provided in WRDA 2007 (Pub. L. 110-114 section 2031, 42 U.S.C. 1962-3) and elaborates on the definition of Federal objective provided at 234.2(l). The WRDA 2007 also described more specifically how to accomplish the Federal objective. The Federal investments must reflect national priorities, encourage economic development, and protect the environment by seeking to maximize sustainable economic development; by seeking to avoid the unwise use of floodplains; and by protecting and restoring the functions of natural systems and mitigating unavoidable impacts. Consideration of the Guiding Principles and the application of the Requirements in P&amp;R through development of Federal water resources investment decisions assists in achieving the Federal objective. The WRDA provision did not provide a hierarchy for how to accomplish the objective nor does this proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        National priorities may include general priorities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         health and safety) but can also include more specific priorities that emerge and may evolve over time. There are also often multiple national priorities at any one time, all of which should be considered and reflected in Federal water resources investments to the extent relevant. Such priorities can be found in enacted laws and Administration priorities and are informed by stakeholder and community engagements. The Corps would also fulfill their Tribal trust responsibilities under applicable treaties.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For example, the PR&amp;G calls for sustained economic development through building more resilient 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12072"/>
                        communities. The Federal water resources investments also must protect and restore the environment, where applicable, as part of the effort to maximize net public benefits to society. This protection and restoration could be achieved partly via improvements made to the environment through the proposed action, compliance with applicable environmental laws and regulations, including/or through the avoidance, minimization, and mitigation sequencing applied to impacts to the water resources environment, and through assuring the greatest provision of ecosystem services achievable that protects public health and welfare.
                    </P>
                    <P>One means to accomplish the Federal objective is to seek to maximize sustainable economic development. As described in the definitions section of the proposed rule at 234.2(y), sustainable economic development would provide the conditions where the coexistence of humans and nature flourishes. Sustainable economic development would improve the national welfare through investments that improve national economic efficiency, but not at the expense of the water resources. Rather, economic activity would proceed in such a manner that is not negatively impacting the sustainability of the water resources environment. In some cases, for example, nature-based solutions may be both more resilient and maximize net public benefits. The sustainable economic development Guiding Principle is further described in Section 234.6(c)(5) of the proposed rule and preamble.</P>
                    <P>In accordance with WRDA 2007, another means to accomplish the Federal objective is through seeking to avoid the unwise use of floodplains and flood-prone areas. This Guiding Principle is also further described in Section 234.6(c)(2) of the proposed rule and preamble. The key principle is to avoid actions that result in a reduction in public health and safety or result in a floodplain that is no longer self-sustaining. However, it is important to recognize that many Corps Civil Works water resources development projects are out of necessity located in floodplains and are not considered an unwise use of floodplains simply due to their location. The Corps will strive to sustain the floodplains natural and beneficial functions to the maximum extent practicable in light of the project's purpose. For example, public health and safety are considered in the evaluation and formulation development of a proposed Corps water resources development project, but this sometimes may result in a project that does not fully contribute to the sustainment of floodplain natural and beneficial functions.</P>
                    <P>The last means to accomplish the Federal objective provides that the Corps shall protect and restore the functions of natural systems and mitigate any unavoidable damage to natural systems. This concept is embedded in the Corps' compliance with environmental laws and regulations, such as the Clean Water Act and NEPA. In general, the Corps aims to improve environmental conditions when possible, and when not possible, sequences consideration of mitigation related to potential damages as avoidance, minimization, and compensatory mitigation. Certain Corps water resources development projects have the goal to restore and protect aquatic ecosystems as their primary purpose, such as aquatic ecosystem restoration projects under Section 206 of WRDA 1996 (Pub. L. 104-303), as amended.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.4(c) Net public benefits. This paragraph of the proposed rule describes the net public benefits to society, which are to be maximized. Net public benefits are to be used to justify water resources development projects per WRDA 2007. Per the P&amp;R, public benefits encompass three goals—economic, environmental, and social. In addition, public benefits include those that can be described in monetary terms, and those that can be quantified or described using other terms. The IG provides as a key aspect stating that the environmental, economic, and social impacts are interrelated, and there is no hierarchy among their goals in a PR&amp;G analysis. In addition, the P&amp;R provides that solutions to water resource needs may produce varying degrees of effects relative to environmental, economic, and social goals and that no hierarchal relationship exists among these three goals. As a result, tradeoffs among potential solutions will need to be assessed and communicated during the decision making process. All key benefits and effects relevant to the investment decision would be displayed and given consideration. For a particular water resources development project, the Corps study would take into consideration the given study purpose and specific water resource challenge to appropriately identify and assess benefits and effects across the categories which will naturally vary across Corps studies.</P>
                    <P>
                        Federal investments in water resources have been mostly based on economic performance assessments under the P&amp;G, which largely focus on investments that will improve national economic efficiency. This focus on national economic gains sometimes resulted in an unduly narrow benefit-cost comparison of the monetized and quantified effects. The P&amp;G provided that contributions to NED would be expressed in monetary units. Although the benefits in the other three accounts were included in the overall analysis and available to decision-makers under the P&amp;G, they often, with some exceptions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         aquatic ecosystem restoration studies and dam safety studies), were not the key drivers in the final decision-making as compared to the monetized and quantified national economic efficiency effects.
                    </P>
                    <P>The PR&amp;G emphasizes that relevant environmental, social and economic effects should all be considered and that both quantified and unquantified information will form the basis for evaluating and comparing potential Federal investments in water resources to the Federal objective. The ASPs make clear that the Corps will use monetized and quantified data to the extent practicable, but that unquantified information will be fully considered as well. This more integrated approach would allow decision-makers to view a more complete range of effects of alternative actions and lead to more socially beneficial investments. See preamble sections 234.9 and 10 for further discussion on the use of unquantified data and decision-making.</P>
                    <P>A separate distributional analysis can be utilized to examine regional economic benefits. The P&amp;G included regional economic development as one of four “accounts” for facilitating evaluation and display of effects of alternative plans. As stated in the Background section, the RED account registered changes in the distribution of economic activity that result from each alternative plan. These economic effects amount to a transfer of resources from one part of the Nation to another (either from one region of the country to another, or within a region). They accrue in a local area or region but are offset by equivalent losses elsewhere in the country.</P>
                    <P>
                        The PR&amp;G implementation would include other potentially important distributional effects, including environmental and social effects considerations at the regional level. The non-federal interest and local organizations and communities can provide valuable information to inform these assessments for a proposed water resources investment, providing that local knowledge and valuation as the Corps seeks to identify more of a community-driven solution under the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12073"/>
                        implementation of the ASPs than what is implemented under the current P&amp;G policy.
                    </P>
                    <P>Having a more holistic view and recognition that water resources development projects can provide a multitude of benefits allows for the whole story to be told regarding alternatives being considered for Federal water resources investments. For example, this more holistic view will enable more informed decision-making for Federal investments to truly identify in the final array of alternatives what will best enable resilience for the Tribal Nation, when applicable, or the community, the region, and the Nation. Public benefits also include consideration of public assets that contribute to community resilience, such as by reducing the flood risk to property, housing, and other existing infrastructure, etc.</P>
                    <P>Some benefits may be difficult to bucket into a category of economic, environmental, or social. Analysts are encouraged to be as specific as possible, and when categories cannot easily be assigned, and to describe the relevance when evaluating alternatives. Double counting should be avoided. If benefits appear to accrue to more than one category, development of logic models, exploration with experts or other methods can help specify benefits further and parse effects into different categories, representing the full set of effects and avoiding double counting. In addition, when economic, environmental, and social goals compete, the Corps would describe such instances and include the considerations in the tradeoff analysis (see 234.10(b)). The important component is to consider complementary and consistent formulation of the various benefits. Army solicits comment on whether net public benefits should be described without the additional step to categorize them into economic, environmental, and social in order to display all benefits in their entirety without the risk of double-counting or having to identify a specific benefit category when there may be overlap.</P>
                    <P>Army is also soliciting comments on whether it should be acknowledged that Tribal benefits are part of the Tribal trust responsibility in implementing the PR&amp;G and whether Tribal benefits should be called out separately from “public benefits”. In addition, in many circumstances, Indigenous Knowledge can be used to inform the benefits that may accrue as a result of any given alternative providing more transparency on the entirety of benefits provided to better inform decision making.</P>
                    <P>
                        Some benefits are also difficult to monetize or quantify, for example, non-use values of wildlife loss (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         existence or bequest values), or some culturally valued experiences (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         spiritual connection to nature and option to lead a subsistence way of life). In this particular area, we solicit comments as to approaches and tools that may be employed to best enable the Corps to have consistent and transparent implementation, including through the use of any final guidance provided by the Office of Management and Budget on ecosystem services in response to its August 2, 2023 proposal (88 FR 50912).
                    </P>
                    <P>The quantification of benefits relates to several evolving fields and new methods may develop over time. The PR&amp;G and the Corps' proposed ASPs emphasize that benefits should be monetized when possible, quantified when they cannot be monetized, and described when neither monetization nor quantification is possible with available methodologies and data. Where qualitative descriptions and analysis are used, they should be of sufficient detail and quality to enable the decision-maker to make informed decisions. In addition, the Army solicits comment on whether life safety benefits should be specifically identified, and if so, under which of the three ASPs benefits category, social, environmental, or economic category (see Section 234.9(c) for additional information on these categories).</P>
                    <P>Under the ASPs, consideration of the range of benefits (economic, environmental, and social benefits) is the integral component of the planning process. The process should look beyond simply starting with the National Economic Development/National Ecosystem Restoration plan and then only filling in the other requirements of the ASPs when those benefits are needed for project justification.</P>
                    <P>Development of a comprehensive plan to address the water resources challenge must begin in the earliest phases of the planning process and would continue throughout the process, as detailed through the Federal objective, Guiding Principles, and planning process framework provided in this proposed rule. There may also be instances where the Corps' existing tools and resources in calculating the four P&amp;G accounts, national economic development, regional economic development, environmental quality, and other social effects, may still be relevant in implementing the PR&amp;G, where appropriate.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.4(d) Applicability. This proposed rule paragraph describes the projects and programs that must use the PR&amp;G framework and outlines those projects and programs that are excluded from performing a PR&amp;G analysis. Essentially the PR&amp;G will apply to all Corps projects and programs that are not identified as excluded in 234.4(d)(2). Per the PR&amp;G, it was never intended that PR&amp;G apply to all projects and programs for water resources agencies and the list of exclusions is consistent with the PR&amp;G exclusions and applicability discussion. The Army invites comment on additional projects and programs that should be covered under the PR&amp;G or, conversely, additional projects and programs to which the PR&amp;G should not apply. The proposed excluded projects and programs either fall below the thresholds identified in Table 1 of the proposed rule, or are considered to be small and routine such that it would not be appropriate to have the PR&amp;G apply. This does not mean that those projects or programs do not have to follow the relevant laws, regulations, and general planning processes simply because they are excluded from PR&amp;G. Even though such projects or programs would be excluded from the full application of the ASPs and the PR&amp;G, those projects and programs should still strive to meet the intent of the ASPs by applying similar concepts where relevant. With respect to a project or program that meets a NEPA categorical exclusion, such exclusion does not automatically trigger an exclusion for application of the PR&amp;G. However, many of these projects and programs may meet the terms of an exclusion under both NEPA and the proposed ASPs.</P>
                    <P>Also, the proposed ASPs would also apply to non-Federal interests who undertake feasibility studies, such as under Section 203 of WRDA 1986, as amended. The WRDA provisions, as amended, provide that the study, and the process under which the study was developed and conducted by a non-Federal interest would be reviewed by the Secretary to determine whether it complies with Federal laws and regulations applicable to feasibility studies of water resources development projects. These would include this proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        In proposed paragraph 234.4(d)(2), some actions that are excluded under the PR&amp;G for the Corps' proposed ASPs include the Corps' Regulatory Program as well as Section 408 actions as there is no proposed Federal water resources investment being considered. As provided in section 14 of the River and Harbors Appropriations Act of 1899, as 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12074"/>
                        amended (33 U.S.C. 408), the Section 408 process serves to ensure that an action proposed by another entity (a party other than the Corps) for the temporary or permanent alteration or use of a civil works project will not be injurious to the public interest and will not impair the usefulness of that Corps project. Regulatory actions are listed in the Interagency Guidelines as excluded activities. However, this exclusion does not apply to regulatory compliance actions related to activities that are subject to the PR&amp;G, such as compliance with the Endangered Species Act. Real estate actions of the Corps, such as easement decisions on existing Corps lands and land disposal actions, are also proposed to be excluded as these also do not result in a proposed Federal water resources investment. Technical services programs, such as Planning Assistance to States and Flood Plain Management Services, are also proposed to be excluded as these programs support state and local water resources planning efforts, rather than a proposed Federal water resources investment. Similarly, these actions were excluded under P&amp;G as they do not develop Federal water resources planning studies.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Corps' PL 84-99 Program is also proposed to be excluded from the PR&amp;G as the program provides for emergency activities prior to, during, and after a flood event. The framework for the PR&amp;G generally is not well suited for this program, under which the Corps prepares for, responds to, and assists certain eligible communities in their recovery after a flood or other natural disaster. The Army solicits comment on whether modifications allowed under the PL 84-99 program should not be excluded from the PR&amp;G. Emergency actions in general under the Corps' disaster response emergency operations are to be excluded from the PR&amp;G as a different set of procedures and considerations must be employed in responses to emergencies, rather than a traditional planning-type process. The Interagency Guidelines provides that short-term actions to remove immediate danger to public health and safety or prevent imminent harm to property or the environment should be excluded. This would not apply to longer-term actions to rehabilitate damaged resources or prepare for future emergencies.</P>
                    <P>Also proposed to be excluded is the Corps' implementation of its Water Infrastructure Finance and Innovation Act (WIFIA) program. The criteria for that program are included in the final rule issued for this program (88 FR 32661). In general, the Corps' WIFIA program is authorized to provide credit assistance in the form of direct loans and loan guarantees for investments by non-Federal interests to address dam safety concerns at their non-Federal dams. Corps water resources development projects are not eligible for funding under WIFIA and the program is limited to financial assistance for non-federal dam safety projects, so the PR&amp;G would not apply. Similarly, environmental infrastructure projects are proposed to be excluded. The Corps may provide funding to certain of these non-federal projects such as wastewater treatment systems where authorized by law. These also are generally smaller-scale projects.</P>
                    <P>In addition, land management plans are proposed to be excluded from implementing the PR&amp;G for the Corps. Land management plans are broadly used to guide the management and development of recreational, natural, and cultural resources on Corps project lands throughout the life of the Corps project. The Interagency Guidelines also provides that there may be existing agency procedures that meet the purpose and intent of the PR&amp;G for Federal investments, which includes land management planning processes. The Corps' development of land management plans is subject to such equivalent procedures.</P>
                    <P>Also, operations and maintenance (O&amp;M) activities carried out in a manner consistent with an existing O&amp;M manual or O&amp;M plan for an authorized project would be excluded under the proposed rule from the PR&amp;G. The original O&amp;M envisioned by the original project authorization would be considered and evaluated under the ASPs in the investment decision making process. In the absence of changed conditions, activities that are generally expected as part of normal, planned operations may be excluded from PR&amp;G analysis using an appropriate threshold if they have been analyzed during the original project or program analysis and are consistent with the existing approved O&amp;M manual or O&amp;M plan. Compliance with other Federal statutes and laws would still be required. However, the PR&amp;G would apply when significant changes to O&amp;M plans are proposed or changes to meet new goals are proposed that raise additional considerations for water resources investments.</P>
                    <P>
                        Two other types of activities proposed to be excluded from the PR&amp;G for the Corps are monitoring (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         water quality monitoring or fish monitoring) and research. Such activities may be used to inform Federal investments in a proposed or existing water resources development project, but they are not water resources development projects or investment decisions themselves. The Interagency Guidelines provide that the PR&amp;G is not intended to include data collection, except insofar as its purpose is to inform an investment decision involving permanent site-specific actions.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Corps' Interagency and International Support and Support for Others program actions are also proposed to be excluded. In addition, these actions are provided on a reimbursable basis and as such are assistance to other programs and not part of Federal investments as other activities covered under the proposed ASPs. The Corps performs these activities on a reimbursable basis. All of the work that the Corps performs under this program is requested by other agencies, which pay the Corps the full cost of providing these services. For example, on a reimbursable basis, the Corps provides technical assistance under this program to non-DoD Federal agencies, state and local governments, Tribal Nations, private U.S. firms, international organizations, and foreign governments. The Corps also provides engineering and construction services, environmental restoration and management services, research and development assistance, management of water and land related natural resources, relief and recovery work, and other management and technical services. While some of this work may be related to a water resources investment by another Federal agency, it is not related to an investment decision by the Corps and, as such, is not covered under the proposed ASPs. Although excluded from the ASPs, the Corps' international programs are subject to other international environmental requirements and DoD environmental commitments.</P>
                    <P>In addition, those projects, programs, or plans that meet the threshold criteria in the proposed Table 1 for exclusions are generally for routine investments. In most cases, these investments would not have significant adverse effects on water resources. Also included in the proposed list of exclusions are those programs, plans, or projects which fall under an exception at 234.3.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Army solicits comment on whether additional exclusions should be added, such as dredged material management plans, the Tribal Partnership Program, the Continuing Authorities Program, and Major Rehabilitation Evaluation Reports due to scope, scale, level of investment, project partner, technical nature of product, etc. Some of these also have programmatic 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12075"/>
                        authorizations from Congress (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         Tribal Partnership Program and Continuing Authorities Program) and as such will not follow the full planning process provided in the proposed ASPs as they do not result in a recommendation to the Congress. In addition, the Army solicits comment on whether any of the actions identified as proposed exclusions in the rule should not be excluded, in which case the ASPs would apply to them. Also, the Army solicits comment on whether watershed studies should be specifically included to ensure that they align with the goals of the PR&amp;G and result in better outcomes for integrated water resources management. These studies do not fit into the categories described above and additional clarity may be needed as to whether they are covered under the PR&amp;G. Section 729 of WRDA 1986, as amended, and other specifically authorized watershed authorities allow the Corps to study the water resources needs of river basins and regions of the United States, in consultation with federal, state, tribal, interstate and local governmental entities. These studies go beyond project planning for specific Corps projects towards more comprehensive and strategic evaluations and analyses that include diverse political, geographic, physical, institutional, technical, and stakeholder considerations. Watershed planning addresses identified water resources problems and opportunities from any source, regardless of agency responsibilities, and provides a shared vision of a desired end state that may include recommendations for potential involvement by the Corps, other federal agencies, or non-federal interests. Generally, Corps watershed studies do not result in a water resources investment recommendation. Instead, they highlight more strategic actions, some of which may not be a Corps of Engineers responsibility. The three main Civil Works missions of the Corps are: commercial navigation, flood and storm damage reduction, and aquatic ecosystem restoration. The Army solicits comment on whether Corps watershed studies should be excluded from the PR&amp;G.
                    </P>
                    <P>234.5 Level of analysis. This section of the proposed rule describes and defines the next step in the PR&amp;G process under the Corps' proposed ASPs. Once a decision is made that the PR&amp;G applies under 234.4, the next step is to determine what level of analysis should be applied.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.5(a) Standard and scaled level of analysis. There are two levels of analysis under the PR&amp;G that are proposed to be applied based on the scope and magnitude of the proposed projects, programs, or plans; and the significance of the Federal investment in terms of dollar value and potential environmental impacts. The different levels of analysis allow for investment decisions to be made effectively and efficiently. Just as not all investment decisions must trigger the application of the PR&amp;G, not all investment decisions that do trigger the PR&amp;G must require in-depth, extensive analysis. Many small, routine activities would be excluded from the PR&amp;G analysis under the proposed rule (refer to 234.4(d)(2)) such as small-scale Tribal Partnership Program projects or routine investments in invasive species removal, while activities that are somewhat broader in scope but pose minimal risks are proposed to be subject to a scaled PR&amp;G analysis, and those activities with larger potential impacts would be subject to a standard analysis. A scaled PR&amp;G analysis would generally include fewer alternatives with a more streamlined formulation process and justification procedures than a standard analysis, while still adhering to the PR&amp;G and resulting in a systematic decision. A scaled analysis reflects the scope and complexity of the problem being assessed. The proposed ASPs include Table 1, which provides the monetary threshold criteria for a general guideline to be used for identifying the types of projects, programs, or plans and their corresponding levels of analysis. The Army solicits comment on whether the proposed rule language regarding benefits/cost analysis in this section is adequate or whether additional content or examples is needed in the rule text.</P>
                    <P>
                        Various types of acceptable economic analyses and benefit categories may be applied,
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         such as transportation rate savings, damages reduced, next least costly alternatives, commercial fishing, recreation benefits, etc. In addition, there are measurement standards by which such analysis may adhere, such as net changes to the ecosystem goods and services provisioned by the environment. The Corps would use best professional judgement in determining what is relevant to consider. Early engagement can also assist the Corps in providing considerations to inform selection of methodologies and benefit categories.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             See Circulars A-4 and A-94 for more information.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        For scaled analysis, the rule proposes that methods reliant on secondary data sources may more frequently be used (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         benefit function transfer methods, expert opinion, proxy valuations, windshield analysis). Those same tools may also be used in the application of the standard level of analysis when appropriate. The Army would also use various modeling techniques for the cost-benefit analysis when appropriate. The Army solicits comments on the types of analyses that may best be used to evaluate the full range of public benefits under both standard and scaled level of analyses.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.5(b) Determining the appropriate level of analysis. This paragraph of the proposed rule describes the process for determining the appropriate level of analysis for the PR&amp;G. In addition to the considerations and descriptions provided in 234.5(a) for the scaled and standard analysis, as well as the criteria provided in the proposed Table 1 to be used as a general guide, the proposed ASPs note that professional judgment and available resources are also important factors in determining the appropriate levels of analysis. In some scenarios where a potential investment may meet the threshold criteria in the proposed Table 1 for a scaled analysis, based on considerations such as environmental or Tribal trust responsibilities or uncertainty in the information to be used in a decision, it may be best to conduct a standard analysis. And a similar scenario could occur in the reverse circumstances, such as where a potential investment meets the threshold criteria for a standard analysis but due to the routine nature or lack of complexity a scaled analysis may be more appropriate. This is not envisioned to be a common scenario. Even if a potential investment may otherwise meet the criteria to be excluded from the PR&amp;G under the proposed Table 1, there may be circumstances that would nonetheless trigger analysis under the PR&amp;G. Some areas to consider when making deviations from the criteria thresholds listed in the proposed Table 1 include: magnitude and significance of specific problems and opportunities the investment seeks to address; significance of natural resources within the study area; significance of the environmental justice concerns; magnitude and significance of expected impacts of the investment; expected investment scale and/or costs; complexity or significance in science, engineering, or resource management; projected service or operational life of the project or facility; stakeholder concerns; authority under which the investment decision/recommendation is made; uncertainty in decision variables and resulting risk exposure; degree of performance or irreversibility of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12076"/>
                        potential investment decision; nature and extent of Tribal trust responsibilities in the study area; or, cumulative effects of, or controversy associated with, any of the above. Additional areas to consider include, when impacts may vary across alternatives such that analysis can help identify the best alternative, and when analysis will help the public and decisionmakers understand the effects of the project. Army solicits comments on additional considerations to be applied when making a determination as to the appropriate level of analysis under the PR&amp;G, and whether additional clarity is needed on how such determinations may be made.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.5(c) Scope and magnitude of analysis required. The threshold criteria provided in the proposed Table 1 are guidelines to establish an appropriate scope and magnitude for the analysis based on the Federal cost (excluding the non-Federal share) of a proposed activity, measured in terms of the present value of the Federal investment. The present value is the current dollar value, after discounting. The proposed Table 1 was taken straight from the Interagency Guidelines. The monetary thresholds were designed to be relevant to all the agencies implementing the PR&amp;G to provide a common framework and baseline. The Army solicits comment on whether the values provided in Table 1 are the appropriate thresholds to apply for the Corps' ASPs, and also whether the amounts should be adjusted for inflation from the original amounts provided, which were developed in 2014. If inflation adjustments are appropriate, the Corps further solicits what data should be used to make those adjustments going forward, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         GDP deflator, CPI, or something else. The Army also solicits comments on whether the Corps should account for the non-Federal share of the costs in setting these thresholds, in order to reflect the cost to society (Federal plus non-Federal) of the proposed investment. In that case, the thresholds would be somewhat higher.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Interagency Guidelines state that the PR&amp;G specifically applies to operational modifications, modernization of existing facilities, dam safety modifications, culvert replacements, water conveyance, and fish ladder modifications. The analysis of significant O&amp;M investments of this kind would be subject to the thresholds provided in proposed Table 1.</P>
                    <P>Operation and maintenance activities resulting in consequential effects on water quantity or quality that have not been previously analyzed should be appropriately analyzed using either the project- or programmatic-level processes laid out in the proposed rule. More significant operational changes, such as adding a new project purpose or significantly modifying project outputs, warrant analysis under the PR&amp;G. However, routine O&amp;M activities are proposed to be excluded (see 234.4(d)).</P>
                    <P>To apply proposed Table 1 to an investment under consideration, the Corps would first determine whether the action is a project, program, or plan, then identify the appropriate relevant level of Federal investment under consideration. The Federal investment includes all capital and labor costs associated with the potential investment. Once those two steps have been made, the Corps can determine the recommended appropriate level of analysis for the Federal investment. However, in applying the proposed threshold criteria, the considerations and judgement described in 234.5(b) should be applied to determine whether a deviation from the criteria is appropriate. A scoping effort can be helpful in providing information needed to determine whether a deviation may be warranted.</P>
                    <P>
                        This paragraph also describes how to apply the threshold criteria for project, programmatic, and individual plan levels. A project-level analysis should be applied to water resources investments when the Corps has discretion in investment decisions for the planning process on a particular project. Project-level analyses typically require more detail and focus on a narrower scope and/or scale. This would include all of the relevant existing and proposed Federal, state, and local investments in infrastructure or ecosystem restoration, including any planned modifications or replacements to existing facilities, and their operation and maintenance. Programmatic-level analyses require the detail necessary to ensure decision-makers have sufficient information to make an informed decision, but it may be conducted differently than project-level analyses. For example, the scale and/or scope will likely be greater with a similarly broader level of detail. Programmatic-level analysis can apply when the Corps proposes a set of similar actions analyzed under one decision document. The Corps would apply the broadest and most rigorous analysis (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         standard analysis for a programmatic-level analysis) wherever appropriate. The Corps would not split an action that is more appropriate under programmatic review into smaller project-level actions simply to avoid any perceived analytical burdens. Such actions may include those that have cumulative effects on water resources. If an individual project within this broader program is noteworthy or raises particular concerns, the Corps may decide to evaluate that specific project individually under the PR&amp;G. Care would be taken to ensure that evaluating individual projects does not lead to underestimation or exclusion of cumulative effects. The Army solicits comment on whether more clarity is needed for which types of projects would fall under the project vs. program vs. plan criteria. The Interagency Guidelines state that if the Corps develops a revised proposed Table 1 specific to the Corps, the following considerations should be taken into account: (1) thresholds relevant to the specific activities of the Corps; and (2) criteria relevant to the Corps for determining the level of analysis. The Army solicits comment on whether either of those considerations warrant a revision to proposed Table 1 for the Corps' ASPs.
                    </P>
                    <P>Section 234.6 The Planning Process.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.6(a) Introduction. This proposed paragraph describes how the planning process will incorporate the Guiding Principles from the PR&amp;G in the analysis and development of Corps Federal investments in solving water resources problems. The section describes the planning process as orderly, systematic, and iterative, and establishes the desired outcome as investment advice in the form of a plan or plans that seek to maximize net public benefits. Investment advice supports the decision-making process. It provides analysis and a potential solution for the subject water resources problem and the Chief of Engineers uses such investment advice to make a recommendation to the Congress for consideration in the authorization process. Ultimately, the Congress decides whether or not to authorize a particular recommendation and how to consider such investment advice. The plan recommendation includes investment advice and shapes the federal role in a given planning situation. As in most Corps documents, Records Management and Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) requirements should be considered throughout the development of PR&amp;G analysis documents, with the inclusion of an index to facilitate the collection of records for any future FOIA requests.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.6(b) NEPA. This proposed paragraph encourages the Corps to integrate the NEPA and the PR&amp;G processes as much as possible to produce a single analytic document to meet both requirements. This concept is 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12077"/>
                        discussed in the Interagency Guidelines and is currently common practice for the Corps' planning processes. Through the integration, to the extent possible, a reduction in duplication is anticipated especially when the same information is being relied on when performing the PR&amp;G and NEPA analyses. A single analytic document also could help to achieve reduced workload as well as consistency across alternatives analyzed and other components that are covered in both the PR&amp;G and NEPA analyses. However, there may be instances when analyses under the PR&amp;G results in a modification to the NEPA analysis, such as when an alternative under consideration is eliminated from further review because it conflicts with the Federal objective or a Guiding Principle. In this case, the Corps should include in the NEPA documentation why such alternative is not being carried forward in the review process. The formulation criteria are not appropriate screening criteria under NEPA. The Corps would include in the analysis an alternative that meets the purpose and need under NEPA and is feasible and reasonable. In all cases, the Corps would comply with NEPA while implementing the PR&amp;G. Compliance under NEPA and this proposed rule, if finalized, does not eliminate the Corps' obligations under other statutory requirements (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Endangered Species Act compliance) or fulfillment of Tribal trust responsibilities. For example, Corps proposed projects involving the discharge of dredged or fill material into waters of the United States would be developed in accordance with the guidelines promulgated by the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) in conjunction with the Secretary of the Army under the authority of Section 404(b)(1) of the Clean Water Act (CWA) of 1972, unless these activities are exempted by Section 404(f) (40 CFR 230.1(a)). The Corps should seek to maximize integration and reduce redundancy or duplication with other federal law requirements and compliance with statutory provisions.
                    </P>
                    <P>Section 234.6(c) Guiding Principles. This section describes the Guiding Principles for the planning process that the P&amp;R identifies, which are: environmental justice, floodplains, healthy and resilient ecosystems, public safety, sustainable economic development, and a watershed approach. The Guiding Principles are intended to be used as overarching concepts to promote through water resources investments. They are described below and in the proposed rule in alphabetical order.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.6(c)(1) Environmental justice. A focus of the PR&amp;G and these ASPs is environmental justice and meeting the needs of Tribal Nations and communities with environmental justice concerns to achieve environmental justice for all populations. The ASPs provide a description of environmental justice consistent with other agency definitions and with existing Corps policy 
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         on environmental justice. The proposed paragraph directs that environmental justice considerations shall be incorporated into all phases of the planning process and decision-making for Corps Civil Works programs. The proposed ASPs require that the planning process go beyond “do no harm” to also ensure meaningful engagement with Tribal Nations and other communities with environmental justice concerns as well as to increase community access to benefits provided by Civil Works programs. Working within congressional study authorizations provided to the Corps, the ASPs' guiding principle of environmental justice drives inclusion of restorative justice for communities with environmental justice concerns. Environmental justice efforts seek to find access for all to long-term, sustainable solutions. The ASPs require that burdens on Tribal Nations and communities with environmental justice concerns 
                        <SU>13</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         that are not avoidable are to be mitigated.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.army.mil/article/254935/assistant_secretary_of_the_army_for_civil_works_issues_environmental_justice_guidance_to_the_army_corps_of_engineers,</E>
                             last accessed on January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>13</SU>
                             To identify communities with environmental justice concerns, the Corps would use a suite of tools and sources of information, such as the Council on Environmental Quality's Climate and Economic Justice Screening Tool (CEJST), the EPA's EJScreen Tool, Indigenous Knowledge, state or local data or tools, and community- or resident-driven information. The CEJST ((
                            <E T="03">https://screeningtool.geoplatform.gov/</E>
                            ), last accessed on September 21, 2023, identifies disadvantaged communities that have been marginalized by underinvestment and overburdened by pollution and was developed for agencies to use for the Justice40 Initiative and other resource allocation purposes. There may be some communities that are not considered disadvantaged by the CEJST because they do not meet the low-income threshold, but that face many environmental burdens and could be considered to have environmental justice concerns. The Corps would also evaluate any other relevant tools, including locally relevant data and any information received in public comment from any local communities with environmental justice concerns on unavoidable impacts and potential mitigation.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>By removing the potential barriers to community participation in the planning process and the potential barriers to receiving the benefits of Federal investments, the Corps, in its implementation of the PR&amp;G, will strive to provide equal access to the Corps' services and programs and to ensure fairness in decision-making. As each community has different needs, allocation of resources for engagement may be different for different communities in order to reach an equitable outcome of participation opportunities. The Army acknowledges that every Tribal Nation and community with environmental justice concerns is unique, and may have different or preferred ways of engaging, different areas of concern, and different considerations for ways to address those concerns. For engagement, this may entail the use of different languages to ensure language access is achieved to support meaningful engagement, or various methods of providing information via written, oral, and virtual formats to ensure accessibility for individuals with disabilities, meetings held in the communities, etc.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Corps would ensure social (including health) environmental justice factors are evaluated during the planning process, to include consideration of such factors throughout the lifecycle of a water resources investment, and that consideration should be given to impacts that could affect Tribal Nations and communities with environmental justice concerns differently than other communities. For example, the historic disproportionate burden that a community may have faced in the past related to a lack of investment to reduce flood risks, or to exposure to toxins, should be considered in the impacts assessment in the planning process, similar to a cumulative impacts approach. An incremental change in an environmental impact may result in insignificant impacts to some communities, but significant impacts to others (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a Tribal Nation or community with environmental justice concerns). In addition, the same could be said in the converse with benefits assessment. A small increase in recreational opportunities may have a much larger benefit to a community that has environmental justice concerns and also has limited access to recreational opportunities than it would benefit another community, which has environmental justice concerns but already has access to recreational opportunities. Potential issues that may be evaluated during the planning process for positive or negative impacts on a community with environmental justice concerns also may include, but are not limited to: exposure to climate-related risks and opportunities for climate resilience, factors that subject a community to poorer health or 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12078"/>
                        environmental conditions, subsistence hunting and gathering, Tribal resources of cultural and religious significance, cultural resources, access to greenspace or other natural areas, community values, factors that contribute to poorer physical or mental health conditions, income level, education level, and crime. Indigenous Knowledge is also a critical component and source for the evaluation process related to environmental justice concerns. Such an evaluation process would help the Corps assess risk, including perceived risk, and economic measures by using scientific factors and Indigenous Knowledge in risk assessments to characterize the nature and magnitude of human health and ecological risk from contaminants and other stressors that may be present.
                    </P>
                    <P>In analyzing each alternative's potential environmental justice impacts, agencies can also use these tools to ensure a holistic view of the potential broader social effects. Environmental justice should be accounted for in all areas being assessed under the PR&amp;G, the economic, environmental, and social, rather than solely as a social consideration. Every application of the PR&amp;G would contain case-specific environmental justice strategies and considerations. The goal under this Guiding Principle of the PR&amp;G, therefore, is to ensure that the Corps works to reduce barriers to equal opportunity in engagement and participation in the planning process for Corps water resources development projects to produce more sustainable and resilient solutions that will help these communities, particularly those that are among the most vulnerable, to reach their fullest potential. A key component of this is to listen to the communities and ensure that they are engaged throughout the planning process. The communities themselves will likely help identify concerns and solutions to their water resources problems and opportunities as well as participate in the identification of any potential effects, mitigation measures, and benefits, including through sharing Indigenous Knowledge, as they deem appropriate.</P>
                    <P>In implementing the proposed ASPs, the Corps would ensure that it considers the opportunities to overcome past inequities, and identifies any disproportionate and adverse public safety, human health, or environmental burdens of proposed water resources investments on communities with environmental justice concerns, including cumulative impacts for already overburdened communities. This is consistent with Executive Order 14096, Revitalizing Our Nation's Commitment to Environmental Justice for All (88 FR 25251). The Corps would use all available means to gather such information, including Indigenous Knowledge and information received directly from communities. The Corps would seek to identify solutions that would eliminate or avoid those disproportionate adverse effects. Each alternative analyzed would be transparent in the discussion of the effects as well as benefits to Tribal Nations and other communities with environmental justice concerns, where applicable.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Corps would use available tools and resources to identify and describe communities with environmental justice concerns. This may include a suite of tools and sources of information, such as the Council on Environmental Quality's Climate and Economic Justice Screening Tool,
                        <SU>14</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the EPA's EJScreen Tool,
                        <SU>15</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Indigenous Knowledge,
                        <SU>16</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         state or local data or tools, and community- or resident-driven information. The Army solicits comment in particular on how the navigation program can use tools and resources to directly assess and, as appropriate, demonstrate project benefits for disadvantaged communities, and other nearby communities.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>14</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://screeningtool.geoplatform.gov/,</E>
                             last accessed on January 31, 2024. Federal agencies use the CEJST to help identify disadvantaged communities that will benefit from programs included in the Justice40 Initiative and other statutory programs that direct resources to disadvantaged communities.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>15</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/ejscreen,</E>
                             last accessed on January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>16</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             OSTP-CEQ-IK-Guidance.pdf (
                            <E T="03">whitehouse.gov</E>
                            ) 
                            <E T="03">for additional information,</E>
                             last accessed on January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Section 234.6(c)(2) Floodplains. The proposed ASPs highlight the importance of floodplains and adopt the language of WRDA 2007 to avoid the unwise use of floodplains, and to minimize impacts to floodplains if those areas cannot be avoided. Floodplains are critical aspects of watersheds and connect land and water ecosystems while supporting high levels of biodiversity and productivity. Floodplains with unaltered natural and beneficial functions can increase the resilience of communities. There is no specific floodplain return interval identified for use in the PR&amp;G and as such the floodplain should be considered on a case-by-case basis, as appropriate to evaluate the particular water resources problem or opportunity in that community and to identify the full range of reasonable alternatives.</P>
                    <P>
                        As part of the Corps' implementation of this Guiding Principle, the Corps will continue to implement the Federal Flood Risk Management Standard (FFRMS), where appropriate, which is a flexible framework to increase reliance against flooding and help preserve the natural values of floodplains as provided in Executive Order (E.O.) 13690 (80 FR 6425).
                        <SU>17</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Executive Order 14030 (86 FR 27967), Climate-Related Financial Risk, reinstated the FFRMS as well as clarified that the guidelines for floodplain management under E.O. 13690 (80 FR 6425), Establishing a Federal Flood Risk Management Standard and a Process for Further Soliciting and Considering Stakeholder Input, remain in effect. The FFRMS provides four potential methods for delineating flood hazard areas, with the preferred method being the Climate-Informed Science Approach (CISA).
                        <SU>18</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The proposed ASPs recognize and incorporate the requirements of E.O. 13690 and FFRMS. The Corps water resources investments may include facilities that must be located in the floodplain to provide a desired function (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         levees). The Corps would implement CISA methods for all Civil Works studies via online tools and technical guidance. As provided in the IG, the Corps would continue to incorporate considerations such as sea-level rise and rely on the best available actionable science on both current and future risk when planning proposed water resources investments.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>17</SU>
                             E.O. 13690 was revoked by E.O. 13807, Establishing Discipline and Accountability in the Environmental Review and Permitting Process for Infrastructure Projects (82 FR 40463), but was later reinstated by E.O. 14030, Climate-Related Financial Risk (86 FR 27967).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>18</SU>
                             The 
                            <E T="03">Guidelines for Implementing Executive Order 11988, Floodplain Management, and Executive Order 13690, Establishing a Federal Flood Risk Management Standard and a Process for Further Soliciting and Considering Stakeholder Input</E>
                             (2015) identify CISA as the preferred FFRMS approach when climate science and future conditions data are available and actionable. Where data are not available or actionable for CISA, the FVA and 0.2PFA are acceptable approaches.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CISA, as implemented by the Corps, considers two broad categories of climate change impacts on flood hazards: inland and coastal. Some projects located in the estuarine transition zone between inland and coastal water bodies may be required to consider both kinds of impacts. In the coastal zone, the Corps primarily considers the effects of relative sea level change, which can have a significant impact on the flood hazard. Internal Corps guidance (Engineer Regulation 1100-2-8162) 
                        <SU>19</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         requires Corps project delivery teams to consider the effects of sea level change when formulating, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12079"/>
                        selecting, and evaluating project alternatives. In addition, another internal guidance document (Engineer Pamphlet 1100-2-1) 
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         provides technical information for how this consideration should be achieved, with techniques specified for each Corps Civil Works program area.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>19</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.publications.usace.army.mil/Portals/76/Users/182/86/2486/ER_1100-2-8162.pdf</E>
                             Incorporating Sea Level Change in Civil Works Programs, last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.publications.usace.army.mil/Portals/76/Users/182/86/2486/EP-1100-2-1.pdf,</E>
                             Procedures to Evaluate Sea Level Change: Impacts, Responses, and Adaptation, last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Consideration of relative sea level change is made more accurate, timely, efficient, and reproducible through the use of web-based tools. The Sea Level Curve Calculator allows the user to plot and tabulate the three sea level scenarios for any NOAA National Water Level Observation Network (NWLON 
                        <SU>21</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                        ) tide gage with sufficient period of record, along with coastal extreme water levels, other federal and local scenarios, tidal and geodetic datums, and water elevations critical to project performance. The Sea Level Tracker also allows plotting and tabulation of these three scenarios (see footnote 16, and consistent with the three scenarios proposed by the National Research Council as updated by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration,
                        <SU>22</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                        ) alongside linear trendlines and computed water levels of various frequencies and averaging periods, based on observations. The Corps has also produced a static atlas of observed sea level change for offline viewing, and a specific calculator for the high-subsidence environment of coastal Louisiana. More information on these tools may be found at the Corps' public tools web page.
                        <SU>23</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Corps would use the social cost of greenhouse gases where appropriate throughout implementation of the ASPs (88 FR 1196).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>21</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://tidesandcurrents.noaa.gov/nwlon.html,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>22</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://oceanservice.noaa.gov/hazards/sealevelrise/sealevelrise-tech-report.html,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>23</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.usace.army.mil/corpsclimate/Public_Tools_Dev_by_USACE/sea_level_change/,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The effects of climate change on pluvial, riverine, and lake flood risk is more complex and uncertain than the effects of sea level change. For inland hydrologic analyses, Corps teams implement the CISA using internal agency guidelines.
                        <SU>24</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Teams follow four basic steps to characterize potential project vulnerabilities to the effects of climate change on inland hydroclimatology: a review of available scientific literature; statistical detection of trends and changes in observed data; examination of projected future hydroclimatology based on climate modeling; and assessment of business-line specific indicators of project performance risks, which are related to the primary purpose or purposes of the proposed project.
                        <SU>25</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>24</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.wbdg.org/ffc/dod/engineering-and-construction-bulletins-ecb/usace-ecb-2018-14,</E>
                             Guidance for Incorporating Climate Change Impacts to Inland Hydrology in Civil Works Studies, Designs, and Projects, last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>25</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.iwr.usace.army.mil/Missions/Flood-Risk-Management/Flood-Risk-Management-Program/About-the-Program/Policy-and-Guidance/Federal-Flood-Risk-Management-Standard/,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        To aid teams in performing these analyses, the Corps has produced a suite of resources, several of which are publicly available. A series of 21 summaries of scientific literature, organized by two-digit hydrologic unit code (HUC), simplifies the review of scientific articles relevant to project locations. The Time Series Toolbox 
                        <SU>26</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and Nonstationarity Detector 
                        <SU>27</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         are two tools to perform statistical tests for changes in observed data and identify the timing and nature of those changes. The Timeseries Toolbox also performs time series modeling, breakpoint analysis, seasonal decomposition, and statistical summaries of user-provided data.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>26</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://climate.sec.usace.army.mil/tst_app/,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>27</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://climate.sec.usace.army.mil/tst_app/,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Climate Hydrology Assessment Tool (CHAT 
                        <SU>28</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                        ) presents projected temperature, precipitation, and streamflow for 64 combinations of climate model and greenhouse gas emissions scenario, at the scale of the HUC-8 watershed. These projections are combined with business-line specific indicators of project vulnerability in the Civil Works Vulnerability Assessment Tool, which is not publicly accessible outside the Corps. This tool reveals the dominant sources of climate vulnerability and regions of particularly high or low vulnerability to various climate change effects, to inform evaluations of potential project impacts and corresponding adaptation options. More information on Corps tools for analysis of climate change effects on inland hydroclimatology is available through the Corps web page.
                        <SU>29</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>28</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://climate.sec.usace.army.mil/chat/,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>29</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.usace.army.mil/corpsclimate/Public_Tools_Dev_by_USACE/Climate-Impacted_Hydrology/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In addition to guidance on Climate Preparedness and Resilience, the Corps has also produced guidance for implementation of resilience principles across the agency. The internal agency guidance on resilience (Engineer Pamphlet 1100-1-2 
                        <SU>30</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and 1100-1-5,
                        <SU>31</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and Engineering and Construction Bulletin 2020-6) 
                        <SU>32</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         detail how Corps teams incorporate resilience principles into planning, design, and construction. While not related to hazard area delineation under the FFRMS, these documents can help inform lasting responses to those hazards. The Corps reviews and updates the tools and guidance on an ongoing basis, when necessary.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>30</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.publications.usace.army.mil/Portals/76/Publications/EngineerPamphlets/EP_1100-1-2.pdf,</E>
                             U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Resilience Initiative Roadmap, last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>31</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.publications.usace.army.mil/Portals/76/Users/182/86/2486/EP%201100-1-5.pdf,</E>
                             U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Guide to Resilience Practices, last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>32</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.wbdg.org/ffc/dod/engineering-and-construction-bulletins-ecb/usace-ecb-2020-6,</E>
                             Implementation of Resilience Principles in the Engineering and Construction Community of Practice, last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Corps implements four principles related to resilience: prepare, absorb, recover, and adapt. These principles provide a lifecycle perspective for resilience-related actions in recognition of the fact that adverse events happen and conditions change over time. This includes the ability to anticipate, prepare for, and adapt to changing conditions and withstand, respond to, and recover rapidly from disruptions. The Corps contributes at three levels of applied resilience: (1) project, (2) system, and (3) community. These three levels of resilience are interdependent, and actions taken at any level will ultimately affect the others.</P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed paragraph in the proposed rule on the Guiding Principle for floodplains notes that Corps action may be located in floodplains where that is the best way to address the water resources problem or opportunity, such as a levee system that helps to reduce a flood risk. Such placement does not automatically trigger the labeling of a particular flood risk management measure as an “unwise use of floodplains.” The proposed ASPs also require a fully nature-based alternative to be included in the final array of alternatives, when appropriate, which also ensures full visibility of alternative approaches regarding the use of floodplains to meet the Guiding Principle as well as the principles of EOs 13690 (80 FR 6425) and 11988 (42 FR 26951), as amended.
                        <SU>33</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Where a fully 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12080"/>
                        nature-based solution is not feasible or would not be fully effective, the proposal encourages the Corps to include nature-based solutions in other alternatives in the final array, where appropriate, as such solutions are required by law to be considered by the Corps in its water resource development project planning process.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>33</SU>
                             E.O. 11988, Floodplain Management, was amended by E.O. 13690, Establishing a Federal Flood Risk Management Standard and a Process for Further Soliciting and Considering Stakeholder Input.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The P&amp;R provides that Federal actions should seek to reduce the Nation's vulnerability to floods and storms. However, that may necessitate water resources development projects located in the floodplain. The Corps would strive to sustain the floodplains' natural and beneficial functions to the maximum extent practicable given the project's purpose and need.</P>
                    <P>The proposed rule provides that the Corps would avoid unwise uses of the floodplain where possible. This includes uses that would significantly increase or shift flood risks to other populated areas, or otherwise would result in adverse net impacts to human health, safety, welfare, property, natural resources, or the natural and beneficial functions of floodplains. Under this Guiding Principle, the Corps would comply with E.O. 11988 (42 FR 26951), E.O. 13690 (80 FR 6425), and E.O. 14030 (86 FR 27967), and would implement FFRMS through CISA. This will ensure that there is no significant increase or transfer of flood risk to other populated areas, considering a systems approach that includes integrated water resource management. It also will ensure that the proposed water resources investment would not have a disproportionate effect on communities with environmental justice concerns or vulnerable populations, considering the relevant current, future, and potential economic, environmental, and social risks, costs, impacts, and benefits. Where this is not feasible, the Corps would identify and communicate the potential adverse effects on floodplain functions.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.6(c)(3) Healthy and resilient ecosystems. The proposed ASPs reinforce WRDA 2007's direction to protect and restore ecosystem functions and to minimize and mitigate those impacts if they cannot be avoided. Ecosystems are dynamic complexes of plant, animal, microorganism, and other living communities and the non-living environment interacting as a system. Ecosystems provide important services to humans both directly and indirectly, and they also encompass vital intrinsic natural values.</P>
                    <P>In order to implement this proposed Guiding Principle in the Corps' ASPs, the Corps would develop alternatives that first seek to improve environmental conditions, then avoid any adverse environmental impact. If there are any remaining adverse impacts that are unavoidable, the alternatives would seek to minimize those adverse environmental impacts. When impacts are unavoidable, compensatory mitigation for adverse effects would be required as mandated by laws and regulations, such as under the Clean Water Act. This is generally known as mitigation sequencing and is described in regulations such as under the Clean Water Act section 404(b)(1) guidelines (40 CFR 230).</P>
                    <P>The Corps would seek to enhance the health and resilience of the natural environment in alternative plans, where feasible and appropriate. When formulating a project primarily for a purpose other than aquatic ecosystem restoration, the Corps should consider alternatives that would better protect or help to restore the natural ecosystem. A resilient ecosystem may provide the most cost-effective option for achieving a project purpose, and has the capacity to respond to changes, including climate change. Resilient ecosystems can enhance services provided by the natural environment as well as contribute to the economic vitality of the Nation. For example, the Corps can incorporate nature-based solutions, such as restored vegetated beach dunes or oyster reefs, into a coastal storm risk management water resources development project. Such incorporation of nature-based solutions is encouraged under the reinstated E.O. 13690, Establishing a Federal Flood Risk Management Standard and a Process for Further Soliciting and Considering Stakeholder Input (80 FR 6425), where possible.</P>
                    <P>
                        Ecosystem health is a measure of the performance of complex and interrelated systems. Ecological processes function normally, within the range of natural variability, in a healthy ecosystem. Ecosystem health is often expressed in terms of ecosystem functions, as reflected in the third part of the Federal objective in the P&amp;R. Functions can be particularly hard to measure, whereas the services such functions provide can be more readily measured. A healthy ecosystem also includes organization, structure (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         biodiversity), and resilience. There are assessment methods to measure indicators of ecosystem functions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         hydrogeomorphic approaches, California Rapid Assessment Method,
                        <SU>34</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         etc.) The use of ecosystem services as a proxy for ecosystem function tends to put a more anthropocentric focus on measuring ecosystem health versus a more habitat-based focus. This can be particularly challenging when applied to the Corps' aquatic ecosystem restoration mission, which does not seek to maximize ecosystem services that may be more easily monetized (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         hunting, fishing, or timber sales) but rather focuses on improvements to the functions of the aquatic resources that will benefit the overall aquatic ecosystem. The Army solicits comment on whether there are alternative forms to measure ecosystem health such as specific assessment methods, in particular for the Corps' aquatic ecosystem restoration mission.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>34</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">www.cramwetlands.org,</E>
                             last accessed on January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Ecosystems are resilient when they are able to respond to and maintain their structure and function under external stress, including climate change and invasive species. Measures of ecosystem resilience often address its two basic components: (1) the magnitude of stress an ecosystem can absorb before fundamentally and irrevocably changing; and (2) the amount of time required before an ecosystem returns to its pre-stressed condition or to another stable condition that functions in ways comparable to its original state. Some simple measures of ecosystem resilience include floodwater storage capacity and population recovery time for an appropriate, scientifically sound surrogate for designated species.</P>
                    <P>However, systems-level models are needed to accurately describe the interactions of ecosystem components under stress and predict their response. No standard methods or models for measuring ecosystem resilience currently exist. Research on ecosystem resilience is rapidly changing how it is described and measured. Best available tools and methods would be used when evaluating ecosystem resilience of alternatives. The Army solicits comment on particular models, tools, methodology or other information that may be helpful in assessing ecosystem resilience, such as the use of keystone species to provide insight on resilience under changing conditions.</P>
                    <P>
                        When evaluating water resources investment alternatives, the health of the affected ecosystem should be measured in its current condition (baseline) and projected under each of the alternatives being considered. Where feasible and appropriate, alternatives also should be developed that would help to restore the health of a damaged ecosystem to a less degraded and more natural condition, where required by law (NEPA, ESA, etc.) or where the non-federal interest or others 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12081"/>
                        agree to provide the non-federal share of the cost of this analysis.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.6(c)(4) Public safety. The proposed ASPs explicitly call for alternatives to avoid, reduce and mitigate significant risks to public safety. Where appropriate, the Corps will incorporate measures to reduce the risk of loss of human life in the formulation of alternatives to address flood and coastal storm risks.
                        <SU>35</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Corps would use available and appropriate tools and methodologies to evaluate the available options to reduce this risk. Although some other agencies use monetized life loss in various decision-making contexts, the proposed ASPs do not require monetization. The Army solicits comment on this issue.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>35</SU>
                             See, 
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             Planning Bulletin on Incorporating Life Safety into Flood and Coastal Storm Risk Management Studies, PB 2019-04, 
                            <E T="03">https://planning.erdc.dren.mil/toolbox/library/PB/PB2019-04.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed on January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The proposed ASPs require the assessment of potential threats to people, including both loss of life and injury, from natural events in the determination of existing and future conditions as well as the decision-making process. Public safety threats are those resulting from environmentally-related events. The Corps would incorporate reasonable and appropriate public safety practices in its proposed water resources investments. In formulating and evaluating the alternatives, the Corps would use appropriate risk-based analysis techniques, including quantitative methods where practicable, to identify, address, and avoid any additional risk to public safety that a proposed water resources investment might otherwise present.</P>
                    <P>The Corps would also include measures to manage and communicate the residual risks. The Corps would describe how the alternatives may affect the residual risks, as well as the reliability and durability of those estimates, and would share such evaluations with the public for transparency as well as to inform the investment decision.</P>
                    <P>In this manner, decision-making would be improved by developing risk-reduction alternatives or recommending alternative courses of action to address potential safety issues, improving the capability to plan, prioritize, and implement risk-reduction actions, and identifying and communicating residual risk. In line with the PR&amp;G, risk analysis to address public safety issues, including public health issues, would include relevant external factors, site-specific considerations, and quantified and non-quantified approaches to evaluate risks to public safety.</P>
                    <P>The Corps, other Federal agencies, Tribes, state and local governments, non-Federal interest, and the affected public have a shared responsibility in flood risk management, including reducing the associated public safety risks. In implementing the ASPs, the Corps would work with each of these parties to help them understand their respective roles and responsibilities. The Army solicits comment on whether the description of public safety as proposed should be broadened, as public safety in general may also be threatened by acts of man, such as a terror attack causing a dam failure, or negligence, for example. The Army solicits comment on whether additional threats to public safety should be included for consideration beyond those related to natural events.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.6(c)(5) Sustainable economic development. Federal investments in sustainable economic development activities contribute to the Nation's resilience. Sustainable is defined in the proposed rule at 234.2(y). As provided in the Guiding Principle under the PR&amp;G, alternative solutions for resolving water resources problems should improve the economic well-being of the Nation for present and future generations through the sustainable use and management of water resources. The proposed ASPs describe sustainable economic development and call for economic, social, and environmental metrics to measure impacts to be incorporated into the analysis of alternatives. The analysis for sustainable economic development would include information on environmental resources and socio-economic conditions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         income, demographics, etc.) in the affected area and how those resources and conditions may change over time. Physical capital, such as value or costs to maintain, may also be presented if relevant. The Corps would use this analysis, as well as the expected outcomes, as no standard set of metrics exist for analyzing sustainable economic development.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As there are likely unintended effects that would be considered, metrics should be identified for both desired and other outcomes. Measures to consider in evaluating sustainable economic development include economic measures, social measures, and environmental measures. Additional measures could also be incorporated where necessary. The assessment would capture all of these measures. Economic measures may include net economic benefits and their distribution across vulnerable populations, income levels, unemployment considerations, labor force participation rates, job growth, among others where applicable. Social measures may include poverty rates, educational attainment, crime rate, disease rates, life expectancy and others, where applicable, which should be stratified by demographic metrics such as gender, age, race/ethnicity, etc. Environmental measures may include measures of air quality, presence of priority pollutants, hazardous wastes, changes in land use/land cover, water quality issues (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Clean Water Act Section 303(d) listed), species distribution patterns, endangered or threatened species, wildlife prevalence, diversity, changes in ecosystem services and their impact on wellbeing, among others where applicable. The economic, social, and environmental measures would be stratified where appropriate.
                    </P>
                    <P>Section 234.6(c)(6) Watershed approach. Another Guiding Principle from the PR&amp;G is the use of the watershed approach in the planning process. Watershed is defined in the proposed rule at 234.2(yy). The proposed ASPs require that upstream and downstream relationships are considered in formulating alternatives and in evaluating benefits and costs.</P>
                    <P>In some cases, a proposed Corps water resources development project or the alternatives may have the potential to provide benefits across multiple Corps program areas, such as flood risk management benefits in addition to aquatic ecosystem restoration benefits. In these cases, a study may result in a recommendation for a multi-purpose project. In a post-authorization study, the Corps should not use the existing project authorization as a screening tool to limit reasonable alternatives that may otherwise provide a more complete solution. The Congress can amend the existing project authorization based on a recommendation of the Corps study. Also, a Corps study can recommend a community-based solution that the Corps would not implement, where the solution is more suited to another Federal agency or to a Tribal, state, or local government.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Corps conducts each of its project studies primarily to address an identified, specific water resources problem or opportunity. The watershed approach primarily ensures that the Corps will assess how the proposed project and the alternatives would affect both the existing and a full range of the potential future uses of water in the watershed. However, in some cases, this kind of an analysis may also lead to a more complete range of holistic alternatives, which would achieve 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12082"/>
                        multiple goals. A watershed approach is conducted at a systems level to identify root causes and how they connect to problem symptoms. A watershed approach also ensures that alternatives consider the effects, including cumulative effects, and benefits conveyed throughout the watershed to understand the full range of public effects. The Corps would also assess any effects which may occur beyond the watershed, where appropriate, such as existence value benefits.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        There is no particular watershed scale dictated by the PR&amp;G for use in evaluation, and as such, the Corps would identify the most appropriate delineation to address the identified, specific water resources problem or opportunity. The study area would include the most immediate part of the watershed, which is most likely to be affected by the alternatives under consideration. The analysis may also need to include other parts of the watershed, for example, to include the effects on all of the people potentially affected by the ecosystem service changes (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         by identifying relevant servicesheds). Where appropriate, the analysis also may include areas beyond the watershed that are connected to it by infrastructure (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         that transfers or affects flows of water among hydrologically unconnected watersheds or populations). The study area would potentially include these additional areas, where the impacts are sufficient to warrant a broader review. The scope and scale of watershed assessments can vary and the geographic area under review should be large enough to ensure plans address relationships among affected resources and activities pertinent to realizing public benefits. The extent of evaluations across a watershed should also reflect the nature of the relationships.
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition, the Corps' assessments would evaluate the interaction of a potential Federal, state, local, or other known investment with other water resources projects and programs within a region or watershed. In this manner, all effects and potential benefits would be evaluated in an interconnected manner, as one Federal investment may affect another Federal or non-Federal investment. Watershed conditions would be assessed in the evaluation. Such information may include but is not limited to: current trends in aquatic habitat loss or conversion; cumulative impacts in the watershed; current and future projected water resources utilization trends; species and other natural resources conservation; and chronic problems such as flooding, among others as appropriate. This analysis would include the effects on the people, businesses, and environmental resources of the affected area, as well as relevant economic and social characteristics of this area. The watershed approach is not a mechanism to expand the scope of the proposed Federal investment, but is rather primarily a way to document and consider the context within which the Corps is proposing a targeted Federal investment.</P>
                    <P>This type of approach may shift the Corps to think about water resources problems more holistically, to look at them from all sides and include all causes, effects and relationships, and then to identify who is best suited to implement the alternative (which may be another Federal agency, or a Tribal, state, or local government). The Army solicits comment on example frameworks, tools, and methods for implementing a watershed approach, such as whether the Basin-Scale Opportunity Assessment led by the Department of Energy could be adapted for use under the ASPs. However, the Corps would adapt to use the best available science for such evaluations as they are developed in the future.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.6(d) Collaboration.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.6(d)(1). This proposed paragraph outlines an increased focus on collaboration for the Corps to improve decision making and promote transparency. The Army recognizes that Tribal Nations, regional, state, local, and non-governmental entities, as well as communities and landowners are interested in the water resources problems that affect them, have expertise, and share in the responsibility of managing and protecting public water resources. The planning process would seek to collaborate fully with a wide range of affected entities and stakeholders, and the public in all stages of the planning process. The Corps would initiate coordination with appropriate Federal or state agencies administering Federal laws as early in the process as practicable to fully integrate environmental considerations into the planning process, identifying early on critical information and requirements needed for the planning decision, and maximizing opportunities to avoid and minimize impacts to the human environment to the extent practicable. For example, consistent and meaningful engagement between EPA and the Corps during early phases of the water resources project plan may help enable a more efficient and effective decision-making process, which meets all of the applicable environmental regulatory requirements. This proposed level of collaboration and engagement ensures that the Corps' planning process integrates various considerations from a multitude of perspectives, allowing for a more thoughtful and holistic consideration of potential alternatives, and potential effects and benefits of a proposed water resources investment. The proposed paragraph recognizes that such enhanced collaboration can assist the Corps in improving the planning process to better identify the problems, opportunities, constraints, and goals and objectives of a planning study. More locally preferred and locally appropriate project elements may also be identified from such collaboration resulting in improved benefits to such communities. Ensuring meaningful, regular, and robust engagement will result in more opportunities for communities to directly contribute to projects that may have positive benefits for their communities as well as contribute to considerations of effects and costs to those communities and ways to avoid, minimize or mitigate for those effects. These engagements should account for the desired form and type of engagement from communities, to ensure such engagements are culturally relevant and appropriate. Another key element of the enhanced collaboration is transparency, ensuring that all relevant Tribal Nations and interested parties are kept informed about the Corps process and various factors under consideration. The Army recognizes that enhanced collaboration and engagement will take time, skill, and commitment on the part of the Corps and project sponsors, as well as those who are engaging in the Corps' process. However, integration of enhanced collaboration into the planning process is necessary for informed and wise Federal investment decisions. Leveraging information and resources from others can result in improved efficiency and save resources.</P>
                    <P>Collaboration can also be used to fulfill some of the Guiding Principles, such as a watershed approach, as working with others can best identify and understand problems and opportunities in a systems context. It is also useful to collaborate to identify other ongoing or planned activities in the watershed for understanding both the current and potential future conditions of a watershed. Environmental justice can also best be achieved when applying a collaborative approach to best understand community concerns. In addition, ecosystem services related to healthy and resilient ecosystems are also best understood using a collaborative approach.</P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed paragraph also makes clear that enhanced collaboration does 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12083"/>
                        not obviate the need for Tribal consultation, where appropriate. In addition, Tribal consultation does not obviate the need for the Corps to ensure that enhanced collaboration with Tribal Nations occurs. Consultation and enhanced collaboration are not the same thing, and in certain circumstances Tribal engagements demonstrate a desire for and result in a greater understanding of the Tribal Nations needs than what may be achieved in consultation. Engagement beyond consultation is necessary to improve overall relationships and communication with Tribal Nations, and to identify areas for participation in and access to Civil Works programs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.6(d)(2) Although this proposed paragraph recognizes that tools and levels of engagement will vary based on a variety of factors, the section requires intentional design based on best practices of engagement (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the spectrum of engagement from the International Association for Public Participation and modifications from various U.S. government agencies including the Corps). Whereas collaboration is standard in current Civil Works planning at the scoping stage and after a plan has been tentatively selected, this section explicitly urges collaboration throughout the planning process including during alternatives evaluation and tradeoffs. In addition, the Corps will ensure that it considers and incorporates the information that it receives from Tribal Nations and external sources into the problem definition, the forecast of future conditions, and the alternatives analysis. See the environmental justice section of the proposed rule and preamble for other considerations in engaging communities with environmental justice concerns (see 234.6(c)(1)).
                    </P>
                    <P>Another element of enhanced collaboration is in instances where a water resources problem identified in community engagement is beyond the Corps' traditional mission areas. In such instances, the Corps can collaborate with Tribal Nations, Federal, state, and local agencies, and non-governmental organizations or private entities, through a formal or public participation process such as in scoping, to identify alternative solutions to the problem, including solutions that may be outside Corps mission areas but where communities may seek further assistance elsewhere. The PR&amp;G may result in alternatives that are outside (in whole or in part) of the Corps mission areas or its core capabilities, or are better suited to another Federal agency or a Tribal, state, or local government. The benefits of enhanced Federal collaboration can include the sharing of data to identify the alternative solutions that maximize net public benefits or the leveraging of resources outside of the Corps to implement these solutions.</P>
                    <P>Enhanced collaboration also helps to ensure transparency, promotes Tribal and public participation, and assists in developing community-driven solutions to water resources problems. In general, collaboration may include, but is not limited to: sharing of science and data, including Indigenous Knowledge; sharing of analytical tools or expertise; sharing of values and priorities; interdisciplinary or inter-agency teams; peer review processes; and post-project reviews. The Corps would ensure that the collaboration includes opportunities for engaged participants to assess the efficacy of the collaboration, identify areas of concern that could be redressed moving forward, note areas of success to continue to build on for the effort at hand, and discuss lessons learned to inform future efforts. It will also help ensure that the right problem is being identified and the study focuses on appropriate goals and objectives.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.6(e) Investigations and data collection. This proposed section discusses that investigations and data collection should occur early and on a recurring basis throughout the planning process. The proposed section outlines areas for the study team to consider and relevant data to collect in investigations. It recommends that the Corps leverage existing information; and conduct new investigations and data collection, where appropriate, when existing information is not present.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.6(f) Identify purpose, problems, needs, and opportunities. This proposed section sets out the requirements to identify purpose, problems, needs and opportunities. The section also sets expectations for early collaboration with Tribal Nations and stakeholders (also see 234.6(d)) to ensure that the right problem is being identified and the study focuses on appropriate goals and objectives. The Corps would begin with a clear definition of the water resources challenges, including a statement of the problems and/or opportunities to be addressed. The causes of the problems should be identified, as well as any constraints, and the relationship of the problems to the missions, statutory authorities, and other requirements of the Corps. Clearly defined problems, opportunities, and constraints are key to enable the Corps to identify a potential Federal investment for consideration. In general, this step corresponds to the identification of the project's purpose and need under the NEPA; however, the scoping process for a Corps study may be different than what is required under NEPA scoping. Typically, more background information is available when NEPA scoping is conducted. Corps study teams may not have all of the information that is identified in this proposed scoping section of the rule during the initial development of the project management plan. For example, the formulation of planning objectives and constraints to be used in the analysis of the Federal investment cannot be developed until other actions have been conducted, such as inventorying and forecasting, that are identified in the study scope. The scoping process is an iterative process. The scope would include actions to obtain stakeholder, partner, and public input; however, that input may not be available early on in the study process. The Corps would seek to align the study scoping for a project and NEPA scoping to the extent practicable. A watershed-based or systems approach should generally be applied when defining the scope of a water resources challenge. To most fully integrate the PR&amp;G and NEPA processes at the earliest stages, the Corps would describe and request public input on the PR&amp;G analysis in the Notice of Intent to prepare an EIS.</P>
                    <P>
                        As implementation of NEPA and the implementation of the PR&amp;G should be fully integrated, the identification of problems, needs, and opportunities applies to both applications and can be accomplished in study scoping. The Corps would ensure that the planning goals and objectives are consistent with the authorizing legislation for the study. The Corps should not limit the consideration of alternatives to those that fall within Corps missions, if the inclusion of other alternatives may otherwise provide a more complete or community-based solution and such additional consideration is within the Corps' study authorization. Where possible, the Corps should strive to look holistically at the water resources problem. The Army solicits comment on how to address specific limitations on the scoping process, due to factors such as the scope of the study authority, cost sharing requirements, non-Federal interest support, and Corps mission areas and core capabilities. For example, other Federal, state, local, or Tribal programs or projects may align with the study's goals and objectives and the consideration of these measures within an alternative may produce additional, synergistic net benefits. The Army solicits comment on whether there may 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12084"/>
                        be terms and conditions under which additional consideration may proceed that would enable the Corps to consider alternatives beyond those that the non-Federal interest supports.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Corps would also identify the purpose of the study, the role of the Federal government, and the various perspectives of those participating in the process. The purpose and scope of the study should be broad enough to cover the full range of reasonable alternatives, while avoiding an unwieldly number of alternatives. The various perspectives from those participating in the process can ensure a more robust and holistic view of the current conditions and potential solutions to the key water resources challenges.</P>
                    <P>The Corps would identify the water resources problems or opportunities in scoping, but would not use this process to exclude reasonable alternatives. The Corps would use enhanced collaboration and the Guiding Principles in developing the scope of the study. The Corps would define the study area and describe stakeholder engagement strategies. The Corps would ensure in doing so that it employs the watershed approach, and considers enhanced collaboration, as well as the Guiding Principles, such as environmental justice. The Corps also may refine or reconsider the scope of the study during the study, based on new information or at the request of any interested party, where appropriate. The Corps would prepare a summary of the planning objectives and constraints, including a summary of input received. The constraints could be legal or environmental, for example. The summary of input received should also provide responses, where appropriate.</P>
                    <P>The Corps would also include a discussion of the social and cultural aspects of the affected area and its resources, including Tribal resources, treaty rights, and matters related to environmental justice. This can help identify potential areas of concern, needs which should be addressed, and helps inform the current conditions as well as the future conditions. There may be other important areas to be identified in scoping that would be included, as appropriate, such as specific areas of consideration for the study area and water resource challenge under review that are not captured in this preamble.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.6(g) Inventory Existing Resources and Forecast Future Conditions. To determine baselines, the Corps would identify the existing conditions and the baseline levels of ecosystems services and, to the extent practicable, identify current trends and variability in key environmental and economic indicators and conditions such as climate, population, urbanization, and land use. The current existing conditions provide the baseline for forecasting both the future with- and without-project conditions. This proposed section describes the need to inventory existing information and resources and to forecast future conditions. This step corresponds to the NEPA identification of the affected environment. The inventory and forecast provide a basis for comparison of the effects of alternative water resources investments on objectives. The proposed section also describes the without-project condition and the with-project condition including the need to consider climate and other likely changes in establishing scenarios to compare effects of alternatives. Such evaluation and forecasting across the alternatives would confirm the problems, needs, and opportunities that the study would address in the subsequent steps. The inventory and forecast would provide information for understanding existing conditions and establishing a baseline for forecasting with- and without-project conditions. The inventory and forecast should include other related Federal and non-Federal investments within the region or watershed, which the Corps would consider to ensure consistency of purpose, maximize effectiveness, reduce costs, or identify other potential alternative solutions.</P>
                    <P>The existing and forecasted future conditions would include descriptions of the economic, environmental, and social setting within the study area. It would take into account future climate change, and economic development and land use change scenarios. A watershed approach should also be used in describing current and future conditions. Those descriptions would discuss how affected resources are interrelated, describing their functional relationships, as well as their ability to produce or impact ecosystem services. In this manner, the connections between the resources and services within the study area and broader watershed will become apparent and allow the Corps to better analyze how a change in targeted water resources may impact those resources and services. The descriptions would also provide details on the existing and future conditions with respect to economic metrics, such as investment, markets, and productivity; environmental metrics, such as water quality and quantity or air quality components; and social metrics, such as income levels, race and ethnicity, and health burdens.</P>
                    <P>The Corps would use peer-reviewed (where possible and appropriate) and common projections of the factors listed above. In addition, Indigenous Knowledge and local knowledge should be included in the descriptions, following appropriate procedures for free, prior and informed consent for use in the descriptions. The conditions would be described as appropriate and applicable to the specific investment, with consideration for the Guiding Principles of the PR&amp;G. The Corps would also ensure consistency in the approach applied and conditions assessed across the existing and future condition inventories. The level of detail provided in the inventories should be commensurate with the rest of the analysis and level of scope and scale of the proposed Federal investment. Not every analysis must include detailed surveys and fieldwork and the Corps should rely on existing data, and information, and leverage existing resources to the extent practicable. In some circumstances, a conceptual model can be used to best explain to the public and decision makers in plain language and visual representation, how natural, social, and economic systems interact and how ecosystems provide services to communities and the natural environment. The inventory would also define the ecosystem services that exist in the study area.</P>
                    <P>The forecast of future conditions is comparable to the NEPA identification of future impacts associated with the proposed alternatives. The Corps would predict and identify what the future conditions of the study area may be across the various alternatives. Such comparison would also be conducted with the No Action alternative. Any key assumptions made for forecasting of future conditions would be disclosed.</P>
                    <P>
                        The “without-project” and “with-project” conditions refer to the conditions that the Corps estimates are “most likely” to occur in the future over the period of the analysis. Since the future is inherently uncertain, the Corps study should identify and describe the key known drivers of the uncertainties. In some cases, the Corps also would use scenario analysis to evaluate the extent to which the uncertainties may affect the investment decision. For example, for climate change, the Corps uses scenario analysis because the science relies on a range of values (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         levels of greenhouse gas emission and their impacts) and it is difficult to determine which value is more likely to occur than others within that range. The Corps 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12085"/>
                        would implement additional scenario analyses in cases where a reliable forecast of future conditions is not possible. The inventory of existing resources and forecast of future conditions should also include assumptions for scenarios and for extreme weather events to evaluate sensitivity of alternatives to a range of conditions, such as drought or hurricanes. The E.O. 14008 (86 FR 7619) directs agencies to build resilience against the existing impacts of climate change as well as those which will continue to intensify according to current trajectories. The Corps would use the scenario analysis and discussions on extreme weather events to inform how alternatives may perform under future conditions with respect to climate resilience. There are also uncertainties from other sources that would benefit from additional scenario analyses.
                    </P>
                    <P>As described in the collaboration section (234.6(d)), the Corps should ensure other relevant Federal and non-Federal investments are included in the conditions assessments. Reasonably foreseeable actions by public and private entities should be included to understand how key resources and services may change in the future and to be used to better understand the most likely future condition in the absence of the proposed Federal investment. As with any projections of future conditions, there is an inherent degree of uncertainty; the Corps would identify and characterize the degree of uncertainty for the projections made. Such characterization should be quantitative, when feasible, and qualitative when not and provide a commensurate level of detail to the analysis. Any residual risk that is not proposed to be, or cannot be, addressed or mitigated would be disclosed to aid in the decision-making process. If the uncertainty regarding current conditions is sufficient to affect the analysis, the Corps may develop multiple baselines. Where the effects of climate variability and climate change are relevant to the investment decision, the study should fully describe the key sources of the uncertainty and the range of its possible effects over time.</P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed future “without-project condition” is what is expected to occur, over the period of analysis, in the absence of a Corps project or program. The Corps currently uses a 50-year timeframe for the period of analysis (see ER 1105-2-100 
                        <SU>36</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         section 2-4j). Future land use changes would be incorporated. The future “without-project condition” is the baseline for comparison of alternatives. The proposed future “with-project condition” is what is expected to occur in the future, over the period of analysis, with a specific Corps proposed project or program in place. As described in discussion of Floodplains in the preamble at 234.6(c)(2), the Corps uses the CISA when assessing climate change conditions and climate resilience related to flooding of all Civil Works studies, ensuring climate adaptation is considered. Climate change would need to be considered in both the future “without-project” and “with-project” conditions. The Corps has a host of tools and guidance that it uses to implement the CISA, as previously described in 234.6(c)(2). Projections of future conditions would account for expected environmental, social, and economic changes, including those that result from climate variability and climate change, in particular for projects with a relatively long service or operational lives, as these projects may be subject to additional climate variability and change.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>36</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.publications.usace.army.mil/portals/76/publications/engineerregulations/er_1105-2-100.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Corps would develop a summary of the process used to identify the existing and future conditions for the administrative record. The summary ensures that appropriate considerations were incorporated and provides transparency in the process. The Corps would ensure the summary includes discussion of Tribal, partner, stakeholder, and public inputs. Identification of existing resources seeks to quantify relevant resource conditions in the study area as they currently exist. The forecasting of future conditions would do the same over the period of analysis. The period of analysis does not reflect the expected service or operational life of the investment. The Army solicits comment on what the standard period of analysis should be when the Corps implements the PR&amp;G. For example, rather than a traditional 50-year period of analysis, should the Corps use a longer or shorter period of analysis of changes relative to the baseline and, if so, why? The Corps recognizes the importance of consistency and comparability both in evaluating alternatives and in comparing performance across a portfolio of projects. However, the Corps could consider multiple periods of analysis for different alternatives to not bias selection of one alternative over another. Where relevant, the Corps also could describe how the period of analysis may result in different assessments of alternatives to ensure transparency and informed decision-making.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.6(h) Formulate Alternatives. The next proposed paragraph of the Corps' ASPs establishes the primary function for plan formulation as developing the full range of alternatives that will address the water resources problem and sets the evaluation criteria of acceptability, efficiency, effectiveness, and completeness. These criteria carry over from the 1983 P&amp;G. Investigations, data collection, and analysis should be ongoing, and should leverage and incorporate information from Tribal, state, local, non-governmental, scientific and economic literature, and other relevant sources.</P>
                    <P>
                        A range of potential plans must be investigated with a subset retained for further analysis, including alternatives with only nonstructural elements and the environmentally preferred alternative. Nonstructural measures and nature-based solutions 
                        <SU>37</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         are important considerations of the PR&amp;G and should be integrated into alternatives for water resources Federal investments wherever appropriate. As with structural solutions, considerations should be made for technical feasibility, land use, cost, past performance, and longevity, for example. In addition, the proposed rule requires the Corps to include the environmentally preferred alternative in the final array of alternatives, which is consistent with the current Corps' planning process as well as consistent with NEPA.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>37</SU>
                             See 
                            <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2022/11/Nature-Based-Solutions-Roadmap.pdf</E>
                             (last accessed on September 21, 2023) for more information on nature-based solutions.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Alternatives analyzed shall seek to address the subject water resources challenge, problem, or need identified in 234.6(f) based on the most likely future conditions. Alternatives that do not address the problem should not be carried forward. The alternatives should seek to achieve the planning and Federal objectives and follow the Guiding Principles. Alternatives should identify solutions that are feasible and meet planning objectives. It is an unwise use of Federal investments to continue to explore alternatives that do not meet these goals. The range of alternatives provides a reasonable basis for comparing the relative effectiveness and efficiency of the alternatives. The alternatives must strive to achieve economic, environmental, and social goals. In addition, as noted in 234.6(e), the same period of analysis should be used in alternatives analysis. The period 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12086"/>
                        of analysis selected can bias selection of one option or another. A shorter analysis period would benefit alternatives with less upfront costs and more upfront benefits, as compared to an alternative with more upfront costs but more long-term benefits and lower cost over time. Thus, the period of analysis selected must be long enough to account for costs and benefits including the principal significant long-term effects. On the other hand, some project features may have a very long expected lifetime. In these cases, it may not be productive to cover the project's full lifespan in the analysis, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         if the costs and benefits in the far distant future are very uncertain or would not affect the Federal investment decision.
                    </P>
                    <P>When an alternative is beyond the Corps missions (which are: commercial navigation, flood and storm damage reduction, and aquatic ecosystem restoration), such alternatives can be carried forward for further analysis where they provide solutions to the identified problem, meet the goals of the PR&amp;G, and appropriate funding is available or may be available (including from other agencies and partners without Corps action). In such case, the alternative should specifically identify the relevant parties with requisite responsibility for any action beyond Corps missions, their authority for that action, the interrelation between that action and the recommended Corps project, and appropriate sequencing of implementation. Any recommendations for authorization should clearly delineate the federal water resources project(s) being recommended for authorization and Corps implementation and any condition precedent for construction, with specificity. The proposed rule provides that for Corps investments, the Corps would be the designated lead for completing the PR&amp;G analysis. In many Corps studies, the non-Federal interest pays a share of the cost. The Army solicits comment on whether and when the Corps should consider alternatives beyond those that the non-Federal interest supports, such as when an alternative may be beyond Corps missions.</P>
                    <P>The rule provides that the Corps would continue to justify each project purpose separately, and to size each of the project features, based on an incremental analysis of the benefits and costs. In this incremental formulation of the alternatives, the Corps would decide how best to weigh the different kinds of benefits (rather than automatically giving each of the benefit categories “equal” weight). Similarly, the rule also provides that the Corps would continue to justify each hydrologically separable element of a project separately, based on an incremental analysis of the benefits and costs, and to identify them in its recommendations as separable elements.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.6(h)(1). In this proposed paragraph, the screening of alternatives in a systematic manner is discussed. An initial set of alternatives would be refined as determinations are made that such alternatives do not meet the purpose and need, are too costly, entail unacceptable unavoidable impacts, or do not meet other factors. The refinement would also consider the Federal objective and the Guiding Principles. Alternatives that are eliminated should still be briefly discussed in publicly available documents and the Corps would include the reasons for their elimination. The remaining alternatives are considered the reasonable range of alternatives to be carried through the analysis and NEPA evaluation. They should be distinct enough to warrant individual consideration and entail different potential solutions to the water resources challenges. The alternatives must also describe the avoidance, minimization, and compensatory mitigation considerations for each identified alternative solution. Appropriate mitigation of adverse effects is to be an integral part of each alternative plan. The alternatives should describe not just the economic, environmental, and social conditions and benefits but also impacts. Alternatives should also describe any institutional barriers that may be present to effectuate the solution, including statutory requirements, implementation authority, regulation changes, implementation policy, etc. Transparency and full consideration of economic, environmental, and social effects, both quantifiable and non-quantifiable, must be provided for each alternative. The Corps would also describe the social, environmental, and economic impacts of not investing, or underinvesting, in any Tribal or disadvantaged communities, in particular under the future “without-project” condition and the “no action” alternative. Programmatic-level procedures would generally be expected to have fewer alternatives than project-level procedures, as they are generally of a lower level of detail with fewer options for developing them.</P>
                    <P>In all cases, the alternatives analyzed under the PR&amp;G would be included in the NEPA document. As discussed previously (234.6(f)), the Corps would work to integrate the PR&amp;G analysis with NEPA to the extent practicable. Where differences exist, the Corps would describe such differences in the documentation. In addition, where a Corps alternative has discrete measures or separable elements, each should be evaluated as discrete units. Plan formulation needs to describe the features and capabilities of any discrete measures as well as the full alternatives.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.7 Evaluation Framework.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.7(a) The proposed ASPs are intended to provide a common framework and requirements for the Corps to use in evaluating potential alternatives for Federal investments. The Corps would use the Guiding Principles and evaluate the contributions to the Federal Objective to inform the process. While the basic planning framework for the PR&amp;G is similar to the P&amp;G framework, this section includes many areas of new or additional focus specific to the PR&amp;G planning framework. To the extent applicable, the Corps may use existing frameworks and practices (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         aspects of ER 1105-2-100) 
                        <SU>38</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         as long as they are relevant and acceptable under the PR&amp;G framework.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>38</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.publications.usace.army.mil/portals/76/publications/engineerregulations/er_1105-2-100.pdf,</E>
                             Planning Guidance Notebook, last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Corps would quantify/monetize effects to the extent feasible and appropriate, and describe effects that cannot be quantified or monetized. The Corps would focus evaluation on economic, environmental and social effects that could impact the decision-making to avoid unnecessary time and costs. The Corps would include all significantly affected economic, environmental, and social effects, and ensure the evaluation framework would not leave them out if they cannot be monetized or quantified. The Corps would generally follow Circulars A-4 and A-94 in this approach.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.7(b) Economic, environmental, and social effects. The Corps would identify and evaluate the economic, environmental, and social effects across the alternatives. In this evaluation, the Corps would focus in each study on the key data that will affect its estimates of the benefits and costs and are most pertinent to the decision at hand.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Corps proposes to consider adoption of any finalized OMB guidance on ecosystem services (proposed at 88 FR 50912) 
                        <SU>39</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         for any final rule issued for 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12087"/>
                        the Corps' ASPs to evaluate the social and economic outcomes resulting from environmental changes. The Corps would also employ other methods to evaluate the direct economic and social effects as well as traditional benefit-cost analysis (see Circulars A-4 and A-94). Ecosystems provide services to people. Ecosystem goods and services are those aspects provided by nature that benefit humans. A distinction is sometimes made between ecosystem goods (tangible commodities produced by nature, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         timber production) and ecosystem services (less tangible benefits of well-functioning natural systems, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         wetland water quality maintenance), but the phrase ecosystem services often refers collectively to all of these benefits. Federal investment impacts on the environment or ecosystems that affect people may be understood in terms of changes in service flows. A complete accounting identifies, at a minimum, impacted services and the projected trend of each service flow. This framework is well suited for analyzing many values associated with the natural resource, as it starts from the assumption that all relevant ecosystem services should be evaluated. The ASPs, consistent with OMB guidance, call for monetization where possible, quantification where not possible, or description of effects if neither is possible, of all ecosystem services that have economic, social or environmental impacts that will affect decision making. Qualitative information used when it is not practicable to provide quantified or monetized information would be given similar consideration in evaluation.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>39</SU>
                             Request for Comments on Proposed Guidance for Assessing Changes in Environmental and Ecosystem Services in Benefit-Cost Analysis. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/FR-2023-08-02/pdf/2023-16272.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed on January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Corps' PR&amp;G analysis would display information on environmental and social effects in addition to economic effects in order to provide decision-makers with additional information as they select among alternative actions. Early engagement with communities that could be affected by a project would be helpful to obtain information on how various actions may improve or degrade social benefits. Environmental changes that result in changes in social benefits or changes in ecosystem services may include changes in social interaction and community; quality of life; safety, mental and physical health, family and individual well-being; improvements in attitudes, beliefs and values (includes culture and religion); and more. The Corps would ensure that these benefits are assigned to one category (environmental, social, or economic) to ensure that multiple benefits that may overlap are only counted once.</P>
                    <P>
                        Monetization should follow sound economic principles and practices (See OMB Circulars A-94 
                        <SU>40</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and A-4 
                        <SU>41</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         for examples of currently accepted monetization practices). Discounting is to be used to convert future monetary values to present or annualized values, consistent with the statutory requirements for the agency and relevant agency or Administration guidance (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         OMB Circulars A-94 and A-4).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>40</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://obamawhitehouse.archives.gov/sites/default/files/omb/assets/a94/a094.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>41</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CircularA-4.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Ecosystem services of potential interest in water resource evaluations could include, but are not limited to: water quality maintenance for drinking, health, recreation, energy production, transportation or industrial uses; flood risk management to reduce the risk of loss of life and the risk of damage to property and infrastructure; water supply or drought risk reduction for drinking, recreation, real estate, energy production, agriculture, transportation or industrial uses; aquatic and riparian wildlife and places for recreation or culturally valued experiences; wild populations, places or features existence; greenhouse gas effects on various services; productivity for food, timber, fish, crops and other products; and nature for aesthetics in viewsheds.</P>
                    <P>In its flood and coastal storm risk management project studies, the Corps may include an additional analysis of the benefits using distributional weights to inform investment decisions as well as allow for the weighting of costs, where appropriate. This analysis could provide a more equitable way to measure the welfare impacts of these projects on people and their communities, by reducing the extent to which the average value of the property that is at risk affects the estimated project benefits.</P>
                    <P>The Army notes that one of the Guiding Principles of the PR&amp;G is healthy and resilient ecosystems. NEPA analyses evaluate environmental changes and will provide important information on environmental effects of alternatives. NEPA analyses may also include or provide inputs for effects analyses. The Corps analysis would account for relevant effects of alternatives on environmental changes that impact people, including analysis beyond what may be included in NEPA analysis. In addition, the Corps analysis would include its estimates of the costs and benefits in accounting for overall net benefits. This framework supports the identification of alternatives that maximize net public benefits.</P>
                    <P>When monetization and quantification are not possible, descriptions that merely list and/or laud benefits are less useful to decision-makers than descriptions that allow meaningful differentiation of effects across alternatives. For quantified and non-quantified effects, professional judgment, bolstered by evidence where available, is expected to be exercised in determining how important the benefits or costs may be in the context of the overall analysis. If the quantified or non-quantified benefits and costs are likely to be important, “threshold” or “break-even” analyses are approaches that may be useful to evaluate their significance, as well as “screening” or “order-of-magnitude” analyses. Whatever analytical technique is used, reports should indicate, where possible, which non-monetized described changes are most important and why.</P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed paragraph describes that ecosystem services to be considered include market and non-market commodities, in addition to the services that provide use and non-use values. As there are various methodologies appropriate for identifying and measuring changes, the Corps would use the most appropriate metrics and methods to evaluate the alternatives, commensurate with the scale, scope, and complexity of the water resources investment decision.
                        <SU>42</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>42</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/FR-2023-08-02/pdf/2023-16272.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed on January 31, 2024, provides additional information and guidance on this topic and the Corps proposes to consult that document upon finalization.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In some cases, monetizing ecosystem services may be as simple as adding an additional parameter to other equations or calculations. For example, an agency may already be using a flood risk model to estimate property damages, but that model may not capture the way that natural vegetation affects flood risk. Assessments should monetize effects when possible.</P>
                    <P>
                        When assessing economic, environmental, and social effects, the Corps will first look for existing data that may be relevant to the question at hand, including market and non-market data. The Corps will also consider Indigenous Knowledge. Assessments should monetize effects when possible. Market data on production and sale of such goods is readily available, for example through the U.S. Department of Agriculture. When monetization is not feasible, the Corps will quantify where possible and describe service changes, when it is not. Quantification does not have to be numerical; it can also be 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12088"/>
                        categorical as long as the indicators are clearly defined, capture the intended attribute as precisely as possible, free of observer bias (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the same regardless of who estimates it), repeatable over time, and sensitive to changing conditions. Qualitative, quantitative and monetized information will be given full consideration in decisions. Where qualitative descriptions and analysis are used, they would be of sufficient detail to enable the decision-maker to make informed decisions. Such qualitative descriptions would be considered with quantitative information.
                    </P>
                    <P>For a proper accounting of changes in ecosystem service value, it is important to fully articulate the processes and functions that relate ecosystem structure and processes to the benefits directly enjoyed by humans. The evaluation of benefits should then focus on the final endpoints of this relationship that might be produced by one or more intermediate ecosystem services and supported by other ecological processes. Focusing on these final endpoints will help avoid double counting. Changes over time as well as any uncertainty in assessing impacts of an action on ecosystem service production would be described.</P>
                    <P>
                        Many ecosystem services provide benefits to people not located where the service is produced. For example, while those who live just downstream from a wetland or regularly view scenic landscapes in a known park may be well-understood as beneficiaries, others who live farther away may be harder to identify. Services that provide non-use values (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         existence values) might provide benefits to individuals across the U.S., with no clear relationship between distance to the resource and value. The Corps would identify those populations who may be impacted by a change in the resource to the extent feasible. The results of the analysis would clearly define these groups and describe how the groups were identified. The Corps would also note whether subgroups within a population may be affected differently by a change, such as on the basis of geographic location, income levels, etc.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Corps' analysis would describe when benefits are likely to be realized, and when costs are likely to be incurred. To enable comparison of benefits and costs occurring at different times, appropriate discounting methods would be used. When benefits are not described monetarily, a discussion of the impact of waiting for future benefits would be included.</P>
                    <P>The Corps uses ecosystem services now to evaluate the benefits and costs of its proposed water resources development projects, to assess resource-related losses and in determining restoration to compensate for resource-related losses, to improve resource program planning and management, and in application of modeling tools. This proposed rule preamble is not intended to provide a “how to guide” on ecosystem services or to provide comprehensive or specific instructions on how to implement the analysis but rather to provide general concepts. As stated earlier, the Corps would consider and seek to implement any forthcoming final ecosystem services guidance from OMB (88 FR 50912).</P>
                    <P>The Army solicits comment on any specific tools and methodologies that commenters may wish to recommend for quantifying or monetizing economic, environmental, and social effects.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.7(c) Best available actionable science and commensurate level of detail. To support the evaluation of alternatives, the analysis should use the best available actionable science, Indigenous Knowledge, data, techniques, procedures, models, and tools across the wide variety of pertinent subjects. As stated in other sections of this preamble, the effects of the alternatives should be monetized where feasible. Across the alternatives for any given proposed water resources investment, consistent methodology should be applied and established tools can also be routinely used to improve consistency across decisions. However, the Corps would adapt to new science, knowledge, data, and tools as they are developed and proven. This helps ensure the Corps does not simply react to constantly changing up-to-date science. By relying on actionable science rather than latest available, the Corps avoids requiring the adoption of new procedures only to remove them again shortly thereafter if differing scientific views emerge. Similar to other areas within the proposed ASPs, the level of detail, scope, and complexity of analyses should be commensurate with the scope of complexity of the decision. By scaling the level of detail and collection of data to the relevant decision for investment, unnecessary and excessive cost and expenditure of resources may be avoided. For example, for a smaller study that qualifies for scaled analysis under this proposed rule in Table 1, such as a study under the Corps' Tribal Partnership Program or the Continuing Authorities Program, the Corps would generally use the best available actionable data and information using existing sources to the extent practicable. Rather than expending a large investment to gain a small level of refinement to existing data, the Corps may make judgments as to the range of acceptable information to make informed decisions. The level of detail and granularity of the data would generally be commensurate with the scale, scope, and complexity of the water resources investment decision. In addition, the most relevant and appropriate science for the particular investment would be used. This would result in the information best suited to inform a decision regarding a subject investment. Refer to 234.6(g) regarding describing future conditions and addressing the inherent uncertainty.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.7(d) Risk and uncertainty. To improve decision-making, the ASPs require that risks and uncertainty be identified, described, considered, and quantified if possible. This section calls explicitly for consideration of the costs and benefits of reducing risks and uncertainties. The Corps would align its disclosure, consideration, and assessment of risk and uncertainty with Circulars A-4 and A-94 to the extent practicable. A useful definition of “risk” for planning purposes is the likelihood of a specific magnitude of a harmful outcome occurring in the future. “Uncertainty” is used to express doubt or lack of knowledge about a positive (beneficial) or negative (harmful) outcome. Risk and uncertainty may be expressed either qualitatively or quantitatively. Some elements of uncertainty are described at section 234.6(g) regarding future conditions. The risks and uncertainties need to be disclosed for transparency and in plain language and made relevant to the comparison of alternatives. When available, such risks and uncertainties should be contextualized in a format more readily understandable by the public. The Corps would also work to identify whether improvements to existing data or models may lessen risks or uncertainties. In some instances, reducing risks and uncertainty may result in increased costs and the advantages of doing so in informing the decision-making should be weighed against those additional costs. When analyzing potential Federal water resource investments, areas of risk and uncertainty would be identified, described, quantified where possible, and considered as part of the decision. The first step to evaluate risk and uncertainty would be to identify the nature of the harmful outcomes and possible benefits. The second step would be to identify the likelihood of each harmful or beneficial outcome, either qualitatively or quantitatively. The third step would be to identify a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12089"/>
                        specific magnitude or range of magnitudes of each outcome and interpret the significance of each.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Corps solicits comment on risk informed frameworks that can supplement or improve its current risk informed planning processes (see Planning Manual Part II: Risk-Informed Planning).
                        <SU>43</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         One approach that shows promise domestically (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         California Dept of Water Resources) and internationally 
                        <SU>44</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         is Climate Risk Informed Decision Analysis (CRIDA). CRIDA concepts for scenario planning use bottom-up, vulnerability-driven approaches including stress tests and triggers to provide a framework to consider the full range of future risks (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         climate, population, land-use change) that matter to communities and decisionmakers and help develop robust long-term decisions for large-scale, multi-generational water resources investments. By collaborating with stakeholders to identify thresholds for system failure, CRIDA concepts can help identify and communicate risks and ensure that water resource solutions meet the needs of communities in the short and long term.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>43</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://planning.erdc.dren.mil/toolbox/library/Guidance/PlanningManualPartII_IWR2017R03.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>44</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://en.unesco.org/crida,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Section 234.7(e) Adaptive management. Adaptive management is defined under the proposed rule at 234.2(b). As cited in the PR&amp;G, adaptive management is highlighted as a tool in the proposed rule to help reduce or manage within uncertainties. The proposed rule calls for adaptive management measures to be clearly identified and evaluated as part of the alternatives. It should be considered throughout the process and should be employed as soon as triggers are identified which necessitate such measures. Post-construction adaptive management to address unforeseen conditions or impacts of the project should also be included in Corps recommendations for project authorization.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.7(f) and (g) Climate change and Water availability, water use, and resilience. These proposed paragraphs require consideration of climate change, water availability, water use, and drought and flood resilience in all aspects of the planning process. This will involve the use of best available actionable science and the leveraging of local information on future climate change, including the associated uncertainty and likely impacts. This approach is consistent with the ASA(CW) Climate Preparedness and Resilience Policy Statement and helps to ensure that the Corps does not have to react constantly to every new scientific report and update. By relying on actionable science rather than the latest available, the Corps avoids requiring the adoption of new procedures only to remove or modify them again shortly thereafter as scientific views emerge and evolve. See preamble section 234.6(c)(2) on Floodplains for further discussion on how the Corps considers climate change in the planning process. The discussion should include the interrelated nature of flood-related climate change, climate, drought, water, and ecosystem reliability, availability, and resilience. The evaluation should consider how these areas interrelate and how they would affect the net economic, environmental, and social benefits of the proposed water resources investment. Effects from climate change, including impacts on water availability, for example, have been noted as an environmental justice issue. Climate change, water availability, water use, and resilience also impact environmental factors, such as wetlands and river systems and the animal and plant species that they support. The evaluation should ensure these factors are considered for the current and future conditions assessment to identify water resource needs now and in the future across the alternatives, and how those alternatives may result in added resilience, when applicable to the project purpose.</P>
                    <P>Resilience should be considered under both the drought and flooding scenarios. The consideration of multiple uses and competing demands on water resources shall be taken into account when designing solutions to water resources problems. Water availability, water use, and resilience will be particularly important for projects that serve multiple purposes.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.7(h) Nonstructural and nature-based alternatives. This proposed paragraph further describes requirements to develop alternatives that use nonstructural measures to address the water resources problem. Nonstructural approaches are defined at section 234.2(l) of the proposed rule text. The Corps led a large, diverse collaboration that developed and published (2021) the International Guidelines on Natural and Nature-Based Features for Flood Risk Management.
                        <SU>45</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In addition, a Report on nature-based solutions was recently issued to assist Federal agencies in moving ahead on implementing nature-based solutions to solve water resources challenges, where appropriate, titled “Opportunities to Accelerate Nature-based Solutions: A Roadmap for Climate Progress, Thriving Nature, Equity, &amp; Prosperity.” 
                        <SU>46</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The proposed paragraph requires the consideration of natural systems, ecosystem process and nature-based approaches throughout alternatives development where they are feasible and consistent with the study purpose. A full nonstructural alternative and a full nature-based solutions alternative would also be included in the final array of alternatives. In some cases, these may be one and the same.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>45</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://ewn.erdc.dren.mil/?page_id=4351,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>46</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2022/11/Nature-Based-Solutions-Roadmap.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.7(i) Tribal treaty rights. This proposed paragraph provides that any alternatives for water resources investments must protect Tribal treaty rights. Each treaty is unique and must be analyzed to ensure any possible impacts, as well as benefits, to treaty rights are fully understood and accounted for in the alternative evaluations. The Corps would ensure consistency with the “Memorandum of Understanding Regarding Interagency Coordination and Collaboration for the Protection of Tribal Treaty Rights and Reserved Rights” 
                        <SU>47</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         during the evaluation framework process. The Corps commits to enhancing interagency coordination and collaboration to protect Tribal treaty and reserved rights and to fully implement Federal government treaty obligations. If Tribal treaty rights preclude selection of an otherwise viable alternative, the Corps would disclose as such. The Corps also commits to following the “Best-Practices for Identifying and Protecting Tribal Treaty Rights, Reserved Rights, and Other Similar Rights in Federal Regulatory Actions and Federal Decision-Making”.
                        <SU>48</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>47</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.doi.gov/sites/doi.gov/files/interagency-mou-protecting-tribal-treaty-and-reserved-rights-11-15-2021.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>48</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.bia.gov/sites/default/files/dup/inline-files/best_practices_guide.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.7(j) and (k) State water law and International obligations. These proposed paragraphs provide that the alternatives for Federal investments must ensure compliance with State water laws to the extent they do not conflict with Federal laws and regulations as well as treaty and other international obligations, and if any constraints within that compliance require an otherwise viable alternative 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12090"/>
                        to not be carried forward then the Corps would disclose as such.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.7(l) Timing. This proposed paragraph provides in the regulation what is also discussed in section 234.6(g) regarding the period of analysis for review of alternatives. The time period selected would be documented with appropriate supporting information. The same timeframe would be used across all alternative evaluations. The Corps currently uses a 50-year timeframe for the period of analysis (see ER 1105-2-100 
                        <SU>49</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         section 2-4j). Under the proposed regulation, a better approach may be for the Corps to consider a period of analysis sufficient to capture all important effects of each alternative. The Army solicits comment on whether there should be an upper limit established for the period of analysis. If an upper limit is established, the Army solicits comment on whether the Corps' current timeframe is the appropriate period of analysis for implementing the Corps' ASPs. Alternatively, should the timeframe be longer given that some benefits could accrue over timescales beyond 50 years. In addition, comment is sought on whether the period of analysis should be variable based on the Corps' mission and particular purpose and need of the proposed investment. The Corps recognizes the importance of consistency and comparability in evaluating alternatives and projects.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>49</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.publications.usace.army.mil/portals/76/publications/engineerregulations/er_1105-2-100.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>234.8 Final Array of Alternatives.</P>
                    <P>
                        This proposed paragraph of the ASPs outlines the final array of alternatives to address the problem that would be identified and subject to in-depth analysis and consideration. The proposed rule requires the Corps to include six types of alternatives in the final array: a no action or without-project condition alternative, a fully nonstructural alternative, a fully nature-based alternative, an environmentally preferred alternative, an alternative that maximizes net public benefits, and a locally-preferred alternative. A single alternative might satisfy more than one category (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a nature-based alternative that is also the net benefit maximizing alternative and has broad support from local interests), and there may be cases where there are two alternatives in a category that need to be considered.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The no action alternative describes the conditions where no Federal investment is made by the Corps in a water resources development project. The fully nonstructural alternative is comprised only of nonstructural approaches. This alternative must be considered feasible to be carried forward in the final array. There may be circumstances where a solely nonstructural approach alternative or fully nature-based alternative is not feasible due to technology or legal limitations, for example. The Corps would also consider nature-based solutions and non-structural approaches as components in the other alternatives. The environmentally preferred alternative generally provides the solution that maximizes environmental benefits. It causes the least damage to the biological and physical environment and best protects, preserves, and enhances historical, cultural, and natural resources. The alternative that seeks to maximize net public benefits is also required to be included in the final array. This alternative is the plan that the Corps estimates would achieve the greatest net public benefits, based on its estimates of the costs and of the overall economic, environmental, and social benefits to society. The last alternative to be included is the alternative preferred by the non-federal interest, called the locally preferred alternative. All alternatives in the final array must be developed using a comparable level of rigor and detail. The non-federal interest is defined in the preamble at section 234.2(g) and as described, is the local interest envisioned by the PR&amp;G for purposes of the Corps' implementation. The same alternative may be identified as one or more of these plans (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the fully nonstructural alternative could also be the fully nature-based alternative, or the locally preferred alternative may be the same as the alternative that maximizes net public benefits). In addition, nonstructural measures and nature-based solutions should be considered as components of the other alternatives in the final array, essentially providing an integrated or “hybrid” of gray (hard) infrastructure with these other measures. The section also requires inclusion of any needed mitigation for unavoidable adverse effects in the alternative and analysis. The section also provides that if an alternative requires any changes in law, regulations, or policy, such changes must be clearly identified and explained. The last paragraph provides a summary of what the discussion of the final array of alternatives should include to describe the purpose, study area, impacts, as well as considerations described in the Guiding Principles and evaluation framework.
                    </P>
                    <P>Section 234.9 Evaluate Effects of Alternatives.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.9(a) and (b) These sections of the proposed ASPs establish the general framework for the analysis of the effects of the final array of alternatives. The analysis must evaluate how an alternative's benefits compare to its costs, how they perform with respect to the PR&amp;G's Guiding Principles, how they perform against the objectives of the study, and how they perform against the prescribed formulation criteria of completeness, effectiveness, efficiency, and acceptability. Therefore, the final array of alternatives will be assessed in a manner to best inform decision-making. The objectives of the study may be related or stem from the project's purpose and need but must be clear and focused so that they can be used to evaluate alternatives. The Army notes that there can be tension between a plan that is efficient versus one that is robust or resilient. Ensuring that both resilience and uncertainty are accounted for in any decision-making framework is important.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.9(c) Consideration of benefits and costs. This proposed paragraph establishes three categories to fully account for the costs and benefits of an alternative and its contributions to the Federal objective that are to be evaluated fully: economic, environmental, and social. This framework corresponds to the “triple bottom line” of sustainable economic development. Alternatively, Army is soliciting comment on whether to eliminate the three categories to simply account for all costs and benefits without further categorization which may make it easier to avoid double counting, noting though that certain costs and benefits may not be as visible if they are not specifically called out in a category. Distributional analyses, including an analysis of regional economic benefits, may be used to further compare alternatives in some cases (see Section 234.10). These three categories will facilitate the display of alternatives, tradeoffs, and support the identification of the alternative(s) that maximize net public benefits. These three categories encompass all significant effects of a plan on the human environment as required by NEPA (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ). They also encompass social well-being as required by Section 122 of the Flood Control Act of 1970 (Pub. L. 91-611, 84 Stat. 1823). The proposed paragraph reiterates that the costs and benefits should be quantified and monetized to the extent practicable using a scientifically valid and acceptable way. If qualitative applications are used, they must be of sufficient detail to ensure the decision-
                        <PRTPAGE P="12091"/>
                        maker can make an informed decision understanding both the importance and magnitude of potential changes.
                    </P>
                    <P>This proposed paragraph is the heart of the PR&amp;G and displays the largest change in current Corps planning. Rather than primarily focusing on national economic development in the alternatives analysis, the proposed ASPs require all three categories to be considered fully. As previously stated, this is consistent with the PR&amp;G (see preamble Section 234.4(c). Some benefits may appear to fit in more than one category. If this occurs, the use of logic models, exploration with experts or other methods can help further specify benefits and parse them into their appropriate different categories, representing the full set of effects and avoiding double counting. For example, an alternative that restores riparian habitat may reduce erosion, improving in-stream habitat for aquatic species and improving navigability for shipping and recreational boating. The benefit to aquatic species should be captured as an environmental benefit, the effect on shipping should be captured as an economic benefit, and the effect on recreational boating should be captured as a social benefit. These are three distinct benefits and all should be included as relevant. Some social benefits can also be monetized, and when feasible should be. In those cases, they should count only once, as economic benefits. Qualitative information can be used to further contextualize their social relevance, but double counting should be avoided.</P>
                    <P>This proposed paragraph calls for the current dollar value costs along with non-monetized measures and description to be measured against the current dollar value and non-monetized measures and description benefits of each alternative and compared to the no action alternative. Future predicted cost and benefit value (monetized) estimates would be discounted to present value terms for the analysis. The evaluation of alternatives is part of the NEPA alternatives analysis, in which the No Action Alternative and Action Alternatives are described, evaluated, and compared. The Army solicits comment on whether the selection of discount rates, and consideration of declining discount rates should follow the guidance in OMB Circulars A-4 and A-94.</P>
                    <P>The proposed ASPs intentionally do not dictate specific evaluation tools, methods, or processes. These tools and methods would evolve over time and the Corps would commit to using the best available tools and methods appropriate for the analysis, so the analysis does not get stale. In this manner, the Corps can be nimble in changing with the evolving science, knowledge, data, and methods, rather than promulgating a prescriptive method in regulatory text which may quickly be outdated. It is envisioned that internal agency guidance may be developed providing specific references for the Corps to employ in analysis, which can be updated more readily. This may include areas such as income weighting or the use of distributional analysis to inform a decision on a proposed investment that would primarily benefit a specific Tribal Nation or disadvantaged community. Such internal agency guidance would be posted for public transparency so the public understands which tools and methods the Corps may be applying. Recommendations for tools and methods are solicited through this proposed rule. In addition, as the Corps implements the ASPs, there may be lessons learned and best practices that also necessitate the Corps to be nimble with internal agency procedures regarding evaluation tools, methods, and processes to implement the ASPs. Due to regional variation in water resources and challenges, one common set of tools and methods may not be appropriate for nationwide use. The Corps would employ the most appropriate tools, methods and processes for different type of projects and problems.</P>
                    <P>This framework would include the analysis of costs and benefits using tools that have long estimated the effects of an alternative on the Corps' existing P&amp;G's four accounts where still relevant and appropriate: National Economic Development, Regional Economic Development, Environmental Quality, and Other Social Effects. Some of the tools the Corps uses to calculate the four accounts now may still be relevant when determining economic, environmental, and social effects under the ASPs. The Corps would do an assessment to determine which existing tools may still be helpful, which may need modification, and where gaps exist for creation of new tools. The Corps would not be identifying the four accounts but rather focusing on economic, environmental and social effects as described in this proposed rule. Additional methods, tools and processes may be used and would likely be developed over time to better achieve a fuller accounting of benefits and costs. In general, the Corps will follow Circulars A-4 and A-94 for implementing a benefit-cost analysis. The Army also solicits comment on how such analysis would best be conducted for projects affecting Tribal Nations, and whether the Corps should identify, characterize, and evaluate the benefits to the Tribal Nation separately, as opposed to including them in a broader assessment of the overfall benefits of the proposed project and the alternatives to the U.S. Nation (including the affected Tribal Nations).</P>
                    <P>While the proposed ASPs do not prescribe the techniques to be used to quantify and monetize costs and benefits, the Corps' ASP analysis must include information to justify the use of any particular technique as the most appropriate given the circumstances. The justification of any analytical techniques used would include discussion on why the method is the most appropriate for the analysis, how it compares to other methods that could have been used (pros vs. cons), and what are the risks and uncertainties inherent in using that particular technique. The Corps' ASPs allows for the use of new analytical techniques and methodologies, as they become available and cost effective. Costs would include the costs of operations and maintenance.</P>
                    <P>The PR&amp;G does not direct the Corps to develop ASPs that require the selection of a particular alternative investment, but rather to evaluate a range of alternatives. When evaluating these alternatives, the Corps would keep in mind a number of key aspects, including: economic, environmental, and social impacts are interrelated; not all impacts can be monetized, and impacts described qualitatively should be given full consideration; and, there could be more than one alternative that reasonably and approximately meets the Federal objectives and maximizes the public benefits relative to costs.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.10 Compare Alternatives.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 234.10(a) Comparing alternatives. This proposed ASP section calls for plans to be compared with each other and the baseline. The alternatives would include a description of the adaptability and resilience of alternatives to climate change and other risks. The plan (or plans) that reasonably maximizes net public benefits would be identified to be included in the final array of alternatives. The proposed ASPs explicitly call for robust engagement to provide meaningful participation and input from Tribal Nations and stakeholders as they may have different perspectives, values, considerations, and information on potential effects to inform tradeoffs between alternatives. See section 234.6(d) in the preamble for 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12092"/>
                        discussion on collaboration and engagement. Army recognizes that different preferences will exist and understanding these perspectives helps the Corps deliver sound investment advice.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Corps solicits comment on how it could compare alternatives and develop a recommendation. Are there multi-objective decision frameworks or approaches that may have successfully been used in other contexts or purposes that may assist? How can the rule best ensure that the Corps will be comparing the options and developing its project proposals objectively and consistently with a national perspective?</P>
                    <P>For example, a multi-criteria decision analysis (MCDA) could be employed and the Army solicits comment on when MCDA would be appropriate for the application within a PR&amp;G analysis. Another approach that could be followed is structured decision making (SDM).</P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, in certain instances the Corps has employed decision frameworks such as using resilience as a guiding strategy under the City Resilience Framework 
                        <SU>50</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         for the Coastal Texas study. The framework presents a broad, multi-dimensional perspective on the integrated conditions that support resilience within a community. The framework highlights four dimensions of resilience: Health &amp; Wellbeing; Economy &amp; Society; Infrastructure &amp; Environment; and Leadership &amp; Strategy. The Army solicits comment on whether the City Resilience Framework align with the PR&amp;G Guiding Principles and could be employed in a decision framework under the proposed ASPs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>50</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.rockefellerfoundation.org/report/city-resilience-framework/,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In another example of a decision framework employed by the Corps for the Brandon Road project, system performance robustness was used as a criterion to evaluate alternative plan robustness in addressing current and future threats of invasive carp migrating from the Mississippi River into Great Lakes basins. Robustness considered the (1) ability to cycle in nonstructural measures, (2) ability to cycle in structural measures, (3) number of structural control points within the study area, and (4) number of modes of transport the alternative controls. Factors were assessed in a robustness tool that also considered cost effectiveness analysis as a component of plan selection.</P>
                    <P>The Corps also collaborated with the State of Louisiana and researchers from RAND to develop a proof-of-concept application of Robust Decision-making (RDM) methods to support coastal storm risk management and ecosystem restoration multi-purpose planning for the Louisiana Coastal Protection and Restoration study. Although limited, the proof-of-concept illustrated how RDM may be an appropriate method in some cases to derive scenarios for planning and communicating risk and uncertainty to decisionmakers and stakeholders at the national, regional, state, and local levels. The process initially lacked a framework for integrating planning with the relevant uncertainties inherent to the problem. The method was later expanded to employ a risk-based tool to assess a full range of economic and non-economic assets at risk against various structural and nonstructural risk reduction measures. Information from this risk-based tool helped to inform decision-makers and the public on the risks, costs, and consequences of a full range of potential flood risk reduction, coastal restoration, and hurricane and storm damage reduction measures.</P>
                    <P>In another example for the Sutter Basin Pilot Study, the Corps employed a study process that relied on sound professional engineering, economics, and environmental judgment and analyses, and focused the amount and type of data collected and analysis on the risk and consequences of the decisions being made. Costs and benefit estimates used for the initial steps of the planning process were based on an appropriate level of detail for screening of draft alternatives to a final array of alternatives. For the study, the appropriate level of detail was selected using comparative cost estimates, rather than absolute cost estimates. The range of confidence in cost and benefit estimates was presented in the comparison of alternatives; however, only mean estimates were presented in the study. More detailed cost estimates were prepared for the evaluation of the final array of alternatives leading to the identification of the recommended plan. In that study, the Corps found that no single factor provided the basis for the Corps decision for a recommendation for Federal investment. Alternative comparison and selection suggested that there was no single “best” plan, and that there may be a variety of approaches (quantitative and qualitative) to decision-making using multiple criteria.</P>
                    <P>The Army solicits comments on the various frameworks and methods listed above as well as other alternative frameworks that may be employed in the ASPs decision-making process when facing a multi-dimensional problem with complex tradeoffs between monetary and non-monetary outputs and quantitative and qualitative data, which would support objective analysis and sound decision-making.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.10(b) Tradeoffs. Tradeoffs are anticipated and expected for the implementation of the ASPs regarding the potential alternatives. Tradeoffs are assessed from the perspective of the specific circumstances of each study, including the study area, resources, impacted populations, and study authority, to form the basis for deciding which plan best addresses the Federal Objective and Guiding Principles. The Army solicits comment on whether the Corps should pursue a more straightforward approach, using maximizing the net benefits as a primary metric for use in comparing the alternatives and evaluating the tradeoffs, and to clarify the decision framework.</P>
                    <P>The tradeoffs would be described throughout the decision-making process to ensure an informed decision. They should describe the effectiveness of the alternatives in solving the water resources problems, the tradeoffs in monetary and nonmonetary terms of what must be given up to enjoy the benefits of the alternatives in relation to the baseline, and the differences among the alternatives. These factors will ensure the tradeoffs are fully described, contemplated, and understood for decision-making. Consideration should be given for whether some effects measured are more relevant than others, and whether others are more incidental in nature which should be noted and separated. The Corps would note effects that are irreversible or that have high end-of-lifecycle costs to reverse (including decommissioning costs). Different project elements may be justified on different types of public benefits, which should be described. Tradeoffs may be identified on the basis of both quantifiable and unquantifiable terms. In addition, each separable project element's goals and objectives should be identified to provide a rationale for inclusion or exclusion from the alternative.</P>
                    <P>
                        Tradeoffs among potential alternatives and their anticipated effects may require professional judgment when a computationally driven “best” answer is not clear. Tradeoffs must be understandable and transparent, and the analysis should be conducted in a consistent manner across alternatives. The level of detail in assessing separable components and the associated description of the specific tradeoffs among the goals and objectives of the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12093"/>
                        investment decision should be sufficient to inform the decisions to be made and to provide transparency to the decision-making process. The frameworks discussion provided earlier in the preamble at 234.10(a) may also be helpful in evaluating these tradeoffs.
                    </P>
                    <P>Section 234.10(c) Information for inclusion in the analysis. This proposed paragraph outlines various information and tables that will promote consistency and transparency in comparisons across different studies. The information is also consistent with other Federal agency approaches in their ASPs so it can also provide consistency across the Federal government. Information must highlight how alternatives achieve the four evaluation criteria of completeness, effectiveness, efficiency, and acceptability. The information must include the content from the Guiding Principles and the evaluation framework described in Sections 234.6(c) and 234.7.</P>
                    <P>Various tables that describe resource/ecosystem tradeoffs would also be required, including changes in each affected resource. This matrix would summarize the tradeoffs, relative to the baseline, resource-by-resource. The matrix would include information on the financial elements of an alternative. For example, if the alternative involves repayment by non-Federal entities or other financial considerations are required, then the table would display the magnitude of the annual payments as well as the present value of the payments over the period of analysis.</P>
                    <P>The matrix would generally be constructed using an ecosystem service framework but would also ensure inclusion of economic, environmental, and social effects that are relevant but may be difficult to include in an ecosystem services framework. The matrix would generally include estimates of the annualized and total changes in the quantity and/or quality of each effect, relative to the No Action alternative, over the period of analysis. The metrics used to evaluate changes in services and display tradeoffs would be clearly defined. Estimates of changes to relevant benefit indicators relative to the No Action alternative may be used. In addition, a quantitative measure of affected ecosystem services, even if not monetary, that goes beyond biophysical measures to address relevant social welfare would be included. Changes in estimated benefits would be quantified and monetized to the greatest extent feasible. The monetized costs and benefits of the project benefits would generally be presented on an annual basis over the period of analysis as well as in present value terms. The major structural and nonstructural features of the recommended plan, any special considerations for implementation, and the estimated cost of implementation would also be provided in the analysis. The monetized costs relative to the baseline would be quantified and presented on an annual basis as well as in present value terms. Estimates of the annual changes in effects including those on the relevant ecosystem services, relevant time periods over which the changes are anticipated to occur would be included, as well as the level of certainty associated with each estimate. Non-monetized quantitative and qualitative measures and description of changes in costs and benefits would also be included along with the monetized values of the project and presented on an annual basis where feasible. While use of an ecosystem services decision matrix provides a useful construct, it should not be constraining if there are economic, environmental, or social effects that need to be included but would not be considered ecosystem services.</P>
                    <P>Additional tradeoff displays should show any other relevant important information. A summary table would display the present value of costs and benefits, and another table would indicate the extent to which the alternatives achieve the Guiding Principles. The summary table would include all benefit estimates, regardless of the technique used to estimate them. To the extent feasible, all cost and benefit estimates should be accompanied by either quantitative or qualitative estimates or descriptions of the certainty of the estimate. Qualitative information is considered with quantitative information. The summary table should include entries for any benefits and costs that are not monetized and briefly provide a rationale for why they were not monetized. The text of the analysis must include a more in-depth discussion of these issues. The achievement of the objectives table information may be qualitative in nature and each of the Guiding Principles must be addressed individually.</P>
                    <P>The Corps would use the most readily available, scientifically acceptable, and best available data and information, to include Indigenous Knowledge as described in previous sections of this preamble for assessing tradeoffs. However, the Army solicits comment on the tools, methods, and processes for assessing the tradeoffs to best elicit preferences resulting in the most informed recommendations in a consistent manner, although regional variation is expected by the nature of water resources and their challenges having great variation across the Nation. The Army would also consider tools and techniques to assess perceived risk in the description and assessment of tradeoffs, which can provide additional information regarding community concerns and needs.</P>
                    <P>The IG provided that common displays that are used across agencies enhance transparency and clarity about the decision-making process and encouraged agencies to collaborate to develop these common displays. The displays discussed above are described in the Department of Interior's ASPs to help ensure a more common display for use by Federal agencies.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.10(d) Risk and uncertainty. This section also requires a description of areas of risk and uncertainty with sufficient detail so that decisions can be made with knowledge of the degree of reliability and the limits of available information, recognizing that even with the best available engineering and science, risk and uncertainty will always remain.</P>
                    <P>The economic analyses need to reflect the uncertainty inherent in the data or various assumptions as to future economic, demographic, environmental, and technological trends. The environmental analyses also should account for the uncertainties. Various projections and assumptions of reasonable alternative forecasts, if realized, should be analyzed to determine if they would appreciably affect estimated results. From the vantage point of one who is deciding whether to propose or make a particular investment, the risk and uncertainty in the outcome tend to increase over time. The risk and uncertainty include the extent to which the underlying assumptions that drive the predicted benefits and costs may overstate or understate the actual benefits and costs. To address this concern (at least in part), the Corps may include an estimate of the return on investment under current conditions both in its flood and coastal storm risk management project studies, and in its commercial navigation studies. The Army solicits comment on this approach. This could show the extent to which the estimated benefits assume a change in current conditions in the future:</P>
                    <P>
                        • For flood and storm damage reduction studies, this analysis may help communities and decision makers understand the extent to which the Corps estimates that the current flood risk is likely to increase due to climate change and how quickly that risk may change.
                        <PRTPAGE P="12094"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>• For commercial navigation studies, this analysis may enable decision makers to understand the extent to which the Corps could (or could not) justify the proposed navigation investment under current conditions. This analysis could help in establishing priorities for investment, and would underscore the extent to which a study relies on an assumed sustained long-term growth in future traffic.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.11 Select the Recommended Plan.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.11(a) Recommended plan. The final part of the proposed ASP's planning section describes how to recommend a decision to either: (1) implement an alternative project or program; or (2) take no Federal action. Federal investments would seek to achieve the Federal objective and maximize net public benefits, as measured by the economic, environmental, and social costs and benefits to the Nation. The Corps would clearly identify the alternative that achieves the water resources objectives and reasonably maximizes the public benefits to the Nation relative to costs. In addition, this proposed rule makes clear that more than one alternative in the final array may meet these conditions; for example, the non-federal interest locally preferred alternative may equate to the alternative which meets objectives and maximizes net public benefits. Decisions or recommendations involving Federal investments affecting water resources would be made through a dynamic process, both iterative and progressive. The process should be responsive to significant changes in information, conditions, and/or objectives. These can occur at any point in the process and, depending on the potential consequences of the changes, may dictate that previous decision points, assumptions, and forecasts be reviewed in light of these changes.</P>
                    <P>Plan selection requires decision-makers to assess tradeoffs and to consider the extent of both monetized and non-monetized effects. The plan selection must disclose the criteria and considerations used to be transparent to the public in how the recommended plan was selected. In addition, the summary of Tribal and stakeholder engagement and their reflections on the various alternatives should be included in the plan selection.</P>
                    <P>The selected plan recommendation would provide a complete discussion of the tradeoffs involved in making a decision regarding the proposed Federal investment; a discussion of how economic, environmental, and social benefits (monetized, quantified and described) justify the costs (monetized, quantified and described); and adequately attain the goals outlined in the Guiding Principles, recognizing how tradeoffs between the various goals affect the level of attainment within each Guiding Principle. If the basis for plan selection depends on non-monetized benefits or costs, the report would describe the benefit-cost analysis conducted for the alternative being selected which would include an explanation of the relative importance of these benefits/costs and why they are not monetized.</P>
                    <P>Through this process, the PR&amp;G helps the Federal government improve decision-making by accounting for long-term costs and benefits; developing investments to withstand or adapt to climate change; creating better, more resilient communities; and avoiding conflicts and project delays by including local input.</P>
                    <P>Section 234.11(b) Exceptions. The proposed rule allows for exceptions for the recommended plan to maximize net public benefits; however, such exceptions must be approved by ASA(CW). This proposed policy underscores the importance of the PR&amp;G approach to put forth the recommended plan that maximizes net public benefits.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">D. Expected Benefits and Costs of Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        Overall, this proposed rule provides greater flexibility to the Federal government and non-Federal interests to consider a wider range of benefits, improve the effectiveness of Federal and local investments in Civil Works projects, and provide water resource projects that better serve communities and the public. Informed by more detailed understanding of various risks, Federal, state, local and Tribal governments are able to apply available resources to the activities that are most likely to produce public benefits. A full accounting of benefit and costs will result in projects that increase public benefits. An increased focus on collaboration throughout the planning process ensures projects benefit from local knowledge, improves Federal decision-making, and promotes transparency and responsiveness. A focus on environmental justice ensures that Federal government resources benefit disadvantaged communities, including many communities that are overburdened by pollution and marginalized by underinvestment. The Corps has 11 covered programs 
                        <SU>51</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         under the Justice40 Initiative 
                        <SU>52</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         which would apply the ASPs as described in this proposed rule. Use of an ecosystem services approach allows the planning process to better anticipate and account for the effects of a Federal investment.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>51</SU>
                             See 
                            <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/Justice40-Initiative-Covered-Programs-List_v2.0_11.23_FINAL.pdf,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>52</SU>
                             See 
                            <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/environmentaljustice/justice40/,</E>
                             last accessed January 31, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>As the Corps starts implementing this new approach, evaluation and decision-making methods tools and processes will need to be developed, resulting in increased costs in time and effort to all parties. More resources will likely be directed to the evaluation of social, environmental, and non-traditional economic benefits and costs; engagement with other governmental and non-governmental partners; and assessing and communicating risks and uncertainties to the public (see Preamble discussion at section 234.7(d)). Civil Works planning is committed to ensuring development of an adequate study scope and documentation and establishing a realistic schedule and budget early in the study process and ensuring adequate leveraging of data, models, methods and information from Tribal, State, local, and non-governmental resources to assist in development.</P>
                    <P>
                        This proposed rule will mostly affect the Investigations appropriations account of the Corps, which the Congress uses to provide funding for feasibility studies for potential new Civil Works projects, major rehabilitation studies, and general re-evaluation and review studies. The ASPs will also affect the Continuing Authorities program funded out of the Construction appropriations account, and Section 216 and reallocation studies funded out the Operations and Maintenance appropriations account. We anticipate the costs to the Federal government to implement the proposed rule to remain roughly the same as under the current planning process as the ASPs change only the process to select the recommended project alternative rather than Congressional appropriation process. The estimated value added to these projects as a result of the application of the ASPs would exceed any estimated added costs. The change to the Corps' internal process results in a shift in focus from strictly an economic evaluation to one evaluating economic, environmental, and social considerations. This would require additional tools and methods as described in the proposed rule preamble which are existing or in development or 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12095"/>
                        would evolve as science and analytical studies improve over time. The Corps uses tools and methods for the current approach and it would be a matter of adding tools and methods to the current approach to include social and environmental considerations. This new process will require additional trainings and development of tools and methods not currently available which may result in some minor additional costs to the Corps but those initial costs would be outweighed by long-term benefits of the Corps' implementation of the ASPs and efficiencies gained by the use of new tools and methods. The costs to the public would be the same as under the current planning process. The Corps' planning process and Civil Works programs and projects which fall under the proposed ASPs are not mandatory or obligatory requirements on the public but rather are initiated and voluntarily entered into by the non-federal interest and the Corps pursuant to congressional authorization. See the Corps' Regulatory Impact Analysis for further discussion on the benefits and costs of the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">E. Procedural Requirements</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">a. Executive Order 12866: Regulatory Planning and Review; Executive Order 13563: Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review.</E>
                         Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993), as amended by Executive Order 14094 (88 FR 21879, April 11, 2023), defines a “significant regulatory action” as one that is likely to result in a rule that may:
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) have an annual effect on the economy of $200 million or more (adjusted every 3 years by the Administrator of the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs for changes in gross domestic product); or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, territorial, or tribal governments or communities;</P>
                    <P>(2) Create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency;</P>
                    <P>(3) Materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or</P>
                    <P>(4) raise legal or policy issues for which centralized review would meaningfully further the President's priorities or the principles set forth in this Executive order, as specifically authorized in a timely manner by the Administrator of OIRA in each case.</P>
                    <P>This proposed rule has been found to be a significant regulatory action and has therefore been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review.</P>
                    <P>This rule establishing the Corps' ASPs to implement the PR&amp;G does not by itself impose costs or benefits. Potential costs and benefits would only be incurred as a result of actions taken under existing Corps programs relying on these procedures. The Corps does not initiate any actions that may be undertaken under the proposed rule on their own but rather in response to engagements by a non-Federal interest or at Congressional direction. See Section D of the Preamble for a discussion on expected costs and benefits of the proposed rule. Primarily, these costs would be incurred by the Corps and the non-Federal interest. Benefits would be incurred by the communities and ecosystems where the Corps projects occur. See the Corps' Regulatory Impact Analysis for further discussion on costs and benefits of the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">b. Review under the National Environmental Policy Act.</E>
                         As required by the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), the Department of Army prepares appropriate environmental analysis for its activities affecting the quality of the human environment. The Corps has preliminarily determined that this proposed regulation, if finalized, would not significantly affect the quality of the human environment. The rule establishes the procedure the Corps will consider in evaluating investments in projects, programs, and plans. The Corps will conduct an action-specific NEPA analysis before undertaking any activities that could potentially affect the quality of the human environment and will integrate the NEPA process with the procedure laid out in this rule. A. The draft Environmental Assessment to support this preliminary determination is available at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         for public comment. The preliminary determination that an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) will not be required for the promulgation of the regulation will be reviewed in consideration of the comments received.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">c. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4).</E>
                         The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act does not apply to this proposed rule because this rule provides policy for Corps planning processes authorized through congressional action. The Corps has also found, under section 203 of the Act, that small governments, as defined under the Regulatory Flexibility Act analysis, will not be significantly and uniquely affected by this rulemaking. Although small governments may be non-Federal interests for a Corps project and therefore be involved in the proposed ASPs, there are other forms of non-Federal interests and other entities engaged in the process so small governments are not uniquely affected. The action imposes no enforceable duty on any Tribal, state, or local governments, or the private sector.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">d. Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq.).</E>
                         This proposed rule does not impose any information collection requirements for which OMB approval under the PRA is required. However, this action may change terms and concepts used by the Corps to implement certain programs. The Corps does not believe any of their existing information collection instruments would need revision at this time.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">e. Executive Order 13132: Federalism.</E>
                         This rule will not have substantial direct effects on the states, the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Army did engage in early outreach with state and local governments, or their representative national organizations, prior to proposing this regulation as a matter of policy (see 87 FR 33756, Notice of Virtual Public and Tribal Meetings Regarding the Modernization of Army Civil Works Policy Priorities; Establishment of a Public Docket; Request for Input). Twelve intergovernmental organizations attended the early engagement virtual sessions to provide oral comments or provided written comments to the docket, as well as three associations representing state and local governments. Their comments included support for moving to a fuller consideration of project benefits than just economics and on robust collaboration with state and locals including use of local and regional information in the planning process. The ASPs reflect these themes. The Army will continue to engage with state and local governments during the public comment period through virtual meetings.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">f. Regulatory Flexibility Act.</E>
                         The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), as amended (5 U.S.C. 601 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) generally requires an agency to prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis of any rule subject to notice-and-comment rulemaking requirements under the Administrative Procedure Act or any other statute unless the agency certifies that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Small entities 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12096"/>
                        include small businesses, small organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions. For purposes of assessing the impacts of the proposed rule on small entities, a small entity is defined as: (1) A small business based on the Small Business Administration size standards; (2) a small governmental jurisdiction that is a government of a city, county, town, school district, or special district with a population of less than 50,000; and (3) a small not-for-profit enterprise that is independently owned and operated and is not dominant in its field.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        This rule does not “subject” any entities of any size to any specific regulatory burden. The scope and content of the proposed rule is informed by the PR&amp;G and would not be readily informed by an RFA analysis. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Cement Kiln Recycling Coal.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                         255 F.3d 869 (D.C. Cir. 2001) (“[T]o require an agency to assess the impact on all of the nation's small businesses possibly affected by a rule would be to convert every rulemaking process into a massive exercise in economic modeling, an approach we have already rejected.”); 
                        <E T="03">Michigan</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                         213 F.3d 663, 688-89 (D.C. Cir. 2000) (holding that the RFA imposes “no obligation to conduct a small entity impact analysis of effects” on entities which it regulates only “indirectly”); 
                        <E T="03">Am. Trucking Ass'n</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                         175 F.3d 1027, 1045 (D.C. Cir. 1999) (“[A]n agency may justify its certification under the RFA upon the “factual basis” that the rule does not directly regulate any small entities.”); 
                        <E T="03">Mid-Tex Elec. Co-op, Inc.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">FERC,</E>
                         773 F.2d 327, 343 (D.C. Cir. 1985) (“Congress did not intend to require that every agency consider every indirect effect that any regulation might have on small businesses in any stratum of the national economy.”).
                    </P>
                    <P>Under the RFA, the impact of concern is any significant adverse economic impact on small entities, because the primary purpose of the initial regulatory flexibility analysis is to identify and address regulatory alternatives “which minimize any significant economic impact of the proposed rule on small entities.” 5 U.S.C. 603. In this case, the Army certifies that this proposed regulation does not have a significant effect on a substantial number of small entities. The proposed regulation merely provides ASPs for the Corps' planning processes implementing the PR&amp;G. Although small entities might benefit from such Corps water resources development projects—just as large entities and private individuals might—the agency procedures under the proposed regulation does not place any burden on small entities nor does it entail direct involvement by such entities except for those that may be non-federal interests for Corps projects. Nevertheless, the Army recognizes that the Corps' implementation of the PR&amp;G may be of great national interest, including within the small business and small entity community. The Army commits to meeting with small entities during the public comment period to hear their thoughts on the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">h. Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments.</E>
                         Under Executive Order 13175, the Federal government may not issue a regulation that has substantial, direct effects on one or more Tribal Nation, on the relationship between the Federal government and Tribal Nation, or on the distribution of powers and responsibilities between the Federal government and Tribal Nations. The Executive Order also states the Federal government may not issue a regulation that imposes substantial direct compliance costs on those communities, and that is not required by statute, unless the Federal government provides the funds necessary to pay the direct compliance cost incurred by the Tribal Nation governments, or we consult with those governments. If complying by consulting, Executive Order 13175 requires agencies to provide the Office of Management and Budget, in a separately identified section of the preamble to the rule, a description of the extent of prior consultation with representatives of affected Tribal Nation governments, a summary of the nature of Tribal Nation concerns, and a statement supporting the need to issue the regulation. In addition, Executive Order 13175 requires that agencies develop an effective process permitting elected officials and other representatives of Tribal Nation governments an opportunity to provide timely input in the development of regulatory policies on matters that significantly or uniquely affect their communities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        This proposed regulation does not impose significant compliance costs on any Tribal Nation or otherwise have substantial direct effects on the same. The regulation merely provides agency procedures specific to the Corps to implement the PR&amp;G. Whether the Corps initiates a water resources development project for Federal investment depends on if it is authorized by Congress. The Army believes that the regulation itself does not directly result in a substantial, direct effect on the relationship between the Army and Tribal Nations but does recognize that implementation of the ASPs at a project, program, or plan level may result in improved engagement and collaboration, and appropriate solutions to water resources problems in partnership with Tribal Nations. The Army initiatives to comply with the Executive Order includes: (1) initiating government-to-government consultation on the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice to Modernize Civil Works (87 FR 33756) to permit meaningful, early, and robust engagement in development of this proposed rule; (2) conducting a virtual meeting on this effort with Tribal Nations held on July 21, 2022; (3) responding to all requests for one-on-one consultation and meeting with three Tribal Nations at a leader-to-leader level and one Tribal Nation at a staff-level. All letters received by the Army as part of Tribal consultation may be found in the docket for the Modernize Civil Works effort (
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at Docket ID No. COE-2022-0006).
                    </P>
                    <P>The Army has also initiated government-to-government consultation on this proposed rule action through a specific Dear Tribal Leaders letter sent to Tribal leaders. Tribal Nations may also submit written comments to the docket for this proposed rule. In addition, the Corps would engage in government-to-government consultation on a specific Federal action per the existing USACE Tribal Consultation Policy. The Corps' provision of water resources development projects and services does not affect the distribution of power or responsibilities between the Federal government and Tribal Nations. This proposed rule will neither impose substantial direct compliance costs on federally recognized Tribal governments, nor preempt Tribal law.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">i. Executive Order 13045: Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks.</E>
                         The Army interprets Executive Order 13045 as applying only to those regulatory actions that concern environmental health or safety risks that the agencies have reason to believe may disproportionately affect children, per the definition of “covered regulatory action” in section 2-202 of the Executive Order. This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it does not concern an environmental health risk or safety risk.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">j. Executive Order 13211: Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use.</E>
                         This action is not a “significant energy action” because it is not likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy.
                        <PRTPAGE P="12097"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">k. National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act.</E>
                         This rulemaking does not involve technical standards, and as such, does not trigger requirements under the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">l. Executive Order 14096: Revitalizing Our Nation's Commitment to Environmental Justice for All; Executive Order 12898: Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations.</E>
                         The Army believes that this action does not have disproportionate and adverse human health or environmental effects on communities with environmental justice concerns, as specified in Executive Order 14096 (88 FR 80 (Apr. 26, 2023); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994)).
                    </P>
                    <P>The Army recognizes that the burdens of environmental pollution and climate change often fall disproportionately on communities with environmental justice concerns. Climate change will exacerbate the existing risks faced by communities with environmental justice concerns. The proposed ASPs further the goals of E.O. 14096 by incorporating environmental justice and social goals into the Corps' planning processes, in addition to environmental and economic goals, as opposed to solely relying on economic justification.</P>
                    <P>For this rule, consistent with Executive Order 12898 and Executive Order 14096, the Army considered whether the change in benefits due to this rule may be differentially distributed among communities with environmental justice concerns in the affected areas when compared to both baselines. This proposed rule action establishes a process for Corps identification of a final array of alternatives for water resources development project investments and to inform the recommended plan. The proposed rule would not directly result or contribute to benefits to any particular communities as such projects must be congressionally authorized and appropriated. However, the consideration of social, environmental, and economic goals out of necessity incorporates environmental justice considerations into those alternatives and recommendation as the final recommendation must be the one that maximizes net public benefits. The impacts of the changes to the Corps processes proposed in this rule would be beneficial to communities with environmental justice concerns because it ensures environmental justice considerations are brought forth and considered in the Corps' processes.</P>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 33 CFR Part 234</HD>
                        <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Intergovernmental relations, Technical assistance, Water resources.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <SIG>
                        <P>Approved by:</P>
                        <NAME>Michael L. Connor,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Assistant Secretary of the Army (Civil Works).</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                    <AMDPAR>Accordingly, the Corps proposes to add part 234 to title 33 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 234—CORPS OF ENGINEERS AGENCY SPECIFIC PROCEDURES TO IMPLEMENT THE PRINCIPLES, REQUIREMENTS AND GUIDELINES FOR FEDERAL INVESTMENTS IN WATER RESOURCES</HD>
                        <CONTENTS>
                            <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                            <SECTNO>234.1 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>General.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>234.2 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>234.3 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Exceptions.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>234.4 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Objectives and applicability.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>234.5 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Level of analysis.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>234.6 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>The planning process.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>234.7 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Evaluation framework.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>234.8 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Final array of alternatives.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>234.9 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Evaluate effects of alternatives.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>234.10 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Compare alternatives.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>234.11 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Select the recommended plan.</SUBJECT>
                        </CONTENTS>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                            <P> 33 U.S.C. 701n.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 234.1</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> General.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) This part prescribes the Agency Specific Procedures (ASPs) for the United States Army Corps of Engineers (Corps) to execute its Civil Works mission, in accordance with the Water Resources Principles and Guidelines defined in Section 2031 of the Water Resources and Development Act (WRDA) of 2007 (Pub. L. 110-114; 42 U.S.C. 1962-3), the Principles, Requirements and Guidelines (PR&amp;G) issued by the Water Resources Council,
                                <SU>53</SU>
                                <FTREF/>
                                 and as called for in Section 110 of WRDA 2020 (Division AA of Pub. L. 116-260).
                            </P>
                            <FTNT>
                                <P>
                                    <SU>53</SU>
                                     
                                    <E T="03">https://obamawhitehouse.archives.gov/administration/eop/ceq/initiatives/PandG,</E>
                                     last accessed January 31, 2024.
                                </P>
                            </FTNT>
                            <P>
                                (b) Section 2031 of the WRDA of 2007 (Pub. L. 110-114) directed the Secretary of the Army to revise the March 10, 1983, Economic and Environmental Principles and Guidelines for Water and Related Land Resources Implementation Studies 
                                <SU>54</SU>
                                <FTREF/>
                                 (P&amp;G) for Corps use and to address the following considerations: advancements in economic and analytic techniques; public safety; low-income communities; nonstructural approaches; interaction with other water resources projects and programs; integrated and adaptive management; and, use of public benefits to justify projects. The WRDA provision also provided that the Federal Objective is to reflect national priorities, encourage economic development, and protect the environment by seeking to maximize sustainable economic development, avoid the unwise use of floodplains, and protect and restore natural ecosystems.
                            </P>
                            <FTNT>
                                <P>
                                    <SU>54</SU>
                                     
                                    <E T="03">https://planning.erdc.dren.mil/toolbox/library/Guidance/Principles_Guidelines.pdf,</E>
                                     last accessed January 31, 2024.
                                </P>
                            </FTNT>
                            <P>
                                (c) The PR&amp;G was issued as an interagency effort to modernize the P&amp;G. The PR&amp;G is comprised of the Principles and Requirements (P&amp;R) 
                                <SU>55</SU>
                                <FTREF/>
                                 issued in March 2013 and the Interagency Guidelines (IG) 
                                <SU>56</SU>
                                <FTREF/>
                                 issued in December 2014. The PR&amp;G emphasizes that water resources projects should strive to meet the Federal Objective and maximize public benefits relative to public costs. The PR&amp;G is designed to support water infrastructure projects with the greatest public benefits (economic, environmental, and social benefits) relative to costs.
                            </P>
                            <FTNT>
                                <P>
                                    <SU>55</SU>
                                     
                                    <E T="03">https://obamawhitehouse.archives.gov/sites/default/files/final_principles_and_requirements_march_2013.pdf,</E>
                                     last accessed January 31, 2024.
                                </P>
                            </FTNT>
                            <FTNT>
                                <P>
                                    <SU>56</SU>
                                     
                                    <E T="03">https://obamawhitehouse.archives.gov/sites/default/files/docs/prg_interagency_guidelines_12_2014.pdf,</E>
                                     last accessed January 31, 2024.
                                </P>
                            </FTNT>
                            <P>(d) Congress directed the Secretary of the Army to issue ASPs to implement the PR&amp;G in Section 110 of WRDA 2020 (Division AA of Pub. L. 116-260).</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 234.2</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Acceptability.</E>
                                 The viability and appropriateness of an alternative from the perspective of the Nation's general public and consistency with existing Federal laws, authorities, and public policies. It does not include local or regional preferences for solutions or political expediency.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Adaptive management.</E>
                                 A deliberate, iterative, and scientific based process of designing, implementing, monitoring, and adjusting an action, measure, or project to address changing circumstances and outcomes, reduce uncertainty, and maximize one or more goals over time.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (c) 
                                <E T="03">Completeness.</E>
                                 The extent to which an alternative provides and accounts for all features, investments, and/or other actions necessary to realize the planned effects, including any necessary actions by others. It does not necessarily mean that alternative actions need to be large in scope or scale.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (d) 
                                <E T="03">Effectiveness.</E>
                                 The extent to which an alternative alleviates the specified problems and achieves the specified opportunities.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (e) 
                                <E T="03">Efficiency.</E>
                                 The extent to which an alternative alleviates the specified problems and realizes the specified opportunities at the least cost.
                                <PRTPAGE P="12098"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (f) 
                                <E T="03">Federal investment.</E>
                                 Investments made by the Corps related to water resources development projects, including flood and storm risk management, ecosystem restoration, land management activities, navigation, recreation, and hydropower.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (g) 
                                <E T="03">Federal objective.</E>
                                 The fundamental goal of Federal investments in water resources. Federal water resources investments shall reflect national priorities, encourage economic development, and protect the environment. Federal investments should strive to maximize net public benefits.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (h) 
                                <E T="03">Indigenous Knowledge.</E>
                                 A body of observations, oral and written knowledge, innovations, practices, and beliefs developed by Tribes and Indigenous Peoples through interaction and experience with the environment. It is applied to phenomena across biological, physical, social, cultural, and spiritual systems. Indigenous Knowledge can be developed over millennia, continues to develop, and includes understanding based on evidence acquired through direct contact with the environment and long-term experiences, as well as extensive observations, lessons, and skills passed from generation to generation.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (i) 
                                <E T="03">Nature-based alternatives.</E>
                                 An alternative comprised of actions to protect, sustainably manage, or restore natural or modified ecosystems to address societal challenges, while simultaneously providing benefits for people and the environment.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (j) 
                                <E T="03">Non-federal interest.</E>
                                 (1) a legally constituted public body (including an Indian tribe and a tribal organization (as those terms are defined in section 5304 of title 25); or (2) a nonprofit entity with the consent of the affected local government, that has full authority and capability to perform the terms of its agreement and to pay damages, if necessary, in the event of failure to perform.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (k) 
                                <E T="03">Nonstructural alternative.</E>
                                 An alternative comprised of a nonstructural approach or combination of nonstructural approaches that addresses the water resources problem.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (l) 
                                <E T="03">Nonstructural approach.</E>
                                 An approach that alters the use of existing infrastructure or human activities to generally avoid or minimize adverse changes to existing hydrologic, geomorphic, and ecological processes. This may include measures such as certain forms of nature-based solutions; modified floodplain practices; policy modifications; vessel speed limits; traffic management and tidal navigation restrictions; the reoperation of dams and reservoirs to restore or better mimic natural hydrology and flow patterns; invasive plant removal; signage to limit public access at an aquatic ecosystem restoration site; setbacks; elevations; relocation; and buyout/acquisition including the acquisition of flowage easements; dry flood proofing and wet flood proofing; providing flood insurance; establishing building codes for new construction; other local floodplain management practices; installing early warning systems; and developing emergency evacuation plans.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (m) 
                                <E T="03">Public benefits.</E>
                                 Encompasses economic, environmental, and social impacts, and includes those that can be quantified in monetary terms, as well as those that can be quantified or described qualitatively.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (n) 
                                <E T="03">Regulatory.</E>
                                 Generally, those activities subject to legal restrictions promulgated by the Federal government.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (o) 
                                <E T="03">Resilience.</E>
                                 The capacity of an ecosystem or community to respond to changes, including climate changes.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (p) 
                                <E T="03">Sustainable.</E>
                                 The creation and maintenance of conditions under which humans and nature can coexist in the present and into future.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (q) 
                                <E T="03">Tribal Nation (Federally recognized Indian tribe or Tribal organization).</E>
                                 An Indian or Alaska Native tribe, band, nation, pueblo, village, or community that the Secretary of the Interior acknowledges to exist as an Indian tribe pursuant to the Federally Recognized Indian Tribe List Act of 1994, 25 U.S.C. 5130.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (r) 
                                <E T="03">Unwise use of floodplains.</E>
                                 Any action or change that diminishes public health and safety, or an action that is incompatible with or adversely impacts one or more floodplain functions that leads to a floodplain that is no longer self-sustaining or degrades ecosystem services.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (s) 
                                <E T="03">Watershed.</E>
                                 A land area that drains to a common waterbody.
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 234.3</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Exceptions.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>Exceptions to any requirements or policy contained in this part may be requested by the Corps or the non-Federal interest or responsible Tribal, State, or local government. Exceptions must be requested in writing and will be reviewed for a decision by the Assistant Secretary of the Army for Civil Works.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 234.4</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Objectives and applicability.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Introduction.</E>
                                 The goal of Department of the Army's ASPs is to ensure that Army Civil Works consistently applies a common framework for analyzing a diverse range of water resources development projects, programs, activities, and related actions involving Federal investments. The ASPs will advance transparency and consistency of the Corps' Federal investments in water resources. The intention of the ASPs is to outline the steps to apply the PR&amp;G to Corps water resource investments, including a determination of the applicability of PR&amp;G in the context of the Corps' missions and authorities, to provide a common framework for evaluation of investment alternatives, and to ensure that the Corps adequately addresses the Guiding Principles identified in P&amp;R.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Objectives for Federal water resources investments.</E>
                                 Section 2031 of WRDA 2007 (Pub. L. 110-114; 42 U.S.C. 1962-3) specifies that Federal water resources investments shall reflect national priorities, encourage economic development, and protect the environment. The Corps shall accomplish this Federal objective of water resources planning policy by:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) seeking to maximize sustainable economic development;</P>
                            <P>(2) seeking to avoid the unwise use of floodplains and flood-prone areas and minimizing adverse impacts and vulnerabilities in any case in which a floodplain or flood-prone area must be used; and,</P>
                            <P>(3) protecting and restoring the functions of natural systems and mitigating any unavoidable damage to natural systems.</P>
                            <P>
                                (c) 
                                <E T="03">Net public benefits.</E>
                                 The Corps shall strive to maximize net public benefits to society. Public benefits encompass economic, environmental, and social goals, include monetized and un-monetized effects, and allow for the consideration of both quantified and unquantified effects. The Corps shall take a comprehensive view in evaluating net public benefits.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (d) 
                                <E T="03">Applicability.</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) The objectives in paragraph (b) of this section shall be embodied in all new Army Civil Works' water resources investments, which include both structural and nonstructural approaches to water resources problems. The PR&amp;G analysis under the Corps' ASPs described in this regulation is generally required for feasibility studies, General Re-evaluation reports, Major Rehabilitation reports, Continuing Authorities Programs, significant changes to operations through re-allocation studies or Section 216 of the Flood Control Act of 1970 (Pub. L. 91-611), and any other project or program not otherwise excluded under paragraph (2) of this paragraph.</P>
                            <P>
                                (2) Excluded activities. The PR&amp;G is not intended to apply to all Federal actions. The following types of Federal investments are identified as excluded from the requirements of this regulation:
                                <PRTPAGE P="12099"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(i) Regulatory actions, such as the issuance of permits associated with Section 404 of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1344).</P>
                            <P>(ii) Real estate actions.</P>
                            <P>(iii) Planning Assistance to States program.</P>
                            <P>(iv) Flood Plain Management Services program.</P>
                            <P>(v) Section 14 of Rivers and Harbors Act of 1899 (33 U.S.C. 408) program.</P>
                            <P>(vi) Public Law 84-99 program.</P>
                            <P>(vii) Water Infrastructure Finance and Innovation Act Program.</P>
                            <P>(viii) Environmental Infrastructure projects.</P>
                            <P>(ix) Land management plans.</P>
                            <P>(x) Operations and maintenance activities that are carried out in a manner consistent with the existing approved operations and maintenance manual or plan for an authorized project. This does not include significantly changed O&amp;M plans or those changed to meet new goals which may require a new analysis under this regulation and potentially authorization.</P>
                            <P>(xi) International and Interagency Support and Support for Others actions.</P>
                            <P>(xii) Research or monitoring activities.</P>
                            <P>(xiii) Emergency actions.</P>
                            <P>(xiv) Projects, programs, or plans that meet the threshold criteria for exclusion or that fall below the thresholds identified in Table 1. These excluded actions generally occur when investments are routine and have inconsequential effects on water resources.</P>
                            <P>(xv) Additional programs, plans, or projects which the Assistant Secretary of the Army for Civil Works has determined do not require analysis pursuant to section 3 of this regulation.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 234.5</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Level of analysis.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Standard and scaled levels of analysis.</E>
                                 Once a determination has been made that PR&amp;G does apply, the level of analysis shall be determined. The level of PR&amp;G analysis required will vary in scope and magnitude across programs and activities. There are two levels of analysis: “standard” and “scaled”. In general, the level of analysis should be commensurate with the significance of the Federal investment in terms of dollar value and the potential environmental impacts. While there is not a clear distinction between the different levels of analysis, the two types of analysis can generally be distinguished in several ways:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) A standard analysis seeks to evaluate all the relevant benefits and costs associated with the project or activity using original or secondary data. This type of analysis is typically used for new or significantly modified actions. The Corps would conduct a benefit-cost analysis of programs and activities that have some effect on the environment. For projects/activities that fall into the category of “standard analysis,” the analysis should make significantly greater efforts to quantify and monetize impacts. The extent to which effects can and should be monetized should be made on a resource-by-resource basis and considering the estimated present value cost of the project/activity and the significance of the effects.</P>
                            <P>(2) A scaled analysis is an analysis that is more limited in scope for projects, programs, or plans that have low risk/low cost, or have minimal consequences of failure, posing minimal threats to human life or safety, or do not result in significant impacts to the environment. A scaled analysis may rely on benefits function transfer methods and readily available secondary data sources. Benefits function transfer methods are used to estimate monetary values by transferring available information about relationships from studies already completed to another location, context, or issue. Best practices would be applied when using this approach to avoid common pitfalls.</P>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Determining the appropriate level of analysis.</E>
                                 In many cases, professional judgment and available resources will be important factors in determining the appropriate level of analysis. The Corps will ensure that cumulative effects of many small, routine actions would not in itself elevate those investments to a scaled or standard analysis. Many of those small, routine actions would be excluded from PR&amp;G analysis.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (c) 
                                <E T="03">Scope and magnitude of analysis required.</E>
                                 The threshold criteria for project, programmatic, and individual plan level analysis for Army Civil Works is shown in Table 1. These thresholds represent guidelines for the level of analysis that is likely to be most appropriate for an activity, given the level of investment in, appropriations for, or cost of that activity. In determining whether a given activity or project falls under or exceeds the financial thresholds, it is the level of present value of Federal investment that is the relevant criterion to use. However, for a particular activity, a different level of analysis may be more appropriate, and projects/programs may depart from these guidelines where such a departure is justified. In general, a scoping effort should be undertaken to evaluate the level of effort needed to analyze the full range of potential effects. Project-level analysis should generally be used for water resources investments when the Corps has discretion in site-specific investment decisions. A programmatic-level analysis generally has a broader scale and/or scope than a project-level analysis. Programmatic-level analysis generally relates to funding programs or where a proposal for a set of similar actions analyzed under one decision document may occur.
                                <FTREF/>
                            </P>
                            <FTNT>
                                <P>
                                    <SU>57</SU>
                                     The Corps may choose to analyze the effects of a federal investment at a higher level of detail than called for by Table 1. For example, if the Corps considers an investment to be high risk, it could undertake a scaled analysis for that investment which might otherwise be excluded from the PR&amp;G analysis.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <SU>58</SU>
                                     The financial threshold amounts will be indexed to inflation to stay relevant.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <SU>59</SU>
                                     Operations and Maintenance (O&amp;M) activities that are included in the original project authorizations do not require separate analysis if the activity is carried out in a manner that is consistent with that authorization. Significantly changed O&amp;M plans or those changed to meet new goals may require a new analysis and potentially authorization.
                                </P>
                            </FTNT>
                            <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s200,10,14,xs72">
                                <TTITLE>
                                    Table 1 
                                    <SU>57</SU>
                                    —Monetary Threshold Criteria 
                                    <SU>58</SU>
                                </TTITLE>
                                <BOXHD>
                                    <CHED H="1">Type of activity</CHED>
                                    <CHED H="1">
                                        Federal
                                        <LI>investment</LI>
                                        <LI>($M)</LI>
                                    </CHED>
                                    <CHED H="1">
                                        Annual
                                        <LI>appropriations </LI>
                                        <LI>or plan </LI>
                                        <LI>development</LI>
                                        <LI>costs</LI>
                                        <LI>($M)</LI>
                                    </CHED>
                                    <CHED H="1">Level of analysis</CHED>
                                </BOXHD>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">
                                        <E T="03">Projects:</E>
                                         All new or existing Federal investments, such as infrastructure, ecosystem restoration, new construction, modifications or replacements to existing facilities, and operations and maintenance 
                                        <SU>59</SU>
                                    </ENT>
                                    <ENT>
                                        &gt;20
                                        <LI>10-20</LI>
                                        <LI>&lt;10</LI>
                                    </ENT>
                                    <ENT>
                                        <LI/>
                                        <LI/>
                                    </ENT>
                                    <ENT>
                                        Standard analysis.
                                        <LI>Scaled analysis.</LI>
                                        <LI>Excluded.</LI>
                                    </ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">
                                        <E T="03">Programs</E>
                                    </ENT>
                                    <ENT/>
                                    <ENT>&gt;100</ENT>
                                    <ENT>Standard analysis.</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    <ENT/>
                                    <ENT>50-100</ENT>
                                    <ENT>Scaled analysis.</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <PRTPAGE P="12100"/>
                                    <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                                    <ENT/>
                                    <ENT>&lt;50</ENT>
                                    <ENT>Excluded.</ENT>
                                </ROW>
                                <ROW>
                                    <ENT I="01">
                                        <E T="03">Individual Plans:</E>
                                         Management plans, such as watershed, master, etc
                                    </ENT>
                                    <ENT>
                                        <LI/>
                                        <LI/>
                                    </ENT>
                                    <ENT>
                                        &gt;50
                                        <LI>10-50</LI>
                                        <LI>&lt;10</LI>
                                    </ENT>
                                    <ENT>
                                        Standard analysis.
                                        <LI>Scaled analysis.</LI>
                                        <LI>Excluded.</LI>
                                    </ENT>
                                </ROW>
                            </GPOTABLE>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 234.6 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> The planning process.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Introduction.</E>
                                 The following planning process will be used to implement the common framework summarized in the Interagency Guidelines for analyzing Federal investments in applicable water resources.
                                <SU>60</SU>
                                <FTREF/>
                                 The planning process will ensure that plan formulation, evaluation, and implementation of agency projects and programs reflect the Guiding Principles identified in the P&amp;R: healthy and resilient ecosystems, sustainable economic development, floodplains, public safety, environmental justice, and a watershed approach. The planning process consists of a series of steps that identifies or responds to problems and opportunities, as well as specific Tribal, state, and local concerns, and, in most cases, culminates in a recommended plan. The process involves an orderly and systematic approach to making determinations and decisions at each step so that the interested public and decision-makers in the planning organization can be fully aware of the following: the basic assumptions employed; the data and information analyzed; the areas of risk and uncertainty; the reasons and rationales used; and the significant implications of each alternative. The planning process is iterative to adapt to new information and understanding. The result of the planning process is investment advice. The advice may be a recommended plan or plans that seek to maximize net public benefits in addressing the identified water resources problem and a description of the analysis of the benefits and costs of that and other potential plans.
                            </P>
                            <FTNT>
                                <P>
                                    <SU>60</SU>
                                     
                                    <E T="03">https://obamawhitehouse.archives.gov/administration/eop/ceq/initiatives/PandG,</E>
                                     last accessed January 31, 2024.
                                </P>
                            </FTNT>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">National Environmental Policy Act.</E>
                                 Where Federal investments in water resources require analysis under NEPA and this regulation, Army Civil Works should integrate, to the extent possible, the analysis in this regulation into existing planning processes, and may integrate this regulation and NEPA analyses in a single analytical document that reflects both processes. Army Civil Works shall seek opportunities to integrate other required Federal and state environmental reviews with their combined analyses.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (c) 
                                <E T="03">Guiding principles.</E>
                                 The Guiding Principles provide the overarching concepts that the Corps seeks to promote through investments in water resources.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (1) 
                                <E T="03">Environmental justice.</E>
                                 Environmental justice refers to the just treatment and meaningful involvement of all people regardless of income, race, color, national origin, Tribal affiliation, or disability, in agency decision-making and other Federal activities that affect human health and the environment so that people:
                            </P>
                            <P>(i) are fully protected from disproportionate and adverse human health and environmental effects (including risks) and hazards, including those related to climate change, the cumulative impacts of environmental and other burdens, and the legacy of racism or other structural or systemic barriers; and</P>
                            <P>(ii) have equitable access to a healthy, sustainable, and resilient environment in which to live, play, work, learn, grow, worship, and engage in cultural and subsistence practices. Environmental justice shall be considered throughout the Civil Works program and in all phases of project planning and decision-making. Army Civil Works projects and programs shall advance equity by meeting the needs of communities, such as by reducing disparate environmental burdens, removing barriers to participation in decision-making, and increasing access to benefits provided by Civil Works programs, including for disadvantaged communities. The planning process shall put these communities at the front and center of studies, providing robust opportunities for effective participation in the planning and decision-making processes. Any disproportionate adverse public safety, human health, or environmental burdens of project alternatives on communities with environmental justice concerns shall be avoided, minimized, or mitigated to the greatest extent reasonable. The Corps shall ensure that communities with environmental justice concerns have meaningful opportunities to identify potential alternatives, effects and mitigation measures. The Corps shall also be transparent in fully displaying the potential effects of alternative actions on communities with environmental justice concerns.</P>
                            <P>
                                (2) 
                                <E T="03">Floodplains.</E>
                                 All future Federal investments in and affecting floodplains must meet some level of floodplain resilience. Alternatives affecting floodplains should aim to improve floodplain resilience if possible and also should avoid the unwise use of floodplains and/or flood-prone areas. If the areas cannot be avoided, then the alternative must minimize adverse impacts to these areas and mitigate unavoidable impacts using nature-based approaches where possible. The Corps shall identify and communicate potential adverse effects on floodplain functions for the various alternatives under consideration. Where the Corps proposes to construct a project feature in a floodplain because that is the best way to serve a public purpose such as flood risk reduction, that proposed Corps project is not automatically considered an unwise use of the floodplains. The Corps shall strive to sustain the floodplains natural and beneficial functions to the maximum extent practicable given the project's purpose and need.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (3) 
                                <E T="03">Healthy and resilient ecosystems.</E>
                                 Alternatives shall protect the existing functions of ecosystems and may restore the health of damaged ecosystems to a less degraded and more natural state where feasible, and in accordance with current study and cost sharing authorities. When adverse environmental impacts cannot be completely avoided, alternatives shall strive to minimize environmental impacts. When a particular alternative will cause unavoidable damage to the environment, mitigation to offset 
                                <PRTPAGE P="12101"/>
                                damages shall be incorporated into that alternative and evaluated as part of that alternative. In developing alternatives, consideration shall be given to ecosystem resilience, including acknowledging the value of ecosystem services to people. When evaluating alternatives, the health of the affected ecosystem shall be measured in its current condition as the baseline and projected under the alternatives being considered, including the No Action alternative.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (4) 
                                <E T="03">Public safety.</E>
                                 Alternative solutions shall strive to avoid, reduce, or mitigate significant risks to public safety, including both loss of life and injury, and shall include measures to manage and communicate the residual risks. The impact and reliability of alternatives on significant risks to public safety must be evaluated for both existing and future conditions, considered in decision-making, and documented.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (5) 
                                <E T="03">Sustainable economic development.</E>
                                 The Corps' investments in water resources shall encourage sustainable economic development. This is accomplished through the sustainable use and management of water resources ensuring overall water resources resilience. Sustainable economic development creates and maintains conditions under which humans and nature can coexist. Analysis under sustainable economic development shall present, where feasible, information about the environmental resources in the project area or the area where activities are occurring, and how the resources and their value might be expected to change over time. Physical capital information may also be included where relevant. Analysis shall also include information on socio-economic conditions under current and projected conditions. Economic, social, and environmental effects and benefits shall be incorporated into the analysis of alternatives.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (6) 
                                <E T="03">Watershed approach.</E>
                                 When developing alternatives, the water resources problem being addressed should be analyzed on a watershed-based level to facilitate inclusion of a complete range of solutions, after considering the breadth of impacts across the watershed. A key aspect of the watershed approach is the analysis of information regarding watershed conditions and needs, allowing for consideration of upstream and downstream conditions and needs, consideration of other projects and actions in place, underway or planned by other agencies within the watershed, and more thoroughly addressing the potential impacts of a proposed action. The scale of the watershed used to develop alternatives can vary. The appropriately sized watershed for the particular need being addressed shall be a case-specific determination based on the relevant facts and circumstances. The watershed scale used to develop alternatives should encompass a geographical area large enough to ensure plans address cause and effect relationships among affected resources and activities, both upstream and downstream and cumulative in nature that are important to gaining public benefits or avoiding harms from the project. The watershed approach ensures that the interconnectedness of systems is evaluated to fully understand the root causes and symptoms of the water resources problem and the full range of potential public benefits. Communication with other agencies or Tribal, territorial, state and local government partners working in the watershed starting in the scoping phase could help realize a watershed approach. In addition, other potential investments in the watershed shall also be accounted for under the watershed approach.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (d) 
                                <E T="03">Collaboration.</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (1) The planning process will seek to achieve full collaboration with a wide range of affected Tribes, governmental and non-governmental stakeholders, communities with environmental justice concerns, and the public in all stages of the planning process. Collaboration with Tribes, governmental and non-governmental stakeholders, communities with environmental justice concerns and the general public throughout the planning process allows consideration of multiple perspectives and information sources (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 Indigenous Knowledge) and shall be emphasized throughout the planning process. Collaboration with Tribes, communities, and local and state governments is a critical element to help identify specific problems, opportunities, and significant constraints within the study area, and help establish planning goals and objectives that are consistent with the objectives of this regulation and are locally appropriate. Starting at the earliest phase in the planning process, Tribes and other communities with environmental justice concerns shall have an opportunity to play a key role in identifying alternatives, enhancing the positive benefits to their communities from potential Federal investment and in describing any concerns they may have with a potential project. Such early, meaningful, and robust engagement will help identify and address problems and possible solutions and scope studies. Robust, early collaboration with Tribes does not negate the need for Tribal consultation, when appropriate.
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) To improve federal decision-making and to promote transparency, Army Civil Works shall seek to meaningfully collaborate with other Federal and non-Federal entities. Engagement methods and scope of engagement will depend on the stage of the planning process, the issues, and the groups that will be contributing ideas and information to the planning process and shall be intentionally designed using best practices and techniques for engagement. Engagement strategies shall consider Corps, Tribal, and community resource constraints. Indigenous Knowledge, information from Tribal Nations, local and state governments, non-governmental organizations and the public shall be incorporated into problem definition and forecasting of future conditions as well as the development and analysis of alternatives. Robust engagement and transparency throughout the planning process, including during the evaluation and comparison of alternatives, will help deliver sound investment advice for water resources solutions that maximize net public benefits.</P>
                            <P>
                                (e) 
                                <E T="03">Investigations and data collection.</E>
                                 Investigations, data collection, and analysis should be ongoing and integrated early in the planning process. Investigations should be relevant to the planning objectives and constraints. The interdisciplinary study team should identify the most important areas to focus on in the study, such as: engineering and design; surface water and groundwater hydrology; hydraulics; geology; operations; water quality; land resources; power generation and conservation; economics; financing; environmental, social, and cultural impacts and mitigation; opportunities for recreation; cost estimation for construction, operation, maintenance, replacement, energy consumption; and, climate change to include greenhouse gas emissions. Investigation, data collection and analysis should leverage and incorporate information from Tribal, state, local, and non-governmental sources, and the public. Additional investigations should be performed as necessary.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (f) 
                                <E T="03">Identify purpose, problems, needs, and opportunities.</E>
                                 To identify purpose, problems, needs, and opportunities, the Corps shall:
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (1) Ensure that the planning goals and objectives reflect the direction provided in the study authority.
                                <PRTPAGE P="12102"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) Clearly identify the purpose of the study, the role of the Federal government, as well as the views of the non-Federal interest (if any), cooperating agencies, Tribes, various stakeholders, and the public.</P>
                            <P>(3) Identify the problems and opportunities to which the agency is responding.</P>
                            <P>(4) Define the study area including activities within the watershed that are relevant to the proposed project, and areas where impacts should be avoided.</P>
                            <P>(5) Describe the plans for stakeholder involvement.</P>
                            <P>(6) Prepare a summary of the planning objectives and constraints to be used in the analysis of the federal investment. This summary should include a discussion of stakeholder, partner, and public input.</P>
                            <P>(6) Include a discussion of the social and cultural context of the region and resources.</P>
                            <P>
                                (g) 
                                <E T="03">Inventory existing resources and forecast future conditions.</E>
                                 A summary of the specific economic, environmental, and social setting within the study area shall cover the condition and functional relationships of affected resources; their development potential and possible conflicts in producing affected ecosystem services; and the local situation with respect to investment, climate, markets, affected communities, and basic economic productivity.
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) “Forecast Future Conditions” generally relates to the identification of impacts associated with the alternatives, including the No Action Alternative. Future conditions should be assessed and analyzed as part of the evaluation process and the best available data and forecast should be used to complete an analysis of these uncertain conditions.</P>
                            <P>(2) This exercise of identifying existing resources and forecasting future conditions will quantify, to the extent practicable, relevant water and related resource conditions as they currently exist within the study area and forecast future conditions over the period of analysis. This would also include resources and conditions regarding the economic, environmental, and social aspects within the study area, as well as ecosystem services and climate-related scenarios. The existing resources and future conditions will be established using generally accepted sources that are national, state, or regional in scope, such as from peer-reviewed sources or sources which are government-produced.</P>
                            <P>(3) The “without-project condition” is the most likely condition expected to exist in the future over the period of analysis in the absence of the Corps project, or program under consideration, given current laws, policies, projects under construction, and any existing resources/conditions. It considers expected actions that may be executed by others, including potential future land use conditions, and shall consider effects of climate change using multiple scenario analyses.</P>
                            <P>(4) The “with-project condition” is the most likely condition expected to exist in the future, over the period of analysis, with a specific Corps project or program in place. It considers expected actions that may be executed by others, including potential future land use conditions, and shall consider effects of climate change using multiple scenario analyses.</P>
                            <P>(5) To ensure that the appropriate criteria and problems are incorporated into the analytical framework, a summary of the process used to define the relevant existing conditions and foreseeable future conditions shall be prepared and made available to the public and shared with stakeholders.</P>
                            <P>
                                (h) 
                                <E T="03">Formulate alternatives.</E>
                                 The primary goal of an alternative is to meet the objective of the project to solve the water resources challenge as authorized, consistent with the Federal objective and Guiding Principles. The primary function of an alternative must be to alleviate unsatisfactory conditions or address a problem or opportunity that exists or will exist in the future without the programs or projects under consideration. Alternatives shall address the defined water resources challenge or function that is the subject of the analysis, and achieve multiple objectives as outlined in the P&amp;R. Alternative formulations should focus on solutions that are feasible and meet the planning objectives. Alternatives should be formulated to meet planning objectives based on most likely future conditions expected with and without implementation of an alternative. The viability of an alternative should be determined through an evaluation of its acceptability, efficiency, effectiveness, and completeness, as required in the PR&amp;G. The period of analysis should be the same for each alternative and sufficient to encompass the lifespan and significant long-term impacts of the project. In addition, alternatives may also include actions which are beyond the missions of the Corps where they provide solutions to the identified problem and meet the goals of the PR&amp;G. However, such alternative shall identify the relevant parties with requisite responsibility for those actions beyond Corps missions (such as other Federal agencies and non-Federal partners), their authority for that action, the interrelation between that action and the recommended Corps project, and appropriate sequencing of implementation. For Corps investments, the Corps will be the designated lead for completing PR&amp;G analysis.
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Alternatives are to be developed in a systematic manner. A range of potential alternatives should be initially investigated reflecting a range of scales and measures, and as alternatives are refined, some would be screened out for reasons such as having excessive cost or unavoidable impacts, not sufficiently addressing the identified problem or opportunity, or other factors. The study report should include some analysis of the eliminated alternatives, and reasons for their elimination. The plans that are retained for additional analysis should determine the range of reasonable alternatives, as required for the NEPA analysis. Section 234.8 describes the alternatives required in the final array.</P>
                            <P>(2) Consideration of nonstructural approaches and nature-based solutions that meet the planning objectives shall be an integral part in the development and evaluation of Federal investments in water resources.</P>
                            <P>(3) Each alternative formulated for the PR&amp;G analysis should be included in the NEPA document.</P>
                            <P>(4) The economic, environmental, and social effects of a water resources development project are interrelated. In formulating alternatives to address the identified water resources problem or opportunity, the Corps shall consider each of these effects and maximize net public benefits.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 234.7 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Evaluation framework.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) This section describes the common framework and general requirements to be used by the Corps in evaluating potential alternatives for Federal investments for their performance with respect to the Guiding Principles and their contributions to the Federal Objective to inform the overall decision-making process. Any assumptions made which are used in the analysis of alternatives shall be described in the analysis where applicable.</P>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Economic, environmental, and social effects.</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (1) The Corps' analytical framework for evaluating Federal investments should focus on the key economic, environmental, and social effects that are relevant to the investment decision. Typical NEPA analyses emphasize environmental effects and benefits, including ecosystem services, and these should also be used as a core part of water resources alternatives analysis. A benefit-cost analysis would be conducted for each alternative. 
                                <PRTPAGE P="12103"/>
                                Ecosystem services are an important benefit-cost category that should be included in the benefit-cost analysis.
                            </P>
                            <P>In addition, the scale of an analysis can be adjusted to meet the needs of an individual project. While all analyses should share common elements, how these elements are achieved can depend on the needs of the project. For example, while it is important to estimate how values vary across alternatives, many different metrics and methods can be used; the best approach will depend on the needs and scale of the project.</P>
                            <P>When implementing its ASPs, the Corps will consider and, where it deems appropriate, align with the latest Federal methods and guidance (for example, updated OMB Circulars and applicable interagency guidance) to ensure that the analytical framework accounts for all significant economic, environmental and social costs and benefits, including ecosystem services. Where possible, monetization enables the incorporation of the values placed on the benefits and costs evaluated, and provides a way to evaluate trade-offs in common analytical units (dollars). OMB Circulars A-4 and A-94 provide guidance on appropriate use of monetization methods. The Corps anticipates that it will not be possible to monetize all social and environmental costs and benefits of project alternatives. In these cases, the Corps should quantify the social and environmental costs and benefits and when neither monetization or quantification is possible, the Corps should qualitatively describe the social and environmental costs and benefits in sufficient detail to allow differentiation across alternatives. The relevant monetary, quantitative, and descriptive information will be considered fully in the analysis.</P>
                            <P>
                                (c) 
                                <E T="03">Best available actionable science and commensurate level of detail.</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Analysis to support the evaluation of alternatives shall use the best available actionable science, to include Indigenous Knowledge, data, analytical techniques, procedures, models, and tools in ecology, hydrology, economics, engineering, biology, and other disciplines to the extent that sufficient funding is available and to the extent such information is relevant and appropriate to the subject investment. To the extent feasible, the effects of the alternatives should be monetized. Effects will be monetized, quantified or described, in that order.</P>
                            <P>
                                (2) The level of detail required to support alternative analyses may vary but should be sufficient to inform the decision-making process efficiently and effectively. The level of detail, scope, and complexity of analyses should be commensurate with the scale, impacts, costs, scientific complexities, uncertainties, risk, and other aspects (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 public concern) inherent in potential decisions.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (d) 
                                <E T="03">Risk and uncertainty.</E>
                                 When analyzing potential Federal water resource investments, the Corps shall identify, describe, and quantify (if feasible), areas of risk and uncertainty and consider them in decision making. Risks and uncertainties shall be identified and described in a manner that is clear and understandable to the public and decision-makers. This includes describing the nature, likelihood, and magnitude of risks, as well as the uncertainties associated with key supporting data, projections, and evaluations of competing alternatives. When there are considerable uncertainties concerning the ability of an alternative to function as desired (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 produce desired outputs and/or the general acceptability of the alternative) the option of pursuing improved data or models should be considered. Reducing risk and uncertainty may involve increased costs or loss of benefits. The advantages and costs of reducing risk and uncertainty should be explicitly considered in formulating alternatives and the overall decision-making process.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (e) 
                                <E T="03">Adaptive management.</E>
                                 Adaptive management measures shall be clearly identified and evaluated as part of alternatives to the extent that such measures are commensurate with the significance of the proposed activity and available resources. Adaptive management measures are particularly useful when making management choices in the face of uncertainty, such as when detailed information and tools are not readily available.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (f) 
                                <E T="03">Climate change.</E>
                                 Conditions resulting from a changing climate shall be identified and accounted for in all stages of the planning process; uncertainties associated with climate change will be identified and described. Analysis of climate change impacts shall reflect best available actionable science and will leverage region-specific information from federal, Tribal, state, local, and non-governmental partners. The Corps shall incorporate a climate-informed science approach considering impacts such as inland and coastal climate change impacts on flood and drought hazards using the most up-to-date science, policies, and tools available. The Corps shall also ensure climate resilience and adaptation is incorporated and considered throughout the planning process and across alternatives, including a discussion on how climate, drought, and ecosystem resilience may intersect for that particular action and can contribute to the economic vitality and water resources resilience of the Nation. The changing climate should inform the understanding of water resource needs and how those needs can potentially be addressed.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (g) 
                                <E T="03">Water availability, water use, and resilience.</E>
                                 Water availability and efficient use of water shall be considered in alternative designs, as shall resilience, when applicable to the project purpose. The analysis shall consider water availability, water use, and resilience over a range of conditions, from too little in drought and multiple use scenarios to too much in flood scenarios. The consideration of multiple uses and competing demands on water resources shall be taken into account when designing solutions to water resources problems.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (h) 
                                <E T="03">Nonstructural and nature-based solutions.</E>
                                 Nonstructural measures alter the use of existing infrastructure or human activities to generally improve or avoid or minimize adverse changes to existing hydrologic, geomorphic, and ecological processes. Nonstructural measures may be combined with fewer or smaller traditional structural project components to produce a complete alternative plan or may be used instead of a structural project. In the development of alternatives, the use of natural systems, ecosystem processes, and nature-based solutions shall be considered, where feasible and consistent with the purpose of the water resources study. Full consideration and reporting on nonstructural and nature-based alternative actions shall be an integral part of the evaluation of Federal water resource investment alternatives, and a full nonstructural in addition to a full nature-based alternative will be included in the final array of alternatives. Nonstructural and nature-based aspects should also be included in the other alternatives in the final array when appropriate.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (i) 
                                <E T="03">Tribal treaty rights.</E>
                                 Alternatives for water resources investments must be consistent with protection of Tribal treaty rights. Analyses should identify Tribal treaty rights that preclude selection of an otherwise viable alternative.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (j) 
                                <E T="03">State water law.</E>
                                 Alternatives for water resources investments must be consistent with State water laws, water rights, and decrees to the extent these do not conflict with federal laws and regulations. Analyses should identify legal constraints that preclude selection of an otherwise viable alternative.
                                <PRTPAGE P="12104"/>
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (k) 
                                <E T="03">International obligations.</E>
                                 Alternatives for water resources investments must be consistent with meeting treaty and other international obligations. Analyses should identify international obligations that preclude selection of an otherwise viable alternative.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (l) 
                                <E T="03">Timing.</E>
                                 The period of analysis for alternatives shall be documented clearly and with the appropriate justification in the analysis and used to evaluate each alternative.
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 234.8.</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Final Array of Alternatives.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>(a) The final array of alternatives shall include, at a minimum, the following six alternatives:</P>
                            <P>(1) A no action alternative.</P>
                            <P>(2) A nonstructural alternative: An alternative, if one exists, that can effectively address the problem through the feasible use of nonstructural approaches.</P>
                            <P>(3) A nature-based solution alternative: An alternative, if one exists, that can effectively address the problem through the feasible use of nature-based solutions (including natural systems and ecosystem processes).</P>
                            <P>(4) An environmentally preferred alternative.</P>
                            <P>(5) An alternative that seeks to maximize net public benefits.</P>
                            <P>(6) An alternative that is locally preferred. If this alternative differs from the net public benefits alternative, it will be required to have a comparable level of detail and analyzed using the same analytical framework as the net public benefits alternative.</P>
                            <P>(b) The nonstructural and nature-based alternatives do not preclude consideration of these elements in other alternatives. Nonstructural measures and nature-based solutions shall be considered as components of the other alternatives in the final array, essentially providing an integrated or “hybrid” of gray (hard) infrastructure with these other measures.</P>
                            <P>(c) The same alternative may be identified as more than one of these required alternatives.</P>
                            <P>(d) Mitigation of unavoidable adverse effects associated with each alternative must be included in the alternative and in the analyses.</P>
                            <P>(e) If an alternative requires changes in existing laws, regulations, or policies, those changes must be clearly identified and explained.</P>
                            <P>(f) The discussion of the final array of alternatives should include the primary purpose of the analysis; the geographic size of the study area; the types of impacts; number of people potentially affected and anticipated degree of impact; environmental justice considerations; and the size and location of communities potentially affected including the presence of Federally-recognized Tribes or Tribal members; and the type of data and information available from Indigenous Knowledge, collaboration, public involvement, and previous studies.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 234.9.</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Evaluate Effects of Alternatives.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Analysis of alternatives.</E>
                                 For the final array of alternatives, the analysis should describe, evaluate, and estimate the key social, environmental and economic effects, and assess the contributions of each alternative to the Guiding Principles.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Evaluation procedures.</E>
                                 In addition to assessing how alternatives perform with respect to the Guiding Principles, the evaluation procedures shall incorporate methods to evaluate:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) How public benefits of an alternative compare to its costs, including all important social, environmental and economic benefits and costs.</P>
                            <P>(2) How alternatives perform against the objectives of the study.</P>
                            <P>(3) How alternatives perform against the four formulation criteria: completeness, effectiveness, efficiency, and acceptability.</P>
                            <P>
                                (c) 
                                <E T="03">Consideration of benefits and costs.</E>
                                 The report should fully account for the effects to society of alternative plans and their respective contributions to the Federal Objective, relative to the No Action alternative. The analysis will evaluate the economic benefits and costs, environmental benefits and costs, and social benefits and costs of alternatives, regardless of how they are included (monetized, quantified or described). To the extent practicable, such costs and benefits must be quantified in a scientifically valid and acceptable way, and such quantified costs shall be monetized where practicable.
                                <SU>61</SU>
                                <FTREF/>
                                 When monetization or quantification is not possible, costs and benefits must be described in sufficient detail to enable the decision-maker to understand the importance and magnitude of potential changes. For monetized costs and benefits, the present value cost of each alternative must be compared to the present value of the benefit to the public for monetized costs and benefits. For quantified but not monetized benefits and costs, the Corps would present the information on an average annual basis, and would also describe how the benefits and costs would accrue over the period of analysis. For qualitatively described benefits and costs, expectations would be described across the period of analysis. The effects of alternative plans are displayed in terms of costs and benefits.
                            </P>
                            <FTNT>
                                <P>
                                    <SU>61</SU>
                                     The Corps shall, in part, use Office of Management and Budget Circulars A-4 and A-94.
                                </P>
                            </FTNT>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 234.10.</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Compare Alternatives.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Comparing alternatives.</E>
                                 Alternatives shall be compared to each other and to the No Action alternative and shall include a comparison of the ability of the alternatives to perform under changing conditions, including climate change. The alternative (or alternatives) that reasonably meets the Federal objective and maximizes net public benefits shall be identified. In addition, alternatives may be evaluated with respect to other considerations, including distributional effects, separately. These considerations may include:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Temporal. Certain effects may occur at different points in time.</P>
                            <P>(2) Spatial. Certain costs, benefits, and transfers may accrue to different regions. Regional-scale analyses may be useful to inform regional level economic development objectives.</P>
                            <P>(3) Beneficiaries. Tribal Nations and stakeholders (including other governmental agencies and communities with environmental justice concerns) may indicate different tradeoffs among the various benefits and costs of a federal action. Robust engagement at this stage shall focus on eliciting preferences among the alternatives, their component elements, and their effects. When calculating net benefits, these distributional effects can be examined using techniques like income weighting.</P>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Tradeoffs.</E>
                                 Tradeoffs among potential alternatives will be assessed and described throughout the decision-making process and in a manner that informs decision-making. Based on the available analytical information, the Corps would use its professional judgment in making its recommendations on decisions among tradeoffs. The tradeoff displays shall be understandable, transparent, and constructed in a generally consistent fashion for all analyses. The analysis shall include a combination of both tables and explanatory materials to help inform a decision. Displays shall facilitate the evaluation and comparison of alternatives necessary to make the following determination and reflect the following:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) The effectiveness of alternatives in solving the water resources problem and taking advantage of the opportunities identified in the planning process.</P>
                            <P>
                                (2) What must be given up in monetary and nonmonetary terms to 
                                <PRTPAGE P="12105"/>
                                enjoy the benefits of the various alternatives, relative to the baseline.
                            </P>
                            <P>(3) The differences among alternatives.</P>
                            <P>
                                (c) 
                                <E T="03">Information for inclusion in the analysis.</E>
                                 To promote consistency across the Corps, the following tables and information shall be included in the analysis and in the documentation prepared for a decision process:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Criteria. The analysis must explicitly address the extent to which an alternative achieves each of the following criteria: completeness, effectiveness, efficiency, and acceptability. This evaluation must be systematic and can include both quantitative and qualitative components.</P>
                            <P>(2) Effects matrix. A matrix summarizing the tradeoffs, relative to the baseline, effect-by-effect must be included in the integrated report.</P>
                            <P>
                                (3) Additional trade-off displays. Additional text and tables should display other important trade-offs, 
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 trade-offs along temporal, spatial, and beneficiary dimensions.
                            </P>
                            <P>(4) Summary table. A summary table displaying the economic, environmental, and social costs and benefits as measured (monetized, quantified, quantitative) for each alternative. In addition, the summary table will display the economic, environmental, and social costs and benefits which were derived qualitatively. The summary table will also separately include information on level of risk or uncertainty for each alternative.</P>
                            <P>(5) Achievement of objectives table. A table indicating the extent to which the Guiding Principles have been achieved.</P>
                            <P>
                                (d) 
                                <E T="03">Risk and uncertainty.</E>
                                 Knowledge of risk and uncertainty and the degree of reliability of the estimated consequences will better inform decision making. Risk and uncertainty are inherent in economic analyses as well as the analysis of physical and biological factors, no matter the technique or methodology employed. Areas of risk and uncertainty will be described clearly, so that decisions can be made with knowledge of the degree of reliability of the estimated consequences and of the effectiveness of alternatives.
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 234.11.</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT> Select the Recommended Plan.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Recommended plan.</E>
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Plan selection will require decision-makers to assess tradeoffs and to consider the extent of both monetized and non-monetized effects. The basis for selection of the recommended plan should be fully reported and documented in a transparent manner, including the criteria and considerations used. This section must provide a discussion about the extent to which the alternatives achieve the Federal objective and maximize net public benefits to society. If the basis for selecting the recommended plan depends on non-monetized benefits or costs, the report must include an explanation of the relative importance of these benefits/costs and why they are not monetized. This section will include a summary of elicited Tribal Nation and stakeholder perspectives on the alternatives and their effects.</P>
                            <P>(2) The Corps should recommend a decision to either: (1) implement an alternative project, program, or plan, or (2) take no Federal action. Federal investments should seek to meet water resource objectives and maximize net public benefits, relative to public costs. It is possible that more than one alternative might “reasonably and approximately” meet these conditions. “Net public benefits” implies that the anticipated benefits will be presented relative to the costs associated with the accrual of those benefits. Net public benefits can include both quantified and non-quantified benefits. Any recommendation for authorization will clearly delineate the federal water resource project(s) being recommended for authorization and Corps implementation and any condition precedent for construction, with specificity.</P>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Exceptions.</E>
                                 A recommended plan for a federal water resources investment that does not maximize net public benefits requires an exception from the Assistant Secretary of the Army for Civil Works. Requests for exception should describe the project or activity, the rationale for the exception, and present relevant data and analysis to support the request.
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </PART>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-02448 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3720-58-P</BILCOD>
            </PRORULE>
        </PRORULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>89</VOL>
    <NO>32</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, February 15, 2024</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="12107"/>
            <PARTNO>Part V</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P"> Department of the Treasury</AGENCY>
            <SUBAGY>Financial Crimes Enforcement Network</SUBAGY>
            <HRULE/>
            <CFR>31 CFR Parts 1010 and 1032</CFR>
            <TITLE>Financial Crimes Enforcement Network: Anti-Money Laundering/Countering the Financing of Terrorism Program and Suspicious Activity Report Filing Requirements for Registered Investment Advisers and Exempt Reporting Advisers; Proposed Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <PRORULES>
            <PRORULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="12108"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                    <SUBAGY>Financial Crimes Enforcement Network</SUBAGY>
                    <CFR>31 CFR Parts 1010 and 1032</CFR>
                    <RIN>RIN 1506-AB58</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Financial Crimes Enforcement Network: Anti-Money Laundering/Countering the Financing of Terrorism Program and Suspicious Activity Report Filing Requirements for Registered Investment Advisers and Exempt Reporting Advisers</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN), Treasury.</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>FinCEN, a bureau of the U.S. Department of the Treasury (Treasury), is issuing this notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to include certain investment advisers in the definition of “financial institution” under the Bank Secrecy Act (BSA), prescribe minimum standards for anti-money laundering/countering the financing of terrorism (AML/CFT) programs to be established by covered investment advisers, require covered investment advisers to report suspicious activity to FinCEN pursuant to the BSA, and make several other related changes to FinCEN regulations. FinCEN is proposing this action to address gaps in the existing AML/CFT regulatory framework in this sector. The proposed regulations will apply to investment advisers that may be at risk for misuse by money launderers, terrorist financers, or other actors who seek access to the U.S. financial system for illicit purposes via investment advisers and threaten U.S. national security.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>Written comments on this notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) must be submitted on or before April 15, 2024.</P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <ADD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                        <P>Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                        <P>
                            • 
                            <E T="03">Federal E-Rulemaking Portal: http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                             Follow the instructions for submitting comments. Refer to Docket Number FINCEN-2024-0006 and RIN 1506-AB58.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            • 
                            <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                             Policy Division, Financial Crimes Enforcement Network, P.O. Box 39, Vienna, VA 22183. Refer to Docket Number FINCEN-2024-0006 and RIN 1506-AB58.
                        </P>
                        <P>Please submit comments by one method only.</P>
                    </ADD>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>
                            The FinCEN Resource Center at (800) 767-2825 or email 
                            <E T="03">frc@fincen.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Executive Summary</HD>
                    <P>
                        To address illicit finance risks in the investment adviser industry, FinCEN is proposing to apply certain AML/CFT requirements to certain investment advisers. Currently, there are no Federal or State regulations requiring investment advisers to maintain AML/CFT programs 
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         or records under the BSA, although some investment advisers may do so, for example, if they are also licensed as banks (or are bank subsidiaries), registered as broker-dealers, or advise mutual funds.
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This means that thousands of investment advisers overseeing the investment of tens of trillions of dollars into the U.S. economy currently operate without legally binding AML/CFT obligations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             Section 6101 of the AML Act, codified at 31 U.S.C. 5318(h), amended the BSA's requirement that financial institutions implement AML programs to also combat terrorist financing. This NPRM refers to “AML program” when discussing the obligation prior to the enactment of the AML Act, and to “AML/CFT program” in reference to the current obligation contained in the BSA and the proposed rule.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See infra</E>
                             section IV.E3 and n. 51.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        These proposed regulations aim to close this gap by amending chapter X of title 31 of the Code of Federal Regulations to add “investment adviser” to the definition of “financial institution” at 31 CFR 1010.100(t). FinCEN has statutory authority to define additional types of businesses as financial institutions where it determines that such businesses engage in any activity “similar to, related to, or a substitute for” those in which any of the businesses listed in the statutory definition are authorized to engage.
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN proposes to make such a determination with respect to investment advisers, which would be defined to include two types of advisers: those that are (1) registered or required to register with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC, and, such investment advisers, RIAs) and (2) investment advisers that report to the SEC as Exempt Reporting Advisers (ERAs) pursuant to the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, as amended (Advisers Act),
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and the rules thereunder.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             31 U.S.C. 5312(a)(2)(Y).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 80b-1 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Accordingly, this proposed rule would establish AML/CFT requirements for RIAs and ERAs. In full, the proposed rule would require RIAs and ERAs to implement an AML/CFT program, file Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs) with FinCEN, keep records relating to the transmittal of funds (Recordkeeping and Travel Rule), and other obligations of financial institutions under the BSA. The proposed rule would also apply information-sharing provisions between and among FinCEN, law enforcement government agencies, and certain financial institutions, and would subject investment advisers to the “special measures” imposed by FinCEN pursuant to section 311 of the USA PATRIOT Act.</P>
                    <P>
                        Concurrent with this proposal, FinCEN is withdrawing the 2015 proposed rule that would have applied AML program, SAR filing, and other AML/CFT requirements to RIAs.
                        <SU>5</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Anti-Money Laundering Program and Suspicious Activity Report Filing Requirements for Registered Investment Advisers,</E>
                             80 FR 52680 (Sept. 1, 2015).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In this rulemaking, FinCEN is not proposing to include a customer identification program (CIP) requirement, nor is it proposing to include within the AML/CFT program requirements an obligation to collect beneficial ownership information for legal entity customers at this time. FinCEN anticipates addressing CIP via a future joint rulemaking with the SEC and addressing the requirement to collect beneficial ownership information for legal entity customers in subsequent rulemakings.</P>
                    <P>
                        Moreover, because mutual funds are already defined as “financial institutions” under the BSA (31 CFR 1010.100(t)(10)), and because of the regulatory and practical relationship between mutual funds and their investment advisers, the proposed regulations would also not require investment advisers to apply AML/CFT program or SAR reporting requirements to mutual funds.
                        <SU>6</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The proposed regulations would also remove the existing requirement that investment advisers file reports for the receipt of more than $10,000 in cash and negotiable instruments using the joint FinCEN/Internal Revenue Service Form 8300 (Form 8300).
                        <SU>7</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Investment advisers would instead be required to file a Currency Transaction Report (CTR) for a transaction involving a transfer of more than $10,000 in currency by, through, or to the investment adviser, unless subject to an applicable exemption.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             As described below, FinCEN does not propose to permit investment advisers to exempt mutual funds that they advise from the requirements of 31 CFR part 1010, subparts E and F (31 CFR 1010.520, 540, 600-670) that FinCEN proposes to apply to covered investment advisers in the proposed rule (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             certain information sharing, special standards, prohibitions, and other requirements).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             31 CFR 1010.330(a)(1)(i), (e)(1); 26 CFR 1.6050I-1(e).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Finally, FinCEN is proposing to delegate its examination authority to the SEC given the SEC's expertise in the regulation of investment advisers and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12109"/>
                        the existing delegation to the SEC of authority to examine brokers and dealers in securities (broker-dealers) and certain investment companies.
                        <SU>8</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>8</SU>
                             31 CFR 1010.810(b)(6).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>This NPRM is divided into six main sections including this executive summary in section I. Section II provides background on the existing AML/CFT regulatory framework; the illicit finance risks that this rulemaking will address; the SEC's regulatory framework for investment advisers; the limited extent to which certain RIAs and ERAs may already implement AML/CFT measures; and a summary of past proposed rules to apply AML/CFT obligations with respect to investment advisers. Section III discusses the scope of the proposed rule. Section IV includes the section-by-section analysis of the elements of the proposed rule. Section V lays out questions on which FinCEN seeks comment, and section VI addresses the severability of the proposed rule's requirements. Section VII includes the Regulatory Analysis required by relevant statutes and executive orders.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Current BSA Framework</HD>
                    <P>
                        Enacted in 1970, the Currency and Foreign Transactions Reporting Act, generally referred to as the BSA, is designed to combat money laundering, the financing of terrorism, and other illicit financial activity, and to safeguard the national security of the United States.
                        <SU>9</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This includes “through the establishment by financial institutions of reasonably designed risk-based programs to combat money laundering and the financing of terrorism.”
                        <SU>10</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Treasury Secretary is authorized to administer the BSA and to require financial institutions to keep records and file reports that “are highly useful in . . . criminal, tax, or regulatory investigations, risk assessments, or proceedings” or “intelligence or counterintelligence activities, including analysis, to protect against international terrorism.” 
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Secretary delegated the authority to implement, administer, and enforce the BSA and its implementing regulations to the Director of FinCEN.
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 U.S.C. 5311. Certain parts of the Currency and Foreign Transactions Reporting Act, its amendments, and the other statutes relating to the subject matter of that Act, have come to be referred to as the BSA. The BSA is codified at 12 U.S.C. 1829b, 12 U.S.C. 1951-1960, and 31 U.S.C. 5311-5314 and 5316-5336, and includes notes thereto.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>10</SU>
                             31 U.S.C. 5311(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             31 U.S.C. 5311(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             Treasury Order 180-01, paragraph 3(a) (Jan. 14, 2020), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://home.treasury.gov/about/general-information/orders-and-directives/treasury-order-180-01.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Pursuant to this authority, FinCEN may define a business or agency as a “financial institution” if it engages in any activity determined by regulation “to be an activity which is similar to, related to, or a substitute for any activity” in which a “financial institution” as defined by the BSA is authorized to engage.
                        <SU>13</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, the BSA requires financial institutions to maintain programs to combat money laundering and the financing of terrorism and authorizes the Secretary—and thereby FinCEN—to issue regulations prescribing “minimum standards” for such AML/CFT programs.
                        <SU>14</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Similarly, under the BSA, FinCEN may require financial institutions to “report any suspicious transactions relevant to a possible violation of law or regulation.” This provision authorizes FinCEN to require the filing of SARs.
                        <SU>15</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN also has authority under the BSA to authorize the sharing of financial information by financial institutions 
                        <SU>16</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         in specified circumstances, and to require financial institutions to keep records and maintain procedures to ensure compliance with the BSA and its implementing regulations or to guard against money laundering.
                        <SU>17</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>13</SU>
                             31 U.S.C. 5312(a)(2)(Y).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>14</SU>
                             31 U.S.C. 5318(h)(1), (2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>15</SU>
                             31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>16</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Uniting and Strengthening America by Providing Appropriate Tools Required to Intercept and Obstruct Terrorism Act of 2001 (USA PATRIOT Act), Public Law 107-56, sec. 314(a), (b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>17</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             12 U.S.C. 1953; 31 U.S.C. 5318(a)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Investment Adviser Industry and Regulation</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Investment Adviser Industry</HD>
                    <P>
                        The investment adviser industry in the United States consists of a wide range of business models geared towards providing advisory services to many different types of customers.
                        <SU>18</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Some of the advisory services that investment advisers may provide include portfolio management, financial planning, and pension consulting. Advisory services can be provided on a “discretionary” or “non-discretionary” basis.
                        <SU>19</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Investment advisers provide their expertise to a wide range of customers, including retail investors, high-net-worth individuals, private institutions, and governmental entities (including local, State, and foreign government funds).
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Investment advisers often work closely with their customers to formulate and implement their customers' investment decisions and strategies. Investment advisers may be organized in a variety of legal forms, including corporations, sole proprietorships, partnerships, or limited liability companies.
                        <SU>21</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>18</SU>
                             This proposed rule uses the term “customers” for those natural and legal persons who enter into an advisory relationship with an investment adviser. This is consistent with the terminology in the BSA and FinCEN's implementing regulations. FinCEN acknowledges that the Advisers Act and its implementing regulations primarily use the term “clients,” and so that term is used in specific reference to Advisers Act requirements; otherwise, the term “customers” is used.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>19</SU>
                             An adviser has discretionary authority or manages assets on a discretionary basis if it has the authority to decide which securities to purchase and sell for the client. An adviser also has discretionary authority if it has the authority to decide which investment advisers to retain on behalf of the client. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Glossary to Form ADV, general Instructions at p. 28, available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/about/forms/formadv-instructions.pdf.</E>
                             According to the Investment Advisers Association (IAA), as of 2021, over 90 percent of RIAs manage client assets on a discretionary basis. Investment Adviser Association, Investment Adviser Industry Snapshot 2022, p. 53 (IAA Snapshot), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://investmentadviser.org/wp-content/uploads/2022/06/Snapshot2022.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Part 1A, Item 5 of Form ADV for a list of examples of different types of advisory clients.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>21</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Part 1A, Item 3.A of Form ADV.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Advisers Act and its implementing rules and regulations form the primary framework governing advisory activity, along with other Federal securities laws and their implementing rules and regulations, such as the Investment Company Act of 1940, the Securities Act of 1933, and the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
                        <SU>22</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Since the Advisers Act was amended in 1996 and 2010, generally only investment advisers who have at least $100 million in assets under management (AUM) or advise a registered investment company 
                        <SU>23</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         may register with the SEC.
                        <SU>24</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Other investment advisers typically register with the State in which the adviser maintains its principal place of business.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>22</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See generally</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 80a-1 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                             (Investment Company Act of 1940 (Investment Company Act)); 15 U.S.C. 77a 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                             (Securities Act of 1933); 15 U.S.C. 78a 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                             (Securities and Exchange Act of 1934).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>23</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 80a-3 (defining investment company). If an investment company meets the definition of an investment company under 15 U.S.C. 80a-3 and cannot rely on an exception or an exemption from registration, generally it must register with the SEC under the Investment Company Act and must register its public offerings under the Securities Act.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>24</SU>
                             Investment advisers with more than $100 million assets under management 
                            <E T="03">may</E>
                             register with the SEC, and investment advisers with more than $110 million in assets under management 
                            <E T="03">must</E>
                             register with the SEC, unless eligible for an exception. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 275.203A-1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">SEC-Registered Investment Advisers.</E>
                         Unless eligible to rely on an exception, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12110"/>
                        investment advisers that manage more than $110 million AUM must register with the SEC, as well as submit a Form ADV and update it at least annually.
                        <SU>25</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The SEC administers and enforces the Federal securities laws applicable to RIAs. As of July 31, 2023, there were 15,391 RIAs, reporting approximately $125 trillion in AUM for their clients.
                        <SU>26</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>25</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See id.;</E>
                             17 CFR 275.204-1. Investment advisers register with the SEC by filing Form ADV and are required to file periodic updates. Form ADV is available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/files/formadv.pdf.</E>
                             A detailed description of Form ADV's requirements is available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/oiea/investor-alerts-bulletins/ib_formadv.html.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>26</SU>
                             The number of RIAs and corresponding AUM, and the number of ERAs, are based on a Treasury review of Form ADV information filed as of July 31, 2023. This Form ADV data is available at Frequently Requested FOIA Document: 
                            <E T="03">Information About Registered Investment Advisers and Exempt Reporting Advisers, http://www.sec.gov/foia/docs/invafoia.htm.</E>
                             The $125 trillion in AUM includes approximately $22 trillion in assets managed by mutual funds, which are advised by RIAs and are subject to AML/CFT obligations under the BSA and its implementing regulations.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Exempt Reporting Advisers.</E>
                         An ERA is an investment adviser that would be required to register with the SEC but is statutorily exempt from such requirement 
                        <SU>27</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         because: (1) it is an adviser solely to one or more venture capital funds; or (2) it is an adviser solely to one or more private funds and has less than $150 million AUM 
                        <SU>28</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         in the United States.
                        <SU>29</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Private funds are privately offered investment vehicles that pool capital from one or more investors to invest in securities and other investments.
                        <SU>30</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Private funds do not register with the SEC, and advisers to these funds often categorize the fund by the investment strategy they pursue. These include hedge funds, private equity funds, and venture capital funds, among others. Even though they are not required to register, ERAs must still file an abbreviated Form ADV with the SEC, and the SEC maintains authority to examine ERAs. As of July 31, 2023, there were 5,846 ERAs that were exempt from registering with the SEC but had filed an abbreviated Form ADV.
                        <SU>31</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>27</SU>
                             An adviser that is eligible to file reports as an ERA may nonetheless elect to register with the SEC as an RIA so long as it meets the criteria for registration. An investment adviser that relies on one of these exemptions must still evaluate the need for State registration.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>28</SU>
                             Form ADV uses the term “regulatory assets under management” (RAUM) instead of “assets under management.” Form ADV describes how advisers must calculate RAUM and states that in determining the amount of RAUM, an adviser should “include the securities portfolios for which [it] provide[s] continuous and regular supervisory or management services as of the date of filing” the form. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Form ADV, Instructions for Part 1A, Instruction 5.b.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>29</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             sections 203(
                            <E T="03">l</E>
                            ) and 203(m) of the Advisers Act and 17 CFR 275.203(m)-1, respectively. ERAs are exempt from registration with the SEC, but are required to file reports on Form ADV with the SEC and are subject to certain rules under the Advisers Act.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>30</SU>
                             Section 202(a)(29) of the Advisers Act defines the term “private fund” as an issuer that would be an investment company, as defined in section 3 of the Investment Company Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-3), but for section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of that Act. Section 3(c)(1) excludes from the definition of investment company a privately-offered issuer having fewer than a certain number of beneficial owners. Section 3(c)(7) excludes from the definition of investment company a privately-offered issuer the securities of which are owned exclusively by “qualified purchasers” (generally, persons and entities owning a specific amount of investments).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>31</SU>
                             The number of ERAs is derived from a Treasury review of Form ADV information filed as of July 31, 2023. 
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             n. 26.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Private Fund Advisers.</E>
                         Private fund advisers, a type of ERA, are exempt from registering with the SEC if they exclusively advise private funds and have less than $150 million AUM in the United States. As of July 31, 2023, there were approximately 4,400 exempt private fund advisers, approximately 500 of which were also venture capital advisers.
                        <SU>32</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>32</SU>
                             Based on a Treasury review of Form ADV information filed as of July 31, 2023. 
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             n. 26.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Venture Capital Advisers.</E>
                         Venture capital advisers, another type of ERA, are exempt from registering with the SEC if they provide services only to venture capital funds,
                        <SU>33</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         regardless of the amount of AUM.
                        <SU>34</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As of July 31, 2023, there were approximately 2,000 exempt venture capital advisers, approximately 500 of which were also private fund advisers.
                        <SU>35</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>33</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 275.203(
                            <E T="03">l</E>
                            )-1 (defining “venture capital fund”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>34</SU>
                             Certain venture capital advisers may be registered with the SEC if they no longer satisfy the criteria to be ERAs (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             they no longer pursue a venture capital strategy (by seeking to hold securities in companies past the initial public offering stage or pursuing hedge-fund like investment strategies)) or otherwise opt to register with the SEC.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>35</SU>
                             Based on a Treasury review of Form ADV information filed as of July 31, 2023. 
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             n. 26.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">State-Registered Investment Advisers.</E>
                         State-registered investment advisers generally have less than $100 million in AUM. State-registered investment advisers are generally prohibited from registering with the SEC and instead register with and are supervised by the relevant State authority, unless they meet certain exceptions or their State does not supervise these entities.
                        <SU>36</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         State-registered investment advisers also file a Form ADV, which they submit to the relevant State regulator. As of December 31, 2022, there were 17,063 State-registered investment advisers who have approximately $420 billion in AUM.
                        <SU>37</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>36</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 275.203A-2. Other exceptions to the prohibition on SEC registration include: (1) an adviser that would be required to register with 15 or more States (the multi-State exemption); (2) an adviser advising a registered investment company; (3) an adviser affiliated with an RIA; and (4) a pension consultant. Persons satisfying these criteria and the definition of “investment adviser” may register as such with the SEC. Investment advisers with a principal office and place of business in New York and over $25 million AUM are required to register with the SEC.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>37</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             North American Security Administrators Association, 
                            <E T="03">NASAA Investment Adviser Section 2023 Annual Report,</E>
                             p.3, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.nasaa.org/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/2023-IA-Section-Report-FINAL.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Non-U.S. Investment Advisers.</E>
                         Non-U.S. advisers whose principal offices and places of business are outside the United States, but solicit or advise “U.S. persons,” are subject to the Advisers Act and must register with the SEC unless eligible for an exception. One of those exceptions is the “foreign private adviser” exemption, and an adviser relying on this exemption is not required to make any filing with the SEC.
                        <SU>38</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For those non-U.S. advisers registered with the SEC, the Commission states that it does not intend to seek to apply the substantive provisions of the Advisers Act to a non-U.S. adviser that is registered with the SEC with respect to its non-U.S. clients.
                        <SU>39</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Non-U.S. advisers may also report to the SEC as ERAs if they meet the requirements to report as ERAs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>38</SU>
                             The “foreign private adviser” exemption is available to an adviser that (i) has no place of business in the United States; (ii) has, in total, fewer than 15 clients in the United States and investors in the United States in private funds advised by the adviser; (iii) has aggregate assets under management attributable to these clients and investors of less than $25 million; and (iv) does not hold itself out generally to the public in the United States as an investment adviser. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)(30), 80b-3(b)(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>39</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             SEC, 
                            <E T="03">Exemptions for Advisers to Venture Capital Funds, Private Fund Advisers With Less Than $150 Million in Assets Under Management, and Foreign Private Advisers,</E>
                             Final Rule, Investment Advisers Act Release No. 3222 (Jun. 22, 2011), 76 FR 39645, 39667 (Jul. 6, 2011).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Existing Regulatory Framework for Investment Advisers</HD>
                    <P>
                        Oversight of the investment adviser industry by Federal and State securities regulators generally is focused on protecting investors and the overall securities market from fraud and manipulation. Most investment advisers are subject to certain reporting requirements and the extent of those requirements depends on whether the investment adviser is an RIA, registered at the State level, exempt from registration as an ERA, or otherwise not required to register with a Federal or State securities regulator.
                        <SU>40</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         RIAs are subject to various SEC rules and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12111"/>
                        regulations governing, among other things, their marketing and disclosures to clients, best execution for client transactions, and disclosures of conflicts of interest and disciplinary information. State-registered investment advisers may have similar requirements under State securities laws and regulations.
                        <SU>41</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Investment advisers, depending on their registration status, are also generally subject to examination by the SEC or State securities regulators. In some circumstances, Federal securities, tax, or other rules and regulations may impose on investment advisers information collection or disclosure obligations similar to some AML/CFT measures.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>40</SU>
                             For instance, an investment adviser may be exempt from both 
                            <E T="03">Federal and State</E>
                             registration requirements if they had less than $25 million AUM and fewer than six clients in a State. These advisers are not required to register, nor are they ERAs.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>41</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Cal. Corp. Code, Ch.3, 25230-25238.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        However, these requirements are not designed to address money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit financial activity risks associated with investment advisers. Further, although some investment advisers implement AML/CFT requirements in certain circumstances or for certain customers, as described below in section II.C, application of AML/CFT measures is not uniform across the industry, and investment advisers' implementation of such measures is not subject to comprehensive enforcement or examination. Providers of the same financial services may be subject to different AML/CFT obligations (if any), and an investor or customer seeking to obscure the origin of its funds or identity can choose an investment adviser that does not apply AML/CFT measures to its customers and activities.
                        <SU>42</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>42</SU>
                             For instance, FinCEN research identified two investment advisers with a focus on Russian customers that advertised investment structures that would allow customers to avoid going through “know your customer” procedures.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Generally, RIAs, State-registered investment advisers, and ERAs are required to file (and annually update) Form ADV with the SEC, the relevant State securities regulator, or both.
                        <SU>43</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Form ADV collects certain information about the adviser, including (depending on the adviser's registration status) its AUM, ownership, number of clients, number of employees, business practices, custodians of client funds, and affiliations, as well as certain disciplinary or material events of the adviser or its employees. ERAs who are not registered with the SEC or a State securities regulator are only required to file an abbreviated version of Form ADV—they are required to answer fewer client-related questions and provide less information about the services they provide. Form ADV does not require investment advisers to disclose the names of individual clients or investors.
                        <SU>44</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>43</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 275.203-1 and 204-4.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>44</SU>
                             Advisers to private funds are, however, required to name their private fund clients on section 7.B.(2) of Schedule D of Form ADV Part 1A. In some cases, those names may be coded.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Some RIAs are also required to file a Form PF, which collects information on private funds advised by the RIA.
                        <SU>45</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Information collected on Form PF includes the approximate percentage of a fund's equity that is beneficially owned by different types of investors, including U.S. and non-U.S. investors. Some private fund advisers, including ERAs, that are required to report on Form ADV are not required to file Form PF.
                        <SU>46</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Unlike Form ADV, Form PF is non-public. It is provided to both the SEC and the Financial Stability Oversight Council (FSOC) and is intended to enhance investor protection and provide the FSOC with data for use in assessing systemic risk.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>45</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 80b-4(b). A Form PF must be submitted by any RIA that manages one or more private funds and collectively (with its related persons) had at least $150 million in private fund AUM as of the last day of its most recently completed fiscal year. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 275.204(b)-1. “Related person” is defined in Form PF, which is available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/files/formpf.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>46</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 275.204(b)-1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Illicit Finance Risk Associated With Investment Advisers</HD>
                    <P>As detailed below, Treasury assesses that RIAs and ERAs pose a material risk of misuse for illicit finance. Including investment advisers as “financial institutions” under the BSA and applying comprehensive AML/CFT measures to these investment advisers are likely to reduce this risk.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Illicit Finance Vulnerabilities</HD>
                    <P>
                        RIAs and ERAs are vulnerable to misuse or exploitation by criminals or other illicit actors for several reasons. First, the lack of comprehensive AML/CFT regulations directly and categorically applicable to investment advisers means they, as a whole, are not required to understand their customers' ultimate sources of wealth or identify and report potentially illicit activity to law enforcement. The current patchwork of implementation by some RIAs and ERAs may also create arbitrage opportunities for illicit actors by allowing them to find RIAs and ERAs with weaker or non-existent customer diligence procedures when these actors seek to access the U.S. financial system. Second, where AML/CFT obligations apply to investment adviser activities, the obliged entities (such as custodian banks, broker-dealers, and fund administrators providing services to investment advisers and the private funds that they advise) do not necessarily have a direct relationship with the customer or, in the private fund context, underlying investor in the private fund. Further, these entities may be unable to collect relevant investor information from the RIA or ERA to comply with the entities' existing obligations 
                        <SU>47</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         (either because the adviser is unwilling to provide, or has not collected, such information). Third, the existing Federal securities laws are not designed to comprehensively detect illicit proceeds or other illicit activity that is “integrating” into the U.S. financial system 
                        <SU>48</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         through an RIA or ERA. Fourth, RIAs and ERAs routinely rely on third parties for administrative and compliance activities, and these entities are subject to varying levels of AML/CFT regulation. Fifth, particularly for private funds, it is routine for investors to invest through layers of legal entities that may be registered or organized outside of the United States, making it challenging to collect information relevant to understand illicit finance risk under existing frameworks.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>47</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             FinCEN and Federal Functional Regulators (including SEC,), Joint Release, “
                            <E T="03">Guidance on Obtaining and Retaining Beneficial Ownership Information”</E>
                             (Mar. 5, 2010) (noting that customer due diligence procedures for legal entity customers may include “obtaining information about the structure or ownership of the entity so as to allow the [financial] institution to determine whether the account poses heightened risk.”)
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>48</SU>
                             Generally, money laundering involves three stages, known as placement, layering, and integration. At the “placement” stage, proceeds from illegal activity or funds intended to promote illegal activity are first introduced into the financial system. The “layering” stage involves the distancing of illegal proceeds from their criminal source through a series of financial transactions to obfuscate and complicate their traceability. “Integration” occurs when illegal proceeds previously placed into the financial system are made to appear to have been derived from a legitimate source.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(a) Lack of Comprehensive and Uniform AML/CFT Obligations</HD>
                    <P>
                        “Investment advisers” is not presently included in the definition of “financial institution” under the BSA or its implementing regulations.
                        <SU>49</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This means that, although they have Form 8300 obligations to report cash transactions above $10,000, investment advisers are typically not subject to most of the AML/CFT program, recordkeeping, or reporting obligations that apply to banks, broker-dealers, and certain other financial institutions.
                        <SU>50</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For example, investment advisers are not required to maintain an AML/CFT program 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12112"/>
                        (consisting of internal controls, an AML/CFT officer, independent testing, and employee training), and do not have independent SAR filing, customer due diligence (CDD), or CIP obligations. These are key elements of AML/CFT compliance through which an investment adviser would identify and report to law enforcement and regulators a customer, investor, or transaction that may be associated with illicit finance activity.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>49</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.100(t).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>50</SU>
                             Investment advisers are, like any other “person,” subject to an obligation to file Form 8300. 31 CFR 1010.330(a)(1)(i), (e)(1); 26 CFR 1.6050I-1(e).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As noted above, some RIAs and ERAs may perform certain AML/CFT functions if the entity is also a registered broker-dealer or is a bank (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         a dual registrant), or is an operating subsidiary of a bank;
                        <SU>51</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         other investment advisers are affiliates of banks or broker-dealers, which may implement an enterprise-wide AML/CFT program that would include that investment adviser. A Treasury analysis of Form ADV data found that approximately three percent of RIAs were dually registered as a broker-dealer or licensed as a bank, and that these entities held about 10 percent of the AUM held by all RIAs. The same analysis found that approximately 20 percent of RIAs, representing approximately 75 percent of the total AUM of RIAs, were affiliated with either a bank or broker-dealer.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>51</SU>
                             Investment advisers that are banks (or bank subsidiaries) subject to the jurisdiction of the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, and the National Credit Union Administration (collectively, the FBAs) are accordingly also subject to applicable FBA regulations imposing AML/CFT requirements on banks. 
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             12 CFR 5.34(e)(3) and 5.38(e)(3) (OCC requirements governing operating subsidiaries of national banks and Federal savings associations).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In other circumstances, an investment adviser may perform AML/CFT functions via contract with a broker-dealer (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         CIP for joint customers) or other financial institution, such as when the adviser advises an open-end registered investment company (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         mutual fund). For instance, some RIAs have already implemented voluntary AML/CFT programs pursuant to the Securities Industry and Financial Markets Association (SIFMA) No-Action Letter under which the staff of the SEC's Division of Trading and Markets stated that it would not recommend enforcement action if a broker-dealer relies on RIAs to perform some or all aspects of the broker-dealer's CIP obligations or the portion of CDD requirements regarding beneficial ownership requirements for legal entity customers, provided that certain conditions are met, including that the RIA implements its own AML/CFT program.
                        <SU>52</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Mutual funds,
                        <SU>53</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         which are advised by approximately 10 percent of RIAs 
                        <SU>54</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and hold approximately $22.1 trillion in assets,
                        <SU>55</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         are also subject to AML/CFT obligations under the BSA and its implementing regulations.
                        <SU>56</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>52</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             SEC, Letter to Mr. Bernard V. Canepa, Associate General Counsel, Securities Industry and Financial Markets Association (SIFMA), Request for No-Action Relief Under Broker-Dealer Customer Identification Program Rule (31 CFR 1023.220) and Beneficial Ownership Requirements for Legal Entity Customers (31 CFR 1010.230) (Dec. 9, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/files/nal-sifma-120922.pdf</E>
                             (SIFMA No-Action Letter). This request for No-Action Relief was originally issued in 2004 and has been periodically reissued and remains effective. Any SEC staff statements cited represent the views of the SEC staff. They are not a rule, regulation, or statement of the SEC. Furthermore, the SEC has neither approved nor disapproved their content. These SEC staff statements, like all SEC staff statements, have no legal force or effect: they do not alter or amend applicable law; and they create no new or additional obligations for any person.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>53</SU>
                             As used in this NPRM, “mutual fund” has the same definition as in FinCEN's regulations, and refers to an “investment company” (as the term is defined in section 3 of the Investment Company Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-3)) that is an “open-end company” (as that term is defined in section 5 of the Investment Company Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-5)) that is registered or is required to register with the SEC under section 8 of the Investment Company Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-8). 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.100(gg). Exchange-traded funds (ETFs) are a type of exchange-traded investment product that must register with the SEC under the Investment Company Act and are generally organized as either an open-end company (“open-end fund”) or unit investment trust. The SEC's ETF Rule (rule 6c-11 under the Investment Company Act), issued in 2019, clarified ETFs are issuing “redeemable securit[ies]” and are generally “regulated as open-end funds within the meaning of section 5(a)(1) of the [Investment Company] Act.” FinCEN's definition of a mutual fund under 1010.100(gg) applies to an ETF that is registered as an “open-end company” (as the term is defined in section 5 of the Investment Company Act).”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>54</SU>
                             Information derived from a Treasury review of Form ADV information. 
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             n. 26.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>55</SU>
                             According to the Investment Company Institute 
                            <E T="03">2023 Investment Company Factbook,</E>
                             as of December 31, 2022, U.S. mutual funds held approximately $22.1 trillion in AUM, while ETFs held approximately $6.4 trillion in AUM. Investment Company Institute, 
                            <E T="03">2023 Investment Company Factbook,</E>
                             p.2, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ici.org/system/files/2023-05/2023-factbook.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>56</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.100(gg); 31 CFR part 1024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Outside of these circumstances, some investment advisers have voluntarily implemented certain AML/CFT measures, such as CDD or other CIP requirements. However, because these programs are not required by any regulations under the BSA, advisers have wide discretion in what information to request from their customers and private fund investors. Additionally, RIAs and ERAs are not examined for compliance with voluntary AML/CFT measures not required by law, so the adviser may not be made aware of deficiencies or gaps in their programs via examination, and thereafter make improvements, and there are more limited enforcement mechanisms to pursue against the adviser for failing to implement such measures.</P>
                    <P>While the programs discussed above provide some AML/CFT coverage for parts of the investment adviser industry, they mean that RIAs and ERAs providing the same financial services have differing AML/CFT obligations. For example, depending on corporate policies and practice, stand-alone RIAs or ERAs are likely subject to different AML/CFT compliance approaches than RIAs or ERAs that are part of a bank or financial holding company; and an investor or customer seeking to obscure the origin of its funds or its identity can choose an RIA or ERA that has limited or no AML/CFT obligations.</P>
                    <P>
                        The fact that investment advisers are not currently BSA-defined financial institutions also limits the ability of investment advisers to provide highly useful information to law enforcement, regulators, and other relevant authorities. For instance, unless they are BSA-defined financial institutions, RIAs and ERAs would not be afforded the protection from liability (safe harbor) that applies to financial institutions when filing SARs.
                        <SU>57</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Even though investment advisers are able to file voluntary SARs, they could face increased legal risk from customers or other counterparties without the safe harbor. RIAs and ERAs are also currently unable to receive and respond to law enforcement requests for information under section 314(a) of the USA PATRIOT Act as they are not BSA-defined financial institutions.
                        <SU>58</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>57</SU>
                             31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(3)(A).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>58</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.520.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, investment advisers, or associations of investment advisers, that are not BSA-defined financial institutions cannot voluntarily share information under section 314(b) of the USA PATRIOT Act. Moreover, at present, existing BSA-defined financial institutions are limited in their ability to share with RIAs and ERAs, or receive from investment advisers, information potentially related to money laundering or terrorist financing that are not themselves BSA financial institutions.
                        <SU>59</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Becoming a BSA-defined financial institution would allow RIAs and ERAs to share information potentially related to money laundering or terrorist financing with, and receive requests from, other financial institutions that already utilize section 314(b), such as broker-dealers. This could help financial institutions gain additional insight into their customers' transactions with RIAs and ERAs and, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12113"/>
                        potentially, a more accurate and holistic understanding of their customers' activities.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>59</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.540.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(b) Existing AML/CFT Obligations Often Apply to Intermediaries, But Not the Customer-Facing Entity</HD>
                    <P>
                        Investment advisers engage in trading or transactional activities on behalf of their customers through relationships with financial institutions that are subject to AML/CFT obligations, such as broker-dealers and banks, among others. For instance, Rule 206(4)-2 (the Custody Rule) under the Advisers Act requires RIAs that have custody of client funds or securities generally to maintain those funds and securities with a qualified custodian, defined primarily to encompass BSA-defined financial institutions.
                        <SU>60</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>60</SU>
                             17 CFR 275.206(4)-2. 17 CFR 275.206(4)-2. The SEC recently proposed amendments to the Custody Rule. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             SEC, 
                            <E T="03">Safeguarding Advisory Client Assets,</E>
                             Investment Advisers Act Release No. 6240 (Feb. 15, 2023), 88 FR 14672 (Mar. 9, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        While investment advisers often do not take possession of financial assets, they nonetheless may have the most direct relationship with the customers they advise and thus be best positioned to obtain the necessary documentation and information from and about the customers concerning their assets that the investment adviser is deploying in public or private financial markets.
                        <SU>61</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         If some of these assets include the proceeds of illegal activities, or are intended to further such activities, an investment adviser's AML/CFT program could help discover such issues and prevent the customer from further using the U.S. financial system, while reporting such information for law enforcement purposes. For example, in some cases, an investment adviser may be the only person or entity with a complete understanding of the source of a customer's invested assets, background information regarding the customer, or the objectives for which the assets are invested.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>61</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             SIFMA No-Action Letter 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             n.52 (incoming letter to SEC stating “RIAs often have the most direct relationship with the customers they introduce to broker-dealers and are best able to obtain the necessary documentation and information from and about the customers”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Other market participants may, for example, hold and trade assets in an account controlled by an adviser, but these parties, as intermediaries, often rely solely on the investment adviser's instructions and lack independent knowledge of the adviser's customers. Further, an investment adviser may use multiple broker-dealers or banks for trading and custody services, making it difficult for one financial institution in the chain to have a complete picture of an investment adviser's activity or to detect suspicious activity involving the investment adviser. Without complete information, such an institution may not have sufficient information to file a SAR, or it may be required to file a SAR that only has partial information concerning the investment adviser's transactions on behalf of a particular customer. This limits the ability of law enforcement to identify illicit activity that may be occurring through investment advisers.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(c) Non-AML/CFT Regulations Do Not Fully Address Illicit Finance Risks</HD>
                    <P>RIAs are subject to various SEC rules and regulations governing, among other things, their marketing and disclosures to clients, best execution for client transactions, and disclosures of conflicts of interest and disciplinary information. In some circumstances, Federal securities, tax, or other rules and regulations may impose obligations similar to some AML/CFT measures by requiring the collection or disclosure of certain information by RIAs and ERAs. However, these regulatory requirements are not designed to explicitly address the risk that an RIA or ERA may be used to move proceeds or funds tied to money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit activity; they are instead designed to protect customers against fraud, misappropriation, or other illegal conduct by an investment adviser. Accordingly, even if they require an RIA or ERA to report certain kinds of illegal conduct or collect relevant information, they do not provide a comprehensive framework that incorporates the AML/CFT and national security purposes of the BSA, an understanding of relevant illicit finance risks and activity, and a process to assess and report suspicious activity to law enforcement and other appropriate authorities.</P>
                    <P>
                        For example, the SEC's Custody Rule 
                        <SU>62</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         generally requires RIAs with custody of client funds and securities to maintain client assets at a qualified custodian and comply with other safeguards, subject to certain limited exceptions. This rule is intended to protect advisory client assets from loss, misuse, theft, or misappropriation by, and the insolvency or financial reverses of, the adviser. Qualified custodians may be able to detect and report certain suspicious activity involving a RIA's customer, such as a high volume of trading or indications of layering activity, but they often may lack identifying information about the RIA's customer and their source of funds because that customer is not their institution's customer. As a result, qualified custodians can be limited in their ability to detect other types of illicit proceeds associated with that RIA's customer.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>62</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 275.206(4)-2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Other financial intermediaries providing services to an investment adviser or its customers, such as banks, clearing brokers, executing brokers, and futures commission merchants, may have AML/CFT obligations, but often, they may not be well-positioned to have a complete understanding of the identity, source of funds, and investment objectives of the adviser's underlying customer. For instance, some investment advisers may be reluctant to have a broker-dealer contact their customers because they view the broker-dealer as a competitor.
                        <SU>63</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>63</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             SIFMA No-Action Letter, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             n.52
                            <E T="03">0.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Similarly, the Compliance Rule 
                        <SU>64</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         under the Advisers Act does not require an RIA to implement AML/CFT-related policies and procedures. Under the Compliance Rule, an RIA must adopt and implement written policies and procedures reasonably designed to prevent violations of the Advisers Act and its implementing rules and regulations and to designate a chief compliance officer to administer the RIA's compliance policies and procedures. These policies and procedures should take into consideration the nature of that firm's operations and should be designed to prevent, detect, and promptly correct any violations of the Advisers Act or the rules thereunder. The Compliance Rule does not address the requirements of the BSA. While the Compliance Rule establishes a procedural and organizational framework that RIAs may be able to build upon to implement AML/CFT measures, the rule does not mandate that an RIA address AML/CFT in its policies and procedures. Some investment advisers may have policies and procedures to comply with Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) sanctions, which similarly may provide a framework for implementing certain AML/CFT measures included in the proposed rule.
                        <SU>65</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>64</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 275.206(4)-7.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>65</SU>
                             While OFAC sanctions requirements are separate from AML/CFT requirements, investment advisers, like other U.S. persons, must comply with OFAC sanctions. AML/CFT requirements and OFAC sanctions also share a common national security goal, apply a risk-based approach, and rely on similar recordkeeping and reporting requirements to ensure compliance. For this reason, many financial institutions view compliance with OFAC sanctions as related to AML/CFT compliance obligations, and may include sanctions compliance and AML/CFT compliance in a single enterprise-wide compliance program.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="12114"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(d) Investment Advisers to Private Funds Routinely Rely on Third-Party Administrators Located Outside of the United States</HD>
                    <P>
                        Routine reliance on third-party administrators by investment advisers to private funds for a range of administrative tasks, including investor due diligence and identity verification, poses a material illicit finance risk. While some third-party administrators are located in the United States and may be affiliated with larger financial institutions, others are located in offshore financial centers where private funds are routinely domiciled, usually for tax or other commercial reasons unrelated to AML/CFT regulation, such as the Cayman Islands.
                        <SU>66</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The due diligence and verification practices of these offshore fund administrators are not uniform, and may vary based upon the requirements of the local regulatory regime as well as the requirements of the fund's adviser. While some investment advisers may rely on these administrators to manage their perceived risk or to comply with local regulatory requirements, the piecemeal review of investor information is not a substitute for comprehensive AML/CFT compliance measures. These third-party administrators may also face legal and regulatory challenges in receiving and verifying documentation from foreign legal entity investors in funds they service. Further, effective AML/CFT supervision of fund administrators based outside the United States is often still nascent, with foreign regulators taking few enforcement actions to date.
                        <SU>67</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>66</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Caribbean Financial Action Task Force Mutual Evaluation of the Cayman Islands (Mar. 2019), p. 26, 30-31, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fatf-gafi.org/media/fatf/documents/reports/mer-fsrb/CFATF-Cayman-Islands-Mutual-Evaluation.pdf.</E>
                             While a fund may be domiciled or registered in the Cayman Islands, the adviser managing that fund may be located in the United States and/or registered with the SEC.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>67</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at pp. 135-140 (Cayman Islands received the lowest possible rating for supervision). Additionally, fund administrators in the Cayman Islands filed only 37 SARs in 2017. 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at p. 117.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(e) Use of Multiple Legal Entities for Cross-Border Investment Structure</HD>
                    <P>Some investment advisers provide advisory services to customers that structure their investments through several layers of U.S. and foreign legal entities or arrangements, such as limited liability companies (LLCs) and trusts, often referred to colloquially as “shell companies.” Such structures may be used for legitimate tax reasons, but can be used to obfuscate the source of funds for either natural person or legal entity investors and obscure unlawful conduct.</P>
                    <P>
                        An additional challenge is the use of nominee arrangements, in which an intermediary (often a foreign bank or overseas custodial service provider) agrees to be identified as the nominal investor and essentially acts as a “shield” for individuals who want to make investments without disclosing their identities or source of funds. These nominee arrangements can be used in connection with other intermediaries in the ownership chain (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the nominee may be acting on behalf of a foreign asset manager, who in turn has the relationship with an illicit actor or politically exposed person (PEP)). While these nominee arrangements often can have legitimate purposes, if they are not explicitly identified in required reports or records, they can be abused to obscure potentially illicit funds and make it extremely difficult (if not impossible) for regulators to identify and fully understand the nature and extent of illicit finance risks in this sector. As of Q4 2022, private fund advisers reporting on Form PF noted that they did not know, and could not reasonably obtain information about, the non-U.S. beneficial ownership of approximately $284 billion in private fund AUM.
                        <SU>68</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>68</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             SEC, Private Fund Statistics, Fourth Calendar Quarter 2022, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/files/investment/private-funds-statistics-2022-q4.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In addition, data privacy or other laws or regulations in effect in offshore jurisdictions, or contractual obligations, may impact how certain customer information is shared with investment advisers, broker-dealers, and other financial institutions (and by extension, U.S. law enforcement and regulators). While some investment advisers are introduced to new foreign investors by foreign entities subject to AML/CFT obligations (such as a broker-dealer), this practice is not consistent, as other introducers or promoters may be individuals with no AML/CFT obligations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Illicit Finance Threats to Investment Advisers</HD>
                    <P>
                        Treasury, in coordination with Federal law enforcement and consultation with the SEC, conducted a comprehensive assessment of illicit finance risk in the investment adviser industry. Treasury's review included an analysis of SARs filed between 2013 and 2021 that were associated with RIAs and ERAs.
                        <SU>69</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         That analysis found that 15.4 percent of RIAs and ERAs were associated with or referenced in at least one SAR (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         they were identified either as a subject or in the narrative section of the SAR) during this time. Further, the number of SAR filings associated with an RIA or ERA increased by approximately 400 percent between 2013 and 2021—a disproportionately higher increase than the overall increase in SAR filings, which was approximately 140 percent.
                        <SU>70</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>69</SU>
                             Information derived from an analysis of select BSA reporting.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>70</SU>
                             From a FinCEN review of the total number of SARs filed between 2013 and 2021.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>This SAR analysis, along with a review of law enforcement cases and other information available to the U.S. government, identified several illicit finance threats involving RIAs and ERAs. First, in some instances, the investment adviser industry has served as an entry point into the U.S. market for illicit proceeds associated with foreign corruption, fraud, and tax evasion. Second, certain advisers manage billions of dollars ultimately controlled by Russian oligarchs and their associates who help facilitate Russia's illegal and unprovoked war of aggression against Ukraine. Third, certain RIAs and ERAs and the private funds they advise are also being used by foreign states, most notably the People's Republic of China (PRC) and Russia, to access certain technology and services with long-term national security implications through investments in early-stage companies.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(a) Laundering of Illicit Proceeds Through Investment Advisers and Private Funds</HD>
                    <P>
                        Private funds can be a particularly attractive entry point for illicit proceeds because they present a possibility of high returns, in contrast to other, more costly forms of money laundering, such as trade-based money laundering or informal value transfer systems. Like other types of pooled accounts or legal entities, they can be used to obscure the names of individual investors or beneficial owners so that the investment fund is identified as the owner of a particular asset. However, there are a wide variety of private funds, and some have characteristics that have traditionally been seen as less attractive to money launderers. For instance, some hedge funds may have lock-up periods of more than a year while venture capital funds and private equity funds may not permit any withdrawals due to the time it takes for the private companies in which those funds invest to go public or otherwise provide an exit strategy for these funds. While these restrictions may deter criminals who need immediate access to illicit 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12115"/>
                        proceeds, they are unlikely to deter wealthy corrupt foreign actors who seek stable returns, and have a medium- to long-term investment horizon, and do not need immediate access to capital.
                    </P>
                    <P>The mechanisms for laundering illicit proceeds through investment advisers and private funds vary, but generally consist of obscuring the illicit origins of funds and pooling them with legitimate funds to invest in U.S. securities, real estate, or other assets.</P>
                    <P>
                        In one significant case involving funds stolen from the Malaysian government, an RIA was used to launder illicit proceeds into the U.S. financial system. In December 2012, investment funds affiliated with Low Taek Jho (Low) laundered approximately $150 million diverted from 1Malaysia Development Berhad's (1MDB) 2012 bond issuance into the U.S. financial system. Low was CEO of Jynwel Capital Limited, an investment adviser to a private equity fund in Asia.
                        <SU>71</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Through a subsidiary of Jynwel Capital Limited, Low purchased equity interests in a vehicle managed by the Electrum Group, a private equity firm in the United States “whose offices are located in New York and Colorado, invests in public and private companies involved in the exploration and development of natural resources, precious metals, base metals, and oil and gas.” 
                        <SU>72</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Electrum Group, LLC is registered with the SEC as an RIA. To conceal their origin, the funds were moved through multiple accounts owned by different entities on or about the same day in an unnecessarily complex manner with no apparent business purpose. This illustrates the general problem: without an obligation to determine the source of wealth and purpose for a customer, an investment adviser may unwittingly permit illicit funds to enter the U.S. financial system.
                        <SU>73</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>71</SU>
                             Low represented to counterparties and potential business partners that Jynwel Capital Limited was an investment adviser to a private equity fund.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>72</SU>
                             Verified Compl. for Forfeiture (Dkt. 3) ¶ 760, 
                            <E T="03">United States</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Real Property Located in London, United Kingdom Titled in the Name of Red Mountain Global Ltd.,</E>
                             No. 19-cv-1326, (C.D. Cal. Feb. 22, 2019), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.justice.gov/opa/press-release/file/1134376/download.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>73</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See id.</E>
                             ¶ 204-12.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In some instances, the investment adviser or other financial professional may form a private fund through which illicit proceeds can be transferred as part of a money laundering scheme. While past examples have featured investment advisers complicit in illegal activity, an investment adviser may be unwittingly complicit in this type of activity if they are not required to understand the origin of funds or nature of their owner. A customer wishing to launder money could ask an investment adviser to establish a private fund to certain specifications without informing the adviser of the customer's broader scheme. Without an obligation to report potential money laundering or other illicit finance activity, the adviser could participate without inquiring further.</P>
                    <P>
                        In July 2018, U.S. law enforcement arrested two alleged participants, Matthias Krull and Gustavo Adolfo Hernandez Frieri (Hernandez), in a billion-dollar international scheme to launder funds obtained through embezzlement, fraud, and bribery from Venezuelan state-owned oil company Petroleos De Venezuela S.A. (PDVSA).
                        <SU>74</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to the stipulated factual proffer filed in connection with his plea agreement, Hernandez conspired to launder approximately $12 million in PDVSA bribe proceeds by creating a private fund, domiciled in the Cayman Islands, and with a U.S. bank as custodian.
                        <SU>75</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Specifically, he admitted that he conspired to launder $7 million in bribe payments related to a loan scheme, and $5 million in bribe payments related to a separate currency exchange scheme, through his investment advisory firm located in the United States. Separately, a co-conspirator in the scheme set up fraudulent bond schemes in which fake bonds would be issued, money transferred into the private fund, and then the bonds would “default.” 
                        <SU>76</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         While in this instance the adviser was complicit in the fraudulent scheme, a client could also direct an unwitting investment adviser to create a private fund to specifications that facilitate money laundering. In the absence of an AML/CFT program requirement for investment advisers, the investment adviser might not have any obligation to evaluate such risks.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>74</SU>
                             Department of Justice, “Former Swiss Bank Executive Pleads Guilty to Role in Billion-Dollar International Money Laundering Scheme Involving Funds Embezzled from Venezuelan State-Owned Oil Company,” (Aug. 22, 2018), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.justice.gov/opa/pr/former-swiss-bank-executive-pleads-guilty-role-billion-dollar-international-money-laundering;</E>
                             Department of Justice, “Two Members of Billion-Dollar Venezuelan Money Laundering Scheme Arrested” (Jul. 25, 2018), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.justice.gov/opa/pr/two-members-billion-dollar-venezuelan-money-laundering-scheme-arrested.</E>
                             In August 2018, Krull pleaded guilty to one count of conspiracy to commit money laundering, and in November 2019, Hernandez, a former investment adviser, also pleaded guilty to conspiracy to commit money laundering in connection with his role in the scheme. Plea Agreement (Dkt. 163), 
                            <E T="03">United States</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Hernandez,</E>
                             (S.D. Fl. Nov. 26, 2019), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.justice.gov/criminal-fraud/file/1316826/download.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>75</SU>
                             Factual Proffer (Dkt. 164), 
                            <E T="03">United States</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Hernandez,</E>
                             No. 18-cr-20685 (S.D. Fl. Nov. 26, 2019), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.justice.gov/criminal-fraud/file/1316831/download.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>76</SU>
                             Criminal Compl., 
                            <E T="03">United States</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Guruceaga</E>
                             ( ), 18-mj-3119 (S.D. Fl. Jul. 24, 2018), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.justice.gov/criminal-fraud/file/1119981/download.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(b) Russian Political and Economic Elites' Access to U.S. Investments</HD>
                    <P>
                        Investment advisers and private funds they advise have served as an important entry point into the U.S. financial system for wealthy Russians seeking to obscure their ownership of U.S. assets.
                        <SU>77</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Although many of these Russian individuals were not sanctioned by the U.S. Government prior to Russia's full-scale invasion of Ukraine in February 2022, their wealth was sometimes associated with corruption, theft of state assets, or other illicit activity well before their designation.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>77</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FinCEN Alert, FIN-2023-Alert002, 
                            <E T="03">FinCEN Alert on Potential U.S. Commercial Real Estate Investments by Sanctioned Russian Elites, Oligarchs, and Their Proxies,</E>
                             p.4 (Jan. 25, 2023). In addition to Russian investors, investors tied to China and Saudi Arabia have invested in U.S. private funds. 
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             The German Marshall Fund of the United States, 
                            <E T="03">Policy Brief: An Effective American Regime to Counter Illicit Finance</E>
                             (Dec. 2018), 
                            <E T="03">https://securingdemocracy.gmfus.org/wp-content/uploads/2018/12/An-Effective-American-Regime-to-Counter-Illicit-Finance.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>A Treasury review of select BSA reporting filed between January 2019 and June 2023 identified more than 20 investment advisers located in the United States advising private funds where the adviser was identified as having significant ties to Russian oligarch investors or Russian-linked illicit activities. This review also identified 60 additional investment advisers located in the United States who managed private funds in which identified Russian oligarchs have invested, although there was no indication the adviser was engaged in any illicit activity.</P>
                    <P>
                        According to information available to the U.S. government, often, a member of the Russian elite or their trusted proxy invests in a public or private U.S. company with the assistance of a wealth management firm, which is usually located in an offshore jurisdiction such as Bermuda, the Caymans, or Cyprus, but services primarily Russian customers. The wealth management firm invests that money in dollars through the U.S. financial system, often into U.S. technology companies in fields including biotechnology and artificial intelligence. The scale of these investments is significant and may include billions of dollars invested for a single Russian oligarch. These investments are sometimes made directly by the foreign wealth management firm, and in other instances through a U.S.-based RIA or ERA.
                        <PRTPAGE P="12116"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In other instances, funds may be routed through a consulting firm or other entity acting as an investment adviser but not registered with or reporting to the SEC or State regulator. For instance, on September 19, 2023, the SEC announced charges against Concord Management LLC (Concord) and its owner and principal, Michael Matlin, for operating as unregistered investment advisers to their only client—a wealthy former Russian official widely regarded as having political connections to the Russian Federation.
                        <SU>78</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As of January 2022, Concord and Matlin allegedly managed investments for their sole client with an estimated total value of $7.2 billion in 112 different private funds.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>78</SU>
                             In March 2022, the United Kingdom and the European Union sanctioned Matlin and Concord's client and the client's assets were subsequently frozen. The SEC's complaint alleges that, a month prior, in February 2022, Concord and Matlin assisted the client in his attempts to redeem investments and/or sell his securities portfolio. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             SEC, Press Release 2023-186, 
                            <E T="03">SEC Charges New York Firm Concord Management and Owner with Acting as Unregistered Investment Advisers to Billionaire Former Russian Official</E>
                             (Sep. 19, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(c) Foreign State Actors Exploiting Investment Advisers To Threaten U.S. National Security</HD>
                    <P>
                        Some strategic nation-state competitors to the United States, most notably the PRC, may see private funds as a back door to acquire assets of interest in the United States, such as equity stakes in companies developing critical or emerging technologies. While there are certain transactions for which notice must be provided to the interagency Committee on Foreign Investment in the United States (CFIUS),
                        <SU>79</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         most transactions reviewed by CFIUS are filed voluntarily.
                        <SU>80</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Where transactions are not voluntarily submitted to CFIUS for review, CFIUS agencies actively work to identify those transactions, including whether such transactions may be a covered transaction under the CFIUS regulations and may raise national security considerations, and assess whether to request that the parties file with CFIUS.
                        <SU>81</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>79</SU>
                             CFIUS is an interagency committee authorized to review certain transactions involving foreign investment in the United States in order to determine the effect of such transactions on the national security of the United States.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>80</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Treasury, “Remarks by Assistant Secretary for Investment Security Paul Rosen at the Second Annual CFIUS Conference,” (Sept. 14, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://home.treasury.gov/news/press-releases/jy1732.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>81</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Foreign state-funded investment vehicles may seek to hide their involvement in foreign investments through offshore legal entities and intermediaries in an effort to gain access to sensitive technology, processes, or knowledge that can enhance their domestic development of microelectronics, artificial intelligence, biotechnology and biomanufacturing, quantum computing, and advanced clean energy, among others. These state-funded investment vehicles could persuade an investment adviser to a private fund to grant them access to granular details about the technology or processes used by a company in which the fund is invested, including information that a limited partner investor seeking only an economic return may not typically request.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">PRC.</E>
                         According to the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), the PRC government routinely conceals its ownership or control of investment funds to disguise efforts to steal technology or knowledge and avoid notice to CFIUS.
                        <SU>82</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to a report by the Office of the U.S. Trade Representative, State-guided PRC venture capital fund activity in the United States is motivated by the Made in China 2025 plan and the military-civil fusion strategy, directing investments towards developing technology with dual-use capabilities.
                        <SU>83</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In 2016, the PRC government explicitly endorsed the use of overseas venture capital funds to invest in “seed-based and start-up technology,” demonstrating the link between the funds and government priorities.
                        <SU>84</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>82</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Hearing Before the U.S.-China Economic and Security Review Commission, p.139, “Chinese Investments in the United States: Impacts and Issues for Policymakers” Jan. 26, 2017, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.uscc.gov/sites/default/files/transcripts/Chinese%20Investment%20in%20the%20United%20States%20Transcript.pdf; see also</E>
                             Remarks by FBI Director Christopher Wray, “Countering Threats Posed by the Chinese Government Inside the U.S.,” Jan. 31, 2022, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fbi.gov/news/speeches/countering-threats-posed-by-the-chinese-government-inside-the-us-wray-013122.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>83</SU>
                             Office of the United States Trade Representative, “Findings of the Investigation into China's Acts, Policies, and Practices Related to Technology Transfer, Intellectual Property, and Innovation under section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974,” Mar. 22, 2018, 14-15 &amp; 95-96, 
                            <E T="03">https://ustr.gov/sites/default/files/Section%20301%20FINAL.PDF.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>84</SU>
                             PRC State Council, “National 13th Five-Year Plan for the Development of Strategic Emerging Industries,” Nov. 29, 2016, 
                            <E T="03">https://cset.georgetown.edu/publication/national-13th-five-year-plan-for-the-development-of-strategic-emerging-industries/#:~:text=During%20the%2013th%20Five%2DYear,healthy%20economic%20and%20social%20development.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Russia.</E>
                         According to information available to the U.S. government, Russian elites and government entities are moving hundreds of millions of dollars annually through the U.S. financial system by using U.S. and foreign venture capital firms to invest in U.S. technology companies. A Treasury review of select BSA reporting identified several U.S. venture capital firms with significant ties to Russian oligarch investors that invested in firms developing emerging technologies with national security applications. These include autonomous vehicle technology and artificial intelligence systems, as well as contractors to the U.S. military, intelligence, and other government agencies. Further, according to information available to the U.S. government, the U.S.-designated, state-owned Russian Venture Company, which is funded by the U.S.-designated Russian Direct Investment Fund, endows Russian seed funds to invest in emerging technology. The seed funds create a venture capital company, often of a similar name to the seed fund and registered outside of Russia, to invest in U.S. technology firms. The U.S. government has also identified instances where the leadership of certain investment firms has attempted to remove overt ties to Russia or Russian names. Russian investors have obfuscated their connections to Russia, including by relocating to other jurisdictions and changing their names, to continue investing in U.S. technology companies through venture capital vehicles.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Prior Rulemaking and Regulatory Guidance</HD>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN has previously proposed AML regulations for investment advisers. On September 26, 2002, FinCEN published an NPRM proposing to require that unregistered investment companies, to include private funds, establish AML programs (Proposed Unregistered Investment Companies Rule).
                        <SU>85</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This was followed by the May 5, 2003 NPRM proposing to require certain investment advisers to establish AML programs (First Proposed Investment Adviser Rule).
                        <SU>86</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Both of these proposed rules would have defined these entities as “financial institutions” under the BSA and required the implementation of AML programs only; they did not propose suspicious activity reporting requirements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>85</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Anti-Money Laundering Programs for Unregistered Investment Companies,</E>
                             67 FR 60617 (Sept. 26, 2002).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>86</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Anti-Money Laundering Programs for Investment Advisers,</E>
                             68 FR 23646 (May 5, 2003).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In June 2007, FinCEN announced that it would be taking a fresh look at how its broader AML regulatory framework was being implemented to ensure that it was being applied effectively and efficiently across the industries covered 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12117"/>
                        by the BSA.
                        <SU>87</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In conjunction with this initiative, and given the amount of time that had elapsed since initial publication of the Proposed Unregistered Investment Companies Rule and the First Proposed Investment Adviser Rule, FinCEN determined that it would not proceed to apply AML requirements for these entities without undertaking further public notice and comment, and therefore withdrew the proposed rules on November 4, 2008.
                        <SU>88</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>87</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Withdrawal of the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking; Anti-Money Laundering Programs for Unregistered Investment Companies,</E>
                             73 FR 65569 (Nov. 4, 2008); and FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Withdrawal of the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking; Anti-Money Laundering Programs for Investment Advisers,</E>
                             73 FR 65568 (Nov. 4, 2008).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>88</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        On September 1, 2015, FinCEN published an NPRM “to prescribe minimum standards for . . . [AML] programs to be established by certain investment advisers and to require such investment advisers to report suspicious activity to FinCEN pursuant to the . . . BSA” (Second Proposed Investment Adviser Rule).
                        <SU>89</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This proposed rule would have included RIAs within the definition of “financial institution” under the BSA and required them to maintain AML programs, report suspicious activity, and comply with other travel and recordkeeping requirements. The Second Proposed Investment Adviser Rule would not have included ERAs as financial institutions under the BSA.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>89</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Anti-Money Laundering Program and Suspicious Activity Report Filing Requirements for Registered Investment Advisers,</E>
                             80 FR 52680 (Sept. 1, 2015).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Since 2015, the investment adviser industry has seen substantial growth in assets under management and the expansion of new products and services. At the time the Second Proposed Investment Adviser Rule was published, there were approximately 12,000 RIAs reporting approximately $67 trillion in AUM.
                        <SU>90</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As of June 30, 2023, that number had grown to more than 15,000 RIAs with approximately $125 trillion in AUM.
                        <SU>91</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>90</SU>
                             Based on a Treasury review of Form ADV data as of December 31, 2015.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>91</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             n. 26.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Private funds play an increasingly important role in the financial system and continue to grow in size, complexity, and number. For example, hedge funds engage in trillions of dollars in listed equity and futures transactions each month. Private equity and other private funds are involved in mergers and acquisitions, non-bank lending, and corporate restructurings through leveraged buyouts and bankruptcies. Venture capital funds provide funding to start-ups and early-stage companies. There are approximately 5,500 RIAs who advise more than $20 trillion in private fund AUM.
                        <SU>92</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Over the past five years alone, the number of private equity funds advised by RIAs increased 60 percent to more than 24,000, while the number of venture capital funds advised by RIAs increased by almost 300 percent, to more than 3,300 funds.
                        <SU>93</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>92</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>93</SU>
                             IAA Snapshot, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             n. 19 at Table 5E.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Since 2015, the U.S. Government has also developed a more detailed understanding of the illicit finance risks associated with the U.S. investment adviser industry. As described in section II, investment advisers have been exploited by sophisticated criminals, Russian oligarchs, and U.S. strategic competitors.</P>
                    <P>
                        Although the Second Proposed Investment Adviser Rule was not formally withdrawn,
                        <SU>94</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Treasury does not intend to issue a final rule based on it and is hereby withdrawing the Second Proposed Investment Adviser Rule. Treasury is issuing this new NPRM to ensure that changes in the risk and factual context relevant to the rulemaking since the Second Proposed Investment Adviser Rule was published are taken into account.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>94</SU>
                             Treasury withdrew the proposal from the Fall 2020 Unified Agenda. 
                            <E T="03">See Anti-Money Laundering Program and Suspicious Activity Reporting Filing Requirements for Investment Advisers,</E>
                             available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/FINCEN-2014-0003/unified-agenda.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Scope of Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        For all the reasons described above, FinCEN is proposing to cover both RIAs and ERAs as “financial institutions” subject to AML/CFT requirements. FinCEN is not proposing to cover State-registered investment advisers because the Treasury risk assessment found few examples of State-registered investment advisers being misused for money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit financial activities.
                        <SU>95</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, FinCEN will continue to monitor activity involving State-registered investment advisers for indicia of money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activities, and may take appropriate steps to mitigate any such activity.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>95</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Treasury, 
                            <E T="03">Investment Adviser Illicit Finance Risk Assessment, https://home.treasury.gov/system/files/136/US-Sectoral-Illicit-Finance-Risk-Assessment-Investment-Advisers.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As discussed further below, this proposed rulemaking does not impose a CIP requirement or a general requirement that investment advisers identify and verify the beneficial ownership of legal entity customers. Accordingly, the proposed rule would not subject investment advisers to beneficial ownership information identification and verification requirement under 31 CFR 1010.230.
                        <SU>96</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Under the BSA, any CIP requirement for financial institutions that engage in financial activities described in section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act “shall be prescribed jointly with each Federal functional regulator.” 
                        <SU>97</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This list of activities includes, among others, “providing financial, investment, or economic advisory services.” 
                        <SU>98</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Pursuant to these provisions, any future application of CIP requirements would be proposed jointly with the SEC in a separate rulemaking. In addition, FinCEN intends to amend the CDD Rule to bring it into conformance with the Corporate Transparency Act.
                        <SU>99</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>96</SU>
                             As described below, the proposed revised § 1010.605(e)(1) would expressly provide that an investment adviser would not be considered a “covered financial institution” for the purposes of § 1010.230. 
                            <E T="03">See infra</E>
                             section IV.H.1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>97</SU>
                             31 U.S.C. 5318(
                            <E T="03">l</E>
                            )(4).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>98</SU>
                             12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(C).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>99</SU>
                             FinCEN is required to revise the CDD Rule under the Corporate Transparency Act. Sec. 6403(d)(1), AML Act. (“Not later than 1 year after the effective date of the regulations promulgated under section 5336(b)(4) of title 31, United States Code, as added by subsection (a) of this section, the Secretary of the Treasury shall revise the final rule entitled `Customer Due Diligence Requirements for Financial Institutions' . . . .”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Section-by-Section Analysis</HD>
                    <P>FinCEN is proposing to: (1) include certain types of investment advisers (both RIAs and ERAs) within the definition of “financial institution” in the regulations implementing the BSA, and add a definition of investment adviser to reflect those covered types; and (2) require such investment advisers to (a) establish AML/CFT programs, to include risk-based procedures for conducting ongoing CDD; (b) report suspicious activity and file CTRs; (c) maintain records of originator and beneficiary information for certain transactions; (d) apply information-sharing provisions between and among FinCEN, law enforcement, agencies, and certain financial institutions; and (e) implement special due diligence requirements for correspondent and private banking accounts and special measures under section 311 of the USA PATRIOT Act. These proposals are discussed in greater detail below.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Definitions</HD>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN is proposing two changes to 31 CFR 1010.100, the general definitions section of its regulations. First, this proposed rule would amend 1010.100(t) to add “investment adviser” to the definition of “financial institution.” 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12118"/>
                        Second, it would add a new provision to 1010.100 defining the term “investment adviser.”
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Adding “Investment Adviser” to the “Financial Institution” Definition</HD>
                    <P>
                        The BSA expressly defines various entities as “financial institutions,” 
                        <SU>100</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         while also providing Treasury with the authority to define additional entities as financial institutions in its regulations at 31 CFR 1010.100(t). Specifically, the BSA authorizes FinCEN to define additional types of businesses as financial institutions if FinCEN determines that such businesses engage in any activity “similar to, related to, or a substitute for” activities in which any of the enumerated financial institutions are authorized to engage.
                        <SU>101</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Although “investment adviser” is not one of the specifically enumerated financial institutions in the BSA, FinCEN is proposing to make such a determination with respect to the defined set of investment advisers, and thereby add investment advisers to § 1010.100(t)'s definition of financial institution.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>100</SU>
                             31 U.S.C. 5312(a)(2), (c)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>101</SU>
                             31 U.S.C. 5312(a)(2)(Y). FinCEN may also designate businesses “whose cash transactions have a high degree of usefulness in criminal, tax, or regulatory matters” as financial institutions. 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             5312(a)(2)(Z).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Investment advisers provide services that are similar or related to services authorized to be provided by BSA-defined financial institutions. Many investment advisers provide advice to clients who have granted the adviser the power to manage assets on a discretionary basis, which is similar or related to services provided by other BSA-defined institutions, such as broker-dealers or banks. Indeed, many investment advisers provide asset management services that are similar to, and often substituted for, the asset management services that are provided by banks and other financial institutions, such that advisers may compete directly with asset management services provided by certain banks. Investment advisers also often provide services that can substitute for certain products offered by investment companies or insurance companies. For example, investment advisers can sponsor and provide advisory services to pooled investment vehicles such as private funds. As another example, many investment advisers sponsor and provide advisory services to mutual funds and advise on the purchase or sale of mutual fund shares, similar to banks or broker dealers that provide recommendations on mutual fund shares.</P>
                    <P>
                        Moreover, investment advisers often work closely with, or are otherwise closely associated with, BSA-defined financial institutions. For example, investment advisers work closely with financial institutions when they direct broker-dealers to purchase or sell client securities, and therefore engage in activities that are closely related to the activities of covered financial institutions. In addition, investment advisers are frequently owned by or under common ownership with banks, broker-dealers, and other financial institutions. For example, approximately 20 percent of RIAs and seven percent of ERAs are dually registered as a broker-dealer, licensed as a bank, or affiliated with a bank or broker dealer.
                        <SU>102</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Investment advisers typically rely on broker-dealers, banks, and other financial institutions to perform vital functions for them, such as retaining custody of client funds or executing trades of securities.
                        <SU>103</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Broker-dealers may recommend securities transactions to customers as well.
                        <SU>104</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Accordingly, even investment advisers that lack direct relationships with banks, broker-dealers, or other types of financial institutions engage in activities that are “similar to” the types of services authorized to be provided by certain financial institutions.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>102</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             n. 26.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>103</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             SEC, 
                            <E T="03">Commission Interpretation Regarding Standard of Conduct for Investment Advisers,</E>
                             Investment Advisers Act Release No. 5248 (Jun. 5, 2019), 84 FR 33669, 33674-75 (Jul. 12, 2019) (discussing an investment adviser's duty to seek best execution of a client's transactions where the investment adviser has the responsibility to select broker-dealers to execute client trades)
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>104</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)(11)(C) (excluding from the definition of “investment adviser” under the Advisers Act any broker or dealer whose performance of advisory services is “solely incidental to the conduct of his business as a broker or dealer and [the broker or dealer] receives no special compensation therefor”); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             SEC, 
                            <E T="03">Commission Interpretation Regarding the Solely Incidental Prong of the Broker-Dealer Exclusion from the Definition of Investment Adviser,</E>
                             Investment Advisers Act Release No. 5249 (Jun. 5, 2019), 84 FR 33681 (Jul. 12, 2019). 17 CFR 240.15
                            <E T="03">l</E>
                            -1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Further, legislative history during drafting of the USA PATRIOT Act indicates that RIAs are sufficiently similar to certain other financial institutions that Treasury could require them to file SARs: “The Committee [on Financial Services] notes that, under the Bank Secrecy Act, the Secretary currently has the authority to require Suspicious Activity Reports for all entities similar to futures commission merchants, commodity trading advisors, and commodity pool operators, namely registered investment advisers and registered investment companies.” 
                        <SU>105</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>105</SU>
                             House Report 107-250(I), 
                            <E T="03">Financial Anti-Terrorism Act of 2001,</E>
                             2001 WL 1249988 at *66 (Oct. 17, 2001); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             Public Law 107-31, Title III section 321 (Oct. 26, 2001) (section of USA PATRIOT Act adding futures commission merchants, commodity trading advisors, and commodity pool operators to the definition of “financial institutions” for purposes of 31 U.S.C. 5312(a)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Accordingly, FinCEN hereby determines that investment advisers engage in activities that are “similar to, related to, or a substitute for” financial services that other BSA-defined financial institutions are authorized to engage in and, therefore, may be properly included as a “financial institution” subject to the requirements of the BSA.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Adding a Definition of “Investment Adviser”</HD>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN is also proposing to add a definition of “investment adviser” to 31 CFR 1010.100 to clearly define who qualifies as a covered adviser—and thus as a “financial institution” under these proposed amendments to FinCEN regulations. The proposed definition of “investment adviser” is: “[a]ny person who is registered or required to register with the SEC under section 203 of the Advisers Act (15 U.S.C. 80b-3(a)), or any person that currently is exempt from SEC registration under section 203(
                        <E T="03">l</E>
                        ) or 203(m) of the Investment Advisers Act (15 U.S.C. 80b-3(
                        <E T="03">l</E>
                        ), (m)).” 
                        <SU>106</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In other words, under this proposed definition, an investment adviser would be any RIA (those registered or required to register) or ERA (those exempt from SEC registration under the listed provisions).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>106</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 CFR 275.203(
                            <E T="03">l</E>
                            )-1; 15 CFR 275.203(m)-1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The proposed definition relies on well-established and understood terms and definitions used in the Advisers Act and its implementing regulations to define who would be an investment adviser under FinCEN regulations. FinCEN believes that incorporating existing and well-understood regulatory definitions into its definition of investment adviser would simplify the investment advisers' determinations as to whether they are subject to the proposed requirements. FinCEN requests comment on whether the proposed definition of “investment adviser” is sufficiently clear, or whether some other definition may be preferable. FinCEN also requests comment on whether the proposed definition includes classes of investment advisers or certain services or activities provided by investment advisers that present a very low risk for money laundering, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12119"/>
                        terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activity such that they should be excluded from the definition, or whether the proposed definition fails to include a type of adviser that presents a risk.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(a) Registered Investment Advisers</HD>
                    <P>
                        Including RIAs within the proposed definition of investment adviser would align FinCEN's regulatory framework with the existing framework under the Advisers Act and would also allow FinCEN to work with the SEC to develop consistent application and examination of the AML/CFT requirements to such advisers. Generally, an investment adviser's amount of assets under management determine whether it is required to register or is prohibited from registering with the SEC.
                        <SU>107</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In implementing the Dodd-Frank Act amendments to the Advisers Act, the SEC amended the instructions to Part 1A of Form ADV to further implement a uniform method for an investment adviser to calculate its assets under management in order to determine whether it is required to register or is prohibited from registering with the SEC.
                        <SU>108</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Per the Dodd-Frank Act and SEC rules, a “large” adviser has $110 million or more in regulatory assets under management, and is required to register with the SEC. These are RIAs that would be included in the investment adviser definition in the proposed rule.
                        <SU>109</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN notes that large advisers would comprise a substantial majority of the total number of investment advisers that are included in the definition of investment adviser for purposes of the proposed rule.
                        <SU>110</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN requests comment on whether the definition of investment adviser should apply to non-U.S. advisers registered or required to register with the SEC, or who report to the SEC on Form ADV.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>107</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             SEC, 
                            <E T="03">Rules Implementing Amendments to the Investment Advisers Act of 1940,</E>
                             Investment Advisers Act Release No. 3221 (Jun. 22, 2011), 76 FR 42950, 42955 (Jul. 19, 2011).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>108</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See id.; see also</E>
                             Instructions for Part 1A, Item 5.F of Form ADV.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>109</SU>
                             An investment adviser that is registered with the SEC on a basis other than its AUM would also be an “investment adviser” under the proposed rule and subject to the proposed requirements.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>110</SU>
                             Generally, a mid-sized adviser has $25 million or more but less than $110 million in regulatory assets under management and is registered with the State where it maintains its principal office and place of business. A small adviser has less than $25 million in regulatory assets under management and is regulated or required to be regulated in the State where it maintains its principal office and place of business. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 80b-3A(a)(1). Mid-sized and small advisers are generally prohibited from registering with the SEC, unless an exemption from the prohibition on SEC registration is available (
                            <E T="03">see</E>
                             17 CFR 275.203A-2), and therefore are unlikely to be covered by the proposed definition of “investment adviser” in the proposed rule as RIAs.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(b) Exempt Reporting Advisers</HD>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN is also including ERAs in the definition of investment adviser under the proposed rule for the reasons described in section II.C above. In addition, ERAs have less detailed reporting requirements than RIAs, are not required to file Form PF, and are not examined by the SEC on a regular basis.
                        <SU>111</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Further, exempt venture capital advisers are able to rely on a registration exemption that is not limited by the amount of AUM. FinCEN requests comment on whether ERAs should be excluded from the proposed definition of “investment adviser,” and if ERAs are excluded, how could FinCEN otherwise address the money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance risk associated with ERAs. FinCEN also requests comment on whether there are differences in the risks associated with ERAs who advise private funds versus those that advise venture capital funds.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>111</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             76 FR 42950, 42963, n.188.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(c) Other Investment Advisers</HD>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN recognizes that different investment advisers included within the proposed definition may have different degrees of money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance risk. As discussed at greater length below, the AML/CFT program requirement is risk-based, and FinCEN anticipates that the burden of establishing an AML/CFT program, filing SARs, and complying with the other requirements of the proposed rule would be commensurate with an adviser's risk profile. As noted, the proposed definition of “investment adviser” would include certain non-U.S. investment advisers that are physically located abroad (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         do not have a branch, office, or staff in the United States), but are nonetheless registered or required to register with the SEC (for RIAs) or file Form ADV (for ERAs). Coverage of these non-U.S. investment advisers is discussed further at section IV.E.7.
                    </P>
                    <P>While FinCEN is limiting the proposed definition to RIAs and ERAs, FinCEN recognizes that other types of investment advisers or other entities that provide investment advisory services may present risks to the U.S. financial system of money laundering, terrorist financing, and other types of financial crimes, or otherwise pose a threat to U.S. national security. FinCEN, therefore, may consider future rulemakings to expand the application of the BSA to include other investment advisers or similar entities not covered by the proposed definition. FinCEN requests comment on whether other types of investment advisers or entities should also be subject to the proposed rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Delegation of Examination Authority to the Securities and Exchange Commission</HD>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN has overall authority for enforcement of compliance with the BSA and its implementing regulations.
                        <SU>112</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN, however, may delegate examination authority to appropriate agencies while retaining authority for the coordination and direction of procedures and activities of these agencies.
                        <SU>113</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN has previously delegated examination authority for various financial institutions, as reflected at 31 CFR 1010.810(b).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>112</SU>
                             Treasury Order 180-1, para. 3; 31 CFR 1010.810(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>113</SU>
                             Treasury Order 180-1, paras. 3(b), 4(b); 31 CFR 1010.810(a); 31 U.S.C. 5318(a)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN is proposing to amend 31 CFR 1010.810(b) to add investment advisers to the list of financial institutions for which the SEC has the authority to examine for compliance with FinCEN's regulations implementing the BSA. Persons and entities meeting the proposed definition of investment adviser thus would fall under this provision and be subject to SEC examination for compliance with FinCEN regulations. The SEC has expertise in the regulation of investment advisers. The SEC is the Federal functional regulator for certain investment advisers and is responsible for examining investment advisers for compliance with the Federal securities laws, including the Advisers Act and the SEC rules promulgated under those laws.
                        <SU>114</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Moreover, FinCEN has delegated to the SEC examination authority for broker-dealers in securities and certain investment companies, which are BSA-defined financial institutions subject to FinCEN's regulations and for which the SEC is the Federal functional regulator.
                        <SU>115</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>114</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 6809(2)(F); 31 CFR 1010.100(r)(6); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 80b-1 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                             and the rules thereunder, 17 CFR part 275.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>115</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.810(b)(6).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Accordingly, the proposed rule would designate the SEC as examiner of investment advisers for compliance with the proposed rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Investment Advisers' Proposed Obligation To File CTRs Instead of Form 8300</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under FinCEN's regulations that apply to a broad range of persons—not just financial institutions—investment 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12120"/>
                        advisers are currently required to file reports for the receipt of more than $10,000 in currency and certain negotiable instruments using joint FinCEN/Internal Revenue Service Form 8300.
                        <SU>116</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         By defining investment advisers as “financial institutions” under the BSA, the proposed rule would require investment advisers to file CTRs with FinCEN pursuant to 31 CFR 1010.311 instead of filing reports using Form 8300.
                        <SU>117</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>116</SU>
                             31 CFR 1010.330; 26 CFR 1.6050I-1. “Currency” includes cashier's checks, bank drafts, traveler's checks, and money orders in face amounts of $10,000 or less, if the instrument is received in a “designated reporting transaction.” 31 CFR 1010.330(c)(1)(ii)(A). A “designated reporting transaction” is defined as the retail sale of a consumer durable, collectible, or travel or entertainment activity. 31 CFR 1010.330(c)(2). In addition, an investment adviser would need to treat the instruments as currency if the adviser knows that a customer is using the instruments to avoid the reporting of a transaction on Form 8300. 31 CFR. 1010.330(c)(1)(ii)(B).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>117</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.330(a) (stating that § 1010.330 [the BSA provision requiring the filing of the Form 8300] “does not apply to amounts received in a transaction reported under 31 U.S.C. 5313 and 31 CFR 1010.311.”). To the extent an investment adviser conducts transactions other than in currency (as defined in 31 CFR 1010.100(m) for purposes of the CTR requirement), it would be exempt from reporting such transactions because the Form 8300 requirement does not apply to such transactions.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The BSA authorizes FinCEN to promulgate regulations requiring financial institutions to file reports when they participate in certain types of financial transactions.
                        <SU>118</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Pursuant to this authority, 31 CFR 1010.311 requires “financial institutions” (other than casinos) to file CTRs for “each deposit, withdrawal, exchange of currency or other payment or transfer, by, through, or to such financial institution which involves a transaction in currency of more than $10,000,” unless subject to an applicable exemption. FinCEN seeks to extend this requirement to investment advisers under the proposed rule. This proposed rule would also add several provisions, §§ 1032.310 to 1032.315, specifying how investment advisers should fulfill their proposed CTR obligations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>118</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             31 U.S.C. 5313(a); 31 U.S.C. 5326.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The threshold in 31 CFR 1010.311 applies to transactions in currency of more than $10,000 conducted during a single business day.
                        <SU>119</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A financial institution must treat multiple transactions conducted in one business day as a single transaction if the financial institution has knowledge that the transactions are conducted by or on behalf of the same person.
                        <SU>120</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This same requirement would extend to investment advisers.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>119</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.311, 1010.313(b). Multiple transactions must be treated as a single transaction if they are conducted by or on behalf of the same person and result in cash in or cash out of more than $10,000 during any one business day. A Form 8300, meanwhile, must be filed when currency is received in one transaction or two or more related transactions. Transactions conducted between a payer (or its agent) and a recipient in a 24-hour period would be treated as related. Furthermore, a distinction is drawn between transactions and the receipt of payments. Installment payments made within a period of 12 months may need to be aggregated and reported on a Form 8300. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.330(b)(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>120</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        To avoid duplicative requirements, investment advisers would no longer have to report applicable transactions involving certain negotiable instruments reportable on Form 8300. Moreover, since an investment adviser would be required to report suspicious transactions under the SAR rule proposed in this rulemaking, investment advisers would no longer need to use Form 8300 to voluntarily report suspicious transactions.
                        <SU>121</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Finally, imposing CTR and SAR requirements rather than a Form 8300 requirement is consistent with the obligations of certain other financial institutions, such as banks, broker-dealers, and mutual funds.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>121</SU>
                             Currently an investment adviser can report a suspicious transaction voluntarily by checking box 1(b) in the Form 8300. In addition to the requirement that an investment adviser report on a CTR, under the proposed rule, an investment adviser would also be required to file a SAR if a suspicious transaction exceeds the threshold amount.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Proposed Recordkeeping Requirements for Investment Advisers</HD>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN has broad authority to impose recordkeeping requirements on financial institutions under the BSA.
                        <SU>122</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Pursuant to this authority, FinCEN has issued several recordkeeping regulations, codified as 31 CFR part 1010, subpart D (§§ 1010.400 to 1010.440), which apply broadly to financial institutions, subject to specified exceptions. By defining RIAs and ERAs as financial institutions, this proposed rule would apply these recordkeeping regulations to investment advisers. Specifically, 31 CFR 1032.410 (cross-referencing 31 CFR 1010.410) would require investment advisers to comply with the Recordkeeping and Travel Rules, which are codified at 31 CFR 1010.410(e) and 31 CFR 1010.410(f), respectively, for the purposes of this proposed rule.
                        <SU>123</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The proposed regulations would not require investment advisers to comply with these recordkeeping requirements with respect to any mutual fund that it advises.
                        <SU>124</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>122</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             12 U.S.C. 1953; 31 U.S.C. 5311; and 31 U.S.C. 5312(a)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>123</SU>
                             The Recordkeeping Rule is codified at 31 CFR 1010.410(e) and 1020.410(a), but only 1010.410(e) is relevant here: 1020.410(a) describes the recordkeeping requirements for banks, while those for nonbank financial institutions are described in 1010.410(e). The Travel Rule, as codified at 31 CFR 1010.410(f), applies to both bank and nonbank financial institutions. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FinCEN, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, 
                            <E T="03">Amendment to the Bank Secrecy Act Regulations Relating to Recordkeeping for Funds Transfers and Transmittals of Funds by Financial Institutions,</E>
                             60 FR 220 (Jan. 3, 1995); FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Amendment to the Bank Secrecy Act Regulations Relating to Orders for Transmittals of Funds by Financial Institutions,</E>
                             60 FR 234 (Jan. 3, 1995).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>124</SU>
                             Specifically, proposed 31 CFR 1032.400 would permit an investment adviser to deem requirements in Subpart D to be satisfied for any mutual fund it advises that is subject to these same reporting requirements under another provision of Subpart D.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Under the Recordkeeping and Travel Rules, financial institutions must create and retain records for transmittals of funds and ensure that certain information pertaining to the transmittal of funds “travels” with the transmittal to the next financial institution in the payment chain.
                        <SU>125</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Recordkeeping and Travel Rules apply to transmittals of funds that equal or exceed $3,000. With certain exceptions, “transmittal of funds” includes funds transfers processed by banks, as well as similar payments where one or more of the financial institutions processing the payment (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the transmittor's financial institution, an intermediary financial institution, or the recipient's financial institution) is not a bank.
                        <SU>126</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>125</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.410(e), (f); 31 CFR 1020.410(a). Financial institutions are also required to retain records for five years. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.430(d).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>126</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.100(ddd) (defining “transmittal of funds”); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.100(aa), (qq), (ggg) (defining “intermediary financial institution,” “recipient's financial institution,” and “transmittor's financial institution” to include both bank and nonbank financial institutions).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        When a financial institution accepts and processes a payment sent by or to its customer, then the financial institution would be the “transmittor's financial institution” or the “recipient's financial institution,” respectively. The Recordkeeping and Travel Rules require the transmittor's financial institution to obtain and retain the name, address, and other information about the transmittor and the transaction.
                        <SU>127</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Recordkeeping Rule also requires the recipient's financial institution (and in certain instances, the transmittor's financial institution) to obtain or retain identifying information on the recipient.
                        <SU>128</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         And the Travel Rule requires that certain information obtained or retained “travels” with the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12121"/>
                        transmittal order through the payment chain.
                        <SU>129</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>127</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.410(e)(1)(i), (e)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>128</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.410(e)(1)(iii), (e)(3) (information that the recipient's financial institution must obtain or retain).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>129</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.410(f) (information that must “travel” with the transmittal order); 31 CFR 1010.100(eee) (defining “transmittal order”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Under the proposed rule, however, some transmittals involving investment advisers would fall within an existing exception to the Recordkeeping and Travel Rules designed to exclude transmittals of funds from these Rules' requirements when certain categories of financial institutions are the transmitter and recipient.
                        <SU>130</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The proposed application of this exception to investment advisers is intended to provide investment advisers with treatment similar to that of banks, brokers or dealers in securities, futures commission merchants, introducing brokers in commodities, and mutual funds.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>130</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.410(e)(6), (f)(4); 31 CFR 1020.410(a)(6). As relevant here, § 1010.410(e)(6)(i) excludes from the requirements of the Recordkeeping Rule “[t]ransmittals of funds where the transmitter and the recipient” are certain types of listed financial institutions. Section 1010.410(f)(4) excludes these same transmittals from the Travel Rule. The proposed rule would amend § 1010.410(e)(6) to add “investment advisers” to its list of financial institutions.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, FinCEN recognizes that investment advisers operate varying business models and, that in some circumstances, an adviser would not conduct transactions that meet the definition of “transmittal order.” For example, in some advisory relationships, when an investment adviser receives instructions from a customer, the investment adviser would not “be reimbursed by debiting an account of, or otherwise receiving payment from,” the customer, such that the investment adviser's receipt of instructions from a customer would not meet the definition of transmittal order.
                        <SU>131</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>131</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.100(eee)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Because FinCEN is proposing to include investment advisers in the definition of financial institutions, investment advisers would be required to comply with the Recordkeeping and Travel Rules when they engage in transactions that meet the definition of a transmittal order. FinCEN understands that the collection of at least some of this information would be required for accounting or other purposes and seeks comment on the extent to which investment advisers or other BSA-defined financial institutions regularly collect information that would be required under the Recordkeeping and Travel Rules. Similarly, FinCEN seeks comment on understanding the structures that investment advisers use to be credited by customers who seek to wire funds out of their accounts with the investment adviser. FinCEN seeks comment on how investment advisers work with qualified custodians to maintain separate accounts to manage customers' funds, including for wire transfers. FinCEN is also seeking comment on whether investment advisers should be required to comply with the Recordkeeping and Travel Rules as proposed, or if the Recordkeeping and Travel Rules should only apply in certain circumstances.</P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, the proposed rule would subject investment advisers to requirements to create and retain records for extensions of credit and cross-border transfers of currency, monetary instruments, checks, investment securities, and credit.
                        <SU>132</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These requirements currently apply to transactions by other BSA-defined financial institutions in amounts exceeding $10,000.
                        <SU>133</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>132</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.410(a)-(c). Financial institutions must retain these records for a period of five years. 31 CFR 1010.430(d).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>133</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.410(a)-(c).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Anti-Money Laundering and Countering the Financing of Terrorism Programs</HD>
                    <P>
                        The BSA requires financial institutions to establish reasonably designed risk-based AML/CFT programs to combat the laundering of money and financing of terrorism through the institution.
                        <SU>134</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Annunzio-Wylie Anti-Money Laundering Act of 1992 amended the BSA by authorizing Treasury to issue regulations requiring financial institutions, as defined in BSA regulations, to maintain “minimum standards” of an anti-money laundering program.
                        <SU>135</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These anti-money laundering programs must include, at a minimum, the development of internal policies, procedures, and controls; the designation of a compliance officer; an ongoing employee training program; and an independent audit function to test programs.
                        <SU>136</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The USA PATRIOT Act further amended the BSA to expand AML program rules applicable to banks to cover certain other industries.
                        <SU>137</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The requirements for an anti-money laundering program were further amended by section 6101(b) of the AML Act of 2020 (AML Act), which among other things, expanded the BSA's program rule requirement to include a reference to CFT in addition to AML.
                        <SU>138</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN intends to implement more specific changes to AML/CFT program requirements as a result of section 6101(b) of the AML Act through a separate rulemaking process.
                        <SU>139</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN does not intend to address those more specific changes as part of this rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>134</SU>
                             31 U.S.C. 5311(2), 5318(h)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>135</SU>
                             Annunzio-Wylie Anti-Money Laundering Act, Title XV of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, Public Law 102-550.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>136</SU>
                             31 U.S.C. 5318(h)(1)(A)-(D).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>137</SU>
                             Section 352(a) of the Act, which became effective on April 24, 2002, amended 31 U.S.C. 5318(h).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>138</SU>
                             Public Law 116-283 (Jan. 1, 2021); 
                            <E T="03">see</E>
                             31 U.S.C. 5318(h)(4)(D) (as amended by AML Act section 6101(b)(2)(C)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>139</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FinCEN Regulatory Agenda (Spring 2023), 
                            <E T="03">Establishment of National Exam and Supervision Priorities,</E>
                             available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/eAgendaViewRule?pubId=202304&amp;RIN=1506-AB52.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The BSA authorizes FinCEN, after consultation with the appropriate Federal functional regulator (for investment advisers, the SEC), to further prescribe minimum standards for such AML/CFT programs.
                        <SU>140</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In developing this proposed rule, FinCEN consulted and coordinated with the SEC staff, including regarding the statutorily specified factors set out in 31 U.S.C. 5318(h)(2)(B). These factors are:
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>140</SU>
                             31 U.S.C. 5318(h)(2)(A).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>• financial institutions are spending private compliance funds for a public and private benefit, including protecting the United States financial system from illicit finance risks;</P>
                    <P>• the extension of financial services to the underbanked and the facilitation of financial transactions, including remittances, coming from the United States and abroad in ways that simultaneously prevent criminal persons from abusing formal or informal financial services networks are key policy goals of the United States;</P>
                    <P>• effective anti-money laundering and countering the financing of terrorism programs safeguard national security and generate significant public benefits by preventing the flow of illicit funds in the financial system and by assisting law enforcement and national security agencies with the identification and prosecution of persons attempting to launder money and undertake other illicit activity through the financial system;</P>
                    <P>• anti-money laundering and countering the financing of terrorism programs should be—</P>
                    <P>○ reasonably designed to assure and monitor compliance with the requirements of the BSA and regulations promulgated under the BSA; and</P>
                    <P>
                        ○ risk-based, including ensuring that more attention and resources of financial institutions should be directed toward higher-risk customers and activities, consistent with the risk profile of a financial institution, rather than toward lower-risk customers and activities.
                        <PRTPAGE P="12122"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN has considered these factors in section 5318(h)(2)(B) in the drafting of this proposed rule. In proposing this rule, FinCEN has considered the fact that comprehensive AML/CFT requirements for investment advisers, which would require investment advisers to have effective AML/CFT programs and subject them to SAR reporting requirements, would aid in preventing the flow of illicit funds in the financial system and in assisting law enforcement and national security agencies with the identification and prosecution of those who attempt to launder money and undertake other illicit financial activity. Additionally, FinCEN recognizes that AML/CFT programs at investment advisers should be reasonably designed and risk-based consistent with investment advisers' respective risk profiles, and therefore is proposing an AML/CFT program rule that requires policies, procedures, and internal controls reasonably designed to prevent the investment adviser from being used for money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activities, as well as risk-based procedures that consider an investment adviser's risk profile. Further, as discussed in the Regulatory Analysis at section VII, FinCEN has analyzed the financial costs to investment advisers in imposing AML/CFT obligations, including AML/CFT program requirements and SAR filing requirements, and has determined that the public and private benefit to this proposed rule would outweigh the private compliance costs.
                        <SU>141</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>141</SU>
                             Further discussion relevant to each factor may be found at: Factor (i): the regulatory impact analysis at section VII and other discussions of the costs and benefits of the proposed rule; Factor (ii): we believe that this factor is not relevant to the proposed rule because investment advisers generally do not provide services to the unbanked, process remittances, or participate in informal financial networks. This may be inferred from the risk discussion at section II.C and accompanying discussions of the structure of the investment advisory industry; and Factor (iii): the risk analysis at section II.C; Factor (iv): the risk analysis at section II.C and the discussion of building upon existing requirements and examination programs in this section and at section IV.B.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        This proposed rule, by designating investment advisers as financial institutions, would subject investment advisers to AML/CFT program requirements, as reflected in proposed § 1032.210.
                        <SU>142</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>142</SU>
                             Additionally, 31 CFR subpart B contains general provisions applicable generally to financial institutions' AML/CFT programs. Proposed § 1032.200 would subject investment advisers those general provisions in subpart B.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Investment advisers are already subject to other regulations similar in certain ways to the AML/CFT program requirements FinCEN is proposing, and thus should be well-positioned to extend their practices to incorporate proposed AML/CFT requirements. RIAs are currently subject to Federal securities laws, which require the establishment of a variety of policies, procedures, and controls. For example, the Advisers Act requires an RIA to maintain certain books and records, as prescribed by the SEC.
                        <SU>143</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Under 17 CFR 275.204-2, an RIA is required to keep certain books and records that relate to its investment advisory business.
                        <SU>144</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Under 17 CFR 275.203-1 and 275.204-4, RIAs and ERAs, respectively, are also required to complete and submit Form ADV to the SEC. The Advisers Act also prohibits an investment adviser from engaging in fraudulent, deceptive, and manipulative conduct.
                        <SU>145</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         SEC rules further require RIAs to adopt and implement written policies and procedures reasonably designed to prevent violations of the Advisers Act and the rules that the SEC has adopted under that Act.
                        <SU>146</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         RIAs must conduct annual reviews to ensure the adequacy and effectiveness of their policies and procedures and must designate a chief compliance officer responsible for administering the policies and procedures.
                        <SU>147</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         ERAs are also subject to Federal securities laws governing the securities industry, required to complete and submit some sections of Form ADV, and comply with other select requirements of the Advisers Act.
                        <SU>148</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         While ERAs may not have the full compliance infrastructure that RIAs have, their existing compliance obligations nonetheless offer a point of reference and relevant experience for implementing the AML/CFT requirements in the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>143</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 80b-4(a) (requiring investment advisers to make and retain records as defined in section 3(a)(37) of the Exchange Act and to make and disseminate reports as prescribed by the SEC).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>144</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 204-2 (books and records to be maintained by investment advisers).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>145</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 80b-6(1)-(2)), (4) (prohibiting any investment advisers from engaging in any activity that would defraud a client or prospective client). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             17 CFR 275.206(4)-8 (prohibiting any investment advisers from making false or misleading statements to, or otherwise defrauding, investors or prospective investors to pooled investment vehicles).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>146</SU>
                             17 CFR 275.206(4)-7(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>147</SU>
                             17 CFR 275.206(4)-7(b), (c).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>148</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 80b-6(1)-(2), (4); 17 CFR 275.204-4; 17 CFR 275.206(4)-5; 17 CFR 275.206(4)-8.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>As FinCEN has noted, the AML/CFT program requirement is not a one-size-fits-all requirement but rather is risk-based and is intended to give investment advisers the flexibility to design their programs to identify and mitigate the specific risks of the advisory services they provide and the customers they advise. As such, ERAs would be able to tailor their AML/CFT programs to the specific risks, activities, and operations associated with their advisory business. Accordingly, FinCEN contemplates that investment advisers, as defined in the proposed rule, would be able to build upon existing policies, procedures, and internal controls, or the processes undertaken to establish those policies, procedures, and internal controls, to comply with the proposed AML/CFT requirements.</P>
                    <P>
                        Moreover, some investment advisers have already implemented AML/CFT programs either because they are dually registered as a broker-dealer, licensed as a bank, or affiliated with a broker-dealer or bank, or in conjunction with a SIFMA No-Action Letter permitting broker-dealers to rely on RIAs to perform some or all aspects of broker-dealers' CIP obligations.
                        <SU>149</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For instance, according to the 2016 Investment Management Compliance Testing Survey of RIAs conducted by ACA Compliance Group and the Investment Adviser Association, 76 percent of participants had adopted AML policies, and 40 percent of participants had adopted AML programs similar to the AML program requirements proposed in the Second Proposed Investment Adviser Rule.
                        <SU>150</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN requests comment on what CDD procedures RIAs and/or ERAs already have in place to comply with the SIFMA No-Action Letter.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>149</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             SIFMA No-Action Letter, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             n. 52. 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             31 CFR 1023.220(a)(6) (CIP rule permitting a financial institution to rely on another financial institution to perform all or part of its obligations to verify the identity of its customers as required by 31 U.S.C. 5318(h)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>150</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             2016 Investment Management Compliance Testing Survey (2016 IMCTS Survey), p.21, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.investmentadviser.org/eweb/docs/Publications_News/Reports_and_Brochures/Investment_Management_Compliance_Testing_Surveys/2016IMCTppt.pdf.</E>
                             This survey included responses from compliance officers at 730 RIAs and is the most recent IMCTS survey to have asked detailed questions about AML policies and programs.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Overview of AML/CFT Program Requirement</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 1032.210(a)(1) of the proposed rule would require each RIA and ERA to develop and implement a written AML/CFT program that is risk-based and reasonably designed to prevent the investment adviser from being used for money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activities. Each RIA and ERA would also be required to make its AML/CFT program available for inspection by FinCEN or the SEC. The minimum requirements for the AML/CFT program are set forth in 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12123"/>
                        § 1032.210(b) and discussed in greater detail below.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN reiterates that the proposed AML/CFT program requirement is not a one-size-fits-all requirement but is risk-based and must be reasonably designed. The “risk-based and reasonably designed” approach of the proposed rule is intended to give investment advisers the flexibility to design their programs so that they are commensurate with the specific risks of the advisory services they provide and the customers they advise.
                        <SU>151</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For example, large firms may assign responsibilities of the individuals and departments carrying out each aspect of the AML/CFT program, while smaller firms would be expected to adopt procedures that are consistent with their (often) simpler, more centralized organizational structures. This flexibility is designed to ensure that all firms subject to FinCEN's AML/CFT program requirements, from the smallest to the largest, and the simplest to the most complex, have in place policies, procedures, and internal controls appropriate to their advisory business to prevent the investment adviser from being used to facilitate money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activities and to achieve and monitor compliance with the applicable provisions of the BSA and FinCEN's implementing regulations. FinCEN requests comment on whether existing requirements under the Advisers Act or existing policies and procedures to implement OFAC sanctions could assist investment advisers in complying with the proposed AML/CFT requirements. FinCEN also requests comment on whether any proposed requirements are duplicative of any existing requirements. Finally, FinCEN requests comment on whether there are certain services or activities provided by investment advisers where applying AML/CFT requirements would result in information of limited value to law enforcement and regulators.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>151</SU>
                             The legislative history of the BSA reflects that Congress intended that each financial institution should have some flexibility to tailor its program to fit its business, considering factors such as size, location, activities, and risks or vulnerabilities to money laundering. This flexibility is designed to ensure that all firms, from the largest to the smallest, have in place policies and procedures appropriate to monitor for money laundering. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USA PATRIOT Act of 2001: Consideration of H.R. 3162 Before the Senate, 147 Cong. Rec. S10990-02 (Oct. 25, 2001) (statement of Sen. Sarbanes); Financial Anti-Terrorism Act of 2001: Consideration Under Suspension of Rules of H.R. 3004 Before the House of Representatives, 147 Cong. Rec. H6938-39 (Oct. 17, 2001) (statement of Rep. Kelly) (provisions of the Financial Anti-Terrorism Act of 2001 were incorporated as Title III in the Act).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Scope</HD>
                    <P>
                        As described above, the proposed rule would require all RIAs and ERAs to develop an AML/CFT program, and that program would be required to cover all advisory activities, with one exception: the program need not cover activities undertaken with respect to mutual funds, which have their own obligations under the BSA.
                        <SU>152</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As detailed below, advisory activities with respect to mutual funds would be exempt from the AML/CFT program requirements that would be applied in the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>152</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR part 1024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        An investment adviser would apply an AML/CFT program to all advisory activities other than with respect to mutual funds. Advisory activities subject to an AML/CFT program would include, for example, the management of customer assets, the provision of financial advice, the execution of transactions for customers, as well as other advisory activities. The requirements of the proposed rule would not apply to non-advisory services. One example of this would be in the context of private equity funds: fund personnel may play certain roles with respect to the portfolio companies in which the fund invests. Activities undertaken in connection with those roles (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         making managerial/operational decisions about portfolio companies) would not be “advisory activities” for purposes of the rule. FinCEN requests comment on whether certain advisory activities pose a lower risk in all circumstances and on the challenges for advisers in complying with the proposed role when engaged in such activities.
                    </P>
                    <P>Certain commenters on the Second Proposed Investment Adviser Rule proposed to exempt some advisory activities, such as advising clients without managing client assets and acting as a subadviser, on the ground that such activities are lower risk. Assessing the risk of an adviser's activities requires appreciation of the full context of the activity. For example, subadvisers and advisers who do not manage assets may nonetheless afford their clients access to the U.S. financial system, inadvertently guide the layering or integration of illicit proceeds or other illicit finance activity, or have relationships that provide insight to the investment adviser's AML/CFT program. FinCEN is therefore proposing to include those activities within the scope of this proposed rule. As discussed in the comment request section below, FinCEN requests comment on whether certain subadvisory activities should be excluded from coverage of this proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>Under the risk-based approach, an investment adviser would tailor its program according to the specific risks presented by its various activities. Factors that may indicate an activity or a customer is lower risk include the jurisdiction of registration of legal person customers, and whether the customer (where a legal person) is subject to U.S. AML/CFT regulatory requirements.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(a) Mutual Funds</HD>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN is proposing to exempt from the proposed requirements activities of investment advisers in advising mutual funds.
                        <SU>153</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN believes that this exemption is appropriate because of the regulatory and practical relationship between mutual funds and their investment advisers. Specifically, although mutual funds are distinct legal entities with distinct legal obligations, mutual funds typically do not have their own independent operations. Rather, mutual funds are entirely operated, and compliance with their legal obligations is undertaken, by their service provider entities, foremost amongst them their investment advisers. As a practical matter, we believe that any AML/CFT requirement imposed on an RIA to a mutual fund is already addressed by the existing AML/CFT requirements imposed on the mutual fund itself.
                        <SU>154</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In particular, we expect that the investment adviser to a mutual fund will have both (1) access to the exact same information concerning the mutual fund or its investors that is available to the mutual fund, in part in connection with its AML/CFT obligations and (2) a significant role generally in the operations of the mutual fund's regulatory responsibilities, including its AML/CFT program. Consequently, we are proposing not to require investment advisers to mutual funds to include those mutual funds within the investment advisers' own AML/CFT programs, as we believe including a mutual fund within its investment 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12124"/>
                        adviser's AML/CFT program would be redundant. This exemption is permissive and not mandatory; an investment adviser could decide to include the mutual funds it advises in complying with any of the investment adviser's proposed requirements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>153</SU>
                             FinCEN's definition of a mutual fund under 1010.100(gg) applies to an ETF as an “open-end company” (as the term is defined in section 5 of the Investment Company Act).” 
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             n. 53.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>154</SU>
                             FinCEN notes as well that the First Proposed Investment Adviser Rule would have permitted mutual funds to be excluded from the programs required of investment advisers covered by that proposed rule. Commenters to the Second Proposed Investment Adviser Rule, which would not have permitted such an exclusion, supported instead the 2003 NPRM approach.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Mutual funds are already subject to comprehensive AML/CFT obligations under the BSA and are required to, among other things, establish AML/CFT and customer identification programs, conduct CDD, and report suspicious activity, among other obligations.
                        <SU>155</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN believes that, currently, these requirements sufficiently mitigate the money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance risks associated with mutual funds and those funds' investors to justify this exemption. FinCEN is requesting comment on whether to exempt mutual funds from coverage in an adviser's AML/CFT program. FinCEN also requests comment on whether there are other categories of entities that, like mutual funds, could be reasonably exempted from an investment adviser's AML/CFT program.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>155</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.100(gg); 31 CFR part 1024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>FinCEN is also proposing to exempt investment advisers from having to comply with the reporting and recordkeeping requirements of part 1032, subparts C and D, for its mutual fund customers. FinCEN believes that the proposed regulatory text is sufficiently clear that these subparagraphs would not apply with respect to mutual fund customers, because the internal policies, procedures, and controls to comply with those requirements are closely linked to the AML/CFT program requirement. FinCEN requests comment on whether additional regulatory text in those subparts is needed to clarify this. FinCEN also requests comment on whether the exemption should be dependent on the nature of the relationship between the investment adviser and its mutual fund customer, and whether the exemption would avoid duplication of existing AML/CFT requirements. Lastly, FinCEN requests comment on whether investment advisers to mutual funds should still be required to monitor for and file SARs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(b) Provision of Other Advisory Services</HD>
                    <P>FinCEN understands that investment advisers provide a range of services that could affect the nature of their AML/CFT programs. An investment adviser may provide customers with advisory services that do not include the management of customer assets or knowledge of customers' investment decisions, such as pension consulting, securities newsletters, research reports, or financial planning.</P>
                    <P>
                        In the investment advisory industry, an adviser may also act as the “primary adviser” or “subadviser.” 
                        <SU>156</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Generally, the primary adviser contracts directly with the client, and a subadviser has contractual privity with the primary adviser, though there is variation across the sector with respect to the relationship and function between primary advisers and subadvisers. Because subadvisory services are a subcategory of advisory services, the proposed rule would apply to investment advisers who provide subadvisory services.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>156</SU>
                             The Advisers Act does not distinguish between advisers and subadvisers; all are “investment advisers.” 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             76 FR 39646, 39680 (Jul. 6, 2011) at n. 504 and accompanying text.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>FinCEN requests comment on whether specific services provided by investment advisers, such as advisory services that do not involve management of client assets or subadvisory services, should be included or excluded from coverage of this proposed rule. FinCEN also requests comment on any alternative approaches for addressing compliance with the proposed rule when advisers provide particular services, such as allowing subadvisers to rely on the primary adviser or allowing the primary adviser to delegate all AML/CFT obligations to the subadviser. FinCEN further requests comment on whether there is an increased risk for a subadviser when providing advisory services to a customer with a primary adviser that is not an investment adviser as defined in the proposed rule. FinCEN also requests comment on the extent a subadviser's AML/CFT program would overlap with the primary adviser's program and how duplication could be mitigated. Finally, FinCEN requests comment on whether there are similar arrangements where an investment adviser may be sub-contracted to provide services to another investment adviser that should or should not be in the scope of an investment adviser's AML/CFT program.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Dually Registered Investment Advisers and Advisers Affiliated With or Subsidiaries of Entities Required To Establish AML/CFT Programs</HD>
                    <P>
                        According to a Treasury review of Form ADV filings, approximately three percent of RIAs were dually registered with the SEC as investment advisers and broker-dealers in securities, and approximately 20 percent of RIAs may be affiliated with, or subsidiaries of, banks or broker-dealers, which are required to establish AML/CFT programs. With respect to an investment adviser that is dually registered as a broker-dealer or is a bank (or is a bank subsidiary), FinCEN is not proposing to require such an adviser to establish multiple or separate AML/CFT programs so long as a comprehensive AML/CFT program covers all of the entity's relevant business and activities that are subject to BSA requirements. The program should be designed to address the different money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activity risks posed by the different aspects of the entities' businesses and, accordingly satisfy each of the risk-based AML/CFT program requirements to which it is subject in its capacity as both an investment adviser and broker-dealer or bank.
                        <SU>157</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Similarly, an investment adviser affiliated with, or a subsidiary of, another entity required to establish an AML/CFT program in another capacity would not be required to implement multiple or separate programs as one single program can be extended to all affiliated entities that are subject to the BSA, so long as it is designed to identify and mitigate the different money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance activity risks posed by the different aspects of the entity's business and satisfy each of the risk-based AML/CFT program and other BSA requirements to which the organization is subject in all of its regulated capacities, as for example an investment adviser and a bank or insurance company.
                        <SU>158</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>157</SU>
                             FinCEN notes that while broker-dealers in securities are subject to the full panoply of FinCEN's regulations implementing the BSA, investment advisers would not immediately be subject to certain of those AML/CFT requirements, 
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             the CIP Rule, because the proposed rule does not include CIP requirements at this time. FinCEN intends to address CIP requirements in a subsequent joint rulemaking with the SEC, after notice-and-comment.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>158</SU>
                             FinCEN notes that although certain insurance companies are required to establish and implement AML programs and report suspicious activity, the term “insurance company” is not included within the general definition of financial institution under FinCEN's regulations. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.100(t). Therefore, such insurance companies are not required to file CTRs with FinCEN or comply with the Recordkeeping and Travel Rules and other related recordkeeping requirements. Accordingly, FinCEN would not expect an insurance company that is affiliated with or owns an investment adviser to design an enterprise-wide AML/CFT compliance program that would subject the insurance company to AML/CFT requirements not required by FinCEN's regulations. Conversely, FinCEN would not expect a bank, which is subject to the full panoply of FinCEN's regulations implementing the BSA, to design an enterprise-wide AML/CFT compliance program that would subject an affiliated or controlled investment adviser to AML/CFT requirements that would not be required by the proposed rule.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="12125"/>
                    <P>FinCEN recognizes the importance of enterprise-wide compliance and, therefore, believes it would be beneficial and cost-effective for these types of entities to implement one comprehensive AML/CFT program that includes all activities covered by FinCEN's regulations. However, these entities would not be required to establish one comprehensive AML/CFT program; they may instead establish multiple programs to satisfy their AML/CFT obligations. What would be required, however, is that the covered investment adviser and its affiliated financial institution(s) identify and mitigate the risks arising across the organization or organizations—for example, as they relate to one customer served by both an affiliated bank and an investment adviser. If each of these affiliates conducts due diligence on the same customer individually, without assessing all of this information between both aspects of its business, these businesses' understanding of their shared customer would be incomplete, which could lead to a less effective understanding of risk and detection of suspicious activity.</P>
                    <P>FinCEN is requesting comments on how dually registered investment advisers and broker-dealers, or investment advisers affiliated with, or a subsidiary of, a bank, broker-dealer, or other BSA-defined financial institution, should apply their existing AML/CFT program to their investment advisory activities. FinCEN also requests comment on whether RIAs or ERAs that are affiliated with a bank or broker-dealer presently apply enterprise-wide AML/CFT requirements, and whether certain AML/CFT requirements are presently tailored for advisory activities.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Delegation of Duties</HD>
                    <P>
                        Investment advisers' services routinely involve other financial institutions that have their own AML/CFT program requirements, such as broker-dealers, banks, mutual funds, as well as other investment advisers. FinCEN also recognizes that an investment adviser may conduct some of its operations through agents or third-party service providers, such as broker-dealers in securities (including prime brokers), custodians, transfer agents, and fund administrators. For instance, many investment advisers that operate private funds delegate the implementation and operation of certain aspects of their AML program to a third party, most often the fund's administrator, which is an independent third-party that provides valuation, administrative, and other services to the fund and its investors.
                        <SU>159</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>159</SU>
                             FinCEN understands that some fund administrators are nonbank subsidiaries of U.S. bank holding companies and, as such, are subject to the global AML policies and procedures of these U.S. institutions. FinCEN also understands that some investment advisers delegate AML compliance to administrators located outside the United States. These administrators are generally located in jurisdictions that require regulated entities to have their own AML/CFT policies, procedures, and controls. 
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Managed Funds Association, Letter to Financial Crimes Enforcement Network, Re: AML Program and SAR Filing Requirements for Registered Investment Advisers (RIN: 1506-AB10), Docket Number FinCEN-2014-003 (Nov. 2, 2015).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>FinCEN recognizes that it is common in the advisory business to delegate a range of compliance, administrative, and other activities to third-party providers. In the proposed rule, similar to other BSA-defined financial institutions, FinCEN would permit an investment adviser to delegate contractually the implementation and operation of aspects of its AML/CFT program. However, if an investment adviser delegates the implementation and operation of any aspects of its AML/CFT program to another financial institution, agent, fund administrator, third-party service provider, or other entity, the investment adviser would remain fully responsible and legally liable for, and need to demonstrate, the program's compliance with AML/CFT requirements and FinCEN's implementing regulations. The investment adviser also would be required to ensure that FinCEN and the SEC are able to obtain information and records relating to the AML/CFT program.</P>
                    <P>Because investment advisers operate through a variety of different business models, each investment adviser may decide which aspects (if any) of its AML/CFT program are appropriate to delegate. In certain circumstances, for instance, an investment adviser may deem it appropriate to delegate certain aspects of its suspicious activity monitoring and reporting obligation to a third party, such as a qualified custodian.</P>
                    <P>In addition to these financial institutions, there are other third-party service providers that play an important role in advisory activities, such as fund administrators. As FinCEN understands it, for advisers who presently implement AML/CFT policies and procedures, it is often current practice for those advisers to delegate the administration of AML/CFT policies and procedures to their fund administrator, along with non-AML/CFT activities such as processing subscriptions, transfers, and redemptions administrators. Some fund administrators are subsidiaries of U.S. financial or bank holding companies that may have enterprise-wide AML/CFT programs, while those in foreign jurisdictions may be subject to AML/CFT requirements under local law.</P>
                    <P>However, as noted above, liability for noncompliance would remain with the investment adviser. The investment adviser would still be required to identify and document the procedures implemented to address its vulnerability to money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance activity, and then undertake reasonable steps to assess whether the service provider carries out such procedures effectively. For example, it would not be sufficient to simply obtain a “certification” from a service provider that the service provider has a satisfactory AML/CFT program. Similarly, if an investment adviser delegates the responsibility for suspicious activity reporting to an agent or a third-party service provider, the adviser remains responsible for its compliance with the requirement to report suspicious activity, including the requirement to maintain SAR confidentiality.</P>
                    <P>FinCEN requests comment on the scope of information fund administrators currently collect that would support implementation of the proposed rule, and on the practical effect of permitting an investment adviser to delegate some or all of the requirements in the proposed rule. FinCEN also requests comment on the quality of AML/CFT programs implemented by fund administrators whose operations are primarily conducted outside of the United States, the extent to which these fund administrators are able to collect and provide information on the natural person and legal entity investors in offshore pooled investment vehicles when that information is requested by a U.S. investment adviser, the ability of the U.S. investment adviser to effectively monitor the implementation of proposed requirements by fund administrators, and the quality of suspicious activity or suspicious transaction reports submitted by those fund administrators.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. AML/CFT Program Approval</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 1032.210(a)(2) of the proposed rule would require that each investment adviser's AML/CFT program be approved in writing by its board of directors or trustees, or if it does not have a board, by its sole proprietor, general partner, trustee, or other persons that have functions similar to a board of directors. This provision of the proposed rule would ensure that the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12126"/>
                        requirement to have an AML/CFT program receives the appropriate level of attention and is intended to be sufficiently flexible to permit an investment adviser to comply with this requirement based on its particular organizational structure. The proposed rule would require an investment adviser's written program to be made available for inspection by FinCEN or the SEC.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. The Required Elements of an Anti-Money Laundering/Countering the Financing of Terrorism Program</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(a) Required Policies, Procedures, and Internal Controls</HD>
                    <P>Section 1032.210(b)(1) would require an investment adviser to establish and implement policies, procedures, and internal controls reasonably designed to prevent money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance activities. As noted in section II, these risks may include not only activities tied to money laundering, such as fraud or corruption, but also any affiliation or relationship with either persons designated by the United States or other jurisdictions with which the United States regularly coordinates sanctions actions, or foreign state-sponsored investment activity in critical or emerging technologies. FinCEN recognizes that some types of customers or customer activities would pose greater risks for money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activity than others.</P>
                    <P>
                        Generally, under the proposed rule, an investment adviser would be required to review, among other things, the types of advisory services it provides and the nature of the customers it advises to identify the investment adviser's vulnerabilities to money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance activities. It would also need to review investment products offered, distribution channels, intermediaries that it may operate through, and geographic locations of customers and business activities. Accordingly, an investment adviser's assessment of the risks presented by the different types of advisory services it provides to such customers would need to, among other factors, consider the types of accounts offered (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         managed accounts), the types of customers opening such accounts, the geographic location of such customers, and the sources of wealth for customer assets. FinCEN expects that investment advisers would generally be able to adapt existing policies and procedures to meet this requirement.
                        <SU>160</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN requests comment on whether it should require an investment adviser to include all the advisory services it provides in its AML/CFT program.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>160</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             discussion in section II.B, 
                            <E T="03">infra,</E>
                             for a discussion of existing Advisers Act recordkeeping and reporting obligations that may enable investment advisers to adapt existing policies, procedures, and internal controls. In addition, as noted above, according to one industry survey, as of 2016, 40 percent of participants had adopted AML programs similar to the AML program requirements proposed in the Second Proposed Investment Adviser Rule.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The discussion below focuses on how an investment adviser's AML/CFT program may address the money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance risks that may be presented by certain specific types of advisory customers, as well as how an adviser's program may address the risks presented by certain specific advisory services provided to those customers. In addition, this section describes FinCEN's expectations under a risk-based approach regarding advisory services to wrap fee programs. FinCEN requests comment on whether closed-end registered funds, wrap fee programs, or other types of accounts advised by investment advisers should be, on a risk-basis, reasonably exempted from an investment adviser's AML/CFT program.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Registered Closed-End Funds.</E>
                         Based on one available estimate, at the end of 2022, there were approximately 440 registered closed-end funds that had approximately $250 billion in AUM.
                        <SU>161</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Unlike open-end funds, closed-end funds do not have an existing AML/CFT program or SAR requirement. Registered closed-end funds, however, are subject to comprehensive SEC regulation and oversight and typically trade in the secondary market through broker-dealers who have AML/CFT obligations and where there are additional required disclosures and greater transparency.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>161</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See 2023 Investment Company Factbook</E>
                             at p.2,17, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             n. 55. Unlike traditional mutual funds (or “open-end funds”), closed-end funds are not required to buy back shares from shareholders. Closed-end funds sell their shares in a public offering. After that, their shares trade on national securities exchanges at market prices. The market price may be greater or less than the market value of the fund's underlying investments.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>For these reasons, although FinCEN is not proposing to exempt closed-end funds from the AML/CFT or SAR requirements in the proposed rule, FinCEN would expect, absent other indicators of high-risk activity, investment advisers could treat closed-end funds as lower-risk for purposes of their AML/CFT programs. FinCEN requests comments on the money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance risks faced by closed-end funds, and how entities with existing AML/CFT requirements, such as banks and broker-dealers, apply those requirements to activity involving closed-end funds.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Private Funds.</E>
                         As described above, the money laundering, terrorist financing, or illicit finance activity risk for private funds may vary with the individual fund's investment strategy, targeted investors, and other characteristics. Some private funds have traditionally been seen as less attractive to certain illicit actors. For instance, due to their long-term investment focus and illiquid nature, certain private equity funds may be less likely to be used by money launderers, terrorist financiers, and others engaging in illicit finance.
                        <SU>162</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Other relevant characteristics of private funds include minimum subscription amounts, restrictions on the type of investors they can accept, and the fact that most funds prohibit the receipt of paper currency. However, those factors may not be a barrier to more sophisticated fraudsters or corrupt officials, among others, that have already placed their funds into a foreign bank and are seeking long-term returns outside of their home country.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>162</SU>
                             For instance, in the Proposed Unregistered Investment Companies Rule, FinCEN proposed to exclude from the scope of its proposed AML requirements those funds that did not offer their investors the right to redeem any portion of their ownership interests within two years after those interests were acquired. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             68 FR at 60619.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        An investment adviser that is the primary adviser to a private fund or other unregistered pooled investment vehicle is required to make a risk-based assessment of the money laundering and terrorist financing risks presented by the investors in such investment vehicles by considering the same types of relevant factors, as appropriate, as the adviser would consider for clients for whom the adviser manages assets directly. As noted above, the risk-based approach of the proposed rule is intended to give investment advisers the flexibility to design their programs to meet the specific risks presented by their customers, including any funds they advise. In assessing the potential risk of a private fund under the proposed rule, investment advisers generally should gather pertinent facts about the structure or ownership of the fund, including both the extent to which they are provided with relevant information about the investors in that private fund, who may or may not themselves also be customers of the investment adviser, and the nature of such investor-related information that they receive.
                        <PRTPAGE P="12127"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>Under the proposed rule, where an investment adviser attempted to and was unable to obtain identifying information about the investors in a private fund, the private fund may pose a higher risk for money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activity. When a private fund's potential vulnerability to money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activity is high, the adviser's procedures would need to reasonably address these higher risks so that the adviser is able to prevent the investment adviser from being used for money laundering or the financing of terrorist activities, and to achieve and monitor compliance with the BSA (including to obtain sufficient information to monitor and report suspicious activity). FinCEN requests comment on what information is currently available to advisers to private funds regarding their investors that could help advisers comply with the proposed AML/CFT requirements. FinCEN also requests comment on whether a subadviser to a private fund or other unregistered pooled investment vehicle should be required to establish the same policies, procedures, and internal controls as when the primary adviser is the investment adviser, or should be required to mitigate the risks of money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit activity to the investing pooled investment vehicle's investors, sponsoring entity, and/or intermediaries.</P>
                    <P>FinCEN recognizes that certain private funds and other unregistered pooled investment vehicles may present lower risks for money laundering or terrorist financing than others. Consequently, FinCEN would not expect an investment adviser to risk-rate the advisory services it provides to a pooled investment vehicle that presents a lower risk the same as it might rate the advisory services it provides to other types of pooled investment vehicles that may present higher risks for attracting money launderers, terrorist financers, or other illicit actors. FinCEN requests comment on factors related to the activities, investors, or structure of private funds or other unregistered pooled investment vehicles that could be higher- or lower-risk. FinCEN also requests comment on how the proposed rule should apply to advisers who manage private funds that receive investments from in-funds or who have funds-of-funds who are investors.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Wrap Fee Programs.</E>
                         In a wrap fee program, investment advisory and brokerage services are provided together as a single product.
                        <SU>163</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For the purposes of this discussion, FinCEN will focus on wrap fee arrangements where an investment adviser is solely acting as a portfolio manager and generally managing the customer account to a selected model. In these programs, even if both advisers or broker-dealers are providing services, there is a single “relationship” entity that is responsible for the relationship with the customer, managing the account overall, and selecting the account strategy. That program sponsor has the primary relationship with the customer, which means that the program sponsor is typically best positioned to recognize illicit financial activity in the program.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>163</SU>
                             A “wrap fee program” for purposes of the proposed rule is a program under which investment advisory and brokerage execution services (as well as administrative expenses and other fees and expenses) are provided for a single “wrapped” (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             bundled) fee.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>While FinCEN recognizes the characteristics described above regarding the most common structure of wrap fee programs, it is not proposing to exempt wrap fee programs from coverage of the proposed rule. Depending on the structure of the wrap fee program, the investment adviser may be best positioned to spot illicit finance activity (if, for example, it is the program sponsor). Moreover, even a non-sponsoring investment adviser may have additional insights into the activity of the wrap fee program. FinCEN requests comments on how the requirements of the proposed rule can be applied to advisers participating in a wrap fee program, to include when an adviser acting as portfolio manager is either affiliated or not affiliated with the sponsoring entity of the program.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(b) Provide for Independent Testing for Compliance To Be Conducted by Company Personnel or by a Qualified Outside Party</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 1032.210(b)(2) would require that an investment adviser provide for independent testing of the AML/CFT program by the adviser's personnel or a qualified outside party. The purpose of this provision is to ensure that an investment adviser's AML/CFT program complies with the requirements of § 1032.210 and that the program functions as designed. Employees of either the investment adviser, its affiliates, or unaffiliated service providers may conduct the independent testing, so long as those same employees are not involved in the operation and oversight of the program.
                        <SU>164</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The employees would have to be knowledgeable regarding AML/CFT requirements and qualified to conduct independent testing. The frequency of the independent testing would depend upon the money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance risks of the adviser and the adviser's overall risk management strategy. For instance, an adviser could conduct independent testing 
                        <E T="03">over</E>
                         periodic intervals (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         every 12 to 18 months) or when there are significant changes in the adviser's risk profile (with respect to money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance risks), systems, compliance staff, or processes. More frequent independent testing may be appropriate when errors or deficiencies in some aspect of the AML/CFT compliance program have been identified or to verify or validate mitigating or remedial actions. Any recommendations resulting from such testing would need to be promptly implemented or submitted to senior management for consideration.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>164</SU>
                             As noted in this NPRM, some investment advisers may implement enterprise-wide AML/CFT programs that are evaluated at the holding company level. It would not be consistent with the requirements of this proposed regulation for an employee at an affiliated financial institution, including the holding company, to be responsible for testing the adviser's AML/CFT program, or carry out such testing, if the affiliate's employee is responsible for administering the adviser's AML/CFT program.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(c) Designate a Person or Persons Responsible for Implementing and Monitoring the Operations and Internal Controls of the Program</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 1032.210(b)(3) would require that an investment adviser designate a person or persons to be responsible for implementing and monitoring the operations and internal controls of the AML/CFT program. Under the proposed rule, an investment adviser may designate a single person or persons (including in a committee) to be responsible for compliance. The person or persons should be knowledgeable and competent regarding AML/CFT requirements, the adviser's relevant policies, procedures, and controls, as well as the adviser's money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance risk. The person or persons should have full responsibility and authority to develop and implement appropriate policies, procedures, and internal controls reasonably designed to prevent the investment adviser from being used for those risks. Whether the compliance officer is dedicated full time to AML/CFT compliance would depend on the size and type of advisory services the adviser provides and the customers it serves. A person designated as a compliance officer should be an officer 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12128"/>
                        of the investment adviser (or individual of similar authority within the particular corporate structure of the investment adviser) and someone who has established channels of communication with senior management demonstrating sufficient independence and access to resources to implement a risk-based and reasonably designed AML/CFT program.
                        <SU>165</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>165</SU>
                             In particular, RIAs who are subject to the SEC's Compliance Rule (17 CFR 275.206(4)-7), could designate their chief compliance officer under that rule to be responsible for this provision of the proposed rule. The proposed rule does not, however, require that an investment adviser designate the same person.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(d) Provide Ongoing Training for Appropriate Persons</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 1032.210(b)(4) would require that an investment adviser provide for ongoing training of appropriate persons. Employee training is an integral part of any AML/CFT program. To carry out their responsibilities effectively, employees of an investment adviser (and of any agent or third-party service provider that is charged with administering any portion of the investment adviser's AML/CFT program) would have to be trained in AML/CFT requirements relevant to their functions and to recognize possible signs of money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance activity that could arise in the course of their duties. Such training may be conducted through, among other things, outside or in-house seminars, and may include computer-based or virtual training. The nature, scope, and frequency of the investment adviser's training program would be determined by the responsibilities of the employees and the extent to which their functions would bring them in contact with AML/CFT requirements or possible money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activity. Consequently, under the proposed rule, the training program should provide a general awareness of overall AML/CFT requirements and money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance risks, as well as more job-specific guidance tailored to particular employees' roles and functions with respect to the entities' particular AML/CFT program.
                        <SU>166</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For those employees whose duties bring them in contact with AML/CFT requirements or possible money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance risks, the requisite training would have to occur when the employee assumes those duties. Moreover, these employees should receive periodic updates and refreshers regarding the AML/CFT program.
                        <SU>167</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>166</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See e.g.,</E>
                             DWS Investment Management Americas Inc., Investment Company Act Rel. No. 6431, ¶ 28 (Sept. 25, 2023) (noting DWS' failure to conduct AML training that was specific to the DWS Mutual Funds or the risks applicable to mutual funds for those employees with mutual fund responsibilities).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>167</SU>
                             The frequency of these periodic updates and refreshers would depend upon the money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance risks of the adviser and the adviser's overall risk management strategy.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(e) Ongoing Customer Due Diligence (CDD)</HD>
                    <P>Section 1032.210(b)(5) would require that an investment adviser implement appropriate risk-based procedures for conducting ongoing CDD that includes (i) understanding the nature and purpose of customer relationships for the purpose of developing a customer risk profile; and (ii) conducting ongoing monitoring to identify and report suspicious transactions and, on a risk basis, to maintain and update customer information.</P>
                    <P>
                        These obligations were added to the AML/CFT program requirements for financial institutions in May 2016, when FinCEN issued the CDD Rule.
                        <SU>168</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CDD Rule clarified and strengthened CDD requirements for covered financial institutions (banks, mutual funds, brokers or dealers in securities, futures commission merchants, and introducing brokers in commodities) and added a new requirement for these covered financial institutions to identify and verify the identity of the natural persons who own or control (known as beneficial owners of) legal entity customers when those customers open accounts.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>168</SU>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Customer Due Diligence Requirements for Financial Institutions,</E>
                             final rule, 81 FR 29398 (May 11, 2016).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CDD Rule identifies the four core elements of CDD: (1) identifying and verifying the identity of customers; (2) identifying and verifying the identity of the beneficial owners of legal entity customers opening accounts; (3) understanding the nature and purpose of customer relationships; and (4) conducting ongoing monitoring.
                        <SU>169</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN requests comment on the types of information investment advisers regularly receive from their customers, and how investment advisors would exchange information with other financial institutions, that could be used to understand the nature and purpose of the customer relationship and identify and monitor suspicious transactions.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>169</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 29398.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Requiring investment advisers to perform effective CDD so that they understand who their customers are and what type of transactions they conduct is a critical aspect of combating all forms of illicit finance activity, from terrorist financing and sanctions evasion to more traditional financial crimes, including money laundering, fraud, and tax evasion. These measures would also enable investment advisers to identify and report suspicious transactions by filing SARs in the manner that best serves the purposes of the BSA. For investment advisers covered by the proposed rule, FinCEN expects to address the first requirement of customer identification and verification in a future joint rulemaking with the SEC, as noted above, while the third and fourth elements of the CDD Rule are being incorporated into these AML/CFT Program requirements through proposed § 1032.210(b)(5).</P>
                    <P>FinCEN will take the first steps towards incorporating the second element by including investment advisers in the definition of “covered financial institution” under 31 CFR 1010.605(e)(1), discussed at further length below. However, the requirement to identify and verify the beneficial owners of legal entity customer accounts is predicated on the existence of a CIP requirement, which, as just stated, FinCEN anticipates addressing in the future joint rulemaking with the SEC.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CDD Rule is affected by the Corporate Transparency Act (CTA), passed as part of the AML Act. The CTA requires certain types of domestic and foreign entities, called “reporting companies,” to submit specified beneficial ownership information (BOI) to FinCEN.
                        <SU>170</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In certain circumstances, FinCEN is authorized to share this BOI with government agencies, financial institutions, and financial regulators, subject to appropriate protocols.
                        <SU>171</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>170</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See generally</E>
                             31 U.S.C. 5336(b), (c).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>171</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 U.S.C. 5336(c)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN is issuing three key rules pursuant to the CTA. The first rule—the BOI reporting rule—requires certain corporations, limited liability companies, and other entities created in or registered to do business in the United States to report information about their beneficial owners.
                        <SU>172</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This rule was promulgated on September 30, 2022.
                        <SU>173</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The second establishes rules for who may access BOI for what purposes, and what safeguards will be required to ensure that the information is secured and protected.
                        <SU>174</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This rule was promulgated on December 21, 2023 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12129"/>
                        and goes into effect on February 20, 2024.
                        <SU>175</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>172</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.380.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>173</SU>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Beneficial Ownership Information Reporting Requirements,</E>
                             final rule, 87 FR 59498 (Sep. 30, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>174</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.955.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>175</SU>
                             .FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Beneficial Ownership Information Access and Safeguards,</E>
                             final rule, 88 FR 88732 (Dec. 21, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CTA also requires FinCEN to revise the CDD Rule no later than January 1, 2025.
                        <SU>176</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN is required to rescind the existing specific beneficial ownership identification and verification requirements of 31 CFR 1010.230(b)-(j), while retaining the general requirement for financial institutions to identify and verify the beneficial owners of legal entity customers under 31 CFR 1010.230(a).
                        <SU>177</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN expects to undertake a third rulemaking to revise the CDD Rule and anticipates that, because of the changes required by the AML Act, such a rulemaking could have a significant impact on financial institutions' CDD obligations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>176</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             AML Act section 6403(d)(1) (“Not later than 1 year after the effective date of the regulations promulgated under section 5336(b)(4) of title 31, United States Code, as added by subsection (a) of this section, the Secretary of the Treasury shall revise the final rule entitled `Customer Due Diligence Requirements for Financial Institutions' . . . .”). The effective date of the relevant final rule is January 1, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>177</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             AML Act section 6403(d)(2) (“[T]he Secretary of the Treasury shall rescind paragraphs (b) through (j) of section 1010.230 of title 31 . . . upon the effective date of the revised rule promulgated under this subsection. Nothing in this section may be construed to authorize the Secretary of the Treasury to repeal the requirement that financial institutions identify and verify beneficial owners of legal entity customers under section 1010.230(a).”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In light of these anticipated forthcoming changes to the CDD Rule and the statutory deadline of January 1, 2025, to complete them, FinCEN assessed that investment advisers should not be required to apply the current CDD requirements to identify and verify the beneficial owners of legal entity customer accounts during the period between this proposed rulemaking and the effective date of the revised CDD Rule. Therefore, FinCEN has not included requirements to identify and verify the beneficial owners of legal entity customer accounts in this proposed rule. However, FinCEN invites comment regarding whether it should apply such requirements once a joint rulemaking addressing CIP requirements is finalized, notwithstanding the forthcoming CDD Rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Requirement to Identify and Verify Customers.</E>
                         Existing requirements for other BSA-defined financial institutions require that the relevant financial institution's CIP include risk-based procedures to verify the identity of each customer, to the extent reasonable and practicable. The elements of such program must include identifying the customer, verifying the customer's identity (through documents or non-documentary methods, or a combination thereof), procedures for circumstances where the institution cannot form a reasonable belief that it knows the true identity of the individual, and determining whether the names of customers appear on any government-provided list of known terrorists or terrorist organizations. As noted above, Treasury expects to address CIP requirements through a future joint rulemaking with the SEC, as required by section 326 of the USA PATRIOT Act.
                        <SU>178</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>178</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 U.S.C. 5318(
                            <E T="03">l</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Understand the Nature and Purpose of Customer Relationships to Develop Customer Risk Profiles.</E>
                         As is the case for banks, broker-dealers, and mutual funds, the term “customer risk profile” for covered investment advisers refers to information gathered—typically at the time of account opening or, in the case of a covered investment adviser, at the onset of an advisory relationship—about a customer to develop the baseline against which customer activity is assessed for suspicious activity reporting.
                    </P>
                    <P>Under the proposed rule, investment advisers are obligated to report suspicious activity by filing SARs on transactions that, among other things, have no business or apparent lawful purpose or are not the sort in which the particular customers would normally be expected to engage. Fulfilling this proposed requirement would necessitate that an investment adviser understands the nature and purpose of the customer relationship, which informs the baseline against which aberrant, suspicious transactions are identified. In some circumstances, an understanding of the nature and purpose of a customer relationship can also be developed by inherent or self-evident information about the product or customer type, such as the type of customer or the service or product offered, or other basic information about the customer, and such information may be sufficient to understand the nature and purpose of the relationship. This may include the customer's explanation about its initial decision to seek advisory services from the adviser and may be reflected in the particular type of advisory service the customer seeks, as well as information already collected by the investment adviser, such as net worth, domicile, citizenship, or principal occupation or business.</P>
                    <P>
                        For investment advisers, the risk associated with a particular type of customer may vary significantly. For instance, key risk factors for natural person customers may include the source of funds, the jurisdiction in which they reside, their country(ies) of citizenship, and their status as a PEP,
                        <SU>179</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         among other things. For legal entity customers, an investment adviser may consider the type of entity, the jurisdiction in which it is domiciled and located, and the statutory and regulatory regime of that jurisdiction for company formation and other financial transparency requirements, if relevant. The investment adviser's historical experience with the individual or entity and the references of other financial institutions may also be relevant factors.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>179</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See generally</E>
                             Joint Statement on Bank Secrecy Act Due Diligence Requirements for Customers Who May Be Considered Politically Exposed Persons, (Aug. 21, 2020), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fincen.gov/sites/default/files/shared/PEP%20Interagency%20Statement_FINAL%20508.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the legal entity customers of an adviser, some may be financial intermediaries or third parties that are BSA-defined financial institutions and have their own AML/CFT requirements. Consequently, the investment adviser may not always have a direct relationship with the investors in its legal entity customers. Those investors may be introduced to the adviser by other entities who or may or may not have their own AML/CFT obligations (such as a broker-dealer, other investment adviser, or other intermediary). For these intermediary entities, and even though investment advisers would not be required to categorically collect beneficial ownership information on legal entity customers, investment advisers should collect sufficient information such that they are able to detect and report suspicious activity associated with intermediated accounts, including activity related to underlying clients.
                        <SU>180</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN expects that non-intermediary legal entity customers that are not BSA-defined financial institutions with their own AML/CFT requirements would be subject to a different assessment than intermediary customers that are BSA-defined financial institutions for understanding the nature and purpose of the customer relationship. The requirement to assess customer risk laid out in this proposed rule must be understood in this context.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>180</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Customer Due Diligence Requirements for Financial Institutions,</E>
                             notice of proposed rulemaking, 79 FR 45141, 45161 (Aug. 4, 2014).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        For understanding the nature and purpose of customers who are private funds, FinCEN notes that investment advisers can (1) create and administer a private fund or (2) provide advice to a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12130"/>
                        private fund that is created and administered by a third party or an intermediary. While the particular role played by the investment adviser will affect the type of information the adviser can collect about the investors in such a fund, the adviser should collect sufficient information to develop a customer baseline for suspicious activity reporting regarding the private fund. FinCEN invites comments on other types of information, other than beneficial ownership information, that could be collected to understand the nature and purpose of a customer relationship with a private fund.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Ongoing Monitoring to Identify Suspicious Transactions and Update Customer Information.</E>
                         This element of CDD would oblige investment advisers to perform ongoing monitoring drawing on customer information, as well as to file SARs in a timely manner in accordance with their reporting obligations.
                        <SU>181</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As proposed, the obligation to update customer information would generally only be triggered when the investment adviser became aware of information as part of its normal monitoring relevant to assessing the potential risk posed by a customer; it is not intended to impose a categorical requirement to update customer information on a regularly occurring, pre-determined basis. Similar to the CDD obligations for mutual funds,
                        <SU>182</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         under the proposed § 1032.210(b)(5)(ii), investment advisers would be required to implement appropriate risk-based procedures to conduct ongoing monitoring to identify and report suspicious transactions and, on a risk basis, to maintain and update customer information.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>181</SU>
                             FinCEN's proposed SAR filing obligations for investment advisers are discussed below.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>182</SU>
                             31 CFR 1024.210(b)(5)(ii); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             FinCEN, 81 FR at 29424.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Ongoing monitoring may be accomplished in several ways. Customer information may be integrated into the financial institution's transaction monitoring system and may be used after a potentially suspicious transaction has been identified, as one means of determining whether the identified activity is suspicious. An investment adviser may also utilize the information sharing provisions under section 314(b) of the USA PATRIOT Act to request relevant information from other financial institutions that may hold relevant information, such as the qualified custodians of customer funds.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding legal entity customers, FinCEN assesses that in some circumstances, on a risk-basis, an investment adviser would not need information relating to investors in those legal entity customers to comply with the requirements of the ongoing monitoring obligation. However, in other circumstances, investment advisers may need to request information regarding investors in their legal entity customers. As FinCEN noted in the CDD Rule, the ongoing monitoring obligation is intended to apply to “all transactions by, at, or through the financial institution,” 
                        <SU>183</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and not just those that are direct customers of the financial institution. Given that risks posed by each customer differ, FinCEN finds that the level of risk posed by a customer relationship should be a factor influencing the decision to request information regarding underlying customers, and if the legal entity customer does not provide such information, how the investment adviser should adjust the risk profile of that legal entity customer. FinCEN is requesting comment on several aspects of the proposed requirement to apply CDD obligations described above.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>183</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Compliance Date.</E>
                         Section 1032.210(c) states the effective date by which an investment adviser would be required to comply with this section. Specifically, under this proposed rule, an investment adviser would be required to develop and implement an AML/CFT program that complies with the requirements of this section on or before twelve months from the effective date of the regulation.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Duty To Establish, Maintain, and Enforce an AML/CFT Program by Persons in the United States</HD>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN recognizes that many investment advisers are located outside the United States or contract certain of their operations outside the United States. As FinCEN seeks to harmonize this AML/CFT framework in a manner consistent with the SEC's existing framework for investment advisers, the proposed rule follows the scope of the SEC's registration requirements for RIAs and Form ADV filing requirements for ERAs. Consistent with longstanding SEC practice and guidance interpreting investment adviser registration requirements under the Advisers Act,
                        <SU>184</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         unless subject to an exemption, investment advisers located abroad generally must register with the SEC if they “make use of the mails or any means or instrumentality of interstate commerce in connection with [their] business as an investment adviser.” 
                        <SU>185</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The BSA permits FinCEN to regulate financial institutions located outside the United States in such circumstances, and FinCEN has previously similarly defined certain financial institutions on the basis of SEC registration, regardless of their physical location.
                        <SU>186</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In line with these requirements and SEC guidance, the proposed rule's requirements would therefore apply on the same basis to RIAs and ERAs located outside the United States.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>184</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 80b-3(a), (d); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             76 FR 39646, 39668-72 (Jul. 6, 2011).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>185</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 80b-3(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>186</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             31 CFR 1023.100(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>FinCEN requests comment on any challenges for investment advisers in following the scope of the SEC's registration and filing requirements for advisers located outside the United States and any potential conflicts with domestic and foreign law. FinCEN also requests comment on whether requiring such non-U.S. advisers to file reports of suspicious activity with FinCEN is consistent with how the applicable SAR rules are applied to broker-dealers or other BSA-defined financial institutions or poses any concerns under foreign law, including foreign privacy laws.</P>
                    <P>
                        For investment advisers covered by the proposed rule, it may be appropriate to outsource certain aspects of compliance with the proposed rule outside the United States. But section 6101(b)(2)(C) of the AML Act, codified at 31 U.S.C. 5318(h)(5), provides that the duty to establish, maintain, and enforce a financial institution's AML/CFT program shall remain the responsibility of, and be performed by, persons in the United States who are accessible to, and subject to oversight and supervision by, the Secretary of the Treasury and the appropriate Federal functional regulator.
                        <SU>187</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Proposed § 1032.210(d) would incorporate this statutory requirement with respect to the AML/CFT program by restating that the duty to establish, maintain, and enforce the AML/CFT program must remain the responsibility of, and be performed by, persons in the United States who are accessible to, and subject to oversight and supervision by, FinCEN and the financial institution's appropriate Federal functional regulator (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         for covered investment advisers, the SEC).
                        <SU>188</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>187</SU>
                             31 U.S.C. 5318(h)(5).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>188</SU>
                             Not all financial institutions that are required to have AML/CFT programs under the BSA have Federal functional regulators pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 6809.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN recognizes RIAs and ERAs (as well as other financial institutions) may currently have AML/CFT staff and operations outside of the United States to improve cost efficiencies, to enhance coordination particularly with respect to cross-border operations, or for other 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12131"/>
                        reasons. FinCEN requests comment on a variety of potential questions or challenges that may arise for financial institutions as they address this requirement, including questions about the scope of the requirement and the obligations of persons that are covered. FinCEN intends to consider whether additional interpretive language would be appropriate in a final rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Reports of Suspicious Transactions</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under the BSA, FinCEN (through a delegation from the Secretary) is authorized to require financial institutions to report suspicious transactions relevant to a possible violation of law or regulation.
                        <SU>189</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN has issued regulations under this authority requiring banks, casinos, money services businesses, broker-dealers in securities, mutual funds, insurance companies, futures commission merchants, loan or finance companies, futures commission merchants, and introducing brokers in commodities to report suspicious activity by submitting SARs to FinCEN.
                        <SU>190</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Suspicious activity reporting by these and other types of financial institutions provide information that is highly useful to law enforcement and regulatory investigations and proceedings, as well as in the conduct of intelligence activities to protect against international terrorism.
                        <SU>191</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>189</SU>
                             31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(1). As amended by the USA PATRIOT Act, subsection (g)(1) states generally that “the Secretary may require any financial institution, and any director, officer, employee, or agent of any financial institution, to report any suspicious transaction relevant to a possible violation of law or regulation.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>190</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1020.320, 1021.320, 1022.320, 1023.320, 1024.320, 1025.320, 1026.320, and 1029.320.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>191</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 U.S.C. 5311. 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Year in Review for FY 2022</E>
                             (Apr. 21, 2023) (providing additional information on the value of BSA data), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fincen.gov/sites/default/files/shared/FinCEN_Infographic_Public_2023_April_21_FINAL.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Accordingly, this proposed rule would add a new section to FinCEN regulations, proposed § 1032.320, that would similarly require investment advisers to file SARs for any suspicious transaction relevant to a possible violation of law or regulation. FinCEN would expect that requiring investment advisers to report suspicious activity would similarly provide highly useful information for investigations and proceedings involving domestic and international money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance activity, as well as for intelligence purposes. Requiring investment advisers to report suspicious activity would also narrow the regulatory gap that may be exploited by money launderers, terrorist financiers, or other illicit actors seeking access to the U.S. financial system through financial institutions not required to report suspicious transactions. The proposed requirement is also generally consistent with the existing SAR filing requirements for other financial institutions under existing regulations. As explained above, the proposed rule would not require investment advisers to file SARs with respect to any mutual fund that it advises.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Reports by Investment Advisers of Suspicious Transactions</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1032.320(a) sets forth the criteria for which an investment adviser would be obligated to report suspicious transactions that are conducted or attempted by, at, or through an investment adviser and involve or aggregate at least $5,000 in funds or other assets. Filing a report of a suspicious transaction would not relieve an investment adviser from the responsibility of complying with any other reporting requirement imposed by the SEC.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1032.320(a)(1) contains the general statement of the obligation to file reports of suspicious transactions. The obligation would extend to transactions conducted or attempted by, at, or through an investment adviser. To clarify that the proposed rule imposes a reporting requirement that is uniform with those for other financial institutions, § 1032.320(a)(1) incorporates language from the SAR rules applicable to other financial institutions, such as banks, broker-dealers in securities, mutual funds, casinos, and money services businesses.</P>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1032.320(a)(2) would require the reporting of suspicious activity that involves or aggregates at least $5,000 in funds or other assets. The $5,000 threshold in this proposed rule is consistent with the SAR filing requirements for most other financial institutions that are subject to a SAR reporting requirement under FinCEN's rules implementing the BSA.
                        <SU>192</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Furthermore, proposed § 1032.320(a)(1) would permit an investment adviser to report voluntarily any transaction the investment adviser believes is relevant to the possible violation of any law or regulation but that is not otherwise required to be reported by this proposed rule. Thus, the rule would encourage the voluntary reporting of suspicious transactions, such as those below the $5,000 threshold of the proposed rule in § 1032.320(a)(2). Such voluntary reporting would be subject to the same protection from liability as mandatory reporting pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(3).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>192</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1020.320(a), 1021.320(a), 1024.320(a), 1023.320(a), 1026.320(a), and 1029.320(a) (requiring mutual funds, broker-dealers in securities, banks, casinos, futures commission merchants and introducing brokers, and loan or finance companies to report suspicious transactions if they involve in the aggregate at least $5,000).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Section 1032.320(a)(2)(i) through (iv) specify that an investment adviser would be required to report a transaction if it knows, suspects, or has reason to suspect that the transaction (or a pattern of transactions of which the transaction is a part): (i) involves funds derived from illegal activity or is intended or conducted to hide or disguise funds or assets derived from illegal activity as a part of a plan to violate or evade any Federal law or regulation or to avoid any transaction reporting requirement under Federal law or regulation; (ii) is designed, whether through structuring or other means, to evade the requirements of the BSA; (iii) has no business or apparent lawful purpose, and the investment adviser knows of no reasonable explanation for the transaction after examining the available facts; or (iv) involves the use of the investment adviser to facilitate criminal activity.</P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed rule would also require, including through the obligation to conduct ongoing CDD, at proposed § 1032.210(b)(5), that an investment adviser evaluate customer activity and relationships for money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance risks and design a suspicious transaction monitoring program that is appropriate for the particular investment adviser in light of such risks. For some investment advisers, such a program may include information that may be held by a qualified custodian receiving and sending customer funds. Some of the types of suspicious activity an investment adviser may identify and report are transactions designed to hide the source or destination of funds and fraudulent activity. Other suspicious activity tied to private funds, particularly venture capital funds, could include an investor in such a fund requesting access to detailed non-public technical information about a portfolio company that is inconsistent with a professed focus on economic return. A money launderer also could engage in placement and layering by funding a managed account or investing in a private fund by using multiple wire transfers from different accounts maintained at different financial institutions or requesting that a transaction be processed in a manner to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12132"/>
                        avoid funds being transmitted through certain jurisdictions.
                    </P>
                    <P>Suspicious activity could include other unusual wire activity that does not correlate with a customer's stated investment objectives; transferring funds or other assets involving the accounts of third parties with no plausible relationship to the customer, transfers of funds or assets involving suspicious counterparties—such as those subject to adverse media, exhibiting shell company characteristics, or located in jurisdictions with which the customer has no apparent nexus; the customer behaving in a manner that suggests that the customer is acting as a “proxy” to manage the assets of a third party; or an unusual withdrawal request by a customer with ties to activity or individuals subject to U.S sanctions following or shortly prior to news of a potential sanctions listing. Additionally, suspicious activity could include potential fraud and manipulation of customer funds directed by the investment adviser. These typologies can consist of insider trading, market manipulation, or an unusual wire transfer request by an investment adviser from a private fund's account held for the fund's benefit at a qualified custodian.</P>
                    <P>FinCEN notes, however, that the techniques of money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance activity are continually evolving, and there is no way to provide a definitive list of suspicious transactions. A determination to file a SAR should be based on all the facts and circumstances relating to the transaction and the customer in question. As discussed above, FinCEN believes that investment advisers should be able to build upon existing policies, procedures, and internal controls they currently have in place to comply with the Federal securities laws to which they are subject to report suspicious activity.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 1032.320(a)(3) would provide that more than one investment adviser may have an obligation to report the same suspicious transaction and that other financial institutions may have separate obligations to report suspicious activity with respect to the same transaction pursuant to other provisions in the BSA. However, where more than one investment adviser, or another financial institution with a separate suspicious activity reporting obligation,
                        <SU>193</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         is involved in the same transaction, only one report jointly filed on behalf of all involved financial institutions would be required. FinCEN recognizes that other financial institutions, such as broker-dealers in securities, mutual funds, and banks have separate reporting obligations that may involve the same suspicious activity. Furthermore, as discussed above, some investment advisers are dually registered or affiliated with another financial institution. It would be permissible for either the investment adviser or the other financial institution to file a single joint report provided that the joint report contained all relevant facts and that each institution maintained a copy of the report and any supporting documentation. The same approach would apply when more than two financial institutions are involved. FinCEN requests comment on whether there are existing requirements under the Advisers Act or other laws or regulations that could assist investment advisers in complying with the proposed SAR requirements. FinCEN also requests comment on what guidance would be useful in identifying activity that may require the filing of a SAR.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>193</SU>
                             Other BSA-defined financial institutions, such as broker-dealers in securities, mutual funds, and banks have separate reporting obligations that may involve the same suspicious activity. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1023.320, 1024.320, 1020.320.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Filing and Notification Procedures</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1032.320(b)(1) through (4) sets forth the filing and notification procedures investment advisers would need to follow to make reports of suspicious transactions. Within 30 days of initial detection by the reporting investment adviser of facts that may constitute a basis for filing a SAR, the adviser would need to report the transaction by completing and filing a SAR with FinCEN in accordance with all form instructions and applicable guidance. The investment adviser would also need to collect and maintain supporting documentation relating to each SAR separately and make such documentation available to FinCEN, any Federal, State, or local law enforcement agency; or any Federal regulatory authority, such as the SEC, that examines the investment adviser for compliance with the BSA under the proposed rule, upon request of that agency or authority. Under the proposed rule with respect to SAR filing obligations for investment advisers, which are in line with existing SAR regulations for other BSA-defined financial institutions, any supporting documents filed with the SAR could also be disclosed to those authorities or agencies to whom a SAR may be disclosed. For situations requiring immediate attention, such as suspected terrorist financing or ongoing money laundering schemes, investment advisers would be required under § 1032.320(b)(4) to notify immediately by telephone the appropriate law enforcement authority in addition to filing a timely SAR.</P>
                    <P>FinCEN requests comment on how an investment adviser would apply the proposed SAR filing obligation for assets held by a qualified custodian. FinCEN also requests comment on whether there should be an exception to the proposed SAR filing requirement for certain violations that are appropriately reported to the SEC under the Federal securities laws, or for violations with respect to a mutual fund advised by the investment adviser. Lastly, FinCEN requests comment on whether the proposed SAR filing requirement would produce operational or other challenges.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Retention of Records</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1032.320(c) would provide that investment advisers must maintain copies of filed SARs and the underlying related documentation for a period of five years from the date of filing. As indicated above, supporting documentation would need to be made available to FinCEN and the prescribed law enforcement and regulatory authorities, upon request.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Confidentiality of SARs</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1032.320(d) would provide that a SAR and any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR are confidential and shall not be disclosed except as authorized in § 1032.320(d)(1)(ii). Section 1032.320(d)(1)(i) would generally provide that no investment adviser, and no current or former director, officer, employee, or agent of any investment adviser, shall disclose a SAR or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR. This provision of the proposed rule would further provide that any investment adviser and any current or former director, officer, employee, or agent of any investment adviser that is subpoenaed or otherwise requested to disclose a SAR or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, would decline to produce the SAR or such information and would be required to notify FinCEN of such a request and any response thereto. In addition to reports of suspicious activity required by the proposed rule, investment advisers would be prohibited from disclosing voluntary reports of suspicious activity.</P>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1032.320(d)(1)(ii) would provide three rules of construction that clarify the scope of the prohibition 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12133"/>
                        against the disclosure of a SAR by an investment adviser and closely parallel the rules of construction in the suspicious activity reporting rules for other financial institutions. As discussed above, the proposed rules of construction would primarily describe situations that are not covered by the prohibition against the disclosure of a SAR or information that would reveal the existence of a SAR contained in § 1032.320(d)(1). The rules of construction proposed in this rulemaking would remain qualified by, and subordinate to, the statutory mandate that revealing to one or more subjects of a SAR of the SAR's existence would remain a crime.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The first rule of construction, in § 1032.320(d)(1)(ii)(A)(
                        <E T="03">1</E>
                        ), would authorize an investment adviser, or any director, officer, employee or agent of an investment adviser, to disclose a SAR, or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, to various authorities—FinCEN; any Federal, State or local law enforcement agency; or a Federal regulatory authority that examines the investment adviser for compliance with the BSA—provided that no person involved in the reported transaction is notified that the transaction has been reported. As discussed above, FinCEN is proposing to delegate its examination authority for compliance by investment advisers with FinCEN's rules implementing the BSA to the SEC.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The second rule of construction, in § 1032.320(d)(1)(ii)(A)(
                        <E T="03">2</E>
                        ), would provide two instances where disclosures of underlying facts, transactions, and documents upon which a SAR was based would be permissible: in connection with (i) preparation of a joint SAR or (ii) certain employment references or termination notices. An investment adviser, or any current or former director, officer, employee, or agent of an investment adviser, therefore, would not be prohibited from disclosing the underlying facts, transactions, and documents upon which a SAR is based, including but not limited to, disclosures of such information to another financial institution or any director, officer, employee, or agent of a financial institution, for the preparation of a joint SAR, provided that no person involved in the reported transaction is notified that the transaction has been reported.
                        <SU>194</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Similarly, an investment adviser, or any current or former director, officer, employee, or agent of an investment adviser would not be prohibited from disclosing the underlying facts, transactions, and documents upon which a SAR is based connection with certain employment references or termination notices, to the full extent authorized in 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(2)(B).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>194</SU>
                             To the extent permitted by existing FinCEN regulations and guidance, this would include non-U.S. financial institutions.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The third rule of construction, in § 1032.320(d)(1)(ii)(B), would authorize sharing of a SAR within an investment adviser's corporate organizational structure for purposes consistent with the BSA as determined by regulation or in guidance.</P>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN recognizes that the sharing of SARs and other relevant information indicative of illicit activity can strengthen the ability of financial institutions to prevent illicit finance activity from entering the U.S. financial system. FinCEN will consider permitting investment advisers to share SARs with certain U.S. affiliates, provided the affiliate is subject to a regulation providing for the confidentiality of SARs issued by FinCEN or by the affiliate's Federal functional regulator, and consistent with SAR sharing guidance finalized in 2010 and applicable to other BSA-defined financial institutions.
                        <SU>195</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN requests comment on this specific issue. FinCEN further requests comment on whether there are other entities or activities where the sharing of SARs would further the purposes of the BSA, and if so, how such sharing would be consistent with the BSA and how investment advisers would be able to maintain the confidentiality of shared SARs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>195</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Sharing Suspicious Activity Reports by Securities Broker-Dealers, Mutual Funds, Futures Commission Merchants, and Introducing Brokers in Commodities with Certain U.S. Affiliates,</E>
                             FIN-2010-G005 (Nov. 23, 2010); FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Sharing Suspicious Activity Reports by Depository Institutions with Certain U.S. Affiliates,</E>
                             FIN-2010-G006 (Nov. 23, 2010).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Section 1032.320(d)(2) would also incorporate the statutory prohibition against disclosure of SAR information by government authorities that have access to SARs other than in fulfillment of their official duties consistent with the BSA. The paragraph would clarify that official duties do not include the disclosure of SAR information in response to a request by a non-governmental entity for non-public information 
                        <SU>196</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         or for use in a private legal proceeding, including a request under 31 CFR 1.11.
                        <SU>197</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Accordingly, the provision would not permit such disclosure by government users in response to these requests or uses.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>196</SU>
                             For purposes of this rulemaking, “non-public information” refers to information that is exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>197</SU>
                             31 CFR 1.11 is the Department of the Treasury's regulation governing demands for testimony or the production of records of Department employees and former employes in a court or other proceeding.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Limitation of Liability</HD>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1032.320(e) would provide protection from liability, also known as safe harbor, for making either required or voluntary reports of suspicious transactions, or for failures to provide notice of such disclosure to any person identified in the disclosure to the full extent provided by 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(3).
                        <SU>198</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This protection would extend to an investment adviser and any current or former director, officer, employee, or agent of an investment adviser.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>198</SU>
                             To encourage the reporting of possible violations of law or regulation and the filing of SARs, the BSA contains a safe harbor provision that shields financial institutions making such reports from civil liability. In 2001, the USA PATRIOT Act clarified that the safe harbor also covers voluntary disclosure of possible violations of law and regulations to a government agency and expanded the scope of the safe harbor to cover any civil liability which may exist under any contract or other legally enforceable agreement (including any arbitration agreement). 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             USA PATRIOT Act, section 351(a). Public Law 107-56, Title III, 351, 115 Stat. 272, 321(2001); 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Compliance</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1032.320(f) would note that FinCEN or its delegates would examine compliance by investment advisers with the obligation to report suspicious transactions and provide that failure to comply with the proposed rule may constitute a violation of the BSA and FinCEN's regulations. As discussed above, pursuant to 31 CFR 1010.810(a), FinCEN has overall authority for enforcement and compliance with its regulations, including coordination and direction of procedures and activities of all other agencies exercising delegated authority. Further, pursuant to § 1010.810(d), FinCEN has the authority to impose civil penalties for violations of the BSA and its regulations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Consultation</HD>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN will consult on the SAR filing requirements contained in the proposed rule with the Attorney General and appropriate representatives of State bank supervisors, State credit union supervisors, and the Federal functional regulator as required by section 6202 of the AML Act of 2020 (codified at 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(5)). Pursuant to this section, in imposing any requirement to report any suspicious transaction under this subsection, the Secretary of the Treasury, in consultation with the Attorney General, appropriate 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12134"/>
                        representatives of State bank supervisors, State credit union supervisors, and the Federal functional regulators, shall consider items that include—
                    </P>
                    <P>• the national priorities established by the Secretary;</P>
                    <P>• the purposes described in section 5311 of the BSA; and</P>
                    <P>
                        • the means by or form in which the Secretary shall receive such reporting, including the burdens imposed by such means or form of reporting on persons required to provide such reporting, the efficiency of the means or form, and the benefits derived by the means or form of reporting by Federal law enforcement agencies and the intelligence community in countering financial crime, including money laundering and the financing of terrorism.
                        <SU>199</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>199</SU>
                             31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(5).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        These items have been considered by the Treasury as described elsewhere in this proposed rule. The AML/CFT National Priorities include combatting corruption, fraud, and transnational crime.
                        <SU>200</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For example, as discussed in section II.C above, the absence of AML/CFT requirements for investment advisers, including SAR filing requirements, enables criminals to gain access to the U.S. financial system for purposes of fraud, laundering the proceeds of corruption, and other forms of transnational crime. For these reasons, and the risk of foreign adversaries using investment advisers to gain access to U.S. technology as discussed in section II.C.2, requiring investment advisers to file SARs will be highly useful for criminal and regulatory investigations and intelligence or counterintelligence activities to combat terrorism, and are otherwise consistent with the purposes set forth in section 5311 of the BSA. This section, particularly subsection F.2, details the typologies that should be reported and how advisers may do so in a risk-based manner most beneficial to Federal law enforcement and intelligence agencies.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>200</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Anti-Money Laundering and Countering the Financing of Terrorism National Priorities (FinCEN, AML/CFT Priorities),</E>
                             (Jun. 30, 2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fincen.gov/sites/default/files/shared/AML_CFTPriorities(June30%2C2021).pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Through this rulemaking process, Treasury will consult with the relevant State and Federal regulators. This proposed rule has already been sent to the Department of Justice and to the SEC as the Federal functional regulator for investment advisers for interagency consultation, and their input on this issue has been invited. Federal banking regulators have also been invited to comment on all aspects of this proposed rule. Treasury plans to reach out to the Conference of State Banking Supervisors as a representative of State banking and credit union supervisors for consultation on this issue and such supervisors are invited to comment on this proposed rule through the public comment process as well.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Special Information-Sharing Procedures To Deter Money Laundering and Terrorist Activity</HD>
                    <P>
                        Proposed §§ 1032.500, 1032.520, and 1032.540 would expressly subject investment advisers to FinCEN's rules implementing the special information-sharing procedures to detect money laundering or terrorist activity of sections 314(a) and 314(b) of the USA PATRIOT Act.
                        <SU>201</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Section 314(a) provides that the Secretary of the Treasury adopt regulations to encourage the further cooperation and sharing of information regarding credible evidence of terrorist acts or money laundering activities among financial institutions, their regulatory authorities, and law enforcement authorities.
                        <SU>202</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Section 314(b) provides financial institutions with the ability to share information regarding parties suspected of possible terrorist or money laundering activities with another financial institution upon notice to the Treasury under a safe harbor that offers protections from liability.
                        <SU>203</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>201</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.520, 1010.540.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>202</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 U.S.C. 5311 (statutory notes).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>203</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN's regulations at 31 CFR part 1010, subpart E—in particular, 31 CFR 1010.520 and 1010.540—implement sections 314(a) and 314(b) of the USA PATRIOT Act, respectively. Section 1010.520, regarding information sharing with government agencies, applies to financial institutions generally. Section 1010.540, regarding voluntary information sharing between financial institutions, applies to financial institutions that are required to have AML/CFT programs—
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         financial institutions that have not been exempted from that requirement—with certain exclusions. In contrast to the approach described above, FinCEN proposes to require investment advisers to apply these requirements to any mutual funds that they advise.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        This proposed rule, by designating investment advisers as financial institutions under the BSA, would apply 1010.520 and 1010.540 to investment advisers. Proposed §§ 1032.500, 1032.520, and 1032.540, moreover, would explicitly subject investment advisers to the provisions of §§ 1010.520 and 1010.540. Section 1032.500 would state generally that investment advisers are subject to the special information sharing procedures of subpart E. In turn, proposed 1032.520 would cross-reference 31 CFR 1010.520, and proposed § 1032.540 would cross-reference 31 CFR 1010.540, expressly applying these provisions to investment advisers. The proposed provisions, therefore, would make clear that FinCEN's rules implementing section 314 would apply to investment advisers. These provisions generally would require an investment adviser, upon request from FinCEN, to expeditiously search its records for specified information to determine whether the investment adviser maintains or has maintained any account for, or has engaged in any transaction with, an individual, entity, or organization named in FinCEN's request.
                        <SU>204</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         An investment adviser would then be required to report any such identified information to FinCEN.
                        <SU>205</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>204</SU>
                             31 CFR 1010.520(b)(3)(i).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>205</SU>
                             31 CFR 1010.520(b)(3)(ii).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN is proposing to apply these information sharing requirements so that investment advisers would be better able to identify and report money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance activity, and the U.S. Government would have a more detailed understanding of illicit finance activity and risk among investment advisers. Under the proposed rule, which adopts by reference 31 CFR. 1010.540, law enforcement would be able to request from investment advisers, where there is reasonable suspicion and credible evidence, potential lead information that might otherwise never be uncovered.
                        <SU>206</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Further, investment advisers would be able to participate in voluntary section 314(b) information sharing arrangements, through which they would be able to gather additional information from other financial institutions, which would enable broader understanding of customer risk and filing of/or file more comprehensive SARs, for example.
                        <SU>207</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>206</SU>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">FinCEN's 314(a) Fact Sheet</E>
                             (Sept. 5, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fincen.gov/sites/default/files/shared/314afactsheet.pdf.</E>
                             Covered financial institutions are instructed not to reply to the 314(a) request if a search does not uncover any matching of accounts or transactions.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>207</SU>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">FinCEN's 314(b) Fact Sheet</E>
                             (Dec. 2020), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fincen.gov/sites/default/files/shared/314bfactsheet.pdf</E>
                             (noting, in part, that participation in information sharing pursuant to section 314(b) is voluntary, and FinCEN strongly encourages financial institutions to participate).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN seeks comment on whether the proposed rule should apply the special information sharing procedures 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12135"/>
                        under 31 CFR 1010.520 and 1010.540 to investment advisers. FinCEN also seeks comment on the circumstances under which investment advisers would enter into voluntary 314(b) information sharing arrangements.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Special Standards of Diligence; Prohibitions; and Special Measures for Investment Advisers</HD>
                    <P>FinCEN's regulations contain several standards, prohibitions, and other requirements for financial institutions under certain circumstances in 31 CFR part 1010, subpart F (31 CFR 1010.600 through 1010.670). FinCEN is proposing to apply several of these provisions to investment advisers. FinCEN would reflect this in a general cross-reference, proposed § 1032.600, that would state that investment advisers are subject to those “special standards of diligence; prohibitions; and special measures”, and explicitly cross-reference 31 CFR part 1010, subpart F. FinCEN does not propose to permit investment advisers to exempt from any mutual funds that they advise these requirements under Subpart F. FinCEN is also proposing several other regulatory changes to apply these provisions to investment advisers as discussed further below.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Definition of “Correspondent Account” and “Covered Financial Institution”</HD>
                    <P>FinCEN is proposing to amend two definitions in 31 CFR 1010.605 as these definitions would apply to investment advisers. First, it would amend the definition of “account” in § 1010.605(c), as applied to the meaning of “correspondent account,” to include, as applied to investment advisers, “any contractual or other business relationship established between a person and an investment adviser to provide advisory services.” FinCEN seeks public comment on this definition—and more broadly how the concept of a “correspondent account” may apply to investment advisers, to the extent investment advisers establish accounts to handle financial transactions, such as treasury investment clearing, for foreign financial institutions.</P>
                    <P>
                        Second, FinCEN is also proposing to revise 31 CFR 1010.605(e)(1) (as well as add corresponding cross-references as proposed §§ 1032.610 and 1032.620) to include investment advisers in the definition of “covered financial institution.” This would have several effects. First, it would expressly subject investment advisers to FinCEN's rules implementing special standards of due diligence for correspondent accounts established or maintained for foreign financial institutions and private banking accounts established or maintained for non-U.S. persons.
                        <SU>208</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As described previously and discussed at greater length below, defining investment advisers as “covered financial institutions” would ordinarily place investment advisers within the scope of requirements for the collection and verification of beneficial ownership information of legal entity customers as laid out in § 1010.230. However, as described above, FinCEN expects that the requirement to collect and verify beneficial ownership information for legal entity customers to be addressed in a future rulemaking. Accordingly, the proposed revised § 1010.605(e)(1) would expressly provide that an investment adviser would not be considered a “covered financial institution” for the purposes of § 1010.230.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>208</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.610 and 1010.620. FinCEN notes that it does not propose in this rulemaking to amend the definition of “private banking account” at 31 CFR 1010.605(m).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Special Standards for Diligence</HD>
                    <P>
                        Proposed §§ 1032.610 and 1032.620 adopt by reference §§ 1010.610 and 1010.620, which rely on definitions in 1010.605 in implementing section 312 of the USA PATRIOT Act. Section 312 of the USA PATRIOT Act establishes special due diligence requirements for private banking and correspondent bank accounts involving foreign persons.
                        <SU>209</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Because the due diligence requirements of §§ 1010.610 and 1010.620 apply to “a covered financial institution” as defined by § 1010.605(e)(1), adding investment advisers to this definition, as discussed, would subject investment advisers to the requirements of §§ 1010.610 and 1010.620. The proposed rule would add cross references (proposed §§ 1032.610 and 1032.620) in the proposed investment adviser regulatory part of the FinCEN regulations, part 1032, directing investment advisers to the due diligence requirements of §§ 1010.610 and 1010.620.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>209</SU>
                             Public Law 107-56, section 312 (Oct. 26, 2011), codified as 31 U.S.C. 5318(i).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Section 312's implementing regulations require that covered financial institutions maintain due diligence programs for correspondent accounts for foreign financial institutions and for private banking accounts that include policies, procedures, and controls that are reasonably designed to detect and report any known or suspected money laundering or suspicious activity conducted through or involving any such correspondent or private banking accounts.
                        <SU>210</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These provisions also set certain minimum standards for such due diligence programs, as well as procedures for enhanced due diligence for correspondent accounts for foreign banks 
                        <SU>211</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and private banking accounts for senior foreign political figures.
                        <SU>212</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>210</SU>
                             31 CFR 1010.610 through 1010.620.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>211</SU>
                             31 CFR 1010.610(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>212</SU>
                             31 CFR 1010.620(c).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Applying these special standards of due diligence to investment advisers would assist RIAs and ERAs in understanding risk and identifying illicit activity in certain intermediated advisory relationships. Specifically, these standards would address relationships with high-net worth non-U.S. customers and foreign financial institutions that may be acting on behalf of higher-risk non-U.S. customers, when those relationships involve correspondent accounts for foreign financial institutions or private banking accounts.</P>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN's proposed rule would subject investment advisers to special due diligence standards consistent with the special due diligence standards applied to similarly situated financial institutions under the BSA. For instance, mutual funds, which are advised by RIAs, are already subject to the section 312 requirements.
                        <SU>213</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN requests comment on whether it is appropriate to apply the special due diligence requirements for correspondent and private banking accounts as proposed at §§ 1032.610 and 1032.620 to investment advisers, and if doing so would further the purposes of the BSA and protect the U.S. financial system from national security threats.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>213</SU>
                             31 CFR 1024.610 and 1024.630.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Special Measures</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 311 of the USA PATRIOT Act requires U.S. financial institutions to implement certain “special measures” if the Secretary finds that reasonable grounds exist to conclude that a foreign jurisdiction, institution, class of transaction, or type of account is a “primary money laundering concern.” 
                        <SU>214</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Section 9714(a) of the Combatting Russian Money Laundering Act allows for similar special measures in the context of Russian illicit finance.
                        <SU>215</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN is proposing that investment advisers be required to comply with special measures issued pursuant to sections 311 and 9714(a) in order to maintain the options available under these sections to protect the U.S. financial system from certain illicit finance threats and to require investment advisers to meet obligations 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12136"/>
                        consistent with obligations imposed on other BSA-defined financial institutions under sections 311 and 9714 special measures.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>214</SU>
                             31 U.S.C. 5318A.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>215</SU>
                             Section 9714 (as amended) can be found in a note to 31 U.S.C. 5318A.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As noted above, proposed § 1032.600 would state generally that investment advisers are subject to FinCEN special measures as set forth in subpart F of part 1010 and would cross-reference 31 CFR part 1010, subpart F, which includes section 311 special measures. FinCEN is not proposing any other regulatory changes specifically to apply sections 311 and 9714 special measures to investment advisers. Some special measures, however, base their scope in part on 31 CFR 1010.605's definition of “covered financial institution.” 
                        <SU>216</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Thus, by amending that definition to include investment advisers, as discussed, the proposed rule would be expressly placing investment advisers among the financial institutions subject to these special measures. FinCEN requests comment on whether investment advisers enter into advisory relationships that are similar to a “private banking account” relationship as defined at 31 CFR 1010.605.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>216</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.658(a)(3), 1010.659(a)(5), 1010.660(a)(3), and 1010.661(a)(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Request for Comment</HD>
                    <P>FinCEN seeks comment on the rule proposed here and whether the proposed rule is appropriate in light of the nature of investment adviser activities and money laundering, terrorism financing, and other illicit finance risks associated with investment advisers. In particular, FinCEN seeks comment on the following aspects of the proposed rule. For all responses, commenters are encouraged to provide the basis for any conclusions drawn in their comments.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Definition of Investment Adviser</HD>
                    <P>FinCEN requests comment on all aspects of the definition of “investment adviser” as proposed in § 1010.100(nnn). In particular:</P>
                    <P>• Is the definition of “investment adviser” sufficiently clear?</P>
                    <P>• Are there classes of investment advisers included in the proposed definition of investment adviser that present a very low risk for money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activity such that they should appropriately be excluded from the definition? If so, why would it be appropriate to exclude such advisers from the definition as opposed to retaining those advisers in the definition and requiring them to adopt an AML/CFT program that is appropriate to their level of risk?</P>
                    <P>• To what extent are State-registered and foreign investment advisers that do not meet the definition of “investment adviser” proposed here at risk for being used for money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activity? Should these types of advisers be included in the proposed definition?</P>
                    <P>• Are there other types of investment advisers that may not meet the definition in the proposed rule that are at risk for abuse by money launderers, terrorist financers, or other illicit actors that should also be subject to the proposed rule for RIAs and ERAs and the corresponding supervision and examination? Are there any entities excluded from the definition of “investment adviser” under section 202(a)(11) of the Advisers Act, such as family offices, that are at risk for such abuses?</P>
                    <P>• Should ERAs be excluded from the proposed definition of investment adviser? How could FinCEN otherwise address the money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance risk associated with ERAs? Are there such risks that are specific to ERAs?</P>
                    <P>• With regard to ERAs, are there differences in the risks associated with an adviser that qualifies for and elects to use the exemption under section 203(l) of the Advisers Act as compared to those associated with an adviser that qualifies for and elects to use the exemption under section 203(m) of the Advisers Act that would warrant different treatment under the BSA and the rule proposed here? If so, please offer examples of how each group may be treated under the proposed rule noting how their treatment differs in line with their differing risks.</P>
                    <P>• Are there certain services or activities provided by investment advisers that present a very low risk for money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activity such that they could appropriately be excluded, or cases where applying AML/CFT requirements would result in information of limited value to law enforcement and regulators? Please provide specific examples if so.</P>
                    <P>• Should the definition of investment adviser apply to non-U.S. advisers registered or required to register with the SEC (for RIAs) or that report to the SEC on Form ADV (for ERAs)? What would be the logistical challenges of this approach?</P>
                    <P>• What are the benefits to and challenges of requiring such non-U.S. advisers to file reports of suspicious activity with FinCEN on activities involving U.S. customers or the U.S. financial system?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Proposed Requirement To Require Advisers To File CTRs and Comply With the Recordkeeping and Travel Rules</HD>
                    <P>FinCEN requests comment on the application of the Recordkeeping and Travel Rules and CTR filing requirements. In particular:</P>
                    <P>• Are there circumstances where investment advisers should be exempt from complying with the requirements of the Recordkeeping and Travel Rules?</P>
                    <P>• Do other BSA-defined financial institutions, such as qualified custodians, already collect and record this information for customers of investment advisers that they facilitate transactions for?</P>
                    <P>• To what extent do investment advisers already regularly and consistently collect the information required under the Recordkeeping and Travel Rules? If you or your firm would be subject to these requirements, to what extent would it represent an additional regulatory cost?</P>
                    <P>• To what extent do investment advisers work with qualified custodians to maintain separate accounts, subaccounts, or similar products and services to manage a customer's funds, including for purposes of effecting wire transfers?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. AML/CFT Program Requirement</HD>
                    <P>FinCEN requests comment on all aspects of the proposed AML/CFT program requirement for investment advisers. In particular:</P>
                    <P>• Which existing requirements under the Advisers Act or the regulations adopted thereunder, or other laws or regulations, could assist investment advisers in complying with the proposed AML/CFT Program requirements? Are any such existing requirements duplicative with any proposed requirements?</P>
                    <P>• Which existing measures, such as any existing policies and procedures, to implement OFAC sanctions may investment advisers be able to rely on to comply with certain requirements in the proposed rule?</P>
                    <P>• Would an exemption from the requirements of the proposed rule with respect to customers that are mutual funds be consistent with the purposes of the BSA and avoiding duplication of existing AML/CFT requirements for mutual funds?</P>
                    <P>
                        • Instead of exempting investment advisers from the requirements of the proposed rule with respect to customers that are mutual funds, should the proposed rule permit investment advisers and their mutual fund 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12137"/>
                        customer to delegate their AML obligations amongst each other?
                    </P>
                    <P>• Should investment advisers to mutual funds still be required to monitor for and file SARs on the mutual fund investors? Why or why not?</P>
                    <P>• Should the exemption for mutual funds be dependent on the nature of the relationship between the investment adviser and its mutual fund customer and the ability of the investment adviser to meet AML/CFT obligations?</P>
                    <P>• Other than mutual funds, are there other categories of entities that could be, on a risk-basis, reasonably exempted from an investment adviser's AML/CFT program? Why or why not?</P>
                    <P>• Should we require an investment adviser to include in its AML/CFT program all of the advisory services it provides, including whether acting as the primary adviser or a subadviser?</P>
                    <P>• Are there certain subadvisory activities or circumstances that should be included or excluded from coverage of this proposed rule, such as the specific services provided as a subadviser or the particular type of investment adviser serving as the primary adviser?</P>
                    <P>• To what extent would a subadviser's AML/CFT program overlap with the primary adviser's AML/CFT program and how could possible duplication of effort be mitigated? For example, should the proposed rule expressly permit a subadviser to consider the existence and operation of the primary adviser's program in satisfying the subadviser's own obligations?</P>
                    <P>• Is there an increased risk for a subadviser to be used for money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activity when providing advisory services to a customer that has a primary adviser that is not an investment adviser (as defined in the proposed rule)?</P>
                    <P>• Are there other similar arrangements where an investment adviser may be sub-contracted to provide services to another investment adviser that should or should not be in scope of an investment adviser's AML/CFT program?</P>
                    <P>• Do investment advisers that are affiliated with a dually registered bank or broker-dealer currently apply AML/CFT program requirements and other AML/CFT measures applicable to the bank or broker-dealer in any of their advisory activities? If so, which activities and which requirements are applied?</P>
                    <P>• How do investment advisers that are subsidiaries of banks currently apply AML/CFT measures that are applicable to their parent banks?</P>
                    <P>• How do investment advisers that are affiliated with a bank or broker-dealer apply enterprise-wide AML/CFT requirements? Are there certain enterprise-wide AML/CFT requirements that are presently tailored to address the risks arising in advisory activities?</P>
                    <P>• What information do fund administrators currently collect that would support implementation of the proposed rule?</P>
                    <P>
                        • Is it appropriate to allow an adviser to delegate some elements of its AML/CFT program to an entity with which the customer, and 
                        <E T="03">not</E>
                         the adviser, has the contractual relationship? This would include entities providing services to funds advised by the RIA or ERA.
                    </P>
                    <P>• Are there challenges for delegating certain requirements of the proposed rule to fund administrators? Are there differences in those challenges for fund administrators whose operations are primarily conducted inside the United States compared to those whose operations are primarily conducted outside of the United States?</P>
                    <P>• Can fund administrators whose operations are primarily conducted outside of the United States collect and provide information on offshore pooled investment vehicles when that information is requested by a U.S. investment adviser? What types of challenges might U.S. investment advisers face in receiving such information?</P>
                    <P>• If some or all requirements of the proposed rule are delegated to fund administrators whose operations are primarily conducted outside of the United States, will the investment adviser be able to effectively monitor implementation of those requirements?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Proposed Minimum Requirements of the AML/CFT Program</HD>
                    <P>FinCEN seeks comment on the minimum requirements for an investment adviser's AML/CFT program as proposed in § 1032.210(b). In particular:</P>
                    <P>• Should closed-end registered funds, wrap fee programs, or other types of accounts advised by investment advisers be, on a risk-basis, reasonably exempted from an investment adviser's AML/CFT program?</P>
                    <P>• How can the requirements of the proposed rule be applied to advisers participating in a wrap fee program, to include when an adviser acting as portfolio manager is either affiliated or not affiliated with the sponsoring entity of the program?</P>
                    <P>• The requirements of 31 U.S.C. 5318(h)(5) state that the “duty to establish, maintain and enforce” the financial institution's AML/CFT program “shall remain the responsibility of, and be performed by, persons in the United States who are accessible to, and subject to oversight and supervision by, the Secretary of the Treasury and the appropriate Federal functional regulator.” FinCEN invites comments on how this would impact RIAs and ERAs, including the extent to which compliance with this requirement would require changes to existing AML/CFT programs and estimated associated costs with any such changes.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Applicability to Private Funds</HD>
                    <P>• What information is currently available to advisers to private funds regarding the investors in private funds that could help advisers comply with the proposed AML/CFT Program requirement?</P>
                    <P>• Are there other factors related to the activities, investors, or structure of a private fund that could be higher- or lower-risk?</P>
                    <P>• Should a subadviser to a private fund or other unregistered pooled investment vehicle with a primary adviser that is not an investment adviser (as defined in the proposed rule) be required to establish the same policies, procedures, and internal controls as when the primary adviser is an investment adviser (as defined in the proposed rule)?</P>
                    <P>• If an investor in the private fund or other unregistered pooled investment vehicle is itself a pooled investment vehicle, should a subadviser to the private fund be required to identify risks and incorporate policies, procedures, and internal controls within its AML/CFT program to mitigate the risks of the investing pooled investment vehicle's investors, sponsoring entity, and/or intermediaries when there is an increased risk of money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit activity? How might a subadviser identify when increased risks are present?</P>
                    <P>• How should the proposed rule apply to advisers who manage private funds that receive investments from in-funds? To what extent should advisers be able to rely on the AML/CFT Program of advisers to other funds?</P>
                    <P>
                        • How should the proposed rule apply to an adviser to a private fund who has funds-of-funds who are investors? To what extent should they be able to rely on the AML/CFT Program of advisers who advise funds-of-funds?
                        <PRTPAGE P="12138"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Risk-Based Procedures for Ongoing Customer Due Diligence</HD>
                    <P>• What customer diligence procedures do RIAs already have in place to meet the representations in the SIFMA No-Action Letter? Do ERAs have similar procedures in place?</P>
                    <P>• What other types of information do investment advisers regularly receive from their customers that could be used to understand the nature and purpose of a customer relationship?</P>
                    <P>• How would investment advisers exchange information with other financial institutions involved in facilitating customer transactions, such as qualified custodians, to understand the nature and purpose of a customer relationship and conduct ongoing monitoring to identify suspicious transactions?</P>
                    <P>• How may investment advisers apply the requirement for ongoing monitoring to identify suspicious transactions differently than other financial institutions, such as banks and broker-dealers?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Identification and Verification of Beneficial Owners of Legal Entity Customers</HD>
                    <P>• Do you agree with the proposal to wait to apply the requirement to collect and verify the beneficial ownership information of legal entity accounts at § 1010.230 to investment advisers until at or after the CTA-mandated revisions to the CDD Rule, or should Treasury apply the existing requirement as soon as a CIP requirement for investment advisers is effective?</P>
                    <P>• What types of information regarding private funds, other than beneficial ownership information, could an investment adviser collect to understand the nature and purpose of a customer relationship with a private fund and conduct ongoing monitoring to identify suspicious transactions involving the private fund?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Proposed Suspicious Activity Reporting Rule</HD>
                    <P>FinCEN seeks comment on all aspects of the suspicious activity reporting rule as proposed in § 1032.320. In particular:</P>
                    <P>• Which existing requirements under the Advisers Act or other laws or regulations could assist investment advisers in complying with the proposed SAR requirements?</P>
                    <P>• Should there be an exception to the proposed SAR filing requirement for certain violations that are appropriately reported to the SEC under the Federal securities laws?</P>
                    <P>• Should there be an exception to the proposed SAR filing requirement for violations with respect to a mutual fund advised by the investment adviser, as proposed? If not, would requiring investment advisers to file SARs while exempting mutual funds from an investment adviser's AML/CFT program (as proposed) produce any operational or other difficulties or challenges?</P>
                    <P>• What guidance would be useful in identifying activity that may require the filing of a SAR?</P>
                    <P>• How would an investment adviser apply the proposed SAR filing obligation for assets held by a qualified custodian? How would an investment adviser obtain, share, and receive information about a customer or transactions with a qualified custodian regarding potential suspicious activity?</P>
                    <P>• Would the ability to share SARs with corporate affiliates that are subject to their own SAR confidentiality regulation assist in furthering the purposes of the BSA?</P>
                    <P>• Are there other entities or activities where the sharing of SARs would further the purposes of the BSA? How would such sharing be consistent with the purposes of the BSA and how would investment advisers be able to maintain the confidentiality of shared SARs?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Special Information Sharing Procedures</HD>
                    <P>• FinCEN seeks comment on whether the proposed rule should apply the special information sharing procedures under 31 CFR 1010.520 and 1010.540 implementing sections 314(a) and 314(b) of the USA PATRIOT Act to investment advisers, as proposed at §§ 1032.500 and 1032.540 (cross-referencing 31 CFR part 1010, subpart E, and 31 CFR 1010.540, respectively).</P>
                    <P>• Under what circumstances would investment advisers enter into voluntary 314(b) information sharing arrangements?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Special Due Diligence and Section 311 Measures</HD>
                    <P>• FinCEN seeks comment on whether it is appropriate to apply the special due diligence requirements for correspondent and private banking accounts to investment advisers as proposed at 1032.610 and 1032.620 (cross-referencing 31 CFR 1010.610 and 1010.620, respectively), and the special measures under section 311 of the USA PATRIOT Act as proposed at 31 CFR 1032.600. Would doing so further the purposes of the BSA and protect the U.S. financial system from national security threats?</P>
                    <P>• To what extent do investment advisers provide advisory services or enter into advisory relationships that are similar to a “correspondent account” relationship as defined at 31 CFR 1010.605? What about with respect to a “correspondent account” as that term would be amended, as proposed?</P>
                    <P>• To what extent do investment advisers enter into advisory relationships that are similar to a “private banking account” relationship as defined at 31 CFR 1010.605?</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Severability</HD>
                    <P>If any of the provisions of this proposed rule, or the application thereof to any person or circumstance, is held to be invalid, such invalidity shall not affect other provisions or application of such provisions to other persons or circumstances that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Regulatory Analysis</HD>
                    <P>
                        In accordance with Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 14094 (E.O. 12866 and its amendments),
                        <SU>217</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         this regulatory impact analysis (Impact Analysis) is composed of a number of assessments of the anticipated impacts of the proposed rule in terms of its expected costs and benefits to affected parties. This analysis also includes assessments of the impact on small entities pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) and reporting and recordkeeping burdens under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), as well as consideration of whether an assessment under the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) is required.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>217</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See infra.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        This Impact Analysis finds that the impact associated with the proposed rule would primarily affect investment advisers (specifically, RIAs and ERAs) and U.S. Federal agencies, and estimates that the total present value of costs of the proposed rule over a 10-year time horizon ranges from $4.6 billion to $9.3 billion, with a primary estimate of $8 billion, using a 2 percent discount rate. The annualized costs over a 10-year time horizon range from $500 million to $1 billion, with a primary estimate of $870 million, using a 2 percent discount rate.
                        <SU>218</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This proposed rule has been determined to be a “significant regulatory action” under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866 and significant under section 3(f)(1) because it may have an annual effect on the economy of $200 million or greater.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>218</SU>
                             All aggregate figures are approximate and not precise estimates unless otherwise specified.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Table 1 summarizes the benefits and costs of the proposed regulation. The potential benefits are difficult to quantify—and thus are unquantified in 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12139"/>
                        this Impact Analysis—but are reported alongside the monetized costs:
                    </P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-02-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="560">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.019</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-02-C</BILCOD>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN has chosen to issue the proposed rule applying AML/CFT requirements to RIAs and ERAs instead of two regulatory alternatives: (1) applying AML/CFT requirements to RIAs, ERAs, and State-registered investment advisers and (2) requiring private funds to collect beneficial ownership information on legal entity investors. The first alternative would expand the requirements of the BSA to nearly twice as many entities (as compared to the proposed rule) at a greater overall cost but provide a similar level of benefits (with only limited 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12140"/>
                        incremental benefits attributable to State-registered investment advisers), while the second would reduce the costs of the regulation (as compared to the proposed rule) while providing fewer benefits and only achieving a small proportion of the objectives of the BSA.
                    </P>
                    <P>FinCEN has conducted an initial regulatory flexibility analysis (IRFA) pursuant to the RFA and finds that the proposed rule would have a significant economic impact on small entities, although FinCEN does not assess the number of small entities impacted to be substantial.</P>
                    <P>As detailed in the PRA analysis, for the private sector the proposed rule is estimated to result in an estimated one-time, upfront information collection burden of 7.65 million hours and an average annual information collection burden of 5.49 million hours thereafter. The estimated one-time, upfront information collection cost is approximately $454 million and the estimated average annual recurring information collection cost is approximately $316 million thereafter. These costs are included in the Impact Analysis.</P>
                    <P>
                        Pursuant to its UMRA-related analysis, FinCEN has not anticipated any expenditures for State, local, and Tribal governments. FinCEN anticipates expenditures by the private sector of more than $176 million.
                        <SU>219</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The UMRA-related analysis for private sector entities has been incorporated into this Impact Analysis.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>219</SU>
                             The U.S. Bureau of Economic Analysis reported the annual value of the gross domestic product (GDP) deflator in 1995 (the year in which UMRA was enacted) as 71.823; and in 2022 as 127.215. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             U.S. Bureau of Economic Analysis, Table 1.1.9. “Implicit Price Deflators for Gross Domestic Product,” 
                            <E T="03">https://apps.bea.gov/iTable/?reqid=19&amp;step=2&amp;isuri=1&amp;categories=survey%23eyJhcHBpZCI6MTksInN0ZXBzIjpbMSwyLDMsM10sImRhdGEiOltbIkNhdGVnb3JpZXMiLCJTdXJ2ZXkiXSxbIk5JUEFfVGFibGVfTGlzdCIsIjEzIl0sWyJGaXJzdF9ZZWFyIiwiMTk5NSJdLFsiTGFzdF9ZZWFyIiwiMjAyMSJdLFsiU2NhbGUiLCIwIl0sWyJTZXJpZXMiLCJBIl1dfQ.</E>
                             Thus, the inflation adjusted estimate for $100 million is 127.215 divided by 71.823 and then multiplied by 100, or $177 million.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Executive Orders 12866 and Its Amendments</HD>
                    <P>As detailed below, Treasury assesses that RIAs and ERAs pose a material risk of misuse for illicit finance. Including investment advisers as “financial institutions” under the BSA and applying comprehensive AML/CFT measures to these investment advisers are likely to reduce this risk.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Introduction</HD>
                    <P>Executive Order 12866 and its amendments direct agencies to assess costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, and public health and safety effects; distributive impacts; and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules, and promoting flexibility. This proposed rule has been designated a “significant regulatory action” under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866 and significant under section 3(f)(1). Accordingly, the proposed rule has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).</P>
                    <P>In accordance with OMB guidance, this Impact Analysis contains, as follows: (1) a statement of the need for the regulatory action; (2) a clear identification of a range of regulatory approaches; and (3) an estimate of the benefits and costs—quantitative and qualitative—of the proposed regulatory action and its alternatives.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(a) Statement of the Need for, and Objectives of, the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        The primary purpose of the proposed rule is to address identified illicit finance risks among investment advisers (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         RIAs and ERAs). Currently, investment advisers are not required by regulation to apply measures designed to address money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance risks similar to those which other financial institutions are subject. For example, investment advisers are generally not required to establish an AML/CFT program, to conduct customer due diligence, or to report suspicious customer activity to FinCEN. This means that tens of thousands of investment advisers overseeing the investment of hundreds of trillions of dollars into the U.S. economy currently do not face regulatory sanction for failing to implement the above-mentioned measures, creating a material weakness in the United States's framework to combat illicit finance.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As described in detail above, investment advisers work closely with and provide services that are similar or related to services authorized to be provided by other BSA-defined financial institutions.
                        <SU>220</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         While investment advisers do not directly custody customer assets, they generally must understand their customers' financial background and investment goals to provide advisory services, and they direct banks and broker-dealers to execute transactions and disperse funds to support their customers' investment objectives.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>220</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             section IV.A.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Under the current AML/CFT regulatory framework applicable to investment advisory activities, the financial institutions that engage in trading or transactional activities on behalf of investment advisers, such as banks and broker-dealers, are subject to AML/CFT reporting and recordkeeping obligations. However, for many of these financial institutions, the investment adviser, and not the investment adviser's customers, is their customer. Consequently, they may rely solely on an investment adviser's instructions and lack independent knowledge of the adviser's customers. In some cases, an investment adviser may be the only person or entity with a complete understanding of the source of a customer's invested assets, background information regarding the customer, or the objectives for which the assets are invested. Additionally, an investment adviser may use multiple broker-dealers or banks for trading or custody services.</P>
                    <P>As a result, one financial institution may not have the complete picture of an adviser's activity or information regarding the identity and source of wealth of the advisers' customers, and thus may not be well-positioned to assess whether funds managed by the adviser may be derived from illicit proceeds or associated with a criminal or other illicit finance activity. Without complete information, such an institution may not have sufficient information to warrant filing a SAR, or may be required to file a SAR that only has partial information concerning the investment adviser's transactions on behalf of a particular customer. This limits the ability of law enforcement to identify illicit activity that may be occurring through investment advisers.</P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed in the preamble, the proposed rule would address this gap by requiring RIAs and ERAs to implement AML/CFT programs, which include risk-based procedures for conducting ongoing customer due diligence, and report suspicious activity to FinCEN, among other requirements. RIAs and ERAs would be subject to examination for compliance with these requirements by the SEC. This would reduce instances of investment advisers unwittingly laundering the illicit proceeds on behalf of clients and increase the likelihood that authorities could detect illicit activity occurring through investment advisers and better 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12141"/>
                        detect complicit investment advisers that knowingly facilitate money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activity. The proposed rule would also bring the investment adviser industry more in line with its counterparts in the U.S. financial sector and around the world.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(b) Summary of the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>The proposed regulations would add “investment adviser” to the definition of “financial institution” at 31 CFR 1010.100(t) and add a new provision to § 1010.100 defining the term “investment adviser” to mean RIAs and ERAs.</P>
                    <P>With these changes to 31 CFR 1010.100, the proposed rule would then subject RIAs and ERAs to AML/CFT requirements applied to financial institutions, including requiring them to: (i) develop and implement an AML/CFT program; (ii) file SARs and CTRs; (iii) record originator and beneficiary information for transactions (Recordkeeping and Travel Rules); (iv) respond to section 314(a) requests; and (v) implement special due diligence measures for correspondent and private banking accounts.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AML/CFT Program.</E>
                         RIAs and ERAs would be required to maintain an AML/CFT program, including: (i) developing internal policies, procedures, and controls to comply with the requirements of the BSA and address money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance risks; (ii) designating an AML/CFT compliance officer; (iii) instituting an ongoing employee training program; (iv) soliciting an independent test of AML/CFT programs for compliance; and (v) implementing risk-based procedures for conducting ongoing customer due diligence.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">File SARs and CTRs.</E>
                         RIAs and ERAs would be required to file a report of any suspicious transaction relevant to a possible violation of law or regulation with FinCEN. In addition, RIAs and ERAs would be required to report transactions in currency over $10,000. Currently, all investment advisers report such transactions on Form 8300. Under the proposed rule, a CTR would replace Form 8300 for RIAs and ERAs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Recordkeeping and Travel Rules.</E>
                         RIAs and ERAs would be required to obtain and retain originator and beneficiary information for certain transactions and pass on this information to the next financial institution in certain funds transmittals involving more than one financial institution.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Respond to Section 314(a) Requests.</E>
                         FinCEN's regulations under section 314(a) enable law enforcement agencies, through FinCEN, to reach out to financial institutions to locate accounts and transactions of persons that may be involved in terrorism or money laundering. Requests contain subject and business names, addresses, and as much identifying data as possible to assist the financial industry in searching their records.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Special Due Diligence Measures for Correspondent and Private Banking Accounts.</E>
                         The proposed rule would require RIAs and ERAs to maintain due diligence measures that include policies, procedures, and controls that are reasonably designed to enable the investment adviser to detect and report, on an ongoing basis, any known or suspected money laundering or suspicious activity conducted through or involving any correspondent or private banking account that is established, maintained, administered, or managed in the United States for a foreign financial institution.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(c) Discussion of Concurrent/Overlapping/Conflicting Regulations</HD>
                    <P>
                        There are no Federal rules that directly and fully duplicate, overlap, or conflict with the proposed rule. The majority of the investment adviser industry is not subject to any comprehensive AML/CFT requirements. FinCEN is aware that requirements within the Advisers Act and other Federal securities laws impose requirements upon investment advisers that in some instances are similar to the requirements proposed within the proposed rule and perform similar roles (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         improving the integrity of the U.S. financial system and protecting customers). FinCEN also recognizes that the Advisers Act and its implementing regulations authorize the SEC to regulate the investment adviser industry for compliance with these requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>However, while these existing requirements are important, and may provide a supporting framework for implementing certain obligations in the proposed rule, they do not impose the specific AML/CFT measures in the proposed rule in support of the BSA's statutory purposes. Specifically, investment advisers are not required to develop policies, procedures, and internal controls to identify and mitigate the risk that the adviser might be used for money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance purposes. Currently, investment advisers are not required to appoint an AML/CFT officer or train their employees to comply with AML/CFT requirements. They are not required to report suspicious activity, maintain certain transaction records, or respond to section 314(a) requests for information on customer accounts or transactions. The existing rules and regulations under the Advisers Act are designed to prevent adviser fraud or theft of client assets and otherwise protect investors, maintain fair, orderly and efficient markets, and facilitate capital formation. Preventing illicit actors from using the investment adviser industry to launder the proceeds of crime or finance terrorism is not contemplated in existing obligations on the industry.</P>
                    <P>FinCEN recognizes that investment advisers that are dually registered as a broker-dealer or are chartered as a banks (and bank subsidiaries) or are already subject to AML/CFT requirements. As noted above, FinCEN is not proposing to require such entities to establish multiple or separate AML/CFT programs so long as a comprehensive AML/CFT program covers all of the entity's applicable legal and regulatory obligations. The program should be designed to address the different money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activity risks posed by the different aspects of the entities' businesses and satisfy each of the risk-based AML/CFT program requirements to which it will be subject in its capacity as an investment adviser, broker-dealer, or bank under the proposed rule. Similarly, an investment adviser that is affiliated with, or a subsidiary of, another entity required to establish an AML/CFT program in another capacity would not be required to implement multiple or separate programs because one single program can be extended to all affiliated entities that are subject to the BSA, so long as it is designed to identify and mitigate the different money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance activity risks posed by the different aspects of the entity's business and satisfies each of the risk-based AML/CFT program and other BSA requirements to which the entity is subject in all of its regulated capacities.</P>
                    <P>FinCEN is likewise aware that investment advisers serve as advisers to mutual funds, which have their own AML/CFT program requirements. For the reasons described above, FinCEN is proposing that an RIA advising a mutual fund may deem its AML/CFT program requirements with respect to such mutual fund satisfied so long as the mutual fund has developed and implemented an AML/CFT program compliant with the AML program requirements applicable to mutual funds.</P>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN is also aware that the SEC already examines certain investment 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12142"/>
                        advisers for compliance with the Advisers Act and implementing regulations. FinCEN anticipates that the SEC's examination of RIA and ERA compliance with new requirements will be incorporated into its risk-based examination program.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(d) Report Organization</HD>
                    <P>This Impact Analysis is structured as follows. Section 2 assesses the nature and characteristics of the entities and their business that will be affected by the proposed rule. Section 3 then identifies the expected benefits of the proposed rule, and section 4 then assesses the expected costs of the proposed rule to both the private sector and government and explains the methodology for doing so. Section 5 then assesses potential regulatory alternatives to issuing the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>Following the Impact Analysis are the regulatory analyses required by the RFA, PRA, UMRA, and other similar laws. These analyses rely on certain calculations in the Impact Analysis. Following those are a series of questions for public comment regarding the Impact Analysis and its methodology which aim to test and refine the assumptions and calculations made within the Impact Analysis.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Affected Entities</HD>
                    <P>This section identifies and characterizes the population of investment advisers that are likely to be impacted by the proposed rule. The proposed rule would cover both RIAs and ERAs. These groups generally may vary in terms of their business structure, AUM, number of employees, and number of client relationships. As explained below, these differences affect the estimated burden of the proposed rule, in part, because depending on their business structure, some RIAs and ERAs may already be implementing AML/CFT measures to some degree.</P>
                    <P>To establish a pre-regulation baseline, this section provides a profile of investment advisers likely to be affected by the proposed rule. First, it describes which investment advisers will be affected by the proposed rule and on what basis. Next, it describes how RIAs and ERAs are categorized based on business structure, in ways that align with the expected costs of the proposed rule. Next, it describes the baseline level of economic activity for each type of entity. Finally, it describes other characteristics of the regulated population, including the number of small businesses.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(a) Universe of Investment Advisers Affected by the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Advisers Act defines an investment adviser as a person or firm that, for compensation, is engaged in the business of providing advice to others or issuing reports or analyses regarding securities.
                        <SU>221</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The proposed rule would cover two subsets of investment advisers: RIAs, who register or are required to register with the SEC; and ERAs, who are exempt from registration but must report certain information to the SEC.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>221</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)(11) for this definition of “investment adviser.” The statute excludes some persons and firms: certain banks, certain professionals, certain broker-dealers, publishers, statistical ratings agencies, and family offices. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)(11)(A)-(G).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Each RIA and ERA must submit the Uniform Application for Investment Adviser Registration (commonly known as Form ADV) and update it on an annual basis with the SEC.
                        <SU>222</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Form ADV is an SEC-administered self-disclosure form that collects certain information about each RIA and ERA. RIAs must report ownership, clients, employees, business practices, custodians of client funds, and affiliations, as well as any disciplinary events of the adviser or its employees, and marketing and certain disclosure reporting materials it provides to clients. ERAs report a subset of this information.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>222</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 275.203-1 and 204-4. A detailed description of Form ADV's requirements is available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/oiea/investor-alerts-bulletins/ib_formadv.html.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. SEC Registration and Reporting Criteria</HD>
                    <P>
                        Unless eligible to rely on an exemption, investment advisers that manage more than $110 million must register with the SEC, rather than a State authority, as well as submit a Form ADV and update it at least annually.
                        <SU>223</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Besides having AUM above $110 million, additional criteria may result in an investment adviser registering with the SEC.
                        <SU>224</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For example, investment advisers with AUM of at least $100 million but less than $110 million are allowed, but not required, to register with the SEC. Unless a different exception from the prohibition on registration applies, investment advisers with AUM under $100 million are prohibited from registering with the SEC,
                        <SU>225</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         but must register instead with the relevant State securities regulator.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>223</SU>
                             Exceptions to this registration requirement include (1) venture capital advisers, (2) private fund advisers with AUM under $150 million, (3) advisers to life insurance companies, (4) foreign private advisers, (5) advisers to charitable organizations, (6) certain commodity trading advisers, (7) advisers to small business investment companies, and (8) advisers to rural business investment companies. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 80b-3(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>224</SU>
                             Other exceptions to the prohibition on SEC registration include: (1) an adviser that would be required to register with 15 or more States (the multi-State exemption); (2) an adviser advising a registered investment company; (3) an adviser affiliated with an RIA; and (4) a pension consultant. Persons satisfying these criteria and the definition of “investment adviser” are required to register as investment advisers with the SEC. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Form ADV: Instructions for Part IA, Item 2. Advisers with a principal office and place of business in New York and over $25 million AUM are required to register with the SEC.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>225</SU>
                             17 CFR 275.203A-1. Note that if an RIA's AUM falls below $90 million as of the end of such RIA's fiscal year then it must withdraw its registration with the SEC, unless otherwise eligible for an exception to the prohibition on SEC registration.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        An ERA is an investment adviser that would be required to register with the SEC but is statutorily exempt from such requirement because: (1) it is an adviser solely to one or more venture capital funds, or (2) it is an adviser solely to private funds and has AUM in the United States of less than $150 million.
                        <SU>226</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         ERAs are required to report to the SEC on Form ADV.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>226</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             sections 203(
                            <E T="03">l</E>
                            ) and 203(m) of the Advisers Act and 17 CFR 275.203(
                            <E T="03">l</E>
                            )-1 and 275.203(m)-1, respectively.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Size of the Regulated Population</HD>
                    <P>The number of RIAs and ERAs is well-defined based on the number of Form ADV filings. Table 2.1 shows the number of RIAs and ERAs as of July 2023 based on each inclusion criterion listed above. One RIA was excluded from the regulated population because they reported an implausibly high number of total clients.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="180">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12143"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.020</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        In total,
                        <FTREF/>
                         there are 15,391 RIAs, with total AUM of $125 trillion and roughly 972,000 total employees. There are also 5,846 ERAs with total gross assets of $5.2 trillion (ERAs do not report the number of employees to the SEC).
                        <SU>229</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         With limited exceptions, the proposed rule would not apply to RIAs with respect to their mutual funds 
                        <SU>230</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         (ERAs do not advise mutual funds).
                        <SU>231</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, as a practical matter, RIAs that exclusively advise mutual funds would be exempt from most the requirements of this rule. Details on cost estimates for these advisers are provided in the next sub-section.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>227</SU>
                             Based on a Treasury review of Form ADV information filed as of July 31, 2023. 
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             n.26. The sum across individual categories for RIAs and ERAs is greater than the total because each investment adviser may belong in more than one category.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>228</SU>
                             This category also includes already-registered RIAs whose AUM is less than $100 million but at least $90 million.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>229</SU>
                             ERAs report gross assets for each fund they advise, but only if that fund is not reported by another RIA in its own Form ADV; therefore, some ERAs report zero gross assets because all of the funds they advise are also reported by another RIA.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>230</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.100(gg). 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             section IV.B for additional detail on the treatment of mutual funds under the proposed rule.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>231</SU>
                             FinCEN does not propose to permit investment advisers to exempt mutual funds that they advise from the requirements 31 CFR part 1010, subparts E and F (31 CFR 1010.520, 1010.540, and 1010.600 through 1010.670) that FinCEN proposes to apply to RIAs and ERAs in the proposed rule (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             certain information sharing, special standards, prohibitions, and other requirements).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(b) Categorizing the Regulated Population Based on Business Structure</HD>
                    <P>
                        The economic impact of the proposed rule will depend on an adviser's business structure and the extent to which such an adviser is already implementing some AML/CFT requirements. FinCEN assesses that RIAs and ERAs dually registered as broker-dealers or banks, are a subsidiary or affiliate of a bank or broker-dealer are more likely to already apply a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of the requirements of the proposed rule. Additionally, as described below, survey data indicates that some RIAs are already implementing certain requirements of the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>RIAs and ERAs are also subject to a variety of regulations and reporting requirements, such as those under the Federal securities laws, in addition to the proposed rule. In some cases, compliance with existing regulations under the Federal securities laws may reduce the burden of the proposed rule. In addition, RIAs and ERAs rely on third-party entities to execute business services, and those entities may be required to comply with AML/CFT regulations. Depending on the business structure of an RIA or ERA, such third-party relationships may also reduce the burden of the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>Therefore, FinCEN categorized RIAs and ERAs based on their likelihood of having existing AML/CFT measures in place, and the extent of those measures. This subsection first details the justification for the categorization, based on the regulatory structure of the investment adviser industry and associated institutions. The subsection then describes each category of the regulated population.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Dual Registrants and AML/CFT-Compliant Entities Associated With RIAs and ERAs</HD>
                    <P>
                        Some RIAs and ERAs are dually registered as, subsidiaries of, or affiliated with, entities that are already subject to AML/CFT obligations and, therefore, may already be applying such obligations to their advisory activities, although they may not be legally obligated to do so.
                        <SU>232</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For instance, dual registrants may seek to provide customers with both brokerage and advisory services, and apply AML/CFT measures across their businesses rather than incurring greater costs by duplicating measures across each business. Additionally, some AML/CFT measures, such as employee training and initial customer due diligence, can be designed to apply across a firm rather than to specific activities.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>232</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Treasury, 
                            <E T="03">2022 National Money Laundering Risk Assessment,</E>
                             p. 63-66, 
                            <E T="03">https://home.treasury.gov/system/files/136/2022-National-Money-Laundering-Risk-Assessment.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Further, in past Treasury outreach to financial institutions, those that have a financial subsidiary subject to AML/CFT program obligations as well as a subsidiary investment adviser have indicated they choose to typically apply an enterprise-wide AML/CFT program extending to all their subsidiaries and their customers so that all business lines or entities in their corporate enterprise are subject to consistent risk practices and procedures.</P>
                    <P>
                        In other circumstances, an RIA or ERA may perform AML/CFT functions via contract with a broker-dealer or other financial institution, such as when the adviser advises a mutual fund, or the adviser may have voluntarily implemented certain AML/CFT measures, such as due diligence or identification requirements.
                        <SU>233</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Many RIAs and ERAs also frequently use the services of certain third-party entities that are required to comply with AML/CFT regulations, namely, prime brokers, qualified custodians (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         banks), and in some circumstances, fund administrators.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>233</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             SIFMA No Action Letter, supra n. 52; 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             Managed Funds Association, Sound Practices for Hedge Fund Managers (2009), Chapter 6 (Anti-Money Laundering).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="12144"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Existing Laws and Regulations</HD>
                    <P>The Advisers Act and its implementing rules and regulations form the primary existing framework governing investment adviser activity. Some rules and regulations that apply to RIAs are relevant to AML/CFT compliance and may lower the cost of compliance, including, as discussed further below: (1) the Custody Rule, which governs the custody of client funds and securities, often through relationships with qualified custodians who are often subject to AML/CFT requirements; and (2) the Compliance Rule, which governs policies and procedures designed to prevent violations of the Advisers Act, and establishes a procedural and organizational framework that RIAs may be able to build upon to implement AML/CFT measures, thus lowering the cost of compliance with the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Custody Rule.</E>
                         The Custody Rule requires that client funds or securities over which an RIA has custody be held at a qualified custodian.
                        <SU>234</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The qualified custodian may hold the funds or securities in separate accounts for each client under that client's name; or in accounts under the name of the RIA as agent or trustee for clients, with only client funds and securities inside. Qualified custodians can be banks, registered broker-dealers, futures commission merchants, or certain foreign entities. Because such qualified custodians are BSA-defined financial institutions (or their equivalents under foreign law) that must comply with AML/CFT regulations, accounts maintained on behalf of an RIA—and the associated client relationships—are subject to AML/CFT requirements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>234</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 275.206(4)-2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Compliance Rule.</E>
                         Under the Compliance Rule,
                        <SU>235</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         an RIA must adopt and implement written policies and procedures reasonably designed to prevent violations of the Advisers Act and the rules thereunder. RIAs must review their policies and procedures at least annually and designate a chief compliance officer to administer the policies and procedures. Although these policies and procedures do not include requirements that an RIA comply with the BSA, having written policies in place may reduce the time needed to develop and review specific AML/CFT policies and procedures. Alternatively, having a framework in place for establishing policies and procedures may be useful for RIAs in complying with the proposed rule. Additionally, the presence of a compliance officer may reduce costs associated with designating an AML/CFT compliance officer, for example by dual-hatting the current chief compliance officer.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>235</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 275.206(4)-7.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Other Requirements.</E>
                         Certain private fund advisers also fill out Form PF, which requires disclosure of limited beneficial ownership information; for example, the percentage of the fund's equity owned by broker-dealers, pension plans, and U.S. and non-U.S. persons.
                        <SU>236</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Some investment advisers may have policies and procedures to comply with OFAC sanctions, which similarly may provide a framework for implementing certain AML/CFT measures included in the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>236</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 80b-4(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Due to these information collection requirements, RIAs and ERAs already compile varying amounts of information that could be useful in AML/CFT compliance—particularly information related to the identity and citizenship of various clients. Such information collection activities would lower the burden of the proposed rule on RIAs and ERAs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">iii. RIA and ERA Categories for Cost Analyses</HD>
                    <P>As described above, some RIAs and ERAs are already applying some AML/CFT requirements (although there is no legal requirement to do so). This is primarily because of their registration as or affiliation with another type of BSA-defined financial institution (such as a broker-dealer). Therefore, the baseline level of AML/CFT measures for an RIA or ERA may vary with their business structure. For the purposes of the cost analysis, FinCEN categorized RIAs and ERAs based on business structure and likelihood of having existing AML/CFT measures in place in the baseline.</P>
                    <P>
                        Based on discussions with industry, information from the 2016 Investment Management Compliance Testing Survey (IMCTS Survey), and the framework described above, FinCEN assessed that dual registrants are most likely to already have a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place. An RIA or ERA with a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place is assessed to be applying most requirements in the proposed rule, including filing SARs, recordkeeping, information sharing, and special due diligence measures. Any modifications to existing policies or procedures, such as training programs, are assumed to be small and would be incorporated into existing routine maintenance, review, and updating procedures.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN also assessed that the majority of RIAs and ERAs affiliated with a bank or broker-dealer are most likely to have a 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures, though they are less likely than dual registrants to have a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         number AML/CFT measures in place. An RIA or ERA with a 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place are assessed as more likely to implement internal recordkeeping, annual training programs, and initial customer due diligence. However, these RIAs and ERAs are less likely to meet SAR filing, ongoing due diligence, information sharing, and special due diligence requirements under the BSA. These additional measures would need to be implemented under the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, FinCEN assessed that while most RIAs or ERAs that are not dually registered or affiliated with a bank or broker-dealer are currently implementing a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures, a minority of that subgroup are currently implementing a 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of—rather than a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of—AML/CFT measures. An RIA or ERA with a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place would need to implement most of the requirements in the proposed rule, except that they are likely to be collecting some customer information at the beginning of the client relationship and filing reports (Form 8300) that are substantially similar to CTRs.
                    </P>
                    <PRTPAGE P="12145"/>
                    <P>
                        First, RIAs and ERAs were categorized into three types of entities based on business structure: advisers that are dually registered as broker-dealers or as banks (“dual registrants”); advisers that are affiliated with a broker-dealer or bank (“affiliated advisers”); and all others that are not affiliated advisers or dual registrants (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         “other advisers”). Because broker-dealers and banks must comply with AML/CFT requirements, dual registrants are more likely to have a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place, and this is reflected in the baseline. Similarly, affiliated advisers are more likely than other advisers to have a 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place in the baseline. Formally, FinCEN defined each group based on Form ADV filings as follows:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Dual registrants.</E>
                         RIAs or ERAs that report to the SEC that they are actively engaged in business as a broker-dealer or bank, responding “Yes” to Item 6.A.(1) and/or Item 6.A.(7).
                        <SU>237</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>237</SU>
                             Items 6.A.(1) and 6.A.(7) on Form ADV require an investment adviser to identify whether it is actively engaged in a particular business. This response does not necessarily mean that the investment adviser is registered as a broker-dealer or as a bank. The phrase “dual registrant” should be interpreted on this basis for purposes of this analysis.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Affiliated advisers.</E>
                         RIAs or ERAs that report to the SEC that they have a related person that is a broker-dealer or bank (responding “Yes” to Item 7.A.(1) and/or Item 7.A.(8)) and are not also dual registrants.
                        <SU>238</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>238</SU>
                             A related person is any advisory affiliate (as defined for purposes of Form ADV) of and any person that is under common control (as defined for purposes of Form ADV) with the investment adviser. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Form ADV, Glossary of Terms.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Other advisers.</E>
                         All RIAs or ERAs that are neither dual registrants nor affiliates of broker-dealers or banks.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN separately categorized RIAs and ERAs into the three groups. Although the size of each group is well-defined based on Form ADV data, the extent of existing AML/CFT measures within each group is uncertain and may vary considerably. The 2016 IMCTS Survey collected information from approximately 700 RIAs on their existing implementation of AML/CFT measures.
                        <SU>239</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to the 2016 IMCTS Survey, as of 2016, approximately 40 percent of RIAs had already adopted AML/CFT policies consistent with the Second Proposed Investment Adviser Rule.
                        <SU>240</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         An additional 36 percent of RIAs adopted some AML/CFT policies and procedures, but those were not in line with those in the Second Proposed Investment Adviser Rule. Therefore, approximately 76 percent of RIAs had at least some AML/CFT measures in place as of 2016. In particular, 49 percent had annual employee AML/CFT training, 24 percent had a designated an AML/CFT compliance officer, and 40 percent performed independent testing of their AML/CFT program annually. Similar information was not available for ERAs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>239</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             2016 IMCTS Survey, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             n. 150.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>240</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Based on this information, FinCEN assumed in the baseline for the proposed rule, that a minority—but as many as 40 percent—of RIAs had in place AML/CFT measures consistent with the requirements of the proposed rule. However, that proportion likely varies across the three groups defined above. Based on discussions with industry and the framework described above, FinCEN assessed that dual registrants are most likely to already have a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place (even if such measures are not required for their advisory activities). FinCEN also assessed that the majority of affiliated advisers implement a 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures, though they are less likely than dual registrants to have a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place. Finally, FinCEN assessed that while most “other” advisers are currently implementing a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures, a minority are currently implementing a 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of—rather than a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of—AML/CFT measures.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Specifically, FinCEN assessed that a dual registrant is highly likely to be applying a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures, including filing SARs, recordkeeping, information sharing, and special due diligence measures. Any modifications to existing policies or procedures, such as training programs, are likely to be small and would be incorporated into existing routine maintenance, review, and updating procedures.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For RIAs and ERAs with a 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place, such as most affiliated advisers, FinCEN assessed that existing programs most likely include internal recordkeeping, annual training programs, and initial customer due diligence.
                        <SU>241</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, these RIAs and ERAs are less likely to meet SAR filing, ongoing due diligence, information sharing, and special due diligence requirements under the BSA. These RIAs and ERAs would need to implement additional measures under the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>241</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             SIFMA No Action Letter, supra n. 52.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The remaining RIAs and ERAs, which have a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place, would need to implement most of the additional AML/CFT requirements under the proposed rule. However, FinCEN assessed that all RIAs and ERAs are likely to be collecting some customer information at the beginning of the client relationship and filing reports 
                        <SU>242</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         that are substantially similar to CTRs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>242</SU>
                             Investment advisers are currently required to file reports for the receipt of more than $10,000 in cash and negotiable instruments using joint FinCEN/Internal Revenue Service Form 8300. 
                            <E T="03">See supra,</E>
                             n. 50.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Based on this assessment, the RIAs and ERAs in each of the three groups were divided based on the proportion that FinCEN estimated to be implementing a 
                        <E T="03">significant,</E>
                         a 
                        <E T="03">moderate,</E>
                         or a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in the baseline. Because the exact distribution is unknown, FinCEN used different assumptions to generate lower and upper bounds and identify a primary estimate. In this case, “lower bound” means more RIAs and ERAs have a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place and will have to implement relatively 
                        <E T="03">fewer</E>
                         additional measures under the proposed rule, while “upper bound” means more RIAs and ERAs have a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place and will have to implement relatively 
                        <E T="03">more</E>
                         additional measures under the proposed rule. To inform the primary estimate, FinCEN used the following assumptions. For RIAs, FinCEN used information from the 2016 IMCTS Survey as a benchmark for the primary estimate.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Based on the 2016 IMCTS Survey, FinCEN assumed that 75 percent of affiliated RIAs had implemented a 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures. Based on the number of affiliated RIAs, the remaining approximately 34 percent of other RIAs are implementing a 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures. For the upper bound estimate, FinCEN assumed that the AML/CFT measures implemented by RIAs and ERAs either under the current regulatory framework or voluntarily would not meet the requirements of the proposed rule, therefore all RIAs that are not dually registered would have to implement the complete set of AML/CFT measures under the proposed rule. Based on that assumption, all RIAs and ERAs except dually registered entities are assumed to have implemented a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures. For the lower bound estimate, FinCEN assumed that 40 percent of all RIAs regardless of business structure are implementing a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures and 36 percent are 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12146"/>
                        implementing a 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of measures—this includes a mix of affiliated and other RIAs.
                    </P>
                    <P>FinCEN lacks information on the extent to which ERAs are already implementing AML/CFT requirements. Absent a better method to estimate, FinCEN assumed the proportion of dual-registered, affiliated, and other ERAs meeting AML/CFT requirements was the same as for RIAs across all scenarios. FinCEN seeks comment on this assumption, including whether a more appropriate method to estimate these proportions is available.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Classification of RIAs Advising Registered Funds.</E>
                         As discussed above, RIAs that exclusively advise mutual funds will be largely exempt from the requirements of the proposed rule. However, these RIAs have not been identified specifically through the Form ADV data. FinCEN assumed these advisers were most likely in the other advisers group. Because the clients (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the mutual funds) of these RIAs are subject to comprehensive AML/CFT obligations, FinCEN assessed these advisers as having a 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place.
                    </P>
                    <P>Table 2.2 shows the resulting size of the population for each of the scenarios described above.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="298">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.021</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        (c) Baseline Economic and Financial Characteristics of Regulated Population
                        <FTREF/>
                    </HD>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>243</SU>
                             Parentheses indicate the percentage of entities within a given category by scenario. Totals may not sum precisely due to rounding.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>This subsection describes the economic and financial profiles of RIAs and ERAs subject to the proposed rule in the baseline, including the number of employees and customer relationships with legal entities, natural persons, and pooled investment vehicles (PIVs)—and annual changes in these numbers.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Number of Employees</HD>
                    <P>RIAs report their employee numbers on Form ADV, but ERAs do not. To estimate the number of employees at ERAs, FinCEN assumed that the number of employees was similar to those at RIAs with the same number of private funds. In particular, the number of ERA employees was approximated as follows. First, FinCEN focused on RIAs with private funds only. FinCEN calculated deciles for the number of funds among each RIA category: dual registrants, affiliated RIAs, and other RIAs. Then, for each category of ERA, FinCEN calculated the average number of employees for the decile of the corresponding distribution of RIAs, based on the number of private funds advised by that ERA. This served as the approximation for the total number of ERA employees in the cost calculation. Table 2.3 shows the average number of employees for each category of investment adviser.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="74">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12147"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.022</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        ii. Number of Clients
                        <FTREF/>
                    </HD>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>244</SU>
                             Based on a Treasury review of Form ADV information filed as of July 31, 2023. 
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             n. 26. RIAs report total employees in Item 5.A. ERA data come from FinCEN calculations, calculated as the median employment among RIAs that report only private fund clients.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        On Form ADV, RIAs report the number of clients, enumerated for specific types of clients.
                        <SU>245</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As described in section 3 of this Impact Analysis, certain costs of the proposed rule vary depending on the type of client, across three categories of clients: individual persons including high-net worth individuals, collectively known as “natural persons”; PIVs; and various other types of clients collectively denoted as “legal entities.” Table 2.4 shows the average number of clients of each type, based on the RIA categories defined above.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>245</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             Clients are reported in Item 5.D. Natural persons are calculated as the sum of 5.D.(a).(1) and 5.D.(b).(1). PIVs are reported in 5.D.(f).(1), and exclude investment companies and business development companies. Legal entities are the sum of the remaining rows of column 1 of Item 5.D. Numbers are rounded to the nearest integer.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="85">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.023</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        ERAs report the number of private funds they advise (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         an ERA's clients), including the number of funds for which another investment adviser already reports fund-specific information. Table 2.5 reports the average number of funds reported per ERA, based on the investment adviser categories described above.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="85">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.024</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        (d) Other Characteristics of Regulated Entities
                        <FTREF/>
                    </HD>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>246</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             The total number of funds is calculated as the sum of the number of funds reported in Schedule D, sections 7.B.(1) and 7.B.(2). Numbers are rounded to the nearest integer.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>This section describes the industry classification and business size of RIAs and ERAs to be regulated under the proposed rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Industry Classification by NAICS Code</HD>
                    <P>In general, businesses may be categorized under multiple industries due to having multiple lines of revenue or multiple business functions. Many RIAs and ERAs, including but not limited to dual registrants, accordingly may report multiple lines of revenue (for purposes of the NAICS Codes) on Form ADV, and it is challenging to identify their primary line of business. Using the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS), the standard classification system used by Federal statistical agencies in classifying business establishments for the purpose of collecting, analyzing, and publishing statistical data on U.S. businesses, FinCEN assesses that most (if not all) RIAs and ERAs are classified within NAICS subsector 523 (Securities, Commodity Contracts, and Other Financial Investments and Related Activities)—with most entities classified in NAICS 5239 (Other Financial Investment Activities). However, that subsector may not account for the primary line of business of all investment advisers and some may be classified under NAICS 522 (Credit Intermediation and Related Activities) or NAICS 525 (Funds, Trusts, and Other Financial Vehicles).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Small Entities</HD>
                    <P>
                        To assess the prevalence of small businesses affected by the proposed rule, FinCEN relied on the small entity definition under the Advisers Act rule adopted for purposes of the RFA. Under this definition, an investment adviser is considered a small entity if (i) it has, and reports on Form ADV, less than $25 million in assets under management ; (ii) it has less than $5 million in total assets on the last day of its most recent fiscal year; and (iii) it does not control, is not controlled by, and is not under common control with another 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12148"/>
                        investment adviser that is not a small entity.
                        <SU>247</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>247</SU>
                             17 CFR 275.0-7 (defining “small business” or “small organization” for purposes of the Advisers Act).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        On Form ADV, RIAs report whether they meet the conditions listed above. As of July 2023, there were 573 small entities, as reported in Table 2.6. ERAs do not report whether they meet the conditions above. However, based on a recent SEC rulemaking, and using the SEC's rationale here, FinCEN concluded that zero ERAs met the definition of small entity.
                        <SU>248</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>248</SU>
                             The SEC's rationale, which FinCEN adopts, is that for an investment adviser to constitute an ERA for SEC purposes, the adviser would need to have an obligation to register with the SEC. An investment adviser with assets under management low enough to qualify as a small entity would not have an obligation to register with the SEC. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             88 FR 63206, 63383 n. 1895 regarding small entity ERAs.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="74">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.025</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Table 2.7 shows the characteristics of small RIAs compared to all other RIAs.
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>249</SU>
                             Based on a Treasury review of Form ADV information filed as of July 31, 2023. 
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             n. 26. An RIA qualifies as a small entity under the SEC's definition if it has fewer than $25 million in regulatory AUM (Item 5.F.(2)(c)) and answers “No” to each of the questions in Item 12. ERAs were presumed not to meet the definition of small entity, as discussed above.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>250</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             See tables above for details on the Form ADV items used to calculate each table entry. Numbers are rounded to nearest whole number or percent.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="108">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.026</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Assessment of Benefits</HD>
                    <P>The benefits assessed here are more difficult to quantify than the costs, but are nonetheless substantial. The primary direct benefits of the proposed rule are expected to primarily accrue in the public sector, most notably to U.S. law enforcement and the national security community, as well as certain Federal functional regulators, as well as to the investment adviser industry. Further, the identification of illicit activity in the investment adviser industry by applying reporting and recordkeeping obligations to those industry participants, RIAs and ERAs, that have direct access to customer information would enhance detecting, investigating and prosecuting illicit finance activity occurring through the industry. The AML/CFT requirements in the proposed rule will help address existing information gaps regarding suspicious activity reporting discussed in section 1. They will also help harmonize AML/CFT requirements between investment advisers and similarly situated financial institutions that must comply with these requirements.</P>
                    <P>In addition, while each provision in the proposed rule may not directly provide a benefit, each provision indirectly does so because it forms part of a comprehensive framework for identifying and reporting money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activity. For instance, while the requirement for employee training and independent testing do not directly lead to increased identifying of illicit finance activity, they help ensure that the systems and employees who will identify whether an investment adviser is being used for such activity are best positioned to do so.</P>
                    <P>Specific benefits from the proposed rule include (i) increasing access for law enforcement to relevant information for complex financial crime investigations, (ii) enhancing interagency understanding of priority national security threats and their associated financial activity, and (iii) improving financial system transparency and integrity, including by aligning with international financial standards to strengthen the U.S. financial system from abuse by illicit actors. Through these direct benefits, crucial indirect benefits would accrue to the public at large by reducing money laundering, countering the financing of terrorism and other illicit finance activity, and protecting national security.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(a) Strengthening Law Enforcement Investigations of Certain Financial Crimes</HD>
                    <P>
                        Requiring RIAs and ERAs to file SARs and keep certain customer records would make that information more readily available to law enforcement authorities, assisting those authorities in detecting, investigating, and prosecuting financial crimes. The FBI reported that 36.3 percent of active complex financial crimes investigations and 27.5 percent of public corruption investigations involved BSA reporting.
                        <SU>251</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, for other types of criminal investigations, the percentage of criminal investigations supported by BSA reporting was even higher. For example, 46 percent of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12149"/>
                        transnational organized crime investigations were supported by BSA reporting.
                        <SU>252</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         SAR filing by RIAs and ERAs may increase BSA information availability to support investigations into corruption, fraud, and tax evasion, the criminal activities that the Treasury risk assessment identified as being most prominently tied to illicit proceeds moving through investment advisers.
                        <SU>253</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>251</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Year in Review for FY 2022</E>
                             (Apr. 21, 2023), p.2, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fincen.gov/sites/default/files/shared/FinCEN_Infographic_Public_2023_April_21_FINAL.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>252</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>253</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Treasury, 
                            <E T="03">Investment Adviser Illicit Finance Risk Assessment, https://home.treasury.gov/system/files/136/US-Sectoral-Illicit-Finance-Risk-Assessment-Investment-Advisers.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In particular, information from the reporting of suspicious activity and recordkeeping by RIAs and ERAs may benefit specific types of law enforcement financial crime investigations, particularly those involving the proceeds of foreign corruption, along with other transnational financial crimes. For instance, according to the FBI, in the 1MDB criminal investigation, at least $1 billion traceable to the conspiracy was laundered through the United States, including through private funds advised by at least one RIA, and used to purchase assets here.
                        <SU>254</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In another case involving the misuse of private funds, the defendant established fake private equity investment funds in the British Virgin Islands to launder approximately $400 million in proceeds of a large international pyramid fraud scheme called OneCoin.
                        <SU>255</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These examples demonstrate that investment advisers and the funds they advise have been implicated in certain financial crimes, and show the scope of potential benefit from covering RIAs and ERAs under this proposal.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>254</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FBI, “U.S. Seeks to Recover $1 Billion in Largest Kleptocracy Case to Date,” (Jul. 20, 2016), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fbi.gov/news/stories/us-seeks-to-recover-1-billion-in-largest-kleptocracy-case-to-date.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>255</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Department of Justice, “Former Partner Of Locke Lord LLP Convicted In Manhattan Federal Court Of Conspiracy To Commit Money Laundering And Bank Fraud In Connection With Scheme To Launder $400 Million Of OneCoin Fraud Proceeds,” (Nov. 21, 2019), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.justice.gov/usao-sdny/pr/former-partner-locke-lord-llp-convicted-manhattan-federal-court-conspiracy-commit-money.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Further, requiring RIAs and ERAs to respond to section 314(a) requests is likely to increase the number of positive responses for law enforcement when trying to locate accounts and transactions of persons that may be involved in terrorism or money laundering activity. In FY 2022, 66 law enforcement agencies made 519 requests under section 314(a) to over 14,000 financial institutions, which resulted in 37,865 positive responses.
                        <SU>256</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Adding RIAs and ERAs to these requests is likely to increase positive responses for account and transactions information and then support further investigations using other legal tools.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>256</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(b) Improve Understanding of Priority National Security Threats</HD>
                    <P>Applying AML/CFT obligations to RIAs and ERAs may help increase U.S. government understanding of two priority national security threats: (1) funds moving through the U.S. financial system that may be associated with Russian oligarchs and (2) investment activity that may be tied to foreign-state efforts to invest in early-stage companies developing critical or emerging technologies with national security implications.</P>
                    <P>
                        SAR filings or information collected by RIAs and ERAs in the CDD process could improve the U.S. government's understanding of how illicit funds linked to Russian oligarchs may be accessing the U.S. financial system. According to FinCEN, BSA data provides significant financial intelligence about the movement of oligarch-related funds and assets with a nexus to the United States around the time of Russia's unprovoked military invasion of Ukraine, including likely attempts by Russian oligarchs and elites to conceal their assets, property, and financial activities.
                        <SU>257</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Both U.S. law enforcement and press reporting have identified instances where Russian oligarchs and elites have accessed U.S. investment opportunities and the financial system through private funds or other PIVs, to avoid disclosing their identities to other parties.
                        <SU>258</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>257</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Trends in Bank Secrecy Act Data: Financial Activity by Russian Oligarchs in 2022</E>
                             (Dec. 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fincen.gov/sites/default/files/2022-12/FinancialTrendAnalysisRussianOligarchsFTA_Final.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>258</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Department of the Treasury, 
                            <E T="03">Global Advisory on Russian Sanctions Evasion Issued Jointly by the Multilateral REPO Task Force,</E>
                             p. 3, (Mar. 9, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://home.treasury.gov/system/files/136/REPO_Joint_Advisory.pdf; see also</E>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Alert on Potential U.S. Commercial Real Estate Investments by Sanctioned Russian Elites, Oligarchs, and Their Proxies,</E>
                             p. 4, (Jan. 25, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fincen.gov/sites/default/files/shared/FinCENAlertRealEstateFINAL508_1-25-23FINALFINAL.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        However, FinCEN currently receives only limited information from investment advisers and the securities industry in general regarding illicit Russian financial activity. For instance, of 454 SARs reviewed as part of a FinCEN Financial Trend Analysis on U.S. financial activity linked to Russian oligarchs, only 11, or less than 3 percent, were filed by the securities and futures industry.
                        <SU>259</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>259</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             n. 257.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Applying SAR filing, CDD, and other recordkeeping requirements to RIAs and ERAs may also assist the U.S. government in identifying foreign-linked investments in certain U.S. companies that could raise national security issues. While there are certain transactions of which CFIUS must be notified, most transactions reviewed by CFIUS are filed voluntarily.
                        <SU>260</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Where transactions are not voluntarily submitted to CFIUS for review, CFIUS agencies must invest staff time and resources into identifying those transactions and assessing whether to request that the parties file with CFIUS.
                        <SU>261</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         CFIUS transactions that originate through this non-notified process remain among the most complicated that CFIUS considers, and often require mitigation measures to address national security risks.
                        <SU>262</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>260</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Treasury, “Remarks by Assistant Secretary for Investment Security Paul Rosen at the Second Annual CFIUS Conference,” (Sept. 14, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://home.treasury.gov/news/press-releases/jy1732.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>261</SU>
                             See 
                            <E T="03">id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>262</SU>
                             Committee on Foreign Investment in the United States—Annual Report to Congress CY 2022 (
                            <E T="03">https://home.treasury.gov/system/files/206/CFIUS%20-%20Annual%20Report%20to%20Congress%20CY%202022_0.pdf</E>
                            ), p. 52
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Assessing the national security consequences of investments into early-stage companies developing emerging technology can be particularly challenging.
                        <SU>263</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Requiring ERAs, particularly venture capital advisers, to submit SARs may help CFIUS agencies identify transactions where investors affiliated with foreign governments are attempting to use an investment to acquire technology or know-how with national security implications. This could include providing information about transactions CFIUS was unaware of, or providing new information about investors or other parties to transactions CFIUS was already investigating. In addition, law enforcement agencies involved in CFIUS reviews could use section 314(a) information sharing authorities to engage venture capital advisers or other RIAs or ERAs on particular technologies or concerning foreign investors.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>263</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             The Washington Post, “Scrutiny mounts over tech investments from Kremlin-connected expatriates,” (Dec. 19, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.washingtonpost.com/technology/2022/12/19/russia-expatriates-links-probed/; see also</E>
                             The Wall Street Journal, “Government `SWAT Team' Is Reviewing Past Startup Deals Tied to Chinese Investors,” Jan. 31, 2021, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.wsj.com/articles/government-swat-team-is-reviewing-past-startup-deals-tied-to-chinese-investors-11612094401.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(c) Protect the U.S. Financial System From Abuse</HD>
                    <P>
                        Applying AML/CFT obligations to RIAs and ERAs will also strengthen the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12150"/>
                        ability of the Federal Government and private sector to better protect the U.S. financial system from being misused for illicit finance. First, the proposed rule would apply a set of AML/CFT obligations to RIAs and ERAs, and those investment advisers would be subject to enforcement actions for failure to comply with those requirements. Those investment advisers would be required to, as described above, implement AML/CFT programs, conduct due diligence on customers, report suspicious activity, and keep certain records, among other obligations. In doing so, these obligations imposed on investment advisers would help identify, prevent, and deter bad actors from using investment advisers to further illicit financial activity, as investment advisers would be required to obtain information from customers to comply with these requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>Moreover, the proposed rule will also strengthen the ability of RIAs, ERAs, and other financial institutions to identify and report illicit activity. RIAs and ERAs would be able to coordinate with broker-dealers and banks to file joint SARs, and voluntarily share information on illicit activity under section 314(b) of the USA PATRIOT Act. Reporting by financial institutions under the BSA—and their broader efforts to implement effective AML/CFT programs—are thus fundamental to the government's effort to detect and prevent illicit financial activity and to protect the integrity of the financial system as a whole.</P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed rule would also help bring the United States into full compliance with several international AML/CFT standards established by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF). In the 2016 FATF Mutual Evaluation Report (MER) of the United States, the United States was rated (and remains rated) “partially compliant” on nine of the 40 FATF Recommendations.
                        <SU>264</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These included partially compliant ratings on Recommendations 1, 12, and 20 for the failure to apply AML/CFT requirements to investment advisers, among other reasons.
                        <SU>265</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>264</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FATF (2016), 
                            <E T="03">Mutual Evaluation of the United States,</E>
                             pp. 255-258, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fatf-gafi.org/content/dam/fatf-gafi/mer/MER-United-States-2016.pdf.coredownload.inline.pdf.</E>
                             In 2020, the U.S. was re-rated from “partially compliant” to “largely compliant” on Recommendation 10. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FATF (2020), 
                            <E T="03">Anti-money laundering and counter-terrorist financing measures—United States, 3rd Enhanced Follow-up Report &amp; Technical Compliance Re-Rating</E>
                             (2020 US FUR), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fatf-gafi.org/content/dam/fatf-gafi/fur/Follow-Up-Report-United-States-March-2020.pdf.coredownload.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>265</SU>
                             A “partially compliant” rating is generally not considered an acceptable rating for purposes of the FATF Follow-Up Process. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FATF (2023), Procedures for the FATF Fourth Round of AML/CFT Mutual Evaluations (FATF Fourth Round Procedures), pp. 22-23, 
                            <E T="03">http://www.fatf-gafi.org/publications/mutualevaluations/documents/4th-round-procedures.html.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As a result of its MER, the United States was put in “enhanced follow-up.” 
                        <SU>266</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For countries in enhanced follow-up, the FATF can take several actions, including “issuing a formal FATF statement to the effect that the member jurisdiction is insufficiently in compliance with the FATF Standards, and recommending appropriate action.” 
                        <SU>267</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These statements and other actions by the FATF can have material consequences on the economy of a jurisdiction.
                        <SU>268</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         If the proposed rule is finalized, it will assist the U.S. in avoiding these consequences and strengthening compliance with the FATF standards.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>266</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             2020 US FUR, p. 1, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             n. 264.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>267</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FATF Fourth Round Procedures, p. 24, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             n. 265.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>268</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Julia Morse, 
                            <E T="03">The Bankers Blacklist: Unofficial Market Enforcement and the Global Fight against Illicit Financing</E>
                             (Cornell University Press 2021), pp. 131-138 (discussing the consequences of FATF listing).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As noted in the Treasury investment adviser risk assessment,
                        <SU>269</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         investment advisers manage tens of trillions of dollars in assets. While some of these assets are subject to AML/CFT requirements, others are not. For instance, RIAs manage approximately $20 trillion in private fund assets, and as of Q4 2022, this included $284 billion in AUM owned by non-U.S. investors where the RIA did not have the information on hand to identify the beneficial owner because the beneficial interest was held through a chain involving one or more third-party intermediaries.
                        <SU>270</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         ERAs held approximately $5 trillion in AUM in private funds.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>269</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Treasury, 
                            <E T="03">Investment Adviser Illicit Finance Risk Assessment, https://home.treasury.gov/system/files/136/US-Sectoral-Illicit-Finance-Risk-Assessment-Investment-Advisers.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>270</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             SEC, Private Fund Statistics, First Calendar Quarter 2022, private-funds-statistics-2022-q1.pdf (
                            <E T="03">sec.gov</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Assessment of Costs</HD>
                    <P>This section assesses the potential costs to RIAs and ERAs, their clients, and government agencies associated with the proposed rule. Specifically, this Impact Analysis estimates the one-time, upfront costs and recurring administrative and maintenance costs incurred by RIAs and ERAs to establish or modify an existing AML/CFT program, which includes conducting ongoing CDD, filings SARs, and the other requirements of the proposed rule. It also estimates costs to customers to provide additional information to RIAs and ERAs and to the government to enforce those requirements. This Impact Analysis estimates the incremental costs of the proposed regulation over a 10-year period.</P>
                    <P>Some RIAs and ERAs may have reduced costs because they may already perform certain AML/CFT functions because they are dual registrants or affiliated advisers, as described in section 2, although, depending on the entity and its structure, may not currently be required to do so. RIAs that are dual registrants or affiliated advisers would not be legally required to establish a separate AML/CFT program for their advisory activities, provided that an existing comprehensive AML/CFT program covers all of the entity's legal and regulatory obligations. RIAs would also be exempt from having to apply most of the proposed requirements with respect to the mutual funds they advise, as mutual funds have their own AML/CFT program requirements, must file SARs, and are otherwise required to comply with the other reporting and recordkeeping requirements included in the proposed rule. Certain RIAs and ERAs may also already collect and verify certain information provided by customers via contract for a joint customer with another financial institution or through a voluntary AML/CFT program.</P>
                    <P>This section is organized as follows. First, it describes and compiles relevant cost information associated with these activities. Based on this information, it estimates the costs likely to be incurred by RIAs and ERAs. It then describes government implementation costs for oversight and enforcement. Finally, it summarizes the total costs of the proposed regulation.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(a) Cost Methodology</HD>
                    <P>
                        This section describes and compiles relevant cost information for this Impact Analysis. Based on this information, FinCEN estimates the typical costs RIAs and ERAs are anticipated to incur to comply with the requirements of the proposed rule. The cost information consists of the amount of time (in hours) and hourly labor cost of staff involved in compliance activities, such as developing and updating AML/CFT policies and procedures and training staff on new requirements, as well as costs associated with third party software licensing and independent testing. The implementation and scope of these activities, however, will vary widely and depend on a number of factors, such as the degree of automation of compliance activities and level of filer sophistication.
                        <PRTPAGE P="12151"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        All costs are reported in 2022 dollars. For transparency, all costs in this section are reported on an undiscounted basis. At the end of this section, costs are also reported on a discounted basis and the annualized costs of the proposed rule are calculated. To estimate the value of time associated with various compliance activities, FinCEN identified roles and corresponding staff positions involved in reviewing regulatory requirements, developing policies and procedures, filling out forms, transmitting data, conducting training, and maintaining, updating, and obtaining written approval of AML/CFT programs. FinCEN calculated the fully loaded (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         wages plus benefits, leave, etc.) hourly labor cost for each of these roles by using the median hourly wage estimated by the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics and computing an additional factor accounting for fringe benefits as reported in Table 4.1.
                        <SU>271</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Note, the proposed regulation requires, at a minimum, that an AML/CFT program must designate an AML/CFT compliance officer. This Impact Analysis does not include the direct cost of hiring a full-time equivalent AML/CFT compliance officer, which is not required by the proposed rule.
                        <SU>272</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         RIAs must already designate a chief compliance officer responsible for administering policies and procedures to comply with the Advisers Act and the rules thereunder. In smaller banks and broker-dealers, compliance or legal officers are often dual-hatted as AML/CFT compliance officers. Similarly, FinCEN assumes many RIAs and ERAs will appoint or dual hat a compliance or legal officer as their AML/CFT compliance officer. Therefore, this Impact Analysis accounts directly for the fully loaded hourly labor costs (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         salary plus fringe benefits) for each compliance activity that would be performed by this individual rather than by calculating an annual salary, to avoid double-counting labor costs for each requirement.
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>271</SU>
                             U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, May 2022 National Industry-Specific Occupational Employment and Wage Estimates for NAICS 523000—Securities, Commodity Contracts, and Other Financial Investments and Related Activities. The adjustment factor for fringe benefits is calculated as 1 + ($18.26 per hour in total benefits ÷ $36.57 per hour in wages and salaries) = 1.50. Based on U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, Table 4. Employer Costs for Employee Compensation for Private Industry Workers by Occupational and Industry Group—Financial Activities Industry, June 2022.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>272</SU>
                             This is consistent with how FinCEN assesses burden hours and costs associated with the designation of a BSA officer, whereby the costs are assessed individually across other BSA regulatory requirements that the designated officer may implement. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FinCEN, Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Renewal; Comment Request; Renewal Without Change of Anti-Money Laundering Programs for Certain Financial Institutions, 85 FR 49418 (Oct. 13, 2020).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>273</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, May 2022 National Industry-Specific Occupational Employment and Wage Estimates for NAICS 523000—Securities, Commodity Contracts, and Other Financial Investments and Related Activities.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>274</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, Table 4. Employer Costs for Employee Compensation for Private Industry Workers by Occupational and Industry Group—Financial Activities Industry, June 2022.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="133">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.027</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>FinCEN estimates that, in general and on average, each role would spend different amounts of time on each portion of the compliance burden associated with the proposed rule. These assumptions are provided in detail below for each compliance activity.</P>
                    <P>
                        In addition to incurring labor costs, RIAs and ERAs will likely need to invest in new technology to comply with the proposed rule, including purchasing software and entering into licensing agreements with third party vendors. Although financial institutions are not required to use software to meet their AML/CFT requirements, most entities currently subject to the BSA use specialized AML/CFT software for this purpose. It is challenging to allocate technology costs to specific provisions of the proposed regulation as technology may be used to implement and automate several processes.
                        <SU>275</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This Impact Analysis uses estimates derived from a 2020 Government Accountability Office (GAO) report assessing the costs of financial institutions to comply with the BSA to quantify these technology costs.
                        <SU>276</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         GAO documented a wide range of compliance costs across a diverse group of banks. For estimating technology and other costs in this Impact Analysis, FinCEN relied on the reported values for “Large Community Bank B,” for which the costs were assessed to be most similar to the costs likely to be incurred by the entities affected by the proposed regulation. FinCEN seeks comment on this assumption. Table 4.2 reports selected characteristics for this benchmark.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>275</SU>
                             Government Accountability Office, 
                            <E T="03">Anti-Money Laundering: Opportunities Exist to Increase Law Enforcement Use of Bank Secrecy Act Reports, and Banks' Costs to Comply with the Act Varied</E>
                             (GAO-20-574), (Sept. 2020), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.gao.gov/products/gao-20-574</E>
                             (2020 GAO BSA Report). The 2020 GAO BSA Report noted that it reported software costs separately and did not allocate them by requirement because the banks reviewed commonly used the same software to meet multiple BSA/AML requirements.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>276</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="122">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12152"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.028</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Table 4.3 reports the estimated compliance costs for specialized AML/CFT software and an independent annual audit to test the AML/CFT program. The costs are based on values for the financial institution benchmark described in the previous paragraph adjusted for inflation to 2022 dollars using the GDP implicit price deflator.
                        <SU>278</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>277</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id</E>
                             at Table 111: Selected Characteristics of Large Community Bank B, 2018.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>278</SU>
                             Bureau of Economic Analysis, National Income and Product Accounts Tables, Table 1.1.9. Implicit Price Deflators for Gross Domestic Product, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.bea.gov/itable/national-gdp-and-personal-income.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="87">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.029</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        (b) Compliance Costs to Industry by Regulatory Provision
                        <FTREF/>
                    </HD>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>279</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             2020 GAO BSA Report at Table 113, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             n. 275.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>As described in section 2, the regulated universe for purposes of the proposed rule consists of RIAs and ERAs, which vary in terms of their business structure, size, client relationships, and degree of existing AML/CFT measures already in place. Across these advisers, several characteristics vary across groups that directly impact the magnitude of the estimated costs, including the average number of employees and the number/type of customer relationships. However, the most significant cost determinant is the extent of existing AML/CFT measures in place—RIAs and ERAs with established AML/CFT programs in place will likely incur relatively fewer costs under the proposed rule, while those with few AML/CFT measures in place may incur potentially more significant costs.</P>
                    <P>
                        For the purposes of estimating the cost impacts of the proposed rule, this Impact Analysis has sub-divided RIAs and ERAs into groups based on: (1) whether they are dual registrants, affiliated advisers, or other advisers (as described in section 2); and (2) whether they have a 
                        <E T="03">significant, moderate,</E>
                         or a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures already in place (see Table 2.2). FinCEN believes that these sub-divisions are the best available method of estimating the cost impacts, but FinCEN invites comment on whether some other method of sub-dividing the industry for cost-estimate purposes would be preferable.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. AML/CFT Program Costs</HD>
                    <P>RIAs and ERAs subject to the proposed rule will need to implement and maintain an AML/CFT program that meets the minimum requirements of the BSA. This includes developing internal policies, procedures, and controls to comply with the requirements of the BSA and address money laundering, terrorist financing, and other illicit finance risks. Entities that do not already have a AML/CFT program in place will incur costs to establish such a program. In addition, those entities will incur costs for maintaining, updating, storing, and producing upon request the written AML/CFT program. Dual registrants or affiliated advisers would not have to establish multiple AML/CFT programs, provided that an existing comprehensive AML/CFT program would cover all of the entity's advisory businesses. Entities that already have an existing AML/CFT program will need to review and/or modify their AML/CFT program to ensure it complies with the requirements of the proposed rule. As firms that have an existing AML/CFT program are expected to be already maintaining, updating, storing, and producing upon request the written program, FinCEN estimates these firms will incur no additional costs beyond reviewing/modifying and obtaining written approval in the first year after the promulgation of the proposed regulation.</P>
                    <P>
                        Based on public comments on the Second Proposed Investment Adviser Rule,
                        <SU>280</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN estimates it will take approximately 120 hours to develop the necessary policies and procedures to establish an AML/CFT program for affiliated or other RIAs and ERAs that have a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of existing AML/CFT measures in place. FinCEN assumes that dually registered entities covered by an existing AML/CFT program and entities that have a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place would only need to update their existing program. FinCEN assumes the vast majority of entities would develop or update a written program within the first year after the promulgation of the regulation. Once established, FinCEN estimates annually it will take approximately 1 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12153"/>
                        hour to maintain and update the existing AML/CFT program plus an average of 10 minutes to store and produce upon request the written AML/CFT program. Table 4.4 reports the average costs of establishing and maintaining an AML/CFT program.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>280</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Public Comments, Docket ID FINCEN-2014-0003, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/FINCEN-2014-0003/comments.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="247">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.030</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        In addition, the AML/CFT program must be approved in writing by an RIA's or ERA's board of directors or trustees.
                        <SU>281</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN estimates that it will take approximately 4 hours for a trustee or director to review and approve a written AML/CFT program the first year it is implemented and approximately 2 hours each subsequent year to review the program.
                        <SU>282</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For this activity, FinCEN uses an average hourly wage based on the minimum BLS estimate for a chief executive as a proxy for a trustee of director's hourly compensation. Therefore, using the fully loaded labor cost of $172.42 per hour, the estimated labor cost for program review and approval is approximately $690 for a new AML/CFT program and $345 for an existing AML/CFT program. FinCEN seeks comment on the accuracy of this estimation. This represents an upfront and recurring cost for RIAs and ERAs that do not have an existing AML/CFT program, but only a one-time cost for RIAs and ERAs that currently have a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>281</SU>
                             If an RIA or ERA does not have a board, then the program must be approved by the adviser's sole proprietor, general partner, trustee, or other persons that have functions similar to a board of directors.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>282</SU>
                             FinCEN notes that this estimate reflects the time spent by one trustee/director, and that for those RIAs or ERAs with a full board of directors, there could be incremental cost for each additional director.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Further, RIAs and ERAs would need to implement an AML/CFT training program for employees.
                        <SU>283</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN estimates approximately two-thirds of employees would need to be trained on the AML/CFT program requirements, and assumes that such training could occur annually.
                        <SU>284</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN assesses that RIAs and ERAs with a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place are already training staff and would not incur additional training costs under the proposed rule—with the exception of reviewing and updating the training materials to ensure they cover all of the proposed requirements. For RIAs and ERAs with a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place, FinCEN estimates it would initially take 50 hours to develop an AML/CFT training program. For entities that have an existing AML/CFT training program (those entities with a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place), FinCEN estimates the one-time burden to review and update training materials would be 10 hours. FinCEN seeks comment on these assumptions. Some RIAs and ERAs may choose to use a third-party consultant or external training event to conduct trainings, but this would not be required under the proposed rule.
                        <SU>285</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN estimates the training would take approximately 1 hour for each employee, assuming such training occurs annually.
                        <SU>286</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Table 4.5 reports the estimated average cost of developing and conducting AML/CFT program compliance training annually. The number of total hours is estimated based on the average number of employees for each type of RIA or ERA.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>283</SU>
                             Employees of an investment adviser (and of any agent or third-party service provider that is charged with administering any portion of the AML/CFT program) would have to be trained in AML/CFT requirements relevant to their functions and to recognize possible signs of money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activity that could arise in the course of their duties.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>284</SU>
                             The frequency of the investment adviser's training program would be determined by the responsibilities of the employees and the extent to which their functions would bring them in contact with AML/CFT requirements or possible money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activity.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>285</SU>
                             The 2020 GAO BSA Report estimated the average cost per employee trained ranged between $20 and $400 with a mean estimate of approximately $116 per employee (measured in 2022 dollars). For “Large Community Bank B” the average estimated cost per employee trained was approximately $130 (measured in 2022 dollars).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>286</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See id.</E>
                             at p. 52.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="192">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12154"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.031</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        In addition, all RIAs and ERAs will need to implement independent testing of their AML/CFT program. As described in the previous section, FinCEN estimates the average cost of such testing will be approximately $17,000.
                        <SU>288</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN seeks comment on this assumption. This reflects a new recurring cost for all RIAs and ERAs affected by the proposed rule with the exception of dually registered entities, which are assumed to already use independent auditors. Table 4.6 summarizes the average incremental costs per entity of developing or maintaining and updating an AML/CFT program by type and characteristics of each RIA or ERA.
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>287</SU>
                             For annual training, total hours includes 1 hour per employee. FinCEN assumes approximately two-thirds of employees will require training each year, to include periodic updates and refresher training. Total cost may differ from hourly cost multiplied by total hours shown in table due to rounding.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>288</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             2020 GAO BSA Report at Table 113.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="296">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.032</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        ii. Customer Due Diligence Costs
                        <FTREF/>
                    </HD>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>289</SU>
                             Costs are rounded to the nearest thousand dollars.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The proposed rule would require RIAs and ERAs to implement appropriate risk-based procedures for conducting ongoing customer due diligence. Specifically, RIAs and ERAs would be required to (1) understand the nature and purpose of customer relationships for the purpose of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12155"/>
                        developing a customer risk profile; and (2) conduct ongoing monitoring to identify and report suspicious transactions and, on a risk basis, to maintain and update customer information.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN assumes that all RIAs and ERAs have some existing information on their customers and processes to identify and conduct additional diligence on certain customers. For instance, in reviewing the data from the 2016 IMCTS Survey, in addition to the 40 percent who had implemented a full AML/CFT program consistent with the requirements of the Second Proposed Investment Adviser Rule, an additional 36 percent of RIAs implemented some AML/CFT measures.
                        <SU>290</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Based on this information as well as industry input about some of the voluntary AML/CFT measures firms have in place, it is more common for firms to develop voluntary CDD programs as part of their onboarding process as compared to other AML/CFT measures.
                        <SU>291</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, FinCEN assumes that any RIAs and ERAs with a 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place will likely not need to modify their existing ongoing CDD measures, while RIAs and ERAs with a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place will need to perform additional customer review for existing customers and at the time of account opening for new customers. Since investment advisers generally already collect some of this information, the estimated cost burden is less than implementing a fully comprehensive customer review at the time of account opening, and accounts primarily for the costs of modifying existing procedures. FinCEN assumes the cost of modifying existing CDD procedures will be approximately 25 percent of the full cost for initial customer review and risk profiling. FinCEN seeks comment on these assumptions.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>290</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             2016 IMCTS Survey, Question 15, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             n. 150
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>291</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Managed Funds Association, Sound Practices for Hedge Fund Managers (2009), Chapter 6 (Anti-Money Laundering).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        RIAs and ERAs with a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place will need to collect additional information to develop a customer risk profile for legal entities and PIVs. Table 4.7 documents key assumptions regarding the number of customer accounts at affiliated and other RIAs and ERAs. ERAs only have legal entity customers—therefore, they have no natural person customers. Based on an analysis of Form ADV Filings, as of July 2023, RIAs had approximately 51.7 million natural person customers, 2.8 million legal entity customers, and 100,000 PIV accounts. FinCEN estimates the average number of customer accounts will grow at an annual rate of 9.5 percent—and PIV accounts will grow at an annual rate of 6 percent—based on average industry growth in individual and PIV accounts from 2018 to 2023.
                        <SU>292</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>292</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Investment Adviser Association, 
                            <E T="03">Investment Adviser Industry Snapshot 2023</E>
                             (Jul. 2023), p. 26, 
                            <E T="03">https://investmentadviser.org/wp-content/uploads/2023/06/Snapshot2023_Final.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="132">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.033</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Affiliated and other RIAs and ERAs with a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of existing AML/CFT measures will also need to collect and review customer information to implement risk-based procedures for conducting ongoing CDD. As described above, FinCEN estimates the costs associated with modifying existing customer diligence information and procedures will be significantly less than the full cost for developing the initial customer risk profile. In this Impact Analysis, FinCEN estimates the average cost of collecting additional information for new accounts to develop a customer risk profile will be approximately 25 percent of the total estimated cost of this information collection (30 minutes per natural person or 1 hour per legal entity).
                        <SU>294</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Thus, the estimated cost of information collection is approximately 7.5 minutes per natural person or 15 minutes per legal entity. For this activity, FinCEN uses an average hourly labor cost of $34.76 for a new account clerk. Therefore, the estimated labor cost to develop a risk profile is approximately $4.34 for per natural person and $8.68 per legal entity. In addition to new accounts, FinCEN anticipates that RIAs and ERAs will need to conduct this information collection for existing accounts. FinCEN estimates this information collection for existing accounts will be conducted over the first three years after the promulgation of the proposed regulation.
                        <SU>295</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN seeks comment on the accuracy of this estimate. The costs to build and maintain technology and information systems to house this customer information is not reflected here but is included in the annual costs of software licensing described elsewhere in this Impact Analysis. These costs are multiplied by the average number of natural persons, legal entities, and PIV accounts, respectively, for each RIA and ERA.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>293</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             n. 26.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>294</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             81 FR at 29448.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>295</SU>
                             Current industry practices suggest customers are often re-rated for risk purposes. Industry input suggests high-risk customers, which make up a small portion of many RIAs customer base, are re-rated at least annually or when SARs are filed, while medium- or low-risk customers are re-rated less frequently.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In addition to the costs to the adviser, this requirement likely represents an information collection burden for legal entities that hold accounts with investment advisers. FinCEN estimates it would take between approximately 15 and 30 minutes, or an average of 22.5 minutes, for legal entity customers to provide any additional data required for this information collection. Since these 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12156"/>
                        customers are not employees of the regulated entities, but rather other investment advisers in most cases, FinCEN uses an hourly burden estimate of $49.17 that is representative of the customer base.
                        <SU>296</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, the average information collection cost is approximately $18.44 per customer. This average cost is multiplied by the number of legal entity customers for each RIA or ERA.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>296</SU>
                             This estimate is based on a population-weighted average of $32.79, which represents the median salary for all employees in NAICS 522, 523, and 525, multiplied by an adjustment factor for fringe benefits of 1.50.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Table 4.8 summarizes the average ongoing CDD costs per entity by type and characteristics of each RIA or ERA. The relatively higher costs in the first three years reflects the compliance burden associated with data collection activities to develop a customer risk profile for existing customer accounts and new customer accounts, while the ongoing costs after 2026 reflect the burden associated with data collection for only new customer accounts.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="215">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.034</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        iii. Suspicious Activity Report Filing Costs
                        <FTREF/>
                    </HD>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>297</SU>
                             This category includes dual registrants that are applying a significant number of AML/CFT measures and affiliated advisers that are applying a moderate number of AML/CFT measures.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>298</SU>
                             Costs are rounded to the nearest thousand dollars for RIAs and to the nearest hundred dollars for ERAs.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>As part of their AML/CFT program, RIAs and ERAs will be required to conduct ongoing monitoring of customers and file SARs. FinCEN assumes that RIAs and ERAs that are dually registered as a broker-dealer or bank are already submitting SARs. The extent of SAR filing by affiliated or other advisers is uncertain. Therefore, FinCEN assumes that all RIAs and ERAs that are not dually registered as a broker-dealer or bank would have to begin filing SARs due to the proposed regulation. FinCEN seeks comment on this assumption. To the extent that some RIAs and ERAs in this category are already filing SARs, this may overestimate the costs of the proposed regulation.</P>
                    <P>
                        Based on an analysis of SAR filings by dual registrants between 2018 and 2022, FinCEN estimates that RIAs will file an average of approximately 60 SARs per year.
                        <SU>299</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Since no information was available for ERAs, FinCEN applies the same estimate of 60 SARs per year. FinCEN seeks comment on this assumption. Based on the analysis, FinCEN estimates the following regarding the SARs investment advisers would file:
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>299</SU>
                             Dual registrants were assessed to be the population of investment advisers most likely to file SARs and best represent an investment adviser subject to SAR filing obligations.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>• 51 (85 percent) would be initial SARs and 9 (15 percent) would be continuing SARs.</P>
                    <P>• 51 (85 percent) would be discrete SARs and 9 (15 percent) would be batch SARs.</P>
                    <P>• 55 (92 percent) would be standard SARs and 5 (8 percent) would be extended SARs.</P>
                    <P>Without a detailed breakdown, FinCEN assumes the distribution of SARs is proportionally distributed across each category as discussed below. Each type of filing is expected to have a different reporting burden.</P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, the estimated costs of ongoing monitoring in (Table 4.8 above) include the review of alerts that do not result in a SAR being filed. FinCEN previously estimated that approximately 42 percent of suspicious activity alerts were turned into SARs.
                        <SU>300</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, for each case filed as a SAR, approximately 1.4 cases were not filed. Table 4.9 reports the average cost of determining whether a SAR is needed and filing SARs. While the burden estimates are based on FinCEN's previous analysis,
                        <SU>301</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         in this Impact Analysis the burden is attributed primarily to a compliance officer rather than a financial clerk or teller due to the smaller size of RIAs and ERAs relative to banks and to avoid potentially underestimating the average hourly labor costs associated with these activities. To the extent that a portion of this work can be completed by clerical staff that report to a compliance officer, this may slightly overestimate certain costs. FinCEN seeks comment on this assumption. The licensing cost for transaction monitoring software is not reflected here but is included in the software costs described elsewhere in this Impact Analysis.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>300</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Proposed Renewal: Reports by Financial Institutions of Suspicious Transactions,</E>
                             85 FR 31598 (May 26, 2020).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>301</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="227">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12157"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.035</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Figure 4.1 illustrates FinCEN's estimates regarding the average number and distribution of SARs, including for suspicious activity alerts that do not result in a SAR being filed, as well as the hourly recordkeeping, reporting, and storing burden estimates by type of filing.
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>302</SU>
                             Information on the number and distribution of SARs by type of filing based on an analysis of SAR filings. Information on the number of alerts and burden estimates based on FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Proposed Renewal: Reports by Financial Institutions of Suspicious Transactions.</E>
                             85 FR 31598 (May 26, 2020).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="303">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.036</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Based on this information, the average annual cost of SAR filings is estimated to be approximately $10,000 per entity for any RIA or ERA that does not have a full AML/CFT program in place. No incremental costs are estimated for dual registrants because those entities are already submitting SARs in the baseline.
                        <PRTPAGE P="12158"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">iv. Other Compliance Costs</HD>
                    <P>As discussed above, there are certain costs associated with the proposed rule that may be spread across several of the proposed requirements. It is challenging to allocate those expenditures to specific provisions of the proposed rule described above. These include software licensing and general recordkeeping costs.</P>
                    <P>
                        Dual registrants, affiliated, and other RIAs and ERAs that already apply a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures are expected to already be using specialized AML/CFT software as part of their AML/CFT program. Affiliated or non-affiliated entities that have a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place will likely have to invest in this type of software to implement an AML/CFT program. FinCEN estimates that annual licensing fees for specialized AML/CFT software will be approximately $12,400.
                        <SU>303</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>303</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             2020 GAO BSA Report at Table 113.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The proposed rule requires RIAs and ERAs to comply with certain recordkeeping obligations (under the Recordkeeping Rule and Travel Rule),
                        <SU>304</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         including recording and maintaining originator and beneficiary information for certain transactions. FinCEN assumes that RIAs and ERAs that are dually registered as a broker-dealer or as a bank with a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place are already in compliance with the recordkeeping requirements, while other RIAs and ERAs would have to take additional steps to comply with these measures. FinCEN estimates the annual recordkeeping burden per RIA or ERA for these requirements is 50 hours.
                        <SU>305</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Table 4.10 summarizes the average cost associated with these recordkeeping requirements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>304</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 CFR 1020.410(a), (e); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             31 CFR 1010.410(f).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>305</SU>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Proposed Renewal: Renewal Without Change of Regulations Requiring Records to be Made and Retained by Financial Institutions, Banks, and Providers and Sellers of Prepaid Access,</E>
                             85 FR 84105 (Dec. 23, 2020).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="72">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.037</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        In addition, the proposed rule requires RIAs and ERAs to implement the information sharing procedures contained in section 314(a) of the USA PATRIOT Act.
                        <SU>306</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Upon receiving an information request from FinCEN, an RIA or ERA would be required to search its records to determine whether it maintains or has maintained any account or engaged in any transaction with an individual, entity, or organization named in the request. Covered financial institutions are instructed not to reply to the 314(a) request if a search does not uncover any matching of accounts or transactions. Currently, all 314(a) responses are filed using automated technology.
                        <SU>307</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN assumes that dually registered entities with a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place are already complying with these requirements, while most other RIAs and ERAs will likely incur additional reporting costs to comply with these measures. FinCEN estimates the average burden will be approximately 4 minutes per 314(a) request for 365 reports per year per investment adviser, an average of one request per calendar day.
                        <SU>308</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, the estimated burden is approximately 24 hours (4 minutes × 365 reports = 1,460 minutes) per year per investment adviser. The information technology costs associated with 314(a) requests are assumed to be included within the overall software costs. Table 4.11 summarizes the information collection costs for 314(a) measures.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>306</SU>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Special Information Sharing Procedures to Deter Money Laundering and Terrorist</E>
                             Activity, Final Rule, 67 FR 60579 (Sept. 26, 2002).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>307</SU>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Proposed Renewal: Renewal Without Change on Information Sharing Between Government Agencies and Financial Institutions,</E>
                             87 FR 41186 (Jul. 11, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>308</SU>
                             Id.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="72">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.038</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        As “covered financial institutions” under FinCEN regulations, RIAs and ERAs will also be required to maintain due diligence measures that include policies, procedures, and controls that are reasonably designed to detect and report any known or suspected money laundering or other suspicious activity conducted through or involving any correspondent or private banking account that is established, maintained, administered, or managed in the United States. FinCEN estimates the annual hourly burden of maintaining and updating the due diligence program for foreign correspondent accounts and private banking accounts would be approximately two hours for each RIA and ERA—one hour to maintain and update the program and one hour to obtain the approval of senior management.
                        <SU>309</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Information technology costs associated with this requirement are included within the overall software costs. Table 4.12 summarizes the cost burden associated with special due diligence measures.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>309</SU>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Proposed Renewal: Due Diligence Programs for Correspondent Accounts for Foreign Financial Institutions and for Private Banking Accounts,</E>
                             85 FR 61104 (Sep. 9, 2020).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="109">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12159"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.039</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Under the proposed rule, RIAs and ERAs must also comply with special measures procedures and prohibitions contained in section 311 of the USA PATRIOT Act.
                        <SU>310</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Section 9714 of the Combatting Russian Money Laundering Act allows for similar special measures in the context of illicit Russian finance. Sections 311 and 9714 grant FinCEN the authority, upon finding that reasonable grounds exist for concluding that a foreign jurisdiction, financial institution, class of transactions, or type of account is of “primary money laundering concern,” to require domestic financial institutions and financial agencies to take one or more “special measures,” which impose additional recordkeeping, information collection, and reporting requirements on covered U.S. financial institutions. They also allow FinCEN to impose prohibitions or conditions on the opening or maintenance of certain correspondent accounts. Currently, such prohibitions are in place for three foreign financial institutions and two foreign jurisdictions, all imposed under section 311.
                        <SU>311</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These special measures require financial institutions to provide notice to foreign account holders and document compliance with the statute. FinCEN assumes that dually registered RIAs and ERAs with a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place are already complying with these requirements, while most other RIAs and ERAs will likely incur additional costs to comply with these special measures. FinCEN estimates the average burden will be approximately 1 hour per special measure.
                        <SU>312</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, the estimated burden is approximately 5 hours. FinCEN seeks comment on this assumption. Table 4.13 summarizes the average cost for implementation section 311 special measures.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>310</SU>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Final Rule: Special Information Sharing Procedures to Deter Money Laundering and Terrorist Activity.</E>
                             67 FR 60579 (Sept. 26, 2002).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>311</SU>
                             These foreign financial institutions and jurisdictions are: (1) Bank of Dandong, (2) Commercial Bank of Syria, including Syrian Lebanese Commercial Bank, (3) FBME Bank Ltd., (4) Islamic Republic of Iran, and (5) Democratic People's Republic of North Korea. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FinCEN, Special Measures for Jurisdictions, Financial Institutions, or International Transactions of Primary Money Laundering Concern, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fincen.gov/resources/statutes-and-regulations/311-and-9714-special-measures,</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>312</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             FinCEN, 
                            <E T="03">Proposed Renewal: Imposition of a Special Measure against Bank of Dandong as a Financial Institution of Primary Money Laundering Concern,</E>
                             88 FR 48285 (Jul. 26, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="72">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.040</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Finally, in addition to filing SARs, financial institutions must file CTRs under the BSA's reporting obligations. Currently, all investment advisers are required to report transactions in currency over $10,000 on Form 8300, which is being replaced by the CTR.
                        <SU>313</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, FinCEN estimates that the incremental cost for RIAs and ERAs to use the CTR is 
                        <E T="03">de minimis.</E>
                        <SU>314</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN seeks comment on this assumption.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>313</SU>
                             FinCEN, Proposed Renewal: 
                            <E T="03">Renewal Without Change of the Bank Secrecy Act Reports of Transactions in Currency Regulations at 31 CFR 1010.310 Through 1010.314, 31 CFR 1021.311, and 31 CFR 1021.313, and FinCEN Report 112—Currency Transaction Report,</E>
                             85 FR 29022 (July 13, 2020).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>314</SU>
                             In the Second Proposed Investment Adviser Rule, FinCEN estimated each investment adviser would file an average of one CTR per year, at a time cost of one hour per CTR. Incorporating these costs in the model would change the total hour and dollar burden by less than one percent.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Based on this information, the average annual cost of other compliance measures not characterized elsewhere in this regulatory impact analysis are estimated to be approximately $4,000 for affiliated or other RIAs and ERAs with a 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures already in place and approximately $16,000 for affiliated or other RIAs and ERAs with a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures already in place.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(c) Costs to Government</HD>
                    <P>This section describes the costs to Federal Government agencies to implement and enforce the proposed regulation.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Costs to FinCEN</HD>
                    <P>
                        Administering the proposed regulation is estimated to entail costs to FinCEN as well as other government agencies. In terms of technology and IT costs, the proposed rule does not create new kinds or requirements or new reporting forms, and instead applies existing SAR and CTR filing obligations to investment advisers. As a result, technology and IT costs are estimated to be small but are included in this analysis for comprehensiveness. The primary costs that FinCEN and other government agencies are expected to incur with respect to administering this proposed rule relate to personnel costs for enforcing compliance with the regulation, as well as providing guidance and engaging in outreach, training, investigations, and policy development in support of this regulation. FinCEN estimates the total annual personnel cost relating to administering this proposed rule to be 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12160"/>
                        $7.5 million, as reflected in Table 4.14, with continuing recurring annual costs of roughly the same magnitude for ongoing outreach, policy, and enforcement activities thereafter.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="241">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.041</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        In addition, FinCEN estimates the average technology and IT costs associated with receiving SAR filings will be approximately $0.10 per SAR. Based on an average estimate of 60 SARs per entity per year, FinCEN anticipates it will receive approximately 1,245,420 SARs each year from RIAs and ERAs that do not currently have most AML/CFT measures in place. This estimate excludes SAR filings for dually registered entities because those entities are expected to be submitting SARs in the baseline. Therefore, the incremental technology and IT costs to FinCEN associated with the SAR filing requirement are estimated to be approximately $125,000 per year. Enforcement of this regulation will involve coordination with law enforcement agencies, which will incur costs (time and resources) while conducting investigations into non-compliance. FinCEN does not currently propose an estimate of these costs.
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>315</SU>
                             U.S. Office of Personnel Management, Salary Table 2023 Incorporating the 4.1 percent General Schedule Increase and a Locality Payment of 32.49 percent for the Washington-Baltimore-Arlington area. Rounded to three significant digits.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>316</SU>
                             The Department of Health and Human Services recommends using an adjustment factor of 2 to account for fringe benefits and overhead when agency-specific financial data are unavailable. (HHS, Guidelines for Regulatory Impact Analysis, 2016, p. 30).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Costs to SEC</HD>
                    <P>
                        The SEC is also estimated to incur costs, primarily relating to additional staff needed to examine for compliance with the requirements of the proposed rule, and to provide any needed regulatory guidance or analysis. Costs associated with implementing the proposed rule are expected to primarily affect the Division of Investment Management and the Division of Examinations, though certain potential costs may also be incurred by the Division of Enforcement. In addition, as the SEC receives a significant portion of its revenue from fees on registrants and other market participants, many of these costs would ultimately be paid for through those fees.
                        <SU>317</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>317</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             SEC, 
                            <E T="03">FY 2023 Agency Financial Report,</E>
                             p. 32, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/files/sec-2023-agency-financial-report.pdf#chairmessage.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The SEC's Division of Investment Management administers the Advisers Act and develops regulatory policy for investment advisers, among other responsibilities. The Division of Investment Management may require two additional staff to provide regulatory guidance or analysis related to the proposed rule. The average salary for a GS-15 equivalent is approximately $203,500 based on the SEC's SK series adjusted for the locality pay area of Washington, DC.
                        <SU>318</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Applying an adjustment factor of 2.0 for fringe benefits and overhead yields an estimated fully loaded labor cost of approximately $407,000. Therefore, FinCEN estimates the total annual personnel cost to the SEC relating to administering this proposed rule to be approximately $814,000.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>318</SU>
                             This estimate is based on the midpoint salary for a GS-15 equivalent of $153,600 multiplied by the locality pay rate of 32.49 percent for Washington, DC.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        RIAs are subject to examination by SEC staff in the SEC's Division of Examinations. Within the Division of Examinations, the Investment Adviser/Investment Company (IA/IC) Examination Program completed more than 2,300 examinations of SEC-registered investment advisers in FY22.
                        <SU>319</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The SEC maintains authority to examine ERAs as well. While the Division of Examinations may conduct examinations for compliance with the requirements of the proposed rule within its existing examination program, this may require additional examination staff. FinCEN does not currently have an estimate of the additional costs the SEC's Division of Examinations may incur for these activities.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>319</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             SEC, 
                            <E T="03">FY 2024 Congressional Budget Justification,</E>
                             p. 22, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/files/fy-2024-congressional-budget-justification_final-3-10.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(d) Summary of Costs</HD>
                    <P>
                        This section reports the total costs of the proposed rule on a per entity basis 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12161"/>
                        and in aggregate, by type and characteristics of each RIA or ERA. As described in ection 2, the regulated universe consists of RIAs and ERAs that vary in terms of business structure, number of employees, number of accounts, and the extent that existing AML/CFT measures are being applied (
                        <E T="03">e.g. significant, moderate, limited</E>
                        ). Table 4.15 summarizes the total number of entities by type and characteristics of each RIA and ERA.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="125">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.042</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Average Cost per Private Entity and Total Costs by Category of Investment Adviser</HD>
                    <P>
                        This section describes the estimated average cost per entity and total costs by type and characteristics of each RIA and ERA. The average costs per RIA and ERA are multiplied by the number of impacted entities to estimate the aggregate cost burden of the proposed rule, by category of RIA and ERA. Table 4.16 summarizes the estimated costs for RIAs and ERAs that are dually registered as a broker-dealer or a bank with a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place. The estimated costs for dually registered entities are minimal because most firms are expected to have an existing AML/CFT program in place. The relatively small incremental costs are associated with RIAs and ERAs maintaining and updating a written AML/CFT program and reviewing and updating AML/CFT training to ensure they cover the activities of all RIAs and ERAs and meet the requirements of the BSA.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="96">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.043</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Table 4.17. summarizes the estimated costs for affiliated RIAs with a 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place.
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>320</SU>
                             For Tables 4.16 to 4.37, costs are rounded to the nearest thousand dollars or two significant digits.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="87">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.044</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Table 4.18. summarizes the estimated costs for affiliated RIAs with a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="182">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12162"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.045</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Table 4.19. summarizes the estimated costs for other RIAs with a 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="87">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.046</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Table 4.20. summarizes the estimated costs for other RIAs with a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="182">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.047</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Table 4.21. summarizes the estimated costs for ERAs, affiliated, with a 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="73">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12163"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.048</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Table 4.22. summarizes the estimated costs for ERAs that are affiliated with a bank or broker-dealer with a 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="87">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.049</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Table 4.23. summarizes the estimated costs for other ERAs with a 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="87">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.050</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Table 4.24. summarizes the estimated costs for other ERAs with a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="87">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.051</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Estimated Burden of the Proposed Rule to Industry</HD>
                    <P>Table 4.25 summarizes the total costs of the proposed rule on an undiscounted basis.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="223">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12164"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.052</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Table 4.26 summarizes the total costs of the proposed rule by entity and business structure for dual registrants, affiliated advisers, and other advisers on an undiscounted basis.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="211">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.053</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">iii. Discounted Estimated Burden of the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        In regulatory impact analyses, discount rates are used to account for differences in the timing of the estimated benefits and costs. Benefits and costs that accrue further in the future are more heavily discounted than those impacts that occur today. Discounting reflects individuals' general preference to receive benefits sooner rather than later (and defer costs) and recognizes that costs incurred today are more expensive than future costs because businesses must forgo an expected rate of return on investment of that capital.
                        <SU>321</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         OMB recommends using a discount rate of 2 percent.
                        <SU>322</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This represents the real (inflation-adjusted) rate of return on long-term U.S. government debt over the last 30 years, calculated between 1993 and 2022, and is a reasonable approximation of the social rate of time preference.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>321</SU>
                             U.S. Office of Management and Budget, Circular A-4, Nov. 9, 2023.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>322</SU>
                             Id.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Table 4.27 summarizes the total costs of the proposed rule using a 2 percent discount rate. As shown in the table, RIAs account for approximately 72 percent of the annualized costs to industry, while ERAs account for the remaining 28 percent.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="264">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12165"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.054</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Table 4.28 summarizes the total costs of the proposed rule by entity and business structure for dual registrants, affiliated advisers, and other advisers using a 2 percent discount rate. As shown in the table, entities that are dual registrants account for less than 0.1 percent, affiliated advisers account for approximately 11 percent, and other advisers account for approximately 89 percent of the annualized costs to industry.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="252">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.055</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(e) Uncertainty Analysis</HD>
                    <P>
                        As described in section 2, the number of RIAs and ERAs is well-defined based on the number of Form ADV filings. However, there is uncertainty about the extent of existing AML/CFT measures within each group. While an uncertainty analysis could layer various assumptions about the percentage of RIAs and ERAs that have in place certain AML/CFT measures to address each individual requirement—and the degree to which those measures would have to be reviewed and modified to comply with the requirements of the proposed rule—such information is unavailable and the existing framework described in the section presents a simpler approach to account for this uncertainty by varying certain 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12166"/>
                        assumptions around the categorization of RIAs and ERAs. Specifically, this Impact Analysis estimates the impact of varying assumptions regarding the distribution of RIAs and ERAs into categories of significant, moderate, and limited AML/CFT measures in place. This provides a lower and upper bound estimate of the potential costs of the proposed rule. The costs presented earlier in this section represent FinCEN's primary estimate of the burden of the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Lower Bound Estimate</HD>
                    <P>
                        The lower bound estimate assumes that a greater proportion of RIAs and ERAs have a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place and will have to implement relatively 
                        <E T="03">fewer</E>
                         additional measures under the proposed rule. Table 4.29 summarizes the total number of entities according to the business type and characteristics of each RIA and ERA. This represents an optimistic, but not implausible, scenario based on self-reported assessments indicating that approximately 40 percent of RIAs already have AML/CFT policies and procedures consistent with the BSA.
                        <SU>323</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For the lower bound estimate, FinCEN assumes the same proportion of affiliated ERAs and other ERAs have a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures as the corresponding RIA groups. Thus, this estimate is optimistic in that the number of ERAs with policies and procedures similar to those of RIAs is highly uncertain—although it is still likely to be less than the overall percentage of RIAs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>323</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             2106 IMCTS Survey, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             n. 150.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="125">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.056</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Table 4.30 summarizes the total costs of the proposed rule in the lower bound scenario using a 2 percent discount rate. As shown in the table, although the overall costs of the proposed rule are lower, the distribution of costs between RIAs and ERAs is similar to the primary estimate.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="264">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.057</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Table 4.31 summarizes the total costs of the proposed rule by entity and business structure for dual registrants, affiliated advisers, and other advisers in the lower bound scenario using a 2 percent discount rate. As shown in the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12167"/>
                        table, in the lower bound scenario a greater proportion of the costs (approximately 95 percent) are attributed to other advisers.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="252">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.058</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Upper Bound Estimate</HD>
                    <P>
                        The upper bound estimate assumes that a greater proportion of RIAs and ERAs have 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place and will have to implement relatively 
                        <E T="03">greater</E>
                         additional measures under the proposed rule. Table 4.32 summarizes the total number of entities by type and characteristics of each RIA and ERA.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="125">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.059</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Table 4.33 summarizes the total costs of the proposed rule in the upper bound scenario using a 2 percent discount rate. As shown in the table, although the overall costs of the proposed rule are higher, the distribution of costs between RIAs and ERAs is similar to the primary estimate.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="264">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12168"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.060</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Table 4.34 summarizes the total costs of the proposed rule by entity and business structure for dual registrants, affiliated advisers, and other advisers in the upper bound scenario using a 2 percent discount rate. As shown in the table, although the overall costs of the proposed rule are higher, the distribution of costs between the different types of RIAs and ERAs is similar to the primary estimate.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="252">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.061</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">iii. Comparison of Costs in the Lower and Upper Bound Estimates</HD>
                    <P>
                        As described in this section, FinCEN estimates the cost of the proposed rule to regulated entities will be approximately $870 million on an annualized basis. In comparison to alternative assumptions about the degree of existing AML/CFT measures among RIAs and ERAs subject to the proposed rule, FinCEN's primary estimate is relatively conservative in that it assumes a greater proportion of RIAs and ERAs have only a 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of existing AML/CFT measures in place in comparison to input provided by industry suggesting that figure may be lower. Therefore, the primary estimate is closer to the upper bound than the lower bound. Under the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12169"/>
                        most pessimistic assumptions regarding the degree of existing AML/CFT measures, the proposed rule is estimated to cost approximately $1 billion on an annualized basis. This scenario is highly improbable because more than 520 RIAs (out of 690 surveyed) indicated that they already have a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place. Under more optimistic assumptions about the proportion of RIAs with a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place, FinCEN estimates the cost of the proposed rule will be approximately $490 million on an annualized basis. Table 4.35 provides a comparison of the estimated costs of the proposed rule under each of these scenarios.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="246">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.062</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">iv. Alternative Higher Third Party Vendor Cost Scenario</HD>
                    <P>
                        While the estimated costs of the proposed rule are not highly sensitive to several of the unit cost assumptions described in this section—in part because most of the labor costs are generally estimated in hours rather than days or weeks—two of the major cost drivers of the proposed rule are software licensing fees and independent testing. Therefore, FinCEN compared how the estimated costs changed if third-party vendor costs increased by 100 percent.
                        <SU>324</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The estimated costs are relatively sensitive to assumptions regarding third-party fees for certain AML/CFT functions because these comprise a large share of the overall costs for RIAs and ERAs with a 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of existing AML/CFT measures in place. Table 4.36 reports alternative cost assumptions for third-party vendor costs that are double the primary estimate.
                        <SU>325</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FinCEN assessed that the average technology costs used in the primary estimate are more likely to be representative of the costs likely to be incurred by RIAs and ERAs, which are typically much smaller than the bank benchmark in the 2020 GAO BSA Report. Smaller banks generally reported lower technology costs. However, for direct comparison this regulatory impact analysis reports higher estimated technology costs as an alternative scenario.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>324</SU>
                             Independent testing under the proposed rule can be conducted by an adviser's employees and is not required to be conducted by a third-party vendor. The costs identified here could be less than estimated to the extent employees (and not third-party vendors) are used.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>325</SU>
                             The alternative third party vendor costs are more in line with the cost estimates in the 2020 GAO BSA Report for “Large Community Bank A” ($501 million to $600 million in assets) and “Large Credit Union A” ($101 million to $201 million in assets). In comparison, the primary cost estimates are based on “Large Community Bank B” ($401 million to $500 million in assets) in the same report.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="98">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.063</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <PRTPAGE P="12170"/>
                    <P>Table 4.37 provides a comparison of the estimated costs of the proposed rule under the higher technology cost scenario. Overall, the estimated costs would be approximately 60 percent higher under this scenario relative to the primary estimate. FinCEN ascribes a low probability to the average technology/third-party vendor costs being this high given the typical size of RIAs and ERAs affected by the proposed rule.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="252">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.064</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Regulatory Alternatives</HD>
                    <P>This section evaluates the potential benefits and costs of regulatory alternatives in comparison to the proposed regulation. This regulatory impact analysis considers two alternatives as described below.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(a) Alternative 1: Inclusion of State-Registered Investment Advisers</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the first alternative, FinCEN considered including State-registered investment advisers in the proposed rule. This alternative would bring all investment advisers that file Form ADV and register with a Federal 
                        <E T="03">or State</E>
                         regulatory authority under the scope of the proposed rule. FinCEN estimates there are approximately 17,000 State-registered investment advisers, based on reports from the North American Security Administrators Association (NASAA).
                        <SU>326</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Table 5.1 summarizes their characteristics.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>326</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">NASAA Investment Adviser Section: 2023 Annual Report,</E>
                             p.2, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.nasaa.org/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/2023-IA-Section-Report-FINAL.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="110">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.065</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN
                        <FTREF/>
                         assumed that the costs of the rule would apply to State-registered investment advisers in the same way as for RIAs that are “other advisers”. If State-registered investment advisers are less likely than RIAs to have any AML/CFT measures in the baseline, then this assumption would understate the costs of the rule for State-registered investment advisers. Under the assumptions of the cost model in section 3, Table 5.2. summarizes the total costs of Alternative 1 for State-registered investment advisers in addition to the other entities subject to regulation.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>327</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See Id.</E>
                             The average number of employees per investment adviser was calculated as a weighted average of the bins reported on page 5, using the following employees for each respective bin: 2 [0-2 employees], 6.5 [3-10 employees], 15 [11-20 employees], 25 [&gt;20 employees].
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="223">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12171"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.066</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>FinCEN assesses the potential benefits of including State-registered investment advisers in the definition of “financial institution” are significantly smaller relative to the likely benefits of including RIAs and ERAs. Although the overall benefits may exceed those of the proposed regulation because the requirements extend to a larger number of entities, the limited incremental benefits of applying the requirements to State-registered investment advisers suggest this would be a less cost-effective approach to regulation.</P>
                    <P>
                        Specifically, including State-registered investment advisers nearly doubles the cost of the proposed rule, because of the large number of State-registered investment advisers. But such inclusion is less likely to achieve the same degree of benefits as for other investment advisers, partly because State-registered advisers are smaller, in terms of number of clients and AUM, and their customers tend to be localized. Treasury's risk assessment found few examples of State-registered investment advisers being used to move illicit proceeds or facilitate other illicit activity.
                        <SU>328</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Further, the vast majority of their clients are natural persons who are not high net-worth customers and are U.S. persons.
                        <SU>329</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, FinCEN rejected this regulatory alternative in favor of the more cost-effective approach in the proposed regulation.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>328</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Treasury, 
                            <E T="03">Investment Adviser Illicit Finance Risk Assessment, https://home.treasury.gov/system/files/136/US-Sectoral-Illicit-Finance-Risk-Assessment-Investment-Advisers.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>329</SU>
                             A survey of select State securities regulators found that for State-registered investment advisers they supervised, on average, less than 3 percent of their customers were non-U.S. persons.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(b) Alternative 2: Requirements for Private Fund Advisers To Conduct Risk-Based Customer Due Diligence and Amendments to Form PF for Reporting Beneficial Ownership Information for the Private Funds Being Advised</HD>
                    <P>In the second alternative, FinCEN considered whether to limit the rule requirements to only certain reporting requirements among private fund advisers. In particular, the alternative rule would require private fund advisers to conduct risk-based customer due diligence and to report beneficial ownership information.</P>
                    <P>Under Alternative 2, investment advisers would incur compliance costs associated with the following requirements: (1) identifying beneficial ownership for new legal entity and PIV accounts and (2) developing a customer risk profile for legal entities. Investment advisers would be exempt from other requirements of the BSA, including developing and maintaining an AML/CFT program, filing SARs, and other recordkeeping requirements. Investment advisers that do not advise private funds would also be exempt from any requirement. Alternative 2 would limit both the covered population and the number of requirements, relative to the proposed rule. FinCEN estimates there are approximately 11,000 RIAs advising private funds, as well as all ERAs. Some RIAs and ERAs already have measures in place that would meet the requirements of Alternative 2.</P>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN estimated the cost of Alternative 2 based on the same cost methodology as in section 3, in this case only for investment advisers that report private funds in Form ADV. As described in sections 2 and 3, FinCEN's cost analysis assumed that RIAs and ERAs with a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures would already meet the requirements of Alternative 2; those RIAs and ERAs would have zero cost burden under this alternative. Therefore, the costs are borne only by RIAs and ERAs with a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in the baseline. FinCEN used Form ADV data for those advisers that advise private funds, and Table 5.3. summarizes the total costs of Alternative 2. For Alternative 2, there are no estimated Federal agency costs attributed to the CDD requirement.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="211">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12172"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.067</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>FinCEN rejected this regulatory alternative in favor of the proposed regulation because, although it is a less costly rule, it is less likely to provide a similar level of benefits and thus would not achieve FinCEN's objectives in addressing the illicit finance risk for investment advisers. The absence of mandatory SAR filing in this regulatory alternative would limit the potential benefits to law enforcement to investigate financial crimes and interagency cooperation on national security threats and their associated financial activity. Further, the lack of information sharing authorities would limit the ability of law enforcement and other agencies, as well as other financial institutions, to provide more specific information on illicit finance threats. This alternative would also not be sufficient for the U.S. to be in compliance with the international AML/CFT standards established by the FATF.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">(c) Comparison</HD>
                    <P>Table 5.4 reports the costs for each of the regulatory alternatives in comparison to the proposed regulation.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="246">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.068</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Table 5.5 provides a detailed summary of the costs and benefits associated with each regulatory alternative (annualized using a 2 percent discount rate over 10 years).</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="469">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12173"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.069</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Regulatory Flexibility Analysis</HD>
                    <P>
                        The RFA 
                        <SU>330</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         requires an agency either to provide an initial regulatory flexibility analysis (IRFA) with a proposed rule or certify that the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This section, VII.B, contains the IRFA prepared pursuant to the RFA. A final regulatory flexibility analysis or certification that the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities will be conducted after consideration of comments received during the comment period.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>330</SU>
                             5 U.S.C. 601 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Statement of the Need for, and Objectives of, the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>As described above in section IV.A.1 and section VII.A.1, FinCEN is proposing this rule to address identified illicit finance risks in the investment adviser industry. FinCEN is proposing regulations to apply AML/CFT program, recordkeeping and reporting requirements to RIAs and ERAs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Small Entities Affected by the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN is proposing to define the term small entity in accordance with the definition of “small business” or “small organization” under the Advisers Act rule adopted for purposes of the RFA, in lieu of using the Small Business Administration's definition.
                        <SU>331</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>331</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             13 CFR 121.201.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Relying on the SEC's definition, which it has adopted by regulation, has the benefit of ensuring consistency in the categorization of small entities for the SEC's purposes,
                        <SU>332</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         as well as providing the advisory industry with a uniform standard. Using the SEC standard also allows FinCEN to use the most current and precise data about investment advisers. Investment advisers must update Form ADV, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12174"/>
                        including whether they qualify as a “small entity,” at least annually. Because Form ADV information is individualized to each investment adviser, FinCEN can identify the specific entities qualifying as “small entities” under the SEC standard.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>332</SU>
                             As noted above, FinCEN is proposing to amend section 1010.810 to include investment advisers within the list of financial institutions that the SEC would examine for compliance with the BSA's implementing regulations.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In contrast, information on business revenue is derived from the Economic Census, and the most recent Economic Census data reflect business information for 2017. This data is not individualized to specific firms and as detailed below, likely includes other firms that are not covered by the proposed rule requiring FinCEN to make additional assumptions. This data represents the average revenues of all firms, not just RIAs and ERAs, with less than $50 million in annual receipts rather than firms with assets under management of less than $25 million. This is likely to be an underestimate because those firms that are required to register with the SEC tend to be larger and many of the firms reported in the SUSB, particularly State-registered investment advisers, would not be subject to the proposed rule. Given the data limitations, it is not feasible to directly estimate the average annual revenues of investment advisers that fall under the definition of “small entity” described above.</P>
                    <P>
                        Further, using a standard tied to AUM is consistent with how Congress (in the 2010 Dodd-Frank Act) and SEC regulations distinguish between small, mid-sized, and large investment advisers and how other regulatory requirements are applied to investment advisers.
                        <SU>333</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Using this standard would also be consistent with the standard applied by FinCEN in the Second Proposed Investment Adviser Rule and the SEC in recent rulemakings for investment advisers.
                        <SU>334</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This is a well-known, common-sense understanding of investment adviser size based on assets under management (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         small advisers are those managing less than $25 million in customer assets). Further, FinCEN notes that over 70 percent of advisers covered by the proposed rule manage at least $110 million in customer assets and accordingly would not be understood to be small entities.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>333</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 80b-3a. As described above, SEC registration is generally determined by AUM. 
                            <E T="03">See supra,</E>
                             n. 24. In addition, investment advisers filing Form PF are required to provide additional information if they have more than $1.5 billion in hedge fund assets under management or more than $2 billion in private equity fund assets under management. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Form PF Instructions on p. 2 and 3 at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/files/formpf.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>334</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             80 FR at 52695; 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             SEC, 
                            <E T="03">Private Fund Advisers; Documentation of Registered Investment Adviser Compliance Reviews,</E>
                             Final Rule, Investment Advisers Act Release No. 6383 (Aug. 23, 2023) 88 FR 63206, 63382-3, (Sep. 14, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In addition, FinCEN's proposed use of the SEC's definition of small entity will have no material impact upon the application of these proposed rules to the advisory industry. FinCEN requests comment on the appropriateness of using the SEC's definition for these purposes.</P>
                    <P>
                        Under SEC rules under the Advisers Act, for the purposes of the RFA, an investment adviser generally is a small entity if it: (i) has, and reports on Form ADV, assets under management of less than $25 million; (ii) has less than $5 million on the last day of its most recent fiscal year; and (iii) does not control, is not controlled by, and is not under common control with another investment adviser that has assets under management of $25 million or more, or any person (other than a natural person) that had total assets of $5 million or more on the last day of its most recent fiscal year.
                        <SU>335</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>335</SU>
                             17 CFR 275.0-7(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Generally speaking, only large advisers, having $110 million or more in regulatory assets under management, are required to register with the SEC.
                        <SU>336</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The proposed rule would not affect most investment advisers that are small entities (“small advisers”) because they are generally registered with one or more State securities authorities and not with the SEC. Under section 203A of the Advisers Act, most small advisers are prohibited from registering with the Commission and are regulated by State regulators.
                        <SU>337</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>336</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             17 CFR 275.203A-1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>337</SU>
                             Based on Form ADV data as of July 31, 2023. To determine the number of RIAs that were “small entities”, Treasury reviewed responses to Items 5.F. and 12 of Form ADV.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As of July 2023, there were 573 RIAs that would be considered “small entities” under the SEC's definition. We estimate that there are no ERAs that would meet the definition of “small entity.” 
                        <SU>338</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, approximately 2.7 percent of all investment advisers impacted by the proposed regulation are estimated to be small entities. Based on this, FinCEN estimates that the proposed rule will not impact a substantial number of small entities.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>338</SU>
                             In order for an adviser to be an ERA it would first need to have an SEC registration obligation, and an adviser with that little in assets under management (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             assets under management that is low enough to allow the adviser to qualify as a small entity) would not have an SEC registration obligation. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             88 FR 63206, 63383 and footnote 1895 regarding small entity ERAs.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the economic impact on small entities, Form ADV does not collect revenue information. Therefore, additional information on investment advisers was obtained from the U.S. Economic Census. The Economic Census, conducted every five years by the U.S. Census Bureau, is the U.S. Government's official measure of American businesses, representing most industries and geographic areas of the United States and Island Areas.
                        <SU>339</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         It provides information on business locations, employees, payroll, and revenues. The most recent Economic Census data reflect business information for 2017. These data are reported in the U.S. Census Bureau's annual Statistics of U.S. Businesses (SUSB).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>339</SU>
                             U.S. Census Bureau, Economic Census, web page, last updated on Aug. 31, 2023.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Based on data from the 2017 SUSB: Other Financial Investment Activities (for NAICS 5239), the average firm had approximately $7.4 million in annual revenue adjusted for inflation to 2022 dollars using the GDP price deflator.
                        <SU>340</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Furthermore, according to that data, approximately 98 percent of firms had less than $50 million in annual receipts, with average revenues of approximately $1.6 million measured in 2022 dollars. Table B-1 reports the distribution of firms in other financial investment activities (NAICS 5239) by firm size.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>340</SU>
                             Data accessed at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.census.gov/data/tables/2017/econ/susb/2017-susb-annual.html.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="377">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12175"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.070</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Importantly, as discussed above regarding the limitations with Economic Census data, the $1.6 million figure is an imperfect proxy for the annual revenues of investment advisers subject to the proposed rule that meet the SEC's definition of a small entity.</P>
                    <P>As further detailed in the section below, using information from the SUSB for firms with revenues below $50 million, FinCEN estimates that the annualized cost burden of the proposed rule would be approximately 2.6 percent of revenues for a small investment adviser. FinCEN is unable to conclusively determine whether such a cost burden would be “significant” for purposes of the RFA, and so as it is unable to certify that the proposed rule would not “have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.” Therefore, FinCEN is conducting this IRFA.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Compliance Costs</HD>
                    <P>
                        To
                        <FTREF/>
                         examine the potential impact of the proposed rule on small entities, FinCEN estimates the average compliance costs for a small firm and compares those costs to small firms' average annual revenues. As described above, 573 RIAs would be considered small entities under the proposed definition. All small firms affected by this rule will bear upfront costs to revise their standard operating procedures to establish or update an existing AML/CFT program. Small firms that do not already have a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place would need to adopt additional measures, such as collecting additional information to develop a customer risk profile for new and existing clients and conducting ongoing CDD, filing SARs, acquiring AML/CFT software licenses, complying with other information collection requests, and general recordkeeping activities. To estimate these costs for small entities, FinCEN relies on the methodology described in the Impact Analysis applied to the subset of entities and relevant financial characteristics of small RIAs. Table B.2 reports the financial characteristics of small entities compared with all other RIAs impacted under the proposed rule based on information reported in their Form ADV filings.
                        <SU>341</SU>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>341</SU>
                             This information is reported in Table 2.7 of the Impact Analysis.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="121">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12176"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.071</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Based on this information, the average cost of the proposed rule for a small investment adviser (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         those managing up to $25 million in client assets) would be approximately $48,000 in the first year of the regulation and $40,000 in subsequent years. These costs vary slightly across the different categories of RIAs described in the Impact Analysis, with a small number of dual registrants likely to incur less than $1,000 in compliance costs. Table B.3. reports the average costs per small entity by compliance activity in the first year and subsequent years of the proposed regulation.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="171">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.072</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Therefore, the average annualized cost of the proposed rule for a small investment adviser over the first 10 years would be approximately $41,000. This suggests the annualized cost burden of the proposed rule would be approximately 2.6 percent of revenues for a small investment adviser when using information from the SUSB for firms with revenues below $50 million. However, this estimate assumes that less than 1 percent of small investment advisers have a 
                        <E T="03">significant number of</E>
                         AML/CFT measures in place and more than 60 percent have a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place and would have to develop a full AML/CFT program and initial and ongoing CDD measures. If the assumed distribution was overly pessimistic and more small investment advisers had a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of existing AML/CFT measures in place in the baseline, the average cost burden would be lower. Based on the lower bound estimate discussed in section 3, the average annualized cost of the proposed rule for a small investment adviser would be approximately $38,000, suggesting the average cost burden would be approximately 2.4 percent of revenues. Table B.4 reports the number of small entities, annualized cost, and compliance cost as a percentage of revenue for small firms, broken down by industry category.
                    </P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="166">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12177"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.073</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Duplicative, Overlapping, or Conflicting Federal Rules</HD>
                    <P>
                        As described above in section VII.A.1, there are no Federal rules that directly and fully duplicate, overlap, or conflict with the proposed rule. While some investment advisers implement AML/CFT requirements because they are dually registered as broker-dealers, as a bank, or affiliated with a bank or broker-dealer, the majority of the investment adviser industry is not subject to any comprehensive AML/CFT requirements. FinCEN is aware that requirements within the Advisers Act and other Federal securities laws impose requirements upon investment advisers that in some instances are similar to the requirements proposed within this rule and perform similar roles (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         improving the integrity of the U.S. financial system and protecting customers). However, while these existing requirements may provide a supporting framework for implementing certain obligations in the proposed rule, they do not impose the specific AML/CFT measures in the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Significant Alternatives That Reduce Burden on Small Entities</HD>
                    <P>FinCEN considered the burden this proposed approach would have on covered investment advisers. FinCEN is mindful of the effect of new regulations on small businesses, given their critical role in the U.S. economy and the special consideration that Congress and successive administrations have mandated that Federal agencies should give to small business concerns. FinCEN considered an alternative scenario in the Impact Analysis above (Alternative 2) that would apply a much more limited information collection requirement to only those RIAs that advise private funds and ERAs (who only advise private funds). In this scenario, advisers to private funds would be required to conduct risk-based customer due diligence and to report beneficial ownership information.</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="154">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.074</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>Based on the cost information in the table above and the number of legal entity and PIV customers of small entity RIAs identified in Table 2.7 of the Impact Analysis, FinCEN estimates that the cost of this alternative for each small entity would be less than $1,000 on average.</P>
                    <P>Despite the significantly smaller cost of this alternative, FinCEN determined that this alternative would not accomplish the objectives of the proposed rule. As noted above, the absence of a SAR filing requirement would limit the potential benefits to law enforcement to investigate financial crimes and interagency cooperation on national security threats and their associated financial activity. Further, without being defined as financial institutions and thereby being able to receive and share information under sections 314(a) and 314(b), investment advisers would be unable to access useful information to help mitigate illicit finance risks.</P>
                    <P>As another alternative to reduce the burden on small entities, FinCEN considered limiting the applicability of the proposed rule to investment advisers with AUM above a certain threshold, as reported on Form ADV. Investment advisers with AUM below the threshold would be exempt from the requirements of the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN decided not to pursue this alternative because doing so would not apply a risk-based approach to the industry. AUM by itself, without 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12178"/>
                        considering the attributes of a particular customer (such as legal entity v. natural person, or U.S. v. non-U.S. person), is not a useful indicator of potential risk.
                        <SU>342</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Such an exemption could also create a subset of “smaller” investment advisers who may actually be 
                        <E T="03">more</E>
                         vulnerable to illicit finance because they can offer the same services as other advisers, but without any AML/CFT requirements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>342</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Treasury, 
                            <E T="03">Investment Adviser Illicit Finance Risk Assessment, https://home.treasury.gov/system/files/136/US-Sectoral-Illicit-Finance-Risk-Assessment-Investment-Advisers.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        FinCEN also notes that the AML/CFT requirements in the proposed rule are designed to be risk-based and their cost is largely based on factors directly correlated with the size of an investment adviser, such as the number of customers and transactions, along with the risk level of its advisory activities and customers. For instance, according to the 2020 GAO BSA Report, the two most costly requirements for banks as a percentage of total AML/CFT compliance costs were the customer due diligence and SAR filing requirements, accounting for approximately 60 percent of total costs.
                        <SU>343</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The cost of other requirements in the proposed rule, such as employee training, are also likely to vary with the size of the business. The requirements of the proposed rule therefore have some inherent flexibility whereby small entities serving a smaller number of customers are likely to have lower costs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>343</SU>
                             2020 GAO BSA Report at p. 3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>FinCEN welcomes comment on this IRFA and any significant alternatives that would minimize the impact of the proposed rule on small entities and still accomplish the objectives of the proposed rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        The reporting requirements in the proposed rule are being submitted to OMB for review in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA).
                        <SU>344</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Under the PRA, an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid control number assigned by OMB. Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection can be submitted by visiting 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         This particular document may be found by selecting “Currently Under Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function. Comments are welcome and must be received by April 15, 2024. In accordance with requirements of the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A), and its implementing regulations, 5 CFR part 1320, the following information concerns the collection of information as it relates to the proposed rule and is presented to assist those persons wishing to comment on the information collection.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>344</SU>
                             44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The PRA analysis included herein is for the sections of the proposed rule requiring RIAs and ERAs to (a) establish AML/CFT programs, to include risk-based procedures for conducting ongoing customer due diligence; (b) report suspicious activity and file CTRs; (c) maintain records of originator and beneficiary information for certain transactions; (d) apply information sharing provisions with the government and between financial institutions; and (e) implement special due diligence requirements for correspondent and private banking accounts and special measures under section 311 of the USA PATRIOT Act.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Reporting and Recordkeeping Requirements:</E>
                         The proposed rule would require RIAs and ERAs to develop and implement AML/CFT programs, file SARs and CTRs, record originator and beneficiary information for transactions, respond to section 314(a) requests, and implement special due diligence measures for correspondent and private banking accounts. The AML/CFT programs must be written (first year only), and updated, stored, and made available for inspection by FinCEN and the SEC. The AML/CFT program must also be approved by the investment adviser's board of directors or trustees.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">OMB Control Numbers:</E>
                         1506-AB58.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                         As required; varies depending on the requirement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Description of Affected Public:</E>
                         investment advisers, as defined in the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                         21,237 investment advisers. Of these, there are an estimated 15,391 SEC-registered investment advisers and 5,846 exempt reporting advisers. 1,356,780 clients of investment advisers in the first year and up to 266,407 new clients in each subsequent year, although this figure will vary from year to year.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Reporting and Recordkeeping Burden:</E>
                         FinCEN estimates that during Year 1 the annual burden will be 7,142,302 hours for investment advisers and 508,792 hours for their clients. That burden will decrease after the first year because several information collection activities will only result in costs for these entities in Year 1. Specifically, investment advisers that do not already have a written AML/CFT program will have to develop one in the first year. In addition, entities that do not already conduct customer due diligence activities consistent with the requirements under the BSA will have to implement those information collection activities in the first year. FinCEN estimates that several of these costs will be incurred only in the first year of the regulation, but information collection activities related to understanding the nature and purpose of all existing customer accounts will likely be incurred over the first few years due to the large number of accounts—in this case, FinCEN assumes these costs will be spread over the first three years of the proposed regulation. Furthermore, FinCEN assesses that the information collection burden associated with customer due diligence will increase over time because the total number of clients is expected to grow each year. The number of clients and therefore the total costs associated with due diligence measures are expected to grow over time. Thus, there will be stepwise decrease in burden hours in Year 2 and Year 4, but a gradual increase in burden hours in Year 3 and Years 5 through 10 due to growth in the number of clients. In Year 10, FinCEN estimates the annual burden of the proposed regulation will be 5,395,622 hours for investment advisers and 99,903 hours for new clients, with no additional burden for existing clients.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Reporting and Recordkeeping Cost:</E>
                         As described in section 3, FinCEN calculated a weighted fully loaded hourly labor cost based on the roles, hourly wage rates, and burden distribution of staff involved in each information collection activity. FinCEN estimates that during Year 1 the annual cost will be $429,383,548 for investment advisers and $25,016,407 for their clients. In Year 10, FinCEN estimates the total cost of the proposed regulation will be $311,901,932 for investment advisers and $4,812,035 for their clients.
                    </P>
                    <P>Table C.1 reports the total number of investment advisers, burden hours, and costs by information collection activity. Burden hours and costs are calculated by multiplying the number of entities by the hours/costs per entity for each information collection activity. Burden hours and costs are summarized for Year 1 and Year 10.</P>
                    <P>
                        Table C.2 reports the total number of clients, burden hours, and costs by information collection activity. Burden hours and costs are calculated by multiplying the number of clients by the hours per entity. Burden hours and costs are summarized for Year 1 and Year 10.
                        <PRTPAGE P="12179"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>Table C.3 reports the total cost of information collection by year.</P>
                    <P>Tables C.4 through C.10 report additional detail for each subset of entities, including information on the distribution of the information collection burden across different groups. These tables summarize the number of entities, burden hours per entity, total burden hours, average cost per entity, and total cost.</P>
                    <P>Table C.11 reports the total cost of information collection for the customers of investment advisers. This table summarizes the number of customers, burden hours per customer, total burden hours, average cost per customer, and total cost.</P>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-02-P</BILCOD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="358">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.075</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="98">
                        <GID>EP15FE24.076</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="209">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12180"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.077</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12181"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.078</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12182"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.079</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12183"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.080</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12184"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.081</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12185"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.082</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12186"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.083</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12187"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.084</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="640">
                        <PRTPAGE P="12188"/>
                        <GID>EP15FE24.085</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <PRTPAGE P="12189"/>
                    <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-02-C</BILCOD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        UMRA (section 202(a)) requires Federal agencies to prepare a written statement, which includes an assessment of anticipated costs and benefits, before issuing “any rule that includes any Federal mandate that may result in the expenditure by State, local, and Tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more (adjusted annually for inflation) in any one year.” The current threshold after adjustment for inflation is $176 million, using the 2022 GDP price deflator.
                        <SU>345</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The proposed rule would result in an expenditure in at least one year that meets or exceeds this amount.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>345</SU>
                             U.S. Bureau of Economic Analysis, National Income and Product Accounts Tables, Table 1.1.9. Implicit Price Deflators for Gross Domestic Product.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The total annualized cost of the proposed rule is estimated to be approximately $1.0 billion to the private sector in the first year. The annualized cost of the proposed rule after the first year is estimated to be approximately $760 million to the private sector. The proposed rule does not foreseeably impose costs or other compliance burden that would impact any State, local, or Tribal government. FinCEN believes that the Impact Analysis provides the analysis required by UMRA.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Questions for Comment</HD>
                    <P>FinCEN requests comment on all aspects of the regulatory analysis in section VI:</P>
                    <P>
                        • Do you agree with how FinCEN has characterized the extent to which different types of investment advisers are already implementing a 
                        <E T="03">significant, moderate,</E>
                         or a 
                        <E T="03">limited</E>
                         number of the AML/CFT requirements of the proposed rule?
                    </P>
                    <P>• For ERAs, do you agree with FinCEN's assumption that the percentage of ERAs currently applying AML/CFT requirements would be the same as RIAs across all scenarios described in the Impact Analysis?</P>
                    <P>• Do you agree with FinCEN's assumption that the number of employees of an ERA is similar to the number of employees of an RIA with the same number of private funds?</P>
                    <P>• Do you agree with FinCEN's decision to not quantify the estimated benefits from the proposed rule? If no, what other data or methods may inform estimates of potential benefits from the proposed rule?</P>
                    <P>• Do you agree that some RIAs would designate their existing compliance officer as the AML/CFT compliance officer? What other existing positions in an RIA or ERA may be designated as the AML/CFT compliance officer?</P>
                    <P>• Do you agree with FinCEN's use of the reported values for “Large Community Bank B,” from the 2020 GAO BSA Report, as the entity for which the costs were assessed to be the most similar to the costs likely to be incurred by investment advisers covered by the proposed regulation?</P>
                    <P>
                        • Do you agree with FinCEN's assumption that dual registrants covered by an existing AML/CFT program and entities that have a 
                        <E T="03">significant</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">moderate</E>
                         number of AML/CFT measures in place would only need to update their existing program to comply with the requirements of the proposed rule?
                    </P>
                    <P>• Do you agree with FinCEN's estimates that it would take approximately 4 hours for a trustee or director to review and approve a written AML/CFT program the first year and approximately 2 hours each subsequent year to review the program?</P>
                    <P>• Do you agree with FinCEN's estimate that it would initially take an RIA or ERA that does not have an AML/CFT program 50 hours to develop an AML/CFT training program, and that for entities that have an existing AML/CFT training program, it would take approximately 10 hours to review and update training materials?</P>
                    <P>• Do you agree with FinCEN's estimate that the average cost of independent testing of an adviser's AML/CFT program would be approximately $17,000?</P>
                    <P>• Do you agree with FinCEN's assumption that of all the AML/CFT measures in the proposed rule, RIAs and ERAs are most likely to have some CDD measures in place, and that RIAs and ERAs would have to modify these existing procedures rather than develop new procedures?</P>
                    <P>• Do you agree with FinCEN's assumption that RIAs and ERAs would update customer information on existing accounts over the first three years after the promulgation of the proposed rule?</P>
                    <P>• Do you agree with FinCEN's assumption that unless an investment adviser is dual registrant or affiliated adviser, they are not currently filing SARs?</P>
                    <P>• Do you agree with FinCEN's estimate that RIAs are likely to file approximately 60 SARs per year? Do you agree with FinCEN's assumption that ERAs would also file 60 SARs a year? If not, what other estimate for the number of SARs or an RIA or ERA would be reasonable?</P>
                    <P>• Do you agree with FinCEN's decision to attribute labor costs primarily to a compliance officer rather than a financial clerk or teller, due to the smaller size of investment advisers relative to banks and to avoid potentially underestimating the average hourly labor costs associated with these activities?</P>
                    <P>
                        • Do you agree with FinCEN's estimate that since all investment advisers are required to report transactions in currency over $10,000 on Form 8300, the incremental cost for RIAs and ERAs to use the CTR would be 
                        <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                        ?
                    </P>
                    <P>• Do you agree with FinCEN's decision to define the term small entity in accordance with definitions obtained from SEC rules implementing the Advisers Act in lieu of using the Small Business Administration's definition?</P>
                    <P>• Do you agree with how FinCEN has characterized the potential costs and benefits of imposing the AML/CFT requirements of the proposed rule to State-registered investment advisers?</P>
                    <P>• Are there other significant alternatives that would minimize the impact of the proposed rule on small entities and still accomplish the objectives of the proposed rule?</P>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                        <CFR>31 CFR Part 1010</CFR>
                        <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Anti-money laundering, Banks, Banking, Brokers, Brokerage, Investment advisers, Money laundering, Mutual funds, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities, Suspicious transactions, Terrorist financing.</P>
                        <CFR>31 CFR Part 1032</CFR>
                        <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Anti-money laundering, Banks, Banking, Brokers, Brokerage, Investment advisers, Money laundering, Mutual funds, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities, Small business, Suspicious transactions, Terrorist financing. </P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Issuance and Authority</HD>
                    <P>For the reasons set forth in the preamble, chapter X of title 31 of the Code of Federal Regulations is proposed to be amended as follows:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1010—GENERAL PROVISIONS</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 1010 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>12 U.S.C. 1829b and 1951-1959; 31 U.S.C. 5311-5314 and 5316-5336; title III, sec. 314, Pub. L. 107-56, 115 Stat. 307 ; sec. 701, Pub. L. 114-74, 129 Stat. 599; sec. 6403, Pub. L. 116-283, 134 Stat. 3388.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <PRTPAGE P="12190"/>
                    <AMDPAR>2. Section 1010.100 is amended by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Removing the word “or” at the end of paragraph (t)(9);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Removing the period at the end of paragraph (t)(10), and adding in its place “; or”; and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>c. Adding paragraphs (t)(11) and (nnn).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The additions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1010.100 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>General definitions.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(t) * * *</P>
                        <P>(11) An investment adviser.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (nnn) 
                            <E T="03">Investment adviser.</E>
                             Any person who is registered or required to register with the SEC under section 203 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-3(a)), or any person that is exempt from SEC registration under section 203(
                            <E T="03">l</E>
                            ) or 203(m) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-3(l), (m)).
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>3. Section 1010.410 is amended by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Removing the word “or” at the end of paragraph (e)(6)(i)(I);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Removing the word “and” at the end of paragraph (e)(6)(i)(J) and adding in its place “or”; and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>c. Adding paragraph (e)(6)(i)(K).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The addition reads as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1010.410</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Records to be made and retained by financial institutions.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(e) * * *</P>
                        <P>(6) * * *</P>
                        <P>(i) * * *</P>
                        <P>(K) An investment adviser; and</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>4. Section 1010.605 is amended by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Removing the word “and” at the end of paragraph (c)(2)(iii);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Removing the period at the end of paragraph (c)(2)(iv) and adding in its place “; and”;</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>c. Adding paragraph (c)(2)(v);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>d. Removing the word “and” at the end of paragraph (e)(1)(iii);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>e. Adding the word “and” at the end of paragraph (e)(1)(iv); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>f. Adding paragraph (e)(1)(v).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The additions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1010.605 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(c) * * *</P>
                        <P>(2) * * *</P>
                        <P>(v) As applied to investment advisers (as set forth in paragraph (e)(1)(v) of this section) means any contractual or other business relationship established between a person and an investment adviser to provide advisory services.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(e) * * *</P>
                        <P>(1) * * *</P>
                        <P>(v) An investment adviser except that an investment adviser shall not be considered a covered financial institution for the purposes of § 1010.230.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>5. Section 1010.810 is amended by revising paragraph (b)(6) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1010.810 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Enforcement.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(b) * * *</P>
                        <P>
                            (6) To the Securities and Exchange Commission with respect to brokers and dealers in securities, investment advisers, and investment companies as that term is defined in the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                            );
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>6. Add part 1032 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1032—RULES FOR INVESTMENT ADVISERS</HD>
                        <CONTENTS>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—Definitions</HD>
                                <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                                <SECTNO>1032.100</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Programs</HD>
                                <SECTNO>1032.200</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> General.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1032.210</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Anti-money laundering/countering the financing of terrorism programs for investment advisers.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1032.220</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> [Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Reports Required To Be Made by Investment Advisers</HD>
                                <SECTNO>1032.300</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> General.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1032.310</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Reports of transactions in currency.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1032.311</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Filing obligations.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1032.312</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Identification required.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1032.313</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Aggregation.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1032.314</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Structured transactions.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1032.315</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Exemptions.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1032.320</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Reports by investment advisers of suspicious transactions.</SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Records Required To Be Maintained by Investment Advisers</HD>
                                <SECTNO>1032,400</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> General.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1032.410</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Recordkeeping.</SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart E—Special Information Sharing Procedures To Deter Money Laundering and Terrorist Activity</HD>
                                <SECTNO>1032.500</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> General.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1032.520</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Special information sharing procedures To Deter money laundering and terrorist activity for investment advisers.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1032.530</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> [Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1032.540</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Voluntary information sharing among financial institutions.</SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart F—Special Standards of Diligence; Prohibitions, and Special Measures for Investment Advisers</HD>
                                <SECTNO>1032.600</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> General.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1032.610</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Due diligence programs for correspondent accounts for foreign financial institutions.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1032.620</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Due diligence programs for private banking accounts. </SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                        </CONTENTS>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                            <P> 12 U.S.C. 1829b and 1951-1959; 31 U.S.C. 5311-5314 and 5316-5336; title III, sec. 314, Pub. L. 107-56, 115 Stat. 307.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—Definitions</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.100 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>Refer to § 1010.100 of this chapter for general definitions not noted in this part.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Programs</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.200 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>General.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>Investment advisers are subject to the program requirements set forth and cross-referenced in this subpart. Investment advisers should also refer to subpart B of part 1010 of this chapter for program requirements contained in that subpart that apply to investment advisers.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.210 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Anti-money laundering/countering the financing of terrorism programs for investment advisers.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Anti-money laundering/countering the financing of terrorism program requirements for investment advisers.</E>
                                     (1) Each investment adviser shall develop and implement a written anti-money laundering/countering the financing of terrorism (AML/CFT) program that is risk-based and reasonably designed to prevent the investment adviser from being used for money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activities and to achieve and monitor compliance with the applicable provisions of the Bank Secrecy Act (31 U.S.C. 5311, 
                                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                                    ) and the implementing regulations promulgated thereunder by the Department of the Treasury. The investment adviser may deem the requirements in this subpart satisfied for any mutual fund (as defined in 31 CFR 1010.100(gg)) it advises that has developed and implemented an AML/CFT program compliant with the AML/CFT program requirements applicable to mutual funds under another provision of this subpart.
                                </P>
                                <P>(2) Each investment adviser's anti-money laundering/countering the financing of terrorism program must be approved in writing by its board of directors or trustees, or if it does not have one, by its sole proprietor, general partner, trustee, or other persons that have functions similar to a board of directors. An investment adviser shall make its anti-money laundering/countering the financing of terrorism program available for inspection by FinCEN or the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC).</P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Minimum requirements.</E>
                                     The anti-money laundering/countering the 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="12191"/>
                                    financing of terrorism program shall at a minimum:
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Establish and implement policies, procedures, and internal controls reasonably designed to prevent the investment adviser from being used for money laundering, terrorist financing, or other illicit finance activities and to achieve compliance with the applicable provisions of the Bank Secrecy Act and implementing regulations in this chapter;</P>
                                <P>(2) Provide for independent testing for compliance to be conducted by the investment adviser's personnel or by a qualified outside party;</P>
                                <P>(3) Designate a person or persons responsible for implementing and monitoring the operations and internal controls of the program;</P>
                                <P>(4) Provide ongoing training for appropriate persons; and</P>
                                <P>(5) Implement appropriate risk-based procedures for conducting ongoing customer due diligence, to include, but not be limited to:</P>
                                <P>(i) Understanding the nature and purpose of customer relationships for the purpose of developing a customer risk profile; and</P>
                                <P>(ii) Conducting ongoing monitoring to identify and report suspicious transactions and, on a risk basis, to maintain and update customer information.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Effective date.</E>
                                     An investment adviser must develop and implement an anti-money laundering/countering the financing of terrorism program that complies with the requirements of this section on or before [DATE 12 MONTHS AFTER EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE].
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) 
                                    <E T="03">Duty.</E>
                                     The duty to establish, maintain, and enforce an anti-money laundering/countering the financing of terrorism program as required by this subpart must remain the responsibility of, and be performed by, persons in the United States who are accessible to, and subject to oversight and supervision by, FinCEN and the appropriate Federal functional regulator.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.220 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Reports Required To Be Made by Investment Advisers</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.300 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>General.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>Investment advisers are subject to the reporting requirements set forth and cross referenced in this subpart. Investment advisers should also refer to subpart C of part 1010 of this chapter for reporting requirements contained in that subpart that apply to investment advisers.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.310 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Reports of transactions in currency.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>The reports of transactions in currency requirements for investment advisers are located in subpart C of part 1010 of this chapter and this subpart.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.311 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Filing obligations.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>Refer to § 1010.311 of this chapter for reports of transactions in currency filing obligations for investment advisers.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.312 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Identification required.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>Refer to § 1010.312 of this chapter for identification requirements for reports of transactions in currency filed by investment advisers.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.313 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Aggregation.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>Refer to § 1010.313 of this chapter for reports of transactions in currency aggregation requirements for investment advisers.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.314 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Structured transactions.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>Refer to § 1010.314 of this chapter for rules regarding structured transactions for investment advisers.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.315 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Exemptions.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>Refer to § 1010.315 of this chapter for exemptions from the obligation to file reports of transactions in currency for investment advisers.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.320 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Reports by investment advisers of suspicious transactions.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">General.</E>
                                     (1) Every investment adviser shall file with FinCEN, to the extent and in the manner required by this section, a report of any suspicious transaction relevant to a possible violation of law or regulation. An investment adviser may also file with FinCEN a report of any suspicious transaction that it believes is relevant to the possible violation of any law or regulation, but whose reporting is not required by this section. Filing a report of a suspicious transaction does not relieve an investment adviser from the responsibility of complying with any other reporting requirements imposed by the Securities and Exchange Commission.
                                </P>
                                <P>(2) A transaction requires reporting under this section if it is conducted or attempted by, at, or through an investment adviser, it involves or aggregates funds or other assets of at least $5,000, and the investment adviser knows, suspects, or has reason to suspect that the transaction (or a pattern of transactions of which the transaction is a part): </P>
                                <P>(i) Involves funds derived from illegal activity or is intended or conducted in order to hide or disguise funds or assets derived from illegal activity (including, without limitation, the ownership, nature, source, location, or control of such funds or assets) as part of a plan to violate or evade any Federal law or regulation or to avoid any transaction reporting requirement under Federal law or regulation;</P>
                                <P>(ii) Is designed, whether through structuring or other means, to evade any requirements of this chapter or any other regulations promulgated under the Bank Secrecy Act;</P>
                                <P>(iii) Has no business or apparent lawful purpose or is not the sort in which the particular customer would normally be expected to engage, and the investment adviser knows of no reasonable explanation for the transaction after examining the available facts, including the background and possible purpose of the transaction; or</P>
                                <P>(iv) Involves use of the investment adviser to facilitate criminal activity.</P>
                                <P>(3) More than one investment adviser may have an obligation to report the same transaction under this section, and other financial institutions may have separate obligations to report suspicious activity with respect to the same transaction pursuant to other provisions of this chapter. In those instances, no more than one report is required to be filed by the investment adviser(s) and other financial institution(s) involved in the transaction, provided that the report filed contains all relevant facts, including the name of each financial institution and the words “joint filing” in the narrative section, and each institution maintains a copy of the report filed, along with any supporting documentation.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Filing and notification procedures</E>
                                    —(1) 
                                    <E T="03">What to file.</E>
                                     A suspicious transaction shall be reported by completing a Suspicious Activity Report (“SAR”) and collecting and maintaining supporting documentation as required by paragraph (c) of this section.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Where to file.</E>
                                     The SAR shall be filed with FinCEN in accordance with the instructions to the SAR.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) 
                                    <E T="03">When to file.</E>
                                     A SAR shall be filed no later than 30 calendar days after the date of the initial detection by the reporting investment adviser of facts that may constitute a basis for filing a SAR under this section. If no suspect is identified on the date of such initial detection, an investment adviser may delay filing a SAR for an additional 30 calendar days to identify a suspect, but in no case shall reporting be delayed more than 60 calendar days after the date of such initial detection.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (4) 
                                    <E T="03">Mandatory notification to law enforcement.</E>
                                     In situations involving violations that require immediate attention, such as suspected terrorist 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="12192"/>
                                    financing or ongoing money laundering schemes, an investment adviser shall immediately notify by telephone an appropriate law enforcement authority in addition to filing timely a SAR.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (5) 
                                    <E T="03">Voluntary notification to the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network or the Securities and Exchange Commission.</E>
                                     Investment advisers wishing to voluntarily report suspicious transactions that may relate to terrorist activity may call the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network's Financial Institutions Hotline at 1-866-556-3974 in addition to filing timely a SAR if required by this section. The investment adviser may also, but is not required to, contact the Securities and Exchange Commission to report in such situations.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Retention of records.</E>
                                     An investment adviser shall maintain a copy of any SAR filed by the investment adviser or on its behalf (including joint reports), and the original (or business record equivalent) of any supporting documentation concerning any SAR that it files (or that is filed on its behalf) for a period of five years from the date of filing the SAR. Supporting documentation shall be identified as such and maintained by the investment adviser, and shall be deemed to have been filed with the SAR. An investment adviser shall make all supporting documentation available to FinCEN or any Federal, State, or local law enforcement agency, or any Federal regulatory authority that examines the investment adviser for compliance with the Bank Secrecy Act, upon request.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) 
                                    <E T="03">Confidentiality of SARs.</E>
                                     A SAR, and any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, are confidential and shall not be disclosed except as authorized in this paragraph (d). For purposes of this paragraph (d) only, a SAR shall include any suspicious activity report filed with FinCEN pursuant to any regulation in this chapter.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (1) 
                                    <E T="03">Prohibition on disclosures by investment advisers</E>
                                    —(i) 
                                    <E T="03">General rule.</E>
                                     No investment adviser, and no current or former director, officer, employee, or agent of any investment adviser, shall disclose a SAR or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR. Any investment adviser, and any current or former director, officer, employee, or agent of any investment adviser that is subpoenaed or otherwise requested to disclose a SAR or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR shall decline to produce the SAR or such information, citing this section and 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(2)(A)(i), and shall notify FinCEN of any such request and the response thereto.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) 
                                    <E T="03">Rules of construction.</E>
                                     Provided that no person involved in any reported suspicious transaction is notified that the transaction has been reported, this paragraph (d)(1) shall not be construed as prohibiting:
                                </P>
                                <P>(A) The disclosure by an investment adviser, or any current or former director, officer, employee, or agent of an investment adviser of:</P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) A SAR, or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, to FinCEN or any Federal, State, or local law enforcement agency, or any Federal regulatory authority that examines the investment adviser for compliance with the Bank Secrecy Act; or
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) The underlying facts, transactions, and documents upon which a SAR is based, including but not limited to, disclosures:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">i</E>
                                    ) To another financial institution, or any current or former director, officer, employee, or agent of a financial institution, for the preparation of a joint SAR; or
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">ii</E>
                                    ) In connection with certain employment references or termination notices, to the full extent authorized in 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(2)(B); or
                                </P>
                                <P>(B) The sharing by an investment adviser, or any current or former director, officer, employee, or agent of the investment adviser, of a SAR, or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, within the investment adviser's corporate organizational structure for purposes consistent with Title II of the Bank Secrecy Act as determined by regulation or in guidance.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Prohibition on disclosures by government authorities.</E>
                                     A Federal, State, local, territorial, or Tribal government authority, or any current or former director, officer, employee, or agent of any of the foregoing, shall not disclose a SAR, or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, except as necessary to fulfill official duties consistent with Title II of the Bank Secrecy Act. For purposes of this section, “official duties” shall not include the disclosure of a SAR, or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, to a non-governmental entity in response to a request for disclosure of non-public information or a request for use in a private legal proceeding, including a request pursuant to 31 CFR 1.11.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (e) 
                                    <E T="03">Limitation on liability.</E>
                                     An investment adviser, and any current or former director, officer, employee, or agent of any investment adviser, that makes a voluntary disclosure of any possible violation of law or regulation to a government agency or makes a disclosure pursuant to this section or any other authority, including a disclosure made jointly with another institution, shall be protected from liability to any person for any such disclosure, or for failure to provide notice of such disclosure to any person identified in the disclosure, or both, to the full extent provided by 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(3).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (f) 
                                    <E T="03">Compliance.</E>
                                     Investment advisers shall be examined by FinCEN or its delegates for compliance with this section. Failure to satisfy the requirements of this section may be a violation of the Bank Secrecy Act and of this part.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Records Required To Be Maintained by Investment Advisers</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.400 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>General.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>Investment advisers are subject to the recordkeeping requirements set forth and cross referenced in this subpart. Investment advisers should also refer to subpart D of part 1010 of this chapter for recordkeeping requirements contained in that subpart which apply to investment advisers.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.410 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Recordkeeping.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>For regulations regarding recordkeeping, refer to § 1010.410 of this chapter. </P>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart E—Special Information Sharing Procedures To Deter Money Laundering and Terrorist Activity</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.500 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>General.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>Investment advisers are subject to the special information-sharing procedures to deter money laundering and terrorist activity requirements set forth and cross-referenced in this subpart. Investment advisers should also refer to subpart E of part 1010 of this chapter for special information sharing procedures to deter money laundering and terrorist activity contained in that subpart which apply to investment advisers.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.520 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Special information sharing procedures to deter money laundering and terrorist activity for investment advisers.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>For regulations regarding special information sharing procedures to deter money laundering and terrorist activity for investment advisers, refer to § 1010.520 of this chapter.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.530 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.540 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Voluntary information sharing among financial institutions.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>For regulations regarding voluntary information sharing among financial institutions, refer to § 1010.540 of this chapter.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <PRTPAGE P="12193"/>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart F—Special Standards of Diligence; and Special Measures for Investment Advisers </HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.600 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>General.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>Investment advisers are subject to the special standards of diligence; prohibitions; and special measures requirements set forth and cross referenced in this subpart. Investment advisers should also refer to subpart F of part 1010 of this chapter for special standards of diligence; prohibitions; and special measures contained in that subpart, which apply to investment advisers.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.610 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Due diligence programs for correspondent accounts for foreign financial institutions.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>For regulations regarding due diligence programs for correspondent accounts for foreign financial institutions, refer to § 1010.610 of this chapter.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1032.620 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Due diligence programs for private banking accounts.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>For regulations regarding due diligence programs for private banking accounts, refer to § 1010.620 of this chapter.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                        <SIG>
                            <NAME>Andrea M. Gacki,</NAME>
                            <TITLE>Director, Financial Crimes Enforcement Network.</TITLE>
                        </SIG>
                    </PART>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-02854 Filed 2-13-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-02-P</BILCOD>
            </PRORULE>
        </PRORULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>89</VOL>
    <NO>32</NO>
    <DATE>Thursday, February 15, 2024</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="12195"/>
            <PARTNO>Part VI</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Federal Communications Commission</AGENCY>
            <CFR>47 CFR Part 73</CFR>
            <TITLE>2018 Quadrennial Regulatory Review—Review of the Commission's Broadcast Ownership Rules; Final Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <RULES>
            <RULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="12196"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">FEDERAL COMMUNICATIONS COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                    <CFR>47 CFR Part 73</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[MB Docket No. 18-349; FCC 23-117; FR ID 200880]</DEPDOC>
                    <SUBJECT>2018 Quadrennial Regulatory Review—Review of the Commission's Broadcast Ownership Rules</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Federal Communications Commission.</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Final rule.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>In this document, the Federal Communications Commission (Commission) retains the broadcast ownership rules with minor modifications in compliance with the Telecommunications Act of 1996 which requires the Commission to review its broadcast ownership rules quadrennially to determine whether they are necessary in the public interest as a result of competition. Specifically, the Commission retains the Dual Network Rule, modifies the Local Radio Ownership Rule to make permanent the interim contour-overlap methodology long used to determine ownership limits in areas outside the boundaries of defined Nielsen Audio Metro markets and in Puerto Rico, and modifies the Local Television Ownership Rule to reflect changes that have occurred in the television marketplace and current industry practices.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>
                            Effective March 18, 2024, except for changes to Commission Forms required as the result of the rule amendments adopted herein which are delayed indefinitely. The Commission will publish a document in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                             announcing the effective date for changes to the Commission Forms.
                        </P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>
                            Ty Bream, 
                            <E T="03">Ty.Bream@fcc.gov,</E>
                             of the Industry Analysis Division, Media Bureau, (202) 418-0644.
                        </P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This is a summary of the Commission's Report and Order, FCC 23-117, adopted on December 22, 2023, and released on December 26, 2023. The full text of this document is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://docs.fcc.gov/public/attachments/FCC-23-117A1.pdf</E>
                         and via electronically via the search function on the Commission's Electronic Document Management System (EDOCS) web page at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fcc.gov/edocs.</E>
                         Documents will be available electronically in ASCII, Microsoft Word, and/or Adobe Acrobat. Alternative formats are available for people with disabilities (Braille, large print, electronic files, audio format, etc.) and reasonable accommodations (accessible format documents, sign language interpreters, CART, etc.) may be requested by sending an email to 
                        <E T="03">fcc504@fcc.gov</E>
                         or calling the Commission's Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau at (202) 418-0530 (voice), 1-844-4-FCC-ASL (1-844-432-2275 (videophone).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Synopsis</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                    <P>1. With this Report and Order (Order), we bring to a close the 2018 Quadrennial Review proceeding. In this Order, we retain the existing media ownership rules and adopt minor modifications that better tailor them to the current media marketplace. The record of this proceeding demonstrates that while the media industry has experienced both unforeseen challenges and substantial changes since the last quadrennial review, broadcasters retain a uniquely important role serving the American public in their local communities. The COVID-19 pandemic has underscored the importance of readily available and easily accessible news and information at the local community level, for which broadcast outlets remain a critical source. Despite the proliferation of new forms and sources of programming, broadcast television and radio remain essential to achieving the Commission's goals of competition, localism, and viewpoint diversity.</P>
                    <P>2. Based on our careful review of the record, we find that our existing rules, with some minor modifications, remain necessary in the public interest. Specifically, we retain the Dual Network Rule and the Local Radio Ownership Rule, the latter of which we modify only to make permanent the interim contour-overlap methodology long used to determine ownership limits in areas outside the boundaries of defined Nielsen Audio Metro markets and in Puerto Rico. We likewise retain the Local Television Ownership Rule with modest adjustments to reflect changes that have occurred in the television marketplace. The existing Local Television Ownership Rule ensures competition among local broadcasters while allowing for flexibility should the circumstances of local markets justify it. Accordingly, today we update the methodology for determining station ranking within a market to better reflect current industry practices, and we expand the existing prohibition on use of affiliation to circumvent the restriction on acquiring a second top-four ranked station in a market. We find that the modifications adopted today will enable the Commission to promote competition, localism, and viewpoint diversity more effectively going forward.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                    <P>
                        3. Consistent with the statutory requirement directing the Commission to review its media ownership every four years, the Commission initiated this Quadrennial Review on December 12, 2018, by adopting a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                        ), 84 FR 6741 (Feb. 28, 2019). In the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM,</E>
                         the Commission sought comment on whether the three media ownership rules subject to this review—the Local Radio Ownership Rule, the Local Television Ownership Rule, and the Dual Network Rule—remain necessary in the public interest in their current forms or whether the rules should be modified or eliminated.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        4. At the time the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         was released, litigation was still pending as a result of the Report and Order that concluded the 2010 and 2014 Quadrennial Reviews (
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order</E>
                        ), 81 FR 76220 (Nov. 1, 2016), and a subsequent Order on Reconsideration (
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order on Reconsideration</E>
                        ), 83 FR 733 (Jan. 8, 2018). In the 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order,</E>
                         the Commission resolved its 2010 and 2014 proceedings and kept five structural ownership rules largely intact: the Local Television Ownership Rule, the Local Radio Ownership Rule, the Newspaper/Broadcast Cross-Ownership Rule, the Radio/Television Cross-Ownership Rule, and the Dual Network Rule. In addition, the 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order</E>
                         reinstated the Commission's previous revenue-based eligible entity standard as a means to promote broadcast ownership by small businesses and new entrants. Under this standard an “eligible entity” is any entity that qualifies as a small business under revenue-based standards established by the Small Business Administration. In turn, the Commission's rules afford such qualified eligible entities additional flexibility, for example, by extending the time required to construct a broadcast facility or raising the threshold at which ownership strictures are triggered. Several parties filed Petitions for Reconsideration of the 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review</E>
                         while others sought judicial review in the D.C. Circuit Court of Appeals and the Third Circuit Court of Appeals.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        5. On November 16, 2017, the Commission responded to the Petitions for Reconsideration and adopted an 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order on Reconsideration,</E>
                         which, among other things, reversed certain elements of the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12197"/>
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order,</E>
                         most notably by repealing the Newspaper/Broadcast Cross-Ownership Rule and the Radio/Television Cross-Ownership Rule and revising the Local Television Ownership Rule. Specifically, the Commission revised the Local Television Ownership Rule by eliminating the prior Eight-Voices Test and adopting a case-by-case review process for proposed transactions involving new combinations of top-four rated stations in a local market. Though it declined to revise the market definition relied on in the Local Radio Ownership Rule, the Commission adopted a presumption for certain transactions involving embedded markets. Embedded markets are smaller markets that are located within the boundaries of a larger Nielsen Audio Metro market. The Commission also eliminated the Television Joint Sales Agreement Attribution Rule readopted in the 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order,</E>
                         while retaining the Shared Services Agreement disclosure requirements adopted therein. A joint sales agreement (JSA) is an agreement that authorizes one station (the broker or the brokering station) to sell some or all of the advertising time on another station (the brokered station). Further, the Commission adopted an Incubator Program and sought comment on how to structure and implement the program.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        6. On August 2, 2018, after notice and comment, including consultation with the Commission's Advisory Committee on Diversity and Digital Empowerment (ACDDE), the Commission adopted the 
                        <E T="03">Incubator Order,</E>
                         which established an incubator program for radio broadcasters designed to increase diversity by addressing the barriers to new and diverse station ownership, in particular lack of access to capital and operational expertise. The 
                        <E T="03">Incubator Order</E>
                         provided a structure whereby established AM and FM broadcasters could offer financial, technical, and operational assistance to new and diverse entrants. In return for successful incubation, established broadcasters could receive a limited waiver of the Local Radio Ownership Rule, allowing them to acquire another station in a market that would otherwise be prohibited by the Local Radio Ownership Rule, provided the market is “comparable” to the market in which the broadcaster successfully incubates another station. The Commission considered a market to be “comparable” to the market where the incubation relationship occurred “if, at the time the incubating entity seeks to use the reward waiver, the chosen market and the incubated market fall within the same market size tier under our Local Radio Ownership Rule and the number of independent owners of full-service, commercial and noncommercial radio stations in the chosen market is no fewer than the number of such owners that were in the incubation market at the time the parties submitted their incubation proposal to the Commission.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        7. Several parties sought review of the 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order on Reconsideration</E>
                         in the D.C. Circuit and Third Circuit Court of Appeals. These petitions were consolidated before the Third Circuit Court of Appeals with the previously filed reviews of the 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order.</E>
                         On September 23, 2019, the Third Circuit vacated and remanded the bulk of the Commission's actions in the 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order on Reconsideration,</E>
                         opining that the Commission had failed to consider adequately how the rule changes would impact female and minority ownership. On December 20, 2019, the Media Bureau issued an Order reinstating the rules as set forth in the 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        8. In the wake of the Third Circuit's decision, the Commission and broadcast industry petitioners filed separate Petitions for Writ of Certiorari before the Supreme Court, each asking the Supreme Court to review and overturn the Third Circuit's decision on different grounds. On October 2, 2020, the Supreme Court granted the petitions for a writ of certiorari and consolidated the cases, ultimately hearing oral argument on January 19, 2021. On April 1, 2021, the Supreme Court, in a unanimous opinion, upheld the rules as adopted and eliminated in the Commission's 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order on Reconsideration.</E>
                         The Supreme Court reaffirmed the Commission's “broad authority to regulate broadcast media in the public interest” and stated that under the Administrative Procedure Act's arbitrary and capricious standard, a court may not substitute its own policy judgment for that of the agency so long as the action is reasonable and reasonably explained. In this instance, the Supreme Court found that the Commission appropriately analyzed the evidence and data it had before it, and came to a reasonable conclusion that the rules no longer served the public interest. Finally, the Court noted that it did not reach, and therefore left undisturbed, issues regarding whether section 202(h) authorizes or requires the Commission to consider, or prohibits the Commission from considering, minority and female ownership when it conducts its quadrennial reviews.
                    </P>
                    <P>9. Accordingly, the Supreme Court upheld the Commission's decision to eliminate the Newspaper/Broadcast Cross-Ownership and Radio/Television Cross-Ownership Rules and revise the Local Television Ownership Rule. It also upheld the Commission's decision to eliminate the Television Joint Sales Agreement Attribution Rule while retaining the Shared Services Agreement disclosure requirements. The Court likewise upheld the Commission's decisions on the “eligible entity” definition and the creation of a diversity incubator program.</P>
                    <P>
                        10. On June 4, 2021, the Media Bureau adopted an order, 86 FR 34627 (June 30, 2021), reinstating the 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order on Reconsideration,</E>
                         the 
                        <E T="03">Incubator Order,</E>
                         as well as the revenue-based eligible entity definition from the 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order.</E>
                         Moreover, cognizant of how much time had passed since the original comment period closed, the Bureau released a public notice, 86 FR 35089 (July 1, 2021), seeking to refresh the record in the 2018 Quadrennial Review proceeding and received extensive comment. The Bureau asked commenters to review and comment on any materials that had been filed in the proceeding since the original comment period closed. The Media Bureau also sought any new and relevant information, including new empirical and statistical evidence, proposals, and detailed analysis. Additionally, the Bureau sought comment on how the media marketplace had evolved since early 2019 and whether new technological innovations had spurred noticeable trends or changed industry practices, as well as how any trends had impacted how consumers obtain local and national news and information.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Standard of Review</HD>
                    <P>
                        11. We reaffirm in this proceeding the long-standing framework under section 202(h) of the Telecommunications Act of 1996, pursuant to which we examine the rules subject to the Quadrennial Review to determine if they remain necessary in service of our three traditional policy goals—competition, localism, and viewpoint diversity. We find that the language of the statute, judicial precedent, and the record in this proceeding support retaining our traditional multi-factor approach, and we reject suggestions that we re-interpret the statute as requiring solely a competition-centric review. In addition, consistent with past Commission determinations, we find 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12198"/>
                        that section 202(h) grants us discretion to make rules more or less stringent to ensure they serve the public interest. We also conclude that under this approach, and consistent with past reviews, we will consider whether our existing rules are consistent with minority and female ownership and to evaluate potential harms, if any, to minority and female ownership that would result from any changes we make thereto.
                    </P>
                    <P>12. As stated above, the media ownership rules subject to this Quadrennial Review are the Local Radio Ownership Rule, the Local Television Ownership Rule, and the Dual Network Rule. These rules are found, respectively, at 47 CFR 73.3555(a), (b), and 47 CFR 73.658(g). Section 202(h) of the Telecommunications Act of 1996 requires the Commission to review these rules every four years to determine whether they “are necessary in the public interest as the result of competition” and to “repeal or modify any regulation [the Commission] determines to be no longer in the public interest.” Consistent with the guidance of the Third Circuit, the Commission has previously considered the language “necessary in the public interest” to be a “ `plain public interest' standard under which `necessary' means `convenient,' `useful,' or `helpful,' not `essential' or `indispensable.' ” Furthermore, the Commission has applied the principle that there is no “presumption in favor of repealing or modifying the ownership rules,” but rather, that the Commission has the discretion “to make [the rules] more or less stringent.” Accordingly, the Commission's review under section 202(h) focuses on determining whether there is a reasoned basis for retaining, repealing, or modifying each rule consistent with our long-standing public interest goals of competition, localism, and viewpoint diversity.</P>
                    <P>
                        13. Parties presented arguments related to the proper interpretation of section 202(h) to the Supreme Court in 
                        <E T="03">FCC</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Prometheus.</E>
                         Subsequent to the Supreme Court's decision, in the 
                        <E T="03">2021 Update Public Notice,</E>
                         the Media Bureau sought comment on various issues, including whether there were any legal factors that the Commission should consider as part of its 2018 Quadrennial Review. In response, several commenters opine regarding how the Commission should interpret section 202(h) going forward in the wake of 
                        <E T="03">FCC</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Prometheus,</E>
                         as well as their views regarding the impact of the Supreme Court's decision on the Commission's consideration of minority and female ownership in this proceeding.
                    </P>
                    <P>14. As we have many times in the past, and consistent with Congress's directive in section 202(h), we review the rules that are subject to the Quadrennial Review to determine whether they are necessary in the public interest as the result of competition and with the express statutory purpose of repealing or modifying any rule that is no longer in the public interest. In conducting that review, our determination as to whether the rules remain necessary in the public interest focuses primarily on our longstanding policy goals of competition, localism, and viewpoint diversity. In addition to those core policy goals, the Commission has also considered whether its rules are consistent with, and the effect, if any, changes to its rules would have on, minority and female ownership of broadcast stations, and we do so as well.</P>
                    <P>15. As noted above, the Supreme Court did not consider the Third Circuit's prior conclusions regarding the interpretation of section 202(h)—in fact, the Supreme Court explicitly declined to reach such issues. Therefore, as an initial matter, the Third Circuit's guidance, as well as the Commission's application of that guidance in past quadrennial reviews, continues to inform our analysis. Consistent with that precedent, and as discussed in more detail below, we reject calls to depart from precedent or to reinterpret section 202(h) in a manner that would abandon our traditional multi-factor framework in favor of an approach focused solely on competition or that would permit only the relaxation or elimination of the rules.</P>
                    <P>
                        16. First, consistent with the Third Circuit's guidance in 
                        <E T="03">Prometheus I</E>
                         and Commission precedent, we continue to find that “necessary in the public interest” is a “ `plain public interest' standard under which `necessary' means `convenient,' `useful,' or `helpful,' not `essential' or `indispensable.' ” The Commission has applied this interpretation repeatedly in its previous quadrennial reviews, and we continue to find that this understanding of “necessary in the public interest” is the most reasonable and logical interpretation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        17. Second, we decline NAB's invitation to re-interpret section 202(h) in order to find a presumption in favor of deregulation, and we disagree with the assertion that section 202(h) only allows for the repeal or relaxation of a rule. Rather, as we have concluded in prior quadrennial reviews and the courts have upheld, we find that the Commission may “make [the rules] more or less stringent” after reviewing and considering the state of competition in the media marketplace. As the Third Circuit held in 
                        <E T="03">Prometheus I,</E>
                         section 202(h) does not carry a presumption in favor of deregulation, nor is it a “one-way ratchet.” We continue to find that the iterative process established by section 202(h) compels us to “repeal or modify any regulation [the Commission] determines to be no longer in the public interest.” Based on the plain language of this directive, and the use of the word “modify,” we reiterate that the Commission is not merely relegated to repealing or relaxing a rule that, over time, has become unnecessary or obsolete. Instead, where an existing rule as written is “no longer in the public interest,” the Commission can modify that rule (for instance, by making it more or less restrictive, changing the structure of the rule, or closing loopholes) to ensure that the rule better serves the public interest. Contrary to NAB's suggestion, the logic of a deregulatory presumption undercuts the references in section 202(h), in both its text and legislative history, to evaluating the rules in the public interest. We further believe that it would be counter to the public interest to deregulate by either repeal, relaxation, or inaction (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         by ignoring competitive developments that run counter to the public interest) to the point that a few entities may dominate a media market. There is no indication that it was Congress's intention when it passed the 1996 Telecommunications Act to adopt a presumption in favor of deregulation, or to alter the then established principle under the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) that if there is any presumption, it is not against regulation but against changes in current policy that are not justified by the rulemaking record.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        18. Third, we agree with commenters who assert that 
                        <E T="03">FCC</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Prometheus</E>
                         reaffirmed our broad statutory authority to regulate broadcast stations in the public interest. As the Supreme Court noted, agencies are entitled to deference assuming that they act in a “zone of reasonableness” and have “reasonably considered the relevant issues and reasonably explained the decision.” The Supreme Court held further in 
                        <E T="03">City of Arlington, Tex.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">FCC,</E>
                         that any statutory ambiguities should be “resolved, first and foremost, by the agency” so long as the agency stays “within the bounds of reasonable interpretation.” Accordingly, we conclude that the Commission has considerable latitude in our interpretation and application of section 202(h), and the Supreme Court's recent decision in 
                        <E T="03">FCC</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Prometheus</E>
                         only 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12199"/>
                        affirms this conclusion by underscoring the Commission's broad discretion.
                    </P>
                    <P>19. Accordingly, we reaffirm that our assessment of whether the structural ownership rules remain in the public interest continues to focus on the Commission's longstanding policy goals of competition, localism, and viewpoint diversity. The Commission has long held that the public interest is furthered by promoting the principles of competition, localism, and viewpoint diversity to ensure that a small number of entities do not dominate a particular media market, a holding we reaffirm in this current Quadrennial Review. Indeed, as early as the 1998 Biennial Review (the first review required by section 202(h)), the Commission rejected calls by commenters to consider only competition in the context of section 202(h) reviews. Looking at the statutory language of section 202(h), the Commission noted at the time that the phrases “necessary in the public interest” and “as the result of competition” could not be separated and, read together, the language “appears to focus on whether the public interest basis for the rule has changed as a result of competition, and does not appear to be intended to limit the factors we should consider.” Further, the Commission noted that, in the legislative history of the 1996 Telecommunications Act, Congress expressed diversity concerns regarding the media marketplace. For example, the legislative history highlights the national need to promote “diversity of media voices, vigorous economic competition, technological advancement, and promotion of the public interest, convenience, and necessity” and twice pairs diversity with competition as factors for the Commission's consideration in its decisions regarding the marketplace. The Senate Conference Report states that “in the Commission's proceeding to review its television ownership rules generally, the Commission is considering whether generally to allow such local cross ownerships, including combinations of a television station and more than one radio station in the same service. The conferees expect that the Commission's future implementation of its current radio-television waiver policy, as well as any changes to its rules it may adopt in its pending review, will take into account the increased competition and the need for diversity in today's radio marketplace that is the rationale for subsection (d).” It also states that “the Commission may also permit VHF/VHF combinations where it determines that doing so will not harm competition and diversity.”</P>
                    <P>20. In light of our continued adherence to this approach, and based on the record, our discretion, and the text of section 202(h), we reject calls to revise the Commission's longstanding approach in favor of reading the statute narrowly to focus on, or elevate, either the reference to the “public interest” or the reference to “competition” individually and in the absence of the other. Instead, we agree with commenters who suggest that we embrace a “ `plain public interest' standard” that does not place emphasis on one public interest goal over another and continue to read the phrase “necessary in the public interest as the result of competition” in its entirety and in a manner that we find logically marries the two references. We continue to find that such an interpretation appropriately recognizes the importance and meaning of the phrase “necessary in the public interest,” which Congress affirmatively included and has long been read to encompass several important public policy goals, alongside the distinct term “competition,” which is consistent with the larger thematic context of the 1996 Act. The broader scope of the public interest inquiry is also reflected in the additional language in section 202(h), which defines the inquiry as whether these rules are “no longer in the public interest,” a term not limited to a focus on effects on competition. Thus, throughout Quadrennial Reviews over the years, the Commission has modified and eliminated rules that it deemed to be “no longer in the public interest.” Those inquiries have not been confined to effects on competition, but have included analyses of viewpoint diversity and localism as well. At some point, then, competition might reach a point where, as the result of such competition, certain of our rules would be “no longer in the public interest” to achieve the Commission's stated public interest goals. Quadrennial review is the forum in which the Commission takes account of that progress in light of all three of these goals.</P>
                    <P>
                        21. Accordingly, we disagree with NAB's interpretation that Congress intended to elevate competition as the “preeminent factor” to guide the Commission's review under section 202(h), and we reject the attempt to revisit this long-resolved issue. We similarly disagree with NAB's contention that the tenets of statutory interpretation, including the reference to competition in section 202(h) (rather than any other specific public interest factors), support its interpretation that the Commission's section 202(h) review should consider competition as the primary factor in evaluating the rules. As noted above, the text of section 202(h) requires the Commission to determine whether our rules remain “necessary in the public interest as the result of competition.” In the past, the Commission has consistently interpreted the reference in section 202(h) to the “public interest” as incorporating our traditional policy objectives under that standard, namely, competition, localism, and viewpoint diversity. Congress envisioned a future where changes in the amount and type of competition could one day render some or all of our structural media ownership rules unnecessary. The crux of the phrase, and indeed of section 202(h), however, is whether these competitive market forces are satisfying the public interest objectives that our rules are intended to serve, such that our rules are “no longer necessary . . . as the result of competition.” Ultimately, we cannot ignore the fact that Congress included the words “public interest” in section 202(h), and those words need to be treated as prominently and with equal reverence as the mention of competition. For instance, had Congress wished to do so, it could have omitted the phrase “public interest” and simply directed the Commission to review its rules to determine whether “any such rules are necessary as the result of competition.” Instead, Congress elected to include the concept of the “public interest” together with that of competition, knowing full well that service to public interest, convenience, and necessity is the foundation of the Commission's rules. And as noted above, it underscored that more general reference to the public interest analysis in describing the inquiry as whether rules are “no longer in the public interest.” We conclude that there was a reason Congress used these references to the public interest, and that it is reasonable to interpret these references in light of all three of the well-established criteria for that public interest analysis. Similarly, NAB suggests that, had Congress chosen to, it could have omitted the phrase “as the result of competition” and simply instructed the Commission to determine whether a rule remains “necessary in the public interest,” thereby making competition co-equal with other public interest goals. NAB asserts that Congress's decision to do otherwise and to specifically mention competition was intended to single out one particular element of the public interest analysis. Contrary to NAB's position, however, it 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12200"/>
                        does not follow that Congress's inclusion of the phrase “as the result of competition” indicates Congress intended to elevate competition among other traditional public interest goals. Rather, as we have explained, Congress's inclusion of the phrase “as the result of competition” reflects an ongoing statutory directive to the Commission to account for the results of an evolving competitive landscape in evaluating the continued necessity of its structural ownership rules to fulfill its public interest goals. This seems perfectly logical given the changes brought about, and envisioned, by the 1996 Act. As we discuss in more detail below and with respect to our individual rules, this involves evaluating whether the media marketplace has delivered—and would continue delivering absent our rules—each of the public interest benefits of competition, localism, and viewpoint diversity that our rules seek to further. If not—that is, if the competitive marketplace would not deliver these benefits in the absence of our rules—we conclude that our rules still remain “necessary in the public interest,” and we cannot conclude that such rules are “no longer in the public interest,” even after accounting for the results of competition to date. Contrary to NAB's concerns, then, we do not interpret section 202(h) in a way that would ignore or read the word “competition” out of the statute; instead, we interpret it in a way that gives meaning to that word in context. By contrast, we find that NAB's interpretation would read out the reference to the “public interest,” which even at the time of the 1996 Act, was a longstanding and well-known term in the context of the Commission's media regulation. Over the years, the Commission has further fleshed out that term in the context of the Quadrennial Review to encompass three tangible public interest goals—competition, localism, and viewpoint diversity—which have been further interpreted, articulated, and defined with substantial detail through the Commission's Quadrennial Review notices and orders. As such, contrary to NAB's arguments, we find that there is no non-delegation problem with our interpretation, because we are not interpreting our public interest mandate to be unmoored from any defined or articulable policy goal. Instead, we have articulated three clear and longstanding policy goals—competition, localism, and viewpoint diversity—that have long been aligned with the public interest standard applicable to the media marketplace. We find that this interpretation is consistent with how the Commission has applied the standard over time and best reconciles the two phrases within it—“necessary in the public interest” and “as the result of competition.” Even if, for argument's sake, one accepts NAB's contention that section 202(h) is focused first and foremost on competition, it raises a subsequent question about what the threshold is for how much competition is necessary to justify elimination of a rule. Our consistent interpretation essentially speaks to that subsequent question, in that it asks if there is competition sufficient to produce the public interest benefits the Commission has traditionally looked to the rules to foster. Moreover, as we discuss below with regard to particular rules, we find that even under a competition-only standard, loosening our rules and allowing additional consolidation (or, under some proposals, unlimited consolidation) would cause substantial harm to the public interest. Moreover, despite NAB's interest in relitigating this issue, nothing in the Supreme Court's decision in 
                        <E T="03">FCC</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Prometheus</E>
                         warrants revisiting the Commission's established interpretation of section 202(h).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        22. To be clear, competition has always been, and remains, a key consideration in the Commission's Quadrennial Review process, but it is not the only consideration encompassed by the public interest standard or by section 202(h). As discussed below, we remain committed to examining the media marketplace, acknowledging new and additional forms of competition where they exist, and evaluating whether market forces—as they have evolved—satisfy public interest objectives, such that our rules as currently devised are no longer “necessary in the public interest as the result of competition.” We note that NAB recommends the Commission review each ownership rule based upon the public interest rationale at the time it was adopted to see if competition had rendered it no longer necessary, and, according to NAB, once a rule is deemed to no longer serve a particular goal, the Commission should no longer test the rule's relationship to that goal. We do not think section 202(h) demands such a narrow approach—
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         its quadrennial nature and the statutory reference to the “public interest” suggest an intent to be flexible in accounting for new, different, or changed rationales over time—and as NAB notes, historically, the rationales for certain rules have evolved over time as part of the quadrennial review process.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        23. Finally, even as we reaffirm here that our traditional policy goals of competition, localism, and viewpoint diversity continue to serve as the lodestars to guide us in our Quadrennial Review proceeding, we note that the Commission has traditionally also considered other aspects of the public interest, including the impact of its ownership rules on minorities and women. In particular, and as the Supreme Court noted in 
                        <E T="03">FCC</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Prometheus,</E>
                         “[t]he FCC has also said that, as part of its public interest analysis under section 202(h), it would assess the effects of the ownership rules on minority and female ownership.” While NAB challenges the notion of considering the impact of the media ownership rules on minority and female ownership in our quadrennial reviews, arguing that the Supreme Court did not say that the Commission has to consider minority and female ownership as part of the Quadrennial Review proceeding, we continue to find that our public interest standard is broad and that the impact of our rules on broadcast ownership by minorities and women remains an important part of our multi-factor public interest inquiry. Indeed, the Supreme Court did not say we have to consider any particular policy goal. In fact, as NAB notes and discussed above, the Supreme Court did not reach the question of section 202(h) interpretation at all. Under this precedent, we are not bound to consider the three traditional policy goals of competition, localism, and viewpoint diversity. Moreover, we do not have to consider minority and female ownership as an important part of our larger public interest goal of diversity (which, most notably and historically, includes viewpoint diversity). Nonetheless, the Supreme Court did not alter the Commission's discretion to consider these factors, in the manner we choose, and we elect in this proceeding, as the Commission has previously, to do so. Accordingly, as we have in the past, we continue to consider whether our current rules are consistent with (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         do not disserve) opportunities for minority and female ownership and whether any proposed changes to those rules would be likely to result in harm to minority and female ownership.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        24. In this way, consideration of the impact of our rules on minority and female ownership is related to, and consistent with, the broader aim of our structural ownership rules in ensuring the diffuse ownership of broadcast stations. As the Commission has noted in the past, a general policy goal of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12201"/>
                        diversity may encompass different forms of diversity. One central goal of our structural ownership rules, in particular, has been, and remains, promoting a diversity of viewpoints. Our rules do so by limiting the aggregation of stations in any single entity's hands and thereby fostering a multiplicity of speakers. The Commission, in general, also has recognized the disproportionately low number of stations owned by minorities and women and has embraced the objective of better understanding and addressing this situation. By limiting the aggregation of stations among a few owners, we continue to conclude that our existing ownership limits preserve ownership opportunities for many different types of owners, including minority and female owners.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        25. As has always been the case in the Commission's application of section 202(h), the public interest analysis required by the statute has been conducted as a multi-factor review in which no one factor is controlling. To the extent there are conflicts between competing goals (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a rule or rule change would promote one factor while harming another), the Commission weighs the effects and determines whether, on balance, the rule serves the public interest. Consideration of minority and female ownership is no exception to that approach.
                    </P>
                    <P>26. We conclude that the record in the current proceeding does not establish concrete, affirmative steps the Commission can or should take with respect to our structural ownership rules to address concerns regarding minority and female ownership, but we remain committed to examining barriers to minority and female ownership of broadcast stations and expect that the upcoming 2022 Quadrennial Review proceeding will provide an opportunity to examine more specifically what can or should be done within the context of our structural ownership rules. In addition, we note that the Commission has taken several actions beyond its quadrennial reviews, such as improving its collection and analysis of broadcast station ownership information on FCC Form 323 and 323-E, and chartering the Communications Equity and Diversity Council (CEDC), that are intended to provide the Commission with more information about the state of minority and female broadcast ownership and to promote the important goal of increasing such ownership. Moreover, we remain committed, as Free Press suggests, to analyzing how changes to broadcast ownership rules may impact future opportunities for women and minorities. Indeed, the Commission's Office of Economics and Analytics recently conducted an analysis and released a white paper on minority ownership of broadcast television stations that will continue to inform our understanding of the television market and the diversity of ownership. And, as discussed below with respect to our rules, we find in this proceeding that our existing rules remain consistent with the objective of improving ownership diversity, including minority and female ownership, and would cause no harm.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Media Ownership Rules</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Local Radio Ownership Rule</HD>
                    <P>27. As explained below, we conclude that the Local Radio Ownership Rule—which limits both the total number of radio stations an entity may own within a local market and the number of radio stations within the market that the entity may own in the same service (AM or FM)—remains necessary to promote the Commission's public interest goals of competition, localism, and viewpoint diversity, in accordance with our foregoing analysis. We therefore retain the current rule. The only modification we adopt is to make permanent the interim contour-overlap methodology long used to determine ownership limits in areas outside the boundaries of defined Nielsen Audio Metro markets and in Puerto Rico.</P>
                    <P>28. We decline commenters' requests to modify our presumption regarding embedded markets adopted in 2017. Likewise, we reject calls to eliminate or ease the rule's ownership limits in an effort to help station owners stem the loss of listeners and advertising revenues. We take seriously the challenging circumstances confronting broadcast radio in today's media marketplace, but the record does not persuade us that further consolidation would meaningfully address the problems radio faces. Rather, additional consolidation within radio markets is not only likely to decrease competition, viewpoint diversity, and localism but also is inconsistent with our statutory mandate to disseminate licenses as widely as possible. Ultimately, we find that allowing one entity to own more radio stations in a market than currently permitted would harm competition without achieving the benefit sought by some of enabling station owners to compete more effectively with social media companies and national advertising platforms like Google and Facebook.</P>
                    <P>29. The Local Radio Ownership Rule allows an entity to own: (1) up to eight commercial radio stations in radio markets with at least 45 radio stations, no more than five of which may be in the same service (AM or FM); (2) up to seven commercial radio stations in radio markets with 30-44 radio stations, no more than four of which may be in the same service (AM or FM); (3) up to six commercial radio stations in radio markets with 15-29 radio stations, no more than four of which may be in the same service (AM or FM); and (4) up to five commercial radio stations in radio markets with 14 or fewer radio stations, no more than three of which may be in the same service (AM or FM), provided that the entity does not own more than 50% of the radio stations in the market unless the combination comprises not more than one AM and one FM station. The limitation on the number of stations an entity may own in a single service, AM or FM, is typically referred to as the subcap limit. Overlap between two stations in different services is allowed if neither of those stations overlaps a third station in the same service. When determining the total number of radio stations within a market, only full-power commercial and noncommercial radio stations are counted for purposes of the rule. Radio markets are defined by Nielsen Audio Metros where applicable, and the contour-overlap methodology is used in areas outside of defined and rated Nielsen Audio Metro markets. An exception to this market definition approach is Puerto Rico, where the contour-overlap methodology applies even though Puerto Rico is a Nielsen Audio Metro market.</P>
                    <P>
                        30. In its last quadrennial review, the Commission concluded that local radio ownership limits promote competition, a public interest benefit that the Commission found to be a sufficient basis for retaining the current rule. Additionally, the Commission affirmed its previous findings that competitive local radio markets help promote viewpoint diversity and localism, and it deemed the rule consistent with the Commission's goal of promoting minority and female broadcast ownership. Accordingly, the Commission retained the rule without modification, although it provided several clarifications regarding the rule's implementation. Subsequently, on reconsideration, the Commission adopted a presumption to use in evaluating transactions involving radio stations within embedded markets (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         smaller markets, as defined by Nielsen Audio, that are contained within the boundaries of a larger Nielsen Audio Metro market) where the parent market currently has multiple embedded markets (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         New York, NY and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12202"/>
                        Washington, DC). A transaction would qualify for the presumption if the applicants demonstrated: (1) compliance with the numerical ownership limits in each embedded market using the Nielsen Audio Metro methodology, and (2) compliance with the ownership limits in the parent market using the contour-overlap methodology applicable to undefined markets in lieu of the Commission's ordinary parent market analysis. The presumption supports waiving the numerical ownership limits in existing parent markets where an applicant can demonstrate both compliance with the numerical ownership limits in the embedded market, as well as compliance with the ownership limit using the contour overlap method. The Commission stated that the presumption would apply pending further consideration of embedded market transactions in this 2018 quadrennial review.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        31. The 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         asked generally whether the current Local Radio Ownership Rule remains necessary in the public interest to promote competition, localism, or viewpoint diversity. It also sought comment on several specific issues regarding the radio rule, including whether to retain the rule's current market definition, market size tiers, numerical limits, and AM/FM subcap limits. In particular, the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         sought comment on whether the Commission should make permanent use of the contour-overlap methodology for areas not within Nielsen Audio Metro markets. In addition, it asked about the treatment of embedded markets and the effect of the rule on minority and female ownership.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        32. For the reasons discussed below, we find that the Local Radio Ownership Rule remains necessary in the public interest as the result of competition. There is no question that the broader media environment within which broadcast radio operates has changed dramatically since the radio rule was enacted in 1996. Consumer choice in audio entertainment has grown with the launch of satellite radio, the introduction of audio streaming services, and the proliferation of podcasts. There is no consensus in the record, however, regarding whether changes to the Local Radio Ownership Rule would enable radio owners to respond to these developments more effectively, or even, if so, whether those benefits would outweigh potential harms to competition, localism, or viewpoint diversity. The commenters were deeply divided in their responses to almost every issue raised in the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM.</E>
                         As discussed below, after considering the conflicting arguments in the record, and the split that exists even within the radio industry, we agree with those commenters asserting that loosening the rule would harm competition to the detriment of listeners.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        33. 
                        <E T="03">Market Definition.</E>
                         As in the past, we continue to find that the relevant market to consider for purposes of the Local Radio Ownership Rule is the radio listening market. We further find that due to the unique characteristics of broadcast radio, it would not be appropriate to include satellite or non-broadcast audio sources, such as internet streaming services, in that market at this time. Notably, this finding is consistent with our findings in prior quadrennial reviews, where we looked at the unique characteristics of broadcast radio and the lack of substitutability with other audio sources, elements that remain fundamentally unaltered in spite of larger marketplace changes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        34. Moreover, we find that the nature of the larger advertising market, in which advertising dollars have always flowed between different sectors in accordance with advertiser preferences, does not compel us to revise the way we view broadcast radio's unique place within the audio landscape or the distinct market within which radio stations operate. First, we note that the U.S. Department of Justice (DOJ) consistently has found broadcast radio advertising to constitute a distinct product market. We recognize that some local businesses may have shifted increasing shares of their advertising budgets to internet platforms, such as Facebook and Google, while at the same time buying fewer radio advertisements. We also note, however, that the broader reach of radio advertising offers different benefits than the targeted advertising offered by Facebook and Google, such that at least some advertisers do not view them as substitutes. In addition, recent data indicate that broadcast radio dominates listening among ad-supported audio sources. We find that, within the broader advertising ecosystem, there still remains a distinct broadcast radio advertising market, such that our existing rule promotes competition among local radio stations through competition for advertising dollars, as well as along other dimensions that directly benefit listeners (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         quality, choice of offerings, innovation, among others). Moreover, for the reasons stated below, it is primarily as a result of this competition that broadcast radio stations are spurred continually to look for ways to improve service to the listening public.
                    </P>
                    <P>35. Although we acknowledge, as commenters contend, that there is today a broader audio landscape that includes a variety of audio options for consumers, many of which did not exist a decade or two ago, we continue to find that within that broader landscape, free over-the-air broadcast radio maintains a unique place and that radio stations compete primarily with other radio stations for listeners. Accordingly, we reject commenters' claims that we must revise our market definition to reflect the “expanding universe of content providers” and should include non-broadcast sources of audio content such as Sirius XM/Pandora, Spotify, YouTube Music, Apple Music, and Amazon Music. As the Commission previously has found, although the broader marketplace for the delivery of audio programming includes satellite and online audio sources, along with traditional broadcast radio, there are significant differences in the availability, reach, consumer engagement, and cost of these services, such that they deliver different value propositions to consumers. Significantly, of the various options available in the broader audio marketplace, generally speaking, only terrestrial broadcast radio both is available without a paid subscription and does not require access to internet service. Not only does this accessibility make broadcast radio uniquely and widely available, it also makes it a lifeline for many Americans, especially in times of local emergencies. In its Fourteenth Broadband Deployment Report, the Commission determined that despite significant gains in delivering access to broadband, in 2019, at least 14.46 million Americans, or about 4% of the population, still lacked access to fixed terrestrial broadband service at a standard speed of 25/3 Mbps. Additionally, the Commission found that the adoption of fixed terrestrial broadband in the 10/1 Mbps speed tier was 67.2% among households in the quartile with the lowest poverty rate, versus 40.7% among households in the quartile representing the highest poverty rate. As commenters observe, radio is a trusted and essential source of public safety information during emergencies and in times of crises.</P>
                    <P>
                        36. We also continue to find that the local nature of broadcast radio makes it unique within the broader audio landscape. In particular, we note that broadcast radio is alone within the audio landscape in having an affirmative obligation to serve the needs and interest of the local community. As 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12203"/>
                        part of their license obligations, each quarter, radio station licensees are required to submit a list of programs that treat issues faced by the local community. Such programs may include local news and public affairs programming. Moreover, there is evidence that being local is the defining value proposition that many radio stations see themselves as providing to consumers. As commenters point out, radio programming includes offerings with a community focus, such as program hosts that are known within the locality, music by local bands, reporting on local sports teams, and sponsorship of neighborhood festivals, which other audio services do not provide. As the Commission's 2022 Communications Marketplace Report states, “promoting a local on-air personality as the `face' of a station may be an important way for a station to distinguish or brand itself from other stations in its market.”
                    </P>
                    <P>37. In addition, even with the emergence of new audio services and platforms, radio listenership remains strong and dominant within the broader audio marketplace in many key respects. Although commenters warn that the decline of radio listening during the pandemic is not likely to rebound to pre-pandemic levels, it is premature to determine whether the pandemic will have long-term effects on local radio. We find that forecasts of future declines of radio listenership and revenue are speculative, and therefore unreliable for the purposes of this review. Certainly, commenters provide some evidence that time spent listening to broadcast radio has declined, especially among younger audiences. Nonetheless, in 2018, Edison Research's “Share of Ear” report allocates the share of time spent listening to audio sources for Americans aged 13 years old and over as follows: 46% terrestrial broadcast radio, 14% streaming audio, 12% owned music, 11% YouTube, 7% SiriusXM satellite radio, 5% TV Music channels, 3% podcasts, and 2% other sources. Similarly, a more recent Share of Ear report indicated that, in 2021, the total share of time spent listening to AM/FM radio remained the highest at 38%, and the share of time spent listening to podcasts had risen to only 5%. Additionally, while the gap in usage between broadcast and online audio programming has declined over time, terrestrial broadcast radio remains dominant and the number of weekly listeners to broadcast radio in the United States remains relatively stable. Moreover, historically, easy access to AM/FM radio inside automobiles has been a distinctive characteristic and advantage of broadcast radio, and in-car radio listening has rebounded as people return to their cars following the height of the pandemic. By contrast, some commenters claim that radio's dominance over in-car listening is fading as Bluetooth and satellite radio capabilities become standard features in new cars. While there is no question that consumers are increasingly finding new audio sources to consume while driving, broadcast radio remains the clear top choice. Inside the home, we acknowledge there is a decreasing number of radios in households with the ubiquity of digital devices, like smartphones and smart speakers, that provide access to an array of audio content. Nonetheless, evidence further suggests that, even within the evolving marketplace, broadcast radio stations are embracing these new devices and finding additional ways to reach listeners.</P>
                    <P>38. Ultimately, we agree with iHeart that “competitive pressures across platforms within the audio ecosystem are not determinative of what is the relevant market” for purposes of our Local Radio Ownership Rule. We reject NAB's suggestion that the relevant competition is for “the public's attention and time.” Since its inception, radio has competed with other types of entertainment for the public's attention and time. Television, movies, books, newspapers, magazines, concerts, plays, and all manner of activities present consumers with countless options for how to spend their time or be entertained or informed. Today's consumers have a broad selection of audio options that can be accessed on an increasing number of devices, but that does not mean competition among local radio stations should be weakened or that consumers and advertisers consider non-broadcast options to be appropriate substitutes for local radio.</P>
                    <P>39. As we have acknowledged, in recent years, the audio landscape has seen the growth of streaming music services that have amassed millions of subscribers. Nonetheless, there is evidence that consumers may be most directly substituting online audio services for what would once have been purchases of recorded music rather than for live, local, free broadcast radio, and that consumers still flock to broadcast radio for elements that other audio sources in the marketplace are not currently providing. For instance, while advertising dollars may have started to flow to other sources over time, in filings with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC), iHeart (the largest radio station owner by revenue, number of stations, and number of markets) suggests that within the broader audio marketplace, there are distinct sectors that vie separately for listeners, and in some respects, serve as complements to one another. Specifically, iHeart states:</P>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <P>
                            Within the audio industry, companies operate in two primary sectors: [1] The `music collection' sector, which essentially replaced downloads and CDs and [2] The `
                            <E T="03">companionship sector,</E>
                             [in] which people regard radio and podcasting personalities as their trusted friends and companions on whom they rely to provide news on everything from entertainment, local news, storytelling, information about new music and artists, weather, traffic and more. 
                            <E T="03">We operate in the second sector and use our large scale and national reach in broadcast radio to build additional complementary platforms.</E>
                        </P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <P>As iHeart suggests, in general, broadcast radio continues to serve a distinct role in the marketplace by providing important entertainment, information, and “companionship” to listeners that other forms of audio content likely do not. Moreover, by contrast, online streaming services that offer access to tens of millions of songs and other audio tracks to listeners on demand are perhaps situated more directly as substitutes for traditional purchased music collections.</P>
                    <P>40. For the reasons stated above, we find that the local radio listening market remains a distinct market for purposes of our Local Radio Ownership Rule analysis. We conclude that allowing further concentration within local radio markets would disserve listeners by jeopardizing the aspects of radio that make it a unique and appealing service.</P>
                    <P>
                        41. 
                        <E T="03">Market Size Tiers and Numerical Limits.</E>
                         Based on the record of this proceeding, we find that the Local Radio Ownership Rule as currently designed remains necessary in the public interest as the result of competition, and we reject proposals in the record to modify its market size tiers or numerical limits at this time. For example, NAB urges the Commission to repeal the radio rule entirely, or at a minimum, to loosen restrictions in the top 75 Nielsen Audio Metro markets to allow a single entity to own or control up to eight commercial FM stations, with no cap on AM ownership, and, outside of the top 75 Nielsen markets and in unrated markets, to allow a single entity to own or control an unlimited number of AM and FM stations. NAB also proposes that an owner in the top 75 markets be permitted to own up to two additional FM stations (for a total of 10 FMs) in a market after successfully participating in the Commission's incubator program. As discussed below, we find that the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12204"/>
                        existing rule continues to serve the public interest, that the record does not establish that permitting greater consolidation would benefit either the radio industry or the listening public, and that proposals to loosen the rule would reduce competition among broadcast radio stations to the detriment of listeners. For these reasons, we also reject various other proposals to relax the radio restrictions.
                    </P>
                    <P>42. We find that the current tiers and limits maintain an appropriate level of competition in the local radio markets to the benefit of listeners and the public. Ever since Congress established these demarcations more than two and a half decades ago, the Commission consistently “has found that setting numerical ownership limits based on market size tiers remains the most effective method for preventing the acquisition of market power in local radio markets.” We disagree with the notion that changes in the broader audio environment require a restructuring of the rule's market size tiers or numerical limits. Not only do we find that the current limits promote our policy goals, but, as discussed below we conclude that allowing further consolidation would not ensure that local radio stations retain their listeners and advertisers. In addition, we note that the market tiers that NAB proposes would be determined by the size of the population in the Nielsen Audio Metro market. The current rule uses Nielsen markets as a starting point, but its tiers depend on the number of radio stations in the Nielsen market, rather than on how many people live in the market. Because the rule limits the number of stations an entity may own within a local market, we find that the most consistent and relevant measure upon which to base the rule's tiers is the total number of stations in the market, a concept that has been applied as part of the rule for many years, is well understood, and provides a degree of certainty to applicants. Under the rule, if there are more total stations in a market, an entity can own more stations. In effect, this ensures that a certain number of stations in a market would not be owned by a single entity. By contrast, NAB's proposal would permit ownership of eight stations in each of the top 75 markets as ranked by population, regardless of the total number of stations (or number of stations available to be owned by other entities) in the market. NAB's proposal to eliminate all ownership limits in most markets and retain only FM limits in the largest 75 markets would represent a radical departure from the existing numerical limits and would allow an increase in consolidation that would significantly decrease existing competition.</P>
                    <P>
                        43. Commenters in favor of loosening radio ownership limits suggest that the broadcast radio industry, in general, is in dire need of relief and contend that its viability may be at stake if additional consolidation is not permitted. Other commenters, however, assert that the survival of the radio industry depends on keeping ownership limits in place to prevent massive consolidation that could result in a few national owners buying all or most of the stations in a market and piping in preset programming from distant headquarters. These commenters contend that relaxing the rule to “save” radio under NAB's plan would have the opposite effect: destroying what is the very essence of local radio. We recognize that the record contains evidence showing that broadcast radio has experienced declines in listening shares and in advertising revenues in recent years, while streaming audio has seen growth in both areas. We further realize that broadcast radio, like other industries, has faced and continues to face challenges as technologies, market dynamics, and consumer behaviors evolve. Notwithstanding these challenges, we continue to find, as compelled by the instruction of section 202(h), that the current structure of the ownership rule remains necessary to promote the Commission's public interest goals. Moreover, we note that in any action that affects licensing, the Commission must be mindful of Congress' directive to avoid excessive concentration of licenses and to disseminate licenses widely. Allowing all radio stations in a market to be licensed to one entity would demand an exceptional justification given this directive. In 
                        <E T="03">FCC</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Prometheus,</E>
                         the Supreme Court recognized the Commission's longstanding policy of “ensuring that a small number of entities do not dominate a particular media market.” In any event, we remain highly skeptical that permitting additional consolidation beyond that currently allowed under our rule is warranted or would address radio's stated woes.
                    </P>
                    <P>44. For one thing, as we note above, broadcast listenership within the broader audio landscape remains relatively strong despite declines in radio's popularity. In addition, broadcast radio revenue—the lifeblood of the industry—has shown signs of stability over the past decade. As the Commission found in its most recent Communications Marketplace Report, “the primary source of revenue for commercial terrestrial radio stations is advertising” and while “total broadcast radio revenue dropped to $13.7 billion in 2020,” revenue then “rose to $14.8 billion in 2021, resulting in a net decline of approximately 17% from 2019 to 2021, due largely to the drop in demand for advertising due to the COVID-19 pandemic.” In fact, broadcast radio advertising revenue remained virtually flat from 2010 to 2019, which obviously is not preferable to steep growth, but also is not indicative of a prolonged or pronounced decline. Moreover, as broadcast radio companies expand into other parts of the audio marketplace (streaming, podcasts, etc.), online revenue for broadcast radio has seen substantial growth and stands as an “area of potential growth” going forward. Perhaps tellingly, the total number of broadcast radio stations remained fairly steady, and actually increased slightly, between 2015 and 2020, suggesting there has not been a massive shuttering of radio stations due to financial stress.</P>
                    <P>
                        45. We understand that radio stations depend on advertising revenues to survive and to provide free, over-the-air programming, as they have since the inception of broadcasting. However, evidence does not appear to show that owning more stations necessarily correlates to being able to attain proportionally more revenue (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the number of owned stations and the net advertising revenue per station vary considerably among the top ten largest radio companies by net advertising revenue). While we recognize that adding more stations to a radio owner's local holdings may offer some benefit to the owner, including the ability to reduce costs, it would come at a tradeoff to the public interest, and we agree, moreover, with those commenters who contend that it would not reverse the overall downward trend in the amount of time that American consumers spend listening to broadcast radio or encourage local advertisers to increase their radio advertising budgets, both of which our rule cannot address. Although NAB and others provide evidence that broadcast radio is losing advertising revenue to online platforms and digital audio, we find that greater consolidation is unlikely to improve the ability of local radio owners to regain their advertising losses, particularly given the dissimilar value propositions that they and large technology companies offer to advertisers. We agree with those commenters who assert that if further consolidation were allowed, smaller and independent radio stations could be 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12205"/>
                        sacrificed needlessly based on an unrealistic premise that ever larger radio owners are the answer to compete for advertising on a level playing field with large technology companies. Or as one commenter put it, radio “will never out-Google Google, or out-Facebook Facebook.”
                    </P>
                    <P>46. In any event, our conclusion that the current radio rule remains necessary in the public interest as the result of competition rests on the premise that the listening public is the constituency that the rule is intended to serve. The purpose of the rule is to ensure competition among broadcast radio stations within a market so that radio owners are motivated to provide the highest quality of service to the public. Reducing the number of competitors in a local market puts that quality of service at risk, threatens viewpoint diversity, and may reduce the amount of local programming available. Some commenters contend that if an owner is allowed to acquire the competing stations in a market, it will diversify the programming formats on its newly-acquired stations because it will not want to compete with itself. One has to question, however, whether that owner would maintain the same quality of service on its stations without facing external competition from other station owners. Furthermore, evidence in the record suggests that as the radio industry has become more consolidated over time, some types of formats have been reduced.</P>
                    <P>47. Notably, the existing rule already allows a generous amount of common ownership within a radio market and does not limit ownership across markets, nor, any longer, across other media such as newspapers, television stations, or cable systems. For example, in the largest radio markets, one owner may own as many as eight radio stations, and up to five in the same service, and that same owner is permitted to own stations up to the limit in every local market in the country. Moreover, since the passage of the 1996 Act, considerable consolidation already has taken place within the radio industry, and there is mounting evidence that it has not been without at least some negative effects for consumers. As some commenters observe, such consolidation has resulted in the homogenization of content; less local programming; fewer market entry opportunities for new or small owners, including minorities and women; employee layoffs; and competitive harm to the smaller station owners striving to remain in the market. The result is that, even under the current Local Radio Ownership Rule, there are some radio companies with hundreds of radio stations around the country and many radio markets are already quite concentrated, a fact that the Commission highlighted in the last quadrennial review.</P>
                    <P>
                        48. For instance, we find that within local radio markets, the largest station group owners continue to dominate other radio stations in terms of audience and revenue share. Specifically, evidence shows that the largest owners of commercial stations continue to enjoy substantial advantages in revenue share—on average, the largest station group in each Nielsen Audio Metro market has a 46.7% share of the market's total radio advertising revenue, with the two largest owners accounting for 73.9% of the revenue. In more than a third of all Nielsen Audio Metro markets, the top two commercial station owners control at least 80% of the radio advertising revenue. According to BIA data, in the 50 largest markets, on average, the top two firms account for 62.3% of radio advertising revenue in the market; in the 100 smallest markets, on average, the top two firms account for 81% of market revenue. With respect to ratings, the top four station group owners continue to dominate audience share. BIA data indicate that the four firm market concentration ratios (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the percentage of audience share attributed to the four largest firms in the market) average 97.2% in smaller markets and 89.7% in the 50 largest markets. Even without accounting for the market shares of station groups beyond the largest, these data reflect the high level of concentration in local radio markets, where on average the top station group owner's advertising revenue share hovers between 40 and 50 percent. We therefore do not find that the current rule is overly burdensome or unduly restrictive, or that relaxing the existing numerical limits would promote competition in a manner that would be consistent with the public interest. The Herfindahl-Hirschman Index (HHI) is a commonly accepted measure of market concentration. The HHI is calculated by squaring the market share of each firm competing in the market and then summing the resulting numbers. For example, for a market consisting of four firms with shares of 30, 30, 20, and 20 percent, the HHI is 2,600 (302 + 302 + 202 + 202 = 2,600). The U.S. Department of Justice (DOJ) and Federal Trade Commission (FTC) generally consider markets in which the HHI is between 1,500 and 2,500 points to be moderately concentrated and consider markets in which the HHI is in excess of 2,500 points to be highly concentrated. Under an HHI analysis, in a market where the market share leader has a share in excess of 50%, the market would be considered highly concentrated on the basis of that one firm alone (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         502 = 2,500). In a market where the market share leader has a share in excess of roughly 40%, the market would be considered moderately concentrated on the basis of that one firm alone (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         402 = 1,600). Arithmetically, the addition of other firms' market shares would not make the market any less concentrated under an HHI analysis, as all market shares, no matter the quantity or size, are additive to the total HHI value for the market and that value would only increase with the addition of market share information for other firms.
                    </P>
                    <P>49. Indeed, we find that the current rule remains a backstop against further excessive consolidation. When the Commission repealed the Radio/Television Cross-Ownership Rule in 2017, it reasoned that any negative effects would be mitigated by the continued operation of the Local Radio and Local Television Ownership Rules, which would act as constraints on undue concentration. There is some evidence that, although a considerable amount of consolidation has occurred, the rule has prevented further excessive consolidation. For instance, although the market share information cited above reflects a high degree of concentration among the largest firms, it also appears that those numbers have remained fairly stable for the past decade or so under the existing ownership limits. For instance, the average advertising revenue market share of the largest station group in each market increased only slightly from 45% in 2012 to approximately 47% in 2022. Similarly, the combined market share for the top two station owners increased from 73% in 2012 to approximately 74% in 2022.</P>
                    <P>
                        50. On the other hand, NAB's proposal of eliminating all limits in most markets and retaining only FM limits in the largest 75 markets would exacerbate the dominance of the larger firms. It would permit consolidation to the level of monopolization or near monopolization in many, if not most, markets. It would mean, for many markets, the potential to move from moderately concentrated today, under traditional antitrust standards, to another level of concentration altogether, and for others that are already highly concentrated, it would mean making them even more so. For instance, based on 2021 data from BIA Kelsey Media Access Pro, HHIs for advertising revenue share in radio 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12206"/>
                        markets finds that there is one market with low concentration, 49 markets that are moderately concentrated, and 203 markets that are highly concentrated. For listening share among commercial stations, there are no markets with low concentration, 40 markets that are moderately concentrated, and 213 markets that are highly concentrated. Under NAB's proposal, every one of these 253 markets would carry the risk of becoming highly concentrated or becoming even more highly concentrated if already so. Practically speaking, this effect could be particularly pronounced in the smallest markets (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         those outside the top 75) where NAB's proposal to remove limits altogether would represent a radical departure from the current limits. For instance, most of the 178 markets outside the top 75 would be classified in one of the two smallest tiers per our existing rule (Tier 3 or Tier 4), with the majority (108) being considered Tier 3 and having, on average, 10.3 commercial FM stations. Under NAB's proposal, then, in those 108 markets, an owner could increase its ownership from a maximum of four FM stations today to ten or more FM stations (or all such stations in the market). The potential effect on competition inherent in NAB's proposal—which, as noted, is substantial—does not even account for any practical administrative difficulties that could be present with transitioning to a completely new approach to radio limits that sets a size cutoff based on Nielsen ranking (by households) rather than the number of stations in a market.
                    </P>
                    <P>51. Surely, further consolidation could have benefits for certain radio owners, but such benefits are not worth the cost of the real and likely harms that would result to the listening public from a further reduction in competition. In particular, we find that undue consolidation is likely to lead to radio stations becoming less responsive to the needs and interests of their local communities. As the Commission has noted previously, “[b]ecause stations have a duty to serve the needs of their local communities, localism has been a cornerstone of broadcast regulations for decades.” We find that the cost pressures and incentives associated with consolidation could be expected to work against the provision of programming responsive to local issues. Specifically, we think the cost incentives in favor of repurposing content on multiple stations—a practice that would be expected to expand with ownership of more stations in local markets—would work against vigorous competition for service responsive to local needs.</P>
                    <P>52. In addition, we note that some commenters raise concerns about the effects that loosening limits on FM ownership could have on the AM band. Specifically, commenters opposing NAB's proposal argue that eliminating the FM limit in the majority of radio markets and raising it from five to eight stations in the largest 75 markets would devalue the AM band by causing the migration of AM station owners to the FM band. They argue that migrating AM station owners would take audiences, advertising, programming, investment of capital, resources, and talent with them. They assert that the result would be counterproductive to the Commission's AM revitalization efforts and would undermine the Commission's incubator program by removing or reducing the incentive to participate in the program. NAB counters that its proposal, in fact, would promote AM revitalization by allowing owners to acquire more AM stations. It contends that radio stations in smaller markets need the regulatory relief its proposal would provide and that AM stations, in particular, are struggling. Because we decline to adopt NAB's proposal, we need not reach a determination on whether the proposal would have a deleterious impact on the AM band due to a purported exodus of owners that commenters claim would occur.</P>
                    <P>
                        53. We acknowledge that even under the existing rule there may be instances in which smaller owners are increasingly finding it difficult to remain viable in the current radio industry (a fact that is perhaps not surprising given the dominance of the largest firms). While NAB and others present this as a rationale in favor of further consolidation, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         to allow larger firms to buy struggling smaller firms, we disagree. Rather, we agree with those commenters that assert that loosening the current rule would result in the disappearance of smaller stations from the market entirely, either because they would be more vulnerable to acquisition or because they would be unable to compete with the larger station groups that would expand their dominance if further consolidation was permitted. Excessive aggregation through acquisition of stations of any size disserves our policy goals of competition, diversity, and localism. In any event, we continue to find that there is ample leeway under the current rule for additional consolidation within limits. For instance, in looking at the ten largest radio station owners (by net advertising revenue), none has an average of more than five radio stations per market, suggesting there are markets where these companies could acquire additional stations, even under the current rule. What the current rule does constrain, however, is the further aggregation of market share by an already dominant firm in a local market. Put another way, even if it would be efficient for a struggling firm to exit the market, it does not follow that an in-market competitor has to be, or should be, the one to acquire that firm. Instead, we find that a new entrant (or at least a new market entrant) would be preferable from the perspective of competition and diversity, and our current rule is conducive to such an outcome. The ten largest radio station owners, on average, own stations in 43 markets, suggesting there may be more markets they could enter to pursue cost efficiencies and economies of scale under the current rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        54. 
                        <E T="03">AM/FM Subcaps.</E>
                         We conclude that, like the market tiers and associated ownership limits, the sub-limits on AM and FM ownership within the Local Radio Ownership Rule also remain necessary in the public interest given the current audio marketplace. The radio rule's AM/FM subcaps limit the number of radio stations from the same service, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         AM or FM, that an entity may own in a single market. Currently, a broadcaster may not own more than five AM or five FM stations in markets in the largest market tier, four AM or four FM stations in markets in the two middle-sized tiers, or three AM or three FM stations in markets in the smallest tier. These subcaps, which were set by Congress in 1996, are intended to prevent excessive concentration in a particular service, to foster market entry, and to promote competition by accounting for the technological and marketplace differences between AM and FM stations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        55. We find that the AM/FM subcaps continue to serve these purposes. The subcaps help prevent excessive common ownership of either AM or FM stations in a local market. Retaining a cap specific to FM stations addresses the concerns of commenters that relaxing or removing the FM subcaps potentially could cause AM stations to migrate to the FM band, resulting in a diminished AM band where lower-cost market entry opportunities for small owners, including minorities and women, are most likely. Moreover, despite the growing use of FM translators to transmit AM signals and the transition of some AM stations to digital radio, disparities between the AM and FM services persist. iHeart provides evidence that the number of AM stations has declined while the number 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12207"/>
                        of FM stations has increased, and it states that quantitative data for audience listening and advertising revenue demonstrate “a large and increasing competitive gap between AM and FM radio stations” from 2010 to 2018. In the interest of preventing undue concentration among local stations in either band, we reject the proposals in our record aimed at modifying or eliminating the rule's subcaps.
                    </P>
                    <P>56. Though iHeart and other commenters contend that elimination of the AM subcap would provide needed relief to the struggling AM band without risk of harming competition, we disagree. iHeart's proposal to remove all limits and subcaps on AM stations while retaining all current limits and subcaps on FM stations would not create a risk of migration of AM owners to the FM band, which is one concern that has been raised regarding FM deregulation. However, we agree with those commenters who contend that AM deregulation would allow large owners of AM stations to buy up the smaller AM stations in their markets and could lead to excessive concentration within the AM band. iHeart asserts that there is no longer a risk of concentration in the AM band given “increasingly steep declines in audience listening to AM stations and the continuing erosion of advertiser revenue experienced by AM stations, especially when compared to FM stations.” However, we find that although AM stations overall tend not to achieve the ratings or revenues of FM stations, this disparity is by no means a universal truth. For instance, in each of the top five markets, there is an AM station among the top three stations in revenue. Additionally, throughout the 253 Nielsen Audio Metro markets, there are 124 a.m. stations ranked in the top five in terms of all-day audience share, or approximately 10% of all top-five stations in those markets. Specifically, across all 253 Nielsen Audio Metro markets, there are 1,265 total stations that would be ranked in the top five (discounting any potential ties for the number five ranking), which means that AM stations account for approximately 9.8% percent of the top five stations in these markets. So although, in general, FM stations may continue to enjoy some competitive advantages over AM stations, there continue to be many strong AM stations and AM remains a vital service. Further, four out of the top ten (and seven out of the top twenty) radio stations in the United States (as ranked by net advertising revenue for 2021) are AM stations. Therefore, it cannot be presumed that AM stations would not be targets for acquisition if AM restrictions were eliminated. Regardless, even in markets where AM stations are not among the highest-ranked stations in the market, the AM limits and subcaps promote a competitive AM band by preventing excessive concentration.</P>
                    <P>57. In addition, we find that reduced competition in the AM band would threaten the band's distinctive qualities. Notably, some commenters observe that the AM band, in particular, includes more small broadcasters than the FM band, including minority and female licensees, and that it is important to preserve that diversity of ownership. AM stations also include more Spanish and Ethnic, News, Sports, and Talk formats relative to FM stations. Despite competitive developments that have continued to affect the AM and FM bands, relative to each other, we find that the public interest benefits of maintaining diffuse ownership within the AM and FM bands continue to support retaining the AM and FM subcaps.</P>
                    <P>
                        58. 
                        <E T="03">Methodology for Determining Compliance in Non-Nielsen Audio Markets.</E>
                         We will make permanent the Commission's contour-overlap methodology that has been used on an interim basis to determine compliance with ownership limits in areas that are not within defined Nielsen Audio Metro markets. At the time the Commission adopted the use of Nielsen Audio Markets (formerly Arbitron Metro markets), it acknowledged that not all portions of the country fall into a market area defined by Arbitron or later Nielsen. In fact, a significant portion of the country, both in terms of geography and population is not located in such rated/defined markets, meaning that another method must be employed in those instances to determine the number of stations in a given market. Accordingly, the Commission previously stated that it would continue to use the former “contour-overlap methodology” to determine the relevant geographic market for purposes of ascertaining compliance with the relevant radio ownership market tiers and caps. In adopting the Arbitron Metro (now Nielsen Audio Metro) market definition for purposes of the radio rule in the 2002 Biennial Review Order, the Commission stated that the contour-overlap methodology would continue to apply to undefined markets on an interim basis while it explored the potential for a better substitute. While the Commission continued to apply the methodology on an interim basis, it adopted changes to the methodology that minimized what it found to be the more problematic aspects of that approach. Specifically, the Commission excluded from the market calculation radio stations that are commonly owned with the stations seeking to be combined and radio stations whose transmitter site is more than 92 kilometers (58 miles) from the perimeter of the mutual overlap area. Under this approach, the relevant geographic market is defined by the cluster of stations with overlapping signal contours of a given strength. The contour-overlap methodology for defining radio markets and counting the radio stations that are in those markets uses the principal community contours of the commercial radio stations that a party seeks to own. The relevant radio market is defined as the area encompassed by the principal community contours of the commonly owned radio stations whose contours mutually overlap. Principal community contours also are used to count the number of radio stations in a radio market, that is, to determine the size of the market for purposes of applying the ownership limits. Specifically, in addition to the radio stations whose contours form the market, any station whose principal community contour intersects the market is considered to be in the relevant market. Although the Commission was initially critical of the contour-overlap methodology, and indeed abandoned it in favor of using markets defined by Arbitron or Nielsen ratings where such markets exist, it has continued to use the approach now on an “interim” basis for nearly 20 years for those areas that fall outside a rated market. In that time, and in various quadrennial proceedings, the Commission has invited commenters to offer alternatives to the methodology for use in non-rated areas, but ultimately has found no reason to revisit the approach. Rather, it has found previously that the revised contour-overlap methodology appeared to be working well.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        59. Seeking to resolve the issue once and for all, and either remove the “interim” label or else find a suitable replacement, the Commission once again called for any potential alternatives to the contour-overlap method in the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM.</E>
                         The record neither offers any new alternative to the method, nor any opposition to its continued use in those areas of the country that are outside of a rated Nielsen Audio Market. Accordingly, because we find that the approach has worked sufficiently well for the past 20 years and is familiar to both radio broadcasters and Commission staff, we will make permanent the Commission's 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12208"/>
                        contour-overlap methodology that has been used on an interim basis to determine ownership limits in areas that are not within defined Nielsen Audio Metro markets. Therefore, going forward, parties proposing a radio station combination involving one or more stations whose communities of license are not located within a Nielsen Audio Market must show compliance with the local radio ownership rule using the contour-overlap methodology.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        60. 
                        <E T="03">Embedded Markets.</E>
                         We decline requests from commenters to modify our presumption regarding embedded markets, which was originally adopted in 2017 and made applicable pending further consideration of embedded market transactions in this 2018 Quadrennial Review proceeding. We now complete our 2018 Quadrennial Review and retain the presumption in its current form. As described above, embedded markets are smaller markets, as defined by Nielsen Audio, that are contained within the boundaries of a larger Nielsen Audio Metro market. In general, entities seeking to acquire a radio station in an embedded market must satisfy, separately, the numerical limits of the Local Radio Ownership Rule for both the embedded market and the overall parent market. In addition, our current policy includes a presumption in favor of waiving the general rule for radio stations in embedded markets where the parent market contains multiple embedded markets, provided two conditions are satisfied: (1) compliance with the numerical ownership limits using the Nielsen Audio Metro methodology in each embedded market, and (2) compliance with the ownership limits using the contour-overlap methodology applicable to undefined markets—in lieu of evaluating compliance with the numerical limits in the overall parent market. Currently, the only two markets for which the presumption is relevant—
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         parent markets that contain multiple embedded markets—are New York, NY, and Washington, DC, and application of the presumption is limited to these markets.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        61. We find that the record, and the lack of applications received to date, supports not making any changes to our embedded markets policies at this time. In particular, we reject suggestions that we eliminate the policy that counts an embedded market station in both the embedded market and in the parent market in favor of counting embedded market stations only within an embedded market. In addition, we reject the suggestion that the waiver presumption should be extended to any and all future situations with multiple embedded markets, beyond New York and Washington, DC. Instead, after evaluating the presumption in the 2018 Quadrennial Review proceeding, we retain the presumption in its current form. We agree that Connoisseur Media and others have demonstrated evidence in the past that embedded market stations primarily compete for listeners within the confines of their own embedded market, that is, against stations located within their own embedded market and those stations located in the main city of the parent market whose signals reach the embedded market (but not against stations in other embedded markets). It is precisely for these reasons that the Commission adopted the presumption in 2017. Nonetheless, we find that the proposal not to count embedded market stations toward an entity's compliance with the limits in the parent market could lead to excessive concentration, allowing a single owner to combine parent market stations together with those in embedded markets in a way that harms competition within the embedded market. For instance, within the New York, NY parent market, suppose an entity owns eight stations, four in each of two embedded markets. If those stations do not count toward the limits in the parent market, then the entity would be free to acquire up to eight non-embedded stations in the New York, NY parent market. If, as Connoisseur Media claims, New York parent market stations compete for listeners in outlying embedded markets, then this change could effectively allow an entity to own a total of sixteen stations, twelve of which, according to Connoisseur Media's claims, would be competing in each of two embedded markets (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the four embedded market stations each competing within their respective embedded markets as well as the eight non-embedded parent market stations that presumably compete in each of the two embedded markets as well). Moreover, absent further experience with the existing presumption in practice, we remain unconvinced that there is a demonstrated need, or that it would be wise, to adopt additional flexibility at this time. For these same reasons, we decline to automatically extend the waiver presumption to all future situations involving multiple embedded markets.
                    </P>
                    <P>62. When the Commission adopted the embedded market presumption in 2017, it stated that the presumption would “give Connoisseur—and other parties—sufficient confidence with which to assess possible future actions.” We find that this continues to be the case, as the presumption favors an entity's ability to invest in multiple embedded markets without the stations it owns in one embedded market counting against its ownership of stations in the other. Moreover, the Commission anticipated that future transactions utilizing the presumption would “help inform our subsequent review of . . . the treatment of embedded market transactions.” In fact, however, during the time since 2017 that the presumption has been in effect, no party has filed an application seeking to avail itself of the presumption. Moreover, the record in this proceeding contains no evidence to indicate that the current presumption is deterring such transactions or that that the presumption would be inadequate to facilitate their successful completion where the criteria of the presumption could be met. As a result, we find that the Commission is providing sufficient flexibility and certainty to prospective applicants and that we do not have any further experience or information supporting further policy or rule changes at this time. With regard to Connoisseur Media's suggestion that our policy should apply to all future parent markets with multiple embedded markets, we find that it would be speculative and premature to consider how we will apply the presumption to all such future markets without understanding the particular competitive dynamics of those markets. As Connoisseur Media claims, the drawing of embedded markets is, at least in some sense, a function of geography, such that the competitive dynamics of future markets may or may not resemble those of the current two to which the presumption applies. It is possible that, even if applied to other markets, the presumption could be overcome by factors in future markets that we have not observed in the New York, NY or Washington, DC markets.</P>
                    <P>
                        63. 
                        <E T="03">Minority and Female Ownership.</E>
                         We find that the record provides no reason for the Commission to reevaluate its conclusions in the 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order</E>
                         that the current Local Radio Ownership Rule remains consistent with the Commission's goal of promoting minority and female ownership of broadcast radio stations. We retain the rule for the reasons stated above, particularly to promote competition among broadcast radio stations in local markets. The record does not contain persuasive evidence that relaxing the rule would boost minority or female radio ownership. To the contrary, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12209"/>
                        several commenters contend that loosening ownership restrictions could make it more difficult for minority and women owners to remain and/or to enter the local radio market. For example, NABOB opposes any changes to the local radio ownership rule and notes that increased consolidation of ownership in the broadcast industry reduces opportunities for minorities to enter the business or to grow. In contrast, NAB states that the best way to encourage broadcast ownership by new entrants, including minority and female owners, is to ensure access to capital and argues that the existing rule impedes investment in broadcasting by making other unregulated forms of media more attractive. We note that a balance must be struck between incentivizing investment in broadcasting and ensuring that station-buying opportunities exist for new entrants. We find that the existing rule strikes the appropriate balance, especially considering that investment by new entrants is less likely in a market that is highly concentrated. We note that simply eliminating ownership limits would allow more consolidation. We also share commenters' concerns that allowing greater consolidation could increase the challenges many of these relatively smaller stations face in competing for revenue in the marketplace and could reduce opportunities for new entrants, including minority and women owners, to participate in the market.
                    </P>
                    <P>64. In this context, we note, as discussed above, that the Commission has taken several actions, such as improving its collection and analysis of ownership information on FCC Form 323/323-E, exploring access to capital through its re-chartered CEDC, and implementing the radio incubator program, that are intended to provide the Commission with more information about the state of minority and female broadcast ownership, or that seek to further the important goal of increasing minority and female ownership, objectives to which we remain committed.</P>
                    <P>
                        65. 
                        <E T="03">Cost-Benefit Analysis.</E>
                         The 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         asked how the Commission should compare the benefits and costs of retaining, modifying, or eliminating the Local Radio Ownership Rule. As discussed above, commenters disagree regarding whether rule modifications would enable radio owners to respond more effectively to changes in the broader audio environment, or even, if so, whether any such benefits would outweigh potential harms to competition, localism, or viewpoint diversity. For all the reasons explained above, we conclude that any potential benefits that further consolidation might offer larger radio owners are outweighed by potential costs to the consumer stemming from such harms as weakened competition within the local broadcast radio market, increased homogenization of content, less local programming, the disappearance of stations from the market, and fewer opportunities for new and diverse market entrants.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Local Television Ownership Rule</HD>
                    <P>66. In this section, we retain the existing Local Television Ownership Rule subject to minor modifications. As an initial matter, we find that the rule remains necessary to promote the Commission's public interest goals of competition, localism, and viewpoint diversity. Specifically, we find that the Local Television Ownership Rule remains necessary to promote these goals given the unique obligations broadcast licensees have as trustees of the public's airwaves to serve their local communities.</P>
                    <P>67. In reaching our conclusion, we find that the relevant market for the rule should continue to focus on broadcast television stations, as no other source of video programming provides a substitute for broadcast television, and we retain the current numerical ownership limits. We also retain as a condition of common ownership that a broadcaster cannot acquire two stations ranked in the top four in audience share in a market—known as the Top-Four Prohibition—unless, at the request of an applicant, the Commission finds that such an acquisition serves the public interest, convenience, and necessity on a case-by-case basis. The Top-Four Prohibition does not prohibit a broadcaster from ending up with two top-four stations through organic growth. But we modify the methodology of the Top-Four Prohibition to reflect better the current state of broadcast industry practices. Specifically, as detailed further below, under the revised Local Television Ownership Rule adopted herein, a television station's audience share ranking in a Nielsen Designated Market Area (DMA) will be determined based on the combined audience share of all free-to-consumer, non-simulcast multicast programming airing on streams owned, operated, or controlled by that station as measured by Nielsen Media Research or by any comparable audience ratings service. The Nielsen Company assigns each broadcast television station to a designated market area (DMA). The DMA boundaries and DMA data are owned solely and exclusively by Nielsen. Each DMA is a group of counties that form an exclusive geographic area in which the home market television stations hold a dominance of total hours viewed. There are 210 DMAs, covering the entire continental United States, Hawaii, and parts of Alaska. Some station owners simultaneously broadcast the primary programming stream of a second station they own on the nonprimary multicast stream of the other station they own in the same market. A nonprimary multicast stream is typically designated by appending a “.2” or greater digit to the channel number to distinguish such streams from a station's primary stream which usually is designated with a “.1” suffix. We update the relevant daypart used to make audience share and ratings determinations to the metric that, based on Commission experience and consultation, most accurately reflects a station's true performance given changes in the broadcast industry. Because the same daypart is also used to make audience share and ratings determinations in the context of failing stations waivers as provided in Note 7 to section 73.3555 of the Commission's rules, we find that our update to the methodology of the Top-Four Prohibition logically leads us to update also the failing station waiver methodology with respect to the daypart used. We also specify a definite time period over which ratings data should be averaged to minimize the impact of anomalous ratings periods.</P>
                    <P>
                        68. In addition, we extend a previously adopted measure in order to prevent further circumvention of the Top-Four Prohibition and ensure the efficacy of the Local Television Ownership rule. Pursuant to the changes we adopt herein, an entity will not be permitted to acquire a network affiliation and place it on a station or broadcast signal that is otherwise not counted as a station for purposes of the Local Television Ownership Rule as a way to circumvent the prohibition on such affiliation acquisitions adopted in the 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order.</E>
                         We retain the shared service agreement (SSA) disclosure requirement to continue providing transparency regarding the extent of cooperation and coordination between competing stations in a market. We also find that retaining the rule continues to preserve opportunities for a variety of different owners, including minority and female owners, who can contribute to the multiplicity of speakers in a market. Lastly, we find that the public interest benefits achieved by retaining the rule with the adopted changes outweigh the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12210"/>
                        potential economic cost of continued compliance with the rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>69. The Local Television Ownership Rule limits the number of full power television stations an entity may own within the same local market. The Local Television Ownership Rule provides that an entity may own up to two television stations in the same Nielsen DMA if: (1) the digital noise limited service contours (NLSCs) of the stations (as determined by Section 73.622(e) of the Commission's rules) do not overlap; or (2) at the time the application to acquire or construct the station(s) is filed, at least one of the stations is not ranked among the top-four stations in the DMA, based on the most recent all-day (9 a.m.-midnight) audience share, as measured by Nielsen Media Research or by any comparable professional, accepted audience ratings service. With respect to the latter provision—the Top-Four Prohibition—an applicant may request that the Commission examine the facts and circumstances in a market regarding a particular transaction, and based on the showing made by the applicant in a particular case, make a finding that permitting an entity to directly or indirectly own, operate, or control two top-four television stations licensed in the same DMA would serve the public interest, convenience, and necessity. The Commission considers showings that the Top-Four Prohibition should not apply due to specific circumstances in a local market or with respect to a specific transaction on a case-by-case basis.</P>
                    <P>
                        70. The 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         sought comment on the effects of rule changes made in the 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order on Reconsideration</E>
                         and raised several issues for consideration related to changes in the video programming industry. In particular, the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         sought comment on whether the current version of the Local Television Ownership Rule remained necessary in the public interest as a result of competition. The 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         also sought comment on whether the Local Television Ownership Rule is necessary to promote localism or viewpoint diversity. In response to broadcaster claims in previous quadrennial review proceedings that non-broadcast sources of video should be considered substitutes for broadcast video, the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         sought comment on whether and to what extent this was true, as well as how to incorporate non-broadcast video into market definition analyses. The 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         then asked whether changes in the video programming industry support modification of the numerical limit of owning up to two television stations in the same market. If the Commission retained the Local Television Ownership Rule and the existing limits, the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         asked whether the Top-Four Prohibition should be retained or modified. The 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         then sought comment on the prevalence of, and how to account for, broadcast stations placing content from the Big Four broadcast networks (ABC, CBS, NBC, Fox) on multicast streams and low power television stations. As a matter of diligence, the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         also sought comment on the implications, if any, of the television broadcast incentive auction and of the new broadcast television transmission standard. The 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         also asked if the Commission should continue to require the filing of SSAs. Regarding minority and female television owners, the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         sought comment on how retaining, modifying, or eliminating the local television rule might affect minority and female ownership including potential entry into the market by these types of owners. Finally, the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         sought quantifications of the costs and benefits of its proposed changes.
                    </P>
                    <P>71. We find that the Local Television Ownership Rule remains necessary to promote the Commission's public interest goals of competition, localism, and viewpoint diversity. No other source of video programming serves local communities as broadcast television does, particularly at low, or no, cost to consumers. The rule promotes competition among local broadcast television stations that, to this day, remain the only entities in the video marketplace that are licensed by the Commission with use of the airwaves to provide a broadcast television service, in exchange for a unique obligation to serve the public interest. Furthermore, although primarily focused on competition, as detailed further below, the rule continues to promote localism, as broadcasters have a unique obligation to supply programming of interest to their local communities and stations are likely to be more responsive to those local interests where there are other local competitors. The Commission has previously stated that a competition-based rule, while not designed specifically to promote localism, may still have such an effect. The Commission has consistently found that broadcast licensees have an obligation to air programming that is responsive to the needs and interests of their communities of license. Similarly, the rule promotes viewpoint diversity by preserving opportunities for non-commonly owned stations to air a multitude of viewpoints through independent choices regarding the local news and other local programming on their stations.</P>
                    <P>72. Accordingly, for these reasons we find that the Local Television Ownership Rule remains necessary in the public interest. We discuss below the various elements of the rule, the goals the rule serves, as well as adopt several key modifications to update application of the rule and to ensure its continued efficacy.</P>
                    <P>
                        73. 
                        <E T="03">Market definition.</E>
                         After careful review, we continue to find that broadcast television remains unique and non-substitutable with other sources of video programming, particularly with respect to fulfilling our traditional public interest objectives of competition (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         in terms of competition among local broadcast television stations and with respect to local programming), localism (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         in terms of supplying locally responsive programming), and viewpoint diversity (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         in terms of airing a multitude of viewpoints through local news and other local programming). Although some commenters contend that by defining the market to include only broadcast television the Commission fails to account for the myriad of video programming options now available to consumers, the Commission has acknowledged for some time the availability of other forms of video programming, even while continuing to find that broadcast television remains its own distinct market. Indeed, from video cassette recorders and DVDs, to subscription cable television services, to on-demand streaming services, video programming alternatives to free over-the-air broadcast television have existed for decades in a number of forms. The critical question in Quadrennial Review has been and continues to be whether and to what extent such video programming options can be considered substitutes to broadcast programming, or put another way, whether competitive market forces alone are proving sufficient to create a video marketplace that satisfies the public interest objectives long associated with broadcast television, such that our Local Television Ownership Rule can be deemed no longer “necessary in the public interest as the result of competition.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        74. Although there are far more sources of video programming available today than there were when the Local Television Ownership Rule was first adopted, most commenters assert that non-broadcast programming is not a substitute to broadcast programming, which remains unique. We agree. The Commission has previously found that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12211"/>
                        the video programming market is distinct from other media markets because consumers do not view non-video media (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         audio or print media) as good substitutes for watching video, and there is no evidence in the current record that would disturb this finding. Notably, cable, satellite, and streaming media all have higher consumer fees as they require an additional service, such as internet access or cable or satellite service, as well as, often times, a subscription fee, in contrast to broadcast media, which consumers can access freely over the air, a distinction that keeps non-broadcast media from being a comparable alternative to broadcast television, especially for price conscious consumers. To this point, estimates suggest that 15% of U.S. television households (or 18 million households) use free, over-the-air television, a percentage that has increased in recent years, particularly as the number of consumers subscribing to pay TV alternatives continues to decline significantly.
                    </P>
                    <P>75. Moreover, the record reflects that despite its growing prevalence, online video still largely complements, rather than competes with, broadcast television. In fact, some streaming services include local broadcast programming as part of their linear channel offerings. While broadcasters assert that they compete with a myriad of sources that now provide video programming, competition from other video programming sources appears to be mostly focused on advertising revenue, which is but one of the facets of competition among local broadcast television stations. In general, non-broadcast sources of video programming do not compete with broadcasters for retransmission consent fees, network affiliations, or the provision of local programming, which continue to remain largely unique to broadcast television. Retransmission consent fees are unique to broadcast stations, and the broadcast content for which MVPDs pay retransmission consent fees has special appeal to television viewers in comparison to any other type of video content to the point where viewers do not consider any other video programming to be substitutes for such broadcast content. The largest national networks (ABC, CBS, Fox, and NBC) affiliate with broadcast stations for over-the-air delivery of their programming. Moreover, while broadcasters may be seen as participating in various markets or competing along various dimensions (including, among others, the sale of local or non-local advertising; the creation, acquisition, and provision of local, syndicated, or national programming; and the acquisition of on-air talent), the provision of local programming remains a hallmark of broadcast television and an area where viewers directly benefit from competition among local broadcast television stations.</P>
                    <P>76. We note that our market definition is also consistent with the Department of Justice's (DOJ's) approach, which considers local broadcast television to be its own market in antitrust analysis. The Department of Justice examines local television broadcasters competing in the spot advertising market and competition for retransmission consent licensing fees in local television markets. DOJ has rejected the assertions of broadcasters that non-broadcast sources of video programming should be considered competitors to broadcast television in the context of analyzing transactions, focusing on the spot advertising product market in local television markets. Although DOJ's analysis has focused historically on competition for advertising, whereas the Commission's rule considers competition in a number of areas, including audience share, we find DOJ's approach further supports, and is consistent with, our own.</P>
                    <P>77. As we have concluded in previous quadrennial reviews, there are strong public interest reasons for promoting competition among local broadcast television stations. Promoting competition among local television stations prevents local broadcasters from demanding higher retransmission consent fees and charging higher rates for local businesses seeking to purchase advertising time on local stations, costs that may be passed on to consumers. Moreover, competition spurs quality improvements by broadcast television stations that benefit consumers, including through reinvestment in stations, expanded programming choices, and technological innovation.</P>
                    <P>78. Spurring competition among broadcast television stations also promotes localism, as licensees seek to differentiate themselves while fulfilling their obligation to air programming responsive to the needs and interests of their local communities. For many stations, that includes local news and information programming. In contrast to other sources of video programming, broadcast stations are particularly well situated to cover local news, as stations are licensed to local communities to facilitate locally responsive content and information. Indeed, the record contains numerous assertions from broadcasters that the local programming they provide is unique and unduplicated by any other video programming provider. The Leadership Conference on Civil and Human Rights (LCCHR) states that 77% of Americans get most of their local news from broadcast sources, while only 23% get local news from online only sources, little of which is actually created by online outlets since much of the news consumed online are uploaded videos of television broadcast news.</P>
                    <P>
                        79. Although much local news is undoubtedly cost intensive to produce, we reject the broadcasters' assertions that in order to preserve localism we must allow greater consolidation than is permitted under our current rule. As an initial matter, there is evidence that despite some declines in audience size over time, there remains significant demand for local television news, and the amount of local news on television has increased over time. Moreover, contrary to claims that absent consolidation television stations cannot continue to produce local news, Nielsen data shows that the number of stations airing local news actually increased slightly in a four year period from 2017 to 2021. Nielsen Local TV View shows there were 976 stations airing at least one verified local news program in November 2017 and 992 such stations in November 2021. Also, Nielsen data demonstrates that while almost 20% of markets saw an increase in the number of stations airing local news, only 10% of markets saw a decrease and 70% of markets saw no change. The Commission examined Nielsen data in all available markets in November 2017 and November 2021 to identify any station that aired at least one program categorized as local news by Nielsen and then used program titles to verify that programming was correctly classified as local news. Notably, only the top 50 markets saw more decreases than increases in the number of stations airing local news. According to Nielsen data, all of the top 50 markets have at least four broadcast stations airing local news, and the overwhelming majority of these markets have at least six stations airing local news. In markets ranked 51 and lower, where broadcasters argue the need to consolidate is particularly acute, the number of markets that saw increases in stations airing local news outnumbered those that saw decreases. Further, studies by the Radio Television Digital News Association (RTDNA) found that the number of stations originating local news (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the number of stations producing local news) increased slightly from 2017 to 2021. These studies found that 703 stations originated local news in 2017 and 707 stations originated local news in 2021. 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12212"/>
                        Just as the record does not demonstrate that consolidation, as opposed to competition to meet audience demand, is what drove increases in local news over time, we similarly cannot conclude that additional consolidation is necessary to preserve these gains, much less to preserve the ability of stations to produce local programming at all or to otherwise serve their local communities as required as licensees.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        80. Regarding the 
                        <E T="03">Market Size and Television News</E>
                         study conducted by OEA that concluded small and mid-sized markets are unlikely to support four independent local news operations, we note that the study itself mentions that it examines but one dimension to consider when determining the desirability of consolidation. In the authors' preferred specification, only markets with more than 615,000 TV households were predicted to support at least four independent local news operations. We carefully reviewed other studies submitted in the record to show that consolidation improves local news coverage or makes production of local programming feasible. We also note the report of Professor Thomas Hubbard whose analysis shows that local news is not declining and has actually increased. Although there appears to be agreement that the amount of local news has increased, there remains disagreement on whether this growth is due to consolidation or part of an industry-wide trend to increase local news. We also note disagreement regarding the role of scale economies in the provision of local news relative to the increasing practice of contracting and sharing local news between stations. Finally, we note disagreement around what constitutes local news. We found the empirical studies and arguments helpful to our deliberations and decisions. We also note that the Local Television Ownership Rule has never been designed to ensure, and does not prescribe markets should or must have, at least four independent news operations. Rather, as discussed below, the rule helps ensure a level of viewpoint diversity so that there is an opportunity for as many independent news operations as a market can support, even if some markets have less independent local news operations and some have more, as they always have. In markets where there may be fewer independent news operations already, greater consolidation would not create new independent news operations and would only decrease the diversity of voices in the providers of local news.
                    </P>
                    <P>81. We also find that the rule remains important for helping to ensure viewpoint diversity in a local market. While the Local Television Ownership Rule remains first and foremost competition-focused, our policy goals are not unrelated or mutually exclusive, and the rule continues to promote viewpoint diversity as well. We continue to find that the competition-based rule helps to ensure the presence of a number of independently owned broadcast television stations in the local market, thereby indirectly increasing the likelihood of a variety of viewpoints (including a variety of viewpoints within local programming) and preserving ownership opportunities for new entrants. Numerous commenters agree and state that the rule remains necessary to promote viewpoint diversity. We recognize, as NAB points out, that the Commission concluded in a prior Quadrennial Review that the rule was not necessary to promote viewpoint diversity due to the presence of “other types of media, such as radio, newspapers, cable, and the internet [that] contribute to viewpoint diversity in local markets.” Although it remains true that there are various types of media available to consumers within local markets, we reject the Commission's prior conclusion that the rule is not necessary to promote viewpoint diversity. As we have described herein, the provision of local programming remains a defining characteristic of television stations, one that has grown, even as other sources of local content have disappeared or have repurposed local television content for their own platforms. Moreover, as we have reiterated, our rule serves to maintain diffuse ownership of this key platform—a local television station—among a wide variety of owners and types of owners, thereby promoting the interest in a multiplicity of speakers, particularly with respect to local issues and the needs and interests of local communities.</P>
                    <P>
                        82. 
                        <E T="03">Numerical Limit.</E>
                         We find that permitting ownership of up to two stations in a local market continues to strike the appropriate competitive balance of enabling some efficiencies of common ownership while maintaining a level of competition amongst broadcast television stations to ensure that they continue to serve the public interest. No commenter argues that the numerical limit should be tightened to permit ownership of only one station in a market. Indeed, we recognize that common ownership subject to the restrictions of the current rule can create operating efficiencies, which potentially could lead to public interest benefits if a local broadcast station chooses to invest more resources in programming that meets the needs of its local community as a result of those efficiencies. However, such efficiencies come at the expense of reducing competition and diversity and must be balanced accordingly.
                    </P>
                    <P>83. Given our determination of the relevant market, above, we do not find that the current state of the local television marketplace justifies ownership of a third in-market station. Broadcast commenters suggest that permitting ownership of a third, or additional, in-market station would enable broadcasters to compete more effectively, especially in large markets with a large number of full-power commercial stations. We do not find adequate support, however, for the notion that allowing ownership of a third station would generate public interest benefits outweighing potential public interest harms. The hypotheticals cited by commenters do not state why adding a third low-ranked station would grant a combination of two other lower ranked stations efficiencies and benefits above and beyond what a combination of two stations could achieve. While greater consolidation may lead to more operating efficiencies for the commonly owned stations, such consolidation also would mean the loss of an independent station operator, to the detriment of competition, localism, and viewpoint diversity. We find that any such marginal additional efficiency fails to outweigh the countervailing harms to these public interest goals. Excessive consolidation from a lack of ownership restrictions threatens the Commission's competition and diversity goals by jeopardizing the continued existence and operations of small and mid-sized broadcasters that may be bought out by larger competitors instead of, as broadcast commenters suggest, enabling them to combine to become more effective competitors to the larger stations.</P>
                    <P>
                        84. Based on Nielsen viewership data over the period May 2021 to April 2022 and advertising revenue data for 2021 from BIA Kelsey Media Access Pro, the majority of television markets are already highly concentrated according to the 2010 Horizontal Merger Guidelines. The guidelines classify market concentration using HHI. The Commission examined Nielsen viewership data over the period May 2021 to April 2022 to compute the viewership HHIs. The Commission examined ad revenue data for 2021 from BIA Kelsey Media Access Pro to compute the advertising revenue HHIs. Even taking into account viewership of all noncommercial full-power television, Class A, and LPTV stations 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12213"/>
                        and any associated multicast streams in addition to all full-power commercial television stations, 147 of the 210 local television markets have viewership HHIs of greater than 2,500, meaning they are highly concentrated. Likewise, factoring in advertising revenue from all commercial full-power television, Class A, and LPTV stations and any associated multicast streams, 166 markets have advertising revenue HHIs of greater than 2,500. Given the current levels of concentration in television markets, we find no grounds to loosen the existing numerical limits.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        85. 
                        <E T="03">Top-Four Prohibition.</E>
                         We retain the general prohibition on common ownership of two stations ranked in the top four of audience share in a market, along with the ability to allow such combinations on a case-by-case basis. At the same time, however, given changes in broadcast industry practice, we update our methodology used to implement this part of our rule. Specifically, we update the audience share metric used to determine a station's in-market ranking and clarify that ratings data should be averaged over the 12-month period preceding a transaction. Additionally, we incorporate the ratings of a station's multicast streams, to the extent such streams have measurable ratings, to reflect a station's total audience share more accurately.
                    </P>
                    <P>86. Consistent with the Commission's prior decisions, we continue to find that a combination involving two of the top-four stations in a market would be the most detrimental to competition, and thus the public interest. We continue to find that top-four combinations would often result in a single entity obtaining a significantly larger market share than other entities in the market and that such combinations could create welfare harms such as reduced incentives for local stations to improve their programming, as allowing former rivals to combine would reduce incentives to compete vigorously against one another. Notably, there are still four major broadcast networks (ABC, CBS, NBC, and Fox), and the programming from these networks continues to be the most highly rated. These top-four broadcast television networks continue to have a distinctive ability to attract large primetime audiences on a regular basis, and generally the top-four stations in any market are affiliated with these highly-viewed networks. Accordingly, we continue to find that the ability to attract mass audiences distinguishes the top ranked stations in local television markets so that owning two such stations in a market should be prohibited. We find further that top-four ranked stations are also still the most likely stations to originate local news. Accordingly, prohibiting top-four combinations helps ensure a diversity of voices among those stations providing such coverage of local issues. We note that, in the past, the Commission has cited the typical gap in ratings between the fourth and fifth ranked stations in a market as supporting the Top-Four Prohibition. To the extent there are situations where, for instance, a large gap in ratings occurs between the third and fourth ranked stations in a market (rather than between the fourth and fifth ranked stations), the fact remains that there is substantial concentration of audience share among the top-ranked stations in most markets and such situations may be indicative of the largest stations in a market exploiting loopholes in our rule (which we address today) to increase their market shares. For instance, our rule was historically premised on the notion that four full power stations in a market corresponded with four Big Four network affiliates. However, as discussed below, there are now numerous examples where entities have moved programming from what had been top-four rated stations (including Big Four network affiliates) to low power stations or multicast streams, such that what had been top-four rated station programming now may be aggregated on fewer than four full power stations (or among fewer than four separate owners) in a market. Accordingly, even if, say, the top three full power stations, rather than the top four full power stations, may dominate audience share in some markets, it certainly does not follow that one of those three stations categorically should be permitted to acquire the fourth ranked station and increase its market share even more. Rather than eliminating the Top-Four Prohibition, we find that the flexibility of the case-by-case approach to consider combinations of top-four rated stations is better suited to address broadcasters' concerns about the viability of stations in smaller markets or situations in which there may no longer be a clear-cut distinction between the top-four rated stations and the rest of the stations in a market.</P>
                    <P>
                        87. We note that the Top-Four Prohibition's case-by-case approach serves an important purpose by affording flexibility to the Commission and licensees to consider combinations of highly ranked stations in unique circumstances. And we are not persuaded by the sweeping claims that for the broadcast television industry to remain viable, broadcasters must be given greater opportunities to consolidate without reference to such circumstances. Nor do such claims change our conclusion about the actual objective of the quadrennial review, which is to review our rules to ensure that they remain necessary in the public interest as a result of competition to promote the Commission's public interest goals of competition, localism, and diversity. As the record demonstrates, broadcast television stations have multiple streams of revenue that support them. One stream, advertising revenue, has remained fairly steady in recent years, even while, broadcasters assert, they have lost advertising dollars to other sources of video programming. According to a Pew Research Center analysis of MEDIA Access Pro &amp; BIA Advisory Services data, local television over-the-air advertising revenue follows a cyclical pattern that sees significant increases from political advertising during even-numbered elections years. By contrast, other industries besides broadcast television (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         print advertising, newspaper classifieds, and direct-mail advertising) have seen precipitous and lasting declines in advertising revenue concomitant with the growth of online advertising. In light of this, it is possible that online advertising is not siphoning advertising dollars only, or even primarily, away from broadcast sources. Stations increasingly are also generating revenue from digital advertising and the distribution of their programming on digital platforms. Most importantly, as discussed above, many broadcast television stations also receive per subscriber fees from video programming distributors in exchange for retransmitting their broadcast programming. Retransmission consent fees remain a significant source of station revenue and one that, at least for now, is expected to continue growing. Ultimately, we find assertions regarding the future of retransmission consent fees to be speculative and that retransmission consent fee revenue continues to grow, in spite of predictions that they may flatten out or decrease at some point in the future. We note further that technological developments in broadcast television could create opportunities for other revenue sources from new digital services ancillary to ATSC 3.0. ATSC 3.0 is a television transmission standard currently being developed by broadcasters with the intent of merging the capabilities of over-the-air broadcasting with the internet's broadband viewing and information 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12214"/>
                        delivery methods while using the same 6 MHz channels presently allocated for digital television.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        88. We find that on the whole, the record does not demonstrate an imminent threat to the viability of broadcast television at this time that would either warrant, or, more importantly, be remedied by loosening or eliminating the Top-Four Prohibition. Broadcast commenters argue for the Top-Four Prohibition to be repealed because they claim it prevents consolidation that is crucial for broadcasters to continue serving the public interest. Conversely, ATVA and NCTA assert that the rule must be retained to protect consumers from rising costs due to pass through of retransmission consent fee increases that result when broadcasters are able to negotiate retransmission consent fees for two top-four stations jointly in a market. Even if we were to accept broadcasters' arguments that certain broadcast television stations in certain markets (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         smaller markets) are struggling to produce local programming due to an inherently limited revenue base and may benefit from consolidation, such a finding would not support relaxing the local television rule in all markets. Broadcasters would have us eliminate all ownership restrictions in all markets to enable consolidation that may only be of some benefit to certain stations in certain markets. Some commenters support relaxation of the rules only for smaller markets. As discussed below, we find that the local television rule's case-by-case approach allows for the Commission to address the challenges faced by small and other uniquely situated markets. The case-by-case flexibility contained in the current rule is intended to account for the practical challenges some stations may face.
                    </P>
                    <P>89. We find that the case-by-case approach has allowed the Commission to maintain the proper balance between ensuring that no market is excessively concentrated and allowing flexibility in particular circumstances. Although some commenters state that the case-by-case approach offers inadequate relief because of the lack of any defined criteria for granting relief, the Commission previously offered several examples of information that could help establish whether application of the Top-Four Prohibition would be in the public interest, such as (1) ratings share data of the stations proposed to be combined compared with other stations in the market; (2) revenue share data of the stations proposed to be combined compared with other stations in the market, including advertising (on-air and digital) and retransmission consent fees; (3) market characteristics including population and the number and types of broadcast television stations serving the market (including any strong competitors outside the top-four rated broadcast television stations); (4) the likely effects on programming meeting the needs and interests of the community; and (5) any other circumstances impacting the market, particularly any disparities primarily impacting small and mid-sized markets. Variations in local markets and specific transactions make it impractical to provide an exhaustive set of criteria for the case-by-case analysis, but we will continue to monitor transactions and the marketplace in the course of further reviews and identity additional factors as it is useful to do so. Moreover, we note that pursuant to the previously articulated factors and even in the absence of rigid criteria, the Commission granted three case-by-case requests for flexibility affecting five DMAs before the provision was temporarily vacated and subsequently restored by the courts, demonstrating the utility of the case-by-case approach under appropriate circumstances.</P>
                    <P>90. We decline to adopt presumptions in favor of top-four combinations at this time and based on the current record as recommended by some commenters. Gray suggests that the Commission should adopt presumptions in favor of top-four combinations where an entity commits to improving local news. Although the Commission has considered additional local programming to be a factor in previous requests, we find that creating a presumption in all such requests may detract from examining the unique circumstances of a market, such as the level of local programming already present or the relative strength of the stations in the market, as intended by the case-by-case approach. Also, ION Media argues that top-four combinations should be presumed to comply with the rules, and the burden should be on opponents of a proposed top-four combination to show that it would violate the Commission's policies. We do not find that there is adequate record support for changing the Commission's previous conclusion regarding the anticompetitive nature, in general, of combinations of top-four ranked stations in the same market. As the Commission has stated, we find that most combinations of top-four ranked stations would result in a single entity obtaining a significantly larger market share than others in the market and that such combinations would create public interest harms. Furthermore, the impact of top-four station combinations could vary greatly depending on factors such as the relative strength of the stations in the market, which would weigh against creating a presumption based on other factors. Therefore, we find it preferable to allow for exceptions to the prohibition rather than to presume such combinations should be allowed.</P>
                    <P>91. Finally, we adopt two modifications to elements of the Top-Four Prohibition to better reflect current broadcast industry practices. While commenters for the most part either support retaining the Top-Four rule as-is or repealing it completely, we find that it is appropriate to update the methodology used to determine whether a station is ranked among the top-four stations in a Nielsen DMA to comport with current market realities. We retain the language in the rule that allows for consideration of other comparable audience measuring services in addition to Nielsen to keep flexibility in the rule. The first modification updates the audience share metric used to determine a station's in-market ranking and specifies that ratings data must be averaged over a 12-month period preceding any transaction. The second modification clarifies that, because the rule only references “stations,” the ratings of multicast streams will be aggregated with the ratings of all non-simulcast programming airing on streams owned, operated, or controlled by the same station, provided that such streams have measurable ratings reported by an audience measuring service and are not the simulcast stream of another in-market station.</P>
                    <P>
                        92. First, we modify the provision in the current rule that determines market ranking to use the Sunday to Saturday, 7AM to 1AM daypart in order to reflect more accurately a station's performance in terms of audience share. In addition, we delegate to the Media Bureau the authority to update the relevant FCC forms to conform with the changes we adopt today. Previously, the rule determined market ranking “based on the most recent all-day (9 a.m.-midnight) audience share, as measured by Nielsen Media Research or by any comparable professional, accepted audience ratings service.” The 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         sought comment on whether this data point is still the most useful for accurately determining a station's ranking for purposes of the Top-Four Prohibition. As Gray and Nielsen indicate, that daypart, which is also used for evaluating failing station waiver requests, does not accurately reflect a station's full performance in light of programming changes over the years, including the addition of early 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12215"/>
                        morning programming. In particular, we expect that expanding the daypart will capture more local news, an important part of a station's programming and a driver of viewership that stations have begun airing earlier in the day than in the past. Moreover, using the 7AM to 1AM daypart, as opposed to a 24-hour reporting period, avoids “minor fluctuations” in ratings during nighttime hours when some stations may not transmit video programming. Lastly, given that the existing 9AM to midnight daypart is also used for determining audience share for purposes of evaluating failing station waiver requests, we find that using the new 7AM to 1AM daypart in the failing station waiver context going forward makes sense logically for the same reasons discussed above and to maintain consistency in the Commission's methods. We find that making this change is the logical outgrowth of updating the Top-Four Prohibition since the use of audience measurements in both contexts serves the same purpose in allowing the Commission to evaluate a station's performance in its local market, and the same measurement has historically been used for both.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        93. We also specify that, for purposes of determining a station's in-market ranking under the Local Television Ownership Rule, the rule will require submission of ratings averaged from available data over a 12-month period immediately preceding the date of application rather than an average over a shorter ratings period or a snapshot of a single such data point (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         ratings at the time an assignment of license or transfer of control application is filed with the Commission). Also, where the station or stations at issue have changed network affiliations within the preceding 12 months, the ratings should be averaged for the period since the affiliation change took place so as to most accurately reflect the ratings position of the station or stations at the time of application. While the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         sought comment on whether the Commission should clarify the phrase “at the time the application to acquire or construct the station(s) is filed” with respect to the appropriate ratings data applicants submit for consideration, we received no comments responsive to this question. We note that ratings data have become available on a more frequent (and more frequently updated) basis than in the past and are now accessible for many different time periods. We find that replacement of the phrase “most recent” in favor of establishing a defined time period in this manner will enable a more complete understanding of the market and the competition among stations within it. Such information will in turn better inform the Commission and public as to whether a proposed transaction is in the public interest. In particular, such an approach will provide a more accurate assessment of a station's true market position by minimizing the impact of seasonal or one-off monthly ratings anomalies (typically the result of sporting events or seasons) and also reduce opportunities for gamesmanship based on the lack of a clearly established timeframe in the rule's language. For example, applicants would have less incentive to time a transaction or application filing to correspond with a period where a station experiences abnormally low ratings. Finally, the consideration of ratings averaged over a 12-month period will apply to all instances that involve determinations of whether stations are ranked in the top-four, including applications of Note 11 to section 73.3555 and its extension as described below.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        94. Second, going forward we will aggregate the audience share of all free-to-consumer non-simulcast multicast programming airing on streams owned, operated, or controlled by a single station to determine the station's audience share and ranking in a market (to the extent that such streams are ranked by Nielsen or a comparable professional, accepted audience ratings service). The 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         sought comment on whether and how the Commission should evaluate multicast streams for purposes of the Local Television Ownership Rule. The existing rule does not specify that it includes multicast streams, but we find that ignoring such streams when evaluating a station's in-market audience share is no longer appropriate given the proliferation of such programming and the industry trend toward carriage of major network affiliate programming on such streams. To the extent that a nonprimary multicast stream has measurable audience ratings, not accounting for such ratings when evaluating a station's performance would seem to ignore a potentially significant portion of the station's service and competitive strength within the market. Some multicast streams have ratings reported by audience ratings services while others do not. We find that, to the extent Nielsen or a comparable professional, accepted audience ratings service reports ratings for a multicast stream, such a stream is significant enough to be included in its station's audience ratings measurement. The use of multicasting has grown in prevalence over the years and is expected to continue to grow as a way for broadcasters to expand their offerings and distribution. Although accounting for nonprimary multicast streams may not have affected a station's ratings significantly in the past, such streams may have an impact on ratings now and in the future, and thus including them in ratings should provide a better indicator of the competitive strength and health of a station than simply focusing on a single stream. As noted, some stations are even placing programming affiliated with major broadcast networks on nonprimary multicast streams, making it all the more important to consider in our analysis when possible.
                    </P>
                    <P>95. We limit aggregation to free-to-consumer programming airing on streams owned, operated, or controlled by a station because stations make such streams available to consumers over the air as part of their broadcast signal. We also do not count simulcast streams airing the programming of another station, because, based on Commission experience, the ratings for such streams typically are measured by audience ratings services as part of the ratings for their originating stations. Accordingly, because the multicast stream's ratings are not separately reported, we do not aggregate the programming's ratings in order to avoid double counting ratings already attributed to another station. In other words, if a station utilizes one of its nonprimary multicast streams to simulcast the primary programming stream of another station, the ratings of that simulcast stream will not be aggregated in determining the overall ratings of the station. Through these limitations, we find that aggregation will capture a station's true ratings by focusing on programming originating from that station and broadcast in the same manner as traditional television signals.</P>
                    <P>
                        96. Similarly, we are aware that some broadcast stations may be hosting programming of other stations on a temporary basis during the transition to ATSC 3.0. We clarify that only the ratings of programming owned or controlled by a station and airing on the station's multicast streams will be aggregated. Consistent with the way such streams are licensed, we do not find that hosting the ATSC 1.0 signal of another station for purposes of the transition amounts to operating the signal's programming. In other words, if Station A is hosting Station B's ATSC 1.0 signal on one of its multicast streams, Station B's ATSC 1.0 ratings will not be aggregated with Station A's 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12216"/>
                        multicast streams (which are airing programming belonging to Station A). Rather, Station B's ATSC 1.0 ratings will be aggregated with those of Station B's streams depending on how audience ratings services choose to incorporate ATSC 1.0 and 3.0 ratings into their measurements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        97. 
                        <E T="03">Anti-Circumvention Measures.</E>
                         Note 11 to section 73.3555 of the Commission's rules prohibits certain types of acquisitions of a network affiliation by one station from another station in the same market that the Commission has found to be the functional equivalent of an assignment or transfer of control from the standpoint of our Local Television Ownership Rule. For example, since the last quadrennial review, the Commission has taken action against certain affiliation acquisitions that violate Note 11. Today we take further action to expand the measure contained in Note 11 to prevent other means of circumventing the Top-Four Prohibition. In response to the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM's</E>
                         questions about entities placing major network affiliations on multicast streams and LPTV stations, parties have raised in the record, and the Commission has observed itself, that some station owners appear to be circumventing the prohibition on network affiliation acquisitions—and hence the Top-Four Prohibition—by acquiring the network-affiliated programming of another top-four full power station in the DMA, either alone or in conjunction with other tangible and non-tangible assets and then placing that programming on the multicast stream of an existing full power station or on an LPTV station in the same DMA, neither of which is counted for purposes of the Local Television Rule. Because we view such actions as undermining our Local Television Rule, we revise the language in Note 11 to extend the existing prohibition on certain network affiliation acquisitions to prohibit such behavior in the future and ensure the efficacy of our rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>98. We take this action to preserve the efficacy of the Top-Four Prohibition because we find it necessary to prevent further exploitation of unintended ambiguities or gaps in the rule. Such exploitation harms competition and denies consumers the benefits of competition. Therefore, we find that our actions are consistent with the statutory mandate of section 202(h) to modify a rule so that the rule continues to serve the public interest.</P>
                    <P>99. The record demonstrates that there are two methods through which parties have been able to achieve results that are inconsistent with the policy objectives and intent of the Top-Four Prohibition rule's Note 11 provision. Although different in certain respects, the two methods both avoid acquisition of another full-power station in the same local market and instead rely on use of broadcast facilities or transmissions that have not been subject to the ownership limitations placed on full-power facilities. For the sake of clarity, we employ hypothetical examples to illustrate the methods in operation. Accordingly, consider situations involving two independently owned, full-power stations among the top four stations (as measured by ratings) in the same local market. Station A is affiliated with Network YYY and Station B is affiliated with Network ZZZ.</P>
                    <P>• Under the first scenario, the licensee of Station A acquires Station B's Network ZZZ affiliation but, stymied by the ownership rules from also buying Station B outright, instead places the Network ZZZ affiliation on an LPTV station that the licensee of Station A already owns in the market. This action comports with the Commission's regulations to date because LPTV stations have been exempt from the Local Television Ownership Rule's restrictions.</P>
                    <P>
                        • Under the second scenario, the licensee of Station A still acquires Station B's Network ZZZ affiliation but simply places it on one of Station A's own digital multicast streams. This action also comports with the Commission's regulations to date because the agency has not treated a licensee's multiple programming streams on a single station (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a primary and one or more multicast stream) to be the functional equivalent of operating two stations.
                    </P>
                    <P>100. However, the use of an LPTV station or multicast stream in these manners to air top-four rated programming acquired from an in-market competitor results in the acquiring party's obtaining the equivalent of a second top-four rated station in terms of audience and revenue share in the local market. In this manner, parties have obtained the programming and non-license assets of a competing, in-market full power television station, typically without the need or opportunity for any review by the Commission, as no broadcast station license is being transferred. Further, by acquiring the network affiliation and most valuable non-license assets from the former station, these machinations typically result in the removal of a commercial full power competitor from the market. Therefore, such actions are inconsistent with the Top-Four Prohibition because they allow excessive aggregation of viewers and revenue among top stations in the market, which harms competition and the competitive benefits that flow to consumers.</P>
                    <P>
                        101. While some broadcast commenters characterize the placing of major network (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         ABC, CBS, NBC, Fox) content on non-primary multicast streams and LPTVs as legitimate efforts to improve their stations' programming and to increase the availability of quality programming in local markets, that does not always appear to be the case. Instead, rather than representing genuine attempts by stations to compete better through organic growth, such transactions often appear to be intentionally manufactured to skirt the prohibitions on excessive market concentration. Commenters have identified instances, and we are aware of others that, if not clearly intentional, at least appear to be deliberately exploiting these loopholes. For example, ATVA identifies six markets where Sinclair put a newly acquired network affiliation and programming on a multicast stream where the existing prohibitions would have prohibited Sinclair from putting the programming on separate full-power stations. ATVA also characterizes Gray's use of LPTV and multicasting to cure an apparent Note 11 violation as a “form over substance” move since the end result is still the same accumulation of top-four affiliations and programming by one entity.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        102. We note that, in the past, placing major network affiliations on LPTV stations or multicast streams happened relatively rarely and often enabled broadcasters to bring such network programming to so-called “short markets,” that is markets that do not have enough full power commercial stations to accommodate all of the major networks on their own individual full power stations. Indeed, the Commission has considered previously the prevalence of dual Big-Four network affiliations on multicast streams and expressed its intent to monitor the issue. While in the past such situations were relatively limited, circumstances have changed. ATVA and NCTA state that such network affiliation arrangements and acquisitions are increasingly being used to circumvent the Top-Four Prohibition and its ban on using an agreement or series of agreements to effectuate an acquisition of another station's programming (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         affiliation acquisitions or swaps) by enabling entities to acquire affiliations and non-license assets and placing them on 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12217"/>
                        multicast streams or LPTV stations to avoid running afoul of the existing ban. ATVA identifies 121 instances of this perceived rule circumvention, 46 of which have occurred in true short markets as determined by ATVA. ATVA also notes that several such affiliation arrangements occur in the top 100 Nielsen DMAs, further indicating that they are not limited to the smallest markets where the number of full power stations would be more limited. We agree with ATVA and NCTA that the number of instances where top-four rated programming appears on nonprimary multicast streams or low power stations now vastly outnumber the occurrence of actual “short markets” where there are an inadequate number of full power stations to host each major network on its own full power station.
                    </P>
                    <P>103. The Commission has encountered similar circumvention of the Top-Four Prohibition in the past and adopted Note 11 in response. However, because Note 11's language concerns only stations within the meaning of the Local Television Ownership Rule (full power stations), the existing prohibition does not currently restrict the use of LPTV stations or multicast streams for the reasons discussed above. Therefore, we expand Note 11 by adding the following language in order to address some of the new affiliation acquisition practices described above:</P>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <P>
                            Further, an entity will not be permitted through the execution of any agreement (or series of agreements) to acquire a network affiliation, directly or indirectly, if the change in network affiliation would result in the affiliation programming being broadcast from a television facility that is not counted as a station toward the total number of stations an entity is permitted to own under paragraph (b) of this section (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             a low power television station, a Class A television station, etc.) or on any television station's video programming stream that is not counted separately as a station toward the total number of stations an entity is permitted to own under paragraph (b) of this section (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             non-primary multicast streams) and where the change in affiliation would violate this Note were such television facility counted or such video programming stream counted separately as a station toward the total number of stations an entity is permitted to own for purposes of paragraph (b) of this section.
                        </P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        104. With the above expansion of Note 11, the Commission going forward will not permit an entity to acquire the network affiliation of another in-market station and then place that affiliation on “a television facility that is not counted as a station toward the total number of stations an entity is permitted to own under [the Local Television Ownership Rule contained in] paragraph (b) of [section 73.3555]” such as an LPTV station or any other class of television station exempted from the ownership rules, if the affiliation could not be placed on a station that is counted “toward the total number of stations an entity is permitted to own for purposes of [the Local Television Ownership Rule contained in] paragraph (b) of [section 73.3555],” namely, a full-power commercial station. The Commission also will not permit an entity to acquire the network affiliation of another in-market station and then place that affiliation on “any television station's video programming stream that is not counted separately as a station toward the total number of stations an entity is permitted to own under [the Local Television Ownership Rule contained in] paragraph (b) of [section 73.3555]” be it a .2, .3, or .4 multicast stream, if the affiliation could not be placed on a station that is counted “toward the total number of stations an entity is permitted to own for purposes of [the Local Television Ownership Rule contained in] paragraph (b) of [section 73.3555].” This restriction applies to streams that an entity owns, operates, or controls even when those streams are being hosted by another station in which the entity has no cognizable interest. We believe these changes will suffice to resolve the loopholes identified above and to ensure the efficacy of the Top-Four Prohibition and the public interest benefits that flow therefrom. Our revision of Note 11 to prevent other means of circumventing the Top-Four Prohibition is not a content-based restriction on speech. The prohibition on affiliation acquisitions involving two top-four stations does not consider content but rather market concentration. As with Note 11 when adopted in the 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order,</E>
                         the extension adopted today will apply on a prospective basis. The extension will apply to all applications filed after the release date of this Order and transactions entered into after the release date of this Order. Where their actions have not otherwise violated current rules, parties that prior to the release of this Order had acquired the affiliation of a top-four rated television station and placed it on a multicast stream and/or a low power television station in a manner that would violate Note 11 as revised herein will not be subject to divestiture. All future transactions will be required to comply with the Commission's rules then in effect. Such grandfathered arrangements will not be transferable or assignable. Instead, proposed sales involving such grandfathered station arrangements in existence as of this Order's release date will be subject to Commission review upon application to transfer or assign the license or licenses of the station or stations involved. Consistent with prior applications of Note 11, entities may seek case-by-case examination of such proposed transactions and seek Commission approval to transfer or assign the grandfathered arrangement. Just as with pre-existing combinations of top-four stations that applicants seek to transfer intact, this approach will enable the Commission to weigh potential harms and benefits of permitting the arrangement to continue, including any unique circumstances of the market and potential effects related to service disruption to viewers.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        105. We find that our approach today closes loopholes to Note 11 and the Top-Four Prohibition while continuing to support legitimate uses of both LPTV and multicast streams. We note that our amendment to Note 11 narrowly targets actions by which broadcast stations effectively seek to circumvent application of the Top-Four Prohibition and the need for the Commission's transaction review, actions that typically result in the elimination of an in-market competitor station. The rule change we adopt today does not inhibit organic growth, expansion, or changes in station programming, nor does it impact affiliation changes initiated by a network itself. For example, where a network, absent any undue direct or indirect influence from a broadcast entity, chooses to move its affiliation from one station to another in the market (perhaps because the network is no longer satisfied with the existing affiliate station and the other station has demonstrated superior operation and thus earned the affiliation on merit), such a change in affiliation is not a circumvention of Note 11. A broadcast commenter points out that the Commission declined to restrict instances where a station acquired a multicast affiliation with a major network through direct negotiations with the network rather than with the existing local affiliate. The Commission did state that Note 11 would not apply in situations where a network offers an existing duopoly owner a top-four-rated affiliation (perhaps because the network is no longer satisfied with the existing affiliate station and the duopoly owner has demonstrated superior station operation and thus earned the affiliation on merit) because such a circumstance represents organic growth of the station and not a transaction that is the functional equivalent of an assignment 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12218"/>
                        or transfer of control from the standpoint of our Local Television Ownership Rule. In contrast, circumstances where a station induces an existing local affiliate to terminate its affiliation with its network so that the station can then affiliate with the same network clearly falls outside of the situation described by the Commission.
                    </P>
                    <P>106. In adopting this approach, we reject suggestions that the Commission should eliminate the exemption of LPTV stations for purposes of the Top-Four Prohibition, except in markets without at least four full-power stations. That approach would effectively eliminate the existing provision in our rules exempting LPTV stations from the local television ownership restrictions. When the Commission adopted its rules exempting LPTV stations from the ownership restrictions, 47 FR 21468 (May 18, 1982), it found that LPTVs were limited by their coverage, operation, and secondary status, and that such limitations weighed in favor of “permitting experienced participants in the market to pioneer the low power service.” It found further that pioneering the creation of such low power service outweighed the Commission's traditional concerns regarding multiple ownership. Accordingly, LPTV stations have never been subject to the Commission's multiple ownership rules, nor seen as entirely equivalent to full power television stations. At this time, we do not find that the record supports completely abandoning this previous determination or fully extending the local television ownership restriction to LPTV.</P>
                    <P>107. Similarly, we reject ATVA's suggestion that the Commission prevent a station in a market with four or more full-power or LPTV stations from multicasting two or more streams of top-four network affiliated programming. As the Commission has found in the past, a significant benefit of the multicast capability is the ability to bring more local network affiliates to smaller markets, thereby increasing access to popular network programming and local news and public interest programming tailored to the specific needs and interests of the local community, and we do not wish to constrain this ability unnecessarily. However, the record does contain indications that some entities currently may be using the fact that multicast streams and LPTV stations are exempt from the ownership rules to circumvent the Commission's local television ownership restrictions, indications that are corroborated by the Commission's own aforementioned experience. Such circumvention runs directly against the intended purpose of exempting LPTV and multicast streams, which was expected to benefit competition in the form of new programming alternatives and increasing the availability of network programming respectively. In adopting the LPTV exemption, the Commission believed that excluding LPTV from ownership restrictions would “foster a low power service that can grow to provide program alternatives to full service stations and cable systems in a manner that increases competition in the marketplace and thus enhances the telecommunications service available to the public.” Therefore, although we do not change the Top-Four Prohibition's methodology with respect to LPTV and multicast streams in general, we nevertheless find our action today appropriate to address when entities seek to exploit the exemption in ways that circumvent our rules and result in market concentration, considering both the exemptions' original pro-public interest purposes and the clear intent of the Top-Four prohibition.</P>
                    <P>
                        108. We recognize that in the future licensees may devise other ways to read our rules narrowly or to manufacture transactions that circumvent the intended purpose of the Top-Four Prohibition. At this time, the Commission will not prohibit conduct other than that which we have observed to be circumventing the purpose of established rules, as there remain compelling reasons for low power and satellite television stations to remain transferable and otherwise exempt from our ownership rules. Although the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         sought comment on satellite stations as another type of television station exempted from ownership restrictions through which an entity could air multiple major network-affiliated programming, the record does not indicate that satellite stations are being misused in such a way. In any case, the language of the modification to Note 11 includes any station that is not counted for purposes of the local ownership restriction and is not limited to LPTV or multicast streams as the only possible methods for circumvention. However, we stress that this should not be interpreted as an invitation for licensees to invent creative ways to circumvent the clear intent of our ownership rules, and the Commission stands ready to take further action as necessary. Finally, we note that if an entity believes the Top-Four Prohibition and Note 11 should not apply to its plan to place on a low power station or multicast stream an affiliation or affiliated programming acquired from another top-four station in the same market, the entity may seek case-by-case consideration under the Local Television Ownership Rule. Put another way, just as entities may seek case-by-case review of a top-four combination that would otherwise violate the Top Four Prohibition, entities may also seek case-by-case consideration of an affiliation acquisition that we would consider effectively equivalent to a top-four acquisition and that would otherwise violate Note 11 of our rule. In small markets, the Commission may look favorably upon a request for consideration where, if Note 11 were to be applied, the result would be fewer programming streams in the market than there were before (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         an assignment or transfer of control of a grandfathered combination where coming into compliance with Note 11 would result in the loss of an existing top four stream from the market).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        109. 
                        <E T="03">Broadcast Spectrum Auction and Next Generation Broadcast Television Transmission Standard.</E>
                         We conclude that neither the television broadcast incentive auction, conducted in 2016, nor the related repack of the television spectrum, concluded in late 2020, had any significant effects on local television ownership or implications for retention or modification of the Local Television Ownership Rule. Nor do we find that the adoption and deployment of the new broadcast television transmission standard should have any effect on the Local Television Ownership Rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        110. First, we find that the auction and resulting repack did not significantly affect the ownership ranks or our consideration of the ownership rules. As we noted in the Public Notice seeking to update the record of this proceeding, only 41 television stations permanently discontinued operations as a result of the auction. All other stations involved in the auctions are still available to their viewers because they chose to implement channel sharing arrangements or moved from the UHF to the VHF band. The 41 television stations that surrendered their licenses represented less than 2% of the 2,148 full power and Class A stations that existed at the time. Furthermore, only 19 of the 41 stations that surrendered their licenses and terminated service were full power commercial stations, which represents a reduction of 1.38% of the 1,373 full power commercial stations counted in the most recent broadcast station totals. In sum, we find the impact of the incentive auction and resulting repack of the television spectrum on ownership to be negligible.
                        <PRTPAGE P="12219"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>111. Second, the record does not indicate that the broadcasters' voluntary transition to the ATSC 3.0 transmission standard has any immediate or direct implication for the ownership rules. Although we noted above that new digital services ancillary to ATSC 3.0 could create revenue opportunities for broadcast stations that belie a bleak outlook of the broadcast industry, we do not find that the benefits of ATSC 3.0 have been actualized to the point where we could draw any more direct implications until the new transmission standard becomes more widely deployed. There is no evidence in the record that use of 3.0 allows anyone to own more or less stations, creates any loopholes to our rules, or affects any of the conclusions underlying our actions in this proceeding. We will continue to monitor any innovations and developments that could affect television industry practices or otherwise call into question the premises under which the ownership restrictions were adopted.</P>
                    <P>
                        112. 
                        <E T="03">Shared Service Agreements.</E>
                         We conclude that the SSA disclosure requirement should be retained to maintain transparency as to the extent of common operation between broadcast stations. We agree with the only commenter who mentions the SSA disclosure requirement in the record, who contends that the rule should be retained because SSA disclosure facilitates the Commission's analysis of the broadcast industry and allows the public to analyze ownership diversity in the industry, recognizing that consolidation of operations could limit competition and diversity.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        113. No commenter provides a reason for eliminating this requirement, and so in the interest of maintaining transparency, we conclude that the disclosure of SSAs should continue. As when the Commission adopted the SSA disclosure requirement six years ago, we find that the requirement continues to be useful for the public and the Commission to monitor the content, scope, and prevalence of SSAs, as well as to evaluate the impact of these agreements on the Commission's public interest policy goals. Despite calls from some commenters for greater oversight or action by the Commission, we note that the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         in this proceeding did not seek comment on attributing SSAs, Joint Sales Agreements, or any other contractual relationships between stations in the same market, and we therefore do not have an adequate record to take further action in this order with respect to such agreements. The Commission eliminated attribution for television JSAs and did not seek comments on reestablishing attribution in the NPRM. Several commenters nevertheless call on the Commission to attribute sharing arrangements, which they perceive as a loophole to the ownership restrictions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        114. 
                        <E T="03">Minority and Female Ownership.</E>
                         We find that retaining the existing ownership limits continues to preserve opportunities for ownership diversity, including minority and female ownership. As in past quadrennial reviews, we retain the existing Local Television Ownership Rule for the reasons stated above, primarily to promote competition among broadcast television stations in local markets. Nevertheless, we also find that retaining the existing rule can promote opportunities for diversity in local television ownership. Broadcast commenters state that the best way to encourage broadcast ownership by new entrants, including minority and female owners, is to ensure access to capital by removing rules that impede investment and by incentivizing existing broadcast owners to provide capital to new entrants. As stated earlier with regard to radio, we find that the existing rule strikes the appropriate balance between incentivizing investment in broadcasting and ensuring that station-buying opportunities exist for new entrants in a market, particularly since investment by new entrants is less likely in a market that is highly concentrated. We share the concerns of commenters such as LCCHR, Free Press, NABOB, NHMC, and UCC et al. that media consolidation could further increase entry barriers for ownership by people of color and women by decreasing the likelihood that television stations would be sold to a new entrant. In addition, the Commission has observed some evidence that divestitures and other transactions made to comply with the existing ownership limits have resulted in new entrants, including minority and female owners, entering into local television markets.
                    </P>
                    <P>115. Ultimately, we find there is no basis to conclude that retaining the Local Television Ownership Rule with the slight modifications we adopt above will harm minority and female ownership. If anything, we believe that retention and modification of the rule will maintain a level of competition and multiplicity of speakers that could allow room for entry into the market, including by minority or female owners. We do not find that our modifications to the Top-Four Prohibition will have a negative impact on minority and female ownership as the modifications simply support the competitive purposes of the overall television ownership rule. In addition, the modifications will apply on a prospective basis, and the case-by-case approach provides the opportunity for flexibility in application of the Top-Four Prohibition should it prove necessary. As the Commission has stated in the past, ensuring “the presence of independently owned broadcast television stations in the local market [indirectly increases] the likelihood of a variety of viewpoints and preserving ownership opportunities for new entrants.” We continue to believe this to be the case. Accordingly, we find that retaining the Local Television Ownership Rule as modified furthers the public interest by ensuring the potential for new and diverse entrants.</P>
                    <P>
                        116. 
                        <E T="03">Cost-Benefit Analysis.</E>
                         In light of the lack of record on the specific costs or benefits of this rule, and the limited nature of the modifications we adopt today, we believe that the public interest benefits achieved by retaining the rule as so modified outweigh the potential economic cost of complying with this long-standing structural ownership rule. While the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         sought quantifications of the costs and benefits of its proposed changes, we note that commenters did not provide such quantifications in the record. For all the reasons explained in the discussion above, we conclude that the public interest benefits promoted by the rule outweigh the cost of compliance with the rule. Also, any potential benefits that further consolidation might offer television station owners are outweighed by potential public interest costs to the consumer in the form of harms resulting from weakened competition within the local broadcast television market, less viewpoint diversity in the only entities producing local programming, and fewer opportunities for new market entrants.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Dual Network Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        117. We find that the Dual Network Rule, which effectively prohibits a merger between the Big Four broadcast networks (specifically, ABC, CBS, Fox, and NBC), remains necessary in the public interest to protect and promote both competition and localism. With regard to competition, we find that the Big Four broadcast networks have a unique ability to regularly attract large, national audiences, which separates them from other broadcast and cable networks. And given their large audience shares, the Big Four broadcast networks earn higher rates from advertisers seeking to consistently reach mass audiences than other networks are able to earn. We find that loosening the rule to allow a combination between Big Four broadcast networks would lessen 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12220"/>
                        competition for advertising revenue and likely subsequently result in the remaining networks paying less attention to viewer demand for innovative, high-quality programming. With regard to localism, we find that the Dual Network Rule increases the bargaining power of local broadcast affiliates and enables them to influence Big Four broadcast network programming decisions in ways that better serve the interests of their local communities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        118. The Dual Network Rule states: “A television broadcast station may affiliate with a person or entity that maintains two or more networks of television broadcast stations unless such dual or multiple networks are composed of two or more persons or entities that, on February 8, 1996, were `networks' as defined in § 73.3613(a)(1) of the Commission's regulations (that is, ABC, CBS, Fox and NBC).” Section 73.3613(a)(1) in turn defines “network” as “any person, entity, or corporation which offers an inter-connected program service on a regular basis for 15 or more hours per week to at least 25 affiliated television licensees in 10 or more States; and/or any person, entity, or corporation controlling, controlled by, or under common control with such person, entity or corporation.” Therefore, the rule allows common ownership of multiple broadcast networks, but effectively prohibits a merger between or among the Big Four broadcast networks, ABC, CBS, Fox and NBC. The Dual Network Rule has existed since the 1940s and has remained largely unchanged except for a revision in response to the Telecommunications Act of 1996. In the Telecommunications Act of 1996 Congress permitted common ownership of two or more broadcast networks, but not a merger among ABC, CBS, Fox or NBC, or between one of these networks and the two largest emerging networks, UPN or WB. In 2001, after concluding in its 1998 Biennial Review that the rule as applied to UPN and WB might no longer be in the public interest, the Commission further modified the dual network rule to permit a Big Four network to merge with or acquire UPN or WB. In the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM,</E>
                         the Commission sought comment on whether the Dual Network Rule remained necessary in the public interest to protect competition and localism as the Commission previously held in its 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order</E>
                        . Specifically, the Commission sought comment on whether broadcast networks still participated in the video marketplace by (1) assembling and distributing a collection of programming suitable for large, national audiences, and (2) selling advertising based on this programming to large, national advertisers. The Commission further asked if the Big Four broadcast networks still outperform their broadcast and cable counterparts in terms of viewership and advertising revenue such that they represent a “strategic group” within the marketplace. The Commission also asked how online video distributors and digital advertisers have affected competition for national broadcast television advertising. Finally, the Commission sought comment on whether the rule still promotes an important and sufficient balance between the national interests of the Big Four broadcast networks and the local interests and obligations held by their local affiliates. The Commission received little comment focused on the Dual Network Rule in response to the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         and the 
                        <E T="03">2021 Update Public Notice</E>
                        . In the record, there appears to be nominal interest in changing the rule while a handful of other commenters call for the Commission to retain the rule without modification.
                    </P>
                    <P>119. After careful review, we find that the Dual Network Rule remains necessary in the public interest despite marketplace changes, as it continues to foster our core policy goals of competition and localism. Consistent with our findings in the past, we find that the rule promotes competition in the provision of programming suitable for large, national audiences and the sale of national advertising time and furthers localism by maintaining a balance among the Big Four broadcast networks and their affiliate groups.</P>
                    <P>
                        120. 
                        <E T="03">Competition.</E>
                         The Big Four broadcast networks continue to hold a unique position in the video marketplace. They earn higher and more consistent ratings on linear television than other broadcast and cable networks. With their high ratings, the Big Four broadcast networks in turn are highly sought after by advertisers seeking to reach large, national audiences. The Big Four broadcast networks largely compete amongst themselves for such advertising revenue, and to differentiate themselves, they attempt to produce programming that will generate the highest ratings possible from the widest audiences. We find that such competition for revenue and audience share serves the public interest by spurring the networks to compete to develop and deliver programming that is innovative, high-quality, and of interest to the viewers. If two of the networks were to merge, competition for this advertising revenue would lessen and the networks would be less incentivized to compete for viewers by providing a national television product that is desired by viewers. Accordingly, we find that the Dual Network Rule remains necessary in the public interest to promote competition in the provision of programming suitable for large, national audiences and the sale of national advertising time.
                    </P>
                    <P>121. This conclusion is supported by data that show the Big Four broadcast networks are in a class of their own when it comes to producing national programming and selling national advertising time such that a merger among these networks would reduce competition and would be likely to increase these networks' ability to create barriers to entry. As demonstrated by the data below, a review of both the total primetime ratings of the networks and the primetime ratings of individual shows reveals that, in general, the Big Four broadcast networks consistently attract the largest audiences, greatly exceeding the ratings of their broadcast and cable counterparts. Over the last several years, cable networks, as well as some online services, have produced some high-quality television series that can draw high ratings comparable to the Big Four broadcast networks or reach sizeable audiences. These shows are the result of significant investments and many are critically acclaimed and garner media attention. However, as discussed below, this programming still does not achieve the sort of consistent audience share and advertising revenue that the programming of the Big Four broadcast networks generate. And we continue to find that the Big Four broadcast networks form a unique and discrete group within the video marketplace.</P>
                    <P>
                        122. For example, the most popular show outside of National Football League programming in the 2021-2022 television season was 
                        <E T="03">Yellowstone</E>
                         airing on the basic cable channel Paramount Network (formerly SpikeTV), which averaged 11.312 million total viewers across its fourth season. This cable network show has surged in popularity since its premiere in 2018. However, Nielsen ratings data reveal that 
                        <E T="03">Yellowstone</E>
                         is not only the only program aired by Paramount Network to make it on the annual list of the 100 most-popular shows judged by average total viewers, but also is the only non-NFL affiliated program from any cable network that makes it into the top 70 most-watched shows. The next highest rated show aired by a cable network is the cable network History's 
                        <E T="03">Curse of Oak Island,</E>
                         which ranks 72nd with a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12221"/>
                        3.611 million total viewers average. In contrast, the non-sports programming of the Big Four broadcast networks dominates the list with 25 of the top 30 shows averaging at least 7 million total viewers in the 2021-2022 season. Notably, CBS had 14 of those shows; NBC had seven; and Fox and ABC each had two. Further, of the 39 non-sports telecasts on the list of 100 most-watched telecasts, all but two aired on a Big Four broadcast network.
                    </P>
                    <P>123. Further indicating the unique status of the Big Four broadcast networks, sports leagues seeking to reach the largest audiences generally seek to enter into rights agreements with those networks in part because of their proven ability to reach a mass audience. Due to the revenues they are able generate by packaging and distributing sports programming alongside other highly rated network programming, the Big Four broadcast networks are also in a unique position to pay substantial fees to control the television rights for sports leagues. In return, sports programming historically has generated, and continues to generate, high advertising revenues for the networks in return. Nielsen ratings data for 2021shows that the Big Four broadcast networks carried sports programming from the NFL, MLB, NBA, the Olympics, and NCAA that dominated the list of highest rated telecasts, representing 40 of the top 50 and 51 of the top 100 telecasts. Moreover, based on the same data, sports programming on the Big Four broadcast networks represented 39 of the top 50 telecasts watched by the highly sought after 18-49 demographic. Sports programming airing on cable networks represented only 9 of the top 50 telecasts for the 18-49 demographic. We agree with WGAW that sports leagues have significant incentives to prefer to negotiate programming rights with the Big Four broadcast networks given their proven ability to reach the largest audiences with fewer of the technical issues sometimes associated with online platforms and, in return, have the potential to draw the largest advertising revenues. While we recognize that some leagues are experimenting with shifting some programming online, most notably, the NFL moving Thursday Night Football to Amazon Prime, it appears that airing programming on a Big Four broadcast network continues to be the most reliable way to reach the largest, most consistent audience possible. The continued dominance of the Big Four broadcast networks in offering the premier sports leagues and events demonstrates further that these four networks remain distinct from other programming channels or networks in the video marketplace.</P>
                    <P>
                        124. Comparing data regarding the average primetime rating of the Big Four broadcast networks to the top cable networks further demonstrates the strength of the Big Four broadcast networks. Despite some individual cable network programs earning high ratings, the average primetime rating of the Big Four broadcast networks has remained larger than the audience size for even the most popular cable networks. In 2016, the average primetime rating for the Big Four broadcast networks was 3.78, while the average primetime rating of the four highest-rated cable networks (Fox News Channel, ESPN, TBS, and HGTV) was 1.45—roughly a 62% difference. Because Spanish-language networks reach a different audience (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         those viewers who speak Spanish), only English-language cable networks are included in these averages. We note that if Spanish-language networks were included, it would not greatly impact the analyses or lead us to change our ultimate conclusions. Moreover, the Big Four broadcast networks' average primetime rating was more than four times larger than that of the next-highest rated English-language broadcast network (The CW). At first glance, more recent data show the gap in primetime ratings between the Big Four broadcast networks and either the top cable networks or the next largest broadcast network is tightening. For example, in 2020, the Big Four broadcast networks averaged a primetime rating of 2.54 while the four highest rated cable networks (Fox News Channel, MSNBC, ESPN, and CNN) average a 1.88 rating, which is approximately a 26 percent difference. The average primetime rating of the Big Four broadcast networks was nearly three times the size of the next highest broadcast network, ION. While smaller than in the past, the percentage differences between the Big Four broadcast networks and all other networks remain significant.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        125. Moreover, it should be noted that much of the increased cable network ratings in 2020 were the result of cable news programming that surged in popularity during the election season on Fox News Channel, MSNBC, and CNN. If Fox News Channel, MSNBC, and CNN, which are categorized as more specialty news networks rather than general/variety networks, are removed and one adds the three next highest rated cable networks (Hallmark Channel, HGTV, and TLC), the average of the top four cable networks is reduced to a 1.15 rating, which is roughly a 55 percent difference with the Big Four broadcast networks. We also note that the differences become much greater when one excludes all vertically integrated cable networks (
                        <E T="03">i.e.</E>
                         cable networks that share the same parent company as a Big Four broadcast network). In 2020, the average primetime rating for the four highest rated non-vertically integrated cable networks (CNN, Hallmark Channel, HGTV, and TLC) was 1.16, which is roughly a 55 percent difference with that of the Big Four. We also note that sports and cable news programming is often produced for a more niche audience rather than for a national, mass audience, the type of competition which the Dual Network Rule seeks to promote. If one considers only broadcast and cable networks that S&amp;P Global categorizes as “General/Variety,” the four highest rated, English-language networks in 2020 were TBS, ION, Investigation Discovery, and USA with an average primetime rating of 0.77—less than a third of the Big Four broadcast networks.
                    </P>
                    <P>126. Beyond just the primetime hours, the Big Four broadcast networks also still boast a significant advantage in terms of the 24-hour average ratings, despite an increase for cable networks' ratings in recent years. In 2020, the average 24-hour rating for the Big Four broadcast networks was a 1.97 compared to a 1.15 for the four highest rated cable networks (Fox News Channel, MSNBC, CNN, and Hallmark Channel).</P>
                    <P>
                        127. In addition to the disparity in ratings, there continues to be a wide disparity in the advertising rates charged by the Big Four broadcast networks and the advertising rates charged by other broadcast and cable networks, supporting our view that the Big Four broadcast networks retain distinct characteristics and pursue distinct business interests and strategies, such that they remain a separate strategic group within the larger video marketplace. Recent data show that the Big Four broadcast networks generally charge higher advertising rates than cable networks. According to S&amp;P Global Market Intelligence data for 2020, the average advertising rate among the Big Four broadcast networks, as estimated in cost per thousand views (referred to as cost per mille or CPM), was approximately $23.68. By contrast, the four highest CPMs among cable networks for the same period (ESPN, MTV, Discovery Channel, and Bravo) had an average of approximately $19.39, which is approximately 19 percent less than that of the Big Four broadcast networks. This gap increases if one excludes ESPN, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12222"/>
                        which is owned by Disney, the parent company of broadcast network ABC, and a network with a uniquely high CPM as a result of its sports programming. Without ESPN, the Big Four cable networks (MTV, Discovery Channel, Bravo, and Food Network) average $15.40, a 35 percent difference as compared to the CPM garnered by the Big Four broadcast networks. Of note, the 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order</E>
                         stated there was a 44% gap in CPMs between the Big Four broadcast networks and the four highest CPMs among non-sports cable networks in 2014. While one may contend that the gap is lessening, we still find a 36% gap to be significant. Data from 2017 reveal that this gap in advertising rates has stayed steady in recent years. In 2017, the Big Four broadcast networks earned an average CPM of $21.43 and the four highest CPMs among cable networks (ESPN, MTV, Bravo, and Discovery Channel) averaged $17.46—a difference of approximately 19 percent. If one was to exclude ESPN (and replace with next highest, TNT), the CPM average of the top four cable networks drops to $14.32, which is approximately a 33 percent difference.
                    </P>
                    <P>128. Data on net advertising revenues earned by the various top networks provide additional evidence that the Big Four broadcast networks have a definite appeal to advertisers seeking consistent, large national audiences. In these data as well, we find a wide disparity between the net advertising revenue of the Big Four broadcast networks and the comparable top four cable networks. For example, in 2021 the Big Four broadcast networks earned an average of $3.102 billion. In comparison, the four cable networks with the highest net advertising revenue totals (ESPN, Fox News Channel, HGTV, and TBS) averaged $1.242 billion in estimated net advertising revenues. This represents close to a third of the average amount received by the Big Four broadcast networks. The difference is even wider when comparing the net advertising revenues of the Big Four broadcast networks to the next best performing English-language broadcast network. In 2021, ION earned $463 million in net advertising revenue—nearly a seventh of the average earned by the Big Four broadcast networks.</P>
                    <P>129. In sum, we find that the data support our conclusion that that the Big Four broadcast networks retain distinct characteristics and strategies that drive competition among this group and warrant retention of the Dual Network Rule. We find that these four broadcast networks continue to be uniquely capable of attracting large audiences of a size that individual cable networks and other broadcast networks cannot consistently replicate. For advertisers seeking to reach a national audience, and for sports leagues seeking to reach the largest audiences, the Big Four broadcast networks remain the outlets able to guarantee them a consistent, large national audience. We thus agree with WGAW that the Big Four broadcast networks still operate as a strategic group and their programming is a distinct non-substitutable advertising product for those attempting to reach mass audiences. While on certain occasions, a cable network may compete with the Big Four broadcast networks for high ratings, cable networks have not been shown to replicate the same ratings success sustained by the Big Four broadcast networks.</P>
                    <P>
                        130. While we recognize that there have been significant changes in technology and media consumption in the video marketplace since our last quadrennial review, most notably from the continued growth of online video options, we disagree with the Network Commenters that the Dual Network Rule is no longer in the public interest as a result of these newer outlets. As described above, we continue to find that the mass appeal of Big Four broadcast programming sets it apart in the video marketplace. With respect to online programming, although not directly comparable to ratings for traditional television, lists are routinely published identifying the most streamed series and movies, the overwhelming majority of which appear on services best described as subscription video-on-demand (or SVOD) services. Although SVOD services offer notable original content and garner many millions of subscribers, as their descriptive moniker implies, these services pursue different strategies and offer different value propositions as compared to the Big Four broadcast networks. For instance, the Big Four broadcast networks offer live or linear programming intended to garner mass audiences and funded in large part through advertising revenues. Such network programming is available for free and over-the-air from broadcast television stations (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         without requiring internet access or a paid subscription) as well as on pay TV (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         MVPDs) and streaming online. Conversely, SVODs offer individual, on-demand programming for their customers—generally not live or linear national programming. Further, SVODs are primarily subscription based models, charging viewers fees for access, and with programming intended to drive subscriptions to the service and to retain existing subscribers. Moreover, as subscription-based services, SVODs do not compete with the Big Four broadcast networks for national advertising revenue. As previously stated, the goal of the Dual Network Rule is to foster competition in the provision of primetime entertainment programming and the sale of national advertising time. We find that retention of the rule continues to incentivize the Big Four broadcast networks to compete for viewers by producing a national television product that is desired by viewers. Allowing a merger between two of the Big Four broadcast networks, either based on competition from cable networks or the perceived competition from SVODs, would not promote the creation of more national programming, but instead, could lead to less national programming with wide audience appeal. In addition, we also agree with WGAE that the Dual Network Rule has not prevented the networks' parent companies from creating their own SVOD platforms that compete in the video marketplace.
                    </P>
                    <P>131. In reaching our conclusion that the rule remains in the public interest, we also disagree with the Network Commenters that new competition for advertising revenue from digital platforms and social media companies, supports eliminating the Dual Network Rule at this time. Instead, as described above, we find that the Big Four broadcast networks offer a unique advertising product that reaches the largest audience possible, something that is not routinely matched by either cable networks or SVODs. Indeed, we find that there is still a market for advertisers trying to reach a national audience via linear television. Media buyer Magna states that national broadcast and cable television generated $39 billion in 2021, which marked a 7% increase over the previous year. Moreover, advertising over television is often viewed as unique in that it can protect brand safety by allowing brands to choose when they want an ad to be aired in contrast with less controllable digital advertising where a brand may appear in circumstances beyond the control of the corporation placing the ad.</P>
                    <P>132. Accordingly, the Dual Network Rule remains necessary in the public interest to promote competition in the provision of programming suitable for large, national audiences and the sale of national advertising time.</P>
                    <P>
                        133. 
                        <E T="03">Localism.</E>
                         We find that the Dual Network Rule also remains necessary to foster the Commission's goal of localism. Viewers benefit from localism when an affiliate station is able to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12223"/>
                        preempt national, network programming without fear of repercussion so that the affiliate station can air programming it feels is of preeminent importance to the local viewer. Eliminating the rule would increase the bargaining power of the Big Four broadcast networks over the local affiliates, which would then reduce the ability of the affiliates to influence network programming decisions or exert their own independence from their affiliated network in a manner that best serves the needs of their local communities. This balance is important because the networks and the local affiliates have differing incentives and obligations. Broadcast networks design their programming to reach the largest audience possible as well as to maximize advertising revenue. Local affiliates, by contrast, have obligations and incentives to serve their local communities by offering local news and other programming. The 2022 Communications Marketplace Report notes that “[d]espite COVID-related budget cuts, in 2020, 1,116 television stations aired local news.” Thus, while local affiliates typically want the most popular programming a network has to offer, an affiliate, nonetheless, may wish to offer input to a network on its programming so that it better serves the specific needs and interests of its specific local community or preempt network programming for programming that is important for its local community.
                    </P>
                    <P>134. We agree with the Network Affiliates that the reduction in the number of networks resulting from a Big Four network merger would reduce the bargaining power for affiliates. With fewer networks, affiliates would be less able, if at all, to use the availability of other top, independently owned networks as a bargaining tool to exert influence on the programming decisions of its network, including with regard to program content and scheduling. For similar reasons, we also find that the existence of other networks gives affiliates more leeway to raise locally oriented concerns with network programming or decide to preempt network programming in favor of programming that may better fit the local needs of their communities. We also find that the dual network rule potentially provides a local affiliate with an additional affiliation option should it come to an affiliation negotiation impasse with a network.</P>
                    <P>135. In addition, we find that the increases in affiliation fees paid by the local affiliates to the Big Four broadcast networks in recent years are evidence of the considerable leverage the Big Four broadcast networks already hold in their negotiations with affiliates. And we conclude that eliminating the Dual Network Rule would upset the existing balance between networks and affiliates to the detriment of local viewers. As the Network Affiliates note, networks originally provided content to the local affiliates for free or in exchange for advertising availabilities. However, the Big Four broadcast networks now draw significant sums of revenue via reverse compensation from the local affiliates. Notably, much of this revenue is derived from retransmission consent revenue, at least some of which could otherwise be expected to flow back into local station operations but is instead redirected towards national programming produced by the networks. According to one estimate, total industrywide reverse compensation payments paid by affiliates to broadcast networks have increased from roughly $300 million in 2010 to $2.9 billion in 2017. The Affiliates report that some pay as much as 70% of their retransmission consent revenue to the network, and S&amp;P Global estimates that nearly 50% of all retransmission consent revenue of the Big Four affiliated stations went back to the networks in 2019. We find that eliminating or loosening the Dual Network Rule would only increase the leverage of the networks at the potential expense of local affiliates and their commitment to the needs and interests of local viewers.</P>
                    <P>136. For these reasons, we agree with the Network Affiliates that the Dual Network Rule is a “reinforcing mechanism” that helps maintain the balance between the national goals of the networks and the local commitments of the affiliates, and it thus remains necessary to foster localism. If two of the Big Four broadcast networks were to merge, local broadcast affiliates would have fewer options to re-affiliate with a national network and would have a reduced ability to influence the programming decisions of the networks—at a detriment to their local communities. Accordingly, we find the rule also continues to be necessary in the public interest to promote localism, and we retain the rule without modification.</P>
                    <P>
                        137. Finally, we disagree with the Network Commenters that traditional antitrust protections would sufficiently protect the public interest if we modified the Dual Network Rule to be no longer an 
                        <E T="03">ex ante</E>
                         prohibition. As we have stated previously, a traditional antitrust analysis does not consider the harms the Dual Network Rule protects against, namely, that a merger may “restrict the availability, price, and quality of primetime entertainment programming and the bargaining power and influence of network affiliate stations, harming consumers and localism.” In addition, while a fact-specific public interest review by the Commission would remain, the information and data already before us provide a general picture of what a merger between two of the Big Four broadcast networks may look like, and we find that such a merger would harm competition and localism such that the 
                        <E T="03">ex ante</E>
                         prohibition remains appropriate.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        138. 
                        <E T="03">Minority and Female Ownership.</E>
                         In the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM,</E>
                         we sought comment on how, if at all, the Dual Network Rule impacts female and minority ownership of broadcast stations; however, no commenters responded to the issue. Due to the rule's focus on mergers between the Big Four broadcast networks rather than the ownership of broadcast stations in local markets, and the absence of relevant comment in the record, we find that the rule likely does not have a meaningful impact on female and minority ownership of broadcast stations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        139. 
                        <E T="03">Cost Benefit Analysis.</E>
                         In the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM,</E>
                         we sought comment on the costs and benefits of retaining, modifying, or eliminating the Dual Network Rule with an emphasis on data regarding the economic impact any decision may have. While commenters provided data about the relative market strength of the Big Four broadcast networks, no commenters addressed data as to the rule's costs and benefits. Ultimately, for the reasons explained in the discussion above, we find that the benefits of maintaining the Dual Network Rule outweigh the costs. Specifically, we find that the benefits consumers receive by keeping the Big Four broadcast networks intact (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the increased quality and quantity of national programming; maintenance of balance between networks and affiliates) outweigh the potential costs of the rule, which might include preventing the increased economy of scale that two merged networks could attain.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Diversity Related Proposals</HD>
                    <P>
                        140. Consistent with commitments made by the Commission in the 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order,</E>
                         the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         sought comment on three long-pending proposals that had previously been put forward by the Multicultural Media, Telecom and internet Council (MMTC), only one of which continues to receive support for review in a rulemaking and each of which we decline to adopt today. In the 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order,</E>
                         the Commission stated that it would 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12224"/>
                        evaluate the feasibility of extending cable procurement type rules to the broadcast industry and also consider further the ideas of tradeable diversity credits and two formulas related to broadcast diversity. The Commission committed to soliciting input on these particular ideas in the document initiating the next quadrennial review of the media ownership rules. The first proposal, extending cable procurement requirements to broadcasters, is one we will continue to consider outside of this proceeding. We decline to pursue the other proposals—developing a model for market-based tradeable “diversity credits” to serve as an alternative method for adopting ownership limits and adopting formulas aimed at creating media ownership limits that promote diversity—given the lack of current support for them and the lack of detail in the record about how they would be implemented.
                    </P>
                    <P>141. While, for reasons discussed below, we do not adopt these specific proposals at this time, we continue to look for ways to address the lack of diversity in media ownership and the broader media ecosystem. For example, we recognize the calls in this proceeding to reinstate the tax certificate program in order to foster ownership of broadcast stations by minorities and women, and we urge Congress to heed these requests from both broadcasters and public interest groups alike. Indeed, the Commission has long-supported reinstatement of the tax certificate program, recognizing its proven ability to broaden the diversity of media ownership. In addition to seeking ways to enhance ownership diversity within the broadcast sector, we continue to search for and develop more accurate information about the level of diversity within the broadcast sector. In this regard, as mentioned above, the Commission's Office of Economics and Analytics recently released a white paper on minority ownership of broadcast television stations that will continue to inform our understanding of the television market and the diversity of ownership. As another example, we note that the Media Bureau recently sought public comment on a petition for rulemaking filed by FUSE, LLC, and other public interest groups regarding the establishment of an annual report on the diversity of video programming content vendors. We turn below to the proposals raised in the NPRM.</P>
                    <P>
                        142. 
                        <E T="03">Extension of Cable Procurement Regulation.</E>
                         First, we determine that the issue of whether to extend the cable procurement requirement to other Commission regulatees should be reviewed outside the context of the quadrennial review, which per statutory mandate focuses on our media ownership rules. As part of the 1992 Cable Act, Congress established the so-called cable procurement requirement, which directs operators of cable systems to: “encourage minority and female entrepreneurs to conduct business with all parts of its operation; and . . . analyze the results of its efforts to recruit, hire, promote, and use the services of minorities and women and explain any difficulties encountered in implementing its equal employment opportunity program.” Based on this statutory requirement, the Commission promulgated section 76.75(e), which provides that a cable system must: “[e]ncourage minority and female entrepreneurs to conduct business with all parts of its operation.” The rule explains that “[f]or example, this requirement may be met by: (1) Recruiting as wide as possible a pool of qualified entrepreneurs from sources such as employee referrals, community groups, contractors, associations, and other sources likely to be representative of minority and female interests.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        143. In response to MMTC's proposal, the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         sought comment on the Commission's statutory authority to extend the cable procurement requirement to broadcasters, given that the cable requirement flows directly from the statutory mandate pertaining to the cable industry contained in the 1992 Cable Act. In addition, the Commission sought comment on whether by specifically identifying minority and female entrepreneurs, the proposed rule would classify those entrepreneurs differently from others such as to trigger heightened judicial scrutiny, and, if so, whether such a proposed rule could be modified in some way to avoid legal impediments. The 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         also sought data demonstrating whether the cable procurement rule had in fact had a beneficial impact on minority and female participation, as well as input on the likelihood of similar impacts in the broadcast sector if the requirement was extended, given the differences between the cable and broadcast industries.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        144. This proposal garnered extremely limited comment, with sparse support. In particular, commenters failed to address the substantive statutory authority and constitutional issues the Commission set forth in the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                        . Moreover, MMTC, which initially proposed the extension of the cable procurement requirement to broadcasters, has over the course of this proceeding broadened its request to now suggest an extension of the requirement to 
                        <E T="03">all</E>
                         Commission regulated entities, not just broadcast licensees. Further, MMTC now recommends that the Commission consider the broader request in the context of a new docket.
                    </P>
                    <P>145. In light of this, we determine today to terminate review of this issue in the context of our quadrennial review of the structural ownership rules applicable to broadcasting. Rather, we defer to a later date whether to commence a separate proceeding regarding extension of the cable procurement requirement to other Commission regulated entities. While we will continue to consider this proposal, we note that substantively the issue of procurement does not fall within the ambit of our quadrennial review proceedings, which are conducted pursuant to the statutory requirement to review our broadcast ownership rules every four years to determine whether they remain “necessary in the public interest as the result of competition.” Nevertheless, because the Commission's prior commitment to seek comment on the extension of the cable procurement requirement stemmed from previous litigation before the Third Circuit involving the broadcast ownership rules, the Commission found it appropriate to seek comment on this proposal in the context of the 2018 Quadrennial Review proceeding. Given the limited comment on the extension of the cable procurement requirement in the instant proceeding, the significant remaining open issues, and the specific request to broaden the scope of this issue to all FCC-regulated industries and entities in a separate proceeding, we decline to pursue the issue further in the context of the quadrennial review proceedings.</P>
                    <P>
                        146. 
                        <E T="03">Other Diversity Proposals.</E>
                         In addition to the cable procurement proposal, the Commission also committed in the 
                        <E T="03">2010/2014 Quadrennial Review Order</E>
                         to seek comment on two other diversity-related proposals floated in prior proceedings, both of which we decline to adopt for lack of support. These proposals were described as: (1) developing a model for market-based tradeable “diversity credits” to serve as an alternative method for adopting ownership limits; and (2) adopting a “tipping point” formula and/or a “source diversity formula.” While the concept of diversity credits was not well-defined when initially proposed to the Commission in 2002, the general idea appears to be that a system of “diversity credits” could be created that could be traded in a market-based system and redeemed by the buyer of a broadcast station to offset any increased concentration that would result from the proposed transaction. 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12225"/>
                        The diversity credits concept was further refined in 2004, with the idea being that the number of diversity credits attached to each license would be commensurate with the extent to which the licensee of the station was considered to be socially and economically disadvantaged. The diversity credits proposal suggested that when a transaction occurred that was deemed to promote diversity (and here the proponents suggested a transaction that would result in the breakup of a local radio ownership cluster, or the sale of a station to a socially and economically disadvantaged business), the Commission would award the seller additional diversity credits commensurate with the extent to which the transaction promotes diversity. Similarly, when a transaction reduced diversity (perhaps by creating an ownership combination or expanding an ownership cluster), the Commission would require the submission of a certain number of diversity credits from the buyer, commensurate with the extent to the which the transaction reduced diversity. In 2002, MMTC proposed the “tipping point formula” as an alternative to the approach the Commission used at the time of flagging radio station transactions that, based on an initial analysis, would result in a level of local radio concentration implicating public interest concerns for maintaining diversity and competition. MMTC's tipping point formula was based on the premise that platforms should not control so much advertising revenue that well run independents cannot survive or offer meaningful local service. The source diversity formula appears to seek to measure the level of consumer welfare derived from viewpoint diversity in the broadcast market. It was suggested that the source diversity formula could be used as a thermometer to determine whether a national or local market manifests strong diversity, moderate diversity, or slight diversity. It was proposed that the Commission conduct a negotiated rulemaking to determine what significance to accord to various temperature readings on the HHI for a Diversity thermometer. For example, what temperatures would reflect poor health, versus measurements indicative of strong health. Because many details associated with these proposals had never been developed when the ideas were presented previously, the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                         sought to unpack these dormant issues and asked many specific questions about the proposals. The Commission sought to elicit answers about threshold matters such as statutory authority, key definitions, feasibility, and the continued relevance of the proposals given the significant passage of time since they were initially put forth.
                    </P>
                    <P>147. There was extremely limited comment on these proposals, with most commenters either opposing the ideas or finding the proposals themselves to lack sufficient specificity. MMTC, the chief proponent of these ideas, itself notes that perhaps the proposals are not well-suited for review in a notice and comment rulemaking and might be more appropriately considered in some other forum. Given the sparse record on these proposals and the lack of any additional guidance in the record about how they would operate in practice and integrate into the Commission's structural ownership rules, we decide today to terminate further review of these proposals.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Procedural Matters</HD>
                    <P>
                        148. 
                        <E T="03">Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis.</E>
                         As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended (RFA), the Commission has prepared a Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (FRFA) of the possible significant economic impact on small entities of the policies and rules addressed in the Report and Order.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Need for, and Objectives of, the Report and Order</HD>
                    <P>
                        149. The 
                        <E T="03">Report and Order</E>
                         (
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                        ) concludes the 2018 Quadrennial Review of the broadcast ownership rules, which were initiated pursuant to Section 202(h) of the Telecommunications Act of 1996 (1996 Act). The Commission is required by statute to review its media ownership rules every four years to determine whether they “[a]re necessary in the public interest as the result of competition” and to “repeal or modify any regulation it determines to be no longer in the public interest.”
                    </P>
                    <P>150. The media ownership rules that are subject to this quadrennial review are the Local Radio Ownership Rule, the Local Television Ownership Rule, and the Dual Network Rule. These rules are found, respectively, at 47 CFR 73.3555(a), (b) and 73.658(g). Ultimately, while the Commission acknowledges the impact of new technologies on the media marketplace, it concludes that some limits on broadcast ownership remain necessary to safeguard and promote the Commission's policy goals of fostering competition, localism, and diversity. Based on our careful review of the record, we find that our existing rules, with some minor modifications, remain necessary in the public interest.</P>
                    <P>151. Specifically, we retain the Dual Network Rule and the Local Radio Ownership Rule, which we modify only to make permanent the interim contour-overlap methodology long used to determine ownership limits in areas outside the boundaries of defined Nielsen Audio Metro markets and in Puerto Rico. We likewise retain the Local Television Ownership Rule with modest adjustments to reflect changes that have occurred in the television marketplace. The existing Local Television Ownership Rule ensures competition among local broadcasters while allowing for flexibility should the circumstances of local markets justify it. Accordingly, today we update the methodology for determining station ranking within a market to better reflect current industry practices, and we extend the existing prohibition on circumventing the ownership of two top-four ranked stations in a market. We find that the modifications adopted today will enable the Commission to promote competition, localism, and viewpoint diversity more effectively going forward.</P>
                    <P>
                        152. 
                        <E T="03">Local Radio Ownership Rule.</E>
                         The Commission determines that the Local Radio Ownership Rule remains necessary in the public interest as the result of competition. The purpose of the rule is to ensure competition between broadcast radio stations within a market so that radio owners are motivated to provide the highest quality of service to the public. In addressing the public interest, the Commission notes that competition stems from the premise that the listening public, not the advertising industry, is the constituency that the rule is intended to serve. If radio owners were allowed to acquire more radio stations than allowed by the rule, the Commission expresses skepticism whether owners would be able to maintain the same level of service on their stations given reduced competition. Further, the Commission states that allowing one entity to own more radio stations in a market than currently permitted would threaten the viability of smaller stations. In the Order, the Commission articulates that the rule already allows a generous amount of common ownership within a market and does not limit ownership across markets.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        153. The 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                         leaves the market definition in place because it reflects the type of competition that the rule was intended to promote—competition between local radio stations. The 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                         also preserves the existing market size tiers and numerical limits. The Commission finds that the current tiers and limits prevent consolidation to the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12226"/>
                        level of monopolization or near monopolization in many, if not most, markets. As to the Commission's AM/FM subcaps, the 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                         leaves in place the existing limits, and notes that lifting them would have deleterious impacts on the AM band, including excessive, undue concentration of ownership. The 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                         declines to revise the presumption for certain embedded markets because the existing presumption sufficiently addresses concerns regarding stations in embedded markets.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        154. 
                        <E T="03">Local Television Ownership Rule.</E>
                         The Commission finds that the Local Television Ownership Rule remains necessary to promote competition among broadcast television stations in local markets as there are still market characteristics unique to broadcast television. The Commission also finds that ensuring broadcast television stations remain independently owned and competitive in providing programming that serves the interests and needs of local communities promotes localism goals more effectively than permitting greater consolidation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        155. The Commission observes that the numerical limits set under the rule continue to strike the appropriate balance of enabling some efficiencies of common ownership while maintaining a level of competition amongst broadcast television stations to ensure that they continue to serve the public interest. Likewise, the 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                         holds that the Top-Four Prohibition, and its case-by-case approach, strikes a reasonable balance between preserving and supporting enhancements of the public interest standards of competition, localism, and diversity with occasional incidences of acquisitions under special circumstances that warrant an exception to the prohibition. Reflecting the Commission's commitment to accurate measurements of the industry for purposes of this rule, the 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                         revises the Commission's methodology used to determine market ranking and performance of stations. To preserve the intended purpose of the prohibition, the 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                         seeks changes to the rule that would effectively close loopholes used by some broadcast stations to acquire affiliations from top-four rated full-power stations and moving such affiliations to multicast streams or low power stations.
                    </P>
                    <P>156. The Commission finds that the rule is consistent with the objective of fostering minority and female ownership within the industry. Thus, retaining the existing ownership limits preserves opportunities for greater ownership diversity. Media consolidation, which the Commission believes would increase were the rule to be relaxed or eliminated, would result in additional entry barriers and decrease the likelihood that television stations would be sold to a new entrant, including a minority or female owner. As the Commission observes, evidence shows that divestitures and other transactions made to comply with the existing ownership limits have resulted in new entry, including by minority and female owners, into local television markets.</P>
                    <P>
                        157. 
                        <E T="03">Dual Network Rule.</E>
                         In the 
                        <E T="03">Order,</E>
                         the Commission finds that the Dual Network Rule remains necessary in the public interest to protect and promote competition in the provision and creation of primetime entertainment programming and the sale of national advertising time. Based on the record collected in the 2018 Quadrennial Review, the Commission finds that the Big Four broadcast networks (ABC, CBS, Fox, and NBC) have a unique ability to regularly attract large primetime audiences, which separates them from other broadcast and cable networks.
                    </P>
                    <P>158. The Big Four broadcast networks comprise a strategic group in the national advertising marketplace and compete mostly amongst themselves for advertisers that seek to reach large, national audiences consistently and are willing to pay a premium to reach that audience. The Commission finds that the Big Four broadcast networks invest in and create innovative high-quality programming particularly during primetime that will draw advertisers and thus bring in the highest advertising revenues. The merger of two of the Big Four broadcast networks would subsequently decrease that competition, leaving advertisers with fewer options to reach a mass audience, and would also reduce the remaining networks' need to produce the innovative programming desired by viewers.</P>
                    <P>
                        159. The 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                         also determines that the Dual Network Rule is necessary to foster the Commission's goal of localism. Specifically, the Commission finds that eliminating the rule would increase the bargaining power of the networks over the local affiliates, which would then reduce the ability of the affiliates to influence network programming decisions or exert their own independence from their affiliated network in a manner that best serves their local communities.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Summary of Significant Issues Raised by Public Comments in Response to the IRFA</HD>
                    <P>
                        160. As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended (RFA), an initial Regulatory Flexibility Act Analysis (IRFA) was incorporated in the 
                        <E T="03">Notice of Proposed Rulemaking</E>
                         (
                        <E T="03">NPRM</E>
                        ), released in December 2018. The Federal Communications Commission (Commission) sought written public comment on the proposals in the 
                        <E T="03">NPRM,</E>
                         including comment on the IRFA. There were no comments filed that specifically addressed the proposed rules and policies presented in the IRFA.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Response to Comments by the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration</HD>
                    <P>161. Pursuant to the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010, which amended the RFA, the Commission is required to respond to any comments filed by the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration (SBA) and to provide a detailed statement of any change made to the proposed rules as a result of those comments. The Chief Counsel did not file any comments in response to the proposed rules in this proceeding.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Description and Estimate of the Number of Small Entities to Which the Proposed Rules Will Apply</HD>
                    <P>162. The RFA directs agencies to provide a description of, and where feasible, an estimate of the number of small entities that may be affected by the rules adopted herein. The RFA generally defines the term “small entity” as having the same meaning as the terms “small business,” “small organization,” and “small governmental jurisdiction.” In addition, the term “small business” has the same meaning as the term “small business concern” under the Small Business Act. A small business concern is one which: (1) is independently owned and operated; (2) is not dominant in its field of operation; and (3) satisfies any additional criteria established by the SBA.</P>
                    <P>
                        163. 
                        <E T="03">Television Broadcasting.</E>
                         This industry is comprised of “establishments primarily engaged in broadcasting images together with sound.” These establishments operate television broadcast studios and facilities for the programming and transmission of programs to the public. These establishments also produce or transmit visual programming to affiliated broadcast television stations, which in turn broadcast the programs to the public on a predetermined schedule. Programming may originate in their own studio, from an affiliated network, or from external sources. The SBA small business size standard for this industry classifies businesses having $41.5 million or less in annual receipts as 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12227"/>
                        small. 2017 U.S. Census Bureau data indicate that 744 firms in this industry operated for the entire year. Of that number, 657 firms had revenue of less than $25,000,000. Based on this data we estimate that the majority of television broadcasters are small entities under the SBA small business size standard.
                    </P>
                    <P>164. As of June 2023, there were 1,375 licensed commercial television stations. Of this total, 1,256 stations (or 91.3%) had revenues of $41.5 million or less in 2022, according to Commission staff review of the BIA Kelsey Inc. Media Access Pro Television Database (BIA) on April 7, 2023, and therefore these licensees qualify as small entities under the SBA definition. In addition, the Commission estimates as of June 2023, there were 383 licensed noncommercial educational (NCE) television stations, 381 Class A TV stations, 1,902 LPTV stations and 3,123 TV translator stations. The Commission, however, does not compile and otherwise does not have access to financial information for these television broadcast stations that would permit it to determine how many of these stations qualify as small entities under the SBA small business size standard. Nevertheless, given the SBA's large annual receipts threshold for this industry and the nature of these television station licensees, we presume that all of these entities qualify as small entities under the above SBA small business size standard.</P>
                    <P>
                        165. 
                        <E T="03">Radio Stations.</E>
                         This industry is comprised of “establishments primarily engaged in broadcasting aural programs by radio to the public.” Programming may originate in their own studio, from an affiliated network, or from external sources. The SBA small business size standard for this industry classifies firms having $41.5 million or less in annual receipts as small. U.S. Census Bureau data for 2017 show that 2,963 firms operated in this industry during that year. Of this number, 1,879 firms operated with revenue of less than $25 million per year. Based on this data and the SBA's small business size standard, we estimate a majority of such entities are small entities.
                    </P>
                    <P>166. The Commission estimates that as of June 30, 2023, there were 4,463 licensed commercial AM radio stations and 6,675 licensed commercial FM radio stations, for a combined total of 11,138 commercial radio stations. Of this total, 11,136 stations (or 99.98%) had revenues of $41.5 million or less in 2022, according to Commission staff review of the BIA Kelsey Inc. Media Access Pro Database (BIA) on April 7, 2023, and therefore these licensees qualify as small entities under the SBA definition. In addition, the Commission estimates that as of June 30, 2023, there were 4,236 licensed noncommercial (NCE) FM radio stations, 1,989 low power FM (LPFM) stations, and 8,935 FM translators and boosters. The Commission however does not compile, and otherwise does not have access to financial information for these radio stations that would permit it to determine how many of these stations qualify as small entities under the SBA small business size standard. Nevertheless, given the SBA's large annual receipts threshold for this industry and the nature of radio station licensees, we presume that all of these entities qualify as small entities under the above SBA small business size standard.</P>
                    <P>167. We note, however, that in assessing whether a business concern qualifies as “small” under the above definition, business (control) affiliations must be included. Our estimate, therefore, likely overstates the number of small entities that might be affected by our action, because the revenue figure on which it is based does not include or aggregate revenues from affiliated companies. In addition, another element of the definition of “small business” requires that an entity not be dominant in its field of operation. We are unable at this time to define or quantify the criteria that would establish whether a specific radio or television broadcast station is dominant in its field of operation. Accordingly, the estimate of small businesses to which the rules may apply does not exclude any radio or television station from the definition of a small business on this basis and is therefore possibly over-inclusive. An additional element of the definition of “small business” is that the entity must be independently owned and operated. Because it is difficult to assess these criteria in the context of media entities, the estimate of small businesses to which the rules may apply does not exclude any radio or television station from the definition of a small business on this basis and similarly may be over-inclusive.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Description of Projected Reporting, Recordkeeping, and Other Compliance Requirements</HD>
                    <P>
                        168. The 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                         requires modification of several FCC forms and their instructions: (1) FCC Form 301, Application for Construction Permit for Commercial Broadcast Station; (2) FCC Form 314, Application for Consent to Assignment of Broadcast Station Construction Permit or License; and (3) FCC Form 315, Application for Consent to Transfer Control of Corporation Holding Broadcast Station Construction Permit or License. The change will involve replacing instructions on the forms for the Local Television Ownership Rule, which stated that “among the top four stations in the DMA, based on the most recent all-day (9:00 a.m.-midnight) audience share as determined by Nielsen or a comparable professional survey organization . . .” The instruction's will be modified to incorporate the new standard measurement of “Sunday to Saturday, 7AM to 1AM daypart” in order to more accurately reflect a station's performance in terms of audience share. In addition, ratings data submitted will now need to be averaged over the 12-month period preceding a transaction. The impact of these minor changes will be the same on all entities, and we do not anticipate that compliance will require the expenditure of any additional resources or place additional burdens on small businesses.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        169. As a result of these modified reporting requirements, we do not believe that small businesses will need to hire additional professionals (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         attorneys, engineers, economists, or accountants) to comply with the updated standard under the Local Television Ownership Rule's Top-Four Prohibition. Further, the 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                         delegates to the Media Bureau the authority to update FCC forms to conform with the rule changes adopted therein.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Steps Taken To Minimize Significant Economic Impact on Small Entities, and Significant Alternatives Considered</HD>
                    <P>170. The RFA requires an agency to provide, “a description of the steps the agency has taken to minimize the significant economic impact on small entities. . .including a statement of the factual, policy, and legal reasons for selecting the alternative adopted in the final rule and why each one of the other significant alternatives to the rule considered by the agency which affect the impact on small entities was rejected.”</P>
                    <P>
                        171. In conducting the quadrennial review, the Commission has three chief alternatives available for each of the Commission's media ownership rules—eliminate the rule, modify it, or, if the Commission determines that the rule is “necessary in the public interest,” retain it. The Commission finds that the rules adopted in the 
                        <E T="03">Order,</E>
                         which are intended to achieve the policy goals of competition, localism, and diversity, will continue to benefit small entities by fostering a media marketplace in which small entities are better able to compete and sustain services to their communities. The Commission discusses below several ways in which 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12228"/>
                        the rules may benefit small entities as well as steps taken, and significant alternatives considered, to minimize any potential burdens on small entities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        172. In consideration of the burdens that paperwork can place especially on small entities with limited resources, this 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                         proposes no new reporting requirements, performance standards or other compliance obligations, although, as discussed above, it modifies, as necessary, certain existing reporting forms.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        173. 
                        <E T="03">Local Radio Ownership Rule.</E>
                         In the 
                        <E T="03">Order,</E>
                         the Commission finds that the Local Radio Ownership Rule remains necessary in the public interest. The Commission finds that retaining the rule will foster the ability of all stations, large and small alike, to operate in a competitive environment. Without the rule, the Commission finds that the competitive and business environment for smaller stations could deteriorate due to consolidation among dominant firms, such that many smaller stations may be forced to exit their respective markets. By preserving the rule in the 
                        <E T="03">Order,</E>
                         the Commission states that opportunities for diffuse ownership are preserved.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        174. In the 
                        <E T="03">Order,</E>
                         the Commission preserves the AM/FM subcap limits. The 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                         preserves the subcaps, finding that they contribute necessary support to the public interest factors of competition, localism, and diversity. As to commenters' recommendation that the Commission should dispense with the subcaps altogether, the Commission expresses concern that without the rule, smaller stations could face an influx of larger station-group acquisitions, which would lead to increased concentration of ownership and a race to the bottom for purposes of competition and local content.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        175. 
                        <E T="03">Local Television Ownership Rule.</E>
                         The 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                         retains the Local Television Ownership Rule subject to some small modifications. Notably, the Commission ends the loophole for the Top-Four Prohibition's limit on certain broadcast network affiliation acquisitions through some broadcasters' use of multicast streams and LPTV stations. The Commission modifies the provision in the current rule that determines market ranking and performance according to Nielsen or other substitutable data. The 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                         adopts a “Sunday to Saturday, 7AM to 1AM daypart” to determine audience share “from ratings averaged over a 12-month period immediately preceding the date of application” as the new standard for the Top-Four Prohibition (and in concert with it, adopts the 7AM to 1AM daypart for failing station waivers as well). Further, to accurately measure a station's audience share and ranking, the 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                         establishes a new methodology by which the Commission will aggregate the audience share of all free-to-consumer non-simulcast multicast programming airing on streams owned, operated, or controlled by a station. The Commission believes that this adjustment will better equip the agency to measure stations' performance and competitive strength within a given market. In the Commission's analysis of the Local Television Ownership Rule, detailed consideration is given in analyzing the effects on consumers and broadcasters of the rule's preservation, the rule's absence, or the rule's modification. The Commission's evaluation of small business involvement in the local television marketplace ultimately favors a preservation of a modified version of the rule, as further explained below.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        176. The Commission finds that the rule, as modified, will help to ensure that ownership structures and concentrations within local television markets do not pose obstacles to entry for small entities. The Commission finds that leaving the rule in place will actually allow for more firms, including those falling under the definition of small entity, to gain entry into or to preserve their already existing involvement within local markets as well as to compete effectively against other stations. Preserving the rule helps to mitigate and minimize those negative economic impacts resulting from enlarged market concentration, and in turn minimized competition, were broadcast station groups allowed to acquire stations within markets without reasonable limitation. The modifications established in the 
                        <E T="03">Order,</E>
                         which close affiliation loopholes, work to ensure the integrity of the rules necessary for the maintenance of business environments in which small stations can seek entrance and growth. Likewise, modifications to the provisional standard for the measurement of market ranking and performance will promote the interests of small entities because the new standard will offer a clearer snapshot of what market competition exists among broadcasters in a given DMA.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        177. 
                        <E T="03">Dual Network Rule.</E>
                         The 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                         preserves the Dual Network Rule, which effectively prohibits a merger between the Big Four broadcast networks (specifically, ABC, CBS, Fox, and NBC). By keeping the rule in place, the Commission finds that the bargaining power of local broadcast affiliates, including many small entities, is promoted by enabling such entities to better influence top-four network programming decisions in ways that better serve the interests of local communities. Unlike the Big Four broadcast networks, which design their shows with the goal of producing the largest national audience possible, small broadcast affiliates typically design their programming to serve niche audiences. Such design is indicative of local broadcasters' independence from their affiliated network. Such independence often times is reflective of local content that best serves the particular and localized needs of individual communities. The Commission finds that the bargaining power of affiliates would diminish were there to be a reduction in the number of the Big Four broadcast networks. The lasting economic impacts from the retreat of such bargaining power may diminish local broadcasters' abilities to provide the type of local programming that the Commission believes increases competition for local audiences. Thus, by eliminating the Dual Network Rule, local affiliates would be further displaced from the networks in terms of their negotiating power.
                    </P>
                    <P>178. In summary, the Commission agrees with the local affiliates that the Dual Network Rule is a “reinforcing mechanism” that helps maintain local commitments of the affiliates, and it thus remains necessary to foster localism and the health of affiliates, including many small entities. If two of the Big Four broadcast networks were to merge, affiliates would have fewer options to re-affiliate with a national network and would have a reduced ability to influence the programming decisions of the networks—at a detriment to both the affiliate networks and their local communities.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Report to Congress</HD>
                    <P>
                        179. The Commission will send a copy of the 
                        <E T="03">Order,</E>
                         including this FRFA, in a report to Congress pursuant to the Congressional Review Act. In addition, the Commission will send a copy of the 
                        <E T="03">Order,</E>
                         including the FRFA, to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration. A copy of the 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                         and FRFA (or summaries thereof) will also be published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        180. 
                        <E T="03">Final Paperwork Reduction Act Analysis.</E>
                         This document does not contain new or modified information collection requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Public Law 104-13. In addition, therefore, it does not contain any new or modified information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees, pursuant to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="12229"/>
                        the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198, see 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(4). This document may contain non-substantive modifications to approved information collection(s). Any such modifications will be submitted to OMB for review pursuant to OMB's non-substantive modification process.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        181. 
                        <E T="03">Congressional Review Act.</E>
                         The Commission has determined, and the Administrator of the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget concurs, that this rule is “non-major” under the Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 804(2). The Commission will send a copy of the 
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                         to Congress and the Government Accountability Office pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 801(a)(1)(A).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Ordering Clauses</HD>
                    <P>
                        182. Accordingly, 
                        <E T="03">it is ordered,</E>
                         that pursuant to the authority contained in sections 1, 2(a), 4(i), 303, 307, 309, 310, and 403 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 151, 152(a), 154(i), 303, 307, 309, 310, and 403, and section 202(h) of the Telecommunications Act of 1996, this Report and Order 
                        <E T="03">is adopted</E>
                        . The Report and Order and rule modifications attached to Appendix A of the document shall be effective thirty (30) days after publication of the text or summary thereof in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        , except that any non-substantive changes to Commission Forms required as the result of the rule amendments adopted herein 
                        <E T="03">will not become effective</E>
                         until approved by the Office of Management and Budget.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        183. 
                        <E T="03">it is further ordered,</E>
                         that, should no petitions for reconsideration or petitions for judicial review be timely filed, the proceeding MB Docket No. 18-349 
                        <E T="03">is terminated</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        184. 
                        <E T="03">It is further ordered,</E>
                         that the Commission's Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau, Reference Information Center, 
                        <E T="03">shall send</E>
                         a copy of this Report and Order, including the Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis, to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        185. 
                        <E T="03">It is further ordered,</E>
                         that the Office of the Managing Director, Performance Evaluation and Records Management 
                        <E T="03">shall send</E>
                         a copy of this Report and Order in a report to be sent to Congress and the Government Accountability Office pursuant to the Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801(a)(1)(A).
                    </P>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 47 CFR Part 73</HD>
                        <P>Radio, Television.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <SIG>
                        <FP>Federal Communications Commission.</FP>
                        <NAME>Marlene Dortch,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Secretary. Office of the Secretary.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Final Rules</HD>
                    <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission amends 47 CFR part 73 as follows:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 73—RADIO BROADCAST SERVICES</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="47" PART="73">
                        <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 73 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                            <P>47 U.S.C. 154, 155, 301, 303, 307, 309, 310, 334, 336 and 339.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="47" PART="73">
                        <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 73.3555 by revising paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) and (b)(2) and Note 11 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 73.3555 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Multiple ownership.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(b) * * *</P>
                            <P>(1) * * *</P>
                            <P>(ii) At the time the application to acquire or construct the station(s) is filed, at least one of the stations is not ranked among the top four stations in the DMA, based on the Sunday to Saturday, 7AM to 1AM daypart audience share from ratings averaged over a 12-month period immediately preceding the date of application, as measured by Nielsen Media Research or by any comparable professional, accepted audience ratings service. For any station broadcasting multiple programming streams, the audience share of all free-to-consumer non-simulcast multicast programming airing on streams owned, operated, or controlled by a single station shall be aggregated to determine the station's audience share and ranking in a DMA (to the extent that such streams are ranked by Nielsen or a comparable professional, accepted audience ratings service).</P>
                            <P>(2) Paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section (Top-Four Prohibition) shall not apply in cases where, at the request of the applicant, the Commission makes a finding that permitting an entity to directly or indirectly own, operate, or control two television stations licensed in the same DMA would serve the public interest, convenience, and necessity. The Commission will consider showings that the Top-Four Prohibition, including note 11 to this section, should not apply due to specific circumstances in a local market or with respect to a specific transaction on a case-by-case basis.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <NOTE>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 11 to § 73.3555: </HD>
                                <P> a. An entity will not be permitted to directly or indirectly own, operate, or control two television stations in the same DMA through the execution of any agreement (or series of agreements) involving stations in the same DMA, or any individual or entity with a cognizable interest in such stations, in which a station (the “new affiliate”) acquires the network affiliation of another station (the “previous affiliate”), if the change in network affiliations would result in the licensee of the new affiliate, or any individual or entity with a cognizable interest in the new affiliate, directly or indirectly owning, operating, or controlling two of the top-four rated television stations in the DMA at the time of the agreement. Parties should also refer to the Second Report and Order in MB Docket No. 14-50, FCC 16-107 (released August 25, 2016).</P>
                                <P>
                                    b. Further, an entity will not be permitted through the execution of any agreement (or series of agreements) to acquire a network affiliation, directly or indirectly, if the change in network affiliation would result in the affiliation programming being broadcast from a television facility that is not counted as a station toward the total number of stations an entity is permitted to own under paragraph (b) of this section (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     a low power television station, a Class A television station, etc.) or on any television station's video programming stream that is not counted separately as a station toward the total number of stations an entity is permitted to own under paragraph (b) of this section (
                                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                     non-primary multicast streams) and where the change in affiliation would violate this Note were such television facility counted or such video programming stream counted separately as a station toward the total number of stations an entity is permitted to own for purposes of paragraph (b) of this section.
                                </P>
                            </NOTE>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-02577 Filed 2-14-24; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6712-01-P</BILCOD>
            </RULE>
        </RULES>
    </NEWPART>
</FEDREG>
